DAY – 6 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – GEOGRAPHY, Subject-wise Test 5, Textbook-wise Test 5 and July 2023 CA

INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points With reference to Gucchi Mushrooms, consider the following statements: They belong to a species of fungus in the family Morchellaceae. They grow in clusters on logs of decaying wood, leaves or humus rich soil. They can be cultivated commercially in the conifer forests of temperate regions. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Gucchi mushroom is a species of fungus in the family Morchellaceae of the Ascomycota. They are pale yellow in colour with large pits and ridges on the surface of the cap, raised on a large white stem. Statement 2 is correct: These mushrooms usually grow in clusters on logs of decaying wood, leaves or humus soil. They may or may not grow in the same spot the next season, which only makes the process of collection more tedious. Statement 3 is not correct: The mushrooms cannot be cultivated commercially but grow in conifer forests across temperature regions, and the foothills in Himachal Pradesh, Uttaranchal, and Jammu and Kashmir. It is rich in antioxidants that prevent health issues including heart diseases and diabetes by removing reactive oxygen species that harm the body. Source: Environment and Ecology Trend: A question on Gucchi has been asked previously in UPSC Prelims 2022 Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Gucchi mushroom is a species of fungus in the family Morchellaceae of the Ascomycota. They are pale yellow in colour with large pits and ridges on the surface of the cap, raised on a large white stem. Statement 2 is correct: These mushrooms usually grow in clusters on logs of decaying wood, leaves or humus soil. They may or may not grow in the same spot the next season, which only makes the process of collection more tedious. Statement 3 is not correct: The mushrooms cannot be cultivated commercially but grow in conifer forests across temperature regions, and the foothills in Himachal Pradesh, Uttaranchal, and Jammu and Kashmir. It is rich in antioxidants that prevent health issues including heart diseases and diabetes by removing reactive oxygen species that harm the body. Source: Environment and Ecology Trend: A question on Gucchi has been asked previously in UPSC Prelims 2022 Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 1. Question

With reference to Gucchi Mushrooms, consider the following statements:

• They belong to a species of fungus in the family Morchellaceae.

• They grow in clusters on logs of decaying wood, leaves or humus rich soil.

• They can be cultivated commercially in the conifer forests of temperate regions.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Gucchi mushroom is a species of fungus in the family Morchellaceae of the Ascomycota. They are pale yellow in colour with large pits and ridges on the surface of the cap, raised on a large white stem.

Statement 2 is correct: These mushrooms usually grow in clusters on logs of decaying wood, leaves or humus soil. They may or may not grow in the same spot the next season, which only makes the process of collection more tedious.

Statement 3 is not correct: The mushrooms cannot be cultivated commercially but grow in conifer forests across temperature regions, and the foothills in Himachal Pradesh, Uttaranchal, and Jammu and Kashmir.

It is rich in antioxidants that prevent health issues including heart diseases and diabetes by removing reactive oxygen species that harm the body.

Trend: A question on Gucchi has been asked previously in UPSC Prelims 2022

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Answer: B

Explanation:

It is rich in antioxidants that prevent health issues including heart diseases and diabetes by removing reactive oxygen species that harm the body.

Trend: A question on Gucchi has been asked previously in UPSC Prelims 2022

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary: It is located in Goa on the estuarine islands of Mandovi River. It is characterized by an agricultural system called Khazan farming. It is designed to support topo-hydro-engineered agro-aquacultural ecosystems. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary is Goa’s smallest protected area — it comprises barely two square kilometres of lush mangrove forests. The sanctuary is located on Chorão, one of Goa’s estuarine islands in the Mandovi river approximately five kilometres from capital Panaji. This little gem of a mangrove park receives its fair share of visitors, primarily birds. But this ecosystem supports much more. The sanctuary and its surrounds is home to marsh crocodiles, smooth-coated otter, the unique glossy-marsh snake that feeds on crabs, mud lobsters, sap-sucking sea slugs, among others. Statement 2 is correct: In fact, the sanctuary, like most other low-lying floodplains of Goa, is characterised by an estuarine agricultural system called Khazan farming. Statement 3 is correct: This system is a carefully designed topo-hydro-engineered agro-aquacultural ecosystem mainly based on the regulation salinity and tides. Source: Environment and Ecology Trend: National Parks and their geo-physical features Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary is Goa’s smallest protected area — it comprises barely two square kilometres of lush mangrove forests. The sanctuary is located on Chorão, one of Goa’s estuarine islands in the Mandovi river approximately five kilometres from capital Panaji. This little gem of a mangrove park receives its fair share of visitors, primarily birds. But this ecosystem supports much more. The sanctuary and its surrounds is home to marsh crocodiles, smooth-coated otter, the unique glossy-marsh snake that feeds on crabs, mud lobsters, sap-sucking sea slugs, among others. Statement 2 is correct: In fact, the sanctuary, like most other low-lying floodplains of Goa, is characterised by an estuarine agricultural system called Khazan farming. Statement 3 is correct: This system is a carefully designed topo-hydro-engineered agro-aquacultural ecosystem mainly based on the regulation salinity and tides. Source: Environment and Ecology Trend: National Parks and their geo-physical features Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary:

• It is located in Goa on the estuarine islands of Mandovi River.

• It is characterized by an agricultural system called Khazan farming.

• It is designed to support topo-hydro-engineered agro-aquacultural ecosystems.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary is Goa’s smallest protected area — it comprises barely two square kilometres of lush mangrove forests. The sanctuary is located on Chorão, one of Goa’s estuarine islands in the Mandovi river approximately five kilometres from capital Panaji. This little gem of a mangrove park receives its fair share of visitors, primarily birds.

But this ecosystem supports much more. The sanctuary and its surrounds is home to marsh crocodiles, smooth-coated otter, the unique glossy-marsh snake that feeds on crabs, mud lobsters, sap-sucking sea slugs, among others.

Statement 2 is correct: In fact, the sanctuary, like most other low-lying floodplains of Goa, is characterised by an estuarine agricultural system called Khazan farming.

Statement 3 is correct: This system is a carefully designed topo-hydro-engineered agro-aquacultural ecosystem mainly based on the regulation salinity and tides.

Trend: National Parks and their geo-physical features

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 2 is correct: In fact, the sanctuary, like most other low-lying floodplains of Goa, is characterised by an estuarine agricultural system called Khazan farming.

Statement 3 is correct: This system is a carefully designed topo-hydro-engineered agro-aquacultural ecosystem mainly based on the regulation salinity and tides.

Trend: National Parks and their geo-physical features

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Aerosols are typically classified into particulate matter- PM2.5 or PM10. Sea salt and volcanic ash are common examples of aerosols. All aerosols undergo chemical changes referred to as ‘aging effects’. The anthropogenic aerosols are more abundant than the natural aerosols. How many of the statements given above are *not correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Answer: A Explanation: Aerosols—tiny, airborne solid & liquid particles—are present throughout the atmosphere and largely responsible for hazy skies Statement 1 is correct: Toxicologists refer to aerosols as ultrafine, fine, or coarse matter. Regulatory agencies, as well as meteorologists, typically call them particulate matter—PM2.5 or PM10, depending on their size. Climatologists typically use another set of labels that speak to the chemical composition. Key aerosol groups include sulfates, organic carbon, black carbon, nitrates and mineral dust. Statement 2 is correct: Sea salt, dust, and volcanic ash are three common types of aerosols. The bulk of aerosols—about 90 percent by mass—have natural origins. Statement 3 is correct: All aerosols can undergo further chemical changes, referred to as ‘aging effects’. Statement 4 is not correct: Though less abundant than the natural forms, the anthropogenic aerosols dominate the air downwind of urban and industrial areas. Source: Environment and Ecology Trend: Pollutants and their properties Approach: Basic concepts on Aerosols Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Aerosols—tiny, airborne solid & liquid particles—are present throughout the atmosphere and largely responsible for hazy skies Statement 1 is correct: Toxicologists refer to aerosols as ultrafine, fine, or coarse matter. Regulatory agencies, as well as meteorologists, typically call them particulate matter—PM2.5 or PM10, depending on their size. Climatologists typically use another set of labels that speak to the chemical composition. Key aerosol groups include sulfates, organic carbon, black carbon, nitrates and mineral dust. Statement 2 is correct: Sea salt, dust, and volcanic ash are three common types of aerosols. The bulk of aerosols—about 90 percent by mass—have natural origins. Statement 3 is correct: All aerosols can undergo further chemical changes, referred to as ‘aging effects’. Statement 4 is not correct*: Though less abundant than the natural forms, the anthropogenic aerosols dominate the air downwind of urban and industrial areas. Source: Environment and Ecology Trend: Pollutants and their properties Approach: Basic concepts on Aerosols

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Aerosols are typically classified into particulate matter- PM2.5 or PM10.

• Sea salt and volcanic ash are common examples of aerosols.

• All aerosols undergo chemical changes referred to as ‘aging effects’.

• The anthropogenic aerosols are more abundant than the natural aerosols.

How many of the statements given above are *not* correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Answer: A

Explanation:

Aerosols—tiny, airborne solid & liquid particles—are present throughout the atmosphere and largely responsible for hazy skies

Statement 1 is correct: Toxicologists refer to aerosols as ultrafine, fine, or coarse matter. Regulatory agencies, as well as meteorologists, typically call them particulate matter—PM2.5 or PM10, depending on their size.

Climatologists typically use another set of labels that speak to the chemical composition. Key aerosol groups include sulfates, organic carbon, black carbon, nitrates and mineral dust.

Statement 2 is correct: Sea salt, dust, and volcanic ash are three common types of aerosols. The bulk of aerosols—about 90 percent by mass—have natural origins.

Statement 3 is correct: All aerosols can undergo further chemical changes, referred to as ‘aging effects’.

Statement 4 is not correct: Though less abundant than the natural forms, the anthropogenic aerosols dominate the air downwind of urban and industrial areas.

Trend: Pollutants and their properties

Approach: Basic concepts on Aerosols

Answer: A

Explanation:

Aerosols—tiny, airborne solid & liquid particles—are present throughout the atmosphere and largely responsible for hazy skies

Climatologists typically use another set of labels that speak to the chemical composition. Key aerosol groups include sulfates, organic carbon, black carbon, nitrates and mineral dust.

Statement 2 is correct: Sea salt, dust, and volcanic ash are three common types of aerosols. The bulk of aerosols—about 90 percent by mass—have natural origins.

Statement 3 is correct: All aerosols can undergo further chemical changes, referred to as ‘aging effects’.

Statement 4 is not correct: Though less abundant than the natural forms, the anthropogenic aerosols dominate the air downwind of urban and industrial areas.

Trend: Pollutants and their properties

Approach: Basic concepts on Aerosols

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Consider the following: The Parambikulum Tiger Reserve The Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary The Eravikulum National Park The Mudumalai Tiger Reserve How many of the protected areas given above share their boundary with Anamalai Tiger Reserve? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Answer: C Explanation: Option (c) is correct: Anamalai Tiger Reserve (ATR) is located on the southern side of the South Western Ghat landscape. It is surrounded by Parambikulum Tiger Reserve on the East, Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary and Eravikulum National Park on the South Western side. The reserve is also surrounded by Nenmara, Vazhachal, Malayattur and Marayur reserved forests of Kerala. The Kariyan shola, Grass hills and Manjampatti of Anamalai Tiger Reserve has been identified as a world heritage site by the UNESCO. Mudumalai Tiger Reserve, a part of the Nilgiris Biosphere Reserve has a common boundary with Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary (Kerala) on the West, Bandipur Tiger Reserve (Karnataka) on the North. Source: Environment and Ecology Trend: National Parks and Biosphere Reserves Approach: Environment and Ecology Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Option (c) is correct: Anamalai Tiger Reserve (ATR) is located on the southern side of the South Western Ghat landscape. It is surrounded by Parambikulum Tiger Reserve on the East, Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary and Eravikulum National Park on the South Western side. The reserve is also surrounded by Nenmara, Vazhachal, Malayattur and Marayur reserved forests of Kerala. The Kariyan shola, Grass hills and Manjampatti of Anamalai Tiger Reserve has been identified as a world heritage site by the UNESCO. Mudumalai Tiger Reserve, a part of the Nilgiris Biosphere Reserve has a common boundary with Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary (Kerala) on the West, Bandipur Tiger Reserve (Karnataka) on the North. Source: Environment and Ecology Trend: National Parks and Biosphere Reserves Approach: Environment and Ecology

#### 4. Question

Consider the following:

• The Parambikulum Tiger Reserve

• The Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary

• The Eravikulum National Park

• The Mudumalai Tiger Reserve

How many of the protected areas given above share their boundary with Anamalai Tiger Reserve?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Answer: C

Explanation:

Option (c) is correct: Anamalai Tiger Reserve (ATR) is located on the southern side of the South Western Ghat landscape.

• It is surrounded by Parambikulum Tiger Reserve on the East, Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary and Eravikulum National Park on the South Western side.

• The reserve is also surrounded by Nenmara, Vazhachal, Malayattur and Marayur reserved forests of Kerala.

• The Kariyan shola, Grass hills and Manjampatti of Anamalai Tiger Reserve has been identified as a world heritage site by the UNESCO.

Mudumalai Tiger Reserve, a part of the Nilgiris Biosphere Reserve has a common boundary with Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary (Kerala) on the West, Bandipur Tiger Reserve (Karnataka) on the North.

Trend: National Parks and Biosphere Reserves

Approach: Environment and Ecology

Answer: C

Explanation:

Option (c) is correct: Anamalai Tiger Reserve (ATR) is located on the southern side of the South Western Ghat landscape.

• It is surrounded by Parambikulum Tiger Reserve on the East, Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary and Eravikulum National Park on the South Western side.

• The reserve is also surrounded by Nenmara, Vazhachal, Malayattur and Marayur reserved forests of Kerala.

• The Kariyan shola, Grass hills and Manjampatti of Anamalai Tiger Reserve has been identified as a world heritage site by the UNESCO.

Mudumalai Tiger Reserve, a part of the Nilgiris Biosphere Reserve has a common boundary with Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary (Kerala) on the West, Bandipur Tiger Reserve (Karnataka) on the North.

Trend: National Parks and Biosphere Reserves

Approach: Environment and Ecology

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points With reference to the Great Indian Bustards, consider the following statements: These are the only bustard species found in India. The Rajasthan Oran lands are home to these species. These are enlisted as critically endangered by the IUCN. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: Great Indian Bustards are the largest among the four bustard species found in India, the other three being MacQueen’s bustard, lesser florican and the Bengal florican. GIBs’ historic range included much of the Indian sub-continent but it has now shrunken to just 10 per cent of it. Statement 2 is correct: The Rajasthan orans are home to the endangered great Indian bustard (GIB), chinkara, and the Indian desert fox. The lands are under threat now as they are sought to be used for generating “green energy”, solar in particular. GIBs are considered the flagship bird species of grassland and hence barometers of the health of grassland ecosystems. Statement 3 is correct: Due to the species’ smaller population size, the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) has categorised GIBs as critically endangered, thus on the brink of extinction from the wild. Source: Environment and Ecology Trend: A question on Desert National Park (natural habitat of GIB) has been asked previously in UPSC Prelims 2020 Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: Great Indian Bustards are the largest among the four bustard species found in India, the other three being MacQueen’s bustard, lesser florican and the Bengal florican. GIBs’ historic range included much of the Indian sub-continent but it has now shrunken to just 10 per cent of it. Statement 2 is correct: The Rajasthan orans are home to the endangered great Indian bustard (GIB), chinkara, and the Indian desert fox. The lands are under threat now as they are sought to be used for generating “green energy”, solar in particular. GIBs are considered the flagship bird species of grassland and hence barometers of the health of grassland ecosystems. Statement 3 is correct: Due to the species’ smaller population size, the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) has categorised GIBs as critically endangered, thus on the brink of extinction from the wild. Source: Environment and Ecology Trend: A question on Desert National Park (natural habitat of GIB) has been asked previously in UPSC Prelims 2020 Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 5. Question

With reference to the Great Indian Bustards, consider the following statements:

• These are the only bustard species found in India.

• The Rajasthan Oran lands are home to these species.

• These are enlisted as critically endangered by the IUCN.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: Great Indian Bustards are the largest among the four bustard species found in India, the other three being MacQueen’s bustard, lesser florican and the Bengal florican. GIBs’ historic range included much of the Indian sub-continent but it has now shrunken to just 10 per cent of it.

Statement 2 is correct: The Rajasthan orans are home to the endangered great Indian bustard (GIB), chinkara, and the Indian desert fox.

The lands are under threat now as they are sought to be used for generating “green energy”, solar in particular.

GIBs are considered the flagship bird species of grassland and hence barometers of the health of grassland ecosystems.

Statement 3 is correct: Due to the species’ smaller population size, the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) has categorised GIBs as critically endangered, thus on the brink of extinction from the wild.

Trend: A question on Desert National Park (natural habitat of GIB) has been asked previously in UPSC Prelims 2020

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 2 is correct: The Rajasthan orans are home to the endangered great Indian bustard (GIB), chinkara, and the Indian desert fox.

The lands are under threat now as they are sought to be used for generating “green energy”, solar in particular.

GIBs are considered the flagship bird species of grassland and hence barometers of the health of grassland ecosystems.

Trend: A question on Desert National Park (natural habitat of GIB) has been asked previously in UPSC Prelims 2020

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points The standard time of the following countries is ahead of or behind Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) depending on whether they are East or West of the longitude passing through the Royal Observatory in Greenwich, London. Brazil India France Thailand Argentina Which one of the following sequential orders gives the correct arrangement of the countries according to their standard time from ahead to behind UTC? (a) 2, 4, 3, 1, 5 (b) 4, 2, 3, 5, 1 (c) 5, 1, 3, 2, 4 (d) 2, 3, 4, 5, 1 Correct Solution: B Thailand is the farthest east relative to Greenwich, so it has the time most ahead of UTC. India is also east of Greenwich, but west of Thailand, so its time is ahead of UTC but behind Thailand. France is very close to the Prime Meridian, but slightly to the east, so it’s ahead of UTC, but behind India and Thailand. Argentina and Brazil are both west of Greenwich. Argentina is farther east than Brazil, so its time is behind UTC but ahead of Brazil’s time. Brazil, being the farthest west, has the time most behind UTC. Therefore, the correct sequential order from ahead to behind UTC is: Thailand, India, France, Argentina, Brazil This corresponds to option (b) 4, 2, 3, 5, 1. Source: Geography Trend: Basic concepts- Latitude and Longitude Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: B Thailand is the farthest east relative to Greenwich, so it has the time most ahead of UTC. India is also east of Greenwich, but west of Thailand, so its time is ahead of UTC but behind Thailand. France is very close to the Prime Meridian, but slightly to the east, so it’s ahead of UTC, but behind India and Thailand. Argentina and Brazil are both west of Greenwich. Argentina is farther east than Brazil, so its time is behind UTC but ahead of Brazil’s time. Brazil, being the farthest west, has the time most behind UTC. Therefore, the correct sequential order from ahead to behind UTC is: Thailand, India, France, Argentina, Brazil This corresponds to option (b) 4, 2, 3, 5, 1. Source: Geography Trend: Basic concepts- Latitude and Longitude Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 6. Question

The standard time of the following countries is ahead of or behind Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) depending on whether they are East or West of the longitude passing through the Royal Observatory in Greenwich, London.

Which one of the following sequential orders gives the correct arrangement of the countries according to their standard time from ahead to behind UTC?

• (a) 2, 4, 3, 1, 5

• (b) 4, 2, 3, 5, 1

• (c) 5, 1, 3, 2, 4

• (d) 2, 3, 4, 5, 1

Solution: B

• Thailand is the farthest east relative to Greenwich, so it has the time most ahead of UTC.

• India is also east of Greenwich, but west of Thailand, so its time is ahead of UTC but behind Thailand.

• France is very close to the Prime Meridian, but slightly to the east, so it’s ahead of UTC, but behind India and Thailand.

• Argentina and Brazil are both west of Greenwich. Argentina is farther east than Brazil, so its time is behind UTC but ahead of Brazil’s time.

• Brazil, being the farthest west, has the time most behind UTC.

Therefore, the correct sequential order from ahead to behind UTC is:

Thailand, India, France, Argentina, Brazil

This corresponds to option (b) 4, 2, 3, 5, 1.

Trend: Basic concepts- Latitude and Longitude

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: B

• Thailand is the farthest east relative to Greenwich, so it has the time most ahead of UTC.

• India is also east of Greenwich, but west of Thailand, so its time is ahead of UTC but behind Thailand.

• France is very close to the Prime Meridian, but slightly to the east, so it’s ahead of UTC, but behind India and Thailand.

• Argentina and Brazil are both west of Greenwich. Argentina is farther east than Brazil, so its time is behind UTC but ahead of Brazil’s time.

• Brazil, being the farthest west, has the time most behind UTC.

Therefore, the correct sequential order from ahead to behind UTC is:

Thailand, India, France, Argentina, Brazil

This corresponds to option (b) 4, 2, 3, 5, 1.

Trend: Basic concepts- Latitude and Longitude

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points The spectral class of a star is determined by its- (a) Luminosity (b) Size (c) Composition (d) Temperature Correct Solution: D The spectral class of a star is determined primarily by its temperature. Different spectral classes are associated with stars of different temperatures, and the temperature also affects the colour of the star. For instance, hot stars are typically blue or white, while cooler stars may be yellow, orange, or red. Source: Geography Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: D The spectral class of a star is determined primarily by its temperature. Different spectral classes are associated with stars of different temperatures, and the temperature also affects the colour of the star. For instance, hot stars are typically blue or white, while cooler stars may be yellow, orange, or red. Source: Geography Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 7. Question

The spectral class of a star is determined by its-

• (a) Luminosity

• (c) Composition

• (d) Temperature

Solution: D

The spectral class of a star is determined primarily by its temperature. Different spectral classes are associated with stars of different temperatures, and the temperature also affects the colour of the star. For instance, hot stars are typically blue or white, while cooler stars may be yellow, orange, or red.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: D

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points What are the distinguishing features of dwarf planets and exoplanets? Dwarf planets orbit the Sun and are nearly spherical in shape, while exoplanets orbit stars other than the Sun. Dwarf planets have not cleared their neighbouring region of other objects, unlike exoplanets, which may or may not have cleared their orbits depending on their size and location. Exoplanets can be as small as celestial objects like asteroids or as large as gas giants, whereas dwarf planets are typically larger than asteroids but smaller than Earth’s Moon. How many of the statements given above are correct (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C All the statements given above are correct. Dwarf planets are indeed objects that directly orbit the Sun and are spherical in shape due to their own gravity but have not cleared the neighbourhood around their orbit. Exoplanets, on the other hand, are planets that orbit stars outside our solar system. One of the criteria that separate dwarf planets form the category of “planet” is the fact that they have not cleared their orbital neighbourhood of other debris, unlike the eight recognized planets in our solar system. Exoplanets may vary greatly in their ability to clear their orbits, depending on various factors. Exoplanets come in a wide range of sizes, potentially from smaller than Earth to many times the size of Jupiter. Dwarf planets are indeed larger than most asteroids and smaller than the Moon, fitting into a unique category of celestial bodies. Source: Geography Trend: Basic concepts on Solar system Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: C All the statements given above are correct. Dwarf planets are indeed objects that directly orbit the Sun and are spherical in shape due to their own gravity but have not cleared the neighbourhood around their orbit. Exoplanets, on the other hand, are planets that orbit stars outside our solar system. One of the criteria that separate dwarf planets form the category of “planet” is the fact that they have not cleared their orbital neighbourhood of other debris, unlike the eight recognized planets in our solar system. Exoplanets may vary greatly in their ability to clear their orbits, depending on various factors. Exoplanets come in a wide range of sizes, potentially from smaller than Earth to many times the size of Jupiter. Dwarf planets are indeed larger than most asteroids and smaller than the Moon, fitting into a unique category of celestial bodies. Source: Geography Trend: Basic concepts on Solar system Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 8. Question

What are the distinguishing features of dwarf planets and exoplanets?

• Dwarf planets orbit the Sun and are nearly spherical in shape, while exoplanets orbit stars other than the Sun.

• Dwarf planets have not cleared their neighbouring region of other objects, unlike exoplanets, which may or may not have cleared their orbits depending on their size and location.

• Exoplanets can be as small as celestial objects like asteroids or as large as gas giants, whereas dwarf planets are typically larger than asteroids but smaller than Earth’s Moon.

How many of the statements given above are correct

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

All the statements given above are correct.

Dwarf planets are indeed objects that directly orbit the Sun and are spherical in shape due to their own gravity but have not cleared the neighbourhood around their orbit. Exoplanets, on the other hand, are planets that orbit stars outside our solar system.

One of the criteria that separate dwarf planets form the category of “planet” is the fact that they have not cleared their orbital neighbourhood of other debris, unlike the eight recognized planets in our solar system. Exoplanets may vary greatly in their ability to clear their orbits, depending on various factors.

Exoplanets come in a wide range of sizes, potentially from smaller than Earth to many times the size of Jupiter. Dwarf planets are indeed larger than most asteroids and smaller than the Moon, fitting into a unique category of celestial bodies.

Trend: Basic concepts on Solar system

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: C

All the statements given above are correct.

Trend: Basic concepts on Solar system

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about an astronaut on the Moon: The sky appears dark even during the lunar day. The stars seen from the Moon’s surface twinkle faster than what is observed from the surface of the Earth. The temperature on the Moon’s sunlit surface can be hotter than boiling point of water. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B On the Moon, there is no atmosphere to scatter sunlight, so the sky would appear dark even when the Sun is shining in the lunar day. Hence statement 1 is correct. Twinkling (also known as atmospheric scintillation) is caused by the passing of starlight through different layers of the Earth’s atmosphere. Since the Moon has no atmosphere, stars do not twinkle when observed from the Moon. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. The temperature on the Moon’s surface when exposed to sunlight can reach up to around 127°C (261°F), which is indeed hotter than the boiling point of water at 100°C (212°F) at standard atmospheric pressure on Earth. Source: Geography Trend: Basic concepts on solar system Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Solution: B On the Moon, there is no atmosphere to scatter sunlight, so the sky would appear dark even when the Sun is shining in the lunar day. Hence statement 1 is correct. Twinkling (also known as atmospheric scintillation) is caused by the passing of starlight through different layers of the Earth’s atmosphere. Since the Moon has no atmosphere, stars do not twinkle when observed from the Moon. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. The temperature on the Moon’s surface when exposed to sunlight can reach up to around 127°C (261°F), which is indeed hotter than the boiling point of water at 100°C (212°F) at standard atmospheric pressure on Earth. Source: Geography Trend: Basic concepts on solar system Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements about an astronaut on the Moon:

• The sky appears dark even during the lunar day.

• The stars seen from the Moon’s surface twinkle faster than what is observed from the surface of the Earth.

• The temperature on the Moon’s sunlit surface can be hotter than boiling point of water.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

On the Moon, there is no atmosphere to scatter sunlight, so the sky would appear dark even when the Sun is shining in the lunar day. Hence statement 1 is correct.

Twinkling (also known as atmospheric scintillation) is caused by the passing of starlight through different layers of the Earth’s atmosphere. Since the Moon has no atmosphere, stars do not twinkle when observed from the Moon.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

The temperature on the Moon’s surface when exposed to sunlight can reach up to around 127°C (261°F), which is indeed hotter than the boiling point of water at 100°C (212°F) at standard atmospheric pressure on Earth.

Trend: Basic concepts on solar system

Approach: Applied knowledge

Solution: B

On the Moon, there is no atmosphere to scatter sunlight, so the sky would appear dark even when the Sun is shining in the lunar day. Hence statement 1 is correct.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Trend: Basic concepts on solar system

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points What geologic time period is noted for the first appearance of the flowering plants (angiosperms)? (a) Triassic (b) Jurassic (c) Cretaceous (d) Permian Correct Solution: C The first fossil evidence of angiosperms (flowering plants) dates back to the early Cretaceous period. This marked a significant evolutionary development, as flowering plants would go on to become the dominant plant group on land. The Cretaceous period ended with the mass extinction event that wiped out a significant proportion of the world’s dinosaur population, leading to the extinction of all non-avian dinosaurs. Extra information The Triassic period is known for the emergence of the first true mammals. It followed the largest extinction event in Earth’s history at the end of the Permian and is the first period of the Mesozoic Era. The first ancestors of many modern animal groups began to appear in the Triassic, including amphibians, reptiles, and marine reptiles like ichthyosaurs and plesiosaurs. The Jurassic period is famed for the well-established presence of dinosaurs, with famous genera such as Brachiosaurus, Allosaurus, and Stegosaurus roaming the Earth. It also saw the rise of birds, with Archaeopteryx often cited as the earliest known bird, showing the transition from feathered dinosaurs to modern birds. The Permian period is known for the diversification of the early amniotes into the ancestors of mammals, turtles, lepidosaurs (snakes, lizards, and tuataras), and archosaurs (crocodiles and birds). The end of the Permian period witnessed the most extensive extinction event in Earth’s history, known as the Permian-Triassic extinction event or “The Great Dying,” which led to the extinction of around 90% of all species. Source: Geography Trend: geological period Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: C The first fossil evidence of angiosperms (flowering plants) dates back to the early Cretaceous period. This marked a significant evolutionary development, as flowering plants would go on to become the dominant plant group on land. The Cretaceous period ended with the mass extinction event that wiped out a significant proportion of the world’s dinosaur population, leading to the extinction of all non-avian dinosaurs. Extra information The Triassic period is known for the emergence of the first true mammals. It followed the largest extinction event in Earth’s history at the end of the Permian and is the first period of the Mesozoic Era. The first ancestors of many modern animal groups began to appear in the Triassic, including amphibians, reptiles, and marine reptiles like ichthyosaurs and plesiosaurs. The Jurassic period is famed for the well-established presence of dinosaurs, with famous genera such as Brachiosaurus, Allosaurus, and Stegosaurus roaming the Earth. It also saw the rise of birds, with Archaeopteryx often cited as the earliest known bird, showing the transition from feathered dinosaurs to modern birds. The Permian period is known for the diversification of the early amniotes into the ancestors of mammals, turtles, lepidosaurs (snakes, lizards, and tuataras), and archosaurs (crocodiles and birds). The end of the Permian period witnessed the most extensive extinction event in Earth’s history, known as the Permian-Triassic extinction event or “The Great Dying,” which led to the extinction of around 90% of all species. Source: Geography Trend: geological period Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 10. Question

What geologic time period is noted for the first appearance of the flowering plants (angiosperms)?

• (a) Triassic

• (b) Jurassic

• (c) Cretaceous

• (d) Permian

Solution: C

The first fossil evidence of angiosperms (flowering plants) dates back to the early Cretaceous period. This marked a significant evolutionary development, as flowering plants would go on to become the dominant plant group on land. The Cretaceous period ended with the mass extinction event that wiped out a significant proportion of the world’s dinosaur population, leading to the extinction of all non-avian dinosaurs.

Extra information

• The Triassic period is known for the emergence of the first true mammals. It followed the largest extinction event in Earth’s history at the end of the Permian and is the first period of the Mesozoic Era. The first ancestors of many modern animal groups began to appear in the Triassic, including amphibians, reptiles, and marine reptiles like ichthyosaurs and plesiosaurs.

• The Jurassic period is famed for the well-established presence of dinosaurs, with famous genera such as Brachiosaurus, Allosaurus, and Stegosaurus roaming the Earth. It also saw the rise of birds, with Archaeopteryx often cited as the earliest known bird, showing the transition from feathered dinosaurs to modern birds.

• The Permian period is known for the diversification of the early amniotes into the ancestors of mammals, turtles, lepidosaurs (snakes, lizards, and tuataras), and archosaurs (crocodiles and birds). The end of the Permian period witnessed the most extensive extinction event in Earth’s history, known as the Permian-Triassic extinction event or “The Great Dying,” which led to the extinction of around 90% of all species.

Trend: geological period

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: C

Extra information

Trend: geological period

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding earthquake waves: Surface waves arrive at seismic stations after P waves and S waves. Surface waves travel only through the Earth’s crust, while P waves and S waves travel through both the crust and the mantle. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Both statements given above are correct. Surface waves, which include Love waves and Rayleigh waves, arrive at seismic stations after the faster P waves (primary waves) and S waves (secondary waves). They are slower because they travel along the Earth’s surface rather than through the interior. Surface waves indeed travel only through the Earth’s crust, causing most of the shaking felt during an earthquake. In contrast, P waves (which are compressional waves) and S waves (which are shear waves) can travel through both the crust and the mantle, with P waves also being able to travel through the Earth’s core. Source: Geography Trend: Basic concepts on geo-physical phenomena Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: C Both statements given above are correct. Surface waves, which include Love waves and Rayleigh waves, arrive at seismic stations after the faster P waves (primary waves) and S waves (secondary waves). They are slower because they travel along the Earth’s surface rather than through the interior. Surface waves indeed travel only through the Earth’s crust, causing most of the shaking felt during an earthquake. In contrast, P waves (which are compressional waves) and S waves (which are shear waves) can travel through both the crust and the mantle, with P waves also being able to travel through the Earth’s core. Source: Geography Trend: Basic concepts on geo-physical phenomena Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 11. Question

Consider the following statements regarding earthquake waves:

• Surface waves arrive at seismic stations after P waves and S waves.

• Surface waves travel only through the Earth’s crust, while P waves and S waves travel through both the crust and the mantle.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

Both statements given above are correct.

Surface waves, which include Love waves and Rayleigh waves, arrive at seismic stations after the faster P waves (primary waves) and S waves (secondary waves). They are slower because they travel along the Earth’s surface rather than through the interior.

Surface waves indeed travel only through the Earth’s crust, causing most of the shaking felt during an earthquake. In contrast, P waves (which are compressional waves) and S waves (which are shear waves) can travel through both the crust and the mantle, with P waves also being able to travel through the Earth’s core.

Trend: Basic concepts on geo-physical phenomena

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: C

Both statements given above are correct.

Trend: Basic concepts on geo-physical phenomena

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about volcanic features: Statement-I: The pattern of volcanic earthquakes can indicate the movement of magma beneath a volcano. Statement-II: Cinder cone volcanoes typically erupt the most viscous type of lava, which leads to their steep slopes. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: C Statement-I is correct because the seismic activity can indicate the movement of magma. Seismologists monitor earthquake swarms beneath volcanoes as a potential sign of an upcoming eruption. Statement-II is incorrect. Cinder cone volcanoes typically erupt basaltic lava, which is less viscous. It’s the gas content and the manner of eruption that contribute to the formation of cinder cones, which are relatively small with steep sides, made from volcanic debris. Their slopes are not steep because of the viscosity of the lava but due to the accumulation of volcanic ash, cinder, and bombs around the vent. Source: Geography Trend: Basic concepts on geo-physical phenomena Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: C Statement-I is correct because the seismic activity can indicate the movement of magma. Seismologists monitor earthquake swarms beneath volcanoes as a potential sign of an upcoming eruption. Statement-II is incorrect. Cinder cone volcanoes typically erupt basaltic lava, which is less viscous. It’s the gas content and the manner of eruption that contribute to the formation of cinder cones, which are relatively small with steep sides, made from volcanic debris. Their slopes are not steep because of the viscosity of the lava but due to the accumulation of volcanic ash, cinder, and bombs around the vent. Source: Geography Trend: Basic concepts on geo-physical phenomena Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 12. Question

Consider the following statements about volcanic features:

Statement-I: The pattern of volcanic earthquakes can indicate the movement of magma beneath a volcano.

Statement-II: Cinder cone volcanoes typically erupt the most viscous type of lava, which leads to their steep slopes.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: C

Statement-I is correct because the seismic activity can indicate the movement of magma. Seismologists monitor earthquake swarms beneath volcanoes as a potential sign of an upcoming eruption.

Statement-II is incorrect. Cinder cone volcanoes typically erupt basaltic lava, which is less viscous. It’s the gas content and the manner of eruption that contribute to the formation of cinder cones, which are relatively small with steep sides, made from volcanic debris. Their slopes are not steep because of the viscosity of the lava but due to the accumulation of volcanic ash, cinder, and bombs around the vent.

Trend: Basic concepts on geo-physical phenomena

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: C

Statement-I is correct because the seismic activity can indicate the movement of magma. Seismologists monitor earthquake swarms beneath volcanoes as a potential sign of an upcoming eruption.

Trend: Basic concepts on geo-physical phenomena

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Earth’s history: The Earth’s climate has gone through multiple cycles of glacial and interglacial periods over the past million years. During the Hadean Eon, Earth’s atmosphere is believed to have been rich in methane and ammonia. The appearance of photosynthetic organisms led to an increase in atmospheric oxygen, known as the Great Oxygenation Event. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The statement I is correct: Earth has indeed experienced many glacial and interglacial periods, particularly during the current ice age, which started about 2.6 million years ago in the late Pliocene. The statement II is incorrect: The Hadean Eon’s atmosphere was more likely rich in water vapor, carbon dioxide, and other volcanic gases, with very little free oxygen. Methane and ammonia were present but not dominant. The statement III is correct: The Great Oxygenation Event occurred around 2.4 billion years ago when cyanobacteria in the oceans began to produce oxygen through photosynthesis on a large scale, drastically increasing the amount of oxygen in the atmosphere. Source: Geography Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: B The statement I is correct: Earth has indeed experienced many glacial and interglacial periods, particularly during the current ice age, which started about 2.6 million years ago in the late Pliocene. The statement II is incorrect: The Hadean Eon’s atmosphere was more likely rich in water vapor, carbon dioxide, and other volcanic gases, with very little free oxygen. Methane and ammonia were present but not dominant. The statement III is correct: The Great Oxygenation Event occurred around 2.4 billion years ago when cyanobacteria in the oceans began to produce oxygen through photosynthesis on a large scale, drastically increasing the amount of oxygen in the atmosphere. Source: Geography Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 13. Question

Consider the following statements about Earth’s history:

• The Earth’s climate has gone through multiple cycles of glacial and interglacial periods over the past million years.

• During the Hadean Eon, Earth’s atmosphere is believed to have been rich in methane and ammonia.

• The appearance of photosynthetic organisms led to an increase in atmospheric oxygen, known as the Great Oxygenation Event.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

The statement I is correct: Earth has indeed experienced many glacial and interglacial periods, particularly during the current ice age, which started about 2.6 million years ago in the late Pliocene.

The statement II is incorrect: The Hadean Eon’s atmosphere was more likely rich in water vapor, carbon dioxide, and other volcanic gases, with very little free oxygen. Methane and ammonia were present but not dominant.

The statement III is correct: The Great Oxygenation Event occurred around 2.4 billion years ago when cyanobacteria in the oceans began to produce oxygen through photosynthesis on a large scale, drastically increasing the amount of oxygen in the atmosphere.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: B

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Consider the following: Assertion (A): River deltas form at the mouth of a river where it meets a standing body of water like an ocean, sea, or lake. Reason (R): The decrease in the velocity of the river flow at the mouth causes sediment to be deposited, creating a delta. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true. Correct Solution: A The assertion is true because deltas do form where rivers deposit their sediment load at their mouth, where they meet slower-moving or standing water bodies. The reason is also true and explains the assertion correctly, as the primary cause for delta formation is the deposition of sediment carried by the river as a result of the loss of velocity when the river water spreads out into a larger, more static body of water. Source: Geography Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: A The assertion is true because deltas do form where rivers deposit their sediment load at their mouth, where they meet slower-moving or standing water bodies. The reason is also true and explains the assertion correctly, as the primary cause for delta formation is the deposition of sediment carried by the river as a result of the loss of velocity when the river water spreads out into a larger, more static body of water. Source: Geography Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 14. Question

Consider the following:

Assertion (A): River deltas form at the mouth of a river where it meets a standing body of water like an ocean, sea, or lake.

Reason (R): The decrease in the velocity of the river flow at the mouth causes sediment to be deposited, creating a delta.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

• (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

• (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

• (c) A is true but R is false.

• (d) A is false but R is true.

Solution: A

The assertion is true because deltas do form where rivers deposit their sediment load at their mouth, where they meet slower-moving or standing water bodies. The reason is also true and explains the assertion correctly, as the primary cause for delta formation is the deposition of sediment carried by the river as a result of the loss of velocity when the river water spreads out into a larger, more static body of water.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: A

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Which one of the following is not traditionally considered one of the seven major tectonic plates? (a) Eurasian plate (b) Antarctica and the surrounding oceanic plate (c) Somali plate (d) North American plate Correct Solution: C The traditional list of seven major tectonic plates includes the Eurasian plate, the Antarctic plate (which encompasses Antarctica and the surrounding oceanic plate), the North American plate, and others like the Pacific, African, Indo-Australian (now often considered as separate Indian and Australian plates), and South American plates. The Somali plate, while significant, is generally considered a smaller plate and is part of the larger African plate. It is not traditionally counted among the seven major tectonic plates Source: Geography Trend: Tectonic Plates Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: C The traditional list of seven major tectonic plates includes the Eurasian plate, the Antarctic plate (which encompasses Antarctica and the surrounding oceanic plate), the North American plate, and others like the Pacific, African, Indo-Australian (now often considered as separate Indian and Australian plates), and South American plates. The Somali plate, while significant, is generally considered a smaller plate and is part of the larger African plate. It is not traditionally counted among the seven major tectonic plates Source: Geography Trend: Tectonic Plates Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 15. Question

Which one of the following is not traditionally considered one of the seven major tectonic plates?

• (a) Eurasian plate

• (b) Antarctica and the surrounding oceanic plate

• (c) Somali plate

• (d) North American plate

Solution: C

The traditional list of seven major tectonic plates includes the Eurasian plate, the Antarctic plate (which encompasses Antarctica and the surrounding oceanic plate), the North American plate, and others like the Pacific, African, Indo-Australian (now often considered as separate Indian and Australian plates), and South American plates.

The Somali plate, while significant, is generally considered a smaller plate and is part of the larger African plate. It is not traditionally counted among the seven major tectonic plates

Trend: Tectonic Plates

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: C

The Somali plate, while significant, is generally considered a smaller plate and is part of the larger African plate. It is not traditionally counted among the seven major tectonic plates

Trend: Tectonic Plates

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Hydrological cycle, is the circulation of water within the earth’s hydrosphere in different forms . It is the continuous exchange of water between: Oceans atmosphere Land surface Sub-surface Living organisms Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 and 2 only b) 1,2 and 3 only c) 1,2,3 and 4 only c) 1,2,3 and 4 only Correct Answer: d Explanation: The hydrological cycle describes the movement of water on, in, and above the earth. The hydrological cycle, is the circulation of water within the earth’s hydrosphere in different forms i.e. the liquid, solid and the gaseous phases. It also refers to the continuous exchange of water between the oceans, atmosphere, land surface and subsurface and the organisms (plants/trees etc.). Hence, option (d) is correct. Source: Geography Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: The hydrological cycle describes the movement of water on, in, and above the earth. The hydrological cycle, is the circulation of water within the earth’s hydrosphere in different forms i.e. the liquid, solid and the gaseous phases. It also refers to the continuous exchange of water between the oceans, atmosphere, land surface and subsurface and the organisms (plants/trees etc.). Hence, option (d) is correct. Source: Geography Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 16. Question

Hydrological cycle, is the circulation of water within the earth’s hydrosphere in different forms . It is the continuous exchange of water between:

• atmosphere

• Land surface

• Sub-surface

• Living organisms

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• a) 1 and 2 only

• b) 1,2 and 3 only

• c) 1,2,3 and 4 only

Explanation:

• The hydrological cycle describes the movement of water on, in, and above the earth. The hydrological cycle, is the circulation of water within the earth’s hydrosphere in different forms i.e. the liquid, solid and the gaseous phases.

• It also refers to the continuous exchange of water between the oceans, atmosphere, land surface and subsurface and the organisms (plants/trees etc.).

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Trend: Basic concepts

• Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Explanation:

• It also refers to the continuous exchange of water between the oceans, atmosphere, land surface and subsurface and the organisms (plants/trees etc.).

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Trend: Basic concepts

• Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following: The extended margin of each continent occupied by relatively shallow seas and gulfs. The deepest part of the ocean. The flattest and the smoothest region of the ocean. Arrange the above in the correct order of occurrence with reference to the relief of the ocean floor: a) 1-3-2 b) 3-2-1 c) 2-1-3 d) 3-1-2 Correct Answer: A Explanation: The ocean floors can be divided into four major divisions: the Continental Shelf; the Continental Slope; the Deep Sea Plain; the Oceanic Deeps The continental shelf is the extended margin of each continent occupied by relatively shallow seas and gulfs. It is the shallowest part of the ocean showing an average gradient of 1° or even less. The shelf typically ends at a very steep slope, called the shelf break. The continental slope connects the continental shelf and the ocean basins. It begins where the bottom of the continental shelf sharply drops off into a steep slope. The gradient of the slope region varies between 2-5°. The depth of the slope region varies between 200 and 3,000 m. The slope boundary indicates the end of the continents. Canyons and trenches are observed in this region. Deep sea plains/abysmal plains are gently sloping areas of the ocean basins. These are the flattest and smoothest regions of the world. The depths vary between 3,000 and 6,000m. These plains are covered with fine-grained sediments like clay and silt. Oceanic Deeps or Trenches These areas are the deepest parts of the oceans. The trenches are relatively steep sided, narrow basins. They are some 3-5 km deeper than the surrounding ocean floor. They are associated with active volcanoes and strong earthquakes. Hence, option (a) is correct. Source: Geography Trend: Basic concepts on Oceanography Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: The ocean floors can be divided into four major divisions: the Continental Shelf; the Continental Slope; the Deep Sea Plain; the Oceanic Deeps The continental shelf is the extended margin of each continent occupied by relatively shallow seas and gulfs. It is the shallowest part of the ocean showing an average gradient of 1° or even less. The shelf typically ends at a very steep slope, called the shelf break. The continental slope connects the continental shelf and the ocean basins. It begins where the bottom of the continental shelf sharply drops off into a steep slope. The gradient of the slope region varies between 2-5°. The depth of the slope region varies between 200 and 3,000 m. The slope boundary indicates the end of the continents. Canyons and trenches are observed in this region. Deep sea plains/abysmal plains are gently sloping areas of the ocean basins. These are the flattest and smoothest regions of the world. The depths vary between 3,000 and 6,000m. These plains are covered with fine-grained sediments like clay and silt. Oceanic Deeps or Trenches These areas are the deepest parts of the oceans. The trenches are relatively steep sided, narrow basins. They are some 3-5 km deeper than the surrounding ocean floor. They are associated with active volcanoes and strong earthquakes. Hence, option (a) is correct. Source: Geography Trend: Basic concepts on Oceanography Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 17. Question

Consider the following:

• The extended margin of each continent occupied by relatively shallow seas and gulfs.

• The deepest part of the ocean.

• The flattest and the smoothest region of the ocean.

Arrange the above in the correct order of occurrence with reference to the relief of the ocean floor:

Explanation:

• The ocean floors can be divided into four major divisions:

• the Continental Shelf;

• the Continental Slope;

• the Deep Sea Plain;

• the Oceanic Deeps

• The continental shelf is the extended margin of each continent occupied by relatively shallow seas and gulfs. It is the shallowest part of the ocean showing an average gradient of 1° or even less. The shelf typically ends at a very steep slope, called the shelf break.

• The continental slope connects the continental shelf and the ocean basins. It begins where the bottom of the continental shelf sharply drops off into a steep slope. The gradient of the slope region varies between 2-5°. The depth of the slope region varies between 200 and 3,000 m. The slope boundary indicates the end of the continents. Canyons and trenches are observed in this region.

• Deep sea plains/abysmal plains are gently sloping areas of the ocean basins. These are the flattest and smoothest regions of the world. The depths vary between 3,000 and 6,000m. These plains are covered with fine-grained sediments like clay and silt.

• Oceanic Deeps or Trenches These areas are the deepest parts of the oceans. The trenches are relatively steep sided, narrow basins. They are some 3-5 km deeper than the surrounding ocean floor. They are associated with active volcanoes and strong earthquakes.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Trend: Basic concepts on Oceanography

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Explanation:

• The ocean floors can be divided into four major divisions:

• the Continental Shelf;

• the Continental Slope;

• the Deep Sea Plain;

• the Oceanic Deeps

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Trend: Basic concepts on Oceanography

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The Bay of Bengal is more saline than the Arabian Sea Statement-II: The salinity of water in the surface layer of oceans depend mainly on evaporation and precipitation. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Answer: d Explanation: Salinity is the term used to define the total content of dissolved salts in sea water (Table 12.4). It is calculated as the amount of salt (in gm) dissolved in 1,000 gm (1 kg) of seawater. The average salinity of the Indian Ocean is 35 %. Low salinity trend is observed in the Bay of Bengal due to influx of river water. On the contrary, the Arabian Sea shows higher salinity due to high evaporation and low influx of fresh water. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Factors affecting ocean salinity are: The salinity of water in the surface layer of oceans depend mainly on evaporation and precipitation. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Surface salinity is greatly influenced in coastal regions by the fresh water flow from rivers, and in Polar Regions by the processes of freezing and thawing of ice. Wind, also influences salinity of an area by transferring water to other areas. The ocean currents contribute to the salinity variations. Salinity, temperature and density of water are interrelated. Hence, any change in the temperature or density influences the salinity of water in an area Hence, option (d) is correct. Source: Geography Trend: Basic concepts on Oceanography Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: Salinity is the term used to define the total content of dissolved salts in sea water (Table 12.4). It is calculated as the amount of salt (in gm) dissolved in 1,000 gm (1 kg) of seawater. The average salinity of the Indian Ocean is 35 %. Low salinity trend is observed in the Bay of Bengal due to influx of river water. On the contrary, the Arabian Sea shows higher salinity due to high evaporation and low influx of fresh water. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Factors affecting ocean salinity are: The salinity of water in the surface layer of oceans depend mainly on evaporation and precipitation. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Surface salinity is greatly influenced in coastal regions by the fresh water flow from rivers, and in Polar Regions by the processes of freezing and thawing of ice. Wind, also influences salinity of an area by transferring water to other areas. The ocean currents contribute to the salinity variations. Salinity, temperature and density of water are interrelated. Hence, any change in the temperature or density influences the salinity of water in an area Hence, option (d) is correct. Source: Geography Trend: Basic concepts on Oceanography Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 18. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:

The Bay of Bengal is more saline than the Arabian Sea

Statement-II:

The salinity of water in the surface layer of oceans depend mainly on evaporation and precipitation.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Explanation:

• Salinity is the term used to define the total content of dissolved salts in sea water (Table 12.4). It is calculated as the amount of salt (in gm) dissolved in 1,000 gm (1 kg) of seawater.

• The average salinity of the Indian Ocean is 35 %. Low salinity trend is observed in the Bay of Bengal due to influx of river water. On the contrary, the Arabian Sea shows higher salinity due to high evaporation and low influx of fresh water. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• Factors affecting ocean salinity are:

• The salinity of water in the surface layer of oceans depend mainly on evaporation and precipitation. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Surface salinity is greatly influenced in coastal regions by the fresh water flow from rivers, and in Polar Regions by the processes of freezing and thawing of ice.

• Wind, also influences salinity of an area by transferring water to other areas.

• The ocean currents contribute to the salinity variations. Salinity, temperature and density of water are interrelated. Hence, any change in the temperature or density influences the salinity of water in an area

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Trend: Basic concepts on Oceanography

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Explanation:

• Salinity is the term used to define the total content of dissolved salts in sea water (Table 12.4). It is calculated as the amount of salt (in gm) dissolved in 1,000 gm (1 kg) of seawater.

• Factors affecting ocean salinity are:

• The salinity of water in the surface layer of oceans depend mainly on evaporation and precipitation. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Surface salinity is greatly influenced in coastal regions by the fresh water flow from rivers, and in Polar Regions by the processes of freezing and thawing of ice.

• Wind, also influences salinity of an area by transferring water to other areas.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Trend: Basic concepts on Oceanography

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Consider the following: Latitude Longitude Size of the land Winds Ocean Currents How many of the above affect the distribution of temperature in the oceans? a) Only two b) Only three c) Only four d) All five Correct Answer: c Explanation: Ocean waters get heated up by the solar energy just as land. The process of heating and cooling of the oceanic water is slower than land. Factors Affecting Temperature Distribution The factors which affect the distribution of temperature of ocean water are : Latitude: the temperature of surface water decreases from the equator towards the poles because the amount of insolation decreases poleward. Unequal distribution of land and water: the oceans in the northern hemisphere receive more heat due to their contact with larger extent of land than the oceans in the southern hemisphere. Prevailing wind: the winds blowing from the land towards the oceans drive warm surface water away from the coast resulting in the upwelling of cold water from below. It results into the longitudinal variation in the temperature. Contrary to this, the onshore winds pile up warm water near the coast and this raises the temperature. Ocean currents: warm ocean currents raise the temperature in cold areas while the cold currents decrease the temperature in warm ocean areas. Gulf stream (warm current) raises the temperature near the eastern coast of North America and the West Coast of Europe while the Labrador current (cold current) lowers the temperature near the north-east coast of North America Longitude has no effect on climate including temperature. Longitude describes the location of a place east or west from the Prime Meridian. Longitude does not have effect on climate because it does not control how much solar energy a location receives. Two places in the same longitude receives different amount of solar radiation depending on their latitude. For example, if there are 2 seas on the 75 East longitude, the sea closer to tropics will receive more heat than the sea on the same longitude which is closer to the poles. Hence, Longitudes does not determine the temperature distribution in the oceans. Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Geography Trend: Basic concepts on oceanography Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Ocean waters get heated up by the solar energy just as land. The process of heating and cooling of the oceanic water is slower than land. Factors Affecting Temperature Distribution The factors which affect the distribution of temperature of ocean water are : Latitude: the temperature of surface water decreases from the equator towards the poles because the amount of insolation decreases poleward. Unequal distribution of land and water: the oceans in the northern hemisphere receive more heat due to their contact with larger extent of land than the oceans in the southern hemisphere. Prevailing wind: the winds blowing from the land towards the oceans drive warm surface water away from the coast resulting in the upwelling of cold water from below. It results into the longitudinal variation in the temperature. Contrary to this, the onshore winds pile up warm water near the coast and this raises the temperature. Ocean currents: warm ocean currents raise the temperature in cold areas while the cold currents decrease the temperature in warm ocean areas. Gulf stream (warm current) raises the temperature near the eastern coast of North America and the West Coast of Europe while the Labrador current (cold current) lowers the temperature near the north-east coast of North America Longitude has no effect on climate including temperature. Longitude describes the location of a place east or west from the Prime Meridian. Longitude does not have effect on climate because it does not control how much solar energy a location receives. Two places in the same longitude receives different amount of solar radiation depending on their latitude. For example, if there are 2 seas on the 75 East longitude, the sea closer to tropics will receive more heat than the sea on the same longitude which is closer to the poles. Hence, Longitudes does not determine the temperature distribution in the oceans. Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Geography Trend: Basic concepts on oceanography Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 19. Question

Consider the following:

• Size of the land

• Ocean Currents

How many of the above affect the distribution of temperature in the oceans?

• a) Only two

• b) Only three

• c) Only four

• d) All five

Explanation:

• Ocean waters get heated up by the solar energy just as land. The process of heating and cooling of the oceanic water is slower than land.

• Factors Affecting Temperature Distribution The factors which affect the distribution of temperature of ocean water are :

• Latitude: the temperature of surface water decreases from the equator towards the poles because the amount of insolation decreases poleward.

• Unequal distribution of land and water: the oceans in the northern hemisphere receive more heat due to their contact with larger extent of land than the oceans in the southern hemisphere.

• Prevailing wind: the winds blowing from the land towards the oceans drive warm surface water away from the coast resulting in the upwelling of cold water from below. It results into the longitudinal variation in the temperature. Contrary to this, the onshore winds pile up warm water near the coast and this raises the temperature.

• Ocean currents: warm ocean currents raise the temperature in cold areas while the cold currents decrease the temperature in warm ocean areas. Gulf stream (warm current) raises the temperature near the eastern coast of North America and the West Coast of Europe while the Labrador current (cold current) lowers the temperature near the north-east coast of North America

• Longitude has no effect on climate including temperature. Longitude describes the location of a place east or west from the Prime Meridian. Longitude does not have effect on climate because it does not control how much solar energy a location receives. Two places in the same longitude receives different amount of solar radiation depending on their latitude.

• For example, if there are 2 seas on the 75 East longitude, the sea closer to tropics will receive more heat than the sea on the same longitude which is closer to the poles. Hence, Longitudes does not determine the temperature distribution in the oceans.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: Basic concepts on oceanography

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Explanation:

• Ocean waters get heated up by the solar energy just as land. The process of heating and cooling of the oceanic water is slower than land.

• Factors Affecting Temperature Distribution The factors which affect the distribution of temperature of ocean water are :

• Latitude: the temperature of surface water decreases from the equator towards the poles because the amount of insolation decreases poleward.

• Unequal distribution of land and water: the oceans in the northern hemisphere receive more heat due to their contact with larger extent of land than the oceans in the southern hemisphere.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: Basic concepts on oceanography

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Consider the following with reference to ocean currents: Heating by solar energy Prevailing winds Differences in water density Gravity How many of the above are primary forces that influence ocean currents? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: c Explanation: Ocean currents are the continuous, predictable, directional movement of seawater. It is a massive movement of ocean water that is caused and influenced by various forces. They are like river flows in oceans. Ocean currents are influenced by two types of forces namely: primary forces that initiate the movement of water; Secondary forces that influence the currents to flow. Primary Forces Responsible For Ocean Currents: Heating by solar energy: Heating by solar energy causes the water to expand. That is why, near the equator the ocean water is about 8 cm higher in level than in the middle latitudes. This causes a very slight gradient and water tends to flow down the slope. Wind: Wind blowing on the surface of the ocean pushes the water to move. Friction between the wind and the water surface affects the movement of the water body in its course. Gravity: Gravity tends to pull the water down the pile and create gradient variation. Coriolis force. The Coriolis force intervenes and causes the water to move to the right in the northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern hemisphere. Secondary forces: Differences in water density: It affects vertical mobility of ocean currents. Water with high salinity is denser than water with low salinity and in the same way cold water is denser than warm water. Denser water tends to sink, while relatively lighter water tends to rise. Temperature of water: Cold-water ocean currents occur when the cold water at the poles sinks and slowly moves towards the equator. Warm-water currents travel out from the equator along the surface, flowing towards the poles to replace the sinking cold water. Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Geography Trend: Basic concepts on Oceanography Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Ocean currents are the continuous, predictable, directional movement of seawater. It is a massive movement of ocean water that is caused and influenced by various forces. They are like river flows in oceans. Ocean currents are influenced by two types of forces namely: primary forces that initiate the movement of water; Secondary forces that influence the currents to flow. Primary Forces Responsible For Ocean Currents: Heating by solar energy: Heating by solar energy causes the water to expand. That is why, near the equator the ocean water is about 8 cm higher in level than in the middle latitudes. This causes a very slight gradient and water tends to flow down the slope. Wind: Wind blowing on the surface of the ocean pushes the water to move. Friction between the wind and the water surface affects the movement of the water body in its course. Gravity: Gravity tends to pull the water down the pile and create gradient variation. Coriolis force. The Coriolis force intervenes and causes the water to move to the right in the northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern hemisphere. Secondary forces: Differences in water density: It affects vertical mobility of ocean currents. Water with high salinity is denser than water with low salinity and in the same way cold water is denser than warm water. Denser water tends to sink, while relatively lighter water tends to rise. Temperature of water: Cold-water ocean currents occur when the cold water at the poles sinks and slowly moves towards the equator. Warm-water currents travel out from the equator along the surface, flowing towards the poles to replace the sinking cold water. Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Geography Trend: Basic concepts on Oceanography Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 20. Question

Consider the following with reference to ocean currents:

• Heating by solar energy

• Prevailing winds

• Differences in water density

How many of the above are primary forces that influence ocean currents?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

• Ocean currents are the continuous, predictable, directional movement of seawater. It is a massive movement of ocean water that is caused and influenced by various forces. They are like river flows in oceans.

• Ocean currents are influenced by two types of forces namely:

• primary forces that initiate the movement of water;

• Secondary forces that influence the currents to flow.

• Primary Forces Responsible For Ocean Currents:

• Heating by solar energy: Heating by solar energy causes the water to expand. That is why, near the equator the ocean water is about 8 cm higher in level than in the middle latitudes. This causes a very slight gradient and water tends to flow down the slope.

• Wind: Wind blowing on the surface of the ocean pushes the water to move. Friction between the wind and the water surface affects the movement of the water body in its course.

• Gravity: Gravity tends to pull the water down the pile and create gradient variation.

• Coriolis force. The Coriolis force intervenes and causes the water to move to the right in the northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern hemisphere.

• Secondary forces:

• Differences in water density: It affects vertical mobility of ocean currents. Water with high salinity is denser than water with low salinity and in the same way cold water is denser than warm water. Denser water tends to sink, while relatively lighter water tends to rise.

• Temperature of water: Cold-water ocean currents occur when the cold water at the poles sinks and slowly moves towards the equator. Warm-water currents travel out from the equator along the surface, flowing towards the poles to replace the sinking cold water.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: Basic concepts on Oceanography

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Explanation:

• Ocean currents are influenced by two types of forces namely:

• primary forces that initiate the movement of water;

• Secondary forces that influence the currents to flow.

• Primary Forces Responsible For Ocean Currents:

• Wind: Wind blowing on the surface of the ocean pushes the water to move. Friction between the wind and the water surface affects the movement of the water body in its course.

• Gravity: Gravity tends to pull the water down the pile and create gradient variation.

• Coriolis force. The Coriolis force intervenes and causes the water to move to the right in the northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern hemisphere.

• Secondary forces:

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: Basic concepts on Oceanography

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Cluster munitions are weapons that disperse explosive submunitions over a wide area, causing significant civilian casualties and posing long-term risks due to unexploded ordnance. All countries that are members of the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) are also signatories to the Convention on Cluster Munitions (CCM) Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: a) Justification: The Convention on Cluster Munitions (CCM) prohibits the use, stockpiling, production, and transfer of cluster munitions. However, major countries like the U.S., Russia, China, India, Israel, Pakistan, and Ukraine, along with several NATO countries, are not party to the convention. According to Cluster Munition Monitor 2022, sixteen countries that have refused to sign the convention and who produce cluster munitions included Brazil, China, Egypt, Greece, Iran, Israel, India, North Korea, Pakistan, Poland, Romania, Russia, Singapore, South Korea, the United States and Turkey. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Current Affairs Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: a) Justification: The Convention on Cluster Munitions (CCM) prohibits the use, stockpiling, production, and transfer of cluster munitions. However, major countries like the U.S., Russia, China, India, Israel, Pakistan, and Ukraine, along with several NATO countries, are not party to the convention. According to Cluster Munition Monitor 2022, sixteen countries that have refused to sign the convention and who produce cluster munitions included Brazil, China, Egypt, Greece, Iran, Israel, India, North Korea, Pakistan, Poland, Romania, Russia, Singapore, South Korea, the United States and Turkey. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Current Affairs Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 21. Question

Consider the following statements.

• Cluster munitions are weapons that disperse explosive submunitions over a wide area, causing significant civilian casualties and posing long-term risks due to unexploded ordnance.

• All countries that are members of the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) are also signatories to the Convention on Cluster Munitions (CCM)

Which of the above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a)

Justification: The Convention on Cluster Munitions (CCM) prohibits the use, stockpiling, production, and transfer of cluster munitions. However, major countries like the U.S., Russia, China, India, Israel, Pakistan, and Ukraine, along with several NATO countries, are not party to the convention.

According to Cluster Munition Monitor 2022, sixteen countries that have refused to sign the convention and who produce cluster munitions included Brazil, China, Egypt, Greece, Iran, Israel, India, North Korea, Pakistan, Poland, Romania, Russia, Singapore, South Korea, the United States and Turkey.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Current Affairs

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: a)

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Current Affairs

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Germanium finds applications in infrared and fibre optics making solar cells designing highly insulating material Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: a) Justification: Germanium is a lustrous, hard, greyish-white metalloid that is commonly found in trace amounts in certain minerals. Germanium has semiconductor properties, making it useful in electronic devices such as transistors and diodes. It is also used in infrared optics, fibre optics, and solar cells. Germanium has a high refractive index and excellent thermal conductivity, which makes it valuable in optical and thermal applications. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Important minerals Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Solution: a) Justification: Germanium is a lustrous, hard, greyish-white metalloid that is commonly found in trace amounts in certain minerals. Germanium has semiconductor properties, making it useful in electronic devices such as transistors and diodes. It is also used in infrared optics, fibre optics, and solar cells. Germanium has a high refractive index and excellent thermal conductivity, which makes it valuable in optical and thermal applications. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Important minerals Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 22. Question

Germanium finds applications in

• infrared and fibre optics

• making solar cells

• designing highly insulating material

Which of the above is/are correct?

• a) 1 and 2 only

• b) 2 and 3 only

• d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: a)

Justification: Germanium is a lustrous, hard, greyish-white metalloid that is commonly found in trace amounts in certain minerals.

Germanium has semiconductor properties, making it useful in electronic devices such as transistors and diodes. It is also used in infrared optics, fibre optics, and solar cells.

Germanium has a high refractive index and excellent thermal conductivity, which makes it valuable in optical and thermal applications.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Important minerals

Approach: Applied knowledge

Solution: a)

Justification: Germanium is a lustrous, hard, greyish-white metalloid that is commonly found in trace amounts in certain minerals.

Germanium has semiconductor properties, making it useful in electronic devices such as transistors and diodes. It is also used in infrared optics, fibre optics, and solar cells.

Germanium has a high refractive index and excellent thermal conductivity, which makes it valuable in optical and thermal applications.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Important minerals

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Neutrinos, which are low-mass particles that interact weakly with matter, are emitted when cosmic rays collide with interstellar matter. Recently, scientists used data from the Ice Cube Neutrino Observatory in Antarctica to obtain the first view of the Milky Way galaxy through the lens of neutrino particles. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: c) Justification: Scientists have used data from the Ice Cube Neutrino Observatory in Antarctica to obtain the first view of the Milky Way galaxy through the lens of neutrino particles. This breakthrough provides researchers with a new perspective on the cosmos, as neutrinos offer a different way to study cosmic rays. Neutrinos, which are low-mass particles that interact weakly with matter, are emitted when cosmic rays collide with interstellar matter. By analysing the data, scientists were able to differentiate between neutrinos of astrophysical origin and those generated from cosmic ray collisions in the Earth’s atmosphere. The study revealed that nearly 7% of the observed neutrino events were astrophysical in nature, rejecting the hypothesis that all events were due to cosmic rays hitting the Earth’s atmosphere. This research opens new avenues for studying highly energetic processes in the galaxy and promises further insights as the IceCube-Gen2 experiment expands in the future. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Scientific exploration Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: Scientists have used data from the Ice Cube Neutrino Observatory in Antarctica to obtain the first view of the Milky Way galaxy through the lens of neutrino particles. This breakthrough provides researchers with a new perspective on the cosmos, as neutrinos offer a different way to study cosmic rays. Neutrinos, which are low-mass particles that interact weakly with matter, are emitted when cosmic rays collide with interstellar matter. By analysing the data, scientists were able to differentiate between neutrinos of astrophysical origin and those generated from cosmic ray collisions in the Earth’s atmosphere. The study revealed that nearly 7% of the observed neutrino events were astrophysical in nature, rejecting the hypothesis that all events were due to cosmic rays hitting the Earth’s atmosphere. This research opens new avenues for studying highly energetic processes in the galaxy and promises further insights as the IceCube-Gen2 experiment expands in the future. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Scientific exploration Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 23. Question

Consider the following statements.

• Neutrinos, which are low-mass particles that interact weakly with matter, are emitted when cosmic rays collide with interstellar matter.

• Recently, scientists used data from the Ice Cube Neutrino Observatory in Antarctica to obtain the first view of the Milky Way galaxy through the lens of neutrino particles.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c)

Justification: Scientists have used data from the Ice Cube Neutrino Observatory in Antarctica to obtain the first view of the Milky Way galaxy through the lens of neutrino particles.

• This breakthrough provides researchers with a new perspective on the cosmos, as neutrinos offer a different way to study cosmic rays. Neutrinos, which are low-mass particles that interact weakly with matter, are emitted when cosmic rays collide with interstellar matter.

• By analysing the data, scientists were able to differentiate between neutrinos of astrophysical origin and those generated from cosmic ray collisions in the Earth’s atmosphere.

• The study revealed that nearly 7% of the observed neutrino events were astrophysical in nature, rejecting the hypothesis that all events were due to cosmic rays hitting the Earth’s atmosphere.

• This research opens new avenues for studying highly energetic processes in the galaxy and promises further insights as the IceCube-Gen2 experiment expands in the future.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Scientific exploration

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: c)

Justification: Scientists have used data from the Ice Cube Neutrino Observatory in Antarctica to obtain the first view of the Milky Way galaxy through the lens of neutrino particles.

• By analysing the data, scientists were able to differentiate between neutrinos of astrophysical origin and those generated from cosmic ray collisions in the Earth’s atmosphere.

• The study revealed that nearly 7% of the observed neutrino events were astrophysical in nature, rejecting the hypothesis that all events were due to cosmic rays hitting the Earth’s atmosphere.

• This research opens new avenues for studying highly energetic processes in the galaxy and promises further insights as the IceCube-Gen2 experiment expands in the future.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Scientific exploration

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Hydrazine Hydrate is used for manufacturing pesticides as a oxygen scavenger in the treatment of boiler water as a rocket propellant Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 Only b) 1, 2 and 3 c) 2 and 3 only d) None Correct Solution: b) Justification: Hydrazine Hydrate is a chemical compound with the formula N2H4·H2O. It is a colourless liquid that is widely used as a reducing agent, a chemical intermediate, an oxygen scavenger in the treatment of boiler water, and a rocket propellant. It has applications in industries such as pesticides, agrochemicals, water treatment, pharmaceuticals, polymer production, and fine chemicals. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Important minerals/gases/chemicals Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: b) Justification: Hydrazine Hydrate is a chemical compound with the formula N2H4·H2O. It is a colourless liquid that is widely used as a reducing agent, a chemical intermediate, an oxygen scavenger in the treatment of boiler water, and a rocket propellant. It has applications in industries such as pesticides, agrochemicals, water treatment, pharmaceuticals, polymer production, and fine chemicals. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Important minerals/gases/chemicals Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 24. Question

Consider the following statements.

Hydrazine Hydrate is used

• for manufacturing pesticides

• as a oxygen scavenger in the treatment of boiler water

• as a rocket propellant

Which of the above is/are correct?

• b) 1, 2 and 3

• c) 2 and 3 only

Solution: b)

Justification: Hydrazine Hydrate is a chemical compound with the formula N2H4·H2O.

It is a colourless liquid that is widely used as a reducing agent, a chemical intermediate, an oxygen scavenger in the treatment of boiler water, and a rocket propellant.

It has applications in industries such as pesticides, agrochemicals, water treatment, pharmaceuticals, polymer production, and fine chemicals.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Important minerals/gases/chemicals

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: b)

Justification: Hydrazine Hydrate is a chemical compound with the formula N2H4·H2O.

It is a colourless liquid that is widely used as a reducing agent, a chemical intermediate, an oxygen scavenger in the treatment of boiler water, and a rocket propellant.

It has applications in industries such as pesticides, agrochemicals, water treatment, pharmaceuticals, polymer production, and fine chemicals.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Important minerals/gases/chemicals

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Shelf clouds are wedge-shaped clouds that appear on the leading edge of storms. Shelf clouds form when hot and dry air is lifted rapidly by an advancing thunderstorm or warm front. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: a) Justification: Shelf clouds are wedge-shaped formations that appear on the leading edge of storms. They occur when cold and dense air is forcefully driven into a warmer air mass during the downdraft of a thunderstorm. Shelf clouds form when warm, moist air is lifted rapidly by an advancing thunderstorm or cold front. As the warm air rises, it cools and condenses, forming a cloud. The rising air creates a boundary between the cool, downdraft air from the storm and the warm, updraft air ahead of it. The shelf cloud is usually dark and ominous-looking due to the condensation and the presence of rain or hail within the storm. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Basic concepts on Cloud formation Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: a) Justification: Shelf clouds are wedge-shaped formations that appear on the leading edge of storms. They occur when cold and dense air is forcefully driven into a warmer air mass during the downdraft of a thunderstorm. Shelf clouds form when warm, moist air is lifted rapidly by an advancing thunderstorm or cold front. As the warm air rises, it cools and condenses, forming a cloud. The rising air creates a boundary between the cool, downdraft air from the storm and the warm, updraft air ahead of it. The shelf cloud is usually dark and ominous-looking due to the condensation and the presence of rain or hail within the storm. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Basic concepts on Cloud formation Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 25. Question

Consider the following statements.

• Shelf clouds are wedge-shaped clouds that appear on the leading edge of storms.

• Shelf clouds form when hot and dry air is lifted rapidly by an advancing thunderstorm or warm front.

Which of the above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a)

Justification: Shelf clouds are wedge-shaped formations that appear on the leading edge of storms. They occur when cold and dense air is forcefully driven into a warmer air mass during the downdraft of a thunderstorm.

Shelf clouds form when warm, moist air is lifted rapidly by an advancing thunderstorm or cold front. As the warm air rises, it cools and condenses, forming a cloud.

The rising air creates a boundary between the cool, downdraft air from the storm and the warm, updraft air ahead of it. The shelf cloud is usually dark and ominous-looking due to the condensation and the presence of rain or hail within the storm.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Basic concepts on Cloud formation

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: a)

Shelf clouds form when warm, moist air is lifted rapidly by an advancing thunderstorm or cold front. As the warm air rises, it cools and condenses, forming a cloud.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Basic concepts on Cloud formation

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points While talking about a place to his friend Shashank said, “I could swim downstream to the place in 12 hours but while coming upstream it took 18 hours. The river was running at a speed of 6 km/hr.” What is his speed in still water? a. 12 km/hr b. 24 km/hr c. 30 km/hr d. 36 km/hr Correct Answer: C) 30 km/hr Explanation: Man’s/Boat’s Speed = X Stream/Current/River Speed = Y ∴ Downstream speed = X + Y Upstream speed = X – Y ∴ X+Y = (X+6) km/hr and X-Y = (X-6) km/hr Distance is same ∴ D=D ∴ (X+6) x 12 = (X-6) x 18 ∴ X=30 km/hr = Speed of Shashank Incorrect Answer: C) 30 km/hr Explanation: Man’s/Boat’s Speed = X Stream/Current/River Speed = Y ∴ Downstream speed = X + Y Upstream speed = X – Y ∴ X+Y = (X+6) km/hr and X-Y = (X-6) km/hr Distance is same ∴ D=D ∴ (X+6) x 12 = (X-6) x 18 ∴ X=30 km/hr = Speed of Shashank

#### 26. Question

While talking about a place to his friend Shashank said, “I could swim downstream to the place in 12 hours but while coming upstream it took 18 hours. The river was running at a speed of 6 km/hr.” What is his speed in still water?

• a. 12 km/hr

• b. 24 km/hr

• c. 30 km/hr

• d. 36 km/hr

Answer: C) 30 km/hr

Explanation:

Man’s/Boat’s Speed = X

Stream/Current/River Speed = Y

∴ Downstream speed = X + Y

Upstream speed = X – Y

∴ X+Y = (X+6) km/hr and X-Y = (X-6) km/hr

Distance is same

∴ (X+6) x 12 = (X-6) x 18

∴ X=30 km/hr = Speed of Shashank

Answer: C) 30 km/hr

Explanation:

Man’s/Boat’s Speed = X

Stream/Current/River Speed = Y

∴ Downstream speed = X + Y

Upstream speed = X – Y

∴ X+Y = (X+6) km/hr and X-Y = (X-6) km/hr

Distance is same

∴ (X+6) x 12 = (X-6) x 18

∴ X=30 km/hr = Speed of Shashank

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points A policeman sighted a robber from a distance of 300 m. The robber also noticed the policeman and started running at 8 km/hr. The policeman also started running after him at the speed of 10 km/hr. Find the distance that the robber would run before being caught. a) 1 km b) 1.2 km c) 1.4 km d) 1.6 km Correct Solution: B) 1.2 km Since both are running in the same direction, relative speed = 10 – 8 = 2 km/hr Now, to catch the robber if he were stagnant, the policeman would have to run 300 m. But since both are moving, the policeman needs to finish off this separation of 300 m. => 300 m (or 0.3 km)is to be covered at the relative speed of 2 km/hr. => Time taken = 0.3 / 2 = 0.15 hours Therefore, distance run by robber before being caught = Distance run in 0.15 hours => Distance run by the robber = 8 x 0.15 = 1.2 km Incorrect Solution: B) 1.2 km Since both are running in the same direction, relative speed = 10 – 8 = 2 km/hr Now, to catch the robber if he were stagnant, the policeman would have to run 300 m. But since both are moving, the policeman needs to finish off this separation of 300 m. => 300 m (or 0.3 km)is to be covered at the relative speed of 2 km/hr. => Time taken = 0.3 / 2 = 0.15 hours Therefore, distance run by robber before being caught = Distance run in 0.15 hours => Distance run by the robber = 8 x 0.15 = 1.2 km

#### 27. Question

A policeman sighted a robber from a distance of 300 m. The robber also noticed the policeman and started running at 8 km/hr. The policeman also started running after him at the speed of 10 km/hr. Find the distance that the robber would run before being caught.

Solution: B) 1.2 km

Since both are running in the same direction, relative speed = 10 – 8 = 2 km/hr

Now, to catch the robber if he were stagnant, the policeman would have to run 300 m. But since both are moving, the policeman needs to finish off this separation of 300 m.

=> 300 m (or 0.3 km)is to be covered at the relative speed of 2 km/hr.

=> Time taken = 0.3 / 2 = 0.15 hours

Therefore, distance run by robber before being caught = Distance run in 0.15 hours

=> Distance run by the robber = 8 x 0.15 = 1.2 km

Solution: B) 1.2 km

Since both are running in the same direction, relative speed = 10 – 8 = 2 km/hr

Now, to catch the robber if he were stagnant, the policeman would have to run 300 m. But since both are moving, the policeman needs to finish off this separation of 300 m.

=> 300 m (or 0.3 km)is to be covered at the relative speed of 2 km/hr.

=> Time taken = 0.3 / 2 = 0.15 hours

Therefore, distance run by robber before being caught = Distance run in 0.15 hours

=> Distance run by the robber = 8 x 0.15 = 1.2 km

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points To cover a certain distance, a geek had two options, either to ride a horse or to walk. If he walked one side and rode back the other side, it would have taken 4 hours. If he had walked both ways, it would have taken 6 hours. How much time will he take if he rode the horse both ways? a) 1 hour b) 2 hour c) 3 hour d) 4 hour Correct Solution : B) 2 hour Time taken to walk one side + Time taken to ride one side = 4 hours Time taken to walk both sides = 2 x Time taken to walk one side = 6 hours => Time taken to walk one side = 3 hours Therefore, time taken to ride one side = 4 – 3 = 1 hour Thus, time taken to ride both sides = 2 x 1 = 2 hours Incorrect Solution : B) 2 hour Time taken to walk one side + Time taken to ride one side = 4 hours Time taken to walk both sides = 2 x Time taken to walk one side = 6 hours => Time taken to walk one side = 3 hours Therefore, time taken to ride one side = 4 – 3 = 1 hour Thus, time taken to ride both sides = 2 x 1 = 2 hours

#### 28. Question

To cover a certain distance, a geek had two options, either to ride a horse or to walk. If he walked one side and rode back the other side, it would have taken 4 hours. If he had walked both ways, it would have taken 6 hours. How much time will he take if he rode the horse both ways?

Solution : B) 2 hour

Time taken to walk one side + Time taken to ride one side = 4 hours

Time taken to walk both sides = 2 x Time taken to walk one side = 6 hours

=> Time taken to walk one side = 3 hours

Therefore, time taken to ride one side = 4 – 3 = 1 hour

Thus, time taken to ride both sides = 2 x 1 = 2 hours

Solution : B) 2 hour

Time taken to walk one side + Time taken to ride one side = 4 hours

Time taken to walk both sides = 2 x Time taken to walk one side = 6 hours

=> Time taken to walk one side = 3 hours

Therefore, time taken to ride one side = 4 – 3 = 1 hour

Thus, time taken to ride both sides = 2 x 1 = 2 hours

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points The two biggest labour force issues of India are: the shrinking share of the labour force; and the rising unemployment. The labour force participation rate in the earlier survey of 2012 was 55.5%. This has shrunk to 49.7%. The highest unemployment rate of a severe nature was among the urban women at 10.8%; followed by urban men at 7.1%; rural men at 5.8%; and rural women at 3.8%. The issue of educated unemployment, given its link with not just growth but also with transformative development, has never been as acute as at present it is at 11.4% compared to the previous survey’s figure of 4.9%. Among those with secondary school education, it is 5.7% but jumps to 10.3% when those with higher secondary-level education are considered. The overall conclusion here is that the trend of ‘jobless growth’ that was till recently confined largely, if not only, to the organised sector has now spread to other sectors of the economy. The crux of the passage is best described by, A. Need to focus what type of education is being given B. Jobless growth is more systemic today C. Women are discouraged to seek job owing to unfavourable gender dynamics D. The model of growth in India is favourable to men Correct Answer: B The passage ends with a summarisation that jobless growth has spread to all other sectors, making it more generalised and so a SYSTEMIC issue. So B is correct. What is the problem with education is not discussed here, no reason as to why women enter labour force less than men is not discussed here, and surely growth is not posted as patriarchical, so A C and D are wrong. Incorrect Answer: B The passage ends with a summarisation that jobless growth has spread to all other sectors, making it more generalised and so a SYSTEMIC issue. So B is correct. What is the problem with education is not discussed here, no reason as to why women enter labour force less than men is not discussed here, and surely growth is not posted as patriarchical, so A C and D are wrong.

#### 29. Question

The two biggest labour force issues of India are: the shrinking share of the labour force; and the rising unemployment. The labour force participation rate in the earlier survey of 2012 was 55.5%. This has shrunk to 49.7%. The highest unemployment rate of a severe nature was among the urban women at 10.8%; followed by urban men at 7.1%; rural men at 5.8%; and rural women at 3.8%. The issue of educated unemployment, given its link with not just growth but also with transformative development, has never been as acute as at present it is at 11.4% compared to the previous survey’s figure of 4.9%. Among those with secondary school education, it is 5.7% but jumps to 10.3% when those with higher secondary-level education are considered. The overall conclusion here is that the trend of ‘jobless growth’ that was till recently confined largely, if not only, to the organised sector has now spread to other sectors of the economy.

The crux of the passage is best described by,

• A. Need to focus what type of education is being given

• B. Jobless growth is more systemic today

• C. Women are discouraged to seek job owing to unfavourable gender dynamics

• D. The model of growth in India is favourable to men

The passage ends with a summarisation that jobless growth has spread to all other sectors, making it more generalised and so a SYSTEMIC issue. So B is correct.

What is the problem with education is not discussed here, no reason as to why women enter labour force less than men is not discussed here, and surely growth is not posted as patriarchical, so A C and D are wrong.

The passage ends with a summarisation that jobless growth has spread to all other sectors, making it more generalised and so a SYSTEMIC issue. So B is correct.

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points The two biggest labour force issues of India are: the shrinking share of the labour force; and the rising unemployment. The labour force participation rate in the earlier survey of 2012 was 55.5%. This has shrunk to 49.7%. The highest unemployment rate of a severe nature was among the urban women at 10.8%; followed by urban men at 7.1%; rural men at 5.8%; and rural women at 3.8%. The issue of educated unemployment, given its link with not just growth but also with transformative development, has never been as acute as at present it is at 11.4% compared to the previous survey’s figure of 4.9%. Among those with secondary school education, it is 5.7% but jumps to 10.3% when those with higher secondary-level education are considered. The overall conclusion here is that the trend of ‘jobless growth’ that was till recently confined largely, if not only, to the organised sector has now spread to other sectors of the economy.. The critical message of the author seems to be, A. Need to re-examine missing link between growth and employment B. Urbanization is faulty as long as it is jobless C. More education in urban areas and easy access of male to it hardly brought employment D. The labour force issues need a new prism to be analyzed Correct Answer: A The message by author is there are no jobs. Urban unemployment is discussed but it is not the centre of discussion, we are not said education is easily available for urban people and men, D is more vague and generic. A is the answer, the author agrees growth is jobless so we have to find why this is happening. Incorrect Answer: A The message by author is there are no jobs. Urban unemployment is discussed but it is not the centre of discussion, we are not said education is easily available for urban people and men, D is more vague and generic. A is the answer, the author agrees growth is jobless so we have to find why this is happening.

#### 30. Question

The critical message of the author seems to be,

• A. Need to re-examine missing link between growth and employment

• B. Urbanization is faulty as long as it is jobless

• C. More education in urban areas and easy access of male to it hardly brought employment

• D. The labour force issues need a new prism to be analyzed

The message by author is there are no jobs. Urban unemployment is discussed but it is not the centre of discussion, we are not said education is easily available for urban people and men, D is more vague and generic. A is the answer, the author agrees growth is jobless so we have to find why this is happening.

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