DAY – 56 : Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2025 : GOVERNMENT SCHEMES

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Social Audits under MGNREGA and recent implementation challenges: Social Audits under MGNREGA are mandated by the Act itself and are primarily conducted by the Gram Sabha, focusing on verifying expenditures against physical work done. The mandatory use of the National Mobile Monitoring System (NMMS) app for attendance has been widely reported to facilitate timely wage payments by reducing manual errors. Issues related to the Aadhaar Based Payment System (ABPS), such as mismatches between Aadhaar and job card details, directly hinder the registration of work demand by workers, even before wages become due. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. Section 17 of the MGNREGA, 2005, mandates the Gram Sabha to conduct Social Audits of all works and expenditures. Social audits involve reviewing official records and verifying if reported expenditures match the actual work on the ground, enhancing transparency and accountability. Statement 2 is incorrect. The mandatory use of the NMMS app, requiring geo-tagged photos for attendance, has faced significant criticism for causing hurdles and delays in wage payments, not facilitating them. Problems include lack of smartphones among workers, poor internet connectivity, app crashes, and server errors, leading to incomplete attendance and delayed payments. Statement 3 is correct. Reports indicate that ABPS-related issues, including mismatches or accounts not being ABPS-enabled, are preventing workers from even demanding work, as their demand is not registered if their account status is problematic. This violates the right to work on demand guaranteed by the Act. The problem extends beyond just payment delays to hindering the initial step of work registration. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. Section 17 of the MGNREGA, 2005, mandates the Gram Sabha to conduct Social Audits of all works and expenditures. Social audits involve reviewing official records and verifying if reported expenditures match the actual work on the ground, enhancing transparency and accountability. Statement 2 is incorrect. The mandatory use of the NMMS app, requiring geo-tagged photos for attendance, has faced significant criticism for causing hurdles and delays in wage payments, not facilitating them. Problems include lack of smartphones among workers, poor internet connectivity, app crashes, and server errors, leading to incomplete attendance and delayed payments. Statement 3 is correct. Reports indicate that ABPS-related issues, including mismatches or accounts not being ABPS-enabled, are preventing workers from even demanding work, as their demand is not registered if their account status is problematic. This violates the right to work on demand guaranteed by the Act. The problem extends beyond just payment delays to hindering the initial step of work registration.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Social Audits under MGNREGA and recent implementation challenges:

• Social Audits under MGNREGA are mandated by the Act itself and are primarily conducted by the Gram Sabha, focusing on verifying expenditures against physical work done.

• The mandatory use of the National Mobile Monitoring System (NMMS) app for attendance has been widely reported to facilitate timely wage payments by reducing manual errors.

• Issues related to the Aadhaar Based Payment System (ABPS), such as mismatches between Aadhaar and job card details, directly hinder the registration of work demand by workers, even before wages become due.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. Section 17 of the MGNREGA, 2005, mandates the Gram Sabha to conduct Social Audits of all works and expenditures. Social audits involve reviewing official records and verifying if reported expenditures match the actual work on the ground, enhancing transparency and accountability.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The mandatory use of the NMMS app, requiring geo-tagged photos for attendance, has faced significant criticism for causing hurdles and delays in wage payments, not facilitating them. Problems include lack of smartphones among workers, poor internet connectivity, app crashes, and server errors, leading to incomplete attendance and delayed payments.

• Statement 3 is correct. Reports indicate that ABPS-related issues, including mismatches or accounts not being ABPS-enabled, are preventing workers from even demanding work, as their demand is not registered if their account status is problematic. This violates the right to work on demand guaranteed by the Act. The problem extends beyond just payment delays to hindering the initial step of work registration.

Solution: B

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points With reference to the implementation of Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB-PMJAY), consider the following statements: The National Health Authority (NHA) acts solely as a policy-making and funding body, while the implementation and hospital empanelment are exclusively managed by State Health Agencies (SHAs). Beneficiary identification primarily relies on the Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) 2011 data, and states have no flexibility to use alternative databases for verification. The scheme mandates cashless services only at public hospitals; empanelled private hospitals may charge beneficiaries up to a pre-defined co-payment limit. The NHA is responsible for developing mechanisms for strategic purchasing of healthcare services and updating health benefit package rates through an evidence-based process. Which of the statements given above is correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 4 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only Correct Solution : B Statement 1 is incorrect. While SHAs implement the scheme at the state level , NHA is not just a policy/funding body. NHA implements PM-JAY at the national level , designs strategy, builds IT infrastructure, develops standards (treatment protocols, data privacy, fraud control), explores links with the larger healthcare system, works with IRDAI, ensures interoperability, and monitors the scheme. NHA also launched the Hospital Engagement Module (HEM 2.0) for enhancing hospital empanelment. Statement 2 is incorrect. While eligibility was initially based on SECC 2011 criteria, the government revised the base and explicitly provided flexibility to States/UTs to use other databases (of similar socioeconomic profile) for verification, especially for SECC beneficiaries who couldn’t be traced. Statement 3 is incorrect. The scheme provides cashless cover at both public hospitals and empanelled private hospitals. Beneficiaries are entitled to free services for identified packages at these facilities. There is no provision mentioned for co-payment at empanelled private hospitals for covered services. Statement 4 is correct. One of the key roles of NHA is to develop mechanisms for strategic purchasing of healthcare services to get the best return on investment and to prepare/update the list of packages and their rates using a transparent, predictable, and evidence-based process. NHA recently released a revised Health Benefit Package (HBP) with increased rates and new packages. Incorrect Solution : B Statement 1 is incorrect. While SHAs implement the scheme at the state level , NHA is not just a policy/funding body. NHA implements PM-JAY at the national level , designs strategy, builds IT infrastructure, develops standards (treatment protocols, data privacy, fraud control), explores links with the larger healthcare system, works with IRDAI, ensures interoperability, and monitors the scheme. NHA also launched the Hospital Engagement Module (HEM 2.0) for enhancing hospital empanelment. Statement 2 is incorrect. While eligibility was initially based on SECC 2011 criteria, the government revised the base and explicitly provided flexibility to States/UTs to use other databases (of similar socioeconomic profile) for verification, especially for SECC beneficiaries who couldn’t be traced. Statement 3 is incorrect. The scheme provides cashless cover at both public hospitals and empanelled private hospitals. Beneficiaries are entitled to free services for identified packages at these facilities. There is no provision mentioned for co-payment at empanelled private hospitals for covered services. Statement 4 is correct. One of the key roles of NHA is to develop mechanisms for strategic purchasing of healthcare services to get the best return on investment and to prepare/update the list of packages and their rates using a transparent, predictable, and evidence-based process. NHA recently released a revised Health Benefit Package (HBP) with increased rates and new packages.

#### 2. Question

With reference to the implementation of Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB-PMJAY), consider the following statements:

• The National Health Authority (NHA) acts solely as a policy-making and funding body, while the implementation and hospital empanelment are exclusively managed by State Health Agencies (SHAs).

• Beneficiary identification primarily relies on the Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) 2011 data, and states have no flexibility to use alternative databases for verification.

• The scheme mandates cashless services only at public hospitals; empanelled private hospitals may charge beneficiaries up to a pre-defined co-payment limit.

• The NHA is responsible for developing mechanisms for strategic purchasing of healthcare services and updating health benefit package rates through an evidence-based process.

Which of the statements given above is correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 4 only

• (c) 3 and 4 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Solution : B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While SHAs implement the scheme at the state level , NHA is not just a policy/funding body. NHA implements PM-JAY at the national level , designs strategy, builds IT infrastructure, develops standards (treatment protocols, data privacy, fraud control), explores links with the larger healthcare system, works with IRDAI, ensures interoperability, and monitors the scheme. NHA also launched the Hospital Engagement Module (HEM 2.0) for enhancing hospital empanelment. Statement 2 is incorrect. While eligibility was initially based on SECC 2011 criteria, the government revised the base and explicitly provided flexibility to States/UTs to use other databases (of similar socioeconomic profile) for verification, especially for SECC beneficiaries who couldn’t be traced. Statement 3 is incorrect. The scheme provides cashless cover at both public hospitals and empanelled private hospitals. Beneficiaries are entitled to free services for identified packages at these facilities. There is no provision mentioned for co-payment at empanelled private hospitals for covered services.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. While eligibility was initially based on SECC 2011 criteria, the government revised the base and explicitly provided flexibility to States/UTs to use other databases (of similar socioeconomic profile) for verification, especially for SECC beneficiaries who couldn’t be traced.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The scheme provides cashless cover at both public hospitals and empanelled private hospitals. Beneficiaries are entitled to free services for identified packages at these facilities. There is no provision mentioned for co-payment at empanelled private hospitals for covered services.

Statement 4 is correct. One of the key roles of NHA is to develop mechanisms for strategic purchasing of healthcare services to get the best return on investment and to prepare/update the list of packages and their rates using a transparent, predictable, and evidence-based process. NHA recently released a revised Health Benefit Package (HBP) with increased rates and new packages.

Solution : B

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Schemes across different sectors: The PLI scheme for Food Processing Industry primarily incentivizes manufacturing in segments like Ready-to-Eat foods and Marine Products, but explicitly excludes support for branding and marketing abroad. Under the PLI scheme for High Efficiency Solar PV Modules, incentive is provided post-commissioning based on sales, and the scheme is technology-agnostic, although better-performing technologies might receive higher incentives implicitly through higher sales value. The PLI scheme for Pharmaceuticals focuses solely on finished formulations and excludes incentives for critical Key Starting Materials (KSMs)/Drug Intermediaries (DIs) and Active Pharmaceutical Ingredients (APIs). Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution : A Statement 1 is incorrect. The PLI scheme for Food Processing Industry (PLISFPI) has two components. The first incentivizes manufacturing in segments like RTC/RTE foods, processed fruits/vegetables, marine products, and mozzarella cheese. The second component explicitly relates to support for branding and marketing abroad to incentivize the emergence of strong Indian brands. Statement 2 is correct. The PLI scheme for High Efficiency Solar PV Modules provides incentives for five years post-commissioning, based on the manufacture and sale of high-efficiency modules. The scheme guidelines state it aims to be technology-agnostic, allowing all technologies, but also mentions that technologies yielding better module performance will be incentivized. This implies that while not restricted to one technology, higher efficiency (leading to potentially higher sales value or meeting specific efficiency criteria for incentives) is rewarded. Statement 3 is incorrect. The government announced PLI schemes for 14 sectors. The list explicitly includes separate PLI schemes for “(ii) Critical Key Starting Materials/Drug Intermediaries & Active Pharmaceutical Ingredients” and “(v) Pharmaceuticals Drugs”. This indicates that KSMs/DIs and APIs are covered under dedicated PLI schemes, not excluded entirely. The Pharma PLI aims to boost domestic manufacturing of critical KSMs, DIs, and APIs to reduce import dependence. Incorrect Solution : A Statement 1 is incorrect. The PLI scheme for Food Processing Industry (PLISFPI) has two components. The first incentivizes manufacturing in segments like RTC/RTE foods, processed fruits/vegetables, marine products, and mozzarella cheese. The second component explicitly relates to support for branding and marketing abroad to incentivize the emergence of strong Indian brands. Statement 2 is correct. The PLI scheme for High Efficiency Solar PV Modules provides incentives for five years post-commissioning, based on the manufacture and sale of high-efficiency modules. The scheme guidelines state it aims to be technology-agnostic, allowing all technologies, but also mentions that technologies yielding better module performance will be incentivized. This implies that while not restricted to one technology, higher efficiency (leading to potentially higher sales value or meeting specific efficiency criteria for incentives) is rewarded. Statement 3 is incorrect. The government announced PLI schemes for 14 sectors. The list explicitly includes separate PLI schemes for “(ii) Critical Key Starting Materials/Drug Intermediaries & Active Pharmaceutical Ingredients” and “(v) Pharmaceuticals Drugs”. This indicates that KSMs/DIs and APIs are covered under dedicated PLI schemes, not excluded entirely. The Pharma PLI aims to boost domestic manufacturing of critical KSMs, DIs, and APIs to reduce import dependence.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Schemes across different sectors:

• The PLI scheme for Food Processing Industry primarily incentivizes manufacturing in segments like Ready-to-Eat foods and Marine Products, but explicitly excludes support for branding and marketing abroad.

• Under the PLI scheme for High Efficiency Solar PV Modules, incentive is provided post-commissioning based on sales, and the scheme is technology-agnostic, although better-performing technologies might receive higher incentives implicitly through higher sales value.

• The PLI scheme for Pharmaceuticals focuses solely on finished formulations and excludes incentives for critical Key Starting Materials (KSMs)/Drug Intermediaries (DIs) and Active Pharmaceutical Ingredients (APIs).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 2 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution : A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The PLI scheme for Food Processing Industry (PLISFPI) has two components. The first incentivizes manufacturing in segments like RTC/RTE foods, processed fruits/vegetables, marine products, and mozzarella cheese. The second component explicitly relates to support for branding and marketing abroad to incentivize the emergence of strong Indian brands.

• Statement 2 is correct. The PLI scheme for High Efficiency Solar PV Modules provides incentives for five years post-commissioning, based on the manufacture and sale of high-efficiency modules. The scheme guidelines state it aims to be technology-agnostic, allowing all technologies, but also mentions that technologies yielding better module performance will be incentivized. This implies that while not restricted to one technology, higher efficiency (leading to potentially higher sales value or meeting specific efficiency criteria for incentives) is rewarded.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The government announced PLI schemes for 14 sectors. The list explicitly includes separate PLI schemes for “(ii) Critical Key Starting Materials/Drug Intermediaries & Active Pharmaceutical Ingredients” and “(v) Pharmaceuticals Drugs”. This indicates that KSMs/DIs and APIs are covered under dedicated PLI schemes, not excluded entirely. The Pharma PLI aims to boost domestic manufacturing of critical KSMs, DIs, and APIs to reduce import dependence.

Solution : A

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points With reference to the institutional mechanism for the Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM), consider the following statements: The National Jal Jeevan Mission (NJJM) is the apex body responsible for overall policy guidance and implementation, operating directly under the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO). State Water and Sanitation Missions (SWSM) are primarily responsible for financial management and fund allocation to districts, while District Water and Sanitation Missions (DWSM) focus on technical approvals of schemes. Paani Samitis (or Village Water Sanitation Committees), operating as sub-committees of the Gram Panchayat, are mandated to plan, implement, manage, operate, and maintain in-village water supply infrastructure. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution : A Statement 1 is incorrect. While NJJM is the apex body, it operates under the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation, Ministry of Jal Shakti, not directly under the PMO. Statement 2 is incorrect. The roles described are overly simplified and potentially reversed or mixed. While SWSM handles state-level coordination and DWSM operates at the district level, the specific functions mentioned (SWSM only finance, DWSM only technical approval) are not fully accurate depictions of their comprehensive roles which involve planning, implementation support, monitoring etc., across various dimensions. The Paani Samiti has the primary role for in-village planning and management. Statement 3 is correct. The official JJM website explicitly states that the Paani Samiti / Village Water Sanitation Committee (VWSC), as a sub-committee of the Gram Panchayat (GP), is responsible for planning, implementation, management, operation, and maintenance of the in-village water supply infrastructure. This highlights the community-centric approach of the mission. Incorrect Solution : A Statement 1 is incorrect. While NJJM is the apex body, it operates under the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation, Ministry of Jal Shakti, not directly under the PMO. Statement 2 is incorrect. The roles described are overly simplified and potentially reversed or mixed. While SWSM handles state-level coordination and DWSM operates at the district level, the specific functions mentioned (SWSM only finance, DWSM only technical approval) are not fully accurate depictions of their comprehensive roles which involve planning, implementation support, monitoring etc., across various dimensions. The Paani Samiti has the primary role for in-village planning and management. Statement 3 is correct. The official JJM website explicitly states that the Paani Samiti / Village Water Sanitation Committee (VWSC), as a sub-committee of the Gram Panchayat (GP), is responsible for planning, implementation, management, operation, and maintenance of the in-village water supply infrastructure. This highlights the community-centric approach of the mission.

#### 4. Question

With reference to the institutional mechanism for the Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM), consider the following statements:

• The National Jal Jeevan Mission (NJJM) is the apex body responsible for overall policy guidance and implementation, operating directly under the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO).

• State Water and Sanitation Missions (SWSM) are primarily responsible for financial management and fund allocation to districts, while District Water and Sanitation Missions (DWSM) focus on technical approvals of schemes.

• Paani Samitis (or Village Water Sanitation Committees), operating as sub-committees of the Gram Panchayat, are mandated to plan, implement, manage, operate, and maintain in-village water supply infrastructure.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 3 only

• (b) 1 and 2 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution : A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While NJJM is the apex body, it operates under the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation, Ministry of Jal Shakti, not directly under the PMO. Statement 2 is incorrect. The roles described are overly simplified and potentially reversed or mixed. While SWSM handles state-level coordination and DWSM operates at the district level, the specific functions mentioned (SWSM only finance, DWSM only technical approval) are not fully accurate depictions of their comprehensive roles which involve planning, implementation support, monitoring etc., across various dimensions. The Paani Samiti has the primary role for in-village planning and management. Statement 3 is correct. The official JJM website explicitly states that the Paani Samiti / Village Water Sanitation Committee (VWSC), as a sub-committee of the Gram Panchayat (GP), is responsible for planning, implementation, management, operation, and maintenance of the in-village water supply infrastructure. This highlights the community-centric approach of the mission.

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While NJJM is the apex body, it operates under the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation, Ministry of Jal Shakti, not directly under the PMO.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The roles described are overly simplified and potentially reversed or mixed. While SWSM handles state-level coordination and DWSM operates at the district level, the specific functions mentioned (SWSM only finance, DWSM only technical approval) are not fully accurate depictions of their comprehensive roles which involve planning, implementation support, monitoring etc., across various dimensions. The Paani Samiti has the primary role for in-village planning and management.

• Statement 3 is correct. The official JJM website explicitly states that the Paani Samiti / Village Water Sanitation Committee (VWSC), as a sub-committee of the Gram Panchayat (GP), is responsible for planning, implementation, management, operation, and maintenance of the in-village water supply infrastructure. This highlights the community-centric approach of the mission.

Solution : A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While NJJM is the apex body, it operates under the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation, Ministry of Jal Shakti, not directly under the PMO.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements comparing the components of the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan (PM-KUSUM) scheme: Component A focuses on grid-connected solar power plants on barren land, with DISCOMs purchasing power at a Feed-in-Tariff (FiT), while Component C involves solarisation of existing grid-connected agricultural pumps, potentially using CAPEX or RESCO models. Central Financial Assistance (CFA) under Component B (standalone solar pumps) and Component C (solarisation of grid-connected pumps) is fixed at 30% of the benchmark cost for all states, with the remaining cost borne equally by the state government and the farmer. Procurement of power under Component A provides a Performance Based Incentive (PBI) to DISCOMs for the first five years, whereas under Component C (Feeder Level Solarisation – FLS), CFA is provided upfront (partially in CAPEX mode, fully post-commissioning in RESCO mode) to DISCOMs/developers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution : A Statement 1 is correct. Component A involves setting up decentralized grid-connected solar power plants (up to 2 MW) on barren land, with DISCOMs purchasing power at a FiT determined by the State Electricity Regulatory Commission (SERC). Component C involves the solarisation of existing grid-connected agricultural pumps. The guidelines mention implementation under Component C (feeder level solarisation – FLS) can be via CAPEX or RESCO modes. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the standard CFA for Components B and C is 30% of the benchmark cost or tender cost (whichever is lower), and the state subsidy is typically 30% (leaving 40% for the farmer), there’s a different pattern for North Eastern States, Sikkim, J&K, Himachal, Uttarakhand, Lakshadweep, and A&N Islands. For these regions, the CFA is 50%, state subsidy 30%, leaving only 20% for the farmer. Therefore, the CFA is not fixed at 30% for all states. Statement 3 is correct. Component A guidelines mention a PBI of ₹0.40/kWh or ₹6.60 lakhs/MW/year (whichever is less) payable to DISCOMs for the first five years for purchasing power. Component C (FLS) guidelines detail the release of CFA: In CAPEX mode, 40% advance CFA is released post-tendering, balance on commissioning. In RESCO mode, 100% eligible CFA is released post-commissioning to the developer via DISCOM. This contrasts with the PBI mechanism in Component A. Incorrect Solution : A Statement 1 is correct. Component A involves setting up decentralized grid-connected solar power plants (up to 2 MW) on barren land, with DISCOMs purchasing power at a FiT determined by the State Electricity Regulatory Commission (SERC). Component C involves the solarisation of existing grid-connected agricultural pumps. The guidelines mention implementation under Component C (feeder level solarisation – FLS) can be via CAPEX or RESCO modes. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the standard CFA for Components B and C is 30% of the benchmark cost or tender cost (whichever is lower), and the state subsidy is typically 30% (leaving 40% for the farmer), there’s a different pattern for North Eastern States, Sikkim, J&K, Himachal, Uttarakhand, Lakshadweep, and A&N Islands. For these regions, the CFA is 50%, state subsidy 30%, leaving only 20% for the farmer. Therefore, the CFA is not fixed at 30% for all states. Statement 3 is correct. Component A guidelines mention a PBI of ₹0.40/kWh or ₹6.60 lakhs/MW/year (whichever is less) payable to DISCOMs for the first five years for purchasing power. Component C (FLS) guidelines detail the release of CFA: In CAPEX mode, 40% advance CFA is released post-tendering, balance on commissioning. In RESCO mode, 100% eligible CFA is released post-commissioning to the developer via DISCOM. This contrasts with the PBI mechanism in Component A.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements comparing the components of the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan (PM-KUSUM) scheme:

• Component A focuses on grid-connected solar power plants on barren land, with DISCOMs purchasing power at a Feed-in-Tariff (FiT), while Component C involves solarisation of existing grid-connected agricultural pumps, potentially using CAPEX or RESCO models.

• Central Financial Assistance (CFA) under Component B (standalone solar pumps) and Component C (solarisation of grid-connected pumps) is fixed at 30% of the benchmark cost for all states, with the remaining cost borne equally by the state government and the farmer.

• Procurement of power under Component A provides a Performance Based Incentive (PBI) to DISCOMs for the first five years, whereas under Component C (Feeder Level Solarisation – FLS), CFA is provided upfront (partially in CAPEX mode, fully post-commissioning in RESCO mode) to DISCOMs/developers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution : A

• Statement 1 is correct. Component A involves setting up decentralized grid-connected solar power plants (up to 2 MW) on barren land, with DISCOMs purchasing power at a FiT determined by the State Electricity Regulatory Commission (SERC). Component C involves the solarisation of existing grid-connected agricultural pumps. The guidelines mention implementation under Component C (feeder level solarisation – FLS) can be via CAPEX or RESCO modes. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the standard CFA for Components B and C is 30% of the benchmark cost or tender cost (whichever is lower), and the state subsidy is typically 30% (leaving 40% for the farmer), there’s a different pattern for North Eastern States, Sikkim, J&K, Himachal, Uttarakhand, Lakshadweep, and A&N Islands. For these regions, the CFA is 50%, state subsidy 30%, leaving only 20% for the farmer. Therefore, the CFA is not fixed at 30% for all states. Statement 3 is correct. Component A guidelines mention a PBI of ₹0.40/kWh or ₹6.60 lakhs/MW/year (whichever is less) payable to DISCOMs for the first five years for purchasing power. Component C (FLS) guidelines detail the release of CFA: In CAPEX mode, 40% advance CFA is released post-tendering, balance on commissioning. In RESCO mode, 100% eligible CFA is released post-commissioning to the developer via DISCOM. This contrasts with the PBI mechanism in Component A.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. While the standard CFA for Components B and C is 30% of the benchmark cost or tender cost (whichever is lower), and the state subsidy is typically 30% (leaving 40% for the farmer), there’s a different pattern for North Eastern States, Sikkim, J&K, Himachal, Uttarakhand, Lakshadweep, and A&N Islands. For these regions, the CFA is 50%, state subsidy 30%, leaving only 20% for the farmer. Therefore, the CFA is not fixed at 30% for all states.

• Statement 3 is correct. Component A guidelines mention a PBI of ₹0.40/kWh or ₹6.60 lakhs/MW/year (whichever is less) payable to DISCOMs for the first five years for purchasing power. Component C (FLS) guidelines detail the release of CFA: In CAPEX mode, 40% advance CFA is released post-tendering, balance on commissioning. In RESCO mode, 100% eligible CFA is released post-commissioning to the developer via DISCOM. This contrasts with the PBI mechanism in Component A.

Solution : A

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the National Health Mission (NHM): NHM is an overarching mission comprising two sub-missions: the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) focusing exclusively on primary healthcare in rural areas, and the National Urban Health Mission (NUHM) focusing exclusively on tertiary care in urban areas. Funding under NHM is channelled through distinct flexipools, including separate flexipools for NRHM-RCH and NUHM, alongside specific pools for Communicable Diseases and Non-Communicable Diseases. The achievement goals under NHM, such as reducing MMR to 1/1000 live births and IMR to 25/1000 live births, are uniform national targets applied identically to all states irrespective of their baseline health indicators. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. While NHM comprises NRHM and NUHM, their focus is not exclusively primary (rural) and tertiary (urban). Both aim to provide universal access to equitable, affordable, and quality healthcare services, encompassing a range of care levels including strengthening health systems and addressing RMNCH+A, communicable, and non-communicable diseases in their respective domains (rural and urban). Statement 2 is correct. The NHM framework explicitly mentions six financing components, which include distinct flexipools: (i) NRHM-RCH Flexipool, (ii) NUHM Flexipool, (iii) Flexible pool for Communicable disease, (iv) Flexible pool for Non-communicable disease including Injury and Trauma, (v) Infrastructure Maintenance, and (vi) Family Welfare Central Sector component. Statement 3 is incorrect. While national goals like reducing MMR and IMR are set, the NHM framework acknowledges that specific goals for states will be based on their existing levels, capacity, and context. State-specific innovations are encouraged, and targets for diseases are set at the state level based on local epidemiology and available financing. The goals are not applied identically irrespective of baseline indicators. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. While NHM comprises NRHM and NUHM, their focus is not exclusively primary (rural) and tertiary (urban). Both aim to provide universal access to equitable, affordable, and quality healthcare services, encompassing a range of care levels including strengthening health systems and addressing RMNCH+A, communicable, and non-communicable diseases in their respective domains (rural and urban). Statement 2 is correct. The NHM framework explicitly mentions six financing components, which include distinct flexipools: (i) NRHM-RCH Flexipool, (ii) NUHM Flexipool, (iii) Flexible pool for Communicable disease, (iv) Flexible pool for Non-communicable disease including Injury and Trauma, (v) Infrastructure Maintenance, and (vi) Family Welfare Central Sector component. Statement 3 is incorrect. While national goals like reducing MMR and IMR are set, the NHM framework acknowledges that specific goals for states will be based on their existing levels, capacity, and context. State-specific innovations are encouraged, and targets for diseases are set at the state level based on local epidemiology and available financing. The goals are not applied identically irrespective of baseline indicators.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the National Health Mission (NHM):

• NHM is an overarching mission comprising two sub-missions: the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) focusing exclusively on primary healthcare in rural areas, and the National Urban Health Mission (NUHM) focusing exclusively on tertiary care in urban areas.

• Funding under NHM is channelled through distinct flexipools, including separate flexipools for NRHM-RCH and NUHM, alongside specific pools for Communicable Diseases and Non-Communicable Diseases.

• The achievement goals under NHM, such as reducing MMR to 1/1000 live births and IMR to 25/1000 live births, are uniform national targets applied identically to all states irrespective of their baseline health indicators.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 2 only

• (b) 1 and 2 only

• (c) 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While NHM comprises NRHM and NUHM, their focus is not exclusively primary (rural) and tertiary (urban). Both aim to provide universal access to equitable, affordable, and quality healthcare services, encompassing a range of care levels including strengthening health systems and addressing RMNCH+A, communicable, and non-communicable diseases in their respective domains (rural and urban).

• Statement 2 is correct. The NHM framework explicitly mentions six financing components, which include distinct flexipools: (i) NRHM-RCH Flexipool, (ii) NUHM Flexipool, (iii) Flexible pool for Communicable disease, (iv) Flexible pool for Non-communicable disease including Injury and Trauma, (v) Infrastructure Maintenance, and (vi) Family Welfare Central Sector component.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. While national goals like reducing MMR and IMR are set, the NHM framework acknowledges that specific goals for states will be based on their existing levels, capacity, and context. State-specific innovations are encouraged, and targets for diseases are set at the state level based on local epidemiology and available financing. The goals are not applied identically irrespective of baseline indicators.

Solution: A

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Which of the following statements most accurately reflects the core principles and objectives of the Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan? It is primarily an infrastructure development scheme focused on building new schools from pre-school to senior secondary levels. It integrates the erstwhile Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA) and Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA) but keeps Teacher Education as a separate centrally managed component. The scheme shifts focus from project-specific objectives to improving system-level performance and equitable learning outcomes, treating the school as a continuum from pre-school to Class 12. Funding allocation to states under the scheme is based solely on student enrolment numbers to ensure per-capita equity. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. While infrastructure development is an intervention under the scheme , it is not the primary focus. The broader goal is improving school effectiveness, quality education, and learning outcomes. Statement 2 is incorrect. Samagra Shiksha integrates SSA, RMSA, and Teacher Education into a single scheme. This integration aims to facilitate effective convergence and linkages, with SCERTs becoming nodal agencies for unified in-service training. Statement 3 is correct. The scheme explicitly marks a shift in focus from project objectives to improving systems level performance and schooling outcomes. It envisages the ‘school’ as a continuum from pre-school to senior secondary levels (Class 12) with the goal of ensuring inclusive and equitable quality education and enhancing learning outcomes. Statement 4 is incorrect. While student enrolment is a factor, funding allocation is based on an objective criteria that also includes committed liabilities, learning outcomes, and various performance indicators, not solely enrolment. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. While infrastructure development is an intervention under the scheme , it is not the primary focus. The broader goal is improving school effectiveness, quality education, and learning outcomes. Statement 2 is incorrect. Samagra Shiksha integrates SSA, RMSA, and Teacher Education into a single scheme. This integration aims to facilitate effective convergence and linkages, with SCERTs becoming nodal agencies for unified in-service training. Statement 3 is correct. The scheme explicitly marks a shift in focus from project objectives to improving systems level performance and schooling outcomes. It envisages the ‘school’ as a continuum from pre-school to senior secondary levels (Class 12) with the goal of ensuring inclusive and equitable quality education and enhancing learning outcomes. Statement 4 is incorrect. While student enrolment is a factor, funding allocation is based on an objective criteria that also includes committed liabilities, learning outcomes, and various performance indicators, not solely enrolment.

#### 7. Question

Which of the following statements most accurately reflects the core principles and objectives of the Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan?

• It is primarily an infrastructure development scheme focused on building new schools from pre-school to senior secondary levels.

• It integrates the erstwhile Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA) and Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA) but keeps Teacher Education as a separate centrally managed component.

• The scheme shifts focus from project-specific objectives to improving system-level performance and equitable learning outcomes, treating the school as a continuum from pre-school to Class 12.

• Funding allocation to states under the scheme is based solely on student enrolment numbers to ensure per-capita equity.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 3 only

• (c) 2 and 4 only

• (d) 1, 3 and 4

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While infrastructure development is an intervention under the scheme , it is not the primary focus. The broader goal is improving school effectiveness, quality education, and learning outcomes.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. Samagra Shiksha integrates SSA, RMSA, and Teacher Education into a single scheme. This integration aims to facilitate effective convergence and linkages, with SCERTs becoming nodal agencies for unified in-service training.

• Statement 3 is correct. The scheme explicitly marks a shift in focus from project objectives to improving systems level performance and schooling outcomes. It envisages the ‘school’ as a continuum from pre-school to senior secondary levels (Class 12) with the goal of ensuring inclusive and equitable quality education and enhancing learning outcomes.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. While student enrolment is a factor, funding allocation is based on an objective criteria that also includes committed liabilities, learning outcomes, and various performance indicators, not solely enrolment.

Solution: B

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India: The CAG’s audit mandate primarily encompasses Financial Audit and Compliance Audit, ensuring adherence to rules and fair presentation of financial statements, but excludes Performance Audit which assesses economy, efficiency, and effectiveness. The CAG acts as a member of the Public Accounts Committee (PAC) and participates in its voting procedures to guide its examination of audit reports. While CAG reports on Union accounts are submitted to the President for placement before Parliament, the PAC’s examination of these reports is the final step, and its recommendations are binding on the government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) None Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The CAG’s functions include examinations into economy, efficiency, and effectiveness (Performance Audit) with which the government uses its resources. This is considered inbuilt in the CAG’s DPC Act, 1971, and is a key aspect of modern government auditing, alongside Financial and Compliance audits. Traditional audit focused on regularity and propriety, but the scope has expanded. Statement 2 is incorrect. The CAG acts as a “guide, friend and philosopher” to the PAC. CAG officials assist the committee and may attend meetings to explain findings , but the CAG is not a member of the PAC and does not participate in its voting. Statement 3 is incorrect. While CAG reports are submitted to the President/Governor and laid before Parliament/Legislature , and the PAC examines these reports , the PAC’s recommendations are advisory in nature and not legally binding on the government. The government is expected to respond and take action, but it is not mandatory. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The CAG’s functions include examinations into economy, efficiency, and effectiveness (Performance Audit) with which the government uses its resources. This is considered inbuilt in the CAG’s DPC Act, 1971, and is a key aspect of modern government auditing, alongside Financial and Compliance audits. Traditional audit focused on regularity and propriety, but the scope has expanded. Statement 2 is incorrect. The CAG acts as a “guide, friend and philosopher” to the PAC. CAG officials assist the committee and may attend meetings to explain findings , but the CAG is not a member of the PAC and does not participate in its voting. Statement 3 is incorrect. While CAG reports are submitted to the President/Governor and laid before Parliament/Legislature , and the PAC examines these reports , the PAC’s recommendations are advisory in nature and not legally binding on the government. The government is expected to respond and take action, but it is not mandatory.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India:

• The CAG’s audit mandate primarily encompasses Financial Audit and Compliance Audit, ensuring adherence to rules and fair presentation of financial statements, but excludes Performance Audit which assesses economy, efficiency, and effectiveness.

• The CAG acts as a member of the Public Accounts Committee (PAC) and participates in its voting procedures to guide its examination of audit reports.

• While CAG reports on Union accounts are submitted to the President for placement before Parliament, the PAC’s examination of these reports is the final step, and its recommendations are binding on the government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The CAG’s functions include examinations into economy, efficiency, and effectiveness (Performance Audit) with which the government uses its resources. This is considered inbuilt in the CAG’s DPC Act, 1971, and is a key aspect of modern government auditing, alongside Financial and Compliance audits. Traditional audit focused on regularity and propriety, but the scope has expanded.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The CAG acts as a “guide, friend and philosopher” to the PAC. CAG officials assist the committee and may attend meetings to explain findings , but the CAG is not a member of the PAC and does not participate in its voting.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. While CAG reports are submitted to the President/Governor and laid before Parliament/Legislature , and the PAC examines these reports , the PAC’s recommendations are advisory in nature and not legally binding on the government. The government is expected to respond and take action, but it is not mandatory.

Solution: D

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points With reference to the National Green Tribunal (NGT) established under the NGT Act, 2010, consider the following statements: The NGT is strictly bound by the procedural rules laid down in the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, to ensure judicial consistency. The Tribunal’s jurisdiction is limited to adjudicating disputes arising directly under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, and the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 only. The NGT is explicitly mandated to apply the principles of sustainable development, the precautionary principle, and the polluter pays principle while passing orders, decisions, or awards. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The NGT Act, 2010 explicitly states that the Tribunal shall not be bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided by the principles of natural justice. Statement 2 is incorrect. The NGT’s jurisdiction extends to civil cases where a substantial question relating to the environment is involved, arising under the enactments specified in Schedule I of the NGT Act, 2010. Schedule I includes not only the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, and the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980, but also The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974; The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act, 1977; The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981; The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991; and The Biological Diversity Act, 2002. Statement 3 is correct. Section 20 of the NGT Act, 2010 mandates that the Tribunal shall, while passing any order or decision or award, apply the principles of sustainable development, the precautionary principle, and the polluter pays principle. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The NGT Act, 2010 explicitly states that the Tribunal shall not be bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided by the principles of natural justice. Statement 2 is incorrect. The NGT’s jurisdiction extends to civil cases where a substantial question relating to the environment is involved, arising under the enactments specified in Schedule I of the NGT Act, 2010. Schedule I includes not only the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, and the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980, but also The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974; The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act, 1977; The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981; The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991; and The Biological Diversity Act, 2002. Statement 3 is correct. Section 20 of the NGT Act, 2010 mandates that the Tribunal shall, while passing any order or decision or award, apply the principles of sustainable development, the precautionary principle, and the polluter pays principle.

#### 9. Question

With reference to the National Green Tribunal (NGT) established under the NGT Act, 2010, consider the following statements:

• The NGT is strictly bound by the procedural rules laid down in the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, to ensure judicial consistency.

• The Tribunal’s jurisdiction is limited to adjudicating disputes arising directly under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, and the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 only.

• The NGT is explicitly mandated to apply the principles of sustainable development, the precautionary principle, and the polluter pays principle while passing orders, decisions, or awards.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 3 only

• (b) 1 and 2 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The NGT Act, 2010 explicitly states that the Tribunal shall not be bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided by the principles of natural justice.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The NGT’s jurisdiction extends to civil cases where a substantial question relating to the environment is involved, arising under the enactments specified in Schedule I of the NGT Act, 2010. Schedule I includes not only the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, and the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980, but also The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974; The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act, 1977; The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981; The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991; and The Biological Diversity Act, 2002.

• Statement 3 is correct. Section 20 of the NGT Act, 2010 mandates that the Tribunal shall, while passing any order or decision or award, apply the principles of sustainable development, the precautionary principle, and the polluter pays principle.

Solution: A

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Consider the following functions and powers associated with the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI): Conducting audits of accounts for all listed companies similar to the CAG’s audit of government accounts. Establishing and managing the Investor Protection Fund (IPF) to directly compensate investors for losses due to market volatility. Regulating substantial acquisitions of shares and takeovers of companies. Acting as a quasi-legislative body by drafting regulations and a quasi-judicial body by passing rulings and imposing penalties. Which of the statements given above accurately describe the functions/powers of SEBI? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. SEBI regulates disclosures and ensures companies adhere to accounting standards, but it does not conduct audits of listed companies in the manner CAG audits government accounts. Statutory audits of companies are conducted by independent chartered accountants as per the Companies Act. Statement 2 is incorrect. SEBI established the Investor Protection Fund (IPF). However, the IPF compensates investors for losses due to default by a broker (intermediary failure), not for losses arising from general market volatility. The compensation limits also vary based on the exchange. Statement 3 is correct. Regulating substantial acquisitions of shares and takeovers is a key function of SEBI, governed by the SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares and Takeovers) Regulations, 2011. This ensures transparency and fairness in corporate control transactions. Statement 4 is correct. SEBI functions as a quasi-legislative body by framing regulations (like SEBI LODR, Takeover Code, etc.) and as a quasi-judicial body by conducting inquiries, passing rulings on violations, and imposing penalties. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. SEBI regulates disclosures and ensures companies adhere to accounting standards, but it does not conduct audits of listed companies in the manner CAG audits government accounts. Statutory audits of companies are conducted by independent chartered accountants as per the Companies Act. Statement 2 is incorrect. SEBI established the Investor Protection Fund (IPF). However, the IPF compensates investors for losses due to default by a broker (intermediary failure), not for losses arising from general market volatility. The compensation limits also vary based on the exchange. Statement 3 is correct. Regulating substantial acquisitions of shares and takeovers is a key function of SEBI, governed by the SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares and Takeovers) Regulations, 2011. This ensures transparency and fairness in corporate control transactions. Statement 4 is correct. SEBI functions as a quasi-legislative body by framing regulations (like SEBI LODR, Takeover Code, etc.) and as a quasi-judicial body by conducting inquiries, passing rulings on violations, and imposing penalties.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following functions and powers associated with the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI):

• Conducting audits of accounts for all listed companies similar to the CAG’s audit of government accounts.

• Establishing and managing the Investor Protection Fund (IPF) to directly compensate investors for losses due to market volatility.

• Regulating substantial acquisitions of shares and takeovers of companies.

• Acting as a quasi-legislative body by drafting regulations and a quasi-judicial body by passing rulings and imposing penalties.

Which of the statements given above accurately describe the functions/powers of SEBI?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 3 and 4 only

• (c) 1, 3 and 4 only

• (d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. SEBI regulates disclosures and ensures companies adhere to accounting standards, but it does not conduct audits of listed companies in the manner CAG audits government accounts. Statutory audits of companies are conducted by independent chartered accountants as per the Companies Act.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. SEBI established the Investor Protection Fund (IPF). However, the IPF compensates investors for losses due to default by a broker (intermediary failure), not for losses arising from general market volatility. The compensation limits also vary based on the exchange.

• Statement 3 is correct. Regulating substantial acquisitions of shares and takeovers is a key function of SEBI, governed by the SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares and Takeovers) Regulations, 2011. This ensures transparency and fairness in corporate control transactions.

• Statement 4 is correct. SEBI functions as a quasi-legislative body by framing regulations (like SEBI LODR, Takeover Code, etc.) and as a quasi-judicial body by conducting inquiries, passing rulings on violations, and imposing penalties.

Solution: B

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Bharat Climate Forum is organised by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change in collaboration with the International Energy Agency and World Bank. The Bharat Cleantech Manufacturing Platform launched by Bharat Climate Forum, supports India’s clean energy target of 500 Gigawatt by 2030. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B Bharat Climate Forum is hosted by the Centre for Indigenous Economic Understanding and Dalberg Advisors and supported by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy, International Solar Alliance and NITI Aayog. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The Bharat Cleantech Manufacturing Platform is an initiative of Bharat Climate Forum designed to enhance India’s cleantech value chains in solar, wind, hydrogen and battery storage sectors. It provides an opportunity for the Indian firms to collaborate, co-inovate by providing a platform for financing, sharing ideas, technology and resources. It is intended that the participants at the forum would be able to achieve the target of setting up of 500 gigawat of clean energy sources by 2030 in the country. Hence statement 2 is correct Incorrect Solution: B Bharat Climate Forum is hosted by the Centre for Indigenous Economic Understanding and Dalberg Advisors and supported by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy, International Solar Alliance and NITI Aayog. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The Bharat Cleantech Manufacturing Platform is an initiative of Bharat Climate Forum designed to enhance India’s cleantech value chains in solar, wind, hydrogen and battery storage sectors. It provides an opportunity for the Indian firms to collaborate, co-inovate by providing a platform for financing, sharing ideas, technology and resources. It is intended that the participants at the forum would be able to achieve the target of setting up of 500 gigawat of clean energy sources by 2030 in the country. Hence statement 2 is correct

#### 11. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Bharat Climate Forum is organised by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change in collaboration with the International Energy Agency and World Bank.

• The Bharat Cleantech Manufacturing Platform launched by Bharat Climate Forum, supports India’s clean energy target of 500 Gigawatt by 2030.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

Bharat Climate Forum is hosted by the Centre for Indigenous Economic Understanding and Dalberg Advisors and supported by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy, International Solar Alliance and NITI Aayog.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The Bharat Cleantech Manufacturing Platform is an initiative of Bharat Climate Forum designed to enhance India’s cleantech value chains in solar, wind, hydrogen and battery storage sectors.

• It provides an opportunity for the Indian firms to collaborate, co-inovate by providing a platform for financing, sharing ideas, technology and resources.

• It is intended that the participants at the forum would be able to achieve the target of setting up of 500 gigawat of clean energy sources by 2030 in the country.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Solution: B

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The Bharat Cleantech Manufacturing Platform is an initiative of Bharat Climate Forum designed to enhance India’s cleantech value chains in solar, wind, hydrogen and battery storage sectors.

• It provides an opportunity for the Indian firms to collaborate, co-inovate by providing a platform for financing, sharing ideas, technology and resources.

• It is intended that the participants at the forum would be able to achieve the target of setting up of 500 gigawat of clean energy sources by 2030 in the country.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Bhashini Initiative: The Bhashini Initiative of Ministry of Culture aims to translate prominent historical literary works to regional languages along with English in a digital format. Launched under the National Language Translation Mission, it is implemented by Digital India Corporation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B Bhashini Initiative was launched in 2022 under the National Language Translation Mission with an aim to provide Technology translation services in 22 scheduled Indian languages. It intends to enhance internet accessibility and digital services in Indian languages incorporating voice based functions and promoting content creation in diverse languages It aims to make Artificial Intelligence and Natural Language Processing resources available in the public domain to be used by Indian MSMEs, individual innovators and Startups. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The Bhashini is implemented by the Digital India BHASHINI Division, a division under Digital India Corporation, which is a Section 8 company of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology. Hence statement 2 is correct Incorrect Solution: B Bhashini Initiative was launched in 2022 under the National Language Translation Mission with an aim to provide Technology translation services in 22 scheduled Indian languages. It intends to enhance internet accessibility and digital services in Indian languages incorporating voice based functions and promoting content creation in diverse languages It aims to make Artificial Intelligence and Natural Language Processing resources available in the public domain to be used by Indian MSMEs, individual innovators and Startups. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The Bhashini is implemented by the Digital India BHASHINI Division, a division under Digital India Corporation, which is a Section 8 company of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology. Hence statement 2 is correct

#### 12. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Bhashini Initiative:

• The Bhashini Initiative of Ministry of Culture aims to translate prominent historical literary works to regional languages along with English in a digital format.

• Launched under the National Language Translation Mission, it is implemented by Digital India Corporation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

• Bhashini Initiative was launched in 2022 under the National Language Translation Mission with an aim to provide Technology translation services in 22 scheduled Indian languages.

• It intends to enhance internet accessibility and digital services in Indian languages incorporating voice based functions and promoting content creation in diverse languages

• It aims to make Artificial Intelligence and Natural Language Processing resources available in the public domain to be used by Indian MSMEs, individual innovators and Startups.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The Bhashini is implemented by the Digital India BHASHINI Division, a division under Digital India Corporation, which is a Section 8 company of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Solution: B

• Bhashini Initiative was launched in 2022 under the National Language Translation Mission with an aim to provide Technology translation services in 22 scheduled Indian languages.

• It intends to enhance internet accessibility and digital services in Indian languages incorporating voice based functions and promoting content creation in diverse languages

• It aims to make Artificial Intelligence and Natural Language Processing resources available in the public domain to be used by Indian MSMEs, individual innovators and Startups.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Scheme for Economic Empowerment of Denotified Nomadic and Semi Nomadic Communities (SEED) : It extends financial assistance to National Health Authority for providing health insurance cover to Denotified, Nomadic and Semi nomadic communities (DNT) under Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Aarogya Yojana. DNT students can avail free coaching to prepare for professional courses for job in both public and private sectors. To provide Livelihood for the communities, the scheme provides financial assistance to National Rural Livelihood Mission. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: D SEED Scheme has been launched by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment for the Welfare of Denotified Nomadic and Semi Nomadic (DNT) communities. Members of these communities do not have or have little access to medical facilities The primary objective of the scheme is to provide financial assistance to National Health Authority in Association with State Health Agencies for undertaking providing health insurance cover of Rs.5 lakh per family per year to the families as per norms of Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Aarogya Yojana. Hence statement 1 is correct A component of free coaching for DNT students has been envisaged for educational empowerment of these communities the objective is to provide free and good coaching for the DNT candidates to enable them to appear in competitive examinations and enroll in professional courses like engineering, medical, MBA for obtaining jobs in public and private sectors. Hence statement 2 is correct The primary objective of the scheme is to provide financial assistance to National Rural Livelihood Mission for undertaking institution building in Association with State Livelihoods Mission of state Governments at community level as a Livelihood initiative to enhance productivity growth in major livelihood sectors for employment generation for these communities. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: D SEED Scheme has been launched by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment for the Welfare of Denotified Nomadic and Semi Nomadic (DNT) communities. Members of these communities do not have or have little access to medical facilities The primary objective of the scheme is to provide financial assistance to National Health Authority in Association with State Health Agencies for undertaking providing health insurance cover of Rs.5 lakh per family per year to the families as per norms of Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Aarogya Yojana. Hence statement 1 is correct A component of free coaching for DNT students has been envisaged for educational empowerment of these communities the objective is to provide free and good coaching for the DNT candidates to enable them to appear in competitive examinations and enroll in professional courses like engineering, medical, MBA for obtaining jobs in public and private sectors. Hence statement 2 is correct The primary objective of the scheme is to provide financial assistance to National Rural Livelihood Mission for undertaking institution building in Association with State Livelihoods Mission of state Governments at community level as a Livelihood initiative to enhance productivity growth in major livelihood sectors for employment generation for these communities. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 13. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Scheme for Economic Empowerment of Denotified Nomadic and Semi Nomadic Communities (SEED) :

• It extends financial assistance to National Health Authority for providing health insurance cover to Denotified, Nomadic and Semi nomadic communities (DNT) under Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Aarogya Yojana.

• DNT students can avail free coaching to prepare for professional courses for job in both public and private sectors.

• To provide Livelihood for the communities, the scheme provides financial assistance to National Rural Livelihood Mission.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 2 and 3 only

• (b) 1 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

• SEED Scheme has been launched by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment for the Welfare of Denotified Nomadic and Semi Nomadic (DNT) communities.

• Members of these communities do not have or have little access to medical facilities

• The primary objective of the scheme is to provide financial assistance to National Health Authority in Association with State Health Agencies for undertaking providing health insurance cover of Rs.5 lakh per family per year to the families as per norms of Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Aarogya Yojana.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• A component of free coaching for DNT students has been envisaged for educational empowerment of these communities

• the objective is to provide free and good coaching for the DNT candidates to enable them to appear in competitive examinations and enroll in professional courses like engineering, medical, MBA for obtaining jobs in public and private sectors.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• The primary objective of the scheme is to provide financial assistance to National Rural Livelihood Mission for undertaking institution building in Association with State Livelihoods Mission of state Governments at community level as a Livelihood initiative to enhance productivity growth in major livelihood sectors for employment generation for these communities.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: D

• SEED Scheme has been launched by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment for the Welfare of Denotified Nomadic and Semi Nomadic (DNT) communities.

• Members of these communities do not have or have little access to medical facilities

Hence statement 1 is correct

• A component of free coaching for DNT students has been envisaged for educational empowerment of these communities

Hence statement 2 is correct

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Central Pay Commission is a statutory authority established by the Parliament. The Department of Expenditure is responsible for implementation of recommendations of the Pay Commission. It is not mandatory for the government to implement recommendations of a Pay Commission. The 7th pay commission recommended both minimum and maximum salary for Government employees. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C Pay commission is not a statutory body. It is appointed by the government to review and recommend changes to the salary and benefits of Government employees. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The Department of Expenditure under the Ministry of Finance is responsible for implementation of recommendations of the commission. The government is not obliged to accept recommendations of the Pay Commission; it might or might not decide to implement the recommendations. Hence statements 2 and 3 are correct The 7th pay commission recommended that a newly hired government employee at entry level would not take a minimum salary of Rs.18000 per month It also recommended to increase the maximum pay for Government employees to Rs.2.25 lakhs per month for Apex scale. Hence statement 4 is correct Incorrect Solution: C Pay commission is not a statutory body. It is appointed by the government to review and recommend changes to the salary and benefits of Government employees. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The Department of Expenditure under the Ministry of Finance is responsible for implementation of recommendations of the commission. The government is not obliged to accept recommendations of the Pay Commission; it might or might not decide to implement the recommendations. Hence statements 2 and 3 are correct The 7th pay commission recommended that a newly hired government employee at entry level would not take a minimum salary of Rs.18000 per month It also recommended to increase the maximum pay for Government employees to Rs.2.25 lakhs per month for Apex scale. Hence statement 4 is correct

#### 14. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Central Pay Commission is a statutory authority established by the Parliament.

• The Department of Expenditure is responsible for implementation of recommendations of the Pay Commission.

• It is not mandatory for the government to implement recommendations of a Pay Commission.

• The 7th pay commission recommended both minimum and maximum salary for Government employees.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

• Pay commission is not a statutory body.

• It is appointed by the government to review and recommend changes to the salary and benefits of Government employees.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The Department of Expenditure under the Ministry of Finance is responsible for implementation of recommendations of the commission.

• The government is not obliged to accept recommendations of the Pay Commission; it might or might not decide to implement the recommendations.

Hence statements 2 and 3 are correct

• The 7th pay commission recommended that a newly hired government employee at entry level would not take a minimum salary of Rs.18000 per month

• It also recommended to increase the maximum pay for Government employees to Rs.2.25 lakhs per month for Apex scale.

Hence statement 4 is correct

Solution: C

• Pay commission is not a statutory body.

• It is appointed by the government to review and recommend changes to the salary and benefits of Government employees.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The Department of Expenditure under the Ministry of Finance is responsible for implementation of recommendations of the commission.

• The government is not obliged to accept recommendations of the Pay Commission; it might or might not decide to implement the recommendations.

Hence statements 2 and 3 are correct

• The 7th pay commission recommended that a newly hired government employee at entry level would not take a minimum salary of Rs.18000 per month

• It also recommended to increase the maximum pay for Government employees to Rs.2.25 lakhs per month for Apex scale.

Hence statement 4 is correct

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points The Eastern Maritime Corridor, recently in news, connects India with : (a) Japan (b) Thailand (c) Russia (d) Singapore Correct Solution : C The Eastern Maritime Corridor is a sea route between the Indian port of Chennai and the Russian port of Vladivostok. This new route is crucial for increasing trade in sectors like crude oil, coal, fertilizers and metals with India becoming the largest importer of Russian oil. The corridor will significantly improve bilateral trade dynamics and promote economic and strategic cooperation between the two countries. The corridor is estimated to decrease transportation time between the Indian and Russian ports in the far East region by up to 40% from the present 40 days to 24 days. The present trade route between Mumbai and St Petersburg covers a distance of 8675 nautical miles ; the EMC will cover a distance of about 5600 nautical miles which is quite shorter than the current sea route via the Suez Canal. It will provide an efficient route for India to access the markets of Far East such as China and Japan. The genesis of EMC lies in collaborative efforts between India and Russia ; proactive measures taken by both the countries to explore the Northern Sea Route and EMC aims to widen Maritime corporation and trade. Hence option C is correct Incorrect Solution : C The Eastern Maritime Corridor is a sea route between the Indian port of Chennai and the Russian port of Vladivostok. This new route is crucial for increasing trade in sectors like crude oil, coal, fertilizers and metals with India becoming the largest importer of Russian oil. The corridor will significantly improve bilateral trade dynamics and promote economic and strategic cooperation between the two countries. The corridor is estimated to decrease transportation time between the Indian and Russian ports in the far East region by up to 40% from the present 40 days to 24 days. The present trade route between Mumbai and St Petersburg covers a distance of 8675 nautical miles ; the EMC will cover a distance of about 5600 nautical miles which is quite shorter than the current sea route via the Suez Canal. It will provide an efficient route for India to access the markets of Far East such as China and Japan. The genesis of EMC lies in collaborative efforts between India and Russia ; proactive measures taken by both the countries to explore the Northern Sea Route and EMC aims to widen Maritime corporation and trade. Hence option C is correct

#### 15. Question

The Eastern Maritime Corridor, recently in news, connects India with :

• (b) Thailand

• (c) Russia

• (d) Singapore

Solution : C

• The Eastern Maritime Corridor is a sea route between the Indian port of Chennai and the Russian port of Vladivostok.

• This new route is crucial for increasing trade in sectors like crude oil, coal, fertilizers and metals with India becoming the largest importer of Russian oil.

• The corridor will significantly improve bilateral trade dynamics and promote economic and strategic cooperation between the two countries.

• The corridor is estimated to decrease transportation time between the Indian and Russian ports in the far East region by up to 40% from the present 40 days to 24 days.

• The present trade route between Mumbai and St Petersburg covers a distance of 8675 nautical miles ; the EMC will cover a distance of about 5600 nautical miles which is quite shorter than the current sea route via the Suez Canal.

• It will provide an efficient route for India to access the markets of Far East such as China and Japan.

• The genesis of EMC lies in collaborative efforts between India and Russia ; proactive measures taken by both the countries to explore the Northern Sea Route and EMC aims to widen Maritime corporation and trade.

Hence option C is correct

Solution : C

• The Eastern Maritime Corridor is a sea route between the Indian port of Chennai and the Russian port of Vladivostok.

• This new route is crucial for increasing trade in sectors like crude oil, coal, fertilizers and metals with India becoming the largest importer of Russian oil.

• The corridor will significantly improve bilateral trade dynamics and promote economic and strategic cooperation between the two countries.

• The corridor is estimated to decrease transportation time between the Indian and Russian ports in the far East region by up to 40% from the present 40 days to 24 days.

• It will provide an efficient route for India to access the markets of Far East such as China and Japan.

Hence option C is correct

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding United Nations Security Council : The UN General Assembly is responsible for election of Non Permanent members of the Council. The ‘Right to Veto’ power of the Council is available only to the Permanent members. It is responsible for establishing Peacekeeping Missions globally. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C The Council has ten Non permanent members These members are elected by the United Nations General Assembly for 2 year term. Each year the General Assembly elects five non permanent members for a two year term. United Nations Security Council is one of the six major organs of the United Nations It is aimed at maintaining international peace and security. It has 15 members and each member has one vote. The five permanent members at present are United States, United Kingdom, Russia, France and China These five permanent members hold veto power which allows them to block any substantive resolution. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct The Security Council is responsible for authorising and establishing Peacekeeping Missions. It determines when and where such a mission should be deployed as well as its mandate. The UN Secretary General is then responsible for organising and implementing these missions. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: C The Council has ten Non permanent members These members are elected by the United Nations General Assembly for 2 year term. Each year the General Assembly elects five non permanent members for a two year term. United Nations Security Council is one of the six major organs of the United Nations It is aimed at maintaining international peace and security. It has 15 members and each member has one vote. The five permanent members at present are United States, United Kingdom, Russia, France and China These five permanent members hold veto power which allows them to block any substantive resolution. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct The Security Council is responsible for authorising and establishing Peacekeeping Missions. It determines when and where such a mission should be deployed as well as its mandate. The UN Secretary General is then responsible for organising and implementing these missions. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 16. Question

Consider the following statements regarding United Nations Security Council :

• The UN General Assembly is responsible for election of Non Permanent members of the Council.

• The ‘Right to Veto’ power of the Council is available only to the Permanent members.

• It is responsible for establishing Peacekeeping Missions globally.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

• The Council has ten Non permanent members

• These members are elected by the United Nations General Assembly for 2 year term.

• Each year the General Assembly elects five non permanent members for a two year term.

• United Nations Security Council is one of the six major organs of the United Nations

• It is aimed at maintaining international peace and security.

• It has 15 members and each member has one vote.

• The five permanent members at present are United States, United Kingdom, Russia, France and China

• These five permanent members hold veto power which allows them to block any substantive resolution.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

• The Security Council is responsible for authorising and establishing Peacekeeping Missions.

• It determines when and where such a mission should be deployed as well as its mandate.

• The UN Secretary General is then responsible for organising and implementing these missions.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: C

• The Council has ten Non permanent members

• These members are elected by the United Nations General Assembly for 2 year term.

• Each year the General Assembly elects five non permanent members for a two year term.

• United Nations Security Council is one of the six major organs of the United Nations

• It is aimed at maintaining international peace and security.

• It has 15 members and each member has one vote.

• The five permanent members at present are United States, United Kingdom, Russia, France and China

• These five permanent members hold veto power which allows them to block any substantive resolution.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

• The Security Council is responsible for authorising and establishing Peacekeeping Missions.

• It determines when and where such a mission should be deployed as well as its mandate.

• The UN Secretary General is then responsible for organising and implementing these missions.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding World Tourism Organisation (WTO) : It is the only intergovernmental Tourism organisation outside the United Nations system for promotion of sustainable tourism. The General Assembly is the principal organ consisting of all full time members. India is a permanent observer of WTO. It replaced the World Tourism Alliance. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution : A The World Tourism Organisation or UN Tourism is the United Nations Agency responsible for promotion of responsible, sustainable and universally accessible tourism As the leading International Organisation in the field of tourism, it promotes tourism as a driver of economic growth, inclusive development and environmental sustainability and offers leadership and support to the sector in advancing knowledge and tourism practices worldwide. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The General Assembly is the supreme organisation of the World Tourism Organisation; it is composed of full members and associate members and meets every 2 years. Executive Council is the Organisation’s governing board. It is composed of 35 members elected by the General Assembly in a ratio of one for every 5 full members; it meets at least twice a year. Hence statement 2 is correct Holy See is the only permanent observer while Palestine is a special observer of the WTO. India is a member of WTO; it joined the organisation in 1975. Hence statement 3 is incorrect The World Tourism Alliance is a member based, non-governmental, Non-profit International Tourism Organisation based in China. Hence statement 4 is incorrect Incorrect Solution : A The World Tourism Organisation or UN Tourism is the United Nations Agency responsible for promotion of responsible, sustainable and universally accessible tourism As the leading International Organisation in the field of tourism, it promotes tourism as a driver of economic growth, inclusive development and environmental sustainability and offers leadership and support to the sector in advancing knowledge and tourism practices worldwide. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The General Assembly is the supreme organisation of the World Tourism Organisation; it is composed of full members and associate members and meets every 2 years. Executive Council is the Organisation’s governing board. It is composed of 35 members elected by the General Assembly in a ratio of one for every 5 full members; it meets at least twice a year. Hence statement 2 is correct Holy See is the only permanent observer while Palestine is a special observer of the WTO. India is a member of WTO; it joined the organisation in 1975. Hence statement 3 is incorrect The World Tourism Alliance is a member based, non-governmental, Non-profit International Tourism Organisation based in China. Hence statement 4 is incorrect

#### 17. Question

Consider the following statements regarding World Tourism Organisation (WTO) :

• It is the only intergovernmental Tourism organisation outside the United Nations system for promotion of sustainable tourism.

• The General Assembly is the principal organ consisting of all full time members.

• India is a permanent observer of WTO.

• It replaced the World Tourism Alliance.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution : A

• The World Tourism Organisation or UN Tourism is the United Nations Agency responsible for promotion of responsible, sustainable and universally accessible tourism

• As the leading International Organisation in the field of tourism, it promotes tourism as a driver of economic growth, inclusive development and environmental sustainability and offers leadership and support to the sector in advancing knowledge and tourism practices worldwide.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The General Assembly is the supreme organisation of the World Tourism Organisation; it is composed of full members and associate members and meets every 2 years.

• Executive Council is the Organisation’s governing board. It is composed of 35 members elected by the General Assembly in a ratio of one for every 5 full members; it meets at least twice a year.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Holy See is the only permanent observer while Palestine is a special observer of the WTO.

• India is a member of WTO; it joined the organisation in 1975.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• The World Tourism Alliance is a member based, non-governmental, Non-profit International Tourism Organisation based in China.

Hence statement 4 is incorrect

Solution : A

• The World Tourism Organisation or UN Tourism is the United Nations Agency responsible for promotion of responsible, sustainable and universally accessible tourism

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The General Assembly is the supreme organisation of the World Tourism Organisation; it is composed of full members and associate members and meets every 2 years.

• Executive Council is the Organisation’s governing board. It is composed of 35 members elected by the General Assembly in a ratio of one for every 5 full members; it meets at least twice a year.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Holy See is the only permanent observer while Palestine is a special observer of the WTO.

• India is a member of WTO; it joined the organisation in 1975.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• The World Tourism Alliance is a member based, non-governmental, Non-profit International Tourism Organisation based in China.

Hence statement 4 is incorrect

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points The NAKSHA Programme, recently in news, is related to : (a) Mapping of potential arsenic affected areas in the Sundarban delta region (b) Analysing Land Record system to improve urban planning in Madhya Pradesh (c) Monitoring of Mercury pollution in the states of Bihar and Jharkhand (d) Promotion of urban forestry in North Eastern states of Assam Arunachal Pradesh Correct Solution : B NAKSHA Programme or National Geospatial Knowledge based Land Survey of Urban Habitants program has been launched under the Digital India Land Record Modernisation program. Under this initiative a pilot project will be done in 152 cities including 10 towns and 9 districts in Madhya Pradesh The aim of this initiative is to analyse urban Land record system and development of comprehensive Land management system based on accurate Geospatial data. It will improve urban planning for better City Development; reduce land disputes by ensuring clear property records. Hence option B is correct Incorrect Solution : B NAKSHA Programme or National Geospatial Knowledge based Land Survey of Urban Habitants program has been launched under the Digital India Land Record Modernisation program. Under this initiative a pilot project will be done in 152 cities including 10 towns and 9 districts in Madhya Pradesh The aim of this initiative is to analyse urban Land record system and development of comprehensive Land management system based on accurate Geospatial data. It will improve urban planning for better City Development; reduce land disputes by ensuring clear property records. Hence option B is correct

#### 18. Question

The NAKSHA Programme, recently in news, is related to :

• (a) Mapping of potential arsenic affected areas in the Sundarban delta region

• (b) Analysing Land Record system to improve urban planning in Madhya Pradesh

• (c) Monitoring of Mercury pollution in the states of Bihar and Jharkhand

• (d) Promotion of urban forestry in North Eastern states of Assam Arunachal Pradesh

Solution : B

• NAKSHA Programme or National Geospatial Knowledge based Land Survey of Urban Habitants program has been launched under the Digital India Land Record Modernisation program.

• Under this initiative a pilot project will be done in 152 cities including 10 towns and 9 districts in Madhya Pradesh

• The aim of this initiative is to analyse urban Land record system and development of comprehensive Land management system based on accurate Geospatial data.

• It will improve urban planning for better City Development; reduce land disputes by ensuring clear property records.

Hence option B is correct

Solution : B

• NAKSHA Programme or National Geospatial Knowledge based Land Survey of Urban Habitants program has been launched under the Digital India Land Record Modernisation program.

• Under this initiative a pilot project will be done in 152 cities including 10 towns and 9 districts in Madhya Pradesh

• The aim of this initiative is to analyse urban Land record system and development of comprehensive Land management system based on accurate Geospatial data.

• It will improve urban planning for better City Development; reduce land disputes by ensuring clear property records.

Hence option B is correct

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Consider the following statements The World Federation for Medical Education (WFME) was established by the World Health Organisation and World Medical Association. The Indian Medical Association is affiliated to the WFME. Which of the many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution : A The World Federation for Medical Education was founded in 1972 by the World Medical Association, World Health Organisation, the regional organisations of medical schools and academic teachers and the International Federation of Medical Students Association. It is a global organisation dedicated to improve the quality of Medical Education worldwide. It has developed and published Global standards for basic, post graduate and continuing medical education as well as guidelines for distributed and distance learning in medical education. Hence statements 1 is correct The Indian Medical Association is the largest represented organisation of doctors of modern system of medicines in India that looks after interest of doctors and welding of the community at a large. In 1928 during British Era the name Indian Medical Association was coined and since then, the association has traversed a long way and has contributed substantially during the freedom struggle the Indian Medical Association in 1946 helped in organisation of the World Medical Association and thus became its founding member. The Indian Medical Association is a member of World Medical Association which founded the WFME. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution : A The World Federation for Medical Education was founded in 1972 by the World Medical Association, World Health Organisation, the regional organisations of medical schools and academic teachers and the International Federation of Medical Students Association. It is a global organisation dedicated to improve the quality of Medical Education worldwide. It has developed and published Global standards for basic, post graduate and continuing medical education as well as guidelines for distributed and distance learning in medical education. Hence statements 1 is correct The Indian Medical Association is the largest represented organisation of doctors of modern system of medicines in India that looks after interest of doctors and welding of the community at a large. In 1928 during British Era the name Indian Medical Association was coined and since then, the association has traversed a long way and has contributed substantially during the freedom struggle the Indian Medical Association in 1946 helped in organisation of the World Medical Association and thus became its founding member. The Indian Medical Association is a member of World Medical Association which founded the WFME. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

#### 19. Question

Consider the following statements

• The World Federation for Medical Education (WFME) was established by the World Health Organisation and World Medical Association.

• The Indian Medical Association is affiliated to the WFME.

Which of the many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : A

• The World Federation for Medical Education was founded in 1972 by the World Medical Association, World Health Organisation, the regional organisations of medical schools and academic teachers and the International Federation of Medical Students Association.

• It is a global organisation dedicated to improve the quality of Medical Education worldwide.

• It has developed and published Global standards for basic, post graduate and continuing medical education as well as guidelines for distributed and distance learning in medical education.

Hence statements 1 is correct

• The Indian Medical Association is the largest represented organisation of doctors of modern system of medicines in India that looks after interest of doctors and welding of the community at a large.

• In 1928 during British Era the name Indian Medical Association was coined and since then, the association has traversed a long way and has contributed substantially during the freedom struggle

• the Indian Medical Association in 1946 helped in organisation of the World Medical Association and thus became its founding member.

• The Indian Medical Association is a member of World Medical Association which founded the WFME.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Solution : A

• It is a global organisation dedicated to improve the quality of Medical Education worldwide.

• It has developed and published Global standards for basic, post graduate and continuing medical education as well as guidelines for distributed and distance learning in medical education.

Hence statements 1 is correct

• In 1928 during British Era the name Indian Medical Association was coined and since then, the association has traversed a long way and has contributed substantially during the freedom struggle

• the Indian Medical Association in 1946 helped in organisation of the World Medical Association and thus became its founding member.

• The Indian Medical Association is a member of World Medical Association which founded the WFME.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : The Fiscal Health Index (FHI) 2025 has been developed using data from the Comptroller and Auditor General of India. FHI, compiled by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, compares GDP and debt burden of all the states and Union Territories graphically, using artificial intelligence. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A The Fiscal Health Index 2025 is an assessment tool to evaluate fiscal health of states and highlights specific areas for improvement. It has been compiled using data from the Comptroller and Auditor General of India. Hence statement 1 is correct The Fiscal Health Index 2025 provides a comprehensive evaluation of Fiscal health of 18 majors states of India for 2022-23 offering data driven insight that will help in policy interventions at state level. It has been released by NITI Aayog The Index rank States based on 5 key indices : Revenue mobilization Quality of expenditure Fiscal prudence Debt index Debt sustainability Odisha leads the index with overall FHI score of 67.8 followed by Chhattisgarh and Goa. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: A The Fiscal Health Index 2025 is an assessment tool to evaluate fiscal health of states and highlights specific areas for improvement. It has been compiled using data from the Comptroller and Auditor General of India. Hence statement 1 is correct The Fiscal Health Index 2025 provides a comprehensive evaluation of Fiscal health of 18 majors states of India for 2022-23 offering data driven insight that will help in policy interventions at state level. It has been released by NITI Aayog The Index rank States based on 5 key indices : Revenue mobilization Quality of expenditure Fiscal prudence Debt index Debt sustainability Odisha leads the index with overall FHI score of 67.8 followed by Chhattisgarh and Goa. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

#### 20. Question

Consider the following statements :

• The Fiscal Health Index (FHI) 2025 has been developed using data from the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.

• FHI, compiled by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, compares GDP and debt burden of all the states and Union Territories graphically, using artificial intelligence.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

• The Fiscal Health Index 2025 is an assessment tool to evaluate fiscal health of states and highlights specific areas for improvement.

• It has been compiled using data from the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The Fiscal Health Index 2025 provides a comprehensive evaluation of Fiscal health of 18 majors states of India for 2022-23 offering data driven insight that will help in policy interventions at state level.

• It has been released by NITI Aayog

The Index rank States based on 5 key indices :

• Revenue mobilization

• Quality of expenditure

• Fiscal prudence

• Debt index

• Debt sustainability

Odisha leads the index with overall FHI score of 67.8 followed by Chhattisgarh and Goa.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Solution: A

• The Fiscal Health Index 2025 is an assessment tool to evaluate fiscal health of states and highlights specific areas for improvement.

• It has been compiled using data from the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• It has been released by NITI Aayog

The Index rank States based on 5 key indices :

• Revenue mobilization

• Quality of expenditure

• Fiscal prudence

• Debt index

• Debt sustainability

Odisha leads the index with overall FHI score of 67.8 followed by Chhattisgarh and Goa.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Vikramashila University: It had a cruciform central stupa and 208 monk cells, reflecting its architectural planning. Tibetan monk-historian Tāranātha’s accounts are primary sources about Vikramashila’s history. It specialized in Mahayana scholastic traditions like Abhidharma and Sautrāntika, avoiding Tantric practices. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Vikramashila University was constructed with a central cruciform stupa and 208 cells for monks, arranged as 52 on each side, showcasing an advanced and symmetric architectural design. Tibetan monk-historian Tāranātha (16th–17th century) is a primary historical source on Vikramashila. His writings provide vital insights into its organization, hierarchy, and scholastic legacy. Statement 3 is incorrect. Vikramashila was not primarily a Mahayana scholastic centre like Nalanda; it became a hub of Vajrayana or Tantric Buddhism. It trained scholars in Buddhist Tantra, logic, metaphysics, and occult traditions, with noted Tantric teachers like Jayabhadra and Buddhajñānapāda. Incorrect Solution: B Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Vikramashila University was constructed with a central cruciform stupa and 208 cells for monks, arranged as 52 on each side, showcasing an advanced and symmetric architectural design. Tibetan monk-historian Tāranātha (16th–17th century) is a primary historical source on Vikramashila. His writings provide vital insights into its organization, hierarchy, and scholastic legacy. Statement 3 is incorrect. Vikramashila was not primarily a Mahayana scholastic centre like Nalanda; it became a hub of Vajrayana or Tantric Buddhism. It trained scholars in Buddhist Tantra, logic, metaphysics, and occult traditions, with noted Tantric teachers like Jayabhadra and Buddhajñānapāda.

#### 21. Question

Consider the following statements about Vikramashila University:

• It had a cruciform central stupa and 208 monk cells, reflecting its architectural planning.

• Tibetan monk-historian Tāranātha’s accounts are primary sources about Vikramashila’s history.

• It specialized in Mahayana scholastic traditions like Abhidharma and Sautrāntika, avoiding Tantric practices.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Vikramashila University was constructed with a central cruciform stupa and 208 cells for monks, arranged as 52 on each side, showcasing an advanced and symmetric architectural design.

Tibetan monk-historian Tāranātha (16th–17th century) is a primary historical source on Vikramashila. His writings provide vital insights into its organization, hierarchy, and scholastic legacy.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Vikramashila was not primarily a Mahayana scholastic centre like Nalanda; it became a hub of Vajrayana or Tantric Buddhism. It trained scholars in Buddhist Tantra, logic, metaphysics, and occult traditions, with noted Tantric teachers like Jayabhadra and Buddhajñānapāda.

Solution: B

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding African-Asian Rural Development Organization (AARDO): The African-Asian Rural Development Organization was established in Cairo but is permanently headquartered in New Delhi. The 21st AARDO Conference was hosted by Egypt, reaffirming commitment to North-South cooperation in rural policy. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. AARDO was established through its Constitution adopted in Cairo in 1962, but its permanent headquarters has been located in New Delhi since 1966. This intergovernmental body emerged from early Afro-Asian rural reconstruction efforts, notably the 1961 Delhi Conference. Statement 2 is incorrect. The 21st AARDO Conference was recently hosted by India in New Delhi, not Egypt. Moreover, AARDO is a platform focused on South-South cooperation, not North-South cooperation. South-South refers to collaboration among developing nations of Africa and Asia, emphasizing mutual learning, technical exchange, and capacity building. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. AARDO was established through its Constitution adopted in Cairo in 1962, but its permanent headquarters has been located in New Delhi since 1966. This intergovernmental body emerged from early Afro-Asian rural reconstruction efforts, notably the 1961 Delhi Conference. Statement 2 is incorrect. The 21st AARDO Conference was recently hosted by India in New Delhi, not Egypt. Moreover, AARDO is a platform focused on South-South cooperation, not North-South cooperation. South-South refers to collaboration among developing nations of Africa and Asia, emphasizing mutual learning, technical exchange, and capacity building.

#### 22. Question

Consider the following statements regarding African-Asian Rural Development Organization (AARDO):

• The African-Asian Rural Development Organization was established in Cairo but is permanently headquartered in New Delhi.

• The 21st AARDO Conference was hosted by Egypt, reaffirming commitment to North-South cooperation in rural policy.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. AARDO was established through its Constitution adopted in Cairo in 1962, but its permanent headquarters has been located in New Delhi since 1966. This intergovernmental body emerged from early Afro-Asian rural reconstruction efforts, notably the 1961 Delhi Conference.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The 21st AARDO Conference was recently hosted by India in New Delhi, not Egypt. Moreover, AARDO is a platform focused on South-South cooperation, not North-South cooperation. South-South refers to collaboration among developing nations of Africa and Asia, emphasizing mutual learning, technical exchange, and capacity building.

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Dokra metal craft: Statement I: Dokra artifacts cannot be mass-produced through industrial techniques. Statement II: The traditional lost-wax casting method used in Dokra destroys the mould after a single use. Which of the following is correct with reference to above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Dokra metal craft follows the lost-wax technique, where the wax model is melted out and the clay mould is broken post-casting. This ensures that each product is unique, but it also means the process is non-replicable and time-consuming, preventing mass production. Thus, Statement I is correct, and so is the Statement II which logically explains the assertion. The destruction of the mould inherently limits reproduction, upholding both aesthetic uniqueness and economic limitation for scale-based manufacturing. Incorrect Solution: A Dokra metal craft follows the lost-wax technique, where the wax model is melted out and the clay mould is broken post-casting. This ensures that each product is unique, but it also means the process is non-replicable and time-consuming, preventing mass production. Thus, Statement I is correct, and so is the Statement II which logically explains the assertion. The destruction of the mould inherently limits reproduction, upholding both aesthetic uniqueness and economic limitation for scale-based manufacturing.

#### 23. Question

Consider the following statements about Dokra metal craft:

Statement I: Dokra artifacts cannot be mass-produced through industrial techniques.

Statement II: The traditional lost-wax casting method used in Dokra destroys the mould after a single use.

Which of the following is correct with reference to above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

Dokra metal craft follows the lost-wax technique, where the wax model is melted out and the clay mould is broken post-casting. This ensures that each product is unique, but it also means the process is non-replicable and time-consuming, preventing mass production.

Thus, Statement I is correct, and so is the Statement II which logically explains the assertion. The destruction of the mould inherently limits reproduction, upholding both aesthetic uniqueness and economic limitation for scale-based manufacturing.

Solution: A

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Under the Extradition Act, 1962, individuals can be extradited from India even in the absence of a bilateral treaty. Extradition is permissible for all crimes, including political offenses and civil disputes. The “Rule of Specialty” allows the extraditing country to try the fugitive for any additional crimes after extradition. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. The Extradition Act, 1962 governs both treaty-based and non-treaty extradition. Even if no formal treaty exists, India can proceed with extradition based on mutual agreements or arrangements, provided legal and diplomatic channels are satisfied. Statement 2 is incorrect. Extradition under Indian law excludes political offenses and civil disputes. The Act specifically prohibits extradition for political motives, and the “dual criminality” principle applies—meaning the act must be recognized as a crime in both jurisdictions. Additionally, human rights considerations may prevent extradition if there is a risk of torture or an unfair trial. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Rule of Specialty prohibits prosecution of the extradited person for any offense other than the one for which extradition was granted, unless the extraditing country consents. Hence, this protects the rights of the accused. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. The Extradition Act, 1962 governs both treaty-based and non-treaty extradition. Even if no formal treaty exists, India can proceed with extradition based on mutual agreements or arrangements, provided legal and diplomatic channels are satisfied. Statement 2 is incorrect. Extradition under Indian law excludes political offenses and civil disputes. The Act specifically prohibits extradition for political motives, and the “dual criminality” principle applies—meaning the act must be recognized as a crime in both jurisdictions. Additionally, human rights considerations may prevent extradition if there is a risk of torture or an unfair trial. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Rule of Specialty prohibits prosecution of the extradited person for any offense other than the one for which extradition was granted, unless the extraditing country consents. Hence, this protects the rights of the accused.

#### 24. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Under the Extradition Act, 1962, individuals can be extradited from India even in the absence of a bilateral treaty.

• Extradition is permissible for all crimes, including political offenses and civil disputes.

• The “Rule of Specialty” allows the extraditing country to try the fugitive for any additional crimes after extradition.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 3 only

• (d) 1 and 3 only

Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. The Extradition Act, 1962 governs both treaty-based and non-treaty extradition. Even if no formal treaty exists, India can proceed with extradition based on mutual agreements or arrangements, provided legal and diplomatic channels are satisfied.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Extradition under Indian law excludes political offenses and civil disputes. The Act specifically prohibits extradition for political motives, and the “dual criminality” principle applies—meaning the act must be recognized as a crime in both jurisdictions. Additionally, human rights considerations may prevent extradition if there is a risk of torture or an unfair trial.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The Rule of Specialty prohibits prosecution of the extradited person for any offense other than the one for which extradition was granted, unless the extraditing country consents. Hence, this protects the rights of the accused.

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Under the Mutual Credit Guarantee Scheme for MSMEs (MCGS-MSME), which of the following entities provides the guarantee coverage to Member Lending Institutions? (a) Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) (b) National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company Limited (NCGTC) (c) Reserve Bank of India (RBI) (d) Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises (CGTMSE) Correct Solution: B The Mutual Credit Guarantee Scheme (MCGS) is operated by the National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company Limited (NCGTC), a wholly owned company of the Department of Financial Services (DFS). It provides a 60% guarantee to Member Lending Institutions (MLIs) such as banks and NBFCs that extend loans to eligible MSMEs under the scheme. NCGTC’s role is critical to reduce credit risk for lenders, thereby improving credit flow to the MSME manufacturing sector, which contributes nearly 30% of GDP and 45% of exports. This scheme aligns with the Atmanirbhar Bharat vision and fulfills a key Budget 2024–25 announcement. Incorrect Solution: B The Mutual Credit Guarantee Scheme (MCGS) is operated by the National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company Limited (NCGTC), a wholly owned company of the Department of Financial Services (DFS). It provides a 60% guarantee to Member Lending Institutions (MLIs) such as banks and NBFCs that extend loans to eligible MSMEs under the scheme. NCGTC’s role is critical to reduce credit risk for lenders, thereby improving credit flow to the MSME manufacturing sector, which contributes nearly 30% of GDP and 45% of exports. This scheme aligns with the Atmanirbhar Bharat vision and fulfills a key Budget 2024–25 announcement.

#### 25. Question

Under the Mutual Credit Guarantee Scheme for MSMEs (MCGS-MSME), which of the following entities provides the guarantee coverage to Member Lending Institutions?

• (a) Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)

• (b) National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company Limited (NCGTC)

• (c) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

• (d) Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises (CGTMSE)

Solution: B The Mutual Credit Guarantee Scheme (MCGS) is operated by the National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company Limited (NCGTC), a wholly owned company of the Department of Financial Services (DFS).

• It provides a 60% guarantee to Member Lending Institutions (MLIs) such as banks and NBFCs that extend loans to eligible MSMEs under the scheme.

• NCGTC’s role is critical to reduce credit risk for lenders, thereby improving credit flow to the MSME manufacturing sector, which contributes nearly 30% of GDP and 45% of exports.

• This scheme aligns with the Atmanirbhar Bharat vision and fulfills a key Budget 2024–25 announcement.

• It provides a 60% guarantee to Member Lending Institutions (MLIs) such as banks and NBFCs that extend loans to eligible MSMEs under the scheme.

• This scheme aligns with the Atmanirbhar Bharat vision and fulfills a key Budget 2024–25 announcement.

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points The hundred metre sprint is no longer a race where eight fast runners do a lot of training and then line up to see who can go the fastest on the day. Now that the fastest male runners in the world are regularly running the distance in less than ten seconds, the training and preparation to make the difference in those milliseconds that separate runners is complex. Jim Hines from the USA was the first to break the 10-second barrier in 1968, with very few over the years that followed being able to match him. Until the second decade of this century almost a third of those who did manage it were found to be using performance enhancing drugs. Now fifty people have broken ten seconds in the last five years. But none have been able to match Jamaican Usain Bolt’s 2009 record of 9.58 seconds. Will it ever happen? Scientists are still trying to understand how the top runners in the world who manage these incredible speeds are actually able to do it. Longer steps seems like an obvious way to move faster. But to do this, the athlete needs to produce nearly five times their body weight in force and touch the ground for just milliseconds. The way very fast sprinters do it is by keeping their leg stiff and pushing it hard into the ground on impact. This can make an enormous difference in sprint speeds as slower sprinters only use little more than three times their body weight when doing the same thing. The problem is that the impact time of the foot is less than a tenth of a second and motor skills like this cannot be consciously managed. A hundred-metre sprinter works on autopilot, and it seems that trying to consciously think about movement during a race slows the runner down. So, focusing on foot position and force needs to be done repeatedly in training until it becomes automatic. Then the conscious brain can take a step back during a race. Diet plays a major part. As the size of a runner is an important factor in creating force, the sprinter needs to increase muscle mass and power and have a low fat ratio. The way to build muscle mass and the strength to go with it, is to do lots of weight bearing exercise. Though running is weight bearing, it is inefficient for building muscles compared to getting into the gym and lifting weights. Recent studies have shown the optimum way to build muscle and reduce body fat is to have a diet high in healthy fats, moderate in protein and minimal in carbohydrates. This may mean having more than half the calorific intake in the form of healthy fats. Mental skills should not be overlooked. Comparing athletes in peak physical condition, studies have found that the mental state can make up to 80 per cent of the difference between the performance of competitors. The ability to set goals forms a part of this and commitment to training is another part. But when it comes to the actual day of the race, there are psychological tools that can be used. Creating a mental image of how the race will be run and won has long been shown to be extremely effective, yet studies have also been done on pre-race visualization of happy memories. Inducing such emotions has also been shown to significantly improve running times. All these factors might be combined to enable sprinters to run fast enough to beat Usain Bolt’s benchmark. He defied many expectations when he did it, but some calculations have shown he might have done even better. His start reaction times were slow in comparison to other runners, and this could have been corrected by physical and mental training. Perhaps his diet could have been better as his penchant for chicken nuggets is well known. Even if he had been running at altitude, as Jim Hines had been when he broke the 10-second barrier, or had the benefit of a tail wind, it has been suggested he could have run a time as fast as 9.45 seconds. Whether it be better knowledge and training, diet, mental attitude or perhaps even some genetic abnormality, the record will one day be broken. Based on the given passage, the following assumptions have been made: Physical fitness is only one component of achieving the fastest time in a sprint. Modern research could have enabled Usain Bolt to run even faster. Short steps are key to running faster as they take less time. Which of the given assumptions is/are true? a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 3 and 1 d. 1, 2 and 3 Correct Correct Option : A Justification : Statement 1 is correct because the passage shows that physical fitness, diet and mental state all play a role towards building the runner’s speed. Statement 2 is correct because the passage shows that Bolt could have optimised his training, diet, and visualisation further in order to shorten his time more. Statement 3 is incorrect because the passage shows how longer steps can cut down the time but require more force from the sprinter. Incorrect Correct Option : A Justification : Statement 1 is correct because the passage shows that physical fitness, diet and mental state all play a role towards building the runner’s speed. Statement 2 is correct because the passage shows that Bolt could have optimised his training, diet, and visualisation further in order to shorten his time more. Statement 3 is incorrect because the passage shows how longer steps can cut down the time but require more force from the sprinter.

#### 26. Question

The hundred metre sprint is no longer a race where eight fast runners do a lot of training and then line up to see who can go the fastest on the day. Now that the fastest male runners in the world are regularly running the distance in less than ten seconds, the training and preparation to make the difference in those milliseconds that separate runners is complex. Jim Hines from the USA was the first to break the 10-second barrier in 1968, with very few over the years that followed being able to match him. Until the second decade of this century almost a third of those who did manage it were found to be using performance enhancing drugs. Now fifty people have broken ten seconds in the last five years. But none have been able to match Jamaican Usain Bolt’s 2009 record of 9.58 seconds. Will it ever happen?

Scientists are still trying to understand how the top runners in the world who manage these incredible speeds are actually able to do it. Longer steps seems like an obvious way to move faster. But to do this, the athlete needs to produce nearly five times their body weight in force and touch the ground for just milliseconds. The way very fast sprinters do it is by keeping their leg stiff and pushing it hard into the ground on impact. This can make an enormous difference in sprint speeds as slower sprinters only use little more than three times their body weight when doing the same thing. The problem is that the impact time of the foot is less than a tenth of a second and motor skills like this cannot be consciously managed. A hundred-metre sprinter works on autopilot, and it seems that trying to consciously think about movement during a race slows the runner down. So, focusing on foot position and force needs to be done repeatedly in training until it becomes automatic. Then the conscious brain can take a step back during a race.

Diet plays a major part. As the size of a runner is an important factor in creating force, the sprinter needs to increase muscle mass and power and have a low fat ratio. The way to build muscle mass and the strength to go with it, is to do lots of weight bearing exercise. Though running is weight bearing, it is inefficient for building muscles compared to getting into the gym and lifting weights. Recent studies have shown the optimum way to build muscle and reduce body fat is to have a diet high in healthy fats, moderate in protein and minimal in carbohydrates. This may mean having more than half the calorific intake in the form of healthy fats.

Mental skills should not be overlooked. Comparing athletes in peak physical condition, studies have found that the mental state can make up to 80 per cent of the difference between the performance of competitors. The ability to set goals forms a part of this and commitment to training is another part. But when it comes to the actual day of the race, there are psychological tools that can be used. Creating a mental image of how the race will be run and won has long been shown to be extremely effective, yet studies have also been done on pre-race visualization of happy memories. Inducing such emotions has also been shown to significantly improve running times.

All these factors might be combined to enable sprinters to run fast enough to beat Usain Bolt’s benchmark. He defied many expectations when he did it, but some calculations have shown he might have done even better. His start reaction times were slow in comparison to other runners, and this could have been corrected by physical and mental training. Perhaps his diet could have been better as his penchant for chicken nuggets is well known. Even if he had been running at altitude, as Jim Hines had been when he broke the 10-second barrier, or had the benefit of a tail wind, it has been suggested he could have run a time as fast as 9.45 seconds. Whether it be better knowledge and training, diet, mental attitude or perhaps even some genetic abnormality, the record will one day be broken.

Based on the given passage, the following assumptions have been made:

• Physical fitness is only one component of achieving the fastest time in a sprint. Modern research could have enabled Usain Bolt to run even faster. Short steps are key to running faster as they take less time.

• Physical fitness is only one component of achieving the fastest time in a sprint.

• Modern research could have enabled Usain Bolt to run even faster.

• Short steps are key to running faster as they take less time.

Which of the given assumptions is/are true?

• a. 1 and 2

• b. 2 and 3

• c. 3 and 1

• d. 1, 2 and 3

Correct Option : A

Justification :

Statement 1 is correct because the passage shows that physical fitness, diet and mental state all play a role towards building the runner’s speed.

Statement 2 is correct because the passage shows that Bolt could have optimised his training, diet, and visualisation further in order to shorten his time more.

Statement 3 is incorrect because the passage shows how longer steps can cut down the time but require more force from the sprinter.

Correct Option : A

Justification :

Statement 1 is correct because the passage shows that physical fitness, diet and mental state all play a role towards building the runner’s speed.

Statement 2 is correct because the passage shows that Bolt could have optimised his training, diet, and visualisation further in order to shorten his time more.

Statement 3 is incorrect because the passage shows how longer steps can cut down the time but require more force from the sprinter.

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points Study the following instructions carefully and then answer the questions that follow. In this type of questions, a statement is given followed by two courses of action numbered I , II and III respectively. The candidate is required to grasp the statement, analyse the problem or policy it mentions and then decide which of the courses of action logically follows. Statement: Should the cricket team have more than one wicketkeeper in a match? Argumen(I) Yes, since if one of them gets injured other can do wicketkeeping in place of him/her.ts: (II) No, since it disturbs the balance of the side. Give Answers according to the following code: a. If only I is strong b. If only II is strong c. If neither I nor II is strong d. If both I and II are strong Correct Correct Option : A Justification : Answer A) If only I is strong Solution: Argument I seems strong as it supports that there must be more than one wicketkeeper. Argument II can be an ambiguous statement therefore it is a weak argument. Hence, the correct answer is (a). Incorrect Correct Option : A Justification : Answer A) If only I is strong Solution: Argument I seems strong as it supports that there must be more than one wicketkeeper. Argument II can be an ambiguous statement therefore it is a weak argument. Hence, the correct answer is (a).

#### 27. Question

Study the following instructions carefully and then answer the questions that follow. In this type of questions, a statement is given followed by two courses of action numbered I , II and III respectively. The candidate is required to grasp the statement, analyse the problem or policy it mentions and then decide which of the courses of action logically follows.

Statement: Should the cricket team have more than one wicketkeeper in a match?

• Argumen(I) Yes, since if one of them gets injured other can do wicketkeeping in place of him/her.ts: (II) No, since it disturbs the balance of the side.

• Argumen(I) Yes, since if one of them gets injured other can do wicketkeeping in place of him/her.ts:

• (II) No, since it disturbs the balance of the side.

Give Answers according to the following code:

• a. If only I is strong

• b. If only II is strong

• c. If neither I nor II is strong

• d. If both I and II are strong

Correct Option : A

Justification :

Answer A) If only I is strong

Argument I seems strong as it supports that there must be more than one wicketkeeper. Argument II can be an ambiguous statement therefore it is a weak argument.

Hence, the correct answer is (a).

Correct Option : A

Justification :

Answer A) If only I is strong

Argument I seems strong as it supports that there must be more than one wicketkeeper. Argument II can be an ambiguous statement therefore it is a weak argument.

Hence, the correct answer is (a).

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points Statement : Duty free technology parks where foreign firms can manufacture electronic hardware components are proposed to be established at various places in the country. Courses of action : I. Government should immediately implement the proposal to argument the foreign currency reserve by exporting the products. 2. II. Government should not implement the proposal as it will hinder indigenous production of hardware components. a. if only I follows b. if only II follows c. if either I or II follows d. if neither I nor II follows Correct Correct Option : A Justification : Answer: A) if only I follows The step discussed in the statement would surely give a boost to hardware industry and help our country to stand apart in this field. Thus, only I follows. Incorrect Correct Option : A Justification : Answer: A) if only I follows The step discussed in the statement would surely give a boost to hardware industry and help our country to stand apart in this field. Thus, only I follows.

#### 28. Question

Statement : Duty free technology parks where foreign firms can manufacture electronic hardware components are proposed to be established at various places in the country.

• Courses of action : I. Government should immediately implement the proposal to argument the foreign currency reserve by exporting the products.

2. II. Government should not implement the proposal as it will hinder indigenous production of hardware components.

• a. if only I follows

• b. if only II follows

• c. if either I or II follows

• d. if neither I nor II follows

Correct Option : A

Justification :

Answer: A) if only I follows

The step discussed in the statement would surely give a boost to hardware industry and help our country to stand apart in this field. Thus, only I follows.

Correct Option : A

Justification :

Answer: A) if only I follows

The step discussed in the statement would surely give a boost to hardware industry and help our country to stand apart in this field. Thus, only I follows.

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points Statement: Should strikes and dharanas in the field of hospital be banned? Arguments: I. Yes, it is hampering the hospital and patients are suffering a lot. 2. II. No, the employees must get their dues in proper manner a. Only argument I is strong. b. - Only argument II is strong. c. Neither I nor II is strong. d. Both I and II are strong. Correct Correct Option : D Justification : Answer – D) Both I and II are strong. Explanation Both are strong because strikes are hampering the patients. At the same time the strikes are for salaries and the doctors must be satisfied with their jobs. Incorrect Correct Option : D Justification : Answer – D) Both I and II are strong. Explanation Both are strong because strikes are hampering the patients. At the same time the strikes are for salaries and the doctors must be satisfied with their jobs.

#### 29. Question

Statement: Should strikes and dharanas in the field of hospital be banned?

Arguments: I. Yes, it is hampering the hospital and patients are suffering a lot.

2. II. No, the employees must get their dues in proper manner

• a. Only argument I is strong.

• b. - Only argument II is strong.

• c. Neither I nor II is strong.

• d. Both I and II are strong.

Correct Option : D

Justification :

Answer – D) Both I and II are strong.

Explanation

Both are strong because strikes are hampering the patients. At the same time the strikes are for salaries and the doctors must be satisfied with their jobs.

Correct Option : D

Justification :

Answer – D) Both I and II are strong.

Explanation

Both are strong because strikes are hampering the patients. At the same time the strikes are for salaries and the doctors must be satisfied with their jobs.

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points Statement: “All chocolates are bad for teeth. So why not eat the tastier ones?”— an advertisement Assumptions:I. One should eat chocolates. II. Nobody eats chocolates. Which of the following is correct? a. if only assumption I is implicit. b. if only assumption II is implicit. c. if either I or II is implicit. d. if neither I nor II is implicit. Correct Correct Option : D Justification : Answer: (d) if neither I nor II is implicit. The ad does not promote chocolate eating in general; it only says that if one eats chocolates, why not eat the tastier one? So I is not implicit. II is of course contrary to what the ad says. Incorrect Correct Option : D Justification : Answer: (d) if neither I nor II is implicit. The ad does not promote chocolate eating in general; it only says that if one eats chocolates, why not eat the tastier one? So I is not implicit. II is of course contrary to what the ad says.

#### 30. Question

Statement: “All chocolates are bad for teeth. So why not eat the tastier ones?”— an advertisement

• Assumptions:I. One should eat chocolates.

• II. Nobody eats chocolates.

Which of the following is correct?

• a. if only assumption I is implicit.

• b. if only assumption II is implicit.

• c. if either I or II is implicit.

• d. if neither I nor II is implicit.

Correct Option : D

Justification :

Answer: (d) if neither I nor II is implicit.

The ad does not promote chocolate eating in general; it only says that if one eats chocolates, why not eat the tastier one? So I is not implicit. II is of course contrary to what the ad says.

Correct Option : D

Justification :

Answer: (d) if neither I nor II is implicit.

The ad does not promote chocolate eating in general; it only says that if one eats chocolates, why not eat the tastier one? So I is not implicit. II is of course contrary to what the ad says.

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