DAY – 60 : Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2025 : ANCIENT & MEDIEVAL INDIA

Read about Insights IAS INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Prelims – 2025 [ HERE ] :

DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(GS) [HERE] :

DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(CSAT) [HERE] :

Download MITRA booklet (My Insta Tests Revision and Assessment) – It’s for to track your daily progress while following Insta 75 Days plan. [ CLICK HERE ] :

#### Quiz-summary

0 of 30 questions completed

Questions:

#### Information

Wish you Good Luck! 🙂

You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.

Quiz is loading...

You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.

You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:

0 of 30 questions answered correctly

Your time:

Time has elapsed

You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)

Average score |

Your score |

#### Categories

• Not categorized 0%

Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result

Table is loading

No data available

| | | |

• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Chola institution of Ur and Sabha during the medieval period: The Ur was exclusively an assembly of non-Brahmin landholders, while the Sabha consisted solely of Brahmin landholders in Brahmadeya villages. Both Ur and Sabha possessed complete autonomy from the central Chola government in matters of local taxation and land revenue assessment. The Uttaramerur inscriptions primarily describe the functioning of the Ur, detailing its executive committees responsible for everyday village administration. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) None Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. While the Sabha was indeed an assembly of Brahmin landholders in Brahmadeya villages, the Ur was a more general assembly in non-Brahmadeya villages, typically of all adult male landholders, not exclusively non-Brahmins, though they would have formed the majority. The composition could be more varied. Statement 2 is incorrect. While these assemblies had considerable autonomy in local administration, they were not completely autonomous, especially in matters of land revenue assessment that had implications for the central treasury. The Chola state, particularly under powerful rulers, exercised oversight and could intervene. Their autonomy was in local management and execution within the broader framework set by the state. Statement 3 is incorrect. The famous Uttaramerur inscriptions primarily describe the constitution and functioning of the Sabha (specifically, the maha-sabha) in a Brahmadeya village, including the elaborate system of selecting members for various executive committees (Variyams) through a form of lot (Kudavolai system). It does not primarily focus on the Ur. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. While the Sabha was indeed an assembly of Brahmin landholders in Brahmadeya villages, the Ur was a more general assembly in non-Brahmadeya villages, typically of all adult male landholders, not exclusively non-Brahmins, though they would have formed the majority. The composition could be more varied. Statement 2 is incorrect. While these assemblies had considerable autonomy in local administration, they were not completely autonomous, especially in matters of land revenue assessment that had implications for the central treasury. The Chola state, particularly under powerful rulers, exercised oversight and could intervene. Their autonomy was in local management and execution within the broader framework set by the state. Statement 3 is incorrect. The famous Uttaramerur inscriptions primarily describe the constitution and functioning of the Sabha (specifically, the maha-sabha) in a Brahmadeya village, including the elaborate system of selecting members for various executive committees (Variyams) through a form of lot (Kudavolai system). It does not primarily focus on the Ur.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Chola institution of Ur and Sabha during the medieval period:

• The Ur was exclusively an assembly of non-Brahmin landholders, while the Sabha consisted solely of Brahmin landholders in Brahmadeya villages.

• Both Ur and Sabha possessed complete autonomy from the central Chola government in matters of local taxation and land revenue assessment.

• The Uttaramerur inscriptions primarily describe the functioning of the Ur, detailing its executive committees responsible for everyday village administration.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 3 only

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While the Sabha was indeed an assembly of Brahmin landholders in Brahmadeya villages, the Ur was a more general assembly in non-Brahmadeya villages, typically of all adult male landholders, not exclusively non-Brahmins, though they would have formed the majority. The composition could be more varied.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. While these assemblies had considerable autonomy in local administration, they were not completely autonomous, especially in matters of land revenue assessment that had implications for the central treasury. The Chola state, particularly under powerful rulers, exercised oversight and could intervene. Their autonomy was in local management and execution within the broader framework set by the state.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The famous Uttaramerur inscriptions primarily describe the constitution and functioning of the Sabha (specifically, the maha-sabha) in a Brahmadeya village, including the elaborate system of selecting members for various executive committees (Variyams) through a form of lot (Kudavolai system). It does not primarily focus on the Ur.

Solution: D

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement I: Muhammad bin Tughlaq’s decision to transfer the capital from Delhi to Daulatabad was primarily driven by his desire to escape recurrent Mongol invasions in the north-west. Statement II: The strategic location of Daulatabad offered better control over the Deccan provinces and access to southern trade routes, which were crucial for the Sultanate’s resources. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I. (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is NOT the correct explanation of Statement I. (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. Correct Solution: D Statement I is incorrect. While Mongol invasions were a persistent threat to Delhi, the primary strategic motivations for the capital transfer were more complex and forward-looking. Escaping Mongol invasions might have been a secondary consideration, but not the principal driver. In fact, some historians argue that shifting the capital might have weakened the defense of the north-west frontier initially. Statement II is correct. Daulatabad (formerly Devagiri) was centrally located and offered significant strategic advantages for administering the vast Tughlaq empire, which had expanded considerably into the Deccan. It provided better command over the newly conquered southern territories and access to the flourishing trade of the region, which was vital for the empire’s finances. Other reasons cited by historians include the desire for a more centrally located capital and to consolidate control over the wealthy Deccan. Incorrect Solution: D Statement I is incorrect. While Mongol invasions were a persistent threat to Delhi, the primary strategic motivations for the capital transfer were more complex and forward-looking. Escaping Mongol invasions might have been a secondary consideration, but not the principal driver. In fact, some historians argue that shifting the capital might have weakened the defense of the north-west frontier initially. Statement II is correct. Daulatabad (formerly Devagiri) was centrally located and offered significant strategic advantages for administering the vast Tughlaq empire, which had expanded considerably into the Deccan. It provided better command over the newly conquered southern territories and access to the flourishing trade of the region, which was vital for the empire’s finances. Other reasons cited by historians include the desire for a more centrally located capital and to consolidate control over the wealthy Deccan.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Muhammad bin Tughlaq’s decision to transfer the capital from Delhi to Daulatabad was primarily driven by his desire to escape recurrent Mongol invasions in the north-west.

Statement II: The strategic location of Daulatabad offered better control over the Deccan provinces and access to southern trade routes, which were crucial for the Sultanate’s resources.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

• (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

• (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is NOT the correct explanation of Statement I.

• (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

• (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Solution: D

• Statement I is incorrect. While Mongol invasions were a persistent threat to Delhi, the primary strategic motivations for the capital transfer were more complex and forward-looking. Escaping Mongol invasions might have been a secondary consideration, but not the principal driver. In fact, some historians argue that shifting the capital might have weakened the defense of the north-west frontier initially.

• Escaping Mongol invasions might have been a secondary consideration, but not the principal driver. In fact, some historians argue that shifting the capital might have weakened the defense of the north-west frontier initially.

• Statement II is correct. Daulatabad (formerly Devagiri) was centrally located and offered significant strategic advantages for administering the vast Tughlaq empire, which had expanded considerably into the Deccan. It provided better command over the newly conquered southern territories and access to the flourishing trade of the region, which was vital for the empire’s finances. Other reasons cited by historians include the desire for a more centrally located capital and to consolidate control over the wealthy Deccan.

• It provided better command over the newly conquered southern territories and access to the flourishing trade of the region, which was vital for the empire’s finances. Other reasons cited by historians include the desire for a more centrally located capital and to consolidate control over the wealthy Deccan.

Solution: D

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Regarding the Mansabdari system under the Mughals, which of the following accurately defines the relationship between zat and sawar ranks? The zat rank determined the personal status and salary of the mansabdar, while the sawar rank indicated the actual number of cavalrymen he was required to maintain and for which he received an additional allowance. A mansabdar could hold a sawar rank higher than his zat rank only under exceptional circumstances, such as during critical military campaigns, with special sanction from the Emperor. The system of dagh (branding of horses) and chehra (descriptive rolls of troopers) was introduced primarily to prevent corruption related to the zat component of the mansab. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The zat rank was a personal rank that determined the mansabdar’s position in the official hierarchy and his personal pay (talab-i-khas). The sawar rank indicated the number of armed cavalrymen and horses the mansabdar was obliged to maintain for the service of the state, for which he was paid a separate allowance. Statement 2 is correct. Generally, the sawar rank was either equal to or lower than the zat rank. However, there were provisions and instances where, under specific conditions (like important campaigns or for individuals of high trust/capability), the sawar rank could be higher than the zat rank. This was not the norm but was permissible and indicated a greater military obligation relative to personal status. This often came with conditional increases known as mashrut. Statement 3 is incorrect. The system of dagh (branding of horses) and chehra (descriptive rolls of troopers) was introduced by Alauddin Khalji and effectively re-implemented and systemized by Akbar. Its primary purpose was to prevent fraud in the maintenance of the required number and quality of horses and troopers under the sawar rank, ensuring that mansabdars did not present proxy or substandard contingents during musters. It was directly related to the sawar component, not the zat component which was about personal salary and status. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The zat rank was a personal rank that determined the mansabdar’s position in the official hierarchy and his personal pay (talab-i-khas). The sawar rank indicated the number of armed cavalrymen and horses the mansabdar was obliged to maintain for the service of the state, for which he was paid a separate allowance. Statement 2 is correct. Generally, the sawar rank was either equal to or lower than the zat rank. However, there were provisions and instances where, under specific conditions (like important campaigns or for individuals of high trust/capability), the sawar rank could be higher than the zat rank. This was not the norm but was permissible and indicated a greater military obligation relative to personal status. This often came with conditional increases known as mashrut. Statement 3 is incorrect. The system of dagh (branding of horses) and chehra (descriptive rolls of troopers) was introduced by Alauddin Khalji and effectively re-implemented and systemized by Akbar. Its primary purpose was to prevent fraud in the maintenance of the required number and quality of horses and troopers under the sawar rank, ensuring that mansabdars did not present proxy or substandard contingents during musters. It was directly related to the sawar component, not the zat component which was about personal salary and status.

#### 3. Question

Regarding the Mansabdari system under the Mughals, which of the following accurately defines the relationship between zat and sawar ranks?

• The zat rank determined the personal status and salary of the mansabdar, while the sawar rank indicated the actual number of cavalrymen he was required to maintain and for which he received an additional allowance.

• A mansabdar could hold a sawar rank higher than his zat rank only under exceptional circumstances, such as during critical military campaigns, with special sanction from the Emperor.

• The system of dagh (branding of horses) and chehra (descriptive rolls of troopers) was introduced primarily to prevent corruption related to the zat component of the mansab.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 1 and 2 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The zat rank was a personal rank that determined the mansabdar’s position in the official hierarchy and his personal pay (talab-i-khas). The sawar rank indicated the number of armed cavalrymen and horses the mansabdar was obliged to maintain for the service of the state, for which he was paid a separate allowance.

• Statement 2 is correct. Generally, the sawar rank was either equal to or lower than the zat rank. However, there were provisions and instances where, under specific conditions (like important campaigns or for individuals of high trust/capability), the sawar rank could be higher than the zat rank. This was not the norm but was permissible and indicated a greater military obligation relative to personal status. This often came with conditional increases known as mashrut.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The system of dagh (branding of horses) and chehra (descriptive rolls of troopers) was introduced by Alauddin Khalji and effectively re-implemented and systemized by Akbar. Its primary purpose was to prevent fraud in the maintenance of the required number and quality of horses and troopers under the sawar rank, ensuring that mansabdars did not present proxy or substandard contingents during musters. It was directly related to the sawar component, not the zat component which was about personal salary and status.

Solution: B

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs regarding administrative/military systems in Medieval India: Nayankara System : Hereditary land assignments to military commanders in Vijayanagara with obligations of tribute and troop maintenance. Amuktamalyada : A treatise on statecraft authored by Krishnadevaraya, detailing the duties of a king and the administration of justice. Ashtadiggajas : Eight prominent Telugu poets patronized by the Bahmani Sultan Muhammad Shah I. How many of anove pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs (c) All three pairs (d) None of the pairs Correct Solution: B Pair 1 is correctly matched. The Nayankara system was a key feature of Vijayanagara administration where military chiefs or Nayakas were assigned territories (amaram) in lieu of salary. They were responsible for maintaining troops for the king, paying a portion of their revenue as tribute, and managing their territories. While often becoming hereditary in practice, it wasn’t always de jure hereditary from the outset for all nayakas. However, “hereditary land assignments” is a generally accepted characteristic of its evolved form. Pair 2 is correctly matched. Amuktamalyada is a celebrated Telugu epic poem and a treatise on statecraft and kingship composed by Emperor Krishnadevaraya of the Vijayanagara Empire. It lays down principles of governance. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. The Ashtadiggajas (“Eight Elephants of the Quarters”) were the collective title given to the eight most prominent Telugu poets in the court of Emperor Krishnadevaraya of the Vijayanagara Empire, not the Bahmani Sultan Muhammad Shah I. Bahmani Sultans patronized Persian and Deccani Urdu literature primarily. Incorrect Solution: B Pair 1 is correctly matched. The Nayankara system was a key feature of Vijayanagara administration where military chiefs or Nayakas were assigned territories (amaram) in lieu of salary. They were responsible for maintaining troops for the king, paying a portion of their revenue as tribute, and managing their territories. While often becoming hereditary in practice, it wasn’t always de jure hereditary from the outset for all nayakas. However, “hereditary land assignments” is a generally accepted characteristic of its evolved form. Pair 2 is correctly matched. Amuktamalyada is a celebrated Telugu epic poem and a treatise on statecraft and kingship composed by Emperor Krishnadevaraya of the Vijayanagara Empire. It lays down principles of governance. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. The Ashtadiggajas (“Eight Elephants of the Quarters”) were the collective title given to the eight most prominent Telugu poets in the court of Emperor Krishnadevaraya of the Vijayanagara Empire, not the Bahmani Sultan Muhammad Shah I. Bahmani Sultans patronized Persian and Deccani Urdu literature primarily.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following pairs regarding administrative/military systems in Medieval India:

• Nayankara System : Hereditary land assignments to military commanders in Vijayanagara with obligations of tribute and troop maintenance.

• Amuktamalyada : A treatise on statecraft authored by Krishnadevaraya, detailing the duties of a king and the administration of justice.

• Ashtadiggajas : Eight prominent Telugu poets patronized by the Bahmani Sultan Muhammad Shah I.

How many of anove pairs are correctly matched?

• (a) Only one pair

• (b) Only two pairs

• (c) All three pairs

• (d) None of the pairs

Solution: B

• Pair 1 is correctly matched. The Nayankara system was a key feature of Vijayanagara administration where military chiefs or Nayakas were assigned territories (amaram) in lieu of salary. They were responsible for maintaining troops for the king, paying a portion of their revenue as tribute, and managing their territories. While often becoming hereditary in practice, it wasn’t always de jure hereditary from the outset for all nayakas. However, “hereditary land assignments” is a generally accepted characteristic of its evolved form.

• Pair 2 is correctly matched. Amuktamalyada is a celebrated Telugu epic poem and a treatise on statecraft and kingship composed by Emperor Krishnadevaraya of the Vijayanagara Empire. It lays down principles of governance.

• Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. The Ashtadiggajas (“Eight Elephants of the Quarters”) were the collective title given to the eight most prominent Telugu poets in the court of Emperor Krishnadevaraya of the Vijayanagara Empire, not the Bahmani Sultan Muhammad Shah I. Bahmani Sultans patronized Persian and Deccani Urdu literature primarily.

Solution: B

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points With reference to the Bhakti movement in Medieval India, consider the following assertions: Nirguna Bhakti saints like Kabir and Nanak unequivocally rejected all scriptural authority and established religious institutions, advocating a direct, formless experience of God. Saguna Bhakti saints, while emphasizing devotion to a personal God with attributes, often reinforced traditional varna hierarchies and ritualistic practices. The Alvars and Nayanars of South India were exclusively Nirguna saints whose devotional hymns predate the North Indian Bhakti movements. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. Nirguna Bhakti saints, such as Kabir, Nanak, Dadu Dayal, and Raidas, emphasized devotion to a formless, attributeless God (Nirguna Brahman). They were often critical of scriptural dogmatism (Vedas, Quran), idolatry, caste distinctions, and the authority of established priestly classes and religious institutions, advocating for an inner, experiential path to divinity. Statement 2 is incorrect. While Saguna Bhakti saints (like Tulsidas, Surdas, Mirabai) focused on devotion to a personal God with attributes (e.g., Rama, Krishna), their stance on varna hierarchies and ritualism was varied. Some, like Tulsidas, largely operated within the traditional framework, but many Saguna saints also preached egalitarianism in devotion and simplified religious practices, sometimes challenging orthodox interpretations. It’s an overgeneralization to say they often reinforced traditional varna hierarchies; many, in fact, promoted accessibility of devotion to all. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Alvars (devotees of Vishnu) and Nayanars (devotees of Shiva) of South India were primarily exponents of Saguna Bhakti, as they worshipped personal deities with forms and attributes. Their devotional hymns, compiled in works like the Divya Prabandham (Alvars) and Tevaram (Nayanars), indeed predate and significantly influenced the later Bhakti movements in North India. They were not exclusively Nirguna. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. Nirguna Bhakti saints, such as Kabir, Nanak, Dadu Dayal, and Raidas, emphasized devotion to a formless, attributeless God (Nirguna Brahman). They were often critical of scriptural dogmatism (Vedas, Quran), idolatry, caste distinctions, and the authority of established priestly classes and religious institutions, advocating for an inner, experiential path to divinity. Statement 2 is incorrect. While Saguna Bhakti saints (like Tulsidas, Surdas, Mirabai) focused on devotion to a personal God with attributes (e.g., Rama, Krishna), their stance on varna hierarchies and ritualism was varied. Some, like Tulsidas, largely operated within the traditional framework, but many Saguna saints also preached egalitarianism in devotion and simplified religious practices, sometimes challenging orthodox interpretations. It’s an overgeneralization to say they often reinforced traditional varna hierarchies; many, in fact, promoted accessibility of devotion to all. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Alvars (devotees of Vishnu) and Nayanars (devotees of Shiva) of South India were primarily exponents of Saguna Bhakti, as they worshipped personal deities with forms and attributes. Their devotional hymns, compiled in works like the Divya Prabandham (Alvars) and Tevaram (Nayanars), indeed predate and significantly influenced the later Bhakti movements in North India. They were not exclusively Nirguna.

#### 5. Question

With reference to the Bhakti movement in Medieval India, consider the following assertions:

• Nirguna Bhakti saints like Kabir and Nanak unequivocally rejected all scriptural authority and established religious institutions, advocating a direct, formless experience of God.

• Saguna Bhakti saints, while emphasizing devotion to a personal God with attributes, often reinforced traditional varna hierarchies and ritualistic practices.

• The Alvars and Nayanars of South India were exclusively Nirguna saints whose devotional hymns predate the North Indian Bhakti movements.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 1 and 2 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct. Nirguna Bhakti saints, such as Kabir, Nanak, Dadu Dayal, and Raidas, emphasized devotion to a formless, attributeless God (Nirguna Brahman). They were often critical of scriptural dogmatism (Vedas, Quran), idolatry, caste distinctions, and the authority of established priestly classes and religious institutions, advocating for an inner, experiential path to divinity.

• They were often critical of scriptural dogmatism (Vedas, Quran), idolatry, caste distinctions, and the authority of established priestly classes and religious institutions, advocating for an inner, experiential path to divinity.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. While Saguna Bhakti saints (like Tulsidas, Surdas, Mirabai) focused on devotion to a personal God with attributes (e.g., Rama, Krishna), their stance on varna hierarchies and ritualism was varied. Some, like Tulsidas, largely operated within the traditional framework, but many Saguna saints also preached egalitarianism in devotion and simplified religious practices, sometimes challenging orthodox interpretations. It’s an overgeneralization to say they often reinforced traditional varna hierarchies; many, in fact, promoted accessibility of devotion to all.

• Some, like Tulsidas, largely operated within the traditional framework, but many Saguna saints also preached egalitarianism in devotion and simplified religious practices, sometimes challenging orthodox interpretations.

• It’s an overgeneralization to say they often reinforced traditional varna hierarchies; many, in fact, promoted accessibility of devotion to all.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The Alvars (devotees of Vishnu) and Nayanars (devotees of Shiva) of South India were primarily exponents of Saguna Bhakti, as they worshipped personal deities with forms and attributes. Their devotional hymns, compiled in works like the Divya Prabandham (Alvars) and Tevaram (Nayanars), indeed predate and significantly influenced the later Bhakti movements in North India. They were not exclusively Nirguna.

• Their devotional hymns, compiled in works like the Divya Prabandham (Alvars) and Tevaram (Nayanars), indeed predate and significantly influenced the later Bhakti movements in North India. They were not exclusively Nirguna.

Solution: A

• It’s an overgeneralization to say they often reinforced traditional varna hierarchies; many, in fact, promoted accessibility of devotion to all.

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points With reference to Mughal architecture, consider the following distinctions: Pietra dura involves the inlay of multi-coloured semi-precious stones into marble to create intricate floral and geometric patterns, prominently used in structures like the Taj Mahal. Arabesque decoration, characterized by its use of Quranic verses and calligraphic inscriptions, strictly avoided any depiction of living beings due to Islamic aniconism. The technique of foreshortening, to create an illusion of depth, was extensively used in Mughal mural paintings but rarely attempted in their architectural ornamentation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution:A Statement 1 is correct. Pietra dura (or parchin kari) is a technique of inlaying highly polished coloured stones (semi-precious stones like lapis lazuli, onyx, jasper, cornelian, etc.) into recesses made in marble to form intricate designs, often floral or geometric. This was a hallmark of mature Mughal architecture, with its most exquisite examples found in the Taj Mahal and the Tomb of I’timād-ud-Daulah. Statement 2 is incorrect. While arabesque decoration does involve flowing, interlaced patterns of vegetal forms, geometric designs, and often calligraphy (including Quranic verses), and Islamic art generally avoids figural representation in religious contexts, it is not true that arabesque strictly avoided all depictions of living beings in all contexts. In secular Mughal art and some decorative panels, stylized birds or animals might occasionally be subtly incorporated within arabesque designs, though human figures were rare in such specific decorative architectural contexts compared to manuscript painting. Moreover, arabesque itself is more about the stylized vegetal and geometric patterns than solely Quranic verses, which are a form of calligraphy that can be part of it. Statement 3 is incorrect. While Mughal mural paintings and manuscript illustrations did employ techniques of perspective and foreshortening to create depth, elements of these principles were also subtly used in architectural ornamentation, especially in relief work and the way patterns were designed to appear on curved surfaces or from a distance. The illusion of depth in inlaid patterns or carved jalis also shows sophisticated spatial understanding. It might not be “extensive” in the same way as in painting, but to say “rarely attempted” is inaccurate. Incorrect Solution:A Statement 1 is correct. Pietra dura (or parchin kari) is a technique of inlaying highly polished coloured stones (semi-precious stones like lapis lazuli, onyx, jasper, cornelian, etc.) into recesses made in marble to form intricate designs, often floral or geometric. This was a hallmark of mature Mughal architecture, with its most exquisite examples found in the Taj Mahal and the Tomb of I’timād-ud-Daulah. Statement 2 is incorrect. While arabesque decoration does involve flowing, interlaced patterns of vegetal forms, geometric designs, and often calligraphy (including Quranic verses), and Islamic art generally avoids figural representation in religious contexts, it is not true that arabesque strictly avoided all depictions of living beings in all contexts. In secular Mughal art and some decorative panels, stylized birds or animals might occasionally be subtly incorporated within arabesque designs, though human figures were rare in such specific decorative architectural contexts compared to manuscript painting. Moreover, arabesque itself is more about the stylized vegetal and geometric patterns than solely Quranic verses, which are a form of calligraphy that can be part of it. Statement 3 is incorrect. While Mughal mural paintings and manuscript illustrations did employ techniques of perspective and foreshortening to create depth, elements of these principles were also subtly used in architectural ornamentation, especially in relief work and the way patterns were designed to appear on curved surfaces or from a distance. The illusion of depth in inlaid patterns or carved jalis also shows sophisticated spatial understanding. It might not be “extensive” in the same way as in painting, but to say “rarely attempted” is inaccurate.

#### 6. Question

With reference to Mughal architecture, consider the following distinctions:

• Pietra dura involves the inlay of multi-coloured semi-precious stones into marble to create intricate floral and geometric patterns, prominently used in structures like the Taj Mahal.

• Arabesque decoration, characterized by its use of Quranic verses and calligraphic inscriptions, strictly avoided any depiction of living beings due to Islamic aniconism.

• The technique of foreshortening, to create an illusion of depth, was extensively used in Mughal mural paintings but rarely attempted in their architectural ornamentation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 1 and 2 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution:A

• Statement 1 is correct. Pietra dura (or parchin kari) is a technique of inlaying highly polished coloured stones (semi-precious stones like lapis lazuli, onyx, jasper, cornelian, etc.) into recesses made in marble to form intricate designs, often floral or geometric. This was a hallmark of mature Mughal architecture, with its most exquisite examples found in the Taj Mahal and the Tomb of I’timād-ud-Daulah.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. While arabesque decoration does involve flowing, interlaced patterns of vegetal forms, geometric designs, and often calligraphy (including Quranic verses), and Islamic art generally avoids figural representation in religious contexts, it is not true that arabesque strictly avoided all depictions of living beings in all contexts. In secular Mughal art and some decorative panels, stylized birds or animals might occasionally be subtly incorporated within arabesque designs, though human figures were rare in such specific decorative architectural contexts compared to manuscript painting. Moreover, arabesque itself is more about the stylized vegetal and geometric patterns than solely Quranic verses, which are a form of calligraphy that can be part of it.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. While Mughal mural paintings and manuscript illustrations did employ techniques of perspective and foreshortening to create depth, elements of these principles were also subtly used in architectural ornamentation, especially in relief work and the way patterns were designed to appear on curved surfaces or from a distance. The illusion of depth in inlaid patterns or carved jalis also shows sophisticated spatial understanding. It might not be “extensive” in the same way as in painting, but to say “rarely attempted” is inaccurate.

Solution:A

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Which of the following statements most accurately characterizes the nature of Rajput polity in the early medieval period (c. 750-1200 AD)? (a) It was a highly centralized imperial structure with a unified bureaucracy and a standing army directly controlled by the paramount ruler. (b) It was characterized by a segmentary state model, where power was distributed among clan lineages, and loyalty was primarily to the clan chief rather than an abstract state. (c) It primarily relied on a well-developed system of salaried officials for revenue collection and administration, minimizing the role of landed intermediaries. (d) It fostered extensive maritime trade networks and naval power, challenging the Cholas for dominance in the Indian Ocean. Correct Solution:B Option (a) is incorrect. Rajput polities were generally not highly centralized imperial structures during this period. They were often characterized by a feudal or quasi-feudal structure with significant power vested in vassal chiefs and clan leaders. Standing armies directly controlled by a paramount ruler were rare; rulers depended on levies from their kinsmen and feudatories. Option (b) is correct. The Rajput polity of this era is often described by historians using concepts akin to a segmentary state or a clan-based system. Political authority was fragmented and hierarchical, based on kinship ties. Land was often distributed among members of the ruling clan, who owed allegiance and military service to the clan head or king. Loyalty was often stronger to the immediate chief and clan than to a distant or abstract concept of a centralized state. This led to frequent internecine warfare and instability. Option (c) is incorrect. The administrative and revenue systems relied heavily on landed intermediaries, chiefs, and thakurs who held land grants (bhoga, jagir-like assignments) and were responsible for revenue collection and local administration, rather than a large, salaried bureaucracy. Option (d) is incorrect. Most prominent Rajput kingdoms of this period (e.g., Chauhans, Paramaras, Pratiharas, Chandellas) were landlocked or had limited coastal access. They were not known for extensive maritime trade networks or significant naval power that could challenge the Cholas, who were a dominant maritime force. Incorrect Solution:B Option (a) is incorrect. Rajput polities were generally not highly centralized imperial structures during this period. They were often characterized by a feudal or quasi-feudal structure with significant power vested in vassal chiefs and clan leaders. Standing armies directly controlled by a paramount ruler were rare; rulers depended on levies from their kinsmen and feudatories. Option (b) is correct. The Rajput polity of this era is often described by historians using concepts akin to a segmentary state or a clan-based system. Political authority was fragmented and hierarchical, based on kinship ties. Land was often distributed among members of the ruling clan, who owed allegiance and military service to the clan head or king. Loyalty was often stronger to the immediate chief and clan than to a distant or abstract concept of a centralized state. This led to frequent internecine warfare and instability. Option (c) is incorrect. The administrative and revenue systems relied heavily on landed intermediaries, chiefs, and thakurs who held land grants (bhoga, jagir-like assignments) and were responsible for revenue collection and local administration, rather than a large, salaried bureaucracy. Option (d) is incorrect. Most prominent Rajput kingdoms of this period (e.g., Chauhans, Paramaras, Pratiharas, Chandellas) were landlocked or had limited coastal access. They were not known for extensive maritime trade networks or significant naval power that could challenge the Cholas, who were a dominant maritime force.

#### 7. Question

Which of the following statements most accurately characterizes the nature of Rajput polity in the early medieval period (c. 750-1200 AD)?

• (a) It was a highly centralized imperial structure with a unified bureaucracy and a standing army directly controlled by the paramount ruler.

• (b) It was characterized by a segmentary state model, where power was distributed among clan lineages, and loyalty was primarily to the clan chief rather than an abstract state.

• (c) It primarily relied on a well-developed system of salaried officials for revenue collection and administration, minimizing the role of landed intermediaries.

• (d) It fostered extensive maritime trade networks and naval power, challenging the Cholas for dominance in the Indian Ocean.

Solution:B

• Option (a) is incorrect. Rajput polities were generally not highly centralized imperial structures during this period. They were often characterized by a feudal or quasi-feudal structure with significant power vested in vassal chiefs and clan leaders. Standing armies directly controlled by a paramount ruler were rare; rulers depended on levies from their kinsmen and feudatories.

• Option (b) is correct. The Rajput polity of this era is often described by historians using concepts akin to a segmentary state or a clan-based system. Political authority was fragmented and hierarchical, based on kinship ties. Land was often distributed among members of the ruling clan, who owed allegiance and military service to the clan head or king. Loyalty was often stronger to the immediate chief and clan than to a distant or abstract concept of a centralized state. This led to frequent internecine warfare and instability.

• Option (c) is incorrect. The administrative and revenue systems relied heavily on landed intermediaries, chiefs, and thakurs who held land grants (bhoga, jagir-like assignments) and were responsible for revenue collection and local administration, rather than a large, salaried bureaucracy.

• Option (d) is incorrect. Most prominent Rajput kingdoms of this period (e.g., Chauhans, Paramaras, Pratiharas, Chandellas) were landlocked or had limited coastal access. They were not known for extensive maritime trade networks or significant naval power that could challenge the Cholas, who were a dominant maritime force.

Solution:B

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Consider the role of Hundis in the economy of Medieval India, particularly under the Mughals: Hundis were primarily metallic coins issued by local merchant guilds, used for high-value transactions to avoid carrying bulky currency. The use of Hundis facilitated long-distance trade and remittance of funds, acting as bills of exchange, and often involved complex credit networks managed by sarrafs (shroffs). The Mughal state actively discouraged the use of Hundis as they represented an informal credit system outside direct imperial fiscal control. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. Hundis were not metallic coins. They were paper instruments, essentially bills of exchange or promissory notes, used to transfer money without the physical movement of cash. While used for high-value transactions, they were financial instruments, not coinage issued by guilds. Statement 2 is correct. Hundis played a crucial role in the commercial economy of Medieval India. They served as bills of exchange, enabling merchants to remit funds across long distances safely and efficiently. They also facilitated credit operations. Specialized financial communities, known as sarrafs or shroffs (money-changers and bankers), were experts in dealing with Hundis, discounting them, and managing the intricate credit networks that underpinned their circulation. This system supported both internal and external trade. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Mughal state generally recognized and did not actively discourage the use of Hundis. In fact, the system was integral to trade and revenue remittance, which ultimately benefited the state. Mughal officials sometimes used Hundis for transferring revenue. While an informal system, it was a well-established and essential part of the financial infrastructure, and the state implicitly supported its functioning as it facilitated commerce and tax collection. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. Hundis were not metallic coins. They were paper instruments, essentially bills of exchange or promissory notes, used to transfer money without the physical movement of cash. While used for high-value transactions, they were financial instruments, not coinage issued by guilds. Statement 2 is correct. Hundis played a crucial role in the commercial economy of Medieval India. They served as bills of exchange, enabling merchants to remit funds across long distances safely and efficiently. They also facilitated credit operations. Specialized financial communities, known as sarrafs or shroffs (money-changers and bankers), were experts in dealing with Hundis, discounting them, and managing the intricate credit networks that underpinned their circulation. This system supported both internal and external trade. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Mughal state generally recognized and did not actively discourage the use of Hundis. In fact, the system was integral to trade and revenue remittance, which ultimately benefited the state. Mughal officials sometimes used Hundis for transferring revenue. While an informal system, it was a well-established and essential part of the financial infrastructure, and the state implicitly supported its functioning as it facilitated commerce and tax collection.

#### 8. Question

Consider the role of Hundis in the economy of Medieval India, particularly under the Mughals:

• Hundis were primarily metallic coins issued by local merchant guilds, used for high-value transactions to avoid carrying bulky currency.

• The use of Hundis facilitated long-distance trade and remittance of funds, acting as bills of exchange, and often involved complex credit networks managed by sarrafs (shroffs).

• The Mughal state actively discouraged the use of Hundis as they represented an informal credit system outside direct imperial fiscal control.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 2 only

• (b) 1 and 2 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1 and 3 only

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Hundis were not metallic coins. They were paper instruments, essentially bills of exchange or promissory notes, used to transfer money without the physical movement of cash. While used for high-value transactions, they were financial instruments, not coinage issued by guilds.

• Statement 2 is correct. Hundis played a crucial role in the commercial economy of Medieval India. They served as bills of exchange, enabling merchants to remit funds across long distances safely and efficiently. They also facilitated credit operations. Specialized financial communities, known as sarrafs or shroffs (money-changers and bankers), were experts in dealing with Hundis, discounting them, and managing the intricate credit networks that underpinned their circulation. This system supported both internal and external trade.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The Mughal state generally recognized and did not actively discourage the use of Hundis. In fact, the system was integral to trade and revenue remittance, which ultimately benefited the state. Mughal officials sometimes used Hundis for transferring revenue. While an informal system, it was a well-established and essential part of the financial infrastructure, and the state implicitly supported its functioning as it facilitated commerce and tax collection.

Solution: A

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Sher Shah Suri’s land revenue administration is renowned for its efficiency. Consider the following aspects: He completely abolished the Iqta system and introduced direct collection of revenue in cash by salaried state officials across his empire. His reforms included systematic measurement of land (using a standardized jarib), classification of land based on fertility, and fixing the state’s share generally at one-third of the average produce. He issued patta (title deed) to the cultivator and obtained a qabuliyat (deed of agreement) from him, clearly stating the revenue demand. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. Sher Shah did not completely abolish the Iqta system (or jagir system as it was evolving). While he aimed for greater central control and preferred cash payments for soldiers where possible, assignments of revenue from territories to nobles and officials continued. Direct collection by salaried officials across the entire empire was not fully implemented nor was the Iqta system entirely eradicated in his short reign. Statement 2 is correct. Sher Shah Suri made significant advances in land revenue administration. He ordered a systematic survey and measurement of cultivated land, often using a standardized measuring rope or chain (jarib). Land was classified based on its fertility (e.g., good, middling, bad) to determine the average produce per unit area (bigha). The state’s share was generally fixed at one-third of this average produce, payable in cash or kind, though cash was preferred. Statement 3 is correct. A key feature of Sher Shah’s revenue settlement was the issuance of a patta (title deed) to each cultivator, which specified the area of land cultivated and the amount of revenue to be paid. In return, the cultivator signed a qabuliyat (deed of agreement or acceptance), acknowledging his obligation to pay the stipulated revenue. This system aimed to provide security of tenure to the peasant and clarity in revenue demand, reducing arbitrary exactions by local officials. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. Sher Shah did not completely abolish the Iqta system (or jagir system as it was evolving). While he aimed for greater central control and preferred cash payments for soldiers where possible, assignments of revenue from territories to nobles and officials continued. Direct collection by salaried officials across the entire empire was not fully implemented nor was the Iqta system entirely eradicated in his short reign. Statement 2 is correct. Sher Shah Suri made significant advances in land revenue administration. He ordered a systematic survey and measurement of cultivated land, often using a standardized measuring rope or chain (jarib). Land was classified based on its fertility (e.g., good, middling, bad) to determine the average produce per unit area (bigha). The state’s share was generally fixed at one-third of this average produce, payable in cash or kind, though cash was preferred. Statement 3 is correct. A key feature of Sher Shah’s revenue settlement was the issuance of a patta (title deed) to each cultivator, which specified the area of land cultivated and the amount of revenue to be paid. In return, the cultivator signed a qabuliyat (deed of agreement or acceptance), acknowledging his obligation to pay the stipulated revenue. This system aimed to provide security of tenure to the peasant and clarity in revenue demand, reducing arbitrary exactions by local officials.

#### 9. Question

Sher Shah Suri’s land revenue administration is renowned for its efficiency. Consider the following aspects:

• He completely abolished the Iqta system and introduced direct collection of revenue in cash by salaried state officials across his empire.

• His reforms included systematic measurement of land (using a standardized jarib), classification of land based on fertility, and fixing the state’s share generally at one-third of the average produce.

• He issued patta (title deed) to the cultivator and obtained a qabuliyat (deed of agreement) from him, clearly stating the revenue demand.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Sher Shah did not completely abolish the Iqta system (or jagir system as it was evolving). While he aimed for greater central control and preferred cash payments for soldiers where possible, assignments of revenue from territories to nobles and officials continued. Direct collection by salaried officials across the entire empire was not fully implemented nor was the Iqta system entirely eradicated in his short reign.

• Statement 2 is correct. Sher Shah Suri made significant advances in land revenue administration. He ordered a systematic survey and measurement of cultivated land, often using a standardized measuring rope or chain (jarib). Land was classified based on its fertility (e.g., good, middling, bad) to determine the average produce per unit area (bigha). The state’s share was generally fixed at one-third of this average produce, payable in cash or kind, though cash was preferred.

• Statement 3 is correct. A key feature of Sher Shah’s revenue settlement was the issuance of a patta (title deed) to each cultivator, which specified the area of land cultivated and the amount of revenue to be paid. In return, the cultivator signed a qabuliyat (deed of agreement or acceptance), acknowledging his obligation to pay the stipulated revenue. This system aimed to provide security of tenure to the peasant and clarity in revenue demand, reducing arbitrary exactions by local officials.

Solution: B

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs regarding the Maratha administration under Shivaji: Peshwa : Prime Minister, responsible for general administration and finance. Amatya : Foreign Minister, responsible for diplomatic relations with other states. Sumant/Dabir : In charge of royal correspondence and household affairs. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs (c) All three pairs (d) None of the pairs Correct Solution: A Pair 1 is correctly matched. The Peshwa (Mukhya Pradhan) was indeed the Prime Minister and head of the civil and military administration, overseeing finance and general administration, and acting as the king’s chief executive. Pair 2 is incorrectly matched. The Amatya (or Mazumdar) was the Finance Minister or Auditor General, responsible for checking income and expenditure of the state. The Foreign Minister was the Sumant or Dabir. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. The Sumant or Dabir was the Foreign Minister, responsible for advising the king on relations with foreign states and managing diplomatic correspondence. The official in charge of royal correspondence and household affairs was often the Waknis (Mantri) or Surunavis (Sachiv) who looked after the King’s private affairs and royal records/correspondence respectively. Incorrect Solution: A Pair 1 is correctly matched. The Peshwa (Mukhya Pradhan) was indeed the Prime Minister and head of the civil and military administration, overseeing finance and general administration, and acting as the king’s chief executive. Pair 2 is incorrectly matched. The Amatya (or Mazumdar) was the Finance Minister or Auditor General, responsible for checking income and expenditure of the state. The Foreign Minister was the Sumant or Dabir. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. The Sumant or Dabir was the Foreign Minister, responsible for advising the king on relations with foreign states and managing diplomatic correspondence. The official in charge of royal correspondence and household affairs was often the Waknis (Mantri) or Surunavis (Sachiv) who looked after the King’s private affairs and royal records/correspondence respectively.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following pairs regarding the Maratha administration under Shivaji:

• Peshwa : Prime Minister, responsible for general administration and finance.

• Amatya : Foreign Minister, responsible for diplomatic relations with other states.

• Sumant/Dabir : In charge of royal correspondence and household affairs.

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

• (a) Only one pair

• (b) Only two pairs

• (c) All three pairs

• (d) None of the pairs

Solution: A

• Pair 1 is correctly matched. The Peshwa (Mukhya Pradhan) was indeed the Prime Minister and head of the civil and military administration, overseeing finance and general administration, and acting as the king’s chief executive.

• Pair 2 is incorrectly matched. The Amatya (or Mazumdar) was the Finance Minister or Auditor General, responsible for checking income and expenditure of the state. The Foreign Minister was the Sumant or Dabir.

• Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. The Sumant or Dabir was the Foreign Minister, responsible for advising the king on relations with foreign states and managing diplomatic correspondence. The official in charge of royal correspondence and household affairs was often the Waknis (Mantri) or Surunavis (Sachiv) who looked after the King’s private affairs and royal records/correspondence respectively.

Solution: A

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : Chauth was collected at the rate of 25% of the total produce from territories under direct Maratha control. Sardeshmukhi was basically levied upon the Chauth and was collected to proclaim the hereditary rights of the Maratha chiefs on tax collection. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution : B Chauth and sardeshmukhi were levid by Shivaji Chauth was a levied at one-fourth or 25% of the land revenue or the produce collected from lands within the Maratha sphere of influence particularly in Mughal territories. It was basically a protection money to be paid to the Marathas to prevent Maratha raid and incursions. Hence statement 1 is incorrect Sardeshmukhi was an additional levy of one-tenth of the land revenue collected on lands where the Marathas claimed hereditary rights of Administration or Chiefship (Sardeshmukh) it was an extra tax on top of the Chauth, which further strengthened Maratha control. Hence statement 2 is correct Incorrect Solution : B Chauth and sardeshmukhi were levid by Shivaji Chauth was a levied at one-fourth or 25% of the land revenue or the produce collected from lands within the Maratha sphere of influence particularly in Mughal territories. It was basically a protection money to be paid to the Marathas to prevent Maratha raid and incursions. Hence statement 1 is incorrect Sardeshmukhi was an additional levy of one-tenth of the land revenue collected on lands where the Marathas claimed hereditary rights of Administration or Chiefship (Sardeshmukh) it was an extra tax on top of the Chauth, which further strengthened Maratha control. Hence statement 2 is correct

#### 11. Question

Consider the following statements :

• Chauth was collected at the rate of 25% of the total produce from territories under direct Maratha control.

• Sardeshmukhi was basically levied upon the Chauth and was collected to proclaim the hereditary rights of the Maratha chiefs on tax collection.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : B

• Chauth and sardeshmukhi were levid by Shivaji

• Chauth was a levied at one-fourth or 25% of the land revenue or the produce collected from lands within the Maratha sphere of influence particularly in Mughal territories.

• It was basically a protection money to be paid to the Marathas to prevent Maratha raid and incursions.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• Sardeshmukhi was an additional levy of one-tenth of the land revenue collected on lands where the Marathas claimed hereditary rights of Administration or Chiefship (Sardeshmukh)

• it was an extra tax on top of the Chauth, which further strengthened Maratha control.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Solution : B

• Chauth and sardeshmukhi were levid by Shivaji

• Chauth was a levied at one-fourth or 25% of the land revenue or the produce collected from lands within the Maratha sphere of influence particularly in Mughal territories.

• It was basically a protection money to be paid to the Marathas to prevent Maratha raid and incursions.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• Sardeshmukhi was an additional levy of one-tenth of the land revenue collected on lands where the Marathas claimed hereditary rights of Administration or Chiefship (Sardeshmukh)

• it was an extra tax on top of the Chauth, which further strengthened Maratha control.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs: Dynasty : Associated Ruler Somavamsi dynasty : Janamejaya I Paramara dynasty : Krishna I Chandela dynasty : Nannuka Chahamana dynasty: Simharaja How many of the pairs given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C The Somavamsi dynasty was founded by Janamejaya I, also known as Mahashivagupta I. He is considered real founder of the dynasty in western Odisha during the 9th century CE He played a major role in spread of Shaivism in the region. The Chaudwar inscription mentions about him and his rule over Koshala. Hence pair 1 is correct The Paramara dynasty was established by king Upendra. It was a prominent Rajput kingdom that ruled Malwa region from the 9th to 14th centuries. Dhar was their capital ; they originally belonged to Agnivansha lineage, a group of Rajput clans. Hence pair 2 is incorrect The Chandela dynasty was founded by Nannuka in 831 AD. The Chandela was a powerful ruling dynasty of medieval period They ruled from Bundelkhand present day Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Prades, between 9th and 13th centuries; they had their capital at Khajuraho. Hence pair 3 is correct The Chahamanas of Shakambhari or the Chauhans, rule in present day Rajasthan and neighbouring areas between 7th and 11th centuries CE They were the most prominent ruling family of the Chahamana clan. The dynasty was founded by Simharaja in the 10th century, who adopted the title maharajadhiraja. Hence pair 4 is correct Incorrect Solution: C The Somavamsi dynasty was founded by Janamejaya I, also known as Mahashivagupta I. He is considered real founder of the dynasty in western Odisha during the 9th century CE He played a major role in spread of Shaivism in the region. The Chaudwar inscription mentions about him and his rule over Koshala. Hence pair 1 is correct The Paramara dynasty was established by king Upendra. It was a prominent Rajput kingdom that ruled Malwa region from the 9th to 14th centuries. Dhar was their capital ; they originally belonged to Agnivansha lineage, a group of Rajput clans. Hence pair 2 is incorrect The Chandela dynasty was founded by Nannuka in 831 AD. The Chandela was a powerful ruling dynasty of medieval period They ruled from Bundelkhand present day Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Prades, between 9th and 13th centuries; they had their capital at Khajuraho. Hence pair 3 is correct The Chahamanas of Shakambhari or the Chauhans, rule in present day Rajasthan and neighbouring areas between 7th and 11th centuries CE They were the most prominent ruling family of the Chahamana clan. The dynasty was founded by Simharaja in the 10th century, who adopted the title maharajadhiraja. Hence pair 4 is correct

#### 12. Question

Consider the following pairs:

Dynasty : Associated Ruler

• Somavamsi dynasty : Janamejaya I

• Paramara dynasty : Krishna I

• Chandela dynasty : Nannuka

• Chahamana dynasty: Simharaja

How many of the pairs given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

• The Somavamsi dynasty was founded by Janamejaya I, also known as Mahashivagupta I.

• He is considered real founder of the dynasty in western Odisha during the 9th century CE

• He played a major role in spread of Shaivism in the region.

• The Chaudwar inscription mentions about him and his rule over Koshala.

Hence pair 1 is correct

• The Paramara dynasty was established by king Upendra.

• It was a prominent Rajput kingdom that ruled Malwa region from the 9th to 14th centuries.

• Dhar was their capital ; they originally belonged to Agnivansha lineage, a group of Rajput clans.

Hence pair 2 is incorrect

• The Chandela dynasty was founded by Nannuka in 831 AD.

• The Chandela was a powerful ruling dynasty of medieval period

• They ruled from Bundelkhand present day Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Prades, between 9th and 13th centuries; they had their capital at Khajuraho.

Hence pair 3 is correct

• The Chahamanas of Shakambhari or the Chauhans, rule in present day Rajasthan and neighbouring areas between 7th and 11th centuries CE

• They were the most prominent ruling family of the Chahamana clan.

• The dynasty was founded by Simharaja in the 10th century, who adopted the title maharajadhiraja.

Hence pair 4 is correct

Solution: C

• The Somavamsi dynasty was founded by Janamejaya I, also known as Mahashivagupta I.

• He is considered real founder of the dynasty in western Odisha during the 9th century CE

• He played a major role in spread of Shaivism in the region.

• The Chaudwar inscription mentions about him and his rule over Koshala.

Hence pair 1 is correct

• The Paramara dynasty was established by king Upendra.

• It was a prominent Rajput kingdom that ruled Malwa region from the 9th to 14th centuries.

• Dhar was their capital ; they originally belonged to Agnivansha lineage, a group of Rajput clans.

Hence pair 2 is incorrect

• The Chandela dynasty was founded by Nannuka in 831 AD.

• The Chandela was a powerful ruling dynasty of medieval period

• They ruled from Bundelkhand present day Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Prades, between 9th and 13th centuries; they had their capital at Khajuraho.

Hence pair 3 is correct

• The Chahamanas of Shakambhari or the Chauhans, rule in present day Rajasthan and neighbouring areas between 7th and 11th centuries CE

• They were the most prominent ruling family of the Chahamana clan.

• The dynasty was founded by Simharaja in the 10th century, who adopted the title maharajadhiraja.

Hence pair 4 is correct

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Chola dynasty : Agraharams were rent-free villages inhabited by brahmanas only. The affairs of Agraharams were managed by executive committees whose members were nominated by the king himself from amongst the senior members of the villages. Adult men in Agraharams gathered in Mahasabha for the purpose of selection of representatives from the villages to the Royal Court to place demands for grants. Which of the statement given above is/are correct? (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 only Correct Solution : B During the Chola period there were two types of villages – villages inhabited by Brahmanas and village inhabited by others. The former were known as Agraharams. Agraharams were villages with Brahmin settlements in which most of the land was rent free. Agraharams enjoyed a large measure of autonomy the affairs of the village where managed by an executive committee. Hence statement 1 is correct The affairs of Agraharam villages were managed by an executive committee to which educated persons owning property were elected either by drawing lots or by rotation. The members had to retire every 3 years. Hence statement 2 is incorrect In such villages there were many other committees for helping in assessment and collection of land revenue, maintenance of law and order, justice and so on. Mahasabha was the gathering of adult men in the Agraharams. The Mahasabha was an important committee that could distribute New lands and exercise ownership rights over them; it could also raise loans for the village and levy taxes. Hence statement 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution : B During the Chola period there were two types of villages – villages inhabited by Brahmanas and village inhabited by others. The former were known as Agraharams. Agraharams were villages with Brahmin settlements in which most of the land was rent free. Agraharams enjoyed a large measure of autonomy the affairs of the village where managed by an executive committee. Hence statement 1 is correct The affairs of Agraharam villages were managed by an executive committee to which educated persons owning property were elected either by drawing lots or by rotation. The members had to retire every 3 years. Hence statement 2 is incorrect In such villages there were many other committees for helping in assessment and collection of land revenue, maintenance of law and order, justice and so on. Mahasabha was the gathering of adult men in the Agraharams. The Mahasabha was an important committee that could distribute New lands and exercise ownership rights over them; it could also raise loans for the village and levy taxes. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

#### 13. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Chola dynasty :

• Agraharams were rent-free villages inhabited by brahmanas only.

• The affairs of Agraharams were managed by executive committees whose members were nominated by the king himself from amongst the senior members of the villages.

• Adult men in Agraharams gathered in Mahasabha for the purpose of selection of representatives from the villages to the Royal Court to place demands for grants.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

• (a) 2 and 3 only

• (b) 1 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3

• (d) 3 only

Solution : B

• During the Chola period there were two types of villages – villages inhabited by Brahmanas and village inhabited by others. The former were known as Agraharams.

• Agraharams were villages with Brahmin settlements in which most of the land was rent free.

• Agraharams enjoyed a large measure of autonomy the affairs of the village where managed by an executive committee.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The affairs of Agraharam villages were managed by an executive committee to which educated persons owning property were elected either by drawing lots or by rotation.

• The members had to retire every 3 years.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• In such villages there were many other committees for helping in assessment and collection of land revenue, maintenance of law and order, justice and so on.

• Mahasabha was the gathering of adult men in the Agraharams.

• The Mahasabha was an important committee that could distribute New lands and exercise ownership rights over them; it could also raise loans for the village and levy taxes.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution : B

• During the Chola period there were two types of villages – villages inhabited by Brahmanas and village inhabited by others. The former were known as Agraharams.

• Agraharams were villages with Brahmin settlements in which most of the land was rent free.

• Agraharams enjoyed a large measure of autonomy the affairs of the village where managed by an executive committee.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The affairs of Agraharam villages were managed by an executive committee to which educated persons owning property were elected either by drawing lots or by rotation.

• The members had to retire every 3 years.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• In such villages there were many other committees for helping in assessment and collection of land revenue, maintenance of law and order, justice and so on.

• Mahasabha was the gathering of adult men in the Agraharams.

• The Mahasabha was an important committee that could distribute New lands and exercise ownership rights over them; it could also raise loans for the village and levy taxes.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Rashtrakutas : Dantivarman II established the Rashtrakuta Dynasty after defeating Chalukya ruler Kirtivarman II. Govinda III founded the city of Manyakheta on the banks of Krishna river. Krishna III annexed northern part of the Chola Empire after defeating Parantaka I. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The Rashtrakuta was a prominent Kingdom in the Deccan It was founded by Dantidurga or Dantivarman II who overthrew the Chalukyan ruler Kirtivarman II and established an independent Kingdom in the Deccan region with the capital at Manyakhet near modern Solapur. Hence statement 1 is correct The city of Manyakheta is located on the banks of Kagina river are tributary of River Bhima, in Karnataka. It was built by Rashtrakuta ruler Amogvarsha Hence statement 2 is incorrect Krishna III was the last in line of brilliant Rashtrakuta rulers He launched a campaign against the Cholas of Tanjore and defeated Chola King Parantaka I in 949AD and annexed northern part of the Chola Empire. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: B The Rashtrakuta was a prominent Kingdom in the Deccan It was founded by Dantidurga or Dantivarman II who overthrew the Chalukyan ruler Kirtivarman II and established an independent Kingdom in the Deccan region with the capital at Manyakhet near modern Solapur. Hence statement 1 is correct The city of Manyakheta is located on the banks of Kagina river are tributary of River Bhima, in Karnataka. It was built by Rashtrakuta ruler Amogvarsha Hence statement 2 is incorrect Krishna III was the last in line of brilliant Rashtrakuta rulers He launched a campaign against the Cholas of Tanjore and defeated Chola King Parantaka I in 949AD and annexed northern part of the Chola Empire. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 14. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Rashtrakutas :

• Dantivarman II established the Rashtrakuta Dynasty after defeating Chalukya ruler Kirtivarman II.

• Govinda III founded the city of Manyakheta on the banks of Krishna river.

• Krishna III annexed northern part of the Chola Empire after defeating Parantaka I.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• The Rashtrakuta was a prominent Kingdom in the Deccan

• It was founded by Dantidurga or Dantivarman II who overthrew the Chalukyan ruler Kirtivarman II and established an independent Kingdom in the Deccan region with the capital at Manyakhet near modern Solapur.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The city of Manyakheta is located on the banks of Kagina river are tributary of River Bhima, in Karnataka.

• It was built by Rashtrakuta ruler Amogvarsha

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Krishna III was the last in line of brilliant Rashtrakuta rulers

• He launched a campaign against the Cholas of Tanjore and defeated Chola King Parantaka I in 949AD and annexed northern part of the Chola Empire.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: B

• The Rashtrakuta was a prominent Kingdom in the Deccan

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The city of Manyakheta is located on the banks of Kagina river are tributary of River Bhima, in Karnataka.

• It was built by Rashtrakuta ruler Amogvarsha

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Krishna III was the last in line of brilliant Rashtrakuta rulers

• He launched a campaign against the Cholas of Tanjore and defeated Chola King Parantaka I in 949AD and annexed northern part of the Chola Empire.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Batai System: Under the system, 50% of the produce could be retained by the cultivators. In case of cash crops like cotton and sugarcane the peasants had to pay in kind only. Batai was applicable to Chachar lands only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution : C Batai or Galla-bakshi was the most common and oldest revenue system prevalent under Akbar. Under it the produce was divided between the peasants and the state in fixed proportions. Hence statement 1 is correct Under batai, the peasants were given the choice of paying in cash or kind; though the state preferred cash. In case of crops like cotton, Indigo, oil seeds and sugarcane, the state demand was invariably in cash; these were called cash crops. Chachar was the land that had been fallow for two or three years; batai was not applicable usually on these types of lands as it was a regular source of revenue for the state. Hence statements 2 and 3 are incorrect Incorrect Solution : C Batai or Galla-bakshi was the most common and oldest revenue system prevalent under Akbar. Under it the produce was divided between the peasants and the state in fixed proportions. Hence statement 1 is correct Under batai, the peasants were given the choice of paying in cash or kind; though the state preferred cash. In case of crops like cotton, Indigo, oil seeds and sugarcane, the state demand was invariably in cash; these were called cash crops. Chachar was the land that had been fallow for two or three years; batai was not applicable usually on these types of lands as it was a regular source of revenue for the state. Hence statements 2 and 3 are incorrect

#### 15. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Batai System:

• Under the system, 50% of the produce could be retained by the cultivators.

• In case of cash crops like cotton and sugarcane the peasants had to pay in kind only.

• Batai was applicable to Chachar lands only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution : C

• Batai or Galla-bakshi was the most common and oldest revenue system prevalent under Akbar.

• Under it the produce was divided between the peasants and the state in fixed proportions.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Under batai, the peasants were given the choice of paying in cash or kind; though the state preferred cash.

• In case of crops like cotton, Indigo, oil seeds and sugarcane, the state demand was invariably in cash; these were called cash crops.

• Chachar was the land that had been fallow for two or three years; batai was not applicable usually on these types of lands as it was a regular source of revenue for the state.

Hence statements 2 and 3 are incorrect

Solution : C

• Batai or Galla-bakshi was the most common and oldest revenue system prevalent under Akbar.

• Under it the produce was divided between the peasants and the state in fixed proportions.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Under batai, the peasants were given the choice of paying in cash or kind; though the state preferred cash.

• In case of crops like cotton, Indigo, oil seeds and sugarcane, the state demand was invariably in cash; these were called cash crops.

• Chachar was the land that had been fallow for two or three years; batai was not applicable usually on these types of lands as it was a regular source of revenue for the state.

Hence statements 2 and 3 are incorrect

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Who among the following rulers wrote a book on polity in which he advises the king that “with great care and according to your power you should attend to the work of protecting (the good) and punishing (the wicked) without neglecting anything that you see or hear” ? (a) Rajaraja I (b) Krishna Deva Raya (c) Narasimha Arman I (d) Pulakeshin II Correct Solution : B Krishna Deva Raya (1471-1529) wrote a book on polity in which he advises the king that “with great care and according to your power you should attend to the work of protecting (the good) and punishing (the wicked) without neglecting anything that you see or hear”. He was an accomplished scholar and wrote the book on polity- Amuktamalyada. He was the most famous and accomplished ruler of Vijayanagar dynasty; under him, Vijayanagar emerged as the strongest military power in the south. He was the third ruler of the Tuluva dynasty. He was also rated as the most powerful ruler with most extensive empire in the subcontinent by Mughal emperor Babur. Hence option B is correct Incorrect Solution : B Krishna Deva Raya (1471-1529) wrote a book on polity in which he advises the king that “with great care and according to your power you should attend to the work of protecting (the good) and punishing (the wicked) without neglecting anything that you see or hear”. He was an accomplished scholar and wrote the book on polity- Amuktamalyada. He was the most famous and accomplished ruler of Vijayanagar dynasty; under him, Vijayanagar emerged as the strongest military power in the south. He was the third ruler of the Tuluva dynasty. He was also rated as the most powerful ruler with most extensive empire in the subcontinent by Mughal emperor Babur. Hence option B is correct

#### 16. Question

Who among the following rulers wrote a book on polity in which he advises the king that “with great care and according to your power you should attend to the work of protecting (the good) and punishing (the wicked) without neglecting anything that you see or hear” ?

• (a) Rajaraja I

• (b) Krishna Deva Raya

• (c) Narasimha Arman I

• (d) Pulakeshin II

Solution : B

• Krishna Deva Raya (1471-1529) wrote a book on polity in which he advises the king that “with great care and according to your power you should attend to the work of protecting (the good) and punishing (the wicked) without neglecting anything that you see or hear”.

• He was an accomplished scholar and wrote the book on polity- Amuktamalyada.

• He was the most famous and accomplished ruler of Vijayanagar dynasty; under him, Vijayanagar emerged as the strongest military power in the south.

• He was the third ruler of the Tuluva dynasty.

• He was also rated as the most powerful ruler with most extensive empire in the subcontinent by Mughal emperor Babur.

Hence option B is correct

Solution : B

• He was an accomplished scholar and wrote the book on polity- Amuktamalyada.

• He was the most famous and accomplished ruler of Vijayanagar dynasty; under him, Vijayanagar emerged as the strongest military power in the south.

• He was the third ruler of the Tuluva dynasty.

• He was also rated as the most powerful ruler with most extensive empire in the subcontinent by Mughal emperor Babur.

Hence option B is correct

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points With reference to medieval India under the Mughals, consider the following statements : Hundis were token currency in copper with royal emblem, specifically used for interstate trade purposes. The Shroffs, who specialised in changing money and acted as private banks, also specialised in dealing with Hundis. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B During the Mughal period movement of goods was facilitated by the growth of a financial system which permitted easy transmission of money from one part of the country to another; this was facilitated by the use of hundis Hundi was a letter of credit payable after a period of time at a discount. The Hundis often included insurance which was charged at different rates on the basis of value of the goods, destination, means of transport (land, river or sea) , etc. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The Sarrafs or Shroffs who specialised in changing money also specialised in dealing with hundis. In the process they acted as private banks They kept money in deposit from the nobles and lent it By means of hundis, they created credit which supplemented the money in circulation since yhe merchant could cash his hundi after he had sold his goods at the point of his destination. Hence statement 2 is correct Incorrect Solution: B During the Mughal period movement of goods was facilitated by the growth of a financial system which permitted easy transmission of money from one part of the country to another; this was facilitated by the use of hundis Hundi was a letter of credit payable after a period of time at a discount. The Hundis often included insurance which was charged at different rates on the basis of value of the goods, destination, means of transport (land, river or sea) , etc. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The Sarrafs or Shroffs who specialised in changing money also specialised in dealing with hundis. In the process they acted as private banks They kept money in deposit from the nobles and lent it By means of hundis, they created credit which supplemented the money in circulation since yhe merchant could cash his hundi after he had sold his goods at the point of his destination. Hence statement 2 is correct

#### 17. Question

With reference to medieval India under the Mughals, consider the following statements :

• Hundis were token currency in copper with royal emblem, specifically used for interstate trade purposes.

• The Shroffs, who specialised in changing money and acted as private banks, also specialised in dealing with Hundis.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

• During the Mughal period movement of goods was facilitated by the growth of a financial system which permitted easy transmission of money from one part of the country to another; this was facilitated by the use of hundis

• Hundi was a letter of credit payable after a period of time at a discount.

• The Hundis often included insurance which was charged at different rates on the basis of value of the goods, destination, means of transport (land, river or sea) , etc.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The Sarrafs or Shroffs who specialised in changing money also specialised in dealing with hundis.

• In the process they acted as private banks

• They kept money in deposit from the nobles and lent it

• By means of hundis, they created credit which supplemented the money in circulation since yhe merchant could cash his hundi after he had sold his goods at the point of his destination.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Solution: B

• Hundi was a letter of credit payable after a period of time at a discount.

• The Hundis often included insurance which was charged at different rates on the basis of value of the goods, destination, means of transport (land, river or sea) , etc.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The Sarrafs or Shroffs who specialised in changing money also specialised in dealing with hundis.

• In the process they acted as private banks

• They kept money in deposit from the nobles and lent it

• By means of hundis, they created credit which supplemented the money in circulation since yhe merchant could cash his hundi after he had sold his goods at the point of his destination.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following Battles : Battle of Sammel Battle of Bilgrama Battle of Tukaroi Battle of Surajgarh How many of the above were fought by Sher Shah Suri? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution : C Battle of Sammel : it was fought 1544 between Sher Shah Suri and Rathore Army led by commanders Jaita and Kumpa of Rao Maldeo Rathore. Maldeo was defeated in this battle. Battle of Bilgrama : Also known as Battle of Kanauj, it was fought between Humayun and Sher Shah Suri in 1540 CE. It was a decisive battle which ended with defeat of Humayun at the hands of Sher Shah. The battle decided the issue between Sher Dhah and the Mughals. Battle of Surajgarh : it was fought between Sher Shah Suri and the combined forces of Lohani chiefs of Bihar and Muhammad Shah of Bengal in 1534. Sher Shah defeated the combined forces at Surajgarh and with this victory the whole of Bihar came under his control. Hence options 1, 2 and 4 are correct Battle of Tukaroi – was fought between Mughal army under emperor Akbar and the Bengal Sultanate in 1575 near the village of Tukaroi in modern Balasore district of Orissa. It resulted in victory of the Mughals and weakening of the Bengal Sultanate. Hence option 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution : C Battle of Sammel : it was fought 1544 between Sher Shah Suri and Rathore Army led by commanders Jaita and Kumpa of Rao Maldeo Rathore. Maldeo was defeated in this battle. Battle of Bilgrama : Also known as Battle of Kanauj, it was fought between Humayun and Sher Shah Suri in 1540 CE. It was a decisive battle which ended with defeat of Humayun at the hands of Sher Shah. The battle decided the issue between Sher Dhah and the Mughals. Battle of Surajgarh : it was fought between Sher Shah Suri and the combined forces of Lohani chiefs of Bihar and Muhammad Shah of Bengal in 1534. Sher Shah defeated the combined forces at Surajgarh and with this victory the whole of Bihar came under his control. Hence options 1, 2 and 4 are correct Battle of Tukaroi – was fought between Mughal army under emperor Akbar and the Bengal Sultanate in 1575 near the village of Tukaroi in modern Balasore district of Orissa. It resulted in victory of the Mughals and weakening of the Bengal Sultanate. Hence option 3 is incorrect

#### 18. Question

Consider the following Battles :

• Battle of Sammel

• Battle of Bilgrama

• Battle of Tukaroi

• Battle of Surajgarh

How many of the above were fought by Sher Shah Suri?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution : C

Battle of Sammel : it was fought 1544 between Sher Shah Suri and Rathore Army led by commanders Jaita and Kumpa of Rao Maldeo Rathore. Maldeo was defeated in this battle.

Battle of Bilgrama : Also known as Battle of Kanauj, it was fought between Humayun and Sher Shah Suri in 1540 CE. It was a decisive battle which ended with defeat of Humayun at the hands of Sher Shah. The battle decided the issue between Sher Dhah and the Mughals.

Battle of Surajgarh : it was fought between Sher Shah Suri and the combined forces of Lohani chiefs of Bihar and Muhammad Shah of Bengal in 1534. Sher Shah defeated the combined forces at Surajgarh and with this victory the whole of Bihar came under his control.

Hence options 1, 2 and 4 are correct

Battle of Tukaroi – was fought between Mughal army under emperor Akbar and the Bengal Sultanate in 1575 near the village of Tukaroi in modern Balasore district of Orissa. It resulted in victory of the Mughals and weakening of the Bengal Sultanate.

Hence option 3 is incorrect

Solution : C

Battle of Sammel : it was fought 1544 between Sher Shah Suri and Rathore Army led by commanders Jaita and Kumpa of Rao Maldeo Rathore. Maldeo was defeated in this battle.

Hence options 1, 2 and 4 are correct

Hence option 3 is incorrect

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Gurjara-Pratiharas : Bhoja, who took the title Adivaraha, conquered Kannauj and made it the capital of the Pratiharas. Mahendrapala I repulsed Arab invasion of India in the 8th century. Sanskrit poet Rajashekhar was a contemporary of Mahipala. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 only (d) 3 only Correct Solution : A The Gurjara-Pratiharas ruled in the second quarter of the 8th century; Bhoja was the greatest ruler of the dynasty and actual founder of the Empire. They ruled over Kannauj for a long time. The real founder of the empire and the greatest ruler was Bhoja. He rebuilt the empire and about 836 AD, he had recovered Kannauj which remained capital of the Empire for almost a century. Hence statement 1 is correct Nagabhatta I successfully confronted with the Arabs. He was one of the prominent rulers of the Pratihara dynasty who ruled between 730-760AD. His successful confrontation with the Arabs and defeating them while the Caliphate was being propagated made him a prominent ruler. During his reign the Pratihara dynasty extended from Gujarat to Gwalior and he fought against King Dantidurga of the Rashtrakuta dynasty and was defeated by him. Hence statement 2 is incorrect The Pratiharas were patrons of learning and literature. The great Sanskrit poet and dramatist Rajashekhar lived at the court of Mahipala, a grandson of Bhoja. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution : A The Gurjara-Pratiharas ruled in the second quarter of the 8th century; Bhoja was the greatest ruler of the dynasty and actual founder of the Empire. They ruled over Kannauj for a long time. The real founder of the empire and the greatest ruler was Bhoja. He rebuilt the empire and about 836 AD, he had recovered Kannauj which remained capital of the Empire for almost a century. Hence statement 1 is correct Nagabhatta I successfully confronted with the Arabs. He was one of the prominent rulers of the Pratihara dynasty who ruled between 730-760AD. His successful confrontation with the Arabs and defeating them while the Caliphate was being propagated made him a prominent ruler. During his reign the Pratihara dynasty extended from Gujarat to Gwalior and he fought against King Dantidurga of the Rashtrakuta dynasty and was defeated by him. Hence statement 2 is incorrect The Pratiharas were patrons of learning and literature. The great Sanskrit poet and dramatist Rajashekhar lived at the court of Mahipala, a grandson of Bhoja. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 19. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Gurjara-Pratiharas :

• Bhoja, who took the title Adivaraha, conquered Kannauj and made it the capital of the Pratiharas.

• Mahendrapala I repulsed Arab invasion of India in the 8th century.

• Sanskrit poet Rajashekhar was a contemporary of Mahipala.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 1 and 2 only

• (c) 2 only

• (d) 3 only

Solution : A

• The Gurjara-Pratiharas ruled in the second quarter of the 8th century; Bhoja was the greatest ruler of the dynasty and actual founder of the Empire. They ruled over Kannauj for a long time.

• The real founder of the empire and the greatest ruler was Bhoja.

• He rebuilt the empire and about 836 AD, he had recovered Kannauj which remained capital of the Empire for almost a century.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Nagabhatta I successfully confronted with the Arabs.

• He was one of the prominent rulers of the Pratihara dynasty who ruled between 730-760AD.

• His successful confrontation with the Arabs and defeating them while the Caliphate was being propagated made him a prominent ruler.

• During his reign the Pratihara dynasty extended from Gujarat to Gwalior and he fought against King Dantidurga of the Rashtrakuta dynasty and was defeated by him.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• The Pratiharas were patrons of learning and literature.

• The great Sanskrit poet and dramatist Rajashekhar lived at the court of Mahipala, a grandson of Bhoja.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution : A

• The Gurjara-Pratiharas ruled in the second quarter of the 8th century; Bhoja was the greatest ruler of the dynasty and actual founder of the Empire. They ruled over Kannauj for a long time.

• The real founder of the empire and the greatest ruler was Bhoja.

• He rebuilt the empire and about 836 AD, he had recovered Kannauj which remained capital of the Empire for almost a century.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Nagabhatta I successfully confronted with the Arabs.

• He was one of the prominent rulers of the Pratihara dynasty who ruled between 730-760AD.

• His successful confrontation with the Arabs and defeating them while the Caliphate was being propagated made him a prominent ruler.

• During his reign the Pratihara dynasty extended from Gujarat to Gwalior and he fought against King Dantidurga of the Rashtrakuta dynasty and was defeated by him.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• The Pratiharas were patrons of learning and literature.

• The great Sanskrit poet and dramatist Rajashekhar lived at the court of Mahipala, a grandson of Bhoja.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Nimbarkacharya : He propounded that Bramhan is distinct as well as interconnected with individual soul and the universe. He is followers are worshippers of Radha and Krishna together. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution : C Nimbarka or Nimbarkacharya was a Telugu speaking Hindu philosopher, Bhakti saint and a prominent astronomer. He was born in Karnataka around 12th century and spent most of his life in Mathura, Uttar Pradesh. He was a propounder of Dvaitadvaita philosophy also known as Bhedabheda. According to this philosophy the ultimate reality, Brahman, is both different and non different from the individual soul and the universe. Nimbarkacharya was also a prominent astronomer. Nimbarkacharya was pioneer in introducing Radhamadhav cult, which involves worship of both Radha and Madhav or Krishna, together. He is followers are known as Nimbarka Sampradaya. Hence both statements are correct. Incorrect Solution : C Nimbarka or Nimbarkacharya was a Telugu speaking Hindu philosopher, Bhakti saint and a prominent astronomer. He was born in Karnataka around 12th century and spent most of his life in Mathura, Uttar Pradesh. He was a propounder of Dvaitadvaita philosophy also known as Bhedabheda. According to this philosophy the ultimate reality, Brahman, is both different and non different from the individual soul and the universe. Nimbarkacharya was also a prominent astronomer. Nimbarkacharya was pioneer in introducing Radhamadhav cult, which involves worship of both Radha and Madhav or Krishna, together. He is followers are known as Nimbarka Sampradaya. Hence both statements are correct.

#### 20. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Nimbarkacharya :

• He propounded that Bramhan is distinct as well as interconnected with individual soul and the universe.

• He is followers are worshippers of Radha and Krishna together.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : C

• Nimbarka or Nimbarkacharya was a Telugu speaking Hindu philosopher, Bhakti saint and a prominent astronomer.

• He was born in Karnataka around 12th century and spent most of his life in Mathura, Uttar Pradesh.

• He was a propounder of Dvaitadvaita philosophy also known as Bhedabheda.

• According to this philosophy the ultimate reality, Brahman, is both different and non different from the individual soul and the universe.

• Nimbarkacharya was also a prominent astronomer.

• Nimbarkacharya was pioneer in introducing Radhamadhav cult, which involves worship of both Radha and Madhav or Krishna, together.

• He is followers are known as Nimbarka Sampradaya.

Hence both statements are correct.

Solution : C

• Nimbarka or Nimbarkacharya was a Telugu speaking Hindu philosopher, Bhakti saint and a prominent astronomer.

• He was born in Karnataka around 12th century and spent most of his life in Mathura, Uttar Pradesh.

• He was a propounder of Dvaitadvaita philosophy also known as Bhedabheda.

• According to this philosophy the ultimate reality, Brahman, is both different and non different from the individual soul and the universe.

• Nimbarkacharya was also a prominent astronomer.

• Nimbarkacharya was pioneer in introducing Radhamadhav cult, which involves worship of both Radha and Madhav or Krishna, together.

• He is followers are known as Nimbarka Sampradaya.

Hence both statements are correct.

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the BrahMos missile: BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile developed jointly by India and Israel, capable of being launched from land, sea, and air platforms. The maximum range of the BrahMos missile is 1500 to 2000 kilometres. BrahMos is one of the fastest operational cruise missiles, capable of reaching speeds up to Mach 2.8, nearly three times the speed of sound. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A BrahMos: It is a supersonic cruise missile that can be launched from land, sea, and air. It has been developed by Brahmos Aerospace, a joint venture of India and Russia. It is named after the rivers Brahmaputra (India) and Moskva (Russia). It is a two-stage missile with a solid propellant booster engine as its first stage, which brings it to supersonic speed and then gets separated. The liquid ramjet, or second stage then takes the missile closer to 3 Mach speed in the cruise phase. It is one of the fastest cruise missiles currently operationally deployed, with a speed of Mach 2.8, which is nearly three times more than the speed of sound. It has a launch weight of 2,200-3,000 kg. The extended-range variant of the missile can strike land and sea targets at a maximum range of 400 to 500 kilometers with supersonic speed all throughout the flight. It operates on the “Fire and Forgets” principle, adopting varieties of flights on its way to the target. Its cruising altitude could be up to 15 km, and its terminal altitude is as low as 10 meters. Incorrect Solution: A BrahMos: It is a supersonic cruise missile that can be launched from land, sea, and air. It has been developed by Brahmos Aerospace, a joint venture of India and Russia. It is named after the rivers Brahmaputra (India) and Moskva (Russia). It is a two-stage missile with a solid propellant booster engine as its first stage, which brings it to supersonic speed and then gets separated. The liquid ramjet, or second stage then takes the missile closer to 3 Mach speed in the cruise phase. It is one of the fastest cruise missiles currently operationally deployed, with a speed of Mach 2.8, which is nearly three times more than the speed of sound. It has a launch weight of 2,200-3,000 kg. The extended-range variant of the missile can strike land and sea targets at a maximum range of 400 to 500 kilometers with supersonic speed all throughout the flight. It operates on the “Fire and Forgets” principle, adopting varieties of flights on its way to the target. Its cruising altitude could be up to 15 km, and its terminal altitude is as low as 10 meters.

#### 21. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the BrahMos missile:

• BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile developed jointly by India and Israel, capable of being launched from land, sea, and air platforms.

• The maximum range of the BrahMos missile is 1500 to 2000 kilometres.

• BrahMos is one of the fastest operational cruise missiles, capable of reaching speeds up to Mach 2.8, nearly three times the speed of sound.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

BrahMos:

• It is a supersonic cruise missile that can be launched from land, sea, and air.

• It has been developed by Brahmos Aerospace, a joint venture of India and Russia.

• It is named after the rivers Brahmaputra (India) and Moskva (Russia).

• It is a two-stage missile with a solid propellant booster engine as its first stage, which brings it to supersonic speed and then gets separated. The liquid ramjet, or second stage then takes the missile closer to 3 Mach speed in the cruise phase.

• It is one of the fastest cruise missiles currently operationally deployed, with a speed of Mach 2.8, which is nearly three times more than the speed of sound.

• It has a launch weight of 2,200-3,000 kg.

• The extended-range variant of the missile can strike land and sea targets at a maximum range of 400 to 500 kilometers with supersonic speed all throughout the flight.

• It operates on the “Fire and Forgets” principle, adopting varieties of flights on its way to the target.

• Its cruising altitude could be up to 15 km, and its terminal altitude is as low as 10 meters.

Solution: A

BrahMos:

• It is a supersonic cruise missile that can be launched from land, sea, and air.

• It has been developed by Brahmos Aerospace, a joint venture of India and Russia.

• It is named after the rivers Brahmaputra (India) and Moskva (Russia).

• It is one of the fastest cruise missiles currently operationally deployed, with a speed of Mach 2.8, which is nearly three times more than the speed of sound.

• It has a launch weight of 2,200-3,000 kg.

• The extended-range variant of the missile can strike land and sea targets at a maximum range of 400 to 500 kilometers with supersonic speed all throughout the flight.

• It operates on the “Fire and Forgets” principle, adopting varieties of flights on its way to the target.

• Its cruising altitude could be up to 15 km, and its terminal altitude is as low as 10 meters.

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points In the context of NASA’s space exploration efforts, what does the CHAPEA project primarily aim to achieve? (a) Scientific analysis of Mars-like soil compositions for geological comparisons (b) Evaluation of habitat structures designed specifically for upcoming lunar missions (c) Development and testing of propulsion systems for future Mars-bound spacecraft (d) Simulation of long-duration Mars mission conditions to assess their impact on astronaut health and operational efficiency Correct Solution: D Explanation: NASA’s CHAPEA project involved four volunteers living in a simulated Mars habitat for a year to study the challenges of long-duration missions to Mars. The mission, part of NASA’s Crew Health and Performance Exploration Analog (CHAPEA), was the first of three planned simulations. The habitat, called “Mars Dune Alpha,” was a 1,700 sq ft 3D-printed structure at the Johnson Space Center in Houston, Texas, designed to replicate Martian conditions, including a backdrop of red, rocky cliffs and simulated Martian soil. The crew experienced conditions similar to those on Mars, including spacewalks in “Marswalks” suits, growing vegetables, and dealing with communication delays, limited resources, and prolonged isolation. Incorrect Solution: D Explanation: NASA’s CHAPEA project involved four volunteers living in a simulated Mars habitat for a year to study the challenges of long-duration missions to Mars. The mission, part of NASA’s Crew Health and Performance Exploration Analog (CHAPEA), was the first of three planned simulations. The habitat, called “Mars Dune Alpha,” was a 1,700 sq ft 3D-printed structure at the Johnson Space Center in Houston, Texas, designed to replicate Martian conditions, including a backdrop of red, rocky cliffs and simulated Martian soil. The crew experienced conditions similar to those on Mars, including spacewalks in “Marswalks” suits, growing vegetables, and dealing with communication delays, limited resources, and prolonged isolation.

#### 22. Question

In the context of NASA’s space exploration efforts, what does the CHAPEA project primarily aim to achieve?

• (a) Scientific analysis of Mars-like soil compositions for geological comparisons

• (b) Evaluation of habitat structures designed specifically for upcoming lunar missions

• (c) Development and testing of propulsion systems for future Mars-bound spacecraft

• (d) Simulation of long-duration Mars mission conditions to assess their impact on astronaut health and operational efficiency

Solution: D

Explanation:

• NASA’s CHAPEA project involved four volunteers living in a simulated Mars habitat for a year to study the challenges of long-duration missions to Mars.

• The mission, part of NASA’s Crew Health and Performance Exploration Analog (CHAPEA), was the first of three planned simulations.

• The habitat, called “Mars Dune Alpha,” was a 1,700 sq ft 3D-printed structure at the Johnson Space Center in Houston, Texas, designed to replicate Martian conditions, including a backdrop of red, rocky cliffs and simulated Martian soil.

• The crew experienced conditions similar to those on Mars, including spacewalks in “Marswalks” suits, growing vegetables, and dealing with communication delays, limited resources, and prolonged isolation.

Solution: D

Explanation:

• NASA’s CHAPEA project involved four volunteers living in a simulated Mars habitat for a year to study the challenges of long-duration missions to Mars.

• The mission, part of NASA’s Crew Health and Performance Exploration Analog (CHAPEA), was the first of three planned simulations.

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Consider the following statements with reference to dam safety in India: Statement I : The National Dam Safety Authority (NDSA) can mediate disputes between state dam safety organizations and dam owners. Statement II: NDSA is empowered under the National Dam Safety Act, 2021 to oversee dam safety standards and coordinate dam-related disaster response. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Explanation: Both the Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II accurately explains statement I. The National Dam Safety Authority (NDSA) was created under the National Dam Safety Act, 2021, and functions as India’s apex regulatory body for dam safety oversight. It has the authority to resolve disputes between State Dam Safety Organizations (SDSOs) or between SDSOs and dam owners, especially in cases of compliance failure or conflict over safety protocols. The NDSA is also tasked with disaster preparedness, formulating inspection protocols, and coordinating emergency action plans, reinforcing its statutory power to ensure safe dam management. Incorrect Solution: A Explanation: Both the Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II accurately explains statement I. The National Dam Safety Authority (NDSA) was created under the National Dam Safety Act, 2021, and functions as India’s apex regulatory body for dam safety oversight. It has the authority to resolve disputes between State Dam Safety Organizations (SDSOs) or between SDSOs and dam owners, especially in cases of compliance failure or conflict over safety protocols. The NDSA is also tasked with disaster preparedness, formulating inspection protocols, and coordinating emergency action plans, reinforcing its statutory power to ensure safe dam management.

#### 23. Question

Consider the following statements with reference to dam safety in India:

Statement I : The National Dam Safety Authority (NDSA) can mediate disputes between state dam safety organizations and dam owners. Statement II: NDSA is empowered under the National Dam Safety Act, 2021 to oversee dam safety standards and coordinate dam-related disaster response.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

Explanation: Both the Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II accurately explains statement I.

The National Dam Safety Authority (NDSA) was created under the National Dam Safety Act, 2021, and functions as India’s apex regulatory body for dam safety oversight. It has the authority to resolve disputes between State Dam Safety Organizations (SDSOs) or between SDSOs and dam owners, especially in cases of compliance failure or conflict over safety protocols.

The NDSA is also tasked with disaster preparedness, formulating inspection protocols, and coordinating emergency action plans, reinforcing its statutory power to ensure safe dam management.

Solution: A

Explanation: Both the Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II accurately explains statement I.

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points With reference to the Padma Awards, consider the following statements: Active government officials including civil servants, police officers, and diplomats are eligible for the Padma Awards. Foreign nationals and NRIs can be conferred Padma Awards without affecting the annual 120-award cap. The Padma Awards Committee is chaired by the Prime Minister of India and includes the Home Minister and Home Secretary. Which of the above given statements is/ are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Answer: C Explanation: Recently, President of India conferred Padma Awards 2024 to 71 personalities at Rashtrapati Bhavan, recognizing excellence across diverse fields. Statement 1 is incorrect: Active government servants are not eligible, except for doctors and scientists, due to the emphasis on lifetime achievement beyond government duty. Statement 2 is correct: Foreigners, NRIs, and posthumous awards do not count toward the annual cap of 120 awards. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Padma Awards Committee is headed by the Cabinet Secretary, not the President. The Prime Minister constitutes the committee annually. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Recently, President of India conferred Padma Awards 2024 to 71 personalities at Rashtrapati Bhavan, recognizing excellence across diverse fields. Statement 1 is incorrect: Active government servants are not eligible, except for doctors and scientists, due to the emphasis on lifetime achievement beyond government duty. Statement 2 is correct: Foreigners, NRIs, and posthumous awards do not count toward the annual cap of 120 awards. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Padma Awards Committee is headed by the Cabinet Secretary, not the President. The Prime Minister constitutes the committee annually.

#### 24. Question

With reference to the Padma Awards, consider the following statements:

• Active government officials including civil servants, police officers, and diplomats are eligible for the Padma Awards.

• Foreign nationals and NRIs can be conferred Padma Awards without affecting the annual 120-award cap.

• The Padma Awards Committee is chaired by the Prime Minister of India and includes the Home Minister and Home Secretary.

Which of the above given statements is/ are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 2 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C Explanation:

Recently, President of India conferred Padma Awards 2024 to 71 personalities at Rashtrapati Bhavan, recognizing excellence across diverse fields.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Active government servants are not eligible, except for doctors and scientists, due to the emphasis on lifetime achievement beyond government duty.

• Statement 2 is correct: Foreigners, NRIs, and posthumous awards do not count toward the annual cap of 120 awards.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: The Padma Awards Committee is headed by the Cabinet Secretary, not the President. The Prime Minister constitutes the committee annually.

Answer: C Explanation:

Recently, President of India conferred Padma Awards 2024 to 71 personalities at Rashtrapati Bhavan, recognizing excellence across diverse fields.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Active government servants are not eligible, except for doctors and scientists, due to the emphasis on lifetime achievement beyond government duty.

• Statement 2 is correct: Foreigners, NRIs, and posthumous awards do not count toward the annual cap of 120 awards.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: The Padma Awards Committee is headed by the Cabinet Secretary, not the President. The Prime Minister constitutes the committee annually.

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points If you travel by road from Gujarat to Arunachal Pradesh, what is the minimum number of Indian states you are likely to pass through (excluding Gujarat and Arunachal Pradesh)? (a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8 Correct Solution: B A likely minimum route would involve passing through the following states: Madhya Pradesh Uttar Pradesh Bihar West Bengal Assam Therefore, the minimum number of Indian states you are likely to pass through is 5.. Incorrect Solution: B A likely minimum route would involve passing through the following states: Madhya Pradesh Uttar Pradesh Bihar West Bengal Assam Therefore, the minimum number of Indian states you are likely to pass through is 5..

#### 25. Question

If you travel by road from Gujarat to Arunachal Pradesh, what is the minimum number of Indian states you are likely to pass through (excluding Gujarat and Arunachal Pradesh)?

Solution: B

A likely minimum route would involve passing through the following states:

• Madhya Pradesh

• Uttar Pradesh

• West Bengal

Therefore, the minimum number of Indian states you are likely to pass through is 5..

Solution: B

A likely minimum route would involve passing through the following states:

• Madhya Pradesh

• Uttar Pradesh

• West Bengal

Therefore, the minimum number of Indian states you are likely to pass through is 5..

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points Of the 30,000 species of bloodsucking organisms around the world, mosquitoes are probably the best known for their attacks on humans, but there are many others. The fleshy leech will attach itself to your legs as you wade through a stream, bedbugs hidden in a mattress will silently feed on you as you sleep and a tick picked up from grassy areas can embed their mouths into your skin and spend weeks feeding off you. Blood as a food source is abundant and highly nutritious, so it makes sense that wherever there are blood-filled vertebrates, other animals have developed the ability to steal their life-sustaining fluids. Blood-feeding creatures have evolved as many as a hundred separate times in the course of the planet’s history as the behaviour has cropped up independently in fish, insects, bats, birds and other animal groups, which have no common ancestor. Collectively they are called haematophages. A diet that subsists mainly of blood has its complications, however, and retaining this ability over time is relatively rare when you consider the group is only 30,000 species compared to the roughly 1.6 million creatures that exist. Feeding on blood puts the body under multiple physiological strains. Firstly, a meal of blood is not nutritionally sufficient as it lacks key nutrients such as Vitamin B Complex, which help convert food into energy. Many bloodsuckers overcome this by hosting microscopic bacteria to provide these nutrients. Also, the high iron content of blood causes oxidative damage and cell death, so haematophages have had to develop protective measures to counter this toxicity. It is not easy getting to the blood of the host either, and blood-feeding organisms have different techniques for getting to their food. Mosquitoes inject their long thin mouthparts into the skin, while some biting flies have serrated teeth that chop through flesh. There is always the risk of a counter-attack from the host. Some creatures like leeches release anaesthetic substances present in their saliva to help them remain undetected. Creatures such as vampire bats produce anticoagulants that make their victim’s blood continue flowing, even after they have gone. Based on the given passage, the following assumptions have been made . Every species will eventually evolve into a haematophage over time. . Haematophages without supplementary bacteria and protective measures will not be able to survive a purely blood-based diet. The ability to remain undetected is the most important way for haematophage species to survive. Feeding on blood makes haematophages resistant to extinction and disease. Which of the following assumptions is/are valid? a. 1 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 only d. 2 and 4 only Correct Correct Option : C Justification : Justification: Statement 2 is a wrong assumption as there is no indication that all species will evolve this way. Statement 2 is a correct assumption as blood alone does not have the nutritional requirements that all species need to survive. Statement 3 is wrong as it is only one of the techniques that haematophages have developed in order to access blood. Statement 4 is wrong because there is no correlation between feeding on blood and resistance to diseases given in the passage. Hence, C is the correct answer. Incorrect Correct Option : C Justification : Justification: Statement 2 is a wrong assumption as there is no indication that all species will evolve this way. Statement 2 is a correct assumption as blood alone does not have the nutritional requirements that all species need to survive. Statement 3 is wrong as it is only one of the techniques that haematophages have developed in order to access blood. Statement 4 is wrong because there is no correlation between feeding on blood and resistance to diseases given in the passage. Hence, C is the correct answer.

#### 26. Question

Of the 30,000 species of bloodsucking organisms around the world, mosquitoes are probably the best known for their attacks on humans, but there are many others. The fleshy leech will attach itself to your legs as you wade through a stream, bedbugs hidden in a mattress will silently feed on you as you sleep and a tick picked up from grassy areas can embed their mouths into your skin and spend weeks feeding off you. Blood as a food source is abundant and highly nutritious, so it makes sense that wherever there are blood-filled vertebrates, other animals have developed the ability to steal their life-sustaining fluids. Blood-feeding creatures have evolved as many as a hundred separate times in the course of the planet’s history as the behaviour has cropped up independently in fish, insects, bats, birds and other animal groups, which have no common ancestor. Collectively they are called haematophages.

A diet that subsists mainly of blood has its complications, however, and retaining this ability over time is relatively rare when you consider the group is only 30,000 species compared to the roughly 1.6 million creatures that exist. Feeding on blood puts the body under multiple physiological strains. Firstly, a meal of blood is not nutritionally sufficient as it lacks key nutrients such as Vitamin B Complex, which help convert food into energy. Many bloodsuckers overcome this by hosting microscopic bacteria to provide these nutrients. Also, the high iron content of blood causes oxidative damage and cell death, so haematophages have had to develop protective measures to counter this toxicity.

It is not easy getting to the blood of the host either, and blood-feeding organisms have different techniques for getting to their food. Mosquitoes inject their long thin mouthparts into the skin, while some biting flies have serrated teeth that chop through flesh. There is always the risk of a counter-attack from the host. Some creatures like leeches release anaesthetic substances present in their saliva to help them remain undetected. Creatures such as vampire bats produce anticoagulants that make their victim’s blood continue flowing, even after they have gone.

Based on the given passage, the following assumptions have been made

• . Every species will eventually evolve into a haematophage over time.

• . Haematophages without supplementary bacteria and protective measures will not be able to survive a purely blood-based diet.

• The ability to remain undetected is the most important way for haematophage species to survive.

• Feeding on blood makes haematophages resistant to extinction and disease.

Which of the following assumptions is/are valid?

• b. 1 and 3 only

• d. 2 and 4 only

Correct Option : C

Justification :

Justification:

Statement 2 is a wrong assumption as there is no indication that all species will evolve this way.

Statement 2 is a correct assumption as blood alone does not have the nutritional requirements that all species need to survive.

Statement 3 is wrong as it is only one of the techniques that haematophages have developed in order to access blood.

Statement 4 is wrong because there is no correlation between feeding on blood and resistance to diseases given in the passage.

Hence, C is the correct answer.

Correct Option : C

Justification :

Justification:

Statement 2 is a wrong assumption as there is no indication that all species will evolve this way.

Statement 2 is a correct assumption as blood alone does not have the nutritional requirements that all species need to survive.

Statement 3 is wrong as it is only one of the techniques that haematophages have developed in order to access blood.

Statement 4 is wrong because there is no correlation between feeding on blood and resistance to diseases given in the passage.

Hence, C is the correct answer.

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points If ‘X $ Y’ means ‘X is father of Y’; ‘X # Y’ means ‘X is mother of Y’; ‘X × Y’ means ‘X is sister of Y’, then how is D related to N in N # A $ B × D ? a. Nephew b. grandson c. Granddaughter d. Cannot be Determined Correct Correct Option : D Justification : Answer D) Cannot be Determined Explanation : N # A $ B × D means N is the mother of A, who is the father of B, who is the sister of D. Thus, D is the son or daughter of A and N is the mother of A. So, D is the grandson or granddaughter of N. Incorrect Correct Option : D Justification : Answer D) Cannot be Determined Explanation : N # A $ B × D means N is the mother of A, who is the father of B, who is the sister of D. Thus, D is the son or daughter of A and N is the mother of A. So, D is the grandson or granddaughter of N.

#### 27. Question

If ‘X $ Y’ means ‘X is father of Y’; ‘X # Y’ means ‘X is mother of Y’; ‘X × Y’ means ‘X is sister of Y’, then how is D related to N in N # A $ B × D ?

• b. grandson

• c. Granddaughter

• d. Cannot be Determined

Correct Option : D

Justification :

Answer D) Cannot be Determined

Explanation :

N # A $ B × D means N is the mother of A, who is the father of B, who is the sister of D.

Thus, D is the son or daughter of A and N is the mother of A.

So, D is the grandson or granddaughter of N.

Correct Option : D

Justification :

Answer D) Cannot be Determined

Explanation :

N # A $ B × D means N is the mother of A, who is the father of B, who is the sister of D.

Thus, D is the son or daughter of A and N is the mother of A.

So, D is the grandson or granddaughter of N.

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points Study the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow: ‘A – B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’ ‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is father of B ‘A = B’ means ‘A is wife of B ‘A ? B’ means ‘A is sister of B’ ‘A × B’ means ‘A is mother of B’ ‘A+ B’ means ‘A is son of B’ Q If expression ‘B + M = C ÷ G × E – D’ is true then how is D related to B? a. Father b. Father-in-law c. Brother d. Brother-in-law Correct Correct Option : D Justification : Incorrect Correct Option : D Justification :

#### 28. Question

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow:

‘A – B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’

‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is father of B

‘A = B’ means ‘A is wife of B

‘A ? B’ means ‘A is sister of B’

‘A × B’ means ‘A is mother of B’

‘A+ B’ means ‘A is son of B’

Q If expression ‘B + M = C ÷ G × E – D’ is true then how is D related to B?

• b. Father-in-law

• c. Brother

• d. Brother-in-law

Correct Option : D

Justification :

Correct Option : D

Justification :

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points 12 persons are seated around a round table. What is the probability that two particular persons sit together? a. 2/11 b. 4/21 c. 8/21 d. 6/21 Correct Correct Option : A Justification : In a circle of n different persons, the total number of arrangements possible = (n – 1)! n(S) = (12 – 1) = 11 ! Taking two persons as a unit, total persons = 11 Therefore no. of ways for these 11 persons to around the circular table = (11 – 1)! = 10! In any unit, 2 particular person can sit in 2! ways. Hence total number of ways that any three person can sit, =n(E) = 10! 2! Therefore P (E) = probability of three persons sitting together = n(E) / n(S) = (10! 2!)/11! = 2/11. Incorrect Correct Option : A Justification : In a circle of n different persons, the total number of arrangements possible = (n – 1)! n(S) = (12 – 1) = 11 ! Taking two persons as a unit, total persons = 11 Therefore no. of ways for these 11 persons to around the circular table = (11 – 1)! = 10! In any unit, 2 particular person can sit in 2! ways. Hence total number of ways that any three person can sit, =n(E) = 10! 2! Therefore P (E) = probability of three persons sitting together = n(E) / n(S) = (10! 2!)/11! = 2/11.

#### 29. Question

12 persons are seated around a round table. What is the probability that two particular persons sit together?

Correct Option : A

Justification :

In a circle of n different persons, the total number of arrangements possible = (n – 1)!

n(S) = (12 – 1) = 11 !

Taking two persons as a unit, total persons = 11

Therefore no. of ways for these 11 persons to around the circular table = (11 – 1)! = 10!

In any unit, 2 particular person can sit in 2! ways.

Hence total number of ways that any three person can sit,

=n(E) = 10! * 2!

Therefore P (E) = probability of three persons sitting together = n(E) / n(S)

= (10! * 2!)/11! = 2/11.

Correct Option : A

Justification :

In a circle of n different persons, the total number of arrangements possible = (n – 1)!

n(S) = (12 – 1) = 11 !

Taking two persons as a unit, total persons = 11

Therefore no. of ways for these 11 persons to around the circular table = (11 – 1)! = 10!

In any unit, 2 particular person can sit in 2! ways.

Hence total number of ways that any three person can sit,

=n(E) = 10! * 2!

Therefore P (E) = probability of three persons sitting together = n(E) / n(S)

= (10! * 2!)/11! = 2/11.

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points In each of the following questions, a matrix of certain characters is given. These characters follow a certain trend, row wise or column wise. Find out this trend and choose the missing character accordingly. (a) 15 b. 16 c. 17 d. 18 Correct Correct Option : D Justification : In the first row, 3 x 4 + 3 = 15. In the second row, 7 x 5 + 3 = 38. In the third row, missing number = 3 x 5 + 3 = 18. Incorrect Correct Option : D Justification : In the first row, 3 x 4 + 3 = 15. In the second row, 7 x 5 + 3 = 38. In the third row, missing number = 3 x 5 + 3 = 18.

#### 30. Question

In each of the following questions, a matrix of certain characters is given. These characters follow a certain trend, row wise or column wise. Find out this trend and choose the missing character accordingly.

Correct Option : D

Justification :

In the first row, 3 x 4 + 3 = 15. In the second row, 7 x 5 + 3 = 38. In the third row, missing number = 3 x 5 + 3 = 18.

Correct Option : D

Justification :

In the first row, 3 x 4 + 3 = 15. In the second row, 7 x 5 + 3 = 38. In the third row, missing number = 3 x 5 + 3 = 18.

Join our Official Telegram Channel HERE

Please subscribe to Our podcast channel HERE

Follow our Twitter Account HERE

Follow our Instagram ID HERE