DAY – 59 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – ANCIENT & MEDIEVAL INDIA , PREVIOUS YEAR UPSC PAPER 2007 and Nov 2023 CA

INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Regarding the sacrificial tradition in early Vedic culture, consider the following statements: Early Vedic sacrifices were primarily conducted by individual households. Rig Vedic hymns were used during sacrifices to invoke various deities. Which of the above given statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: b Explanation: Early Vedic sacrifices were typically collective or performed by groups such as tribes or communities. Over time, from around 1000 BCE to 500 BCE, individual households began to conduct their own sacrifices for the well-being of their family or domestic unit. Thus, the initial emphasis was on collective sacrifices, not individual households. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. The Rigveda, which was composed between 1500 and 1000 BCE, consists of hymns that were recited during sacrifices to invoke various deities like Agni, Indra, and Soma. These hymns played a central role in the sacrificial tradition. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Early Vedic sacrifices were typically collective or performed by groups such as tribes or communities. Over time, from around 1000 BCE to 500 BCE, individual households began to conduct their own sacrifices for the well-being of their family or domestic unit. Thus, the initial emphasis was on collective sacrifices, not individual households. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. The Rigveda, which was composed between 1500 and 1000 BCE, consists of hymns that were recited during sacrifices to invoke various deities like Agni, Indra, and Soma. These hymns played a central role in the sacrificial tradition. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 1. Question

Regarding the sacrificial tradition in early Vedic culture, consider the following statements:

• Early Vedic sacrifices were primarily conducted by individual households.

• Rig Vedic hymns were used during sacrifices to invoke various deities.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• Early Vedic sacrifices were typically collective or performed by groups such as tribes or communities. Over time, from around 1000 BCE to 500 BCE, individual households began to conduct their own sacrifices for the well-being of their family or domestic unit. Thus, the initial emphasis was on collective sacrifices, not individual households. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• The Rigveda, which was composed between 1500 and 1000 BCE, consists of hymns that were recited during sacrifices to invoke various deities like Agni, Indra, and Soma. These hymns played a central role in the sacrificial tradition. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Stupas were initially created to mark places of significance related to the life of the Buddha. The tradition of erecting stupas began with the distribution of Buddha’s relics by King Asoka. Which of the above given statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: a Explanation: Stupas were often built to mark places of significance related to the life of the Buddha, such as where he was born (Lumbini), attained enlightenment (Bodh Gaya), gave his first sermon (Sarnath), and attained nibbana (Kusinagara). Additionally, stupas were created to house relics of the Buddha and became sacred sites. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Although King Asoka played a significant role in the construction of stupas by distributing the relics of the Buddha, the tradition of erecting stupas likely predated him. Stupas might have originated as funerary mounds or as sites of religious significance, even before the time of Asoka. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Stupas were often built to mark places of significance related to the life of the Buddha, such as where he was born (Lumbini), attained enlightenment (Bodh Gaya), gave his first sermon (Sarnath), and attained nibbana (Kusinagara). Additionally, stupas were created to house relics of the Buddha and became sacred sites. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Although King Asoka played a significant role in the construction of stupas by distributing the relics of the Buddha, the tradition of erecting stupas likely predated him. Stupas might have originated as funerary mounds or as sites of religious significance, even before the time of Asoka. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Stupas were initially created to mark places of significance related to the life of the Buddha.

• The tradition of erecting stupas began with the distribution of Buddha’s relics by King Asoka.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• Stupas were often built to mark places of significance related to the life of the Buddha, such as where he was born (Lumbini), attained enlightenment (Bodh Gaya), gave his first sermon (Sarnath), and attained nibbana (Kusinagara). Additionally, stupas were created to house relics of the Buddha and became sacred sites. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Although King Asoka played a significant role in the construction of stupas by distributing the relics of the Buddha, the tradition of erecting stupas likely predated him. Stupas might have originated as funerary mounds or as sites of religious significance, even before the time of Asoka. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points What does the term ‘Piyadassi’ mean? a) "He who rules by dhamma" b) "Pleasant to behold" c) "King of kings" d) "Great conqueror" Correct Answer: b Explanation: “Piyadassi” is a term often used in ancient Indian inscriptions, particularly in the edicts of Asoka. It is a title or honorific that means “pleasant to behold.” The use of this term was prevalent in inscriptions and coins from the Mauryan period. Asoka, one of the most famous Mauryan emperors, used this term to describe himself in his inscriptions, reflecting an image of a benevolent ruler who embraced dhamma (righteousness or moral law) and emphasized respect, compassion, and ethical governance. This term does not directly relate to the concept of ruling by dhamma, though Asoka’s rule did embrace this philosophy. It is more about how the king was perceived, indicating his role as a fair and just ruler. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: “Piyadassi” is a term often used in ancient Indian inscriptions, particularly in the edicts of Asoka. It is a title or honorific that means “pleasant to behold.” The use of this term was prevalent in inscriptions and coins from the Mauryan period. Asoka, one of the most famous Mauryan emperors, used this term to describe himself in his inscriptions, reflecting an image of a benevolent ruler who embraced dhamma (righteousness or moral law) and emphasized respect, compassion, and ethical governance. This term does not directly relate to the concept of ruling by dhamma, though Asoka’s rule did embrace this philosophy. It is more about how the king was perceived, indicating his role as a fair and just ruler. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 3. Question

What does the term ‘Piyadassi’ mean?

• a) "He who rules by dhamma"

• b) "Pleasant to behold"

• c) "King of kings"

• d) "Great conqueror"

Explanation:

• “Piyadassi” is a term often used in ancient Indian inscriptions, particularly in the edicts of Asoka. It is a title or honorific that means “pleasant to behold.” The use of this term was prevalent in inscriptions and coins from the Mauryan period.

• Asoka, one of the most famous Mauryan emperors, used this term to describe himself in his inscriptions, reflecting an image of a benevolent ruler who embraced dhamma (righteousness or moral law) and emphasized respect, compassion, and ethical governance.

• This term does not directly relate to the concept of ruling by dhamma, though Asoka’s rule did embrace this philosophy. It is more about how the king was perceived, indicating his role as a fair and just ruler.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Al-Biruni’s interest in India developed during his time in Ghazni, where he spent time with Brahmana priests and scholars Kitab-ul-Hind is a voluminous text divided into chapters on various topics including religion, astronomy, alchemy, and customs. Al-Biruni’s primary objective in writing Kitab-ul-Hind was to prove the superiority of Indian culture to other cultures. Al-Biruni used a distinct structure in each chapter, often beginning with a question, followed by a description, and concluding with comparisons to other cultures. How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: c Explanation: Al-Biruni developed his interest in India after Sultan Mahmud’s invasion of Khwarizm and during his time in Ghazni, where he interacted with Brahmana priests and scholars and studied Sanskrit texts. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Kitab-ul-Hind, written by Al-Biruni, is a comprehensive text divided into 80 chapters covering various subjects like religion, astronomy, alchemy, and customs. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Al-Biruni’s objective was to create a repository of information for those interested in discussing religious questions with Hindus or associating with them. His work aimed to provide a clear and objective analysis of Indian culture, not necessarily to prove its superiority. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Al-Biruni often used a distinctive structure for his chapters, beginning with a question, then providing a description based on Sanskritic traditions, and concluding with comparisons with other cultures. Hence, statement 4 is correct. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Al-Biruni developed his interest in India after Sultan Mahmud’s invasion of Khwarizm and during his time in Ghazni, where he interacted with Brahmana priests and scholars and studied Sanskrit texts. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Kitab-ul-Hind, written by Al-Biruni, is a comprehensive text divided into 80 chapters covering various subjects like religion, astronomy, alchemy, and customs. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Al-Biruni’s objective was to create a repository of information for those interested in discussing religious questions with Hindus or associating with them. His work aimed to provide a clear and objective analysis of Indian culture, not necessarily to prove its superiority. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Al-Biruni often used a distinctive structure for his chapters, beginning with a question, then providing a description based on Sanskritic traditions, and concluding with comparisons with other cultures. Hence, statement 4 is correct. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Al-Biruni’s interest in India developed during his time in Ghazni, where he spent time with Brahmana priests and scholars

• Kitab-ul-Hind is a voluminous text divided into chapters on various topics including religion, astronomy, alchemy, and customs.

• Al-Biruni’s primary objective in writing Kitab-ul-Hind was to prove the superiority of Indian culture to other cultures.

• Al-Biruni used a distinct structure in each chapter, often beginning with a question, followed by a description, and concluding with comparisons to other cultures.

How many of the above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

• Al-Biruni developed his interest in India after Sultan Mahmud’s invasion of Khwarizm and during his time in Ghazni, where he interacted with Brahmana priests and scholars and studied Sanskrit texts. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Kitab-ul-Hind, written by Al-Biruni, is a comprehensive text divided into 80 chapters covering various subjects like religion, astronomy, alchemy, and customs. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Al-Biruni’s objective was to create a repository of information for those interested in discussing religious questions with Hindus or associating with them. His work aimed to provide a clear and objective analysis of Indian culture, not necessarily to prove its superiority. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Al-Biruni often used a distinctive structure for his chapters, beginning with a question, then providing a description based on Sanskritic traditions, and concluding with comparisons with other cultures. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points François Bernier’s descriptions of India in the 17th century reflect a comparative analysis between European and Indian societies. Which of the following statements is true about Bernier’s perspective? a) Bernier's accounts largely focused on the Mughal court, offering detailed insights into its functioning and practices. b) Bernier's writings were largely influenced by his role as a physician to Mughal nobles, emphasizing the similarities between Indian and European practices. c) Bernier's works, aimed at European audiences, often depicted Indian society in a less favourable light compared to European societies d) Bernier's accounts highlighted the cultural achievements of India while contrasting them with those of Europe. Correct Answer: c Explanation: François Bernier’s descriptions of India in the 17th century are known for their comparative analysis between European and Indian societies. Bernier often highlighted what he saw as deficiencies in Indian society compared to Europe, particularly in areas like governance, society, and technology. His accounts were addressed to European audiences, and he frequently used a critical lens when discussing Indian society, comparing it unfavourably with European norms and practices. Hence, option(c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: François Bernier’s descriptions of India in the 17th century are known for their comparative analysis between European and Indian societies. Bernier often highlighted what he saw as deficiencies in Indian society compared to Europe, particularly in areas like governance, society, and technology. His accounts were addressed to European audiences, and he frequently used a critical lens when discussing Indian society, comparing it unfavourably with European norms and practices. Hence, option(c) is correct.

#### 5. Question

François Bernier’s descriptions of India in the 17th century reflect a comparative analysis between European and Indian societies. Which of the following statements is true about Bernier’s perspective?

• a) Bernier's accounts largely focused on the Mughal court, offering detailed insights into its functioning and practices.

• b) Bernier's writings were largely influenced by his role as a physician to Mughal nobles, emphasizing the similarities between Indian and European practices.

• c) Bernier's works, aimed at European audiences, often depicted Indian society in a less favourable light compared to European societies

• d) Bernier's accounts highlighted the cultural achievements of India while contrasting them with those of Europe.

Explanation:

• François Bernier’s descriptions of India in the 17th century are known for their comparative analysis between European and Indian societies. Bernier often highlighted what he saw as deficiencies in Indian society compared to Europe, particularly in areas like governance, society, and technology. His accounts were addressed to European audiences, and he frequently used a critical lens when discussing Indian society, comparing it unfavourably with European norms and practices.

Hence, option(c) is correct.

Explanation:

Hence, option(c) is correct.

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Which of the following rituals signified the “rebirth” of a ruler into the Kshatriya caste, even if they were not born into it? a) Ashvamedha b) Hiranya-garbha c) Rajasuya d) Vajapeya Correct Answer: b Explanation: Hiranya-garbha, literally meaning “golden womb,” was a ritual performed with the help of Brahmanas to symbolize the rebirth of the sacrificer as a Kshatriya, regardless of their original birth status. It was a means for rulers or chieftains to legitimize their rule by claiming Kshatriya status, thereby reinforcing their position within the existing social and political hierarchy. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Hiranya-garbha, literally meaning “golden womb,” was a ritual performed with the help of Brahmanas to symbolize the rebirth of the sacrificer as a Kshatriya, regardless of their original birth status. It was a means for rulers or chieftains to legitimize their rule by claiming Kshatriya status, thereby reinforcing their position within the existing social and political hierarchy. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 6. Question

Which of the following rituals signified the “rebirth” of a ruler into the Kshatriya caste, even if they were not born into it?

• a) Ashvamedha

• b) Hiranya-garbha

• c) Rajasuya

• d) Vajapeya

Explanation:

• Hiranya-garbha, literally meaning “golden womb,” was a ritual performed with the help of Brahmanas to symbolize the rebirth of the sacrificer as a Kshatriya, regardless of their original birth status. It was a means for rulers or chieftains to legitimize their rule by claiming Kshatriya status, thereby reinforcing their position within the existing social and political hierarchy.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points In the context of temple construction during the Chola period, which of the following was NOT a common use of the land granted to temples? a) Building large temples and maintaining them with endowments b) Establishing settlements for various specialists and artisans near temples c) Hosting political gatherings and royal courts within temple premises d) Using temple land for agricultural production to support temple activities Correct Answer: c Explanation: During the Chola period, temples played a central role in social, cultural, and economic activities. They were not only places of worship but also centers of craft production, education, and community gatherings. The Chola rulers granted large tracts of land to temples, which were used in a variety of ways. Building large temples and maintaining them with endowments: This was a common practice during the Chola period. The temples of Thanjavur and Gangaikonda-cholapuram, built by Rajaraja and Rajendra, are examples of grand temple architecture. Establishing settlements for various specialists and artisans near temples: Temples became the nucleus around which settlements grew. These settlements housed specialists like priests, garland makers, cooks, sweepers, musicians, dancers, and artisans involved in crafts like bronze sculpture. Using temple land for agricultural production to support temple activities: Temples were often endowed with land, and the produce from this land supported the temple’s operations and the specialists working there. Agricultural production was a critical part of the temple’s sustainability. However, while temples played significant roles in the social and economic structures, they did not generally serve as venues for political gatherings or royal courts. Political activities and royal courts were typically held in royal palaces or administrative centres, not within temple premises. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: During the Chola period, temples played a central role in social, cultural, and economic activities. They were not only places of worship but also centers of craft production, education, and community gatherings. The Chola rulers granted large tracts of land to temples, which were used in a variety of ways. Building large temples and maintaining them with endowments: This was a common practice during the Chola period. The temples of Thanjavur and Gangaikonda-cholapuram, built by Rajaraja and Rajendra, are examples of grand temple architecture. Establishing settlements for various specialists and artisans near temples: Temples became the nucleus around which settlements grew. These settlements housed specialists like priests, garland makers, cooks, sweepers, musicians, dancers, and artisans involved in crafts like bronze sculpture. Using temple land for agricultural production to support temple activities: Temples were often endowed with land, and the produce from this land supported the temple’s operations and the specialists working there. Agricultural production was a critical part of the temple’s sustainability. However, while temples played significant roles in the social and economic structures, they did not generally serve as venues for political gatherings or royal courts. Political activities and royal courts were typically held in royal palaces or administrative centres, not within temple premises. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 7. Question

In the context of temple construction during the Chola period, which of the following was NOT a common use of the land granted to temples?

• a) Building large temples and maintaining them with endowments

• b) Establishing settlements for various specialists and artisans near temples

• c) Hosting political gatherings and royal courts within temple premises

• d) Using temple land for agricultural production to support temple activities

Explanation:

• During the Chola period, temples played a central role in social, cultural, and economic activities. They were not only places of worship but also centers of craft production, education, and community gatherings. The Chola rulers granted large tracts of land to temples, which were used in a variety of ways.

• Building large temples and maintaining them with endowments: This was a common practice during the Chola period. The temples of Thanjavur and Gangaikonda-cholapuram, built by Rajaraja and Rajendra, are examples of grand temple architecture.

• Establishing settlements for various specialists and artisans near temples: Temples became the nucleus around which settlements grew. These settlements housed specialists like priests, garland makers, cooks, sweepers, musicians, dancers, and artisans involved in crafts like bronze sculpture.

• Using temple land for agricultural production to support temple activities: Temples were often endowed with land, and the produce from this land supported the temple’s operations and the specialists working there. Agricultural production was a critical part of the temple’s sustainability.

• However, while temples played significant roles in the social and economic structures, they did not generally serve as venues for political gatherings or royal courts. Political activities and royal courts were typically held in royal palaces or administrative centres, not within temple premises.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Which of the following statements about the term “Hindustan” is correct? a) In the thirteenth century, "Hindustan" referred to the entire Indian subcontinent, including south India. b) In the early sixteenth century, Babur used the term "Hindustan" to describe the dominions of the Delhi Sultanate. c) Minhaj-i-Siraj used the term "Hindustan" to describe the geographical area encompassing Punjab, Haryana, and the lands between the Ganga and Yamuna. d) The term "Hindustan" has always been synonymous with modern-day India, from the thirteenth century to present. Correct Answer: c Explanation: The term “Hindustan” has had different meanings depending on the context and the time period. It did not always refer to the entire Indian subcontinent or modern-day India. Minhaj-i-Siraj was a notable 13th-century Persian chronicler and historian. His significant work, the “Tabaqat-i-Nasiri,” is a historical chronicle that details the events of the Delhi Sultanate. In his writings, he used the term “Hindustan” to refer to a specific geographical region. uring the 13th century, when Minhaj-i-Siraj wrote his chronicle, “Hindustan” did not have the same connotation as it does today. It was used to describe a political and territorial entity rather than a cultural or national identity. In this context, Minhaj-i-Siraj used “Hindustan” to refer to the areas that were part of the dominions of the Delhi Sultanate, focusing on: Punjab Haryana The lands between the Ganga and Yamuna rivers Babur, in the early sixteenth century, used “Hindustan” to describe the geography, fauna, and culture of the subcontinent, not necessarily to refer to the dominions of the Delhi Sultanate. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: The term “Hindustan” has had different meanings depending on the context and the time period. It did not always refer to the entire Indian subcontinent or modern-day India. Minhaj-i-Siraj was a notable 13th-century Persian chronicler and historian. His significant work, the “Tabaqat-i-Nasiri,” is a historical chronicle that details the events of the Delhi Sultanate. In his writings, he used the term “Hindustan” to refer to a specific geographical region. uring the 13th century, when Minhaj-i-Siraj wrote his chronicle, “Hindustan” did not have the same connotation as it does today. It was used to describe a political and territorial entity rather than a cultural or national identity. In this context, Minhaj-i-Siraj used “Hindustan” to refer to the areas that were part of the dominions of the Delhi Sultanate, focusing on: Punjab Haryana The lands between the Ganga and Yamuna rivers Babur, in the early sixteenth century, used “Hindustan” to describe the geography, fauna, and culture of the subcontinent, not necessarily to refer to the dominions of the Delhi Sultanate. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 8. Question

Which of the following statements about the term “Hindustan” is correct?

• a) In the thirteenth century, "Hindustan" referred to the entire Indian subcontinent, including south India.

• b) In the early sixteenth century, Babur used the term "Hindustan" to describe the dominions of the Delhi Sultanate.

• c) Minhaj-i-Siraj used the term "Hindustan" to describe the geographical area encompassing Punjab, Haryana, and the lands between the Ganga and Yamuna.

• d) The term "Hindustan" has always been synonymous with modern-day India, from the thirteenth century to present.

Explanation:

• The term “Hindustan” has had different meanings depending on the context and the time period. It did not always refer to the entire Indian subcontinent or modern-day India.

• Minhaj-i-Siraj was a notable 13th-century Persian chronicler and historian. His significant work, the “Tabaqat-i-Nasiri,” is a historical chronicle that details the events of the Delhi Sultanate. In his writings, he used the term “Hindustan” to refer to a specific geographical region.

• uring the 13th century, when Minhaj-i-Siraj wrote his chronicle, “Hindustan” did not have the same connotation as it does today. It was used to describe a political and territorial entity rather than a cultural or national identity. In this context, Minhaj-i-Siraj used “Hindustan” to refer to the areas that were part of the dominions of the Delhi Sultanate, focusing on:

• The lands between the Ganga and Yamuna rivers

• Babur, in the early sixteenth century, used “Hindustan” to describe the geography, fauna, and culture of the subcontinent, not necessarily to refer to the dominions of the Delhi Sultanate.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

• The term “Hindustan” has had different meanings depending on the context and the time period. It did not always refer to the entire Indian subcontinent or modern-day India.

• The lands between the Ganga and Yamuna rivers

Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points The Chera kingdom is known for its connection to the development of the Malayalam language. Which of the following statements is *incorrect about the Chera kingdom’s contribution to Malayalam? a) The Cheras were among the earliest to use Malayalam in their official records. b) The Cheras' use of Malayalam script marked a significant shift from the traditional use of Sanskrit in official records. c) The Cheras' temple theatres borrowed stories from Tamil epics to develop Malayalam plays. d) The Lilatilakam, a fourteenth-century text, was written in a mix of Sanskrit and Malayalam, indicating the bilingual nature of the region. Correct Answer: c Explanation: While temple theatres of Kerala during the Chera period drew upon Sanskritic traditions, there is no indication that they specifically borrowed stories from Tamil epics to develop Malayalam plays. The temple theatres were associated with Sanskrit epics, but not explicitly from Tamil sources. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: While temple theatres of Kerala during the Chera period drew upon Sanskritic traditions, there is no indication that they specifically borrowed stories from Tamil epics to develop Malayalam plays. The temple theatres were associated with Sanskrit epics, but not explicitly from Tamil sources. Hence, option (c) is correct.*

#### 9. Question

The Chera kingdom is known for its connection to the development of the Malayalam language. Which of the following statements is *incorrect *about the Chera kingdom’s contribution to Malayalam?

• a) The Cheras were among the earliest to use Malayalam in their official records.

• b) The Cheras' use of Malayalam script marked a significant shift from the traditional use of Sanskrit in official records.

• c) The Cheras' temple theatres borrowed stories from Tamil epics to develop Malayalam plays.

• d) The Lilatilakam, a fourteenth-century text, was written in a mix of Sanskrit and Malayalam, indicating the bilingual nature of the region.

Explanation:

• While temple theatres of Kerala during the Chera period drew upon Sanskritic traditions, there is no indication that they specifically borrowed stories from Tamil epics to develop Malayalam plays. The temple theatres were associated with Sanskrit epics, but not explicitly from Tamil sources.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Regarding the consolidation of power by regional groups in the 18th century, consider the following statements: The Rajputs, particularly those from Amber and Jodhpur, extended their control over adjacent regions, gaining governorships in Gujarat and Malwa. The Jats, under the leadership of Churaman and later Suraj Mal, consolidated their power and controlled territories between Delhi and Agra. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: c Explanation: The Rajputs, particularly those from Amber and Jodhpur, did indeed extend their control over adjacent regions. During the 18th century, the Rajputs from these regions were heavily involved in the factional politics at the Mughal court. Raja Ajit Singh of Jodhpur held the governorship of Gujarat, and Sawai Raja Jai Singh of Amber was the governor of Malwa. They also tried to extend their territories by seizing portions of imperial lands neighbouring their watans. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The Jats, under the leadership of Churaman and later Suraj Mal, did consolidate their power and controlled territories between Delhi and Agra. Under Churaman, the Jats acquired control over the regions to the west of Delhi, and by the 1680s, they began dominating the area between Delhi and Agra. Suraj Mal, the ruler of Bharatpur, built a strong state and even provided refuge to those fleeing from Nadir Shah’s invasion of Delhi in 1739. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: The Rajputs, particularly those from Amber and Jodhpur, did indeed extend their control over adjacent regions. During the 18th century, the Rajputs from these regions were heavily involved in the factional politics at the Mughal court. Raja Ajit Singh of Jodhpur held the governorship of Gujarat, and Sawai Raja Jai Singh of Amber was the governor of Malwa. They also tried to extend their territories by seizing portions of imperial lands neighbouring their watans. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The Jats, under the leadership of Churaman and later Suraj Mal, did consolidate their power and controlled territories between Delhi and Agra. Under Churaman, the Jats acquired control over the regions to the west of Delhi, and by the 1680s, they began dominating the area between Delhi and Agra. Suraj Mal, the ruler of Bharatpur, built a strong state and even provided refuge to those fleeing from Nadir Shah’s invasion of Delhi in 1739. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 10. Question

Regarding the consolidation of power by regional groups in the 18th century, consider the following statements:

• The Rajputs, particularly those from Amber and Jodhpur, extended their control over adjacent regions, gaining governorships in Gujarat and Malwa.

• The Jats, under the leadership of Churaman and later Suraj Mal, consolidated their power and controlled territories between Delhi and Agra.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• The Rajputs, particularly those from Amber and Jodhpur, did indeed extend their control over adjacent regions. During the 18th century, the Rajputs from these regions were heavily involved in the factional politics at the Mughal court. Raja Ajit Singh of Jodhpur held the governorship of Gujarat, and Sawai Raja Jai Singh of Amber was the governor of Malwa. They also tried to extend their territories by seizing portions of imperial lands neighbouring their watans. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The Jats, under the leadership of Churaman and later Suraj Mal, did consolidate their power and controlled territories between Delhi and Agra. Under Churaman, the Jats acquired control over the regions to the west of Delhi, and by the 1680s, they began dominating the area between Delhi and Agra. Suraj Mal, the ruler of Bharatpur, built a strong state and even provided refuge to those fleeing from Nadir Shah’s invasion of Delhi in 1739. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Darien Gap, recently in news, connects (a) Northern Canada with Greenland (b) Central and South America (c) Tasmania with Southern Australia (d) Horn of Africa with Asia Correct Solution: B The Darien Gap is a rugged region in the Isthmus of Darien connecting Central and South America it comprises dense forest and mountains in Panamas Darien province and Columbia’s Choco department home to indigenous communities , the terrain varies from flat Marshlands to mountainous rainforest with no Road crossing it In spite of the challenges, it has become a perilous route for migrants seeking Asylum in the United States. Travelling through it is challenging and is often conducted by boat or on foot despite the dangers, increasing violence and Limited legal immigration options in their home countries have driven a surge in crossings, mostly by Venezuelans, and also by Chinese, Afghans, Haitians and others. Hence option B is correct Incorrect Solution: B The Darien Gap is a rugged region in the Isthmus of Darien connecting Central and South America it comprises dense forest and mountains in Panamas Darien province and Columbia’s Choco department home to indigenous communities , the terrain varies from flat Marshlands to mountainous rainforest with no Road crossing it In spite of the challenges, it has become a perilous route for migrants seeking Asylum in the United States. Travelling through it is challenging and is often conducted by boat or on foot despite the dangers, increasing violence and Limited legal immigration options in their home countries have driven a surge in crossings, mostly by Venezuelans, and also by Chinese, Afghans, Haitians and others. Hence option B is correct

#### 11. Question

Darien Gap, recently in news, connects

• (a) Northern Canada with Greenland

• (b) Central and South America

• (c) Tasmania with Southern Australia

• (d) Horn of Africa with Asia

Solution: B

• The Darien Gap is a rugged region in the Isthmus of Darien connecting Central and South America

• it comprises dense forest and mountains in Panamas Darien province and Columbia’s Choco department

• home to indigenous communities , the terrain varies from flat Marshlands to mountainous rainforest with no Road crossing it

• In spite of the challenges, it has become a perilous route for migrants seeking Asylum in the United States.

• Travelling through it is challenging and is often conducted by boat or on foot

• despite the dangers, increasing violence and Limited legal immigration options in their home countries have driven a surge in crossings, mostly by Venezuelans, and also by Chinese, Afghans, Haitians and others.

Hence option B is correct

Solution: B

• The Darien Gap is a rugged region in the Isthmus of Darien connecting Central and South America

• it comprises dense forest and mountains in Panamas Darien province and Columbia’s Choco department

• home to indigenous communities , the terrain varies from flat Marshlands to mountainous rainforest with no Road crossing it

• In spite of the challenges, it has become a perilous route for migrants seeking Asylum in the United States.

• Travelling through it is challenging and is often conducted by boat or on foot

Hence option B is correct

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs Kambalakonda : Andhra Pradesh Wildlife Sanctuary Abohar Wildlife : Punjab Sanctuary Tal Chhapar Wildlife : Rajasthan Sanctuary How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution : c Kambalakonda Wildlife Sanctuary is in Andhra Pradesh. It has a tropical deciduous forest with a canopy of tree cover consisting of scrubland and meadows it is Bordered by Simhachalam hill range on the west and Gambhiram Reservoir on the North East. Recently the state Forest Department has started a series of measures to develop it and document the flora and fauna in the region Hence pair 1 is correct Abohar Wildlife Sanctuary is in the state of Punjab. The entire area of the Sanctuary is private or community owned land of 13 Bishnoi villages. A recent census of blackbuck conducted by the Wildlife Institute of India stated that these animals are on the verge of extinction in Punjab as they were spotted at only up to 12 spots in the sanctuary in two population estimation exercises since December 2021. Hence pair 2 is correct Tal Chhapar Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Sujangarh tehsil of Churu District in Rajasthan. It is situated on the border of the Thar Desert It was established as a Reserve area and then was given the status of a sanctuary in 1966 it is home to blackbuck, chinkara and more than 250 species of birds including several migratory birds. Hence pair 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution : c Kambalakonda Wildlife Sanctuary is in Andhra Pradesh. It has a tropical deciduous forest with a canopy of tree cover consisting of scrubland and meadows it is Bordered by Simhachalam hill range on the west and Gambhiram Reservoir on the North East. Recently the state Forest Department has started a series of measures to develop it and document the flora and fauna in the region Hence pair 1 is correct Abohar Wildlife Sanctuary is in the state of Punjab. The entire area of the Sanctuary is private or community owned land of 13 Bishnoi villages. A recent census of blackbuck conducted by the Wildlife Institute of India stated that these animals are on the verge of extinction in Punjab as they were spotted at only up to 12 spots in the sanctuary in two population estimation exercises since December 2021. Hence pair 2 is correct Tal Chhapar Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Sujangarh tehsil of Churu District in Rajasthan. It is situated on the border of the Thar Desert It was established as a Reserve area and then was given the status of a sanctuary in 1966 it is home to blackbuck, chinkara and more than 250 species of birds including several migratory birds. Hence pair 3 is correct.

#### 12. Question

Consider the following pairs

• Kambalakonda : Andhra Pradesh Wildlife Sanctuary

• Abohar Wildlife : Punjab Sanctuary

• Tal Chhapar Wildlife : Rajasthan Sanctuary

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution : c

• Kambalakonda Wildlife Sanctuary is in Andhra Pradesh.

• It has a tropical deciduous forest with a canopy of tree cover consisting of scrubland and meadows

• it is Bordered by Simhachalam hill range on the west and Gambhiram Reservoir on the North East.

• Recently the state Forest Department has started a series of measures to develop it and document the flora and fauna in the region

Hence pair 1 is correct

• Abohar Wildlife Sanctuary is in the state of Punjab.

• The entire area of the Sanctuary is private or community owned land of 13 Bishnoi villages.

• A recent census of blackbuck conducted by the Wildlife Institute of India stated that these animals are on the verge of extinction in Punjab as they were spotted at only up to 12 spots in the sanctuary in two population estimation exercises since December 2021.

Hence pair 2 is correct

• Tal Chhapar Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Sujangarh tehsil of Churu District in Rajasthan.

• It is situated on the border of the Thar Desert

• It was established as a Reserve area and then was given the status of a sanctuary in 1966

• it is home to blackbuck, chinkara and more than 250 species of birds including several migratory birds.

Hence pair 3 is correct.

Solution : c

• Kambalakonda Wildlife Sanctuary is in Andhra Pradesh.

• It has a tropical deciduous forest with a canopy of tree cover consisting of scrubland and meadows

• it is Bordered by Simhachalam hill range on the west and Gambhiram Reservoir on the North East.

• Recently the state Forest Department has started a series of measures to develop it and document the flora and fauna in the region

Hence pair 1 is correct

• Abohar Wildlife Sanctuary is in the state of Punjab.

• The entire area of the Sanctuary is private or community owned land of 13 Bishnoi villages.

Hence pair 2 is correct

• Tal Chhapar Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Sujangarh tehsil of Churu District in Rajasthan.

• It is situated on the border of the Thar Desert

• It was established as a Reserve area and then was given the status of a sanctuary in 1966

• it is home to blackbuck, chinkara and more than 250 species of birds including several migratory birds.

Hence pair 3 is correct.

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Consider the following diseases Visceral leishmaniasis Typhoid Lymphatic filariasis How many of the above are spread by mosquito bites? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Visceral leishmaniasis Leishmaniasis is caused by protozoan parasites which are transmitted by the bite of infected Phlebotomine sandflies . The disease affect some of the poorest individuals in the world. It is associated with malnutrition, population displacement, unhygienic conditions, weak immune system and related issues. Visceral leishmaniasis also known as Kala Azar is fatal if left untreated in over 95% of the cases; most cases occur in Brazil yeast Africa and India. Hence option 1 is incorrect Lymphatic filariasis It is a tropical parasitic disease that affects lymph nodes and lymph vessels. According to the World Health Organisation it is a neglected tropical disease. Infection occurs when the parasites are transmitted to humans through bite of infected mosquitoes. Hence option 2 is correct Typhoid Typhoid fever also called enteric fever is caused by bacteria Salmonella typhi. The disease spreads through contaminated food and water and unhygienic conditions it is rare in places where water is treated to kill germs and there is good management of human waste disposal. Hence option 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: A Visceral leishmaniasis Leishmaniasis is caused by protozoan parasites which are transmitted by the bite of infected Phlebotomine sandflies . The disease affect some of the poorest individuals in the world. It is associated with malnutrition, population displacement, unhygienic conditions, weak immune system and related issues. Visceral leishmaniasis also known as Kala Azar is fatal if left untreated in over 95% of the cases; most cases occur in Brazil yeast Africa and India. Hence option 1 is incorrect Lymphatic filariasis It is a tropical parasitic disease that affects lymph nodes and lymph vessels. According to the World Health Organisation it is a neglected tropical disease. Infection occurs when the parasites are transmitted to humans through bite of infected mosquitoes. Hence option 2 is correct Typhoid Typhoid fever also called enteric fever is caused by bacteria Salmonella typhi. The disease spreads through contaminated food and water and unhygienic conditions it is rare in places where water is treated to kill germs and there is good management of human waste disposal. Hence option 3 is incorrect

#### 13. Question

Consider the following diseases

• Visceral leishmaniasis

• Lymphatic filariasis

How many of the above are spread by mosquito bites?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

Visceral leishmaniasis

• Leishmaniasis is caused by protozoan parasites which are transmitted by the bite of infected Phlebotomine sandflies .

• The disease affect some of the poorest individuals in the world.

• It is associated with malnutrition, population displacement, unhygienic conditions, weak immune system and related issues.

• Visceral leishmaniasis also known as Kala Azar is fatal if left untreated in over 95% of the cases; most cases occur in Brazil yeast Africa and India.

Hence option 1 is incorrect

Lymphatic filariasis

• It is a tropical parasitic disease that affects lymph nodes and lymph vessels.

• According to the World Health Organisation it is a neglected tropical disease.

• Infection occurs when the parasites are transmitted to humans through bite of infected mosquitoes.

Hence option 2 is correct

Typhoid

• Typhoid fever also called enteric fever is caused by bacteria Salmonella typhi.

• The disease spreads through contaminated food and water and unhygienic conditions

• it is rare in places where water is treated to kill germs and there is good management of human waste disposal.

Hence option 3 is incorrect

Solution: A

Visceral leishmaniasis

• Leishmaniasis is caused by protozoan parasites which are transmitted by the bite of infected Phlebotomine sandflies .

• The disease affect some of the poorest individuals in the world.

• It is associated with malnutrition, population displacement, unhygienic conditions, weak immune system and related issues.

• Visceral leishmaniasis also known as Kala Azar is fatal if left untreated in over 95% of the cases; most cases occur in Brazil yeast Africa and India.

Hence option 1 is incorrect

Lymphatic filariasis

• It is a tropical parasitic disease that affects lymph nodes and lymph vessels.

• According to the World Health Organisation it is a neglected tropical disease.

• Infection occurs when the parasites are transmitted to humans through bite of infected mosquitoes.

Hence option 2 is correct

Typhoid

• Typhoid fever also called enteric fever is caused by bacteria Salmonella typhi.

• The disease spreads through contaminated food and water and unhygienic conditions

• it is rare in places where water is treated to kill germs and there is good management of human waste disposal.

Hence option 3 is incorrect

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Regarding *Spear* *Phishing*, sometimes seen in news, which of the following statements is correct? (a) A malicious software that is designed to cause damage to a computer server or computer network (b) A cyber-attack that involves injecting malicious code into a website to gain sensitive information (c) Tricking individuals to provide confidential information by email, specially by sending emails that seems to be from someone known. (d) A software specially designed to infect smart devices turning them into a network of remotely controlled bots. Correct Solution : C Phishing attacks are a persistent Cyber-attack carried out by email, SMS or phone calls. Spear phishing refers to highly personalised cyber-attacks that target specific individuals or companies usually these attacks are carried out through spear phishing emails that appear legitimate to the recipients and encourage them to share sensitive details with the attacker Although the main aim of attacks is usually to Steal information such as login credentials or credit card information, some are also targeted to infect devices with malware often Government sponsored hackers are the perpetrators of spear phishing scams however individual cyber criminals also carry out these attacks to steal confidential data in order to resell them to government, private companies or other interested parties. Hence option C is correct Incorrect Solution : C Phishing attacks are a persistent Cyber-attack carried out by email, SMS or phone calls. Spear phishing refers to highly personalised cyber-attacks that target specific individuals or companies usually these attacks are carried out through spear phishing emails that appear legitimate to the recipients and encourage them to share sensitive details with the attacker Although the main aim of attacks is usually to Steal information such as login credentials or credit card information, some are also targeted to infect devices with malware often Government sponsored hackers are the perpetrators of spear phishing scams however individual cyber criminals also carry out these attacks to steal confidential data in order to resell them to government, private companies or other interested parties. Hence option C is correct

#### 14. Question

Regarding *Spear* *Phishing*, sometimes seen in news, which of the following statements is correct?

• (a) A malicious software that is designed to cause damage to a computer server or computer network

• (b) A cyber-attack that involves injecting malicious code into a website to gain sensitive information

• (c) Tricking individuals to provide confidential information by email, specially by sending emails that seems to be from someone known.

• (d) A software specially designed to infect smart devices turning them into a network of remotely controlled bots.

Solution : C

• Phishing attacks are a persistent Cyber-attack carried out by email, SMS or phone calls.

• Spear phishing refers to highly personalised cyber-attacks that target specific individuals or companies

• usually these attacks are carried out through spear phishing emails that appear legitimate to the recipients and encourage them to share sensitive details with the attacker

• Although the main aim of attacks is usually to Steal information such as login credentials or credit card information, some are also targeted to infect devices with malware

• often Government sponsored hackers are the perpetrators of spear phishing scams

• however individual cyber criminals also carry out these attacks to steal confidential data in order to resell them to government, private companies or other interested parties.

Hence option C is correct

Solution : C

• Phishing attacks are a persistent Cyber-attack carried out by email, SMS or phone calls.

• Spear phishing refers to highly personalised cyber-attacks that target specific individuals or companies

• usually these attacks are carried out through spear phishing emails that appear legitimate to the recipients and encourage them to share sensitive details with the attacker

• Although the main aim of attacks is usually to Steal information such as login credentials or credit card information, some are also targeted to infect devices with malware

• often Government sponsored hackers are the perpetrators of spear phishing scams

• however individual cyber criminals also carry out these attacks to steal confidential data in order to resell them to government, private companies or other interested parties.

Hence option C is correct

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding North Sea Summit It was convened by the Nordic countries following the Esbjerg Declaration. It envisages transforming the North Sea into a green power plant and produce 120 Gigawatts of wind energy in the sea by 2030. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution : B The North Sea Summit brings together heads of States and government and energy ministers of Belgium , Denmark, Germany, Netherland, France, Ireland, Luxembourg, Norway and the UK as well as president of the European commission and Commissioner for energy. The nine signatory countries have committed to take measures to promote the balance coexistence of renewable energy deployment, biodiversity and environment protection as well as to contribute to the health and robustness of marine ecosystems. The Esbjerg Declaration was adopted at the first North Sea Summit that was held in Denmark in 2022. The Nordic countries are Denmark, Norway, Sweden, Finland and Iceland and well as Faroe Island Greenland and Aland. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The nine European countries have signed a declaration at the second Summit held in Ostend, Belgium The countries have signed a declaration aimed as transforming the North Sea into a green power plant. It sets ambitious targets including production of at least 120 Gigawatts of offshore wind energy in the North Sea by 2030. Hence statement 2 is correct Incorrect Solution : B The North Sea Summit brings together heads of States and government and energy ministers of Belgium , Denmark, Germany, Netherland, France, Ireland, Luxembourg, Norway and the UK as well as president of the European commission and Commissioner for energy. The nine signatory countries have committed to take measures to promote the balance coexistence of renewable energy deployment, biodiversity and environment protection as well as to contribute to the health and robustness of marine ecosystems. The Esbjerg Declaration was adopted at the first North Sea Summit that was held in Denmark in 2022. The Nordic countries are Denmark, Norway, Sweden, Finland and Iceland and well as Faroe Island Greenland and Aland. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The nine European countries have signed a declaration at the second Summit held in Ostend, Belgium The countries have signed a declaration aimed as transforming the North Sea into a green power plant. It sets ambitious targets including production of at least 120 Gigawatts of offshore wind energy in the North Sea by 2030. Hence statement 2 is correct

#### 15. Question

Consider the following statements regarding North Sea Summit

• It was convened by the Nordic countries following the Esbjerg Declaration.

• It envisages transforming the North Sea into a green power plant and produce 120 Gigawatts of wind energy in the sea by 2030.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : B

• The North Sea Summit brings together heads of States and government and energy ministers of Belgium , Denmark, Germany, Netherland, France, Ireland, Luxembourg, Norway and the UK as well as president of the European commission and Commissioner for energy.

• The nine signatory countries have committed to take measures to promote the balance coexistence of renewable energy deployment, biodiversity and environment protection as well as to contribute to the health and robustness of marine ecosystems.

• The Esbjerg Declaration was adopted at the first North Sea Summit that was held in Denmark in 2022.

• The Nordic countries are Denmark, Norway, Sweden, Finland and Iceland and well as Faroe Island Greenland and Aland.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The nine European countries have signed a declaration at the second Summit held in Ostend, Belgium

• The countries have signed a declaration aimed as transforming the North Sea into a green power plant.

• It sets ambitious targets including production of at least 120 Gigawatts of offshore wind energy in the North Sea by 2030.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Solution : B

• The Esbjerg Declaration was adopted at the first North Sea Summit that was held in Denmark in 2022.

• The Nordic countries are Denmark, Norway, Sweden, Finland and Iceland and well as Faroe Island Greenland and Aland.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The nine European countries have signed a declaration at the second Summit held in Ostend, Belgium

• The countries have signed a declaration aimed as transforming the North Sea into a green power plant.

• It sets ambitious targets including production of at least 120 Gigawatts of offshore wind energy in the North Sea by 2030.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The term ‘inferred’ refers to a preliminary exploration stage as per the Mines and Minerals (Development and Exploration) Act 1957. Lithium-ion batteries are used in wind turbines, solar panels, and electric vehicles, all of which are crucial in a green economy. India has recently launched a ‘Rare Earths Mission’ to explore its critical mineral reserves that account for 6% of the world’s rare-earths’ reserves. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The term ‘inferred’ refers to the ‘preliminary exploration stage’, the second of a four-step process, according to the Mines and Minerals (Development and Exploration) Act 1957. Statement 2 is correct: Lithium-ion batteries are used in wind turbines, solar panels, and electric vehicles, all of which are crucial in a green economy. China currently controls 77% of the global lithium-ion battery manufacturing capacity and is home to six of the world’s 10 manufacturing companies. Statement 3 is not correct: To reduce dependence on China, the Indian government and industry are pushing for a ‘Rare Earths Mission’ (not yet launched) to exploit the country’s critical mineral reserves, which account for 6% of the world’s rare-earths’ reserves prior to the discovery of Li in J&K. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The term ‘inferred’ refers to the ‘preliminary exploration stage’, the second of a four-step process, according to the Mines and Minerals (Development and Exploration) Act 1957. Statement 2 is correct: Lithium-ion batteries are used in wind turbines, solar panels, and electric vehicles, all of which are crucial in a green economy. China currently controls 77% of the global lithium-ion battery manufacturing capacity and is home to six of the world’s 10 manufacturing companies. Statement 3 is not correct: To reduce dependence on China, the Indian government and industry are pushing for a ‘Rare Earths Mission’ (not yet launched) to exploit the country’s critical mineral reserves, which account for 6% of the world’s rare-earths’ reserves prior to the discovery of Li in J&K.

#### 16. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The term ‘inferred’ refers to a preliminary exploration stage as per the Mines and Minerals (Development and Exploration) Act 1957.

• Lithium-ion batteries are used in wind turbines, solar panels, and electric vehicles, all of which are crucial in a green economy.

• India has recently launched a ‘Rare Earths Mission’ to explore its critical mineral reserves that account for 6% of the world’s rare-earths’ reserves.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The term ‘inferred’ refers to the ‘preliminary exploration stage’, the second of a four-step process, according to the Mines and Minerals (Development and Exploration) Act 1957.

Statement 2 is correct: Lithium-ion batteries are used in wind turbines, solar panels, and electric vehicles, all of which are crucial in a green economy.

China currently controls 77% of the global lithium-ion battery manufacturing capacity and is home to six of the world’s 10 manufacturing companies.

Statement 3 is not correct: To reduce dependence on China, the Indian government and industry are pushing for a ‘Rare Earths Mission’ (not yet launched) to exploit the country’s critical mineral reserves, which account for 6% of the world’s rare-earths’ reserves prior to the discovery of Li in J&K.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 2 is correct: Lithium-ion batteries are used in wind turbines, solar panels, and electric vehicles, all of which are crucial in a green economy.

China currently controls 77% of the global lithium-ion battery manufacturing capacity and is home to six of the world’s 10 manufacturing companies.

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Pokkali Rice: It is endemic to central Kerala. It is a saltwater-tolerant variety. It has received a geographical indication tag. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: C Explanation: Option (c) is correct: The Pokkali paddy variety, which grows to a height of up to 2 m, survived the rising waters. The GI-tagged Pokkali is a saltwater-tolerant paddy grown in the coastal fields of Alappuzha, Ernakulam and Thrissur districts. Endemic to central Kerala, the variety is now grown in only over 5,000 hectares, a drop from over 25,000 hectares a few decades ago, due to high labour cost and poor returns. The single-season paddy is raised in saltwater fields between June and November followed by a season of fish-farming. After the harvest, the paddy stubble in the fields acts as food and shelter for shrimp and small fish. Fish excreta and scales, along with the decomposed stubble, provide excellent natural manure for another season of Pokkali. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Option (c) is correct: The Pokkali paddy variety, which grows to a height of up to 2 m, survived the rising waters. The GI-tagged Pokkali is a saltwater-tolerant paddy grown in the coastal fields of Alappuzha, Ernakulam and Thrissur districts. Endemic to central Kerala, the variety is now grown in only over 5,000 hectares, a drop from over 25,000 hectares a few decades ago, due to high labour cost and poor returns. The single-season paddy is raised in saltwater fields between June and November followed by a season of fish-farming. After the harvest, the paddy stubble in the fields acts as food and shelter for shrimp and small fish. Fish excreta and scales, along with the decomposed stubble, provide excellent natural manure for another season of Pokkali.

#### 17. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Pokkali Rice:

• It is endemic to central Kerala.

• It is a saltwater-tolerant variety.

• It has received a geographical indication tag.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: C

Explanation:

Option (c) is correct: The Pokkali paddy variety, which grows to a height of up to 2 m, survived the rising waters.

• The GI-tagged Pokkali is a saltwater-tolerant paddy grown in the coastal fields of Alappuzha, Ernakulam and Thrissur districts.

• Endemic to central Kerala, the variety is now grown in only over 5,000 hectares, a drop from over 25,000 hectares a few decades ago, due to high labour cost and poor returns.

• The single-season paddy is raised in saltwater fields between June and November followed by a season of fish-farming. After the harvest, the paddy stubble in the fields acts as food and shelter for shrimp and small fish.

Fish excreta and scales, along with the decomposed stubble, provide excellent natural manure for another season of Pokkali.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Option (c) is correct: The Pokkali paddy variety, which grows to a height of up to 2 m, survived the rising waters.

• The GI-tagged Pokkali is a saltwater-tolerant paddy grown in the coastal fields of Alappuzha, Ernakulam and Thrissur districts.

• Endemic to central Kerala, the variety is now grown in only over 5,000 hectares, a drop from over 25,000 hectares a few decades ago, due to high labour cost and poor returns.

Fish excreta and scales, along with the decomposed stubble, provide excellent natural manure for another season of Pokkali.

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: When carbon dioxide is held above its critical temperature, it acts like a liquid by possessing the density of a liquid. In a supercritical state, small changes in pressure and density of Carbon dioxide make it an efficient fluid to generate power. Which of the statements given above is/are *not correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: When carbon dioxide (CO2) is held above its critical temperature and pressure, it acts like a gas yet has the density of a liquid. Statement 2 is correct: In this supercritical state, small changes in temperature or pressure cause dramatic shifts in density – making sCO2 a highly efficient working fluid to generate power. Power cycles based on super-critical carbon dioxide (sCO2) as the working fluid have the potential to yield higher thermal efficiencies at lower capital cost than state-of-the-art steam-based power cycles. Collectively, the unique features of sCO2 are creating broad interest in sCO2 power cycles. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: When carbon dioxide (CO2) is held above its critical temperature and pressure, it acts like a gas yet has the density of a liquid. Statement 2 is correct:* In this supercritical state, small changes in temperature or pressure cause dramatic shifts in density – making sCO2 a highly efficient working fluid to generate power. Power cycles based on super-critical carbon dioxide (sCO2) as the working fluid have the potential to yield higher thermal efficiencies at lower capital cost than state-of-the-art steam-based power cycles. Collectively, the unique features of sCO2 are creating broad interest in sCO2 power cycles.

#### 18. Question

Consider the following statements:

• When carbon dioxide is held above its critical temperature, it acts like a liquid by possessing the density of a liquid.

• In a supercritical state, small changes in pressure and density of Carbon dioxide make it an efficient fluid to generate power.

Which of the statements given above is/are *not* correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: When carbon dioxide (CO2) is held above its critical temperature and pressure, it acts like a gas yet has the density of a liquid.

Statement 2 is correct: In this supercritical state, small changes in temperature or pressure cause dramatic shifts in density – making sCO2 a highly efficient working fluid to generate power.

Power cycles based on super-critical carbon dioxide (sCO2) as the working fluid have the potential to yield higher thermal efficiencies at lower capital cost than state-of-the-art steam-based power cycles. Collectively, the unique features of sCO2 are creating broad interest in sCO2 power cycles.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: When carbon dioxide (CO2) is held above its critical temperature and pressure, it acts like a gas yet has the density of a liquid.

Statement 2 is correct: In this supercritical state, small changes in temperature or pressure cause dramatic shifts in density – making sCO2 a highly efficient working fluid to generate power.

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Jigyasa Programme: It is inspired by the vision of a new India and the Scientific Social Responsibility of Scientific Community and Institutions. It is implemented by the Indian Space Research Organisation in collaboration with Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan. Its focus is on connecting scientists with student’s classroom learning with well-planned research laboratory-based learning. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Jigyasa programme is inspired by Prime Minister vision of a new India and Scientific Social Responsibility (SSR) of Scientific Community and Institutions. Statement 2 is not correct: Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR), has joined hands with Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan (KVS) to implement this programme. Statement 3 is correct: The focus of this scheme is on connecting school students and scientists to extend student’s classroom learning with well-planned research laboratory based learning. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Jigyasa programme is inspired by Prime Minister vision of a new India and Scientific Social Responsibility (SSR) of Scientific Community and Institutions. Statement 2 is not correct: Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR), has joined hands with Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan (KVS) to implement this programme. Statement 3 is correct: The focus of this scheme is on connecting school students and scientists to extend student’s classroom learning with well-planned research laboratory based learning.

#### 19. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Jigyasa Programme:

• It is inspired by the vision of a new India and the Scientific Social Responsibility of Scientific Community and Institutions.

• It is implemented by the Indian Space Research Organisation in collaboration with Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan.

• Its focus is on connecting scientists with student’s classroom learning with well-planned research laboratory-based learning.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Jigyasa programme is inspired by Prime Minister vision of a new India and Scientific Social Responsibility (SSR) of Scientific Community and Institutions.

Statement 2 is not correct: Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR), has joined hands with Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan (KVS) to implement this programme.

Statement 3 is correct: The focus of this scheme is on connecting school students and scientists to extend student’s classroom learning with well-planned research laboratory based learning.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Jigyasa programme is inspired by Prime Minister vision of a new India and Scientific Social Responsibility (SSR) of Scientific Community and Institutions.

Statement 2 is not correct: Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR), has joined hands with Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan (KVS) to implement this programme.

Statement 3 is correct: The focus of this scheme is on connecting school students and scientists to extend student’s classroom learning with well-planned research laboratory based learning.

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Arab League: It is an extended organisation of the Gulf Cooperation Council. It was initially established with countries including Egypt and Syria. It covers issues of economic and military affairs among the member states. How many of the statements given above is/are *not correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: Gulf Cooperation Council was founded in Abu Dhabi in the United Arab Emirates (UAE) in 1981. Its members include Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, Bahrain, Qatar, the UAE, and Oman. It was established much later than the Arab League. Its purpose is to facilitate cooperation among members in the fields of international commerce, education, shipping, and travel. Statement 2 is correct: The Arab League, formally known as the League of Arab States, was established in 1945 with initially just six nations: Egypt, Iraq, Jordan, Lebanon, Saudi Arabia, and Syria. Statement 3 is correct: Currently, it has 22 member states, who have pledged to cooperate on economic and military affairs, among other issues. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: Gulf Cooperation Council was founded in Abu Dhabi in the United Arab Emirates (UAE) in 1981. Its members include Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, Bahrain, Qatar, the UAE, and Oman. It was established much later than the Arab League. Its purpose is to facilitate cooperation among members in the fields of international commerce, education, shipping, and travel. Statement 2 is correct: The Arab League, formally known as the League of Arab States, was established in 1945 with initially just six nations: Egypt, Iraq, Jordan, Lebanon, Saudi Arabia, and Syria. Statement 3 is correct:* Currently, it has 22 member states, who have pledged to cooperate on economic and military affairs, among other issues.

#### 20. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Arab League:

• It is an extended organisation of the Gulf Cooperation Council.

• It was initially established with countries including Egypt and Syria.

• It covers issues of economic and military affairs among the member states.

How many of the statements given above is/are *not* correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: Gulf Cooperation Council was founded in Abu Dhabi in the United Arab Emirates (UAE) in 1981. Its members include Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, Bahrain, Qatar, the UAE, and Oman. It was established much later than the Arab League.

Its purpose is to facilitate cooperation among members in the fields of international commerce, education, shipping, and travel.

Statement 2 is correct: The Arab League, formally known as the League of Arab States, was established in 1945 with initially just six nations: Egypt, Iraq, Jordan, Lebanon, Saudi Arabia, and Syria.

Statement 3 is correct: Currently, it has 22 member states, who have pledged to cooperate on economic and military affairs, among other issues.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Its purpose is to facilitate cooperation among members in the fields of international commerce, education, shipping, and travel.

Statement 3 is correct: Currently, it has 22 member states, who have pledged to cooperate on economic and military affairs, among other issues.

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. The provision for the election of the Speaker and Deputy Speaker in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies can be found in the Constitution of India. The presiding officer of a house of Parliament is the final interpreter of the provisions of the Constitution, Rules of Procedure, and parliamentary precedents. The presiding officer of a house of Parliament can allow a secret sitting of the house at the Leader of the House’s request. How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: c) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/10/31/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-31-october-2023/ Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/10/31/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-31-october-2023/

#### 21. Question

Consider the following statements.

• The provision for the election of the Speaker and Deputy Speaker in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies can be found in the Constitution of India.

• The presiding officer of a house of Parliament is the final interpreter of the provisions of the Constitution, Rules of Procedure, and parliamentary precedents.

• The presiding officer of a house of Parliament can allow a secret sitting of the house at the Leader of the House’s request.

How many of the above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: c)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/10/31/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-31-october-2023/

Solution: c)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/10/31/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-31-october-2023/

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points That the business in the Parliament is conducted in Hindi or English, with the option for members to address the House in their mother tongue with permission is a provision found in a) the constitution of India b) parliamentary precedents c) statutory laws d) executive fiat Correct Solution: a) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/10/28/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-28-october-2023/ Incorrect Solution: a) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/10/28/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-28-october-2023/

#### 22. Question

That the business in the Parliament is conducted in Hindi or English, with the option for members to address the House in their mother tongue with permission is a provision found in

• a) the constitution of India

• b) parliamentary precedents

• c) statutory laws

• d) executive fiat

Solution: a)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/10/28/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-28-october-2023/

Solution: a)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/10/28/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-28-october-2023/

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Which of the following about the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) is *incorrect? a) It is an inter-governmental organisation. b) All its member countries are democracies with market-based economies. c) India is not a member of OECD. d) None of the above Correct Solution: d) Justification: The Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) is an intergovernmental economic organization that was established in 1961 (originally to administer American and Canadian aid under the Marshall Plan) The OECD is a forum where 38 governments (India is not a member) of democracies with market-based economies collaborate to: Develop policy standards to promote sustainable economic growth Find solutions to common challenges Develop global standards Share experiences and identify best practices Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/10/28/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-28-october-2023/ Incorrect Solution: d) Justification: The Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) is an intergovernmental economic organization that was established in 1961 (originally to administer American and Canadian aid under the Marshall Plan) The OECD is a forum where 38 governments (India is not a member) of democracies with market-based economies collaborate to: Develop policy standards to promote sustainable economic growth Find solutions to common challenges Develop global standards Share experiences and identify best practices Q Source:* https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/10/28/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-28-october-2023/

#### 23. Question

Which of the following about the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) is *incorrect*?

• a) It is an inter-governmental organisation.

• b) All its member countries are democracies with market-based economies.

• c) India is not a member of OECD.

• d) None of the above

Solution: d)

Justification: The Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) is an intergovernmental economic organization that was established in 1961 (originally to administer American and Canadian aid under the Marshall Plan)

The OECD is a forum where 38 governments (India is not a member) of democracies with market-based economies collaborate to:

• Develop policy standards to promote sustainable economic growth

• Find solutions to common challenges

• Develop global standards

• Share experiences and identify best practices

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/10/28/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-28-october-2023/

Solution: d)

The OECD is a forum where 38 governments (India is not a member) of democracies with market-based economies collaborate to:

• Develop policy standards to promote sustainable economic growth

• Find solutions to common challenges

• Develop global standards

• Share experiences and identify best practices

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/10/28/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-28-october-2023/

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Mere contact with thallium can cause poisoning as it is highly soluble in water and can easily pass through the skin. The use of thallium is unregulated in India currently. Thallium occurs freely in nature. How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: a) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/10/28/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-28-october-2023/ Incorrect Solution: a) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/10/28/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-28-october-2023/

#### 24. Question

Consider the following statements.

• Mere contact with thallium can cause poisoning as it is highly soluble in water and can easily pass through the skin.

• The use of thallium is unregulated in India currently.

• Thallium occurs freely in nature.

How many of the above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: a)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/10/28/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-28-october-2023/

Solution: a)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/10/28/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-28-october-2023/

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Which of the following is/are the benefits of Farmer Producer Organisations (FPOs)? FPOs facilitate the collectivization of small, marginal, and landless farmers, giving them collective strength to address issues like crop failure and market access. FPOs help manage price fluctuations via assisting farmers with practices like contract farming and agreements. 3X. FPOs enable efficient communication for disseminating information about prices, volumes, and other farming-related advisories to farmers. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: c) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/10/21/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-21-october-2023/ Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/10/21/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-21-october-2023/

#### 25. Question

Which of the following is/are the benefits of Farmer Producer Organisations (FPOs)?

• FPOs facilitate the collectivization of small, marginal, and landless farmers, giving them collective strength to address issues like crop failure and market access.

• FPOs help manage price fluctuations via assisting farmers with practices like contract farming and agreements.

3X. FPOs enable efficient communication for disseminating information about prices, volumes, and other farming-related advisories to farmers.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: c)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/10/21/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-21-october-2023/

Solution: c)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/10/21/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-21-october-2023/

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points For poverty reduction, we have built up an elaborate ecosystem of food production, consumption, and distribution. Time has come to dismantle this ecosystem — an ecosystem that is biased against the poor farmer, against climate change mitigation and also against efficient use of water and energy. Which of the following is the most significant, practical and scientific inference that can be made from the above passage? A. Poverty is no longer about food, so free up the food producers rather than keeping them as prisoners of policy B. Poverty is not chosen but imposed C. We have always considered food consumption as the ultimate criterion of poverty D. We have always considered food consumption as the only criterion of poverty Correct Answer: A Option B – the statement is random and not related to the passage so it cannot he be the inference from the passage. Option C – This is true that food consumption has been considered as important criterion but in this passage it is not explicitly mentioned so it cannot be the most practical inference. Option A – As passage talks about dismantling the ecosystem of food production, consumption, and distribution so the inference can be drawn that Poverty is no longer about food, so free up the food producers rather than keeping them as prisoners of policy Incorrect Answer: A Option B – the statement is random and not related to the passage so it cannot he be the inference from the passage. Option C – This is true that food consumption has been considered as important criterion but in this passage it is not explicitly mentioned so it cannot be the most practical inference. Option A – As passage talks about dismantling the ecosystem of food production, consumption, and distribution so the inference can be drawn that Poverty is no longer about food, so free up the food producers rather than keeping them as prisoners of policy

#### 26. Question

For poverty reduction, we have built up an elaborate ecosystem of food production, consumption, and distribution. Time has come to dismantle this ecosystem — an ecosystem that is biased against the poor farmer, against climate change mitigation and also against efficient use of water and energy.

Which of the following is the most significant, practical and scientific inference that can be made from the above passage?

• A. Poverty is no longer about food, so free up the food producers rather than keeping them as prisoners of policy

• B. Poverty is not chosen but imposed

• C. We have always considered food consumption as the ultimate criterion of poverty

• D. We have always considered food consumption as the only criterion of poverty

Option B – the statement is random and not related to the passage so it cannot he be the inference from the passage.

Option C – This is true that food consumption has been considered as important criterion but in this passage it is not explicitly mentioned so it cannot be the most practical inference.

Option A – As passage talks about dismantling the ecosystem of food production, consumption, and distribution so the inference can be drawn that Poverty is no longer about food, so free up the food producers rather than keeping them as prisoners of policy

Option B – the statement is random and not related to the passage so it cannot he be the inference from the passage.

Option C – This is true that food consumption has been considered as important criterion but in this passage it is not explicitly mentioned so it cannot be the most practical inference.

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points For poverty reduction, we have built up an elaborate ecosystem of food production, consumption, and distribution. Time has come to dismantle this ecosystem — an ecosystem that is biased against the poor farmer, against climate change mitigation and also against efficient use of water and energy. On the basis of above passage, following assumptions have been made: Poverty is now not just about food but living standards The focus should shift to quality, not quantity. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid? a) Only 1 b) Only 2 c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: C In the above passage Assumption 1 – As passage talks of the dismantling the ecosystem of food production, consumption, and distribution so it can be assumed that along with food living standard is equally important. Poverty cannot only be confined to the food. Assumption 2 – This assumption is also valid because till now we were focusing on quantity through food production and distribution but the passage supports for dismantling of such programs which are prisoner of policy. Incorrect Answer: C In the above passage Assumption 1 – As passage talks of the dismantling the ecosystem of food production, consumption, and distribution so it can be assumed that along with food living standard is equally important. Poverty cannot only be confined to the food. Assumption 2 – This assumption is also valid because till now we were focusing on quantity through food production and distribution but the passage supports for dismantling of such programs which are prisoner of policy.

#### 27. Question

On the basis of above passage, following assumptions have been made:

• Poverty is now not just about food but living standards The focus should shift to quality, not quantity.

• Poverty is now not just about food but living standards

• The focus should shift to quality, not quantity.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

In the above passage

Assumption 1 – As passage talks of the dismantling the ecosystem of food production, consumption, and distribution so it can be assumed that along with food living standard is equally important. Poverty cannot only be confined to the food.

Assumption 2 – This assumption is also valid because till now we were focusing on quantity through food production and distribution but the passage supports for dismantling of such programs which are prisoner of policy.

In the above passage

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points Directions: (28-29Q) Question below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the statements and give answer. Emirates plains are always punctual in Dubai. How long, at the most, will Mr. Mohamed have to wait for the bus ? I. Mr. Mohamed has come to the airport stand at 9 A.M. II. There is airport at 10 A.M. and Possibly another airport even earlier. a) If Statement I is sufficient for the answer. b) If Statement II is sufficient for the answer. c) If Statement I and II are sufficient for the answer but neither of the two alone is sufficient d) If Statement I or II is sufficient for the answer. Correct Answer Option C) If Statement I and II are sufficient for the answer but neither of the two alone is sufficient From both the given statements, we find that Mr. Mohamed reached the airport stand at 9 A.M. and a airport is sure to arrive at 10 A.M. So, Mr. airport has to wait for at the most one hour. Incorrect Answer Option C) If Statement I and II are sufficient for the answer but neither of the two alone is sufficient From both the given statements, we find that Mr. Mohamed reached the airport stand at 9 A.M. and a airport is sure to arrive at 10 A.M. So, Mr. airport has to wait for at the most one hour.

#### 28. Question

Directions: (28-29Q) Question below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the statements and give answer.

Emirates plains are always punctual in Dubai. How long, at the most, will Mr. Mohamed have to wait for the bus ?

I. Mr. Mohamed has come to the airport stand at 9 A.M.

II. There is airport at 10 A.M. and Possibly another airport even earlier.

• a) If Statement I is sufficient for the answer.

• b) If Statement II is sufficient for the answer.

• c) If Statement I and II are sufficient for the answer but neither of the two alone is sufficient

• d) If Statement I or II is sufficient for the answer.

Answer Option C) If Statement I and II are sufficient for the answer but neither of the two alone is sufficient

From both the given statements, we find that Mr. Mohamed reached the airport stand at 9 A.M. and a airport is sure to arrive at 10 A.M. So, Mr. airport has to wait for at the most one hour.

Answer Option C) If Statement I and II are sufficient for the answer but neither of the two alone is sufficient

From both the given statements, we find that Mr. Mohamed reached the airport stand at 9 A.M. and a airport is sure to arrive at 10 A.M. So, Mr. airport has to wait for at the most one hour.

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points What is G’s age? I. G, V and K are all of the same age. II. Total age of V, K and A is 64 and A is as old as V and K together. a) If Statement I is sufficient for the answer. b) If Statement II is sufficient for the answer. c) If Statement I and II are sufficient for the answer but neither of the two alone is sufficient d) If Statement I or II is sufficient for the answer. Correct Answer Option C) If Statement I and II are sufficient for the answer but neither of the two alone is sufficient As given in statements I and II, we have G = V = K, V + K + A = 64 and A = V + k. take V + K = A in second, we get 2A = 64 or A = 32. Thus, V + K = 32 and V = K. So, V = K = 16. Thus, G = 16. Incorrect Answer Option C) If Statement I and II are sufficient for the answer but neither of the two alone is sufficient As given in statements I and II, we have G = V = K, V + K + A = 64 and A = V + k. take V + K = A in second, we get 2A = 64 or A = 32. Thus, V + K = 32 and V = K. So, V = K = 16. Thus, G = 16.

#### 29. Question

What is G’s age?

I. G, V and K are all of the same age.

II. Total age of V, K and A is 64 and A is as old as V and K together.

• a) If Statement I is sufficient for the answer.

• b) If Statement II is sufficient for the answer.

• c) If Statement I and II are sufficient for the answer but neither of the two alone is sufficient

• d) If Statement I or II is sufficient for the answer.

Answer Option C) If Statement I and II are sufficient for the answer but neither of the two alone is sufficient

As given in statements I and II, we have

G = V = K,

V + K + A = 64

and A = V + k.

take V + K = A in second,

we get 2A = 64 or A = 32.

Thus, V + K = 32 and V = K.

So, V = K = 16. Thus, G = 16.

Answer Option C) If Statement I and II are sufficient for the answer but neither of the two alone is sufficient

As given in statements I and II, we have

G = V = K,

V + K + A = 64

and A = V + k.

take V + K = A in second,

we get 2A = 64 or A = 32.

Thus, V + K = 32 and V = K.

So, V = K = 16. Thus, G = 16.

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points If A x B means A is to the south of B; A + B means A is to the north of B; A % B means A is to the east of B; A – B means A is to the west of B; then in P % Q + R – S, S is in which direction with respect to Q? A) South-West B) South-East C) North-East D) North-West Correct Answer: B) South-East Explanation: According to P % Q + R – S S is in the South-East of Q. Incorrect Answer: B) South-East Explanation: According to P % Q + R – S S is in the South-East of Q.

#### 30. Question

If A x B means A is to the south of B;

A + B means A is to the north of B;

A % B means A is to the east of B;

A – B means A is to the west of B;

then in P % Q + R – S,

S is in which direction with respect to Q?

• A) South-West

• B) South-East

• C) North-East

• D) North-West

Answer: B) South-East

Explanation:

According to P % Q + R – S

S is in the South-East of Q.

Answer: B) South-East

Explanation:

According to P % Q + R – S

S is in the South-East of Q.

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