DAY – 60 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – ANCIENT & MEDIEVAL INDIA , PREVIOUS YEAR UPSC PAPER 2007 and Dec 2023 CA

INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements with reference to Basavanna: He advocated monotheism centered around Shiva. He championed an egalitarian society with a focus on humanism and social reform. He encouraged renunciation and ascetic practices to attain spiritual enlightenment. He rejected the use of Sanskrit in religious literature, preferring the local Kannada language. How many of the above are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: c Explanation: Basavanna, also known as Basaveshwara, was a saint-poet, social reformer, and philosopher who lived in the 12th century. He spoke out against caste, class, and gender inequality. During the rule of the Kalyani Chalukya/Kalachuri dynasty, Basavanna was a Hindu Shaivite social reformer. Basavanna advocated a form of monotheism where Shiva, symbolized by the Linga, was the central figure of worship. The Lingayat tradition, which he founded, is based on devotion to Shiva without the traditional intermediary of Brahmin priests. Basavanna promoted direct worship, focusing on the relationship between the devotee and Shiva. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Basavanna was a significant social reformer who challenged the existing caste system and other forms of social hierarchy. His teachings emphasized the equality of all individuals, irrespective of caste, class, or gender. Through the establishment of the Anubhava Mantapa, a forum for open discussion among people from different backgrounds, he created a space for egalitarian ideas to flourish. Basavanna’s approach to humanism and social reform was groundbreaking for his time, emphasizing that spirituality and social justice could coexist. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Basavanna did not advocate for renunciation or asceticism as a path to spiritual enlightenment. Instead, he promoted the idea of “Kayaka” or work doctrine, which involves dedicating one’s labor to God and treating work as a form of worship. This philosophy encouraged active participation in society and discouraged escapism through ascetic practices or renunciation. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Basavanna rejected the traditional dominance of Sanskrit in religious literature and instead chose to compose his vachanas in Kannada, the common language of the people. This choice was significant because it made religious teachings accessible to a broader audience, challenging the elitist use of Sanskrit and promoting inclusivity in religious practice. Hence, statement 4 is correct. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Basavanna, also known as Basaveshwara, was a saint-poet, social reformer, and philosopher who lived in the 12th century. He spoke out against caste, class, and gender inequality. During the rule of the Kalyani Chalukya/Kalachuri dynasty, Basavanna was a Hindu Shaivite social reformer. Basavanna advocated a form of monotheism where Shiva, symbolized by the Linga, was the central figure of worship. The Lingayat tradition, which he founded, is based on devotion to Shiva without the traditional intermediary of Brahmin priests. Basavanna promoted direct worship, focusing on the relationship between the devotee and Shiva. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Basavanna was a significant social reformer who challenged the existing caste system and other forms of social hierarchy. His teachings emphasized the equality of all individuals, irrespective of caste, class, or gender. Through the establishment of the Anubhava Mantapa, a forum for open discussion among people from different backgrounds, he created a space for egalitarian ideas to flourish. Basavanna’s approach to humanism and social reform was groundbreaking for his time, emphasizing that spirituality and social justice could coexist. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Basavanna did not advocate for renunciation or asceticism as a path to spiritual enlightenment. Instead, he promoted the idea of “Kayaka” or work doctrine, which involves dedicating one’s labor to God and treating work as a form of worship. This philosophy encouraged active participation in society and discouraged escapism through ascetic practices or renunciation. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Basavanna rejected the traditional dominance of Sanskrit in religious literature and instead chose to compose his vachanas in Kannada, the common language of the people. This choice was significant because it made religious teachings accessible to a broader audience, challenging the elitist use of Sanskrit and promoting inclusivity in religious practice. Hence, statement 4 is correct. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements with reference to Basavanna:

• He advocated monotheism centered around Shiva.

• He championed an egalitarian society with a focus on humanism and social reform.

• He encouraged renunciation and ascetic practices to attain spiritual enlightenment.

• He rejected the use of Sanskrit in religious literature, preferring the local Kannada language.

How many of the above are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

• Basavanna, also known as Basaveshwara, was a saint-poet, social reformer, and philosopher who lived in the 12th century. He spoke out against caste, class, and gender inequality.

• During the rule of the Kalyani Chalukya/Kalachuri dynasty, Basavanna was a Hindu Shaivite social reformer.

• Basavanna advocated a form of monotheism where Shiva, symbolized by the Linga, was the central figure of worship. The Lingayat tradition, which he founded, is based on devotion to Shiva without the traditional intermediary of Brahmin priests. Basavanna promoted direct worship, focusing on the relationship between the devotee and Shiva. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Basavanna was a significant social reformer who challenged the existing caste system and other forms of social hierarchy. His teachings emphasized the equality of all individuals, irrespective of caste, class, or gender. Through the establishment of the Anubhava Mantapa, a forum for open discussion among people from different backgrounds, he created a space for egalitarian ideas to flourish. Basavanna’s approach to humanism and social reform was groundbreaking for his time, emphasizing that spirituality and social justice could coexist. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Basavanna did not advocate for renunciation or asceticism as a path to spiritual enlightenment. Instead, he promoted the idea of “Kayaka” or work doctrine, which involves dedicating one’s labor to God and treating work as a form of worship. This philosophy encouraged active participation in society and discouraged escapism through ascetic practices or renunciation. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Basavanna rejected the traditional dominance of Sanskrit in religious literature and instead chose to compose his vachanas in Kannada, the common language of the people. This choice was significant because it made religious teachings accessible to a broader audience, challenging the elitist use of Sanskrit and promoting inclusivity in religious practice. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

• Basavanna, also known as Basaveshwara, was a saint-poet, social reformer, and philosopher who lived in the 12th century. He spoke out against caste, class, and gender inequality.

• During the rule of the Kalyani Chalukya/Kalachuri dynasty, Basavanna was a Hindu Shaivite social reformer.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Rashtrakuta dynasty: The Rashtrakutas originated as feudatories of the Western Chalukyas of Vatapi. Dhantidurga, the founder of the Rashtrakutas, defeated the Chalukyas of Badami. Dhruva, the greatest of the Rashtrakuta rulers, was the first Deccan king to control Kannauj. How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: c Explanation: The Rashtrakutas initially emerged as subordinates under the Western Chalukyas, who were a powerful dynasty in the Deccan region. As feudatories, the Rashtrakutas had limited autonomy but were bound to the Chalukyas through loyalty and service. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Dhantidurga’s rise to power is significant in the history of the Rashtrakutas. He was initially a feudatory under the Western Chalukyas. However, he led a successful revolt, defeating the Chalukyas of Badami. This victory marked the beginning of the Rashtrakuta dynasty as an independent ruling power. Dhantidurga’s success allowed the Rashtrakutas to carve out their own territory and expand their influence across the Deccan. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Dhruva Dharavarsha, often considered the greatest Rashtrakuta ruler, significantly expanded the empire’s reach. He achieved a notable victory by conquering Kannauj, a prominent political and cultural center in northern India. This conquest was a remarkable feat, as Kannauj was central to the “Tripartite Struggle,” a conflict among the Pratihara, Pala, and Rashtrakuta dynasties for control of northern India. By defeating Vatsaraja of the Pratihara dynasty and Dharmapala of the Pala dynasty, Dhruva established Rashtrakuta dominance over Kannauj, illustrating the dynasty’s growing power and influence. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: The Rashtrakutas initially emerged as subordinates under the Western Chalukyas, who were a powerful dynasty in the Deccan region. As feudatories, the Rashtrakutas had limited autonomy but were bound to the Chalukyas through loyalty and service. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Dhantidurga’s rise to power is significant in the history of the Rashtrakutas. He was initially a feudatory under the Western Chalukyas. However, he led a successful revolt, defeating the Chalukyas of Badami. This victory marked the beginning of the Rashtrakuta dynasty as an independent ruling power. Dhantidurga’s success allowed the Rashtrakutas to carve out their own territory and expand their influence across the Deccan. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Dhruva Dharavarsha, often considered the greatest Rashtrakuta ruler, significantly expanded the empire’s reach. He achieved a notable victory by conquering Kannauj, a prominent political and cultural center in northern India. This conquest was a remarkable feat, as Kannauj was central to the “Tripartite Struggle,” a conflict among the Pratihara, Pala, and Rashtrakuta dynasties for control of northern India. By defeating Vatsaraja of the Pratihara dynasty and Dharmapala of the Pala dynasty, Dhruva established Rashtrakuta dominance over Kannauj, illustrating the dynasty’s growing power and influence. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements about the Rashtrakuta dynasty:

• The Rashtrakutas originated as feudatories of the Western Chalukyas of Vatapi.

• Dhantidurga, the founder of the Rashtrakutas, defeated the Chalukyas of Badami.

• Dhruva, the greatest of the Rashtrakuta rulers, was the first Deccan king to control Kannauj.

How many of the above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Explanation:

• The Rashtrakutas initially emerged as subordinates under the Western Chalukyas, who were a powerful dynasty in the Deccan region. As feudatories, the Rashtrakutas had limited autonomy but were bound to the Chalukyas through loyalty and service. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Dhantidurga’s rise to power is significant in the history of the Rashtrakutas. He was initially a feudatory under the Western Chalukyas. However, he led a successful revolt, defeating the Chalukyas of Badami. This victory marked the beginning of the Rashtrakuta dynasty as an independent ruling power. Dhantidurga’s success allowed the Rashtrakutas to carve out their own territory and expand their influence across the Deccan. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Dhruva Dharavarsha, often considered the greatest Rashtrakuta ruler, significantly expanded the empire’s reach. He achieved a notable victory by conquering Kannauj, a prominent political and cultural center in northern India. This conquest was a remarkable feat, as Kannauj was central to the “Tripartite Struggle,” a conflict among the Pratihara, Pala, and Rashtrakuta dynasties for control of northern India. By defeating Vatsaraja of the Pratihara dynasty and Dharmapala of the Pala dynasty, Dhruva established Rashtrakuta dominance over Kannauj, illustrating the dynasty’s growing power and influence. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Which of the following were involved in the Kannauj Triangle Wars during the medieval period? Palas Chalukyas Pratiharas Rastrakutas Guptas Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1,3 and 5 only b) 1,3 and 4 only c) 2,4 and 5 only d) 2,3 and 4 only Correct Answer: b Explanation: The Tripartite Struggle also known as the the Kannauj Triangle Wars was a complex and enduring conflict among three major Indian dynasties: the Palas, the Pratiharas, and the Rashtrakutas. This struggle was primarily for control over the strategically significant city of Kannauj, a former capital of Harshvardhana’s empire. The city represented political power and was crucial for controlling the Central Gangetic Valley and the lucrative trade routes connected to the Silk Road. Palas: The Palas were one of the primary parties involved in the Tripartite Struggle or Kannauj Triangle Wars. They ruled over Bengal and eastern India. Chalukyas: Although they played a significant role in medieval Indian history, the Chalukyas were not directly involved in the Kannauj Triangle Pratiharas: The Pratiharas controlled the western and central regions of India, and they were one of the three main participants in the struggle for Kannauj. Rashtrakutas: The Rashtrakutas, based in the Deccan region, were heavily involved in the struggle for Kannauj, making them the third major player in the Tripartite Struggle. Guptas: The Guptas were an earlier dynasty that had already declined by the time the Tripartite Struggle began in the 8th century. They were not part of the Kannauj Triangle Wars. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: The Tripartite Struggle also known as the the Kannauj Triangle Wars was a complex and enduring conflict among three major Indian dynasties: the Palas, the Pratiharas, and the Rashtrakutas. This struggle was primarily for control over the strategically significant city of Kannauj, a former capital of Harshvardhana’s empire. The city represented political power and was crucial for controlling the Central Gangetic Valley and the lucrative trade routes connected to the Silk Road. Palas: The Palas were one of the primary parties involved in the Tripartite Struggle or Kannauj Triangle Wars. They ruled over Bengal and eastern India. Chalukyas: Although they played a significant role in medieval Indian history, the Chalukyas were not directly involved in the Kannauj Triangle Pratiharas: The Pratiharas controlled the western and central regions of India, and they were one of the three main participants in the struggle for Kannauj. Rashtrakutas: The Rashtrakutas, based in the Deccan region, were heavily involved in the struggle for Kannauj, making them the third major player in the Tripartite Struggle. Guptas: The Guptas were an earlier dynasty that had already declined by the time the Tripartite Struggle began in the 8th century. They were not part of the Kannauj Triangle Wars. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 3. Question

Which of the following were involved in the Kannauj Triangle Wars during the medieval period?

• Pratiharas

• Rastrakutas

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• a) 1,3 and 5 only

• b) 1,3 and 4 only

• c) 2,4 and 5 only

• d) 2,3 and 4 only

Explanation:

• The Tripartite Struggle also known as the the Kannauj Triangle Wars was a complex and enduring conflict among three major Indian dynasties: the Palas, the Pratiharas, and the Rashtrakutas. This struggle was primarily for control over the strategically significant city of Kannauj, a former capital of Harshvardhana’s empire. The city represented political power and was crucial for controlling the Central Gangetic Valley and the lucrative trade routes connected to the Silk Road.

• Palas: The Palas were one of the primary parties involved in the Tripartite Struggle or Kannauj Triangle Wars. They ruled over Bengal and eastern India.

• Chalukyas: Although they played a significant role in medieval Indian history, the Chalukyas were not directly involved in the Kannauj Triangle

• Pratiharas: The Pratiharas controlled the western and central regions of India, and they were one of the three main participants in the struggle for Kannauj.

• Rashtrakutas: The Rashtrakutas, based in the Deccan region, were heavily involved in the struggle for Kannauj, making them the third major player in the Tripartite Struggle.

• Guptas: The Guptas were an earlier dynasty that had already declined by the time the Tripartite Struggle began in the 8th century. They were not part of the Kannauj Triangle Wars.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• Palas: The Palas were one of the primary parties involved in the Tripartite Struggle or Kannauj Triangle Wars. They ruled over Bengal and eastern India.

• Chalukyas: Although they played a significant role in medieval Indian history, the Chalukyas were not directly involved in the Kannauj Triangle

• Pratiharas: The Pratiharas controlled the western and central regions of India, and they were one of the three main participants in the struggle for Kannauj.

• Rashtrakutas: The Rashtrakutas, based in the Deccan region, were heavily involved in the struggle for Kannauj, making them the third major player in the Tripartite Struggle.

• Guptas: The Guptas were an earlier dynasty that had already declined by the time the Tripartite Struggle began in the 8th century. They were not part of the Kannauj Triangle Wars.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the architecture and art of the Rashtrakuta period: The Kailasa Temple at Ellora is an example of a structural temple built during the Rashtrakuta period. The Dasavathara Cave at Ellora includes panels depicting the ten avatars of Vishnu and Nataraja. The Elephanta Caves contain some of the finest sculptures from the Rashtrakuta period, including the Trimurti. How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: b Explanation: The Kailasa Temple at Ellora is not a structural temple; it is a rock-cut temple carved entirely from a single rock. Structural temples are constructed with individual blocks of stone, whereas rock-cut temples are carved directly out of the rock. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. The Dasavathara Cave at Ellora contains a variety of Hindu themes and sculptures, including panels depicting the ten avatars of Vishnu, Shiva Nataraja, and other Hindu deities and stories. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The Elephanta Caves are famous for their magnificent sculptures, including the iconic Trimurti, which depicts Shiva in three aspects (creator, preserver, and destroyer). These caves are among the finest examples of Rashtrakuta art and architecture. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: The Kailasa Temple at Ellora is not a structural temple; it is a rock-cut temple carved entirely from a single rock. Structural temples are constructed with individual blocks of stone, whereas rock-cut temples are carved directly out of the rock. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. The Dasavathara Cave at Ellora contains a variety of Hindu themes and sculptures, including panels depicting the ten avatars of Vishnu, Shiva Nataraja, and other Hindu deities and stories. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The Elephanta Caves are famous for their magnificent sculptures, including the iconic Trimurti, which depicts Shiva in three aspects (creator, preserver, and destroyer). These caves are among the finest examples of Rashtrakuta art and architecture. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements about the architecture and art of the Rashtrakuta period:

• The Kailasa Temple at Ellora is an example of a structural temple built during the Rashtrakuta period.

• The Dasavathara Cave at Ellora includes panels depicting the ten avatars of Vishnu and Nataraja.

• The Elephanta Caves contain some of the finest sculptures from the Rashtrakuta period, including the Trimurti.

How many of the above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Explanation:

• The Kailasa Temple at Ellora is not a structural temple; it is a rock-cut temple carved entirely from a single rock. Structural temples are constructed with individual blocks of stone, whereas rock-cut temples are carved directly out of the rock. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• The Dasavathara Cave at Ellora contains a variety of Hindu themes and sculptures, including panels depicting the ten avatars of Vishnu, Shiva Nataraja, and other Hindu deities and stories. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• The Elephanta Caves are famous for their magnificent sculptures, including the iconic Trimurti, which depicts Shiva in three aspects (creator, preserver, and destroyer). These caves are among the finest examples of Rashtrakuta art and architecture. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Which of the following statements about the Chandellas is/are correct? The Chandellas were a Rajput dynasty known for their architectural achievements, especially the temples at Khajuraho. Dhanga, one of the Chandella rulers, took the title of Maharajadhiraja and resisted Mahmud of Ghazni. The last significant ruler of the Chandellas, Parmal, was defeated by Prithviraj Chauhan. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2, and 3 Correct Answer: a Explanation: The Chandellas are renowned for their architectural contributions, especially the temples at Khajuraho. These temples, constructed between 900 and 1150 CE, are celebrated for their artistic excellence and intricate carvings, depicting various Hindu deities, rituals, and narratives, including some with erotic themes. The temples at Khajuraho have been recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site, underscoring their significance in Indian architectural history. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Dhanga, one of the significant rulers of the Chandella dynasty, took the title of Maharajadhiraja, signifying his status as a supreme ruler. Dhanga is also known for his resistance against Mahmud of Ghazni, who was notorious for his invasions and raids across northern India during the 11th century. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Parmal, the last significant ruler of the Chandellas, was not defeated by Prithviraj Chauhan. Instead, Parmal was defeated by Qutb-ud-din Aibak, a general under Muhammad Ghori, in 1203 CE. This event marked the end of the Chandella dynasty’s significant rule and the beginning of Muslim dominance in the Bundelkhand region. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: The Chandellas are renowned for their architectural contributions, especially the temples at Khajuraho. These temples, constructed between 900 and 1150 CE, are celebrated for their artistic excellence and intricate carvings, depicting various Hindu deities, rituals, and narratives, including some with erotic themes. The temples at Khajuraho have been recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site, underscoring their significance in Indian architectural history. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Dhanga, one of the significant rulers of the Chandella dynasty, took the title of Maharajadhiraja, signifying his status as a supreme ruler. Dhanga is also known for his resistance against Mahmud of Ghazni, who was notorious for his invasions and raids across northern India during the 11th century. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Parmal, the last significant ruler of the Chandellas, was not defeated by Prithviraj Chauhan. Instead, Parmal was defeated by Qutb-ud-din Aibak, a general under Muhammad Ghori, in 1203 CE. This event marked the end of the Chandella dynasty’s significant rule and the beginning of Muslim dominance in the Bundelkhand region. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 5. Question

Which of the following statements about the Chandellas is/are correct?

• The Chandellas were a Rajput dynasty known for their architectural achievements, especially the temples at Khajuraho.

• Dhanga, one of the Chandella rulers, took the title of Maharajadhiraja and resisted Mahmud of Ghazni.

• The last significant ruler of the Chandellas, Parmal, was defeated by Prithviraj Chauhan.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• a) 1 and 2 only

• b) 2 and 3 only

• c) 1 and 3 only

• d) 1, 2, and 3

Explanation:

• The Chandellas are renowned for their architectural contributions, especially the temples at Khajuraho. These temples, constructed between 900 and 1150 CE, are celebrated for their artistic excellence and intricate carvings, depicting various Hindu deities, rituals, and narratives, including some with erotic themes. The temples at Khajuraho have been recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site, underscoring their significance in Indian architectural history. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Dhanga, one of the significant rulers of the Chandella dynasty, took the title of Maharajadhiraja, signifying his status as a supreme ruler. Dhanga is also known for his resistance against Mahmud of Ghazni, who was notorious for his invasions and raids across northern India during the 11th century. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Parmal, the last significant ruler of the Chandellas, was not defeated by Prithviraj Chauhan. Instead, Parmal was defeated by Qutb-ud-din Aibak, a general under Muhammad Ghori, in 1203 CE. This event marked the end of the Chandella dynasty’s significant rule and the beginning of Muslim dominance in the Bundelkhand region. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points The epic poem “Prithviraj Raso,” written by Chand Bardai, describes the exploits of Prithviraj Chauhan. Which of the following elements are described in the poem? Prithviraj’s romantic relationship with Samyukta. His battles with Muhammad Ghori. Prithviraj’s capture and execution after the Second Battle of Tarain. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2, and 3 Correct Answer: d Explanation: The “Prithviraj Raso narrates the love story of Prithviraj Chauhan and Samyukta, daughter of Jayachandra, one of his rivals. This romantic element is often recounted in folklore and is a significant part of the legend surrounding Prithviraj Chauhan. “Prithviraj Raso” describes the battles between Prithviraj Chauhan and Muhammad Ghori, particularly the First Battle of Tarain, where Prithviraj defeated Ghori, and the Second Battle of Tarain, where Prithviraj was defeated. The poem also tells the story of Prithviraj’s capture by Muhammad Ghori following the Second Battle of Tarain, his defiance in captivity, and his eventual execution. The epic is known for its dramatic depiction of Prithviraj’s final moments and his confrontation with Ghori, often portrayed as a tragic hero who stood against the invading forces. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: The “Prithviraj Raso narrates the love story of Prithviraj Chauhan and Samyukta, daughter of Jayachandra, one of his rivals. This romantic element is often recounted in folklore and is a significant part of the legend surrounding Prithviraj Chauhan. “Prithviraj Raso” describes the battles between Prithviraj Chauhan and Muhammad Ghori, particularly the First Battle of Tarain, where Prithviraj defeated Ghori, and the Second Battle of Tarain, where Prithviraj was defeated. The poem also tells the story of Prithviraj’s capture by Muhammad Ghori following the Second Battle of Tarain, his defiance in captivity, and his eventual execution. The epic is known for its dramatic depiction of Prithviraj’s final moments and his confrontation with Ghori, often portrayed as a tragic hero who stood against the invading forces. Hence, option (d) is correct.

#### 6. Question

The epic poem “Prithviraj Raso,” written by Chand Bardai, describes the exploits of Prithviraj Chauhan. Which of the following elements are described in the poem?

• Prithviraj’s romantic relationship with Samyukta.

• His battles with Muhammad Ghori.

• Prithviraj’s capture and execution after the Second Battle of Tarain.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• a) 1 and 2 only

• b) 2 and 3 only

• c) 1 and 3 only

• d) 1, 2, and 3

Explanation:

• The “Prithviraj Raso narrates the love story of Prithviraj Chauhan and Samyukta, daughter of Jayachandra, one of his rivals. This romantic element is often recounted in folklore and is a significant part of the legend surrounding Prithviraj Chauhan.

• “Prithviraj Raso” describes the battles between Prithviraj Chauhan and Muhammad Ghori, particularly the First Battle of Tarain, where Prithviraj defeated Ghori, and the Second Battle of Tarain, where Prithviraj was defeated.

• The poem also tells the story of Prithviraj’s capture by Muhammad Ghori following the Second Battle of Tarain, his defiance in captivity, and his eventual execution. The epic is known for its dramatic depiction of Prithviraj’s final moments and his confrontation with Ghori, often portrayed as a tragic hero who stood against the invading forces.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Shivaji’s military policies: Shivaji organized his army with a strong focus on cavalry, with two divisions: Bargirs and Silahdars. Shivaji’s bold tactics included the assassination of Afzal Khan, which triggered a major conflict with the Mughals. Which of the above given statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: a Explanation: Shivaji organized his army with a strong emphasis on cavalry. He divided his cavalry into two distinct groups: Bargirs: Horsemen who were equipped and paid by the state. Silahdars: Horsemen maintained by nobles, with their own equipment. This division allowed for a flexible and mobile military force, capable of swift maneuvers and guerilla tactics. This structure was crucial for Shivaji’s success against larger and more established adversaries like the Bijapur Sultanate and the Mughal Empire. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Shivaji’s bold tactics often relied on surprise and audacity. In 1659, Shivaji assassinated Afzal Khan, a general of the Bijapur Sultanate, which triggered a major conflict with the Bijapur Sultanate. The assassination took place during what was supposed to be a diplomatic meeting, demonstrating Shivaji’s readiness to use unorthodox methods to gain an advantage. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Shivaji organized his army with a strong emphasis on cavalry. He divided his cavalry into two distinct groups: Bargirs: Horsemen who were equipped and paid by the state. Silahdars: Horsemen maintained by nobles, with their own equipment. This division allowed for a flexible and mobile military force, capable of swift maneuvers and guerilla tactics. This structure was crucial for Shivaji’s success against larger and more established adversaries like the Bijapur Sultanate and the Mughal Empire. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Shivaji’s bold tactics often relied on surprise and audacity. In 1659, Shivaji assassinated Afzal Khan, a general of the Bijapur Sultanate, which triggered a major conflict with the Bijapur Sultanate. The assassination took place during what was supposed to be a diplomatic meeting, demonstrating Shivaji’s readiness to use unorthodox methods to gain an advantage. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements about Shivaji’s military policies:

• Shivaji organized his army with a strong focus on cavalry, with two divisions: Bargirs and Silahdars.

• Shivaji’s bold tactics included the assassination of Afzal Khan, which triggered a major conflict with the Mughals.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• Shivaji organized his army with a strong emphasis on cavalry. He divided his cavalry into two distinct groups:

• Bargirs: Horsemen who were equipped and paid by the state.

• Silahdars: Horsemen maintained by nobles, with their own equipment.

• This division allowed for a flexible and mobile military force, capable of swift maneuvers and guerilla tactics. This structure was crucial for Shivaji’s success against larger and more established adversaries like the Bijapur Sultanate and the Mughal Empire. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Shivaji’s bold tactics often relied on surprise and audacity. In 1659, Shivaji assassinated Afzal Khan, a general of the Bijapur Sultanate, which triggered a major conflict with the Bijapur Sultanate. The assassination took place during what was supposed to be a diplomatic meeting, demonstrating Shivaji’s readiness to use unorthodox methods to gain an advantage. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• Shivaji organized his army with a strong emphasis on cavalry. He divided his cavalry into two distinct groups:

• Bargirs: Horsemen who were equipped and paid by the state.

• Silahdars: Horsemen maintained by nobles, with their own equipment.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Regarding the expansion of the Marathas after Shivaji, which of the following statements is/are true? Shahu, the grandson of Shivaji, faced a full-scale civil war against Tarabai, resulting in internal strife among the Marathas. After the Third Battle of Panipat in 1761, the Marathas regained their strength and resisted British interference in their territories. Choose the correct answer from the options below: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: a Explanation: After Shivaji’s death, the Maratha Empire went through a period of internal turmoil. Shahu, the grandson of Shivaji, faced a full-scale civil war against Tarabai, the widow of Rajaram (Shivaji’s son), leading to significant internal strife among the Marathas. This internal conflict caused divisions within the Maratha confederacy, weakening the unity that Shivaji had established. The struggle between Shahu and Tarabai represents a significant period of internal discord among the Marathas. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The Third Battle of Panipat in 1761 was a significant setback for the Marathas. It resulted in a devastating defeat against Ahmad Shah Durrani (Abdali) of Afghanistan, leading to a substantial loss of territory and influence for the Marathas. After this battle, the Marathas did not regain their strength to a level that allowed them to resist British interference effectively. Instead, the defeat at Panipat marked the decline of Maratha power and opened the door for British expansion in India. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: After Shivaji’s death, the Maratha Empire went through a period of internal turmoil. Shahu, the grandson of Shivaji, faced a full-scale civil war against Tarabai, the widow of Rajaram (Shivaji’s son), leading to significant internal strife among the Marathas. This internal conflict caused divisions within the Maratha confederacy, weakening the unity that Shivaji had established. The struggle between Shahu and Tarabai represents a significant period of internal discord among the Marathas. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The Third Battle of Panipat in 1761 was a significant setback for the Marathas. It resulted in a devastating defeat against Ahmad Shah Durrani (Abdali) of Afghanistan, leading to a substantial loss of territory and influence for the Marathas. After this battle, the Marathas did not regain their strength to a level that allowed them to resist British interference effectively. Instead, the defeat at Panipat marked the decline of Maratha power and opened the door for British expansion in India. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 8. Question

Regarding the expansion of the Marathas after Shivaji, which of the following statements is/are true?

• Shahu, the grandson of Shivaji, faced a full-scale civil war against Tarabai, resulting in internal strife among the Marathas.

• After the Third Battle of Panipat in 1761, the Marathas regained their strength and resisted British interference in their territories.

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• After Shivaji’s death, the Maratha Empire went through a period of internal turmoil. Shahu, the grandson of Shivaji, faced a full-scale civil war against Tarabai, the widow of Rajaram (Shivaji’s son), leading to significant internal strife among the Marathas. This internal conflict caused divisions within the Maratha confederacy, weakening the unity that Shivaji had established. The struggle between Shahu and Tarabai represents a significant period of internal discord among the Marathas. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The Third Battle of Panipat in 1761 was a significant setback for the Marathas. It resulted in a devastating defeat against Ahmad Shah Durrani (Abdali) of Afghanistan, leading to a substantial loss of territory and influence for the Marathas. After this battle, the Marathas did not regain their strength to a level that allowed them to resist British interference effectively. Instead, the defeat at Panipat marked the decline of Maratha power and opened the door for British expansion in India. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Arrange the following Maratha leaders in chronological order of their tenure as Peshwa: Baji Rao I Balaji Viswanath Madhav Rao I Baji Rao II Choose the correct order from the following options: a) 2, 1, 3, 4 b) 1, 2, 3, 4 c) 2, 3, 1, 4 d) 4, 3, 1, 2 Correct Answer: a Explanation: Balaji Viswanath was the first significant Peshwa of the Maratha Empire, holding office from 1713 to 1720. He played a key role in stabilizing the administration of the Marathas and establishing the office of the Peshwa as the central administrative power within the Maratha Empire. Baji Rao I, the son of Balaji Viswanath, became the Peshwa after his father’s death in 1720 and served until 1740. He was a military genius and significantly expanded the Maratha Empire through his conquests. Baji Rao I is often credited with leading the Marathas to the zenith of their power. Madhav Rao I became Peshwa in 1761, after the death of his father, Balaji Bajirao (also known as Nana Saheb). He led the Marathas during a turbulent period following the Third Battle of Panipat and worked to restore the stability and strength of the Maratha Empire. He held the position until his death in 1772. Baji Rao II, the son of Raghunath Rao and the grandson of Baji Rao I, became the Peshwa in 1796. His tenure marked the decline of the Maratha Empire due to internal conflicts and the increasing influence of the British East India Company. He was eventually deposed by the British after the Third Anglo-Maratha War. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Balaji Viswanath was the first significant Peshwa of the Maratha Empire, holding office from 1713 to 1720. He played a key role in stabilizing the administration of the Marathas and establishing the office of the Peshwa as the central administrative power within the Maratha Empire. Baji Rao I, the son of Balaji Viswanath, became the Peshwa after his father’s death in 1720 and served until 1740. He was a military genius and significantly expanded the Maratha Empire through his conquests. Baji Rao I is often credited with leading the Marathas to the zenith of their power. Madhav Rao I became Peshwa in 1761, after the death of his father, Balaji Bajirao (also known as Nana Saheb). He led the Marathas during a turbulent period following the Third Battle of Panipat and worked to restore the stability and strength of the Maratha Empire. He held the position until his death in 1772. Baji Rao II, the son of Raghunath Rao and the grandson of Baji Rao I, became the Peshwa in 1796. His tenure marked the decline of the Maratha Empire due to internal conflicts and the increasing influence of the British East India Company. He was eventually deposed by the British after the Third Anglo-Maratha War. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 9. Question

Arrange the following Maratha leaders in chronological order of their tenure as Peshwa:

• Baji Rao I

• Balaji Viswanath

• Madhav Rao I

• Baji Rao II

Choose the correct order from the following options:

• a) 2, 1, 3, 4

• b) 1, 2, 3, 4

• c) 2, 3, 1, 4

• d) 4, 3, 1, 2

Explanation:

• Balaji Viswanath was the first significant Peshwa of the Maratha Empire, holding office from 1713 to 1720. He played a key role in stabilizing the administration of the Marathas and establishing the office of the Peshwa as the central administrative power within the Maratha Empire.

• Baji Rao I, the son of Balaji Viswanath, became the Peshwa after his father’s death in 1720 and served until 1740. He was a military genius and significantly expanded the Maratha Empire through his conquests. Baji Rao I is often credited with leading the Marathas to the zenith of their power.

• Madhav Rao I became Peshwa in 1761, after the death of his father, Balaji Bajirao (also known as Nana Saheb). He led the Marathas during a turbulent period following the Third Battle of Panipat and worked to restore the stability and strength of the Maratha Empire. He held the position until his death in 1772.

• Baji Rao II, the son of Raghunath Rao and the grandson of Baji Rao I, became the Peshwa in 1796. His tenure marked the decline of the Maratha Empire due to internal conflicts and the increasing influence of the British East India Company. He was eventually deposed by the British after the Third Anglo-Maratha War.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points The Bahmani Sultanate faced internal divisions among its amirs. Which of the following statements is/are correct? The Deccanis were immigrant Muslims who had been staying in the Deccan region for a long time. The Afaquis or Pardesis were Muslims who had recently come from Central Asia, Iran, and Iraq. Select the correct answer from the options below: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: b Explanation: The Deccanis were not immigrants; they were local Muslims who had been residing in the Deccan region for generations. The term “Deccanis” refers to Muslims who had a long history in the Deccan, forming the traditional power base of the Bahmani Sultanate. They were opposed to newcomers from outside the Deccan. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. The Afaquis, also known as Pardesis, were Muslims who migrated from Central Asia, Iran, and Iraq. They were new arrivals to the Deccan region and were often favored by the Bahmani sultans for their administrative and military expertise. This favoritism created tension and rivalry with the Deccanis. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: The Deccanis were not immigrants; they were local Muslims who had been residing in the Deccan region for generations. The term “Deccanis” refers to Muslims who had a long history in the Deccan, forming the traditional power base of the Bahmani Sultanate. They were opposed to newcomers from outside the Deccan. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. The Afaquis, also known as Pardesis, were Muslims who migrated from Central Asia, Iran, and Iraq. They were new arrivals to the Deccan region and were often favored by the Bahmani sultans for their administrative and military expertise. This favoritism created tension and rivalry with the Deccanis. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 10. Question

The Bahmani Sultanate faced internal divisions among its amirs. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

• The Deccanis were immigrant Muslims who had been staying in the Deccan region for a long time.

• The Afaquis or Pardesis were Muslims who had recently come from Central Asia, Iran, and Iraq.

Select the correct answer from the options below:

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• The Deccanis were not immigrants; they were local Muslims who had been residing in the Deccan region for generations. The term “Deccanis” refers to Muslims who had a long history in the Deccan, forming the traditional power base of the Bahmani Sultanate. They were opposed to newcomers from outside the Deccan. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• The Afaquis, also known as Pardesis, were Muslims who migrated from Central Asia, Iran, and Iraq. They were new arrivals to the Deccan region and were often favored by the Bahmani sultans for their administrative and military expertise. This favoritism created tension and rivalry with the Deccanis. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Public Interest Litigation 1. It can be filed by any individual against violation of personal rights under Article 21 and rights ensured by the Directive Principles of State Policy. 2. Under article 32 of the Constitution, the Supreme Court has exclusive jurisdiction to hear PILs. Which of the above statements is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution : D The concept of public interest litigation originated in the USA in 1960 and was introduced in India by justice PN Bhagwati in the 1980; since then it has become an important mechanism to address issues of public concern. Any member of the public having sufficient interest can approach the court for enforcing rights of other persons and Redressal of a common grievance the Supreme Court has provided that no petition involving individual or personal matter shall be entertained as a PIL. Hence statement 1 is incorrect PILs can be filed in the supreme court under article 32 or in the state high court under article 226. It has not been defined in any Law, statute or Act It is filed in the courts under the constitution of India to protect public rights and promote general welfare the concept originated from the power of Judicial review. In case of a PIL the court should ensure that there is no personal gain or private motive behind filing such a petition. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution : D The concept of public interest litigation originated in the USA in 1960 and was introduced in India by justice PN Bhagwati in the 1980; since then it has become an important mechanism to address issues of public concern. Any member of the public having sufficient interest can approach the court for enforcing rights of other persons and Redressal of a common grievance the Supreme Court has provided that no petition involving individual or personal matter shall be entertained as a PIL. Hence statement 1 is incorrect PILs can be filed in the supreme court under article 32 or in the state high court under article 226. It has not been defined in any Law, statute or Act It is filed in the courts under the constitution of India to protect public rights and promote general welfare the concept originated from the power of Judicial review. In case of a PIL the court should ensure that there is no personal gain or private motive behind filing such a petition. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

#### 11. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Public Interest Litigation

1.It can be filed by any individual against violation of personal rights under Article 21 and rights ensured by the Directive Principles of State Policy.

1.Under article 32 of the Constitution, the Supreme Court has exclusive jurisdiction to hear PILs.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : D The concept of public interest litigation originated in the USA in 1960 and was introduced in India by justice PN Bhagwati in the 1980; since then it has become an important mechanism to address issues of public concern. Any member of the public having sufficient interest can approach the court for enforcing rights of other persons and Redressal of a common grievance the Supreme Court has provided that no petition involving individual or personal matter shall be entertained as a PIL. Hence statement 1 is incorrect PILs can be filed in the supreme court under article 32 or in the state high court under article 226. It has not been defined in any Law, statute or Act It is filed in the courts under the constitution of India to protect public rights and promote general welfare the concept originated from the power of Judicial review. In case of a PIL the court should ensure that there is no personal gain or private motive behind filing such a petition. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Worldcoin Initiative, recently in news refers to the (a) Project concerning the Collection of coins from various historical periods and storing them chronologically (b) Project to create a Digital Network in which individuals can claim stake by providing biometric data. (c) Initiative to create a digital Universal currency (d) Global campaign to replace metal coins with eco-friendly alternatives Correct Solution : B Worldcoin is an initiative to create a Digital Network where individuals can claim a stake and join the digital economy. It has been launched by OpenAI – an artificial intelligence company The project claims to be building the world’s largest identity and financial public network. The project involves canning individual irises through a device called Orb to collect biometric data and issue them a world ID. In exchange the participants receive a cryptocurrency called World coin the goal is to build the world’s largest identity and financial public network accessible globally. To be a part of the Worldcoin network individuals can become Orb operators and can scan irises of others or they can get their own irises scanned to receive a world ID and World ID cryptocurrency. Worldcoin uses biometric data to ensure unique participation and avoid duplications the company claims to use zero knowledge proof to maintain user’s privacy and comply with Europe General Data Protection Regulation. Hence option B is correct Incorrect Solution : B Worldcoin is an initiative to create a Digital Network where individuals can claim a stake and join the digital economy. It has been launched by OpenAI – an artificial intelligence company The project claims to be building the world’s largest identity and financial public network. The project involves canning individual irises through a device called Orb to collect biometric data and issue them a world ID. In exchange the participants receive a cryptocurrency called World coin the goal is to build the world’s largest identity and financial public network accessible globally. To be a part of the Worldcoin network individuals can become Orb operators and can scan irises of others or they can get their own irises scanned to receive a world ID and World ID cryptocurrency. Worldcoin uses biometric data to ensure unique participation and avoid duplications the company claims to use zero knowledge proof to maintain user’s privacy and comply with Europe General Data Protection Regulation. Hence option B is correct

#### 12. Question

Worldcoin Initiative, recently in news refers to the

• (a) Project concerning the Collection of coins from various historical periods and storing them chronologically

• (b) Project to create a Digital Network in which individuals can claim stake by providing biometric data.

• (c) Initiative to create a digital Universal currency

• (d) Global campaign to replace metal coins with eco-friendly alternatives

Solution : B Worldcoin is an initiative to create a Digital Network where individuals can claim a stake and join the digital economy. It has been launched by OpenAI – an artificial intelligence company The project claims to be building the world’s largest identity and financial public network. The project involves canning individual irises through a device called Orb to collect biometric data and issue them a world ID. In exchange the participants receive a cryptocurrency called World coin the goal is to build the world’s largest identity and financial public network accessible globally. To be a part of the Worldcoin network individuals can become Orb operators and can scan irises of others or they can get their own irises scanned to receive a world ID and World ID cryptocurrency. Worldcoin uses biometric data to ensure unique participation and avoid duplications the company claims to use zero knowledge proof to maintain user’s privacy and comply with Europe General Data Protection Regulation. Hence option B is correct

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Consider the following countries Russia Belarus China Armenia India How many of the above are members of Eurasian Economic Union? (a) Only two (b) Only three (c) Only four (d) All five Correct Solution: B The member states of Eurasian Economic Union are Russia, Kazakhstan, Belarus, Armenia and Kyrgyzstan. It is an international organisation for Regional economic integration that was established by the Treaty on Eurasian Economic Union it provides for free movement of goods, services capital and Labour and promote coordinated, harmonized and single policy in the sectors determined by the Treaty and international agreements within the Union It aims to upgrade, enhance competitiveness and cooperation between the national economies and to promote stable development to raise leaving standards of the members States Every year, a member state is selected chairman to head the union The chairmanship is passed from country to country in alphabetical order in the Russian language. India is exploring the possibility to enter into a free trade agreement with the uUnion1nion. Hence option B is correct Incorrect Solution: B The member states of Eurasian Economic Union are Russia, Kazakhstan, Belarus, Armenia and Kyrgyzstan. It is an international organisation for Regional economic integration that was established by the Treaty on Eurasian Economic Union it provides for free movement of goods, services capital and Labour and promote coordinated, harmonized and single policy in the sectors determined by the Treaty and international agreements within the Union It aims to upgrade, enhance competitiveness and cooperation between the national economies and to promote stable development to raise leaving standards of the members States Every year, a member state is selected chairman to head the union The chairmanship is passed from country to country in alphabetical order in the Russian language. India is exploring the possibility to enter into a free trade agreement with the uUnion1nion. Hence option B is correct

#### 13. Question

Consider the following countries

How many of the above are members of Eurasian Economic Union?

• (a) Only two

• (b) Only three

• (c) Only four

• (d) All five

Solution: B

• The member states of Eurasian Economic Union are Russia, Kazakhstan, Belarus, Armenia and Kyrgyzstan.

• It is an international organisation for Regional economic integration that was established by the Treaty on Eurasian Economic Union

• it provides for free movement of goods, services capital and Labour and promote coordinated, harmonized and single policy in the sectors determined by the Treaty and international agreements within the Union

• It aims to upgrade, enhance competitiveness and cooperation between the national economies and to promote stable development to raise leaving standards of the members States

• Every year, a member state is selected chairman to head the union

• The chairmanship is passed from country to country in alphabetical order in the Russian language.

• India is exploring the possibility to enter into a free trade agreement with the uUnion1nion.

Hence option B is correct

Solution: B

• The member states of Eurasian Economic Union are Russia, Kazakhstan, Belarus, Armenia and Kyrgyzstan.

• It is an international organisation for Regional economic integration that was established by the Treaty on Eurasian Economic Union

• It aims to upgrade, enhance competitiveness and cooperation between the national economies and to promote stable development to raise leaving standards of the members States

• Every year, a member state is selected chairman to head the union

• The chairmanship is passed from country to country in alphabetical order in the Russian language.

• India is exploring the possibility to enter into a free trade agreement with the uUnion1nion.

Hence option B is correct

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Consider the following statements The Internet and Mobile Association of India is a statutory body under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting. The Digital Publisher Content Grievances Council (DPCGC) has been set up under Internet and Mobile Association of India. DPCGC has been registered by the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting as a self regulatory body for publishers of online curated content under Information Technology Rules 2021. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution : B The Internet and Mobile Association of India is a not for profit industry body (trust) registered under the Societies Registration act 1860 with 540 members including Indian and multinational corporations as well as startups, it has been instrumental in shaping digital economy of the country it advocate free and fair competition and progressive and enabling laws for business as well as the consumers it’s objective is to ensure the progress of the Internet and digital economy Hence statement 1 is incorrect The Digital Publisher Content Grievances Council is an officially recognised independent self regulatory body for online curated content providers it has been set up under the aegis of Internet and Mobile Association of India in June 2021. The Council is registered by the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting as a level II self regulatory body for publishers of online curated content under the Information Technology Rules 2021. It adheres to the IT Rules and such other existing or new statutes and rules/regulations/guidelines framed thereunder from time to time relating to publishing of online curated content. Hence statements 2 and 3 are correct Incorrect Solution : B The Internet and Mobile Association of India is a not for profit industry body (trust) registered under the Societies Registration act 1860 with 540 members including Indian and multinational corporations as well as startups, it has been instrumental in shaping digital economy of the country it advocate free and fair competition and progressive and enabling laws for business as well as the consumers it’s objective is to ensure the progress of the Internet and digital economy Hence statement 1 is incorrect The Digital Publisher Content Grievances Council is an officially recognised independent self regulatory body for online curated content providers it has been set up under the aegis of Internet and Mobile Association of India in June 2021. The Council is registered by the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting as a level II self regulatory body for publishers of online curated content under the Information Technology Rules 2021. It adheres to the IT Rules and such other existing or new statutes and rules/regulations/guidelines framed thereunder from time to time relating to publishing of online curated content. Hence statements 2 and 3 are correct

#### 14. Question

Consider the following statements

• The Internet and Mobile Association of India is a statutory body under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.

• The Digital Publisher Content Grievances Council (DPCGC) has been set up under Internet and Mobile Association of India.

• DPCGC has been registered by the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting as a self regulatory body for publishers of online curated content under Information Technology Rules 2021.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution : B

• The Internet and Mobile Association of India is a not for profit industry body (trust) registered under the Societies Registration act 1860

• with 540 members including Indian and multinational corporations as well as startups, it has been instrumental in shaping digital economy of the country

• it advocate free and fair competition and progressive and enabling laws for business as well as the consumers

• it’s objective is to ensure the progress of the Internet and digital economy

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The Digital Publisher Content Grievances Council is an officially recognised independent self regulatory body for online curated content providers

• it has been set up under the aegis of Internet and Mobile Association of India in June 2021.

• The Council is registered by the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting as a level II self regulatory body for publishers of online curated content under the Information Technology Rules 2021.

• It adheres to the IT Rules and such other existing or new statutes and rules/regulations/guidelines framed thereunder from time to time relating to publishing of online curated content.

Hence statements 2 and 3 are correct

Solution : B

• The Internet and Mobile Association of India is a not for profit industry body (trust) registered under the Societies Registration act 1860

• with 540 members including Indian and multinational corporations as well as startups, it has been instrumental in shaping digital economy of the country

• it advocate free and fair competition and progressive and enabling laws for business as well as the consumers

• it’s objective is to ensure the progress of the Internet and digital economy

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The Digital Publisher Content Grievances Council is an officially recognised independent self regulatory body for online curated content providers

• it has been set up under the aegis of Internet and Mobile Association of India in June 2021.

• It adheres to the IT Rules and such other existing or new statutes and rules/regulations/guidelines framed thereunder from time to time relating to publishing of online curated content.

Hence statements 2 and 3 are correct

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Short-lived Halogens These are short lived halogens naturally produced by the oceans. They deplete tropospheric ozone. They help in global cooling by increasing cooling aerosols and water vapour in the atmosphere. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution : B Short lived halogens have a lifetime of less than 6 months in the atmosphere these are naturally produced by the oceans. Oceans play role in controlling the climate; halogens cause depletion of ozone in the troposphere ozone is a potent green house gas that traps outgoing radiation leading to global warming. Recent researches have provided that short lived halogens from oceans reduces warming by depleting this tropospheric ozone; their cooling effect was -0.24±0.02 Watts/sq.m. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct Short lived halogens increase the levels of water vapour, a Greenhouse gas in the atmosphere, causing an enhanced warming effect. These short lived halogens reduce the formation of cooling aerosols which are minute particles suspended in the atmosphere that reflect sunlight- it causes a small warming of the atmosphere. These halogens increase Global Methane burden by 14% and 9% of pre Industrial and present day conditions respectively enhancing global warming effect. These halogens thus drive an increase in global warming by influencing Methane, water vapour and aerosol ; however they compensate this by destroying ozone which exerts a cooling effect. However human activities have amplified release of these halogens into the atmosphere which disturbs the balance. Hence statement 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution : B Short lived halogens have a lifetime of less than 6 months in the atmosphere these are naturally produced by the oceans. Oceans play role in controlling the climate; halogens cause depletion of ozone in the troposphere ozone is a potent green house gas that traps outgoing radiation leading to global warming. Recent researches have provided that short lived halogens from oceans reduces warming by depleting this tropospheric ozone; their cooling effect was -0.24±0.02 Watts/sq.m. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct Short lived halogens increase the levels of water vapour, a Greenhouse gas in the atmosphere, causing an enhanced warming effect. These short lived halogens reduce the formation of cooling aerosols which are minute particles suspended in the atmosphere that reflect sunlight- it causes a small warming of the atmosphere. These halogens increase Global Methane burden by 14% and 9% of pre Industrial and present day conditions respectively enhancing global warming effect. These halogens thus drive an increase in global warming by influencing Methane, water vapour and aerosol ; however they compensate this by destroying ozone which exerts a cooling effect. However human activities have amplified release of these halogens into the atmosphere which disturbs the balance. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

#### 15. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Short-lived Halogens

• These are short lived halogens naturally produced by the oceans.

• They deplete tropospheric ozone.

• They help in global cooling by increasing cooling aerosols and water vapour in the atmosphere.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution : B

• Short lived halogens have a lifetime of less than 6 months in the atmosphere

• these are naturally produced by the oceans.

• Oceans play role in controlling the climate; halogens cause depletion of ozone in the troposphere

• ozone is a potent green house gas that traps outgoing radiation leading to global warming.

• Recent researches have provided that short lived halogens from oceans reduces warming by depleting this tropospheric ozone; their cooling effect was -0.24±0.02 Watts/sq.m.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

• Short lived halogens increase the levels of water vapour, a Greenhouse gas in the atmosphere, causing an enhanced warming effect.

• These short lived halogens reduce the formation of cooling aerosols which are minute particles suspended in the atmosphere that reflect sunlight- it causes a small warming of the atmosphere.

• These halogens increase Global Methane burden by 14% and 9% of pre Industrial and present day conditions respectively enhancing global warming effect.

• These halogens thus drive an increase in global warming by influencing Methane, water vapour and aerosol ; however they compensate this by destroying ozone which exerts a cooling effect.

• However human activities have amplified release of these halogens into the atmosphere which disturbs the balance.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution : B

• Short lived halogens have a lifetime of less than 6 months in the atmosphere

• these are naturally produced by the oceans.

• Oceans play role in controlling the climate; halogens cause depletion of ozone in the troposphere

• ozone is a potent green house gas that traps outgoing radiation leading to global warming.

• Recent researches have provided that short lived halogens from oceans reduces warming by depleting this tropospheric ozone; their cooling effect was -0.24±0.02 Watts/sq.m.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

• Short lived halogens increase the levels of water vapour, a Greenhouse gas in the atmosphere, causing an enhanced warming effect.

• These short lived halogens reduce the formation of cooling aerosols which are minute particles suspended in the atmosphere that reflect sunlight- it causes a small warming of the atmosphere.

• These halogens increase Global Methane burden by 14% and 9% of pre Industrial and present day conditions respectively enhancing global warming effect.

• These halogens thus drive an increase in global warming by influencing Methane, water vapour and aerosol ; however they compensate this by destroying ozone which exerts a cooling effect.

• However human activities have amplified release of these halogens into the atmosphere which disturbs the balance.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Grouping of Seven or G7: The G7 is a group of developed nations which includes Canada, France, Germany, and Japan. The Climate Club was established by the members of G7 to implement the Paris Agreement. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The G7, a group of developed nations that gets together every year to discuss global challenges, is made up of the US, the UK, Canada, France, Germany, Italy and Japan. The Climate Club, as an intergovernmental forum of high ambition, will be inclusive in nature and open to countries that are committed to the full implementation of the Paris Agreement and the decisions thereunder, in particular the Glasgow Climate Pact, and to accelerate their action to this end. Statement 2 is correct: The club, expected to be established by the end of this year, will be “open and inclusive in nature” to those committed to follow the 2015 Paris climate agreement. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The G7, a group of developed nations that gets together every year to discuss global challenges, is made up of the US, the UK, Canada, France, Germany, Italy and Japan. The Climate Club, as an intergovernmental forum of high ambition, will be inclusive in nature and open to countries that are committed to the full implementation of the Paris Agreement and the decisions thereunder, in particular the Glasgow Climate Pact, and to accelerate their action to this end. Statement 2 is correct: The club, expected to be established by the end of this year, will be “open and inclusive in nature” to those committed to follow the 2015 Paris climate agreement.

#### 16. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Grouping of Seven or G7:

• The G7 is a group of developed nations which includes Canada, France, Germany, and Japan.

• The Climate Club was established by the members of G7 to implement the Paris Agreement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The G7, a group of developed nations that gets together every year to discuss global challenges, is made up of the US, the UK, Canada, France, Germany, Italy and Japan.

The Climate Club, as an intergovernmental forum of high ambition, will be inclusive in nature and open to countries that are committed to the full implementation of the Paris Agreement and the decisions thereunder, in particular the Glasgow Climate Pact, and to accelerate their action to this end.

Statement 2 is correct: The club, expected to be established by the end of this year, will be “open and inclusive in nature” to those committed to follow the 2015 Paris climate agreement.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The G7, a group of developed nations that gets together every year to discuss global challenges, is made up of the US, the UK, Canada, France, Germany, Italy and Japan.

Statement 2 is correct: The club, expected to be established by the end of this year, will be “open and inclusive in nature” to those committed to follow the 2015 Paris climate agreement.

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Ozone: It is created when an oxygen molecule is split apart into single oxygen atoms. It is destroyed only when it reacts with molecules that contain hydrogen. It absorbs maximum ultraviolet radiation from the Sun in the stratosphere. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Ozone is a gas made up of three oxygen atoms (O3). It occurs naturally in small (trace) amounts in the upper atmosphere (the stratosphere). Ozone protects life on Earth from the Sun’s ultraviolet (UV) radiation. In the lower atmosphere (the troposphere) near the Earth’s surface, ozone is created by chemical reactions between air pollutants from vehicle exhaust, gasoline vapors, and other emissions. At ground level, high concentrations of ozone are toxic to people and plants. Statement 1 is correct: Ozone is created when the kind of oxygen we breathe—O2—is split apart by sunlight into single oxygen atoms. Single oxygen atoms can re-join to make O2, or they can join with O2 molecules to make ozone (O3). Statement 2 is not correct: Ozone is destroyed when it reacts with molecules containing nitrogen, hydrogen, chlorine, or bromine. Some of the molecules that destroy ozone occur naturally, but people have created others. Statement 3 is correct: Ozone in the stratosphere absorbs most of the ultraviolet radiation from the Sun. Without ozone, the Sun’s intense UV radiation would sterilize the Earth’s surface. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Ozone is a gas made up of three oxygen atoms (O3). It occurs naturally in small (trace) amounts in the upper atmosphere (the stratosphere). Ozone protects life on Earth from the Sun’s ultraviolet (UV) radiation. In the lower atmosphere (the troposphere) near the Earth’s surface, ozone is created by chemical reactions between air pollutants from vehicle exhaust, gasoline vapors, and other emissions. At ground level, high concentrations of ozone are toxic to people and plants. Statement 1 is correct: Ozone is created when the kind of oxygen we breathe—O2—is split apart by sunlight into single oxygen atoms. Single oxygen atoms can re-join to make O2, or they can join with O2 molecules to make ozone (O3). Statement 2 is not correct: Ozone is destroyed when it reacts with molecules containing nitrogen, hydrogen, chlorine, or bromine. Some of the molecules that destroy ozone occur naturally, but people have created others. Statement 3 is correct: Ozone in the stratosphere absorbs most of the ultraviolet radiation from the Sun. Without ozone, the Sun’s intense UV radiation would sterilize the Earth’s surface.

#### 17. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Ozone:

• It is created when an oxygen molecule is split apart into single oxygen atoms.

• It is destroyed only when it reacts with molecules that contain hydrogen.

• It absorbs maximum ultraviolet radiation from the Sun in the stratosphere.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

Ozone is a gas made up of three oxygen atoms (O3). It occurs naturally in small (trace) amounts in the upper atmosphere (the stratosphere).

Ozone protects life on Earth from the Sun’s ultraviolet (UV) radiation. In the lower atmosphere (the troposphere) near the Earth’s surface, ozone is created by chemical reactions between air pollutants from vehicle exhaust, gasoline vapors, and other emissions. At ground level, high concentrations of ozone are toxic to people and plants.

Statement 1 is correct: Ozone is created when the kind of oxygen we breathe—O2—is split apart by sunlight into single oxygen atoms.

Single oxygen atoms can re-join to make O2, or they can join with O2 molecules to make ozone (O3).

Statement 2 is not correct: Ozone is destroyed when it reacts with molecules containing nitrogen, hydrogen, chlorine, or bromine. Some of the molecules that destroy ozone occur naturally, but people have created others.

Statement 3 is correct: Ozone in the stratosphere absorbs most of the ultraviolet radiation from the Sun. Without ozone, the Sun’s intense UV radiation would sterilize the Earth’s surface.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Ozone is a gas made up of three oxygen atoms (O3). It occurs naturally in small (trace) amounts in the upper atmosphere (the stratosphere).

Statement 1 is correct: Ozone is created when the kind of oxygen we breathe—O2—is split apart by sunlight into single oxygen atoms.

Single oxygen atoms can re-join to make O2, or they can join with O2 molecules to make ozone (O3).

Statement 3 is correct: Ozone in the stratosphere absorbs most of the ultraviolet radiation from the Sun. Without ozone, the Sun’s intense UV radiation would sterilize the Earth’s surface.

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points With reference to the Pompe Disease, consider the following statements: It is a genetic disorder that causes progressive weakness in the skeletal muscles of human body. It is caused by mutations in a gene that makes an enzyme that the body uses to break down glycogen. It can cause hypertrophic cardiomyopathy characterized by the thickening of the heart muscle walls. How many of the statements given above is/are *not correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: D Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Pompe disease (also known as acid-maltase disease and glycogen storage disease II) is a rare genetic disorder that causes progressive weakness to the heart and skeletal muscles. Statement 2 is correct: It is caused by mutations in a gene that makes an enzyme called acid alpha-glucosidase (GAA), which the body uses to break down glycogen, a stored form of sugar used for energy. Statement 3 is correct: Pompe disease can cause hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, characterized by the thickening of the heart muscle walls. This can lead to impaired heart functions and cardiovascular symptoms. While there is currently no cure for Pompe disease, there are treatment options available to manage symptoms and improve the patient’s quality of life. Enzyme Replacement Therapy (ERT) is a standard treatment, involving the infusion of the missing enzyme to alleviate glycogen buildup Incorrect Answer: D Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Pompe disease (also known as acid-maltase disease and glycogen storage disease II) is a rare genetic disorder that causes progressive weakness to the heart and skeletal muscles. Statement 2 is correct: It is caused by mutations in a gene that makes an enzyme called acid alpha-glucosidase (GAA), which the body uses to break down glycogen, a stored form of sugar used for energy. Statement 3 is correct*: Pompe disease can cause hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, characterized by the thickening of the heart muscle walls. This can lead to impaired heart functions and cardiovascular symptoms. While there is currently no cure for Pompe disease, there are treatment options available to manage symptoms and improve the patient’s quality of life. Enzyme Replacement Therapy (ERT) is a standard treatment, involving the infusion of the missing enzyme to alleviate glycogen buildup

#### 18. Question

With reference to the Pompe Disease, consider the following statements:

• It is a genetic disorder that causes progressive weakness in the skeletal muscles of human body.

• It is caused by mutations in a gene that makes an enzyme that the body uses to break down glycogen.

• It can cause hypertrophic cardiomyopathy characterized by the thickening of the heart muscle walls.

How many of the statements given above is/are *not* correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: D

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Pompe disease (also known as acid-maltase disease and glycogen storage disease II) is a rare genetic disorder that causes progressive weakness to the heart and skeletal muscles.

Statement 2 is correct: It is caused by mutations in a gene that makes an enzyme called acid alpha-glucosidase (GAA), which the body uses to break down glycogen, a stored form of sugar used for energy.

Statement 3 is correct: Pompe disease can cause hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, characterized by the thickening of the heart muscle walls. This can lead to impaired heart functions and cardiovascular symptoms.

While there is currently no cure for Pompe disease, there are treatment options available to manage symptoms and improve the patient’s quality of life.

Enzyme Replacement Therapy (ERT) is a standard treatment, involving the infusion of the missing enzyme to alleviate glycogen buildup

Answer: D

Explanation:

While there is currently no cure for Pompe disease, there are treatment options available to manage symptoms and improve the patient’s quality of life.

Enzyme Replacement Therapy (ERT) is a standard treatment, involving the infusion of the missing enzyme to alleviate glycogen buildup

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Benzene: It is a by-product of coal distillation and is used as an industrial solvent. It is formed only from the natural sources including volcanoes and forest fires. It is a carcinogen that damages bone marrow and the central nervous system. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Benzene is a colourless liquid with a sweet odour. It evaporates into the air very quickly and dissolves slightly in water. Some industries use benzene to make other chemicals that are used to make plastics, resins, nylon and synthetic fibers. Benzene is also used to make some types of rubbers, lubricants, dyes, detergents, drugs, and pesticides. Statement 1 is correct: It is toxic, flammable liquid by-product of coal distillation, it is used as an industrial solvent. Statement 2 is not correct: Natural sources of benzene include volcanoes and forest fires. Benzene is also a natural part of crude oil, gasoline, and cigarette smoke. It is highly flammable and is formed from both natural processes and human activities. Statement 3 is correct: Benzene is a carcinogen that also damages bone marrow and the central nervous system. It has a role as a non-polar solvent, a carcinogenic agent and an environmental contaminant. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Benzene is a colourless liquid with a sweet odour. It evaporates into the air very quickly and dissolves slightly in water. Some industries use benzene to make other chemicals that are used to make plastics, resins, nylon and synthetic fibers. Benzene is also used to make some types of rubbers, lubricants, dyes, detergents, drugs, and pesticides. Statement 1 is correct: It is toxic, flammable liquid by-product of coal distillation, it is used as an industrial solvent. Statement 2 is not correct: Natural sources of benzene include volcanoes and forest fires. Benzene is also a natural part of crude oil, gasoline, and cigarette smoke. It is highly flammable and is formed from both natural processes and human activities. Statement 3 is correct: Benzene is a carcinogen that also damages bone marrow and the central nervous system. It has a role as a non-polar solvent, a carcinogenic agent and an environmental contaminant.

#### 19. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Benzene:

• It is a by-product of coal distillation and is used as an industrial solvent.

• It is formed only from the natural sources including volcanoes and forest fires.

• It is a carcinogen that damages bone marrow and the central nervous system.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

Benzene is a colourless liquid with a sweet odour. It evaporates into the air very quickly and dissolves slightly in water.

Some industries use benzene to make other chemicals that are used to make plastics, resins, nylon and synthetic fibers.

Benzene is also used to make some types of rubbers, lubricants, dyes, detergents, drugs, and pesticides.

Statement 1 is correct: It is toxic, flammable liquid by-product of coal distillation, it is used as an industrial solvent.

Statement 2 is not correct: Natural sources of benzene include volcanoes and forest fires. Benzene is also a natural part of crude oil, gasoline, and cigarette smoke.

It is highly flammable and is formed from both natural processes and human activities.

Statement 3 is correct: Benzene is a carcinogen that also damages bone marrow and the central nervous system.

It has a role as a non-polar solvent, a carcinogenic agent and an environmental contaminant.