DAY – 58 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY , PREVIOUS YEAR UPSC PAPER 2006 and Nov 2023 CA

INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Individuals with Down syndrome have an increased risk of which of the following medical conditions? a) Congenital heart defects b) Diabetes insipidus b) Diabetes insipidus d) Huntington's disease Correct Answer: a Explanation: Individuals with Down syndrome often face a higher risk of various health conditions due to their chromosomal abnormality. Approximately 40-50% of individuals with Down syndrome are born with congenital heart defects. Common heart defects associated with Down syndrome include atrioventricular septal defects, ventricular septal defects, and patent ductus arteriosus. Early detection and surgical correction are often needed to address these heart issues. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Individuals with Down syndrome often face a higher risk of various health conditions due to their chromosomal abnormality. Approximately 40-50% of individuals with Down syndrome are born with congenital heart defects. Common heart defects associated with Down syndrome include atrioventricular septal defects, ventricular septal defects, and patent ductus arteriosus. Early detection and surgical correction are often needed to address these heart issues. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 1. Question

Individuals with Down syndrome have an increased risk of which of the following medical conditions?

• a) Congenital heart defects

• b) Diabetes insipidus

• d) Huntington's disease

Explanation:

• Individuals with Down syndrome often face a higher risk of various health conditions due to their chromosomal abnormality.

• Approximately 40-50% of individuals with Down syndrome are born with congenital heart defects.

• Common heart defects associated with Down syndrome include atrioventricular septal defects, ventricular septal defects, and patent ductus arteriosus.

• Early detection and surgical correction are often needed to address these heart issues.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• Individuals with Down syndrome often face a higher risk of various health conditions due to their chromosomal abnormality.

• Approximately 40-50% of individuals with Down syndrome are born with congenital heart defects.

• Common heart defects associated with Down syndrome include atrioventricular septal defects, ventricular septal defects, and patent ductus arteriosus.

• Early detection and surgical correction are often needed to address these heart issues.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Which of the following are the advantages of optical fibres over metal wires? Optical fibres can carry more data than metal cables. They are less susceptible to interference by electromagnetic radiation. They are lighter and thinner than metal wires. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 and 2 only b) 3 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1,2 and 3 Correct Answer-d Explanation: Optical fibres uses glass (or plastic) threads (fibers) to transmit data. A fiber optic cable consists of a bundle of glass threads, each of which is capable of transmitting messages modulated onto light waves. Fiber optics has several advantages over traditional metal communications lines: Fiber optic cables have a much greater bandwidth than metal cables. This means that they can carry more data. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Fiber optic cables are less susceptible than metal cables to interference to electromagnetic radiation. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Fiber optic cables are much thinner and lighter than metal wires. Data can be transmitted digitally (the natural form for computer data) rather than analogically. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answer-d Explanation: Optical fibres uses glass (or plastic) threads (fibers) to transmit data. A fiber optic cable consists of a bundle of glass threads, each of which is capable of transmitting messages modulated onto light waves. Fiber optics has several advantages over traditional metal communications lines: Fiber optic cables have a much greater bandwidth than metal cables. This means that they can carry more data. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Fiber optic cables are less susceptible than metal cables to interference to electromagnetic radiation. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Fiber optic cables are much thinner and lighter than metal wires. Data can be transmitted digitally (the natural form for computer data) rather than analogically. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (d) is correct.

#### 2. Question

Which of the following are the advantages of optical fibres over metal wires?

• Optical fibres can carry more data than metal cables.

• They are less susceptible to interference by electromagnetic radiation.

• They are lighter and thinner than metal wires.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• a) 1 and 2 only

• c) 2 and 3 only

• d) 1,2 and 3

Explanation:

• Optical fibres uses glass (or plastic) threads (fibers) to transmit data. A fiber optic cable consists of a bundle of glass threads, each of which is capable of transmitting messages modulated onto light waves.

• Fiber optics has several advantages over traditional metal communications lines:

• Fiber optic cables have a much greater bandwidth than metal cables. This means that they can carry more data. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Fiber optic cables are less susceptible than metal cables to interference to electromagnetic radiation. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Fiber optic cables are much thinner and lighter than metal wires. Data can be transmitted digitally (the natural form for computer data) rather than analogically. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

• Fiber optics has several advantages over traditional metal communications lines:

• Fiber optic cables have a much greater bandwidth than metal cables. This means that they can carry more data. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Fiber optic cables are less susceptible than metal cables to interference to electromagnetic radiation. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Fiber optic cables are much thinner and lighter than metal wires. Data can be transmitted digitally (the natural form for computer data) rather than analogically. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Nano Urea Liquid? India is the first country in the world to launch Nano Urea Liquid, which serves as a nitrogen nutrient for plants, offering an alternative to conventional urea. The Nano Urea Liquid has been developed through collaboration with USA. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 only a) 1 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: a Explanation: Indian Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative Limited (IFFCO) has introduced the world’s first Nano Urea Liquid, which serves as a nitrogen nutrient for plants, offering an alternative to conventional urea. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The Nano Urea Liquid has been indigenously developed through exclusive technology at IFFCO’s Nano Biotechnology Research Centre (NBRC) located in Gujarat. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Indian Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative Limited (IFFCO) has introduced the world’s first Nano Urea Liquid, which serves as a nitrogen nutrient for plants, offering an alternative to conventional urea. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The Nano Urea Liquid has been indigenously developed through exclusive technology at IFFCO’s Nano Biotechnology Research Centre (NBRC) located in Gujarat. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Nano Urea Liquid?

• India is the first country in the world to launch Nano Urea Liquid, which serves as a nitrogen nutrient for plants, offering an alternative to conventional urea.

• The Nano Urea Liquid has been developed through collaboration with USA.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• Indian Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative Limited (IFFCO) has introduced the world’s first Nano Urea Liquid, which serves as a nitrogen nutrient for plants, offering an alternative to conventional urea. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The Nano Urea Liquid has been indigenously developed through exclusive technology at IFFCO’s Nano Biotechnology Research Centre (NBRC) located in Gujarat. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points With reference to NISAR, consider the following statements: NISAR is a collaborative project between the US and Indian space agencies. NISAR will be launched in 2024 and operate for at least three years. The satellite will help monitor the fast-melting Himalayan glaciers. How many of the above given statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: c Explanation: NISAR, the NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar, is a collaborative project between the space agencies of the United States and India. The partnership agreement for NISAR was signed in 2014. Hence statement 1 is correct . The satellite weighs 2,800 kilograms and incorporates both L-band and S-band synthetic aperture radar (SAR) instruments. The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) provided the S-band radar, the GSLV launch vehicle, and the spacecraft, while NASA contributed the L-band radar, GPS, a high-capacity solid-state recorder for data storage, and a payload data subsystem. The launch of NISAR is scheduled for 2024 from the SatishDhawan Space Centre in Andhra Pradesh, India. The satellite is designed to operate for a minimum of three years. Hence statement 2 is correct The satellite’s high-resolution imaging capabilities will be particularly crucial for monitoring the Himalayan glaciers, which are melting rapidly due to climate change, posing risks to millions of people in the region. Hence statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: NISAR, the NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar, is a collaborative project between the space agencies of the United States and India. The partnership agreement for NISAR was signed in 2014. Hence statement 1 is correct . The satellite weighs 2,800 kilograms and incorporates both L-band and S-band synthetic aperture radar (SAR) instruments. The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) provided the S-band radar, the GSLV launch vehicle, and the spacecraft, while NASA contributed the L-band radar, GPS, a high-capacity solid-state recorder for data storage, and a payload data subsystem. The launch of NISAR is scheduled for 2024 from the SatishDhawan Space Centre in Andhra Pradesh, India. The satellite is designed to operate for a minimum of three years. Hence statement 2 is correct The satellite’s high-resolution imaging capabilities will be particularly crucial for monitoring the Himalayan glaciers, which are melting rapidly due to climate change, posing risks to millions of people in the region. Hence statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 4. Question

With reference to NISAR, consider the following statements:

• NISAR is a collaborative project between the US and Indian space agencies.

• NISAR will be launched in 2024 and operate for at least three years.

• The satellite will help monitor the fast-melting Himalayan glaciers.

How many of the above given statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Explanation:

• NISAR, the NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar, is a collaborative project between the space agencies of the United States and India. The partnership agreement for NISAR was signed in 2014. Hence statement 1 is correct .

• The satellite weighs 2,800 kilograms and incorporates both L-band and S-band synthetic aperture radar (SAR) instruments.

• The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) provided the S-band radar, the GSLV launch vehicle, and the spacecraft, while NASA contributed the L-band radar, GPS, a high-capacity solid-state recorder for data storage, and a payload data subsystem.

• The launch of NISAR is scheduled for 2024 from the SatishDhawan Space Centre in Andhra Pradesh, India. The satellite is designed to operate for a minimum of three years. Hence statement 2 is correct

• The satellite’s high-resolution imaging capabilities will be particularly crucial for monitoring the Himalayan glaciers, which are melting rapidly due to climate change, posing risks to millions of people in the region. Hence statement 3 is correct.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

• The satellite weighs 2,800 kilograms and incorporates both L-band and S-band synthetic aperture radar (SAR) instruments.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Which of the following organizations has developed the International Classification of Diseases (ICD)? a) Center for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) b) World Health Organization (WHO) c) National Institutes of Health (NIH) d) United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) Correct Answer: b Explanation: World Health Organization’s International Classification of Diseases (ICD) 11 TM Module 2, Morbidity Codes launch event was held in New Delhi on 10th January, 2024. The International Classification of Diseases (ICD) has been developed by the World Health Organization (WHO). The WHO is a specialized agency of the United Nations responsible for international public health. The ICD is a standardized system for classifying diseases and health-related problems, providing a common language for reporting and monitoring diseases globally. It serves as a foundation for health statistics and facilitates the compilation and analysis of health data across different countries and regions. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: World Health Organization’s International Classification of Diseases (ICD) 11 TM Module 2, Morbidity Codes launch event was held in New Delhi on 10th January, 2024. The International Classification of Diseases (ICD) has been developed by the World Health Organization (WHO). The WHO is a specialized agency of the United Nations responsible for international public health. The ICD is a standardized system for classifying diseases and health-related problems, providing a common language for reporting and monitoring diseases globally. It serves as a foundation for health statistics and facilitates the compilation and analysis of health data across different countries and regions. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 5. Question

Which of the following organizations has developed the International Classification of Diseases (ICD)?

• a) Center for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)

• b) World Health Organization (WHO)

• c) National Institutes of Health (NIH)

• d) United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)

Explanation:

• World Health Organization’s International Classification of Diseases (ICD) 11 TM Module 2, Morbidity Codes launch event was held in New Delhi on 10th January, 2024.

• The International Classification of Diseases (ICD) has been developed by the World Health Organization (WHO). The WHO is a specialized agency of the United Nations responsible for international public health. The ICD is a standardized system for classifying diseases and health-related problems, providing a common language for reporting and monitoring diseases globally. It serves as a foundation for health statistics and facilitates the compilation and analysis of health data across different countries and regions.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• World Health Organization’s International Classification of Diseases (ICD) 11 TM Module 2, Morbidity Codes launch event was held in New Delhi on 10th January, 2024.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) a) DNA copying ensures the transmission of acquired traits to offspring b) DNA copying leads to the creation of variations in populations c) DNA copying determines the gender of the offspring d) DNA copying controls the growth and development of the embryo Correct Answer: d Explanation: DNA copying, also known as DNA replication, is an essential part of the process of reproduction because it ensures that each new cell or organism receives an exact copy of the genetic information necessary for its growth and development. DNA contains the instructions for building and maintaining an organism, including its physical characteristics, physiological processes, and biochemical pathways. During reproduction, DNA replication occurs to produce identical copies of the genetic material, ensuring that each new cell or organism inherits the same genetic information as the parent cell or organism. This precise copying of DNA molecules ensures the accurate transmission of genetic traits from one generation to the next, maintaining genetic continuity within a species. While DNA replication is crucial for maintaining genetic stability, it does not directly determine the gender of the offspring or lead to the creation of variations in populations. These aspects of reproduction involve other genetic mechanisms such as meiosis for gender determination and genetic recombination for generating variation. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: DNA copying, also known as DNA replication, is an essential part of the process of reproduction because it ensures that each new cell or organism receives an exact copy of the genetic information necessary for its growth and development. DNA contains the instructions for building and maintaining an organism, including its physical characteristics, physiological processes, and biochemical pathways. During reproduction, DNA replication occurs to produce identical copies of the genetic material, ensuring that each new cell or organism inherits the same genetic information as the parent cell or organism. This precise copying of DNA molecules ensures the accurate transmission of genetic traits from one generation to the next, maintaining genetic continuity within a species. While DNA replication is crucial for maintaining genetic stability, it does not directly determine the gender of the offspring or lead to the creation of variations in populations. These aspects of reproduction involve other genetic mechanisms such as meiosis for gender determination and genetic recombination for generating variation. Hence, option (d) is correct.

#### 6. Question

United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)

• a) DNA copying ensures the transmission of acquired traits to offspring

• b) DNA copying leads to the creation of variations in populations

• c) DNA copying determines the gender of the offspring

• d) DNA copying controls the growth and development of the embryo

Explanation:

• DNA copying, also known as DNA replication, is an essential part of the process of reproduction because it ensures that each new cell or organism receives an exact copy of the genetic information necessary for its growth and development. DNA contains the instructions for building and maintaining an organism, including its physical characteristics, physiological processes, and biochemical pathways.

• During reproduction, DNA replication occurs to produce identical copies of the genetic material, ensuring that each new cell or organism inherits the same genetic information as the parent cell or organism. This precise copying of DNA molecules ensures the accurate transmission of genetic traits from one generation to the next, maintaining genetic continuity within a species.

• While DNA replication is crucial for maintaining genetic stability, it does not directly determine the gender of the offspring or lead to the creation of variations in populations. These aspects of reproduction involve other genetic mechanisms such as meiosis for gender determination and genetic recombination for generating variation.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points What is the inheritance pattern of sex chromosomes in human offspring? a) Both X and Y chromosomes are inherited from the mother b) Both X and Y chromosomes are inherited from the father c) X chromosome is always inherited from the father, and Y chromosome is always inherited from the mother d) X chromosome is always inherited from the mother, and Y chromosome is always inherited from the father Correct Answer: d Explanation: In human reproduction, females have two X chromosomes (XX), one inherited from the mother and the other from the father. On the other hand, males have one X chromosome from the mother and one Y chromosome from the father (XY). Therefore, the X chromosome is always inherited from the mother, while the Y chromosome is always inherited from the father. This pattern ensures that the genetic sex of the offspring is determined by the contribution of both parents. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: In human reproduction, females have two X chromosomes (XX), one inherited from the mother and the other from the father. On the other hand, males have one X chromosome from the mother and one Y chromosome from the father (XY). Therefore, the X chromosome is always inherited from the mother, while the Y chromosome is always inherited from the father. This pattern ensures that the genetic sex of the offspring is determined by the contribution of both parents. Hence, option (d) is correct.

#### 7. Question

What is the inheritance pattern of sex chromosomes in human offspring?

• a) Both X and Y chromosomes are inherited from the mother

• b) Both X and Y chromosomes are inherited from the father

• c) X chromosome is always inherited from the father, and Y chromosome is always inherited from the mother

• d) X chromosome is always inherited from the mother, and Y chromosome is always inherited from the father

Explanation:

• In human reproduction, females have two X chromosomes (XX), one inherited from the mother and the other from the father. On the other hand, males have one X chromosome from the mother and one Y chromosome from the father (XY). Therefore, the X chromosome is always inherited from the mother, while the Y chromosome is always inherited from the father. This pattern ensures that the genetic sex of the offspring is determined by the contribution of both parents.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points What is the name of India’s first indigenously developed Hepatitis A vaccine recently launched by Indian Immunologicals Ltd? a) HepaSafe b) Havisure c) HepaGuard d) HepsaShield Correct Answer: b Explanation: Recently, the Indian Immunologicals Ltd (IIL) a wholly owned subsidiary of National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) launched India’s first indigenously developed Hepatitis A vaccine ‘Havisure’ in Hyderabad. It is a two-dose vaccine — first dose administered at above 12 months of age and the second at least six months after the first dose. The vaccine is recommended for children as part of the routine immunization as well as for individuals at risk of exposure or travel to the regions with high hepatitis A prevalence. In addition to this people with occupational risk of infection and suffering from chronic liver diseases also require Hepatitis A vaccination. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Recently, the Indian Immunologicals Ltd (IIL) a wholly owned subsidiary of National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) launched India’s first indigenously developed Hepatitis A vaccine ‘Havisure’ in Hyderabad. It is a two-dose vaccine — first dose administered at above 12 months of age and the second at least six months after the first dose. The vaccine is recommended for children as part of the routine immunization as well as for individuals at risk of exposure or travel to the regions with high hepatitis A prevalence. In addition to this people with occupational risk of infection and suffering from chronic liver diseases also require Hepatitis A vaccination. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 8. Question

What is the name of India’s first indigenously developed Hepatitis A vaccine recently launched by Indian Immunologicals Ltd?

• a) HepaSafe

• b) Havisure

• c) HepaGuard

• d) HepsaShield

Explanation:

• Recently, the Indian Immunologicals Ltd (IIL) a wholly owned subsidiary of National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) launched India’s first indigenously developed Hepatitis A vaccine ‘Havisure’ in Hyderabad.

• It is a two-dose vaccine — first dose administered at above 12 months of age and the second at least six months after the first dose.

• The vaccine is recommended for children as part of the routine immunization as well as for individuals at risk of exposure or travel to the regions with high hepatitis A prevalence.

• In addition to this people with occupational risk of infection and suffering from chronic liver diseases also require Hepatitis A vaccination.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• It is a two-dose vaccine — first dose administered at above 12 months of age and the second at least six months after the first dose.

• The vaccine is recommended for children as part of the routine immunization as well as for individuals at risk of exposure or travel to the regions with high hepatitis A prevalence.

• In addition to this people with occupational risk of infection and suffering from chronic liver diseases also require Hepatitis A vaccination.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about DRESS Syndrome: It is caused by a specific type of bacteria. It only affects the skin. It is sometimes referred to as DIHS. It is exclusively treated with antibiotics. How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: a Explanation: Recently, the Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission (IPC) has issued a drug safety alert for doctors and patients about the use of painkiller mefenamic acid can lead to Drug Reactions with Eosinophilia and Systemic Symptoms (DRESS) Syndrome. DRESS Syndrome, or Drug Reaction with Eosinophilia and Systemic Symptoms, is not caused by bacteria. It is a type of drug allergy reaction. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. DRESS Syndrome affects not only the skin but also various organs, leading to systemic symptoms. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. DRESS Syndrome is sometimes referred to as DIHS, which stands for Drug Induced Hypersensitivity Syndrom Both terms are used interchangeably to describe this condition. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Treatment for DRESS Syndrome primarily involves discontinuation of the offending medication and supportive care. While antibiotics may be used if there is evidence of bacterial infection, they are not the exclusive treatment for DRESS Syndrome. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Recently, the Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission (IPC) has issued a drug safety alert for doctors and patients about the use of painkiller mefenamic acid can lead to Drug Reactions with Eosinophilia and Systemic Symptoms (DRESS) Syndrome. DRESS Syndrome, or Drug Reaction with Eosinophilia and Systemic Symptoms, is not caused by bacteria. It is a type of drug allergy reaction. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. DRESS Syndrome affects not only the skin but also various organs, leading to systemic symptoms. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. DRESS Syndrome is sometimes referred to as DIHS, which stands for Drug Induced Hypersensitivity Syndrom Both terms are used interchangeably to describe this condition. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Treatment for DRESS Syndrome primarily involves discontinuation of the offending medication and supportive care. While antibiotics may be used if there is evidence of bacterial infection, they are not the exclusive treatment for DRESS Syndrome. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements about DRESS Syndrome:

• It is caused by a specific type of bacteria.

• It only affects the skin.

• It is sometimes referred to as DIHS.

• It is exclusively treated with antibiotics.

How many of the above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

• Recently, the Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission (IPC) has issued a drug safety alert for doctors and patients about the use of painkiller mefenamic acid can lead to Drug Reactions with Eosinophilia and Systemic Symptoms (DRESS) Syndrome.

• DRESS Syndrome, or Drug Reaction with Eosinophilia and Systemic Symptoms, is not caused by bacteria. It is a type of drug allergy reaction. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• DRESS Syndrome affects not only the skin but also various organs, leading to systemic symptoms. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• DRESS Syndrome is sometimes referred to as DIHS, which stands for Drug Induced Hypersensitivity Syndrom Both terms are used interchangeably to describe this condition. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Treatment for DRESS Syndrome primarily involves discontinuation of the offending medication and supportive care. While antibiotics may be used if there is evidence of bacterial infection, they are not the exclusive treatment for DRESS Syndrome. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• DRESS Syndrome, or Drug Reaction with Eosinophilia and Systemic Symptoms, is not caused by bacteria. It is a type of drug allergy reaction. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• DRESS Syndrome affects not only the skin but also various organs, leading to systemic symptoms. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points What role does the Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission play in promoting the rational use of medicines? (a) By enforcing strict regulations on drug manufacturers (b) By organizing awareness campaigns about the importance of medicine (c) By publishing the National Formulary of India (d) By conducting clinical trials for new drugs Correct Answer: c Explanation: Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission: It is an autonomous Institution of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, of India. It is created to set standards of drugs in the country. Its basic function is to update regularly the standards of drugs commonly required for treatment of diseases prevailing in this region. It publishes official documents for improving Quality of Medicines by way of adding new and updating existing monographs in the form of Indian Pharmacopoeia (IP). It further promotes rational use of generic medicines by publishing National Formulary of India. It prescribes standards for identity, purity and strength of drugs essentially required from the health-care perspective of human beings and animals. It also provides IP Reference Substances (IPRS) which act as a fingerprint for identification of an article under test and its purity as prescribed in IP. The Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission (IPC) plays a role in promoting the rational use of medicines by publishing the National Formulary of India. The National Formulary of India contains essential information about medicines, including their indications, dosages, contraindications, and adverse effects. This publication helps healthcare professionals, such as doctors and pharmacists, make informed decisions about prescribing and dispensing medications, thereby promoting the rational and appropriate use of medicines. While enforcing regulations, organizing awareness campaigns, and conducting clinical trials may also contribute to the rational use of medicines, the publication of the National Formulary of India directly provides comprehensive information necessary for healthcare professionals to make evidence-based decisions regarding medication use. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission: It is an autonomous Institution of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, of India. It is created to set standards of drugs in the country. Its basic function is to update regularly the standards of drugs commonly required for treatment of diseases prevailing in this region. It publishes official documents for improving Quality of Medicines by way of adding new and updating existing monographs in the form of Indian Pharmacopoeia (IP). It further promotes rational use of generic medicines by publishing National Formulary of India. It prescribes standards for identity, purity and strength of drugs essentially required from the health-care perspective of human beings and animals. It also provides IP Reference Substances (IPRS) which act as a fingerprint for identification of an article under test and its purity as prescribed in IP. The Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission (IPC) plays a role in promoting the rational use of medicines by publishing the National Formulary of India. The National Formulary of India contains essential information about medicines, including their indications, dosages, contraindications, and adverse effects. This publication helps healthcare professionals, such as doctors and pharmacists, make informed decisions about prescribing and dispensing medications, thereby promoting the rational and appropriate use of medicines. While enforcing regulations, organizing awareness campaigns, and conducting clinical trials may also contribute to the rational use of medicines, the publication of the National Formulary of India directly provides comprehensive information necessary for healthcare professionals to make evidence-based decisions regarding medication use. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 10. Question

What role does the Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission play in promoting the rational use of medicines?

• (a) By enforcing strict regulations on drug manufacturers

• (b) By organizing awareness campaigns about the importance of medicine

• (c) By publishing the National Formulary of India

• (d) By conducting clinical trials for new drugs

Explanation:

• Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission:

• It is an autonomous Institution of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, of India.

• It is created to set standards of drugs in the country.

• Its basic function is to update regularly the standards of drugs commonly required for treatment of diseases prevailing in this region.

• It publishes official documents for improving Quality of Medicines by way of adding new and updating existing monographs in the form of Indian Pharmacopoeia (IP).

• It further promotes rational use of generic medicines by publishing National Formulary of India.

• It prescribes standards for identity, purity and strength of drugs essentially required from the health-care perspective of human beings and animals.

• It also provides IP Reference Substances (IPRS) which act as a fingerprint for identification of an article under test and its purity as prescribed in IP.

• The Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission (IPC) plays a role in promoting the rational use of medicines by publishing the National Formulary of India. The National Formulary of India contains essential information about medicines, including their indications, dosages, contraindications, and adverse effects. This publication helps healthcare professionals, such as doctors and pharmacists, make informed decisions about prescribing and dispensing medications, thereby promoting the rational and appropriate use of medicines. While enforcing regulations, organizing awareness campaigns, and conducting clinical trials may also contribute to the rational use of medicines, the publication of the National Formulary of India directly provides comprehensive information necessary for healthcare professionals to make evidence-based decisions regarding medication use.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

• Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission:

• It is an autonomous Institution of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, of India.

• It is created to set standards of drugs in the country.

• Its basic function is to update regularly the standards of drugs commonly required for treatment of diseases prevailing in this region.

• It publishes official documents for improving Quality of Medicines by way of adding new and updating existing monographs in the form of Indian Pharmacopoeia (IP).

• It further promotes rational use of generic medicines by publishing National Formulary of India.

• It prescribes standards for identity, purity and strength of drugs essentially required from the health-care perspective of human beings and animals.

• It also provides IP Reference Substances (IPRS) which act as a fingerprint for identification of an article under test and its purity as prescribed in IP.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Gum Arabic Gum Arabic trees are native to Eastern India. Spray dried version of the gum is used in powder form in beverages. According to World Health Organisation it is a potent human carcinogen. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution : A Gum Arabic is the natural gum exuded by various species of a cassia trees These trees are native to North Africa and grow mainly in the sub Saharan or Sahel region of Africa. This is also grown in some parts of India mainly in the dry Rocky Hills of south east Punjab, Northern Aravali Hills and drier parts of Rajasthan and Gujarat. About 70% of the Global supply of gum Arabic for which there are few substitutes comes from Acacia trees in the Sahel region that runs through Africa’s third largest country, Sudan. It is one of the most sort after products of the country and a key ingredients from frizzy drinks to candy and cosmetics Hence statement 1 is incorrect In manufacturing of food and drink Industries use a spray dried version of the come that is powder like. There is no alternative to Gum Arabic in frizzy drinks, where it prevents ingredients from separating. It is also used in cosmetics and printing manufacturing industries. Although substitutes exist for gum Arabic for cosmetic and printing industries, but there is no alternative to it for beverage industry. Hence statement 2 is correct Gum Arabic is neutral or slightly acidic salt of a complex polysaccharide containing calcium, magnesium and potassium it is non-toxic, odour less and somewhat yellowish in colour. Hence statement 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution : A Gum Arabic is the natural gum exuded by various species of a cassia trees These trees are native to North Africa and grow mainly in the sub Saharan or Sahel region of Africa. This is also grown in some parts of India mainly in the dry Rocky Hills of south east Punjab, Northern Aravali Hills and drier parts of Rajasthan and Gujarat. About 70% of the Global supply of gum Arabic for which there are few substitutes comes from Acacia trees in the Sahel region that runs through Africa’s third largest country, Sudan. It is one of the most sort after products of the country and a key ingredients from frizzy drinks to candy and cosmetics Hence statement 1 is incorrect In manufacturing of food and drink Industries use a spray dried version of the come that is powder like. There is no alternative to Gum Arabic in frizzy drinks, where it prevents ingredients from separating. It is also used in cosmetics and printing manufacturing industries. Although substitutes exist for gum Arabic for cosmetic and printing industries, but there is no alternative to it for beverage industry. Hence statement 2 is correct Gum Arabic is neutral or slightly acidic salt of a complex polysaccharide containing calcium, magnesium and potassium it is non-toxic, odour less and somewhat yellowish in colour. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

#### 11. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Gum Arabic

• Gum Arabic trees are native to Eastern India.

• Spray dried version of the gum is used in powder form in beverages.

• According to World Health Organisation it is a potent human carcinogen.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution : A

• Gum Arabic is the natural gum exuded by various species of a cassia trees

• These trees are native to North Africa and grow mainly in the sub Saharan or Sahel region of Africa.

• This is also grown in some parts of India mainly in the dry Rocky Hills of south east Punjab, Northern Aravali Hills and drier parts of Rajasthan and Gujarat.

• About 70% of the Global supply of gum Arabic for which there are few substitutes comes from Acacia trees in the Sahel region that runs through Africa’s third largest country, Sudan.

• It is one of the most sort after products of the country and a key ingredients from frizzy drinks to candy and cosmetics

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• In manufacturing of food and drink Industries use a spray dried version of the come that is powder like.

• There is no alternative to Gum Arabic in frizzy drinks, where it prevents ingredients from separating.

• It is also used in cosmetics and printing manufacturing industries.

• Although substitutes exist for gum Arabic for cosmetic and printing industries, but there is no alternative to it for beverage industry.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Gum Arabic is neutral or slightly acidic salt of a complex polysaccharide containing calcium, magnesium and potassium

• it is non-toxic, odour less and somewhat yellowish in colour.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution : A

• Gum Arabic is the natural gum exuded by various species of a cassia trees

• These trees are native to North Africa and grow mainly in the sub Saharan or Sahel region of Africa.

• This is also grown in some parts of India mainly in the dry Rocky Hills of south east Punjab, Northern Aravali Hills and drier parts of Rajasthan and Gujarat.

• About 70% of the Global supply of gum Arabic for which there are few substitutes comes from Acacia trees in the Sahel region that runs through Africa’s third largest country, Sudan.

• It is one of the most sort after products of the country and a key ingredients from frizzy drinks to candy and cosmetics

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• In manufacturing of food and drink Industries use a spray dried version of the come that is powder like.

• There is no alternative to Gum Arabic in frizzy drinks, where it prevents ingredients from separating.

• It is also used in cosmetics and printing manufacturing industries.

• Although substitutes exist for gum Arabic for cosmetic and printing industries, but there is no alternative to it for beverage industry.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Gum Arabic is neutral or slightly acidic salt of a complex polysaccharide containing calcium, magnesium and potassium

• it is non-toxic, odour less and somewhat yellowish in colour.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points ‘Forum Shopping’, sometimes seeing in news refers to (a) Spreading misleading information in the media to gain publicity for a legal case (b) Deliberately choosing a specific court for a legal case to get favourable outcome (c) The practice of getting higher degree certificates from renowned institutions in lieu of money. (d) The practice of managing a particular judge to hear a particular case Correct Solution : B Forum Shopping refers to the practice of intentionally choosing a particular Court for hearing of a legal case with an aim to get favourable outcome Litigants and lawyers often consider this strategy as part of their litigation plan. For example lawyers or litigant might opt for a higher Court like Supreme Court to gain more attention for their case; however this practice of manipulating the system is unfair and unlawful. This often allows petitioners to seek justice and compensation in a court that is more sympathetic to their interests it also encourages competition and innovation among courts and judges to improve their efficiency and quality of service. However the practice has been criticized by judges as it can lead to injustice for the opposition party and create imbalance in the workload of the court it can also undermine the authority and legitimacy of courts and judges by creating perceptions of bias. Recently the Chief Justice of India has condemned the practice of Forum Shopping after a Litigant mentioned the hearing before CJI although he had mentioned the same case are they before another judge. A similar practice is ‘Bench Hunting’- which refers to the incidents when petitioners manage to get their cases heard by a particular judge or bench. Hence option B is correct Incorrect Solution : B Forum Shopping refers to the practice of intentionally choosing a particular Court for hearing of a legal case with an aim to get favourable outcome Litigants and lawyers often consider this strategy as part of their litigation plan. For example lawyers or litigant might opt for a higher Court like Supreme Court to gain more attention for their case; however this practice of manipulating the system is unfair and unlawful. This often allows petitioners to seek justice and compensation in a court that is more sympathetic to their interests it also encourages competition and innovation among courts and judges to improve their efficiency and quality of service. However the practice has been criticized by judges as it can lead to injustice for the opposition party and create imbalance in the workload of the court it can also undermine the authority and legitimacy of courts and judges by creating perceptions of bias. Recently the Chief Justice of India has condemned the practice of Forum Shopping after a Litigant mentioned the hearing before CJI although he had mentioned the same case are they before another judge. A similar practice is ‘Bench Hunting’- which refers to the incidents when petitioners manage to get their cases heard by a particular judge or bench. Hence option B is correct

#### 12. Question

‘Forum Shopping’, sometimes seeing in news refers to

• (a) Spreading misleading information in the media to gain publicity for a legal case

• (b) Deliberately choosing a specific court for a legal case to get favourable outcome

• (c) The practice of getting higher degree certificates from renowned institutions in lieu of money.

• (d) The practice of managing a particular judge to hear a particular case

Solution : B

• Forum Shopping refers to the practice of intentionally choosing a particular Court for hearing of a legal case with an aim to get favourable outcome

• Litigants and lawyers often consider this strategy as part of their litigation plan.

• For example lawyers or litigant might opt for a higher Court like Supreme Court to gain more attention for their case; however this practice of manipulating the system is unfair and unlawful.

• This often allows petitioners to seek justice and compensation in a court that is more sympathetic to their interests

• it also encourages competition and innovation among courts and judges to improve their efficiency and quality of service.

• However the practice has been criticized by judges as it can lead to injustice for the opposition party and create imbalance in the workload of the court

• it can also undermine the authority and legitimacy of courts and judges by creating perceptions of bias.

• Recently the Chief Justice of India has condemned the practice of Forum Shopping after a Litigant mentioned the hearing before CJI although he had mentioned the same case are they before another judge.

• A similar practice is ‘Bench Hunting’- which refers to the incidents when petitioners manage to get their cases heard by a particular judge or bench.

Hence option B is correct