DAY – 57 : Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2025 : GOVERNMENT SCHEMES

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding India’s recent advancements in space docking and space station ambitions: The Space Docking Experiment (SpaDeX) utilized a chaser and a target spacecraft, both launched on the same PSLV mission, to demonstrate autonomous rendezvous and docking capabilities essential for the Bharatiya Antariksh Station (BAS). The proposed Bharatiya Antariksh Station (BAS) is envisioned to be a monolithic structure launched by a single heavy-lift launch vehicle to minimize complex on-orbit assembly. The Gaganyaan mission’s success in demonstrating human spaceflight capability, including long-duration life support systems, is a direct prerequisite for the operational phase of BAS. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. While SpaDeX is crucial for BAS, the experiment as planned involves two PSLV orbital platforms (POEMs) or dedicated small satellites launched on potentially different missions to act as chaser and target. The primary aim is to test technologies for rendezvous, docking, and servicing. Launching both on the same mission and designating them as chaser/target for immediate docking isn’t the typical approach for initial capability demonstration of complex autonomous systems requiring significant orbital maneuvering. More recent plans for SpaDeX indicate it will use two experimental small satellites, PSLV Orbital Experimental Module (POEM-3) as a target and another as a chaser. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Bharatiya Antariksh Station (BAS) is planned to be a modular space station, similar to the International Space Station, with different modules launched sequentially and assembled in orbit. This approach allows for scalability and complexity management, rather than relying on a single, massive monolithic launch. Statement 3 is correct. The Gaganyaan mission is critical for developing and validating technologies for human survival in space, including life support systems, crew escape systems, and re-entry vehicles. Demonstrating these capabilities, especially for durations relevant to space station habitation (even if initial Gaganyaan missions are shorter), is a foundational step and a direct prerequisite before astronauts can inhabit and operate the BAS for extended periods. The experience gained from Gaganyaan will directly feed into the BAS program’s human rating and operational protocols. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. While SpaDeX is crucial for BAS, the experiment as planned involves two PSLV orbital platforms (POEMs) or dedicated small satellites launched on potentially different missions to act as chaser and target. The primary aim is to test technologies for rendezvous, docking, and servicing. Launching both on the same mission and designating them as chaser/target for immediate docking isn’t the typical approach for initial capability demonstration of complex autonomous systems requiring significant orbital maneuvering. More recent plans for SpaDeX indicate it will use two experimental small satellites, PSLV Orbital Experimental Module (POEM-3) as a target and another as a chaser. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Bharatiya Antariksh Station (BAS) is planned to be a modular space station, similar to the International Space Station, with different modules launched sequentially and assembled in orbit. This approach allows for scalability and complexity management, rather than relying on a single, massive monolithic launch. Statement 3 is correct. The Gaganyaan mission is critical for developing and validating technologies for human survival in space, including life support systems, crew escape systems, and re-entry vehicles. Demonstrating these capabilities, especially for durations relevant to space station habitation (even if initial Gaganyaan missions are shorter), is a foundational step and a direct prerequisite before astronauts can inhabit and operate the BAS for extended periods. The experience gained from Gaganyaan will directly feed into the BAS program’s human rating and operational protocols.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding India’s recent advancements in space docking and space station ambitions:

• The Space Docking Experiment (SpaDeX) utilized a chaser and a target spacecraft, both launched on the same PSLV mission, to demonstrate autonomous rendezvous and docking capabilities essential for the Bharatiya Antariksh Station (BAS).

• The proposed Bharatiya Antariksh Station (BAS) is envisioned to be a monolithic structure launched by a single heavy-lift launch vehicle to minimize complex on-orbit assembly.

• The Gaganyaan mission’s success in demonstrating human spaceflight capability, including long-duration life support systems, is a direct prerequisite for the operational phase of BAS.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While SpaDeX is crucial for BAS, the experiment as planned involves two PSLV orbital platforms (POEMs) or dedicated small satellites launched on potentially different missions to act as chaser and target. The primary aim is to test technologies for rendezvous, docking, and servicing. Launching both on the same mission and designating them as chaser/target for immediate docking isn’t the typical approach for initial capability demonstration of complex autonomous systems requiring significant orbital maneuvering. More recent plans for SpaDeX indicate it will use two experimental small satellites, PSLV Orbital Experimental Module (POEM-3) as a target and another as a chaser.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Bharatiya Antariksh Station (BAS) is planned to be a modular space station, similar to the International Space Station, with different modules launched sequentially and assembled in orbit. This approach allows for scalability and complexity management, rather than relying on a single, massive monolithic launch.

• Statement 3 is correct. The Gaganyaan mission is critical for developing and validating technologies for human survival in space, including life support systems, crew escape systems, and re-entry vehicles. Demonstrating these capabilities, especially for durations relevant to space station habitation (even if initial Gaganyaan missions are shorter), is a foundational step and a direct prerequisite before astronauts can inhabit and operate the BAS for extended periods. The experience gained from Gaganyaan will directly feed into the BAS program’s human rating and operational protocols.

Solution: A

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points With reference to Lagrange Points and space missions, consider the following statements: Statement I : Placing a spacecraft like Aditya-L1 at the Sun-Earth Lagrange Point 1 (L1) offers an uninterrupted view of the Sun, free from occultations and eclipses caused by Earth. Statement II : At L1, the gravitational forces of the Sun and Earth, combined with the centrifugal force acting on a spacecraft, create a stable equilibrium point where the spacecraft can maintain its relative position with minimal fuel consumption. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation of Statement-I. (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II is not the correct explanation of Statement-I. (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect. (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct. Correct Solution: B Statement I is correct. The L1 point, located between the Sun and Earth, allows a spacecraft to constantly view the Sun without the Earth blocking its view (occultation) or passing through Earth’s shadow (eclipse). This is a primary advantage for solar observatories like Aditya-L1. Statement II is correct. Lagrange points are positions in space where the gravitational forces of a two-body system (like the Sun and Earth) produce enhanced regions of attraction and repulsion. At L1, the gravitational pull of the Sun is counteracted by the Earth’s gravity and the centrifugal force experienced by an object orbiting with the Earth. This allows a spacecraft to “hover” relative to the Earth and Sun with significantly reduced station-keeping maneuvers, thus saving fuel. While both statements are independently correct, the stability and fuel efficiency at L1 (Statement II ) are the reasons why it’s a desirable location for maintaining a position, but it doesn’t directly explain why L1 offers an uninterrupted view. The uninterrupted view (statement I ) is due to the geometric positioning of L1 between the Sun and Earth, outside Earth’s shadow and orbital path around the Sun that would cause eclipses from Earth’s perspective. The stability at L1 makes it feasible to exploit this geometric advantage. Thus, Statement II explains the feasibility of using L1, not the optical advantage itself, which is more a consequence of its location. Incorrect Solution: B Statement I is correct. The L1 point, located between the Sun and Earth, allows a spacecraft to constantly view the Sun without the Earth blocking its view (occultation) or passing through Earth’s shadow (eclipse). This is a primary advantage for solar observatories like Aditya-L1. Statement II is correct. Lagrange points are positions in space where the gravitational forces of a two-body system (like the Sun and Earth) produce enhanced regions of attraction and repulsion. At L1, the gravitational pull of the Sun is counteracted by the Earth’s gravity and the centrifugal force experienced by an object orbiting with the Earth. This allows a spacecraft to “hover” relative to the Earth and Sun with significantly reduced station-keeping maneuvers, thus saving fuel. While both statements are independently correct, the stability and fuel efficiency at L1 (Statement II ) are the reasons why it’s a desirable location for maintaining a position, but it doesn’t directly explain why L1 offers an uninterrupted view. The uninterrupted view (statement I ) is due to the geometric positioning of L1 between the Sun and Earth, outside Earth’s shadow and orbital path around the Sun that would cause eclipses from Earth’s perspective. The stability at L1 makes it feasible to exploit this geometric advantage. Thus, Statement II explains the feasibility of using L1, not the optical advantage itself, which is more a consequence of its location.

#### 2. Question

With reference to Lagrange Points and space missions, consider the following statements:

Statement I : Placing a spacecraft like Aditya-L1 at the Sun-Earth Lagrange Point 1 (L1) offers an uninterrupted view of the Sun, free from occultations and eclipses caused by Earth.

Statement II : At L1, the gravitational forces of the Sun and Earth, combined with the centrifugal force acting on a spacecraft, create a stable equilibrium point where the spacecraft can maintain its relative position with minimal fuel consumption.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation of Statement-I.

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II is not the correct explanation of Statement-I.

• (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.

Solution: B

• Statement I is correct. The L1 point, located between the Sun and Earth, allows a spacecraft to constantly view the Sun without the Earth blocking its view (occultation) or passing through Earth’s shadow (eclipse). This is a primary advantage for solar observatories like Aditya-L1.

• Statement II is correct. Lagrange points are positions in space where the gravitational forces of a two-body system (like the Sun and Earth) produce enhanced regions of attraction and repulsion. At L1, the gravitational pull of the Sun is counteracted by the Earth’s gravity and the centrifugal force experienced by an object orbiting with the Earth. This allows a spacecraft to “hover” relative to the Earth and Sun with significantly reduced station-keeping maneuvers, thus saving fuel.

• While both statements are independently correct, the stability and fuel efficiency at L1 (Statement II ) are the reasons why it’s a desirable location for maintaining a position, but it doesn’t directly explain why L1 offers an uninterrupted view.

• The uninterrupted view (statement I ) is due to the geometric positioning of L1 between the Sun and Earth, outside Earth’s shadow and orbital path around the Sun that would cause eclipses from Earth’s perspective. The stability at L1 makes it feasible to exploit this geometric advantage.

• Thus, Statement II explains the feasibility of using L1, not the optical advantage itself, which is more a consequence of its location.

Solution: B

• Thus, Statement II explains the feasibility of using L1, not the optical advantage itself, which is more a consequence of its location.

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Consider the following regarding Reusable Launch Vehicle (RLV) technology being developed by ISRO: The ‘Pushpak’ RLV employs a Turbo-Ramjet engine for its ascent phase, allowing it to take off horizontally from a runway and reach the desired altitude before releasing a satellite-carrying upper stage. The landing experiments (LEX) for ISRO’s RLV-TD, including the recent RLV-LEX-02 and RLV-LEX-03, primarily focus on validating the autonomous precision landing capabilities using an air-drop from a helicopter, simulating the final phase of an orbital re-entry mission. A key objective for developing RLV technology is to significantly reduce the cost per kilogram of payload to orbit by enabling the recovery and reuse of the most expensive components of the launch system, primarily the first stage. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. ISRO’s current RLV Technology Demonstrator (RLV-TD) program is focused on a winged body vehicle that is launched vertically like a rocket using conventional rocket engines (e.g., a solid booster for the HEX01 mission). The concept of a Turbo-Ramjet engine for horizontal takeoff is more aligned with air-breathing scramjet engine concepts for a later stage of Two-Stage-To-Orbit (TSTO) vehicles, but ‘Pushpak’ (RLV-TD) itself is not designed for this ascent mode in its current experimental phase. It aims for vertical launch and horizontal landing. Statement 2 is correct. The RLV Landing Experiments (LEX), including RLV-LEX-01, RLV-LEX-02 (March 2024), and RLV-LEX-03 (June 2024), involve releasing the winged vehicle from an altitude (e.g., from a helicopter) to test its autonomous navigation, guidance, control, and precision landing capabilities on a runway. This simulates the high-speed, unpowered return phase of a vehicle re-entering from space. Statement 3 is correct. The primary motivation worldwide for developing RLV technology is to drastically reduce launch costs. The most expensive parts of a launch vehicle are its engines and complex structures, particularly the first stage which houses the main engines and carries the most propellant. Reusing these components multiple times, instead of expending them on each launch, promises significant cost savings for accessing space. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. ISRO’s current RLV Technology Demonstrator (RLV-TD) program is focused on a winged body vehicle that is launched vertically like a rocket using conventional rocket engines (e.g., a solid booster for the HEX01 mission). The concept of a Turbo-Ramjet engine for horizontal takeoff is more aligned with air-breathing scramjet engine concepts for a later stage of Two-Stage-To-Orbit (TSTO) vehicles, but ‘Pushpak’ (RLV-TD) itself is not designed for this ascent mode in its current experimental phase. It aims for vertical launch and horizontal landing. Statement 2 is correct. The RLV Landing Experiments (LEX), including RLV-LEX-01, RLV-LEX-02 (March 2024), and RLV-LEX-03 (June 2024), involve releasing the winged vehicle from an altitude (e.g., from a helicopter) to test its autonomous navigation, guidance, control, and precision landing capabilities on a runway. This simulates the high-speed, unpowered return phase of a vehicle re-entering from space. Statement 3 is correct. The primary motivation worldwide for developing RLV technology is to drastically reduce launch costs. The most expensive parts of a launch vehicle are its engines and complex structures, particularly the first stage which houses the main engines and carries the most propellant. Reusing these components multiple times, instead of expending them on each launch, promises significant cost savings for accessing space.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following regarding Reusable Launch Vehicle (RLV) technology being developed by ISRO:

• The ‘Pushpak’ RLV employs a Turbo-Ramjet engine for its ascent phase, allowing it to take off horizontally from a runway and reach the desired altitude before releasing a satellite-carrying upper stage.

• The landing experiments (LEX) for ISRO’s RLV-TD, including the recent RLV-LEX-02 and RLV-LEX-03, primarily focus on validating the autonomous precision landing capabilities using an air-drop from a helicopter, simulating the final phase of an orbital re-entry mission.

• A key objective for developing RLV technology is to significantly reduce the cost per kilogram of payload to orbit by enabling the recovery and reuse of the most expensive components of the launch system, primarily the first stage.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. ISRO’s current RLV Technology Demonstrator (RLV-TD) program is focused on a winged body vehicle that is launched vertically like a rocket using conventional rocket engines (e.g., a solid booster for the HEX01 mission). The concept of a Turbo-Ramjet engine for horizontal takeoff is more aligned with air-breathing scramjet engine concepts for a later stage of Two-Stage-To-Orbit (TSTO) vehicles, but ‘Pushpak’ (RLV-TD) itself is not designed for this ascent mode in its current experimental phase. It aims for vertical launch and horizontal landing.

• Statement 2 is correct. The RLV Landing Experiments (LEX), including RLV-LEX-01, RLV-LEX-02 (March 2024), and RLV-LEX-03 (June 2024), involve releasing the winged vehicle from an altitude (e.g., from a helicopter) to test its autonomous navigation, guidance, control, and precision landing capabilities on a runway. This simulates the high-speed, unpowered return phase of a vehicle re-entering from space.

• Statement 3 is correct. The primary motivation worldwide for developing RLV technology is to drastically reduce launch costs. The most expensive parts of a launch vehicle are its engines and complex structures, particularly the first stage which houses the main engines and carries the most propellant. Reusing these components multiple times, instead of expending them on each launch, promises significant cost savings for accessing space.

Solution: B

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Green Propulsion and its implications for space missions: Hydrazine (N2H4) and its derivatives, traditionally used in satellite thrusters, are classified as green propellants due to their high performance and relatively simple handling procedures compared to cryogenic fuels. Ammonium dinitramide (ADN)-based propellants offer higher specific impulse and density compared to hydrazine, leading to reduced propellant mass for the same mission delta-V, but their development has faced challenges related to combustion stability. ISRO’s development of LOX/Methane (Liquid Oxygen/Liquid Methane) engines is primarily driven by the potential for in-situ resource utilization (ISRU) on Mars, as methane can theoretically be produced from Martian atmospheric CO2 and subsurface water ice. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. Hydrazine and its derivatives (like Monomethylhydrazine – MMH, and Unsymmetrical Dimethylhydrazine – UDMH) are highly toxic and carcinogenic. They are definitely not classified as green propellants. The term “green propulsion” refers to the development and use of less toxic, environmentally friendlier, and safer propellants. Cryogenic fuels (like liquid hydrogen and liquid oxygen) are non-toxic but have handling complexities; the comparison here is misdirected. Statement 2 is correct. ADN-based propellants (e.g., LMP-103S used by ISRO) are considered a leading green alternative to hydrazine. They offer advantages like higher specific impulse (leading to better fuel efficiency) and higher density (meaning more propellant can be stored in the same volume), which can reduce the spacecraft’s wet mass. However, achieving consistent and stable combustion has been a research and development challenge, though significant progress has been made. Statement 3 is correct. LOX/Methane is a promising green propellant combination offering good performance, storability, and reduced coking issues compared to kerosene. A significant long-term advantage, particularly for deep space missions like those to Mars, is the potential for ISRU. Methane (CH4) can be produced on Mars via the Sabatier reaction (CO2 + 4H2 → CH4 + 2H2O), using Martian atmospheric carbon dioxide and hydrogen derived from water ice. This could drastically reduce the amount of propellant that needs to be carried from Earth for a return journey or for surface operations. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. Hydrazine and its derivatives (like Monomethylhydrazine – MMH, and Unsymmetrical Dimethylhydrazine – UDMH) are highly toxic and carcinogenic. They are definitely not classified as green propellants. The term “green propulsion” refers to the development and use of less toxic, environmentally friendlier, and safer propellants. Cryogenic fuels (like liquid hydrogen and liquid oxygen) are non-toxic but have handling complexities; the comparison here is misdirected. Statement 2 is correct. ADN-based propellants (e.g., LMP-103S used by ISRO) are considered a leading green alternative to hydrazine. They offer advantages like higher specific impulse (leading to better fuel efficiency) and higher density (meaning more propellant can be stored in the same volume), which can reduce the spacecraft’s wet mass. However, achieving consistent and stable combustion has been a research and development challenge, though significant progress has been made. Statement 3 is correct. LOX/Methane is a promising green propellant combination offering good performance, storability, and reduced coking issues compared to kerosene. A significant long-term advantage, particularly for deep space missions like those to Mars, is the potential for ISRU. Methane (CH4) can be produced on Mars via the Sabatier reaction (CO2 + 4H2 → CH4 + 2H2O), using Martian atmospheric carbon dioxide and hydrogen derived from water ice. This could drastically reduce the amount of propellant that needs to be carried from Earth for a return journey or for surface operations.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements about Green Propulsion and its implications for space missions:

• Hydrazine (N2H4) and its derivatives, traditionally used in satellite thrusters, are classified as green propellants due to their high performance and relatively simple handling procedures compared to cryogenic fuels.

• Ammonium dinitramide (ADN)-based propellants offer higher specific impulse and density compared to hydrazine, leading to reduced propellant mass for the same mission delta-V, but their development has faced challenges related to combustion stability.

• ISRO’s development of LOX/Methane (Liquid Oxygen/Liquid Methane) engines is primarily driven by the potential for in-situ resource utilization (ISRU) on Mars, as methane can theoretically be produced from Martian atmospheric CO2 and subsurface water ice.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Hydrazine and its derivatives (like Monomethylhydrazine – MMH, and Unsymmetrical Dimethylhydrazine – UDMH) are highly toxic and carcinogenic. They are definitely not classified as green propellants. The term “green propulsion” refers to the development and use of less toxic, environmentally friendlier, and safer propellants. Cryogenic fuels (like liquid hydrogen and liquid oxygen) are non-toxic but have handling complexities; the comparison here is misdirected.

• Statement 2 is correct. ADN-based propellants (e.g., LMP-103S used by ISRO) are considered a leading green alternative to hydrazine. They offer advantages like higher specific impulse (leading to better fuel efficiency) and higher density (meaning more propellant can be stored in the same volume), which can reduce the spacecraft’s wet mass. However, achieving consistent and stable combustion has been a research and development challenge, though significant progress has been made.

• Statement 3 is correct. LOX/Methane is a promising green propellant combination offering good performance, storability, and reduced coking issues compared to kerosene. A significant long-term advantage, particularly for deep space missions like those to Mars, is the potential for ISRU. Methane (CH4) can be produced on Mars via the Sabatier reaction (CO2 + 4H2 → CH4 + 2H2O), using Martian atmospheric carbon dioxide and hydrogen derived from water ice. This could drastically reduce the amount of propellant that needs to be carried from Earth for a return journey or for surface operations.

Solution: B

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points consider the following statements regarding the application of CRISPR-Cas9 technology in addressing genetic disorders: Statement I: Somatic cell gene editing using CRISPR-Cas9 for monogenic diseases like Sickle Cell Anemia can lead to a functional cure in the treated individual but does not prevent the transmission of the genetic defect to their offspring. Statement II : CRISPR-Cas9 mediated modifications in somatic cells are confined to the non-reproductive cells of the body, whereas heritable changes require modifications in the germline cells (sperm, eggs, or embryos). Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation of Statement-I. (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II is not the correct explanation of Statement-I. (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect. (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct. Correct Solution: A Statement I is correct. Somatic cell gene therapy, including using CRISPR-Cas9 to correct the gene responsible for Sickle Cell Anemia in a patient’s hematopoietic stem cells, aims to alleviate or cure the disease in that individual. However, since somatic cells are all cells in the body except for germline cells, these genetic changes are not passed on to the individual’s children. Statement II is correct. Germline cells (sperm, eggs, and fertilized embryos) are the cells that contribute genetic material to the next generation. For a genetic modification to be heritable (passed down to offspring), it must be made in these germline cells. Edits made exclusively in somatic cells will not affect the genetic makeup of the offspring. Statement II directly and accurately explains why somatic cell gene editing, as described in Statement I, is not heritable. The distinction between somatic and germline cells is fundamental to understanding the inheritance of genetic traits and the implications of different gene editing approaches. Incorrect Solution: A Statement I is correct. Somatic cell gene therapy, including using CRISPR-Cas9 to correct the gene responsible for Sickle Cell Anemia in a patient’s hematopoietic stem cells, aims to alleviate or cure the disease in that individual. However, since somatic cells are all cells in the body except for germline cells, these genetic changes are not passed on to the individual’s children. Statement II is correct. Germline cells (sperm, eggs, and fertilized embryos) are the cells that contribute genetic material to the next generation. For a genetic modification to be heritable (passed down to offspring), it must be made in these germline cells. Edits made exclusively in somatic cells will not affect the genetic makeup of the offspring. Statement II directly and accurately explains why somatic cell gene editing, as described in Statement I, is not heritable. The distinction between somatic and germline cells is fundamental to understanding the inheritance of genetic traits and the implications of different gene editing approaches.

#### 5. Question

consider the following statements regarding the application of CRISPR-Cas9 technology in addressing genetic disorders:

Statement I: Somatic cell gene editing using CRISPR-Cas9 for monogenic diseases like Sickle Cell Anemia can lead to a functional cure in the treated individual but does not prevent the transmission of the genetic defect to their offspring.

Statement II : CRISPR-Cas9 mediated modifications in somatic cells are confined to the non-reproductive cells of the body, whereas heritable changes require modifications in the germline cells (sperm, eggs, or embryos).

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation of Statement-I.

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II is not the correct explanation of Statement-I.

• (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.

Solution: A

• Statement I is correct. Somatic cell gene therapy, including using CRISPR-Cas9 to correct the gene responsible for Sickle Cell Anemia in a patient’s hematopoietic stem cells, aims to alleviate or cure the disease in that individual. However, since somatic cells are all cells in the body except for germline cells, these genetic changes are not passed on to the individual’s children.

• Statement II is correct. Germline cells (sperm, eggs, and fertilized embryos) are the cells that contribute genetic material to the next generation. For a genetic modification to be heritable (passed down to offspring), it must be made in these germline cells. Edits made exclusively in somatic cells will not affect the genetic makeup of the offspring.

• Statement II directly and accurately explains why somatic cell gene editing, as described in Statement I, is not heritable. The distinction between somatic and germline cells is fundamental to understanding the inheritance of genetic traits and the implications of different gene editing approaches.

Solution: A

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Consider the advancements in mRNA (messenger RNA) technology beyond its well-known application in COVID-19 vaccines: mRNA-based therapies are being explored for cancer treatment, wherein mRNA can be designed to encode for tumor-specific antigens in-situ, prompting the patient’s immune system to recognize and attack cancer cells. Unlike traditional protein-based therapeutics which require complex and often costly manufacturing of recombinant proteins, mRNA therapies leverage the patient’s own cellular machinery (ribosomes) to synthesize the therapeutic protein, potentially simplifying production. A significant limitation of current mRNA technology for treating chronic genetic disorders requiring continuous protein replacement is the transient nature of mRNA expression, necessitating frequent re-administration. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is correct. mRNA technology is indeed a promising avenue for cancer immunotherapy. Custom-designed mRNA can be introduced into the body to instruct cells (either directly or through antigen-presenting cells) to produce specific antigens found on the patient’s tumor cells. This “educates” the immune system to target and destroy the cancer cells, effectively creating a personalized cancer vaccine or therapy. Statement 2 is correct. A key advantage of mRNA therapies is that the mRNA molecule itself is the drug product. Once delivered into the target cells, the cell’s own ribosomes translate the mRNA into the desired therapeutic protein. This contrasts with traditional biopharmaceuticals where the protein itself must be manufactured externally (often using recombinant DNA technology in cell cultures), which can be a complex, time-consuming, and expensive process. mRNA production can be more agile and potentially less costly at scale. Statement 3 is correct. mRNA molecules are inherently transient in cells; they are designed to be read and then degraded relatively quickly. This is advantageous for applications like vaccines where a temporary expression of an antigen is desired. However, for chronic genetic disorders that require sustained levels of a missing or defective protein (e.g., in enzyme replacement therapies), the short duration of mRNA expression means that patients would likely need frequent and repeated administrations, which can be a practical and logistical challenge. Research is ongoing to improve the stability and longevity of mRNA expression. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is correct. mRNA technology is indeed a promising avenue for cancer immunotherapy. Custom-designed mRNA can be introduced into the body to instruct cells (either directly or through antigen-presenting cells) to produce specific antigens found on the patient’s tumor cells. This “educates” the immune system to target and destroy the cancer cells, effectively creating a personalized cancer vaccine or therapy. Statement 2 is correct. A key advantage of mRNA therapies is that the mRNA molecule itself is the drug product. Once delivered into the target cells, the cell’s own ribosomes translate the mRNA into the desired therapeutic protein. This contrasts with traditional biopharmaceuticals where the protein itself must be manufactured externally (often using recombinant DNA technology in cell cultures), which can be a complex, time-consuming, and expensive process. mRNA production can be more agile and potentially less costly at scale. Statement 3 is correct. mRNA molecules are inherently transient in cells; they are designed to be read and then degraded relatively quickly. This is advantageous for applications like vaccines where a temporary expression of an antigen is desired. However, for chronic genetic disorders that require sustained levels of a missing or defective protein (e.g., in enzyme replacement therapies), the short duration of mRNA expression means that patients would likely need frequent and repeated administrations, which can be a practical and logistical challenge. Research is ongoing to improve the stability and longevity of mRNA expression.

#### 6. Question

Consider the advancements in mRNA (messenger RNA) technology beyond its well-known application in COVID-19 vaccines:

• mRNA-based therapies are being explored for cancer treatment, wherein mRNA can be designed to encode for tumor-specific antigens in-situ, prompting the patient’s immune system to recognize and attack cancer cells.

• Unlike traditional protein-based therapeutics which require complex and often costly manufacturing of recombinant proteins, mRNA therapies leverage the patient’s own cellular machinery (ribosomes) to synthesize the therapeutic protein, potentially simplifying production.

• A significant limitation of current mRNA technology for treating chronic genetic disorders requiring continuous protein replacement is the transient nature of mRNA expression, necessitating frequent re-administration.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is correct. mRNA technology is indeed a promising avenue for cancer immunotherapy. Custom-designed mRNA can be introduced into the body to instruct cells (either directly or through antigen-presenting cells) to produce specific antigens found on the patient’s tumor cells. This “educates” the immune system to target and destroy the cancer cells, effectively creating a personalized cancer vaccine or therapy.

• Statement 2 is correct. A key advantage of mRNA therapies is that the mRNA molecule itself is the drug product. Once delivered into the target cells, the cell’s own ribosomes translate the mRNA into the desired therapeutic protein. This contrasts with traditional biopharmaceuticals where the protein itself must be manufactured externally (often using recombinant DNA technology in cell cultures), which can be a complex, time-consuming, and expensive process. mRNA production can be more agile and potentially less costly at scale.

• Statement 3 is correct. mRNA molecules are inherently transient in cells; they are designed to be read and then degraded relatively quickly. This is advantageous for applications like vaccines where a temporary expression of an antigen is desired. However, for chronic genetic disorders that require sustained levels of a missing or defective protein (e.g., in enzyme replacement therapies), the short duration of mRNA expression means that patients would likely need frequent and repeated administrations, which can be a practical and logistical challenge. Research is ongoing to improve the stability and longevity of mRNA expression.

Solution: D

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points With reference to Phage Therapy, consider the following statements: Phage therapy utilizes bacteriophages, which are viruses that specifically infect and replicate within bacteria, leading to bacterial cell lysis, making them a potential alternative to antibiotics for treating multi-drug resistant infections. A “phage cocktail” consisting of multiple bacteriophage types is often preferred over a single phage type to decrease the likelihood of bacteria developing resistance to the therapy and to broaden the spectrum of activity against diverse bacterial strains. Unlike broad-spectrum antibiotics that can disrupt the host’s beneficial microbiome, phage therapy offers high specificity, targeting only the pathogenic bacteria without significantly harming the commensal gut flora. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. Bacteriophages (or “phages”) are viruses that are natural predators of bacteria. They infect bacterial cells, hijack their machinery to replicate, and then typically cause the bacterial cell to burst (lyse), releasing new phages. This lytic cycle makes them a promising tool against bacterial infections, especially those caused by antibiotic-resistant strains. Statement 2 is correct. Bacteria can evolve resistance to bacteriophages, just as they do to antibiotics. Using a cocktail of different phages that target the bacteria through different mechanisms or recognize different receptors reduces the probability that a bacterium can simultaneously develop resistance to all phages in the cocktail. It also increases the chance of effectively targeting a wider range of strains of the pathogenic bacteria. Statement 3 is correct. Bacteriophages are generally highly specific to their bacterial hosts, often targeting particular species or even specific strains within a species. This is a key advantage over broad-spectrum antibiotics, which kill a wide range of bacteria, including beneficial members of the host’s microbiome (e.g., in the gut). Disruption of the microbiome can lead to secondary infections or other health issues. Phage therapy’s specificity can help preserve the beneficial microbiota while targeting the pathogen. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. Bacteriophages (or “phages”) are viruses that are natural predators of bacteria. They infect bacterial cells, hijack their machinery to replicate, and then typically cause the bacterial cell to burst (lyse), releasing new phages. This lytic cycle makes them a promising tool against bacterial infections, especially those caused by antibiotic-resistant strains. Statement 2 is correct. Bacteria can evolve resistance to bacteriophages, just as they do to antibiotics. Using a cocktail of different phages that target the bacteria through different mechanisms or recognize different receptors reduces the probability that a bacterium can simultaneously develop resistance to all phages in the cocktail. It also increases the chance of effectively targeting a wider range of strains of the pathogenic bacteria. Statement 3 is correct. Bacteriophages are generally highly specific to their bacterial hosts, often targeting particular species or even specific strains within a species. This is a key advantage over broad-spectrum antibiotics, which kill a wide range of bacteria, including beneficial members of the host’s microbiome (e.g., in the gut). Disruption of the microbiome can lead to secondary infections or other health issues. Phage therapy’s specificity can help preserve the beneficial microbiota while targeting the pathogen.

#### 7. Question

With reference to Phage Therapy, consider the following statements:

• Phage therapy utilizes bacteriophages, which are viruses that specifically infect and replicate within bacteria, leading to bacterial cell lysis, making them a potential alternative to antibiotics for treating multi-drug resistant infections.

• A “phage cocktail” consisting of multiple bacteriophage types is often preferred over a single phage type to decrease the likelihood of bacteria developing resistance to the therapy and to broaden the spectrum of activity against diverse bacterial strains.

• Unlike broad-spectrum antibiotics that can disrupt the host’s beneficial microbiome, phage therapy offers high specificity, targeting only the pathogenic bacteria without significantly harming the commensal gut flora.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct. Bacteriophages (or “phages”) are viruses that are natural predators of bacteria. They infect bacterial cells, hijack their machinery to replicate, and then typically cause the bacterial cell to burst (lyse), releasing new phages. This lytic cycle makes them a promising tool against bacterial infections, especially those caused by antibiotic-resistant strains.

• Statement 2 is correct. Bacteria can evolve resistance to bacteriophages, just as they do to antibiotics. Using a cocktail of different phages that target the bacteria through different mechanisms or recognize different receptors reduces the probability that a bacterium can simultaneously develop resistance to all phages in the cocktail. It also increases the chance of effectively targeting a wider range of strains of the pathogenic bacteria.

• Statement 3 is correct. Bacteriophages are generally highly specific to their bacterial hosts, often targeting particular species or even specific strains within a species. This is a key advantage over broad-spectrum antibiotics, which kill a wide range of bacteria, including beneficial members of the host’s microbiome (e.g., in the gut). Disruption of the microbiome can lead to secondary infections or other health issues. Phage therapy’s specificity can help preserve the beneficial microbiota while targeting the pathogen.

Solution: C

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA) program of India: The AMCA is designed as a twin-engine, single-seater, fifth-generation-plus stealth multirole fighter, incorporating advanced features like super-cruise capability, diverterless supersonic inlets, and an internal weapons bay. The initial prototypes of AMCA Mk1 will be powered by an indigenously developed engine derived from the Kaveri engine project, while the AMCA Mk2 is planned to feature a more powerful engine co-developed with an international partner. A critical technological challenge in the AMCA development is achieving the desired level of radar cross-section (RCS) reduction through airframe shaping, use of radar-absorbent materials, and advanced sensor fusion, without compromising aerodynamic performance. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. The AMCA is envisioned as a fifth-generation (often termed fifth-gen plus due to some advanced features) stealth fighter. Key characteristics include twin engines for enhanced performance and survivability, super-cruise capability (supersonic flight without afterburners), diverterless supersonic inlets (DSIs) for stealth and efficiency, and an internal weapons bay to maintain a low radar cross-section. It is primarily designed as a single-seater aircraft. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the long-term goal is to have an indigenous engine, the initial batches of AMCA (likely Mk1) are planned to be powered by an existing, off-the-shelf engine, such as the GE F414 from the USA (which also powers Tejas Mk2). The Kaveri engine project did not yield an engine suitable for fighter aircraft in its current form. The plan for AMCA Mk2 involves a more powerful engine, potentially co-developed with a foreign partner, aiming for higher thrust and advanced features. Statement 3 is correct. Achieving a very low Radar Cross-Section (VLO RCS) is a defining feature of fifth-generation aircraft and a major technological hurdle. This involves a combination of stealthy airframe shaping (e.g., aligned edges, blended wing-body), extensive use of radar-absorbent materials (RAM) and structures (RAS), and minimizing radar reflections from components like engine inlets and the cockpit. Advanced sensor fusion allows the aircraft to operate with minimal emissions while maintaining situational awareness. Balancing these stealth requirements with aerodynamic performance, weight, and cost is a significant challenge. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. The AMCA is envisioned as a fifth-generation (often termed fifth-gen plus due to some advanced features) stealth fighter. Key characteristics include twin engines for enhanced performance and survivability, super-cruise capability (supersonic flight without afterburners), diverterless supersonic inlets (DSIs) for stealth and efficiency, and an internal weapons bay to maintain a low radar cross-section. It is primarily designed as a single-seater aircraft. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the long-term goal is to have an indigenous engine, the initial batches of AMCA (likely Mk1) are planned to be powered by an existing, off-the-shelf engine, such as the GE F414 from the USA (which also powers Tejas Mk2). The Kaveri engine project did not yield an engine suitable for fighter aircraft in its current form. The plan for AMCA Mk2 involves a more powerful engine, potentially co-developed with a foreign partner, aiming for higher thrust and advanced features. Statement 3 is correct. Achieving a very low Radar Cross-Section (VLO RCS) is a defining feature of fifth-generation aircraft and a major technological hurdle. This involves a combination of stealthy airframe shaping (e.g., aligned edges, blended wing-body), extensive use of radar-absorbent materials (RAM) and structures (RAS), and minimizing radar reflections from components like engine inlets and the cockpit. Advanced sensor fusion allows the aircraft to operate with minimal emissions while maintaining situational awareness. Balancing these stealth requirements with aerodynamic performance, weight, and cost is a significant challenge.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA) program of India:

• The AMCA is designed as a twin-engine, single-seater, fifth-generation-plus stealth multirole fighter, incorporating advanced features like super-cruise capability, diverterless supersonic inlets, and an internal weapons bay.

• The initial prototypes of AMCA Mk1 will be powered by an indigenously developed engine derived from the Kaveri engine project, while the AMCA Mk2 is planned to feature a more powerful engine co-developed with an international partner.

• A critical technological challenge in the AMCA development is achieving the desired level of radar cross-section (RCS) reduction through airframe shaping, use of radar-absorbent materials, and advanced sensor fusion, without compromising aerodynamic performance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 2 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct. The AMCA is envisioned as a fifth-generation (often termed fifth-gen plus due to some advanced features) stealth fighter. Key characteristics include twin engines for enhanced performance and survivability, super-cruise capability (supersonic flight without afterburners), diverterless supersonic inlets (DSIs) for stealth and efficiency, and an internal weapons bay to maintain a low radar cross-section. It is primarily designed as a single-seater aircraft.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. While the long-term goal is to have an indigenous engine, the initial batches of AMCA (likely Mk1) are planned to be powered by an existing, off-the-shelf engine, such as the GE F414 from the USA (which also powers Tejas Mk2). The Kaveri engine project did not yield an engine suitable for fighter aircraft in its current form. The plan for AMCA Mk2 involves a more powerful engine, potentially co-developed with a foreign partner, aiming for higher thrust and advanced features.

• Statement 3 is correct. Achieving a very low Radar Cross-Section (VLO RCS) is a defining feature of fifth-generation aircraft and a major technological hurdle. This involves a combination of stealthy airframe shaping (e.g., aligned edges, blended wing-body), extensive use of radar-absorbent materials (RAM) and structures (RAS), and minimizing radar reflections from components like engine inlets and the cockpit. Advanced sensor fusion allows the aircraft to operate with minimal emissions while maintaining situational awareness. Balancing these stealth requirements with aerodynamic performance, weight, and cost is a significant challenge.

Solution: A

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Regarding India’s anti-satellite (ASAT) capabilities and space defence, consider the following: Statement I: “Mission Shakti” demonstrated India’s capability to kinetically intercept and destroy a low Earth orbit (LEO) satellite, establishing India as a space power with counter-space capabilities. Statement II : The primary strategic rationale behind developing ASAT capabilities is to deter adversaries from targeting India’s critical space assets by showcasing a credible retaliatory capacity, thereby ensuring space security. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation of Statement-I. (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II is not the correct explanation of Statement-I. (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect. (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct. Correct Solution: A Statement I is correct. Mission Shakti, conducted in March 2019, successfully used a Prithvi Defence Vehicle (PDV) Mark-II interceptor missile to destroy an Indian satellite (Microsat-R) in LEO. This demonstrated a direct-ascent kinetic kill ASAT capability, placing India in a select group of nations with this technology. Statement II is correct. A key strategic driver for developing ASAT weapons is deterrence. As nations become increasingly reliant on space assets for communication, navigation, intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (ISR), these assets also become potential targets during conflict. Possessing a credible ASAT capability signals to potential adversaries that an attack on one’s own space assets could invite a similar response, thus deterring such attacks and contributing to the security of one’s space infrastructure. Statement II provides the primary strategic context and justification for developing the capability demonstrated in statement I. The demonstration of ASAT capability (Mission Shakti) serves the strategic purpose of deterrence outlined in the reason. Therefore, Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I. Incorrect Solution: A Statement I is correct. Mission Shakti, conducted in March 2019, successfully used a Prithvi Defence Vehicle (PDV) Mark-II interceptor missile to destroy an Indian satellite (Microsat-R) in LEO. This demonstrated a direct-ascent kinetic kill ASAT capability, placing India in a select group of nations with this technology. Statement II is correct. A key strategic driver for developing ASAT weapons is deterrence. As nations become increasingly reliant on space assets for communication, navigation, intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (ISR), these assets also become potential targets during conflict. Possessing a credible ASAT capability signals to potential adversaries that an attack on one’s own space assets could invite a similar response, thus deterring such attacks and contributing to the security of one’s space infrastructure. Statement II provides the primary strategic context and justification for developing the capability demonstrated in statement I. The demonstration of ASAT capability (Mission Shakti) serves the strategic purpose of deterrence outlined in the reason. Therefore, Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

#### 9. Question

Regarding India’s anti-satellite (ASAT) capabilities and space defence, consider the following:

Statement I: “Mission Shakti” demonstrated India’s capability to kinetically intercept and destroy a low Earth orbit (LEO) satellite, establishing India as a space power with counter-space capabilities.

Statement II : The primary strategic rationale behind developing ASAT capabilities is to deter adversaries from targeting India’s critical space assets by showcasing a credible retaliatory capacity, thereby ensuring space security.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation of Statement-I.

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II is not the correct explanation of Statement-I.

• (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.

Solution: A

• Statement I is correct. Mission Shakti, conducted in March 2019, successfully used a Prithvi Defence Vehicle (PDV) Mark-II interceptor missile to destroy an Indian satellite (Microsat-R) in LEO. This demonstrated a direct-ascent kinetic kill ASAT capability, placing India in a select group of nations with this technology.

• Statement II is correct. A key strategic driver for developing ASAT weapons is deterrence. As nations become increasingly reliant on space assets for communication, navigation, intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (ISR), these assets also become potential targets during conflict. Possessing a credible ASAT capability signals to potential adversaries that an attack on one’s own space assets could invite a similar response, thus deterring such attacks and contributing to the security of one’s space infrastructure.

• Possessing a credible ASAT capability signals to potential adversaries that an attack on one’s own space assets could invite a similar response, thus deterring such attacks and contributing to the security of one’s space infrastructure.

Statement II provides the primary strategic context and justification for developing the capability demonstrated in statement I. The demonstration of ASAT capability (Mission Shakti) serves the strategic purpose of deterrence outlined in the reason. Therefore, Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

Solution: A

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Consider the following aspects of Directed Energy Weapons (DEWs) and their potential in modern warfare: High-Energy Lasers (HELs) can engage targets at the speed of light, offering instantaneous hit capability, but their effectiveness is significantly degraded by atmospheric conditions such as fog, rain, and aerosol content. High-Power Microwave (HPM) weapons are designed to disrupt or damage electronic systems by overwhelming them with electromagnetic energy, offering a non-kinetic means of neutralizing threats like drone swarms without causing widespread physical destruction. India’s project DURGA (Directionally Unrestricted Ray Gun Array) is primarily focused on developing a space-based laser weapon system for ballistic missile defence. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. High-Energy Lasers do travel at the speed of light, meaning the “time to target” is virtually instantaneous once aimed. However, laser beams interact with the atmosphere. Water vapor, dust, smoke, fog, rain, and turbulence can absorb and scatter the laser energy, reducing its intensity and effective range, a phenomenon known as “thermal blooming” can also occur. Statement 2 is correct. High-Power Microwave weapons generate intense pulses of microwave radiation. This electromagnetic energy can couple into electronic circuits of target systems (like drones, missiles, or command and control systems), inducing high voltages and currents that can disrupt their operation or permanently damage sensitive components. This provides a non-kinetic (or “soft kill”) alternative to physically destroying targets. Statement 3 is incorrect. While DRDO is working on DEWs, including Project DURGA (which is largely speculative in open sources but often linked to DEWs), it is generally understood to be focused on ground-based or airborne systems for roles like counter-drone, counter-missile, or air defence. Developing a space-based laser weapon for ballistic missile defence is an extremely complex and technologically advanced undertaking, typically associated with programs like the erstwhile US “Star Wars” (SDI) concepts, and not the primary confirmed focus of current Indian DEW projects like DURGA, which is believed to be more about a 100-kilowatt, lightweight DEW. Details about DURGA are not extensively publicized. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. High-Energy Lasers do travel at the speed of light, meaning the “time to target” is virtually instantaneous once aimed. However, laser beams interact with the atmosphere. Water vapor, dust, smoke, fog, rain, and turbulence can absorb and scatter the laser energy, reducing its intensity and effective range, a phenomenon known as “thermal blooming” can also occur. Statement 2 is correct. High-Power Microwave weapons generate intense pulses of microwave radiation. This electromagnetic energy can couple into electronic circuits of target systems (like drones, missiles, or command and control systems), inducing high voltages and currents that can disrupt their operation or permanently damage sensitive components. This provides a non-kinetic (or “soft kill”) alternative to physically destroying targets. Statement 3 is incorrect. While DRDO is working on DEWs, including Project DURGA (which is largely speculative in open sources but often linked to DEWs), it is generally understood to be focused on ground-based or airborne systems for roles like counter-drone, counter-missile, or air defence. Developing a space-based laser weapon for ballistic missile defence is an extremely complex and technologically advanced undertaking, typically associated with programs like the erstwhile US “Star Wars” (SDI) concepts, and not the primary confirmed focus of current Indian DEW projects like DURGA, which is believed to be more about a 100-kilowatt, lightweight DEW. Details about DURGA are not extensively publicized.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following aspects of Directed Energy Weapons (DEWs) and their potential in modern warfare:

• High-Energy Lasers (HELs) can engage targets at the speed of light, offering instantaneous hit capability, but their effectiveness is significantly degraded by atmospheric conditions such as fog, rain, and aerosol content.

• High-Power Microwave (HPM) weapons are designed to disrupt or damage electronic systems by overwhelming them with electromagnetic energy, offering a non-kinetic means of neutralizing threats like drone swarms without causing widespread physical destruction.

• India’s project DURGA (Directionally Unrestricted Ray Gun Array) is primarily focused on developing a space-based laser weapon system for ballistic missile defence.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. High-Energy Lasers do travel at the speed of light, meaning the “time to target” is virtually instantaneous once aimed. However, laser beams interact with the atmosphere. Water vapor, dust, smoke, fog, rain, and turbulence can absorb and scatter the laser energy, reducing its intensity and effective range, a phenomenon known as “thermal blooming” can also occur.

• Statement 2 is correct. High-Power Microwave weapons generate intense pulses of microwave radiation. This electromagnetic energy can couple into electronic circuits of target systems (like drones, missiles, or command and control systems), inducing high voltages and currents that can disrupt their operation or permanently damage sensitive components. This provides a non-kinetic (or “soft kill”) alternative to physically destroying targets.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. While DRDO is working on DEWs, including Project DURGA (which is largely speculative in open sources but often linked to DEWs), it is generally understood to be focused on ground-based or airborne systems for roles like counter-drone, counter-missile, or air defence. Developing a space-based laser weapon for ballistic missile defence is an extremely complex and technologically advanced undertaking, typically associated with programs like the erstwhile US “Star Wars” (SDI) concepts, and not the primary confirmed focus of current Indian DEW projects like DURGA, which is believed to be more about a 100-kilowatt, lightweight DEW. Details about DURGA are not extensively publicized.

Solution: B

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points The Blue Ghost Mission, recently in news is related to : (a) Commercial landing on lunar surface (b) Manufacturing of high altitude telescope (c) Testing of stealth drones (d) Development of anti-submarine torpedo Correct Solution : A The Blue Ghost Mission 1 or ‘The Ghost riders’ in the sky was a lunar landing Mission by Firefly Aerospace It was launched in January 2025 and successfully landed on the moon in March 2025. It is the second private lunar landing and the first to land upright; it landed near Mons Latreille, a volcanic formation on the North Eastern side of the Moon. It was launched aboard SpaceX Falcon 9 rocket It is part of NASA’s collaboration with industry to reduce cost and support the Artemis Program- the mission to return astronauts to the moon. Hence option A is correct Incorrect Solution : A The Blue Ghost Mission 1 or ‘The Ghost riders’ in the sky was a lunar landing Mission by Firefly Aerospace It was launched in January 2025 and successfully landed on the moon in March 2025. It is the second private lunar landing and the first to land upright; it landed near Mons Latreille, a volcanic formation on the North Eastern side of the Moon. It was launched aboard SpaceX Falcon 9 rocket It is part of NASA’s collaboration with industry to reduce cost and support the Artemis Program- the mission to return astronauts to the moon. Hence option A is correct

#### 11. Question

The Blue Ghost Mission, recently in news is related to :

• (a) Commercial landing on lunar surface

• (b) Manufacturing of high altitude telescope

• (c) Testing of stealth drones

• (d) Development of anti-submarine torpedo

Solution : A

• The Blue Ghost Mission 1 or ‘The Ghost riders’ in the sky was a lunar landing Mission by Firefly Aerospace

• It was launched in January 2025 and successfully landed on the moon in March 2025.

• It is the second private lunar landing and the first to land upright; it landed near Mons Latreille, a volcanic formation on the North Eastern side of the Moon.

• It was launched aboard SpaceX Falcon 9 rocket

• It is part of NASA’s collaboration with industry to reduce cost and support the Artemis Program- the mission to return astronauts to the moon.

Hence option A is correct

Solution : A

• The Blue Ghost Mission 1 or ‘The Ghost riders’ in the sky was a lunar landing Mission by Firefly Aerospace

• It was launched in January 2025 and successfully landed on the moon in March 2025.

• It is the second private lunar landing and the first to land upright; it landed near Mons Latreille, a volcanic formation on the North Eastern side of the Moon.

• It was launched aboard SpaceX Falcon 9 rocket

• It is part of NASA’s collaboration with industry to reduce cost and support the Artemis Program- the mission to return astronauts to the moon.

Hence option A is correct

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : Statement – I : DNA polymorphism lead to differences in physical appearances among individuals. Statement – II : DNA polymorphism arises due to mutations or variation in DNA sequence. Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ? (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct Correct Solution : A DNA polymorphism refers to variations in DNA sequences among individuals that help in distinguishing one person from another DNA polymorphism arises due to mutation or variation in the DNA sequence It is found in both coding and non coding regions of DNA ; it occurs in forms likes single nucleotide polymorphism and short tandem repeats. Polymorphism cause unique DNA patterns that differ in length or sequence; these help trace lineage and ancestry by identifying parental origin of chromosomes. Variation in repeat numbers at specific Loci creates a distinct genetic profile- all these help in differentiating between individuals. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 explains statement 1 Incorrect Solution : A DNA polymorphism refers to variations in DNA sequences among individuals that help in distinguishing one person from another DNA polymorphism arises due to mutation or variation in the DNA sequence It is found in both coding and non coding regions of DNA ; it occurs in forms likes single nucleotide polymorphism and short tandem repeats. Polymorphism cause unique DNA patterns that differ in length or sequence; these help trace lineage and ancestry by identifying parental origin of chromosomes. Variation in repeat numbers at specific Loci creates a distinct genetic profile- all these help in differentiating between individuals. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 explains statement 1

#### 12. Question

Consider the following statements :

Statement – I :

DNA polymorphism lead to differences in physical appearances among individuals.

Statement – II :

DNA polymorphism arises due to mutations or variation in DNA sequence.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?

• (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I

• (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I

• (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect

• (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct

Solution : A

• DNA polymorphism refers to variations in DNA sequences among individuals that help in distinguishing one person from another

• DNA polymorphism arises due to mutation or variation in the DNA sequence

• It is found in both coding and non coding regions of DNA ; it occurs in forms likes single nucleotide polymorphism and short tandem repeats.

• Polymorphism cause unique DNA patterns that differ in length or sequence; these help trace lineage and ancestry by identifying parental origin of chromosomes.

• Variation in repeat numbers at specific Loci creates a distinct genetic profile- all these help in differentiating between individuals.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 explains statement 1

Solution : A

• DNA polymorphism refers to variations in DNA sequences among individuals that help in distinguishing one person from another

• DNA polymorphism arises due to mutation or variation in the DNA sequence

• It is found in both coding and non coding regions of DNA ; it occurs in forms likes single nucleotide polymorphism and short tandem repeats.

• Polymorphism cause unique DNA patterns that differ in length or sequence; these help trace lineage and ancestry by identifying parental origin of chromosomes.

• Variation in repeat numbers at specific Loci creates a distinct genetic profile- all these help in differentiating between individuals.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 explains statement 1

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes the term Twigstats? (a) Satellite with Coronagraph, to study coronal mass ejections (b) A rover to monitor impact of meteorite on lunar surface (c) Drones to map rainforests and their wildlife (d) A tool to analyse ancient DNA from various locations Correct Solution : D Twigstats is an advanced analytical tool developed for genetic studies focused on high precision ancestry analysis. It has been designed to improve the understanding of population dynamics by using genetic data, archaeological findings and historical context. Twigstats reconstruct genetic family tree by analysing shared genetic mutations between individuals; it utilises recent mutations to trace ancestry and establish connections within people from different time periods, linking modern DNA with that of ancient populations. Hence option D is correct Incorrect Solution : D Twigstats is an advanced analytical tool developed for genetic studies focused on high precision ancestry analysis. It has been designed to improve the understanding of population dynamics by using genetic data, archaeological findings and historical context. Twigstats reconstruct genetic family tree by analysing shared genetic mutations between individuals; it utilises recent mutations to trace ancestry and establish connections within people from different time periods, linking modern DNA with that of ancient populations. Hence option D is correct

#### 13. Question

Which of the following best describes the term Twigstats?

• (a) Satellite with Coronagraph, to study coronal mass ejections

• (b) A rover to monitor impact of meteorite on lunar surface

• (c) Drones to map rainforests and their wildlife

• (d) A tool to analyse ancient DNA from various locations

Solution : D

• Twigstats is an advanced analytical tool developed for genetic studies focused on high precision ancestry analysis.

• It has been designed to improve the understanding of population dynamics by using genetic data, archaeological findings and historical context.

• Twigstats reconstruct genetic family tree by analysing shared genetic mutations between individuals; it utilises recent mutations to trace ancestry and establish connections within people from different time periods, linking modern DNA with that of ancient populations.

Hence option D is correct

Solution : D

• Twigstats is an advanced analytical tool developed for genetic studies focused on high precision ancestry analysis.

• It has been designed to improve the understanding of population dynamics by using genetic data, archaeological findings and historical context.

Hence option D is correct

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : Statement – I : Gene therapy by introduction of Clotting factor gene into the stem cells of the patient, is the only treatment available for Hemophilia A. Statement – II : Hemophilia A is a rare hereditary condition caused by absence of a protein critical for blood clotting. Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ? (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct Correct Solution : D Recently Indian scientists at Vellore have successfully tested Gene therapy to treat severe Hemophilia The Therapeutic gene is introduced into the body enabling it to produce sufficient levels of Factor VIII to prevent bleeding; CMC Vellore trial used Lentivirus vectors to integrate the clotting factor gene into the patient’s stem cells, avoiding the use of adenovirus vectors, which can trigger immune response. However, gene therapy is a recently trial tested treatment for Hemophilia; Although gene therapy is a promising new treatment option, it is not the only way to manage the condition; traditional treatment for Hemophilia A requires frequent injections of Factor VIII or other substitutes. Hence statement 1 is incorrect Hemophilia A is a rare hereditary disorder caused by the absence or dysfunction of Factor VIII, a protein critical for blood clotting Severe Hemophilia A patients have less than 1% of the clotting factor, leading to frequent containers bleeding episodes. Hence statement 2 is correct Incorrect Solution : D Recently Indian scientists at Vellore have successfully tested Gene therapy to treat severe Hemophilia The Therapeutic gene is introduced into the body enabling it to produce sufficient levels of Factor VIII to prevent bleeding; CMC Vellore trial used Lentivirus vectors to integrate the clotting factor gene into the patient’s stem cells, avoiding the use of adenovirus vectors, which can trigger immune response. However, gene therapy is a recently trial tested treatment for Hemophilia; Although gene therapy is a promising new treatment option, it is not the only way to manage the condition; traditional treatment for Hemophilia A requires frequent injections of Factor VIII or other substitutes. Hence statement 1 is incorrect Hemophilia A is a rare hereditary disorder caused by the absence or dysfunction of Factor VIII, a protein critical for blood clotting Severe Hemophilia A patients have less than 1% of the clotting factor, leading to frequent containers bleeding episodes. Hence statement 2 is correct

#### 14. Question

Consider the following statements :

Statement – I :

Gene therapy by introduction of Clotting factor gene into the stem cells of the patient, is the only treatment available for Hemophilia A.

Statement – II :

Hemophilia A is a rare hereditary condition caused by absence of a protein critical for blood clotting.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?

• (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I

• (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I

• (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect

• (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct

Solution : D

• Recently Indian scientists at Vellore have successfully tested Gene therapy to treat severe Hemophilia

• The Therapeutic gene is introduced into the body enabling it to produce sufficient levels of Factor VIII to prevent bleeding;

• CMC Vellore trial used Lentivirus vectors to integrate the clotting factor gene into the patient’s stem cells, avoiding the use of adenovirus vectors, which can trigger immune response.

• However, gene therapy is a recently trial tested treatment for Hemophilia;

• Although gene therapy is a promising new treatment option, it is not the only way to manage the condition; traditional treatment for Hemophilia A requires frequent injections of Factor VIII or other substitutes.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• Hemophilia A is a rare hereditary disorder caused by the absence or dysfunction of Factor VIII, a protein critical for blood clotting

• Severe Hemophilia A patients have less than 1% of the clotting factor, leading to frequent containers bleeding episodes.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Solution : D

• Recently Indian scientists at Vellore have successfully tested Gene therapy to treat severe Hemophilia

• The Therapeutic gene is introduced into the body enabling it to produce sufficient levels of Factor VIII to prevent bleeding;

• CMC Vellore trial used Lentivirus vectors to integrate the clotting factor gene into the patient’s stem cells, avoiding the use of adenovirus vectors, which can trigger immune response.

• However, gene therapy is a recently trial tested treatment for Hemophilia;

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• Hemophilia A is a rare hereditary disorder caused by the absence or dysfunction of Factor VIII, a protein critical for blood clotting

• Severe Hemophilia A patients have less than 1% of the clotting factor, leading to frequent containers bleeding episodes.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding PUNCH Mission : It is aimed to study interaction of Sun’s Corona with the Heliosphere. It includes a constellation of four identical satellites to be stationed at Low Earth Orbit. The mission will help in predicting space weather events. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only Correct Solution: C PUNCH Mission has been launched by NASA. The mission is the first-of- its kind mission focusing on the sun’s Corona and its interaction with the heliosphere. It will be a constellation of suitcase sized identical satellites, weighing 64 kg each, that will be sent to the Low Earth Orbit Four cameras will be set up to operate as a single virtual instrument to generate large scale imagery data, making it a unique information loaded 3D image of the Solar corona. The mission will study the sun’s outer atmosphere (corona) and how Solar winds evolve as it move through the space It will also improve understanding of solar storms and their impact on Earth’s space environment. The mission will enhance predictions of space weather events, helping protect satellite and communication networks. Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct Incorrect Solution: C PUNCH Mission has been launched by NASA. The mission is the first-of- its kind mission focusing on the sun’s Corona and its interaction with the heliosphere. It will be a constellation of suitcase sized identical satellites, weighing 64 kg each, that will be sent to the Low Earth Orbit Four cameras will be set up to operate as a single virtual instrument to generate large scale imagery data, making it a unique information loaded 3D image of the Solar corona. The mission will study the sun’s outer atmosphere (corona) and how Solar winds evolve as it move through the space It will also improve understanding of solar storms and their impact on Earth’s space environment. The mission will enhance predictions of space weather events, helping protect satellite and communication networks. Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct

#### 15. Question

Consider the following statements regarding PUNCH Mission :

• It is aimed to study interaction of Sun’s Corona with the Heliosphere.

• It includes a constellation of four identical satellites to be stationed at Low Earth Orbit.

• The mission will help in predicting space weather events.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 3 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3

• (d) 2 and 3 only

Solution: C

• PUNCH Mission has been launched by NASA.

• The mission is the first-of- its kind mission focusing on the sun’s Corona and its interaction with the heliosphere.

• It will be a constellation of suitcase sized identical satellites, weighing 64 kg each, that will be sent to the Low Earth Orbit

• Four cameras will be set up to operate as a single virtual instrument to generate large scale imagery data, making it a unique information loaded 3D image of the Solar corona.

• The mission will study the sun’s outer atmosphere (corona) and how Solar winds evolve as it move through the space

• It will also improve understanding of solar storms and their impact on Earth’s space environment.

• The mission will enhance predictions of space weather events, helping protect satellite and communication networks.

Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Solution: C

• PUNCH Mission has been launched by NASA.

• The mission is the first-of- its kind mission focusing on the sun’s Corona and its interaction with the heliosphere.

• It will be a constellation of suitcase sized identical satellites, weighing 64 kg each, that will be sent to the Low Earth Orbit

• Four cameras will be set up to operate as a single virtual instrument to generate large scale imagery data, making it a unique information loaded 3D image of the Solar corona.

• The mission will study the sun’s outer atmosphere (corona) and how Solar winds evolve as it move through the space

• It will also improve understanding of solar storms and their impact on Earth’s space environment.

• The mission will enhance predictions of space weather events, helping protect satellite and communication networks.

Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points The Ottawa Convention, recently in news, is related to which of the following? (a) Ban on stockpiling of nuclear weapons by Developed Nations (b) Prohibition of production and stockpiling of anti-personnel land mines. (c) Prohibition of testing and use of biological weapons including bacterial and viral toxins during wars (d) Restriction on testing of Defence weapons particularly thermobaric weapons, within a certain radius of civilian population Correct Solution : B The Ottawa Convention 1997 is an international agreement that provide its the use production stock filing and transfer of antipersonnel landmines. The Treaty aims to mitigate civilian harm caused by land mines which remain lethal long after the conflicts end. It was finalised at the Diplomatic conference in Oslo in September 1997 and entered into force on 1 March 1999. At present 164 State countries are members to the convention; India is not a member. Land mines are explosive that are activated by proximity or pressure ; antipersonnel mines are specifically designed for inflicting harm or injury to individuals particularly soldiers. Hence option B is correct Incorrect Solution : B The Ottawa Convention 1997 is an international agreement that provide its the use production stock filing and transfer of antipersonnel landmines. The Treaty aims to mitigate civilian harm caused by land mines which remain lethal long after the conflicts end. It was finalised at the Diplomatic conference in Oslo in September 1997 and entered into force on 1 March 1999. At present 164 State countries are members to the convention; India is not a member. Land mines are explosive that are activated by proximity or pressure ; antipersonnel mines are specifically designed for inflicting harm or injury to individuals particularly soldiers. Hence option B is correct

#### 16. Question

The Ottawa Convention, recently in news, is related to which of the following?

• (a) Ban on stockpiling of nuclear weapons by Developed Nations

• (b) Prohibition of production and stockpiling of anti-personnel land mines.

• (c) Prohibition of testing and use of biological weapons including bacterial and viral toxins during wars

• (d) Restriction on testing of Defence weapons particularly thermobaric weapons, within a certain radius of civilian population

Solution : B

• The Ottawa Convention 1997 is an international agreement that provide its the use production stock filing and transfer of antipersonnel landmines.

• The Treaty aims to mitigate civilian harm caused by land mines which remain lethal long after the conflicts end.

• It was finalised at the Diplomatic conference in Oslo in September 1997 and entered into force on 1 March 1999.

• At present 164 State countries are members to the convention; India is not a member.

• Land mines are explosive that are activated by proximity or pressure ; antipersonnel mines are specifically designed for inflicting harm or injury to individuals particularly soldiers.

Hence option B is correct

Solution : B

• The Ottawa Convention 1997 is an international agreement that provide its the use production stock filing and transfer of antipersonnel landmines.

• The Treaty aims to mitigate civilian harm caused by land mines which remain lethal long after the conflicts end.

• It was finalised at the Diplomatic conference in Oslo in September 1997 and entered into force on 1 March 1999.

• At present 164 State countries are members to the convention; India is not a member.

• Land mines are explosive that are activated by proximity or pressure ; antipersonnel mines are specifically designed for inflicting harm or injury to individuals particularly soldiers.

Hence option B is correct

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : Sonobuoys can be dropped from both aircrafts or ships for the purpose of tracking submarines. Sonobuoys combine underwater hydrophone sensors along with above-surface transmitters and transmit acoustic data via Very High Frequency radios. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Sonobuoys are expendable sonar buoys used for anti-submarine warfare and underwater acoustic research. These are small devices, and combine above surface transmitters as well as underwater hydrophone sensors. These can be dropped from aircraft or ships and activate upon impact of water. These are inflatable and floats with radio transmitters remaining on the Water surface for communication. They transmit acoustic data via Very High Frequency and Ultra High Frequency radios to operators on aircraft or ships; It’s data is effective in tracking submarines. Recently India and the United States have announced a strategic partnership to coproduce Sonobuoys. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct Incorrect Solution: C Sonobuoys are expendable sonar buoys used for anti-submarine warfare and underwater acoustic research. These are small devices, and combine above surface transmitters as well as underwater hydrophone sensors. These can be dropped from aircraft or ships and activate upon impact of water. These are inflatable and floats with radio transmitters remaining on the Water surface for communication. They transmit acoustic data via Very High Frequency and Ultra High Frequency radios to operators on aircraft or ships; It’s data is effective in tracking submarines. Recently India and the United States have announced a strategic partnership to coproduce Sonobuoys. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

#### 17. Question

Consider the following statements :

• Sonobuoys can be dropped from both aircrafts or ships for the purpose of tracking submarines.

• Sonobuoys combine underwater hydrophone sensors along with above-surface transmitters and transmit acoustic data via Very High Frequency radios.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

• Sonobuoys are expendable sonar buoys used for anti-submarine warfare and underwater acoustic research.

• These are small devices, and combine above surface transmitters as well as underwater hydrophone sensors.

• These can be dropped from aircraft or ships and activate upon impact of water.

• These are inflatable and floats with radio transmitters remaining on the Water surface for communication.

• They transmit acoustic data via Very High Frequency and Ultra High Frequency radios to operators on aircraft or ships;

• It’s data is effective in tracking submarines.

• Recently India and the United States have announced a strategic partnership to coproduce Sonobuoys.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

Solution: C

• Sonobuoys are expendable sonar buoys used for anti-submarine warfare and underwater acoustic research.

• These are small devices, and combine above surface transmitters as well as underwater hydrophone sensors.

• These can be dropped from aircraft or ships and activate upon impact of water.

• These are inflatable and floats with radio transmitters remaining on the Water surface for communication.

• They transmit acoustic data via Very High Frequency and Ultra High Frequency radios to operators on aircraft or ships;

• It’s data is effective in tracking submarines.

• Recently India and the United States have announced a strategic partnership to coproduce Sonobuoys.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Sonic Weapons : The intensity of sound emitted by Long Range Acoustic Device (LRAD) is often greater than that of a jet engine and bullet shot. Mosquito Device works by sending small drones producing high frequency sounds audible only to humans. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A Sonic weapons are devices that deliver highly concentrated amplified sound over long distances, usually for the purpose of controlling crowd. Long Range Acoustic Device is a type of Sonic weapon that produces sound about 160-162 decibels causing ringing sensation in ears, hearing damage and other health issues; while a jet engine during take off, produces 130 to 140 dB sound and a gunshot around 150 dB. Hence statement 1 is incorrect Mosquito device is a type of Sonic weapon It produces high frequency sounds audible only to youth below 30 years of age; it is deployed to deter gatherings of teenagers in public spaces. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: A Sonic weapons are devices that deliver highly concentrated amplified sound over long distances, usually for the purpose of controlling crowd. Long Range Acoustic Device is a type of Sonic weapon that produces sound about 160-162 decibels causing ringing sensation in ears, hearing damage and other health issues; while a jet engine during take off, produces 130 to 140 dB sound and a gunshot around 150 dB. Hence statement 1 is incorrect Mosquito device is a type of Sonic weapon It produces high frequency sounds audible only to youth below 30 years of age; it is deployed to deter gatherings of teenagers in public spaces. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

#### 18. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Sonic Weapons :

• The intensity of sound emitted by Long Range Acoustic Device (LRAD) is often greater than that of a jet engine and bullet shot.

• Mosquito Device works by sending small drones producing high frequency sounds audible only to humans.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

• Sonic weapons are devices that deliver highly concentrated amplified sound over long distances, usually for the purpose of controlling crowd.

• Long Range Acoustic Device is a type of Sonic weapon that produces sound about 160-162 decibels causing ringing sensation in ears, hearing damage and other health issues; while a jet engine during take off, produces 130 to 140 dB sound and a gunshot around 150 dB.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• Mosquito device is a type of Sonic weapon

• It produces high frequency sounds audible only to youth below 30 years of age; it is deployed to deter gatherings of teenagers in public spaces.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Solution: A

• Sonic weapons are devices that deliver highly concentrated amplified sound over long distances, usually for the purpose of controlling crowd.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• Mosquito device is a type of Sonic weapon

• It produces high frequency sounds audible only to youth below 30 years of age; it is deployed to deter gatherings of teenagers in public spaces.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Technology Adoption Fund : It is open to all non-government entities with commercially viable space Technologies. It will offer financial support up to 100% of project cost for MSMEs and Space Startups. It is the financial assistance scheme under the Innovations for Defence Excellence (iDEX) scheme of the Department of Defence Production. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A TAF is a financial initiative to support transition of early stage space Technology into market ready product It is open to all non government entities with commercially viable space Technologies. Hence statement 1 is correct TAF will offer financial support of up to 60% of the project cost for startups and MSME and 40% for larger Industries with the maximum funding cap of Rs.25 crore per project. Hence statement 2 is incorrect TAF has been launched by Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre- an arm of the Department of Space. Innovations for Defence Excellence has been launched by Department of Defence Production with budgetary support of about Rs.500 crore for a period of 5 years from 2021-22 to 2025-26 with an objective to provide financial support to nearly 300 startups /MSMEs/ individual innovators and about 20 partner incubators through Defence Innovation Organisation. TAF will act as a complementing initiative with the iDEX scheme. Hence statement 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: A TAF is a financial initiative to support transition of early stage space Technology into market ready product It is open to all non government entities with commercially viable space Technologies. Hence statement 1 is correct TAF will offer financial support of up to 60% of the project cost for startups and MSME and 40% for larger Industries with the maximum funding cap of Rs.25 crore per project. Hence statement 2 is incorrect TAF has been launched by Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre- an arm of the Department of Space. Innovations for Defence Excellence has been launched by Department of Defence Production with budgetary support of about Rs.500 crore for a period of 5 years from 2021-22 to 2025-26 with an objective to provide financial support to nearly 300 startups /MSMEs/ individual innovators and about 20 partner incubators through Defence Innovation Organisation. TAF will act as a complementing initiative with the iDEX scheme. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

#### 19. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Technology Adoption Fund :

• It is open to all non-government entities with commercially viable space Technologies.

• It will offer financial support up to 100% of project cost for MSMEs and Space Startups.

• It is the financial assistance scheme under the Innovations for Defence Excellence (iDEX) scheme of the Department of Defence Production.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• TAF is a financial initiative to support transition of early stage space Technology into market ready product

• It is open to all non government entities with commercially viable space Technologies.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• TAF will offer financial support of up to 60% of the project cost for startups and MSME and 40% for larger Industries with the maximum funding cap of Rs.25 crore per project.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• TAF has been launched by Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre- an arm of the Department of Space.

• Innovations for Defence Excellence has been launched by Department of Defence Production with budgetary support of about Rs.500 crore for a period of 5 years from 2021-22 to 2025-26 with an objective to provide financial support to nearly 300 startups /MSMEs/ individual innovators and about 20 partner incubators through Defence Innovation Organisation.

• TAF will act as a complementing initiative with the iDEX scheme.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution: A

• TAF is a financial initiative to support transition of early stage space Technology into market ready product

• It is open to all non government entities with commercially viable space Technologies.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• TAF will offer financial support of up to 60% of the project cost for startups and MSME and 40% for larger Industries with the maximum funding cap of Rs.25 crore per project.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• TAF has been launched by Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre- an arm of the Department of Space.

• TAF will act as a complementing initiative with the iDEX scheme.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : Statement – I : Antivenoms produced are polyvalent in nature. Statement – II : All Snake venoms are a mixture of three types of toxins, viz., cytotoxin, hemotoxin and neurotoxin. Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ? (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct Correct Solution : C Antivenoms are life saving medicines used to treat snake bite They bind to the venom toxins, neutralize them and allow the immune system of the human body to safely eliminate them over time. In India antivenoms are polyvalent that is, they are effective against multiples snake species but have limited efficacy against less common species. Hence statement 1 is correct Snake venom is a potent mixture of toxic proteins that causes severe damage to human body. Not all snake venom contain three Types of Toxins- cytotoxins (destroy tissue at the bite side), haemotoxin (destroy blood cells and disrupt clotting) and neurotroxin (block Nerve signals and cause paralysis) Some snake species may have a mixture of these three toxins while others are primarily either neurotoxic or hemotoxic; a species might be primarily cytotoxic also. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution : C Antivenoms are life saving medicines used to treat snake bite They bind to the venom toxins, neutralize them and allow the immune system of the human body to safely eliminate them over time. In India antivenoms are polyvalent that is, they are effective against multiples snake species but have limited efficacy against less common species. Hence statement 1 is correct Snake venom is a potent mixture of toxic proteins that causes severe damage to human body. Not all snake venom contain three Types of Toxins- cytotoxins (destroy tissue at the bite side), haemotoxin (destroy blood cells and disrupt clotting) and neurotroxin (block Nerve signals and cause paralysis) Some snake species may have a mixture of these three toxins while others are primarily either neurotoxic or hemotoxic; a species might be primarily cytotoxic also. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

#### 20. Question

Consider the following statements :

Statement – I :

Antivenoms produced are polyvalent in nature.

Statement – II :

All Snake venoms are a mixture of three types of toxins, viz., cytotoxin, hemotoxin and neurotoxin.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?

• (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I

• (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I

• (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect

• (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct

Solution : C

• Antivenoms are life saving medicines used to treat snake bite

• They bind to the venom toxins, neutralize them and allow the immune system of the human body to safely eliminate them over time.

• In India antivenoms are polyvalent that is, they are effective against multiples snake species but have limited efficacy against less common species.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Snake venom is a potent mixture of toxic proteins that causes severe damage to human body.

• Not all snake venom contain three Types of Toxins- cytotoxins (destroy tissue at the bite side), haemotoxin (destroy blood cells and disrupt clotting) and neurotroxin (block Nerve signals and cause paralysis)

• Some snake species may have a mixture of these three toxins while others are primarily either neurotoxic or hemotoxic; a species might be primarily cytotoxic also.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Solution : C

• Antivenoms are life saving medicines used to treat snake bite

• They bind to the venom toxins, neutralize them and allow the immune system of the human body to safely eliminate them over time.

• In India antivenoms are polyvalent that is, they are effective against multiples snake species but have limited efficacy against less common species.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Snake venom is a potent mixture of toxic proteins that causes severe damage to human body.

• Some snake species may have a mixture of these three toxins while others are primarily either neurotoxic or hemotoxic; a species might be primarily cytotoxic also.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points The “A World of Debt Report 2024,” which highlights the growing public debt burden on developing countries, is published by which of the following? (a) International Monetary Fund (IMF) (b) B. World Bank (c) C. United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) (d) D. Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) Correct Solution: C The “A World of Debt Report 2024” is published by UNCTAD, the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development. The report warns of rising global public debt, especially in developing countries, and calls for reform in global financial governance to ensure debt sustainability. Incorrect Solution: C The “A World of Debt Report 2024” is published by UNCTAD, the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development. The report warns of rising global public debt, especially in developing countries, and calls for reform in global financial governance to ensure debt sustainability.

#### 21. Question

The “A World of Debt Report 2024,” which highlights the growing public debt burden on developing countries, is published by which of the following?

• (a) International Monetary Fund (IMF)

• (b) B. World Bank

• (c) C. United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD)

• (d) D. Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD)

Solution: C

• The “A World of Debt Report 2024” is published by UNCTAD, the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development.

• The report warns of rising global public debt, especially in developing countries, and calls for reform in global financial governance to ensure debt sustainability.

Solution: C

• The “A World of Debt Report 2024” is published by UNCTAD, the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development.

• The report warns of rising global public debt, especially in developing countries, and calls for reform in global financial governance to ensure debt sustainability.

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Consider the following statements with reference to Copenhagen Framework on Citizen Data: Statement-I: India is exploring the Copenhagen Framework to integrate citizen data more effectively within its national statistical ecosystem. Statement-II: The Framework mandates member countries to adopt blockchain architecture for citizen data collection to ensure global uniformity. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: C The Copenhagen Framework on Citizen Data, developed by the UN Statistics Division in 2023, provides a non-binding conceptual guide for countries to classify and manage citizen-generated data. It seeks to enhance transparency, inclusivity, and interoperability in the way governments collect and use citizen data. India’s Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) is currently assessing the relevance of this framework for enhancing data-driven policymaking, making Statement-I correct. However, Statement-II is incorrect. The Framework does not mandate the use of any specific technology such as blockchain. Instead, it offers flexible guidance on data classification, citizen participation, and ethical considerations. The Framework’s purpose is to create a shared vocabulary and approach, not to enforce technological uniformity. Thus, only Statement-I stands correct, and Statement-II inaccurately describes the scope of the framework. Incorrect Solution: C The Copenhagen Framework on Citizen Data, developed by the UN Statistics Division in 2023, provides a non-binding conceptual guide for countries to classify and manage citizen-generated data. It seeks to enhance transparency, inclusivity, and interoperability in the way governments collect and use citizen data. India’s Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) is currently assessing the relevance of this framework for enhancing data-driven policymaking, making Statement-I correct. However, Statement-II is incorrect. The Framework does not mandate the use of any specific technology such as blockchain. Instead, it offers flexible guidance on data classification, citizen participation, and ethical considerations. The Framework’s purpose is to create a shared vocabulary and approach, not to enforce technological uniformity. Thus, only Statement-I stands correct, and Statement-II inaccurately describes the scope of the framework.

#### 22. Question

Consider the following statements with reference to Copenhagen Framework on Citizen Data:

Statement-I: India is exploring the Copenhagen Framework to integrate citizen data more effectively within its national statistical ecosystem.

Statement-II: The Framework mandates member countries to adopt blockchain architecture for citizen data collection to ensure global uniformity.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: C

The Copenhagen Framework on Citizen Data, developed by the UN Statistics Division in 2023, provides a non-binding conceptual guide for countries to classify and manage citizen-generated data. It seeks to enhance transparency, inclusivity, and interoperability in the way governments collect and use citizen data.

India’s Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) is currently assessing the relevance of this framework for enhancing data-driven policymaking, making Statement-I correct.

However, Statement-II is incorrect. The Framework does not mandate the use of any specific technology such as blockchain. Instead, it offers flexible guidance on data classification, citizen participation, and ethical considerations. The Framework’s purpose is to create a shared vocabulary and approach, not to enforce technological uniformity.

Thus, only Statement-I stands correct, and Statement-II inaccurately describes the scope of the framework.

Solution: C

India’s Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) is currently assessing the relevance of this framework for enhancing data-driven policymaking, making Statement-I correct.

Thus, only Statement-I stands correct, and Statement-II inaccurately describes the scope of the framework.

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points With reference to the International Association of Aids to Marine Navigation (IALA), consider the following statements: It was originally established as an Intergovernmental Organization (IGO) in 1957. The headquarters of IALA is located in Saint-Germain-en-Laye, France. India has been elected as Vice President of IALA during its first General Assembly as an IGO. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Answer: B Statement 1 is incorrect – IALA was founded as an NGO in 1957, not as an IGO. It became an Intergovernmental Organization only in 2024 after ratification by 34 states. Statement 2 is correct – Its headquarters is in Saint-Germain-en-Laye, France. Statement 3 is correct – India was elected Vice President during the first General Assembly as an IGO in Singapore (2024). Incorrect Answer: B Statement 1 is incorrect – IALA was founded as an NGO in 1957, not as an IGO. It became an Intergovernmental Organization only in 2024 after ratification by 34 states. Statement 2 is correct – Its headquarters is in Saint-Germain-en-Laye, France. Statement 3 is correct – India was elected Vice President during the first General Assembly as an IGO in Singapore (2024).

#### 23. Question

With reference to the International Association of Aids to Marine Navigation (IALA), consider the following statements:

• It was originally established as an Intergovernmental Organization (IGO) in 1957.

• The headquarters of IALA is located in Saint-Germain-en-Laye, France.

• India has been elected as Vice President of IALA during its first General Assembly as an IGO.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

• Statement 1 is incorrect – IALA was founded as an NGO in 1957, not as an IGO. It became an Intergovernmental Organization only in 2024 after ratification by 34 states.

• Statement 2 is correct – Its headquarters is in Saint-Germain-en-Laye, France.

• Statement 3 is correct – India was elected Vice President during the first General Assembly as an IGO in Singapore (2024).

• Statement 1 is incorrect – IALA was founded as an NGO in 1957, not as an IGO. It became an Intergovernmental Organization only in 2024 after ratification by 34 states.

• Statement 2 is correct – Its headquarters is in Saint-Germain-en-Laye, France.

• Statement 3 is correct – India was elected Vice President during the first General Assembly as an IGO in Singapore (2024).

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Arrange the following locations from west to east based on their geographical position on the world map: Darfur Netzarim Corridor Kara Sea Taiwan Strait Select the correct order using the code below: (a) 1 - 2 - 3 - 4 (b) 2 - 1 - 3 - 4 (c) 1 - 2 - 4 - 3 (d) 2 - 1 - 4 - 3 Correct Solution: A Darfur, located in western Sudan, is the westernmost of the four. Netzarim Corridor lies within the Gaza Strip, situated east of Sudan along the eastern Mediterranean. The Kara Sea, part of the Arctic Ocean north of Siberia, lies further east of Gaza but west of East Asia. The Taiwan Strait, which separates China’s Fujian Province and Taiwan, lies farthest east among the options. The correct west-to-east order on the globe is: Darfur → Gaza (Netzarim) → Kara Sea → Taiwan Strait Incorrect Solution: A Darfur, located in western Sudan, is the westernmost of the four. Netzarim Corridor lies within the Gaza Strip, situated east of Sudan along the eastern Mediterranean. The Kara Sea, part of the Arctic Ocean north of Siberia, lies further east of Gaza but west of East Asia. The Taiwan Strait, which separates China’s Fujian Province and Taiwan, lies farthest east among the options. The correct west-to-east order on the globe is: Darfur → Gaza (Netzarim) → Kara Sea → Taiwan Strait

#### 24. Question

Arrange the following locations from west to east based on their geographical position on the world map:

• Netzarim Corridor

• Taiwan Strait

Select the correct order using the code below:

• (a) 1 - 2 - 3 - 4

• (b) 2 - 1 - 3 - 4

• (c) 1 - 2 - 4 - 3

• (d) 2 - 1 - 4 - 3

Solution: A

• Darfur, located in western Sudan, is the westernmost of the four.

• Netzarim Corridor lies within the Gaza Strip, situated east of Sudan along the eastern Mediterranean.

• The Kara Sea, part of the Arctic Ocean north of Siberia, lies further east of Gaza but west of East Asia.

• The Taiwan Strait, which separates China’s Fujian Province and Taiwan, lies farthest east among the options.

The correct west-to-east order on the globe is: Darfur → Gaza (Netzarim) → Kara Sea → Taiwan Strait

Solution: A

• Darfur, located in western Sudan, is the westernmost of the four.

• Netzarim Corridor lies within the Gaza Strip, situated east of Sudan along the eastern Mediterranean.

• The Kara Sea, part of the Arctic Ocean north of Siberia, lies further east of Gaza but west of East Asia.

• The Taiwan Strait, which separates China’s Fujian Province and Taiwan, lies farthest east among the options.

The correct west-to-east order on the globe is: Darfur → Gaza (Netzarim) → Kara Sea → Taiwan Strait

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Which of the following periods are not counted in the 60-day absence rule for disqualification under Article 101(4)? Period when the House is prorogued Period of adjournment for more than four consecutive days Period of medical treatment within India Period under judicial custody Select the correct answer using the code below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) All of the above Correct Solution: A Under Article 101(4), the 60-day count excludes periods when the House is prorogued or adjourned for more than four days. Medical treatment and judicial custody are not automatic exemptions unless permission is granted by the House, hence 3 and 4 are not valid exclusions unless approved. Incorrect Solution: A Under Article 101(4), the 60-day count excludes periods when the House is prorogued or adjourned for more than four days. Medical treatment and judicial custody are not automatic exemptions unless permission is granted by the House, hence 3 and 4 are not valid exclusions unless approved.

#### 25. Question

Which of the following periods are not counted in the 60-day absence rule for disqualification under Article 101(4)?

• Period when the House is prorogued

• Period of adjournment for more than four consecutive days

• Period of medical treatment within India

• Period under judicial custody

Select the correct answer using the code below:

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 4 only

• (d) All of the above

Solution: A

Under Article 101(4), the 60-day count excludes periods when the House is prorogued or adjourned for more than four days. Medical treatment and judicial custody are not automatic exemptions unless permission is granted by the House, hence 3 and 4 are not valid exclusions unless approved.

Solution: A

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points Vladimir Putin, Russia’s longstanding leader, has been inaugurated for his fifth presidential term, marking a significant juncture in the country’s political trajectory. The ceremony, held at the Grand Kremlin Palace, is a familiar ritual for Putin, who has wielded power since the turn of the millennium. However, the context surrounding his governance has undergone significant evolution over the years. Initially, Putin’s rise to prominence was accompanied by pledges to uphold democracy and bolster Russia’s standing. Yet, as time elapsed, his leadership style veered towards authoritarianism, characterized by the stifling of dissent and the centralization of authority. Former White House advisor Fiona Hill posits that Putin now perceives himself as a modern-day tsar, harbouring ambitions of resurrecting Russia’s former prestige globally. This metamorphosis has coincided with Russia’s assertive foreign policy, particularly evident in its interventions in Ukraine. Despite Western criticism and allegations of electoral malpractice, Putin retains considerable domestic backing. Many Russians view him as a symbol of resilience and stability, crucial for safeguarding Russia’s interests amidst external pressures. The concept of “Putinism” has emerged, encapsulating the personality-driven governance and consolidation of power akin to Russia’s historical leaders. This trend has prompted apprehension among observers, who draw parallels between Putin’s rule and that of past autocrats like Stalin. Addressing Putin’s leadership poses a conundrum for the international community, given Russia’s status as a nuclear heavyweight. Fiona Hill advocates for a concerted effort to curb Putin’s belligerent actions and mitigate potential risks associated with his tenure. Despite the hurdles, Putin’s grip on authority remains firm, with scant alternatives on the horizon. This sentiment is echoed in the acquiescence to his leadership by many Russians, who have grown accustomed to his rule over the past two decades. Which one of the following statements best implies the suggestiongiven by the author of the passage? a. Fiona Hill suggests that Putin's leadership style has shifted towards greater democracy over the years. b. The author suggests that the international community should ignore Putin's aggressive actions for the sake of global harmony. c. A coordinated response to counteract Putin's authoritarian tendencies and mitigate associated risks is needed. d. The passage implies that Fiona Hill supports Putin's aggressive foreign policy as a means of asserting Russia's dominance. Correct Solution : C Justification : Answer (c): A coordinated response to counteract Putin’s authoritarian tendencies and mitigate associated risks is needed. The passage highlights Fiona Hill’s suggestion for a coordinated international response to curb Putin’s aggressive actions and address the risks posed by his authoritarian rule. Option (a) and (d) are incorrect: Both the statement is incorrect (as per the passage) Incorrect Solution : C Justification : Answer (c): A coordinated response to counteract Putin’s authoritarian tendencies and mitigate associated risks is needed. The passage highlights Fiona Hill’s suggestion for a coordinated international response to curb Putin’s aggressive actions and address the risks posed by his authoritarian rule. Option (a) and (d) are incorrect: Both the statement is incorrect (as per the passage)

#### 26. Question

Vladimir Putin, Russia’s longstanding leader, has been inaugurated for his fifth presidential term, marking a significant juncture in the country’s political trajectory. The ceremony, held at the Grand Kremlin Palace, is a familiar ritual for Putin, who has wielded power since the turn of the millennium. However, the context surrounding his governance has undergone significant evolution over the years.

Initially, Putin’s rise to prominence was accompanied by pledges to uphold democracy and bolster Russia’s standing. Yet, as time elapsed, his leadership style veered towards authoritarianism, characterized by the stifling of dissent and the centralization of authority.

Former White House advisor Fiona Hill posits that Putin now perceives himself as a modern-day tsar, harbouring ambitions of resurrecting Russia’s former prestige globally. This metamorphosis has coincided with Russia’s assertive foreign policy, particularly evident in its interventions in Ukraine.

Despite Western criticism and allegations of electoral malpractice, Putin retains considerable domestic backing. Many Russians view him as a symbol of resilience and stability, crucial for safeguarding Russia’s interests amidst external pressures.

The concept of “Putinism” has emerged, encapsulating the personality-driven governance and consolidation of power akin to Russia’s historical leaders. This trend has prompted apprehension among observers, who draw parallels between Putin’s rule and that of past autocrats like Stalin.

Addressing Putin’s leadership poses a conundrum for the international community, given Russia’s status as a nuclear heavyweight. Fiona Hill advocates for a concerted effort to curb Putin’s belligerent actions and mitigate potential risks associated with his tenure.

Despite the hurdles, Putin’s grip on authority remains firm, with scant alternatives on the horizon. This sentiment is echoed in the acquiescence to his leadership by many Russians, who have grown accustomed to his rule over the past two decades.

Which one of the following statements best implies the suggestiongiven by the author of the passage?

• a. Fiona Hill suggests that Putin's leadership style has shifted towards greater democracy over the years.

• b. The author suggests that the international community should ignore Putin's aggressive actions for the sake of global harmony.

• c. A coordinated response to counteract Putin's authoritarian tendencies and mitigate associated risks is needed.

• d. The passage implies that Fiona Hill supports Putin's aggressive foreign policy as a means of asserting Russia's dominance.

Solution : C

Justification :

Answer (c): A coordinated response to counteract Putin’s authoritarian tendencies and mitigate associated risks is needed.

The passage highlights Fiona Hill’s suggestion for a coordinated international response to curb Putin’s aggressive actions and address the risks posed by his authoritarian rule.

Option (a) and (d) are incorrect: Both the statement is incorrect (as per the passage)

Solution : C

Justification :

Answer (c): A coordinated response to counteract Putin’s authoritarian tendencies and mitigate associated risks is needed.

The passage highlights Fiona Hill’s suggestion for a coordinated international response to curb Putin’s aggressive actions and address the risks posed by his authoritarian rule.

Option (a) and (d) are incorrect: Both the statement is incorrect (as per the passage)

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points A Question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements. Question: How much time will Train P take to cross Train Q (from the moment they meet) running in opposite directions (towards each other) ? statement I: The respective ratio of speeds of Train P and Train Q is 3 : 4. The sum of the lengths of Train P and Train Q is 700 metre. statement II: Train P can cross a signal pole in 12 seconds. It can cross 600 metre long station in 25 seconds. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements? a. Only I b. Both I and II c. Only II d. Neither I nor II Correct Solution : D Justification : From statement I: Relative speed = 3x + 4x = 7x units Sum of Length of trains = 700 m Required time = 700/7x = no result From statement II: speed of train P = x/12 = (x + 600)/25 => 25x = 12x + 7200 => 13x = 7200 => x = 7200/13 Incorrect Solution : D Justification : From statement I: Relative speed = 3x + 4x = 7x units Sum of Length of trains = 700 m Required time = 700/7x = no result From statement II: speed of train P = x/12 = (x + 600)/25 => 25x = 12x + 7200 => 13x = 7200 => x = 7200/13

#### 27. Question

A Question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements.

Question: How much time will Train P take to cross Train Q (from the moment they meet) running in opposite directions (towards each other) ?

statement I: The respective ratio of speeds of Train P and Train Q is 3 : 4. The sum of the lengths of Train P and Train Q is 700 metre.

statement II: Train P can cross a signal pole in 12 seconds. It can cross 600 metre long station in 25 seconds.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?

• b. Both I and II

• c. Only II

• d. Neither I nor II

Solution : D

Justification :

From statement I:

Relative speed = 3x + 4x = 7x units

Sum of Length of trains = 700 m

Required time = 700/7x = no result

From statement II:

speed of train P = x/12 = (x + 600)/25

=> 25x = 12x + 7200

=> 13x = 7200

=> x = 7200/13

Solution : D

Justification :

From statement I:

Relative speed = 3x + 4x = 7x units

Sum of Length of trains = 700 m

Required time = 700/7x = no result

From statement II:

speed of train P = x/12 = (x + 600)/25

=> 25x = 12x + 7200

=> 13x = 7200

=> x = 7200/13

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points A statement is given followed by two Assumption I and II. Consider the statement and the assumptions: Statement: The government has decided to disinvest large chunk of its equity in select public sector undertakings for a better fiscal management. Assumption I: The amount generated out of the disinvestment process may reduce substantially the mounting fiscal deficits. Assumption II. There will be enough demand in the market for the shares of these undertakings. Which of the following is true with reference to above? a. If only assumption I is implicit. b. If only assumption II is implicit. c. If neither I nor II is implicit. d. If both I and II are implicit. Correct Solution : A Justification : The fact given in I directly follows from the phase ‘….. for a better fiscal management’ in the statement. So, I is implicit. However, the public response to the new policy cannot be ascertained. So, II is not implicit. Incorrect Solution : A Justification : The fact given in I directly follows from the phase ‘….. for a better fiscal management’ in the statement. So, I is implicit. However, the public response to the new policy cannot be ascertained. So, II is not implicit.

#### 28. Question

A statement is given followed by two Assumption I and II. Consider the statement and the assumptions:

Statement: The government has decided to disinvest large chunk of its equity in select public sector undertakings for a better fiscal management.

Assumption I: The amount generated out of the disinvestment process may reduce substantially the mounting fiscal deficits.

Assumption II. There will be enough demand in the market for the shares of these undertakings.

Which of the following is true with reference to above?

• a. If only assumption I is implicit.

• b. If only assumption II is implicit.

• c. If neither I nor II is implicit.

• d. If both I and II are implicit.

Solution : A

Justification :

The fact given in I directly follows from the phase ‘….. for a better fiscal management’ in the statement. So, I is implicit. However, the public response to the new policy cannot be ascertained. So, II is not implicit.

Solution : A

Justification :

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points A statement is given followed by two arguments I and II. Consider the statement and the arguments: Statement: Should internal assessment in schools be abolished? Arguments: A. Yes. This will help in reducing the possibility of favouritism. B. No. Teaching faculty will lose control over students. Which of the following is true with reference to above? a. Only argument I is strong b. Only argument II is strong c. Both the arguments I and II are strong d. Neither argument I nor II is strong Correct Solution : A Justification : Argument A is strong because there is always a possibility of practice of favouritism. This will affect the grading system and prove to be unfair for many students. B forms a weak argument because internal assessments are not means to gain control over students. Even if teachers do not evaluate the internal assessments, they will continue to mentor pupil. Hence, option 1 is the correct answer. Incorrect Solution : A Justification : Argument A is strong because there is always a possibility of practice of favouritism. This will affect the grading system and prove to be unfair for many students. B forms a weak argument because internal assessments are not means to gain control over students. Even if teachers do not evaluate the internal assessments, they will continue to mentor pupil. Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.

#### 29. Question

A statement is given followed by two arguments I and II. Consider the statement and the arguments:

Statement: Should internal assessment in schools be abolished?

Arguments: A. Yes. This will help in reducing the possibility of favouritism. B. No. Teaching faculty will lose control over students.

Which of the following is true with reference to above?

• a. Only argument I is strong

• b. Only argument II is strong

• c. Both the arguments I and II are strong

• d. Neither argument I nor II is strong

Solution : A

Justification :

Argument A is strong because there is always a possibility of practice of favouritism. This will affect the grading system and prove to be unfair for many students.

B forms a weak argument because internal assessments are not means to gain control over students. Even if teachers do not evaluate the internal assessments, they will continue to mentor pupil. Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.

Solution : A

Justification :

Argument A is strong because there is always a possibility of practice of favouritism. This will affect the grading system and prove to be unfair for many students.

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points A Question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements. Question: What is the age of Ramesh? Statement I: Ramesh is 4 years older than his cousin, who is 20 years old. Statement II: Five years ago, Ramesh was twice as old as his cousin. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements? (a) Statement I alone is sufficient, but Statement II alone is not sufficient (b) Statement II alone is sufficient, but Statement I alone is not sufficient (c) Both Statements together are sufficient, but neither alone is sufficient (d) Each Statement alone is sufficient Correct Solution: A Statement I: If cousin = 20 years → Ramesh = 20 + 4 = 24 So Statement I alone is sufficient Statement II: Let present age of cousin = x Then Ramesh = y Five years ago: y–5 = 2(x–5) → One equation, two variables → Cannot solve So, Statement II alone is not sufficient Incorrect Solution: A Statement I: If cousin = 20 years → Ramesh = 20 + 4 = 24 So Statement I alone is sufficient Statement II: Let present age of cousin = x Then Ramesh = y Five years ago: y–5 = 2(x–5) → One equation, two variables → Cannot solve So, Statement II alone is not sufficient

#### 30. Question

A Question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements.

Question: What is the age of Ramesh?

Statement I: Ramesh is 4 years older than his cousin, who is 20 years old. Statement II: Five years ago, Ramesh was twice as old as his cousin.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?

• (a) Statement I alone is sufficient, but Statement II alone is not sufficient

• (b) Statement II alone is sufficient, but Statement I alone is not sufficient

• (c) Both Statements together are sufficient, but neither alone is sufficient

• (d) Each Statement alone is sufficient

Solution: A

Statement I: If cousin = 20 years → Ramesh = 20 + 4 = 24

So Statement I alone is sufficient

Statement II: Let present age of cousin = x Then Ramesh = y Five years ago: y–5 = 2(x–5) → One equation, two variables → Cannot solve

So, Statement II alone is not sufficient

Solution: A

Statement I: If cousin = 20 years → Ramesh = 20 + 4 = 24

So Statement I alone is sufficient

Statement II: Let present age of cousin = x Then Ramesh = y Five years ago: y–5 = 2(x–5) → One equation, two variables → Cannot solve