DAY – 56 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – POLTY , PREVIOUS YEAR UPSC PAPER 2004, Insta prelims tests 35 & 36 and Oct 2023 CA

INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Which of the following statements about India-Maldives is/are correct? India has been providing the largest number of training opportunities for the Maldivian National Defence Force (MNDF). India’s Operation Cactus in 1988 was a prompt response to a coup attempt in the Maldives, fostering trust between the two countries. The 2023-2024 Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) between India and Maldives is centred around cooperation in the field of technology and education. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 1 and 2 only d) 1,2 and 3 Correct Explanation: India has been a key partner in the defence training of the Maldivian National Defence Force (MNDF). India provides the largest number of training opportunities for the MNDF, meeting around 70% of their defence training requirements. This robust training partnership underscores the close defence cooperation between India and the Maldives. Hence, statement 1 is correct. In 1988, the Maldives experienced an attempted coup, and India responded with Operation Cactus to stabilize the situation. India’s prompt intervention to restore order in the Maldives played a significant role in building trust and establishing a friendly bilateral relationship between the two countries. India’s assistance helped to demonstrate its commitment to the security and stability of the Maldives. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) signed between India and the Maldives for 2023-2024 is related to judicial cooperation. It involves the exchange of information and collaboration in the field of judicial matters, focusing on enhancing the justice system in the Maldives. This MoU is not focused on technology and education. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Explanation: India has been a key partner in the defence training of the Maldivian National Defence Force (MNDF). India provides the largest number of training opportunities for the MNDF, meeting around 70% of their defence training requirements. This robust training partnership underscores the close defence cooperation between India and the Maldives. Hence, statement 1 is correct. In 1988, the Maldives experienced an attempted coup, and India responded with Operation Cactus to stabilize the situation. India’s prompt intervention to restore order in the Maldives played a significant role in building trust and establishing a friendly bilateral relationship between the two countries. India’s assistance helped to demonstrate its commitment to the security and stability of the Maldives. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) signed between India and the Maldives for 2023-2024 is related to judicial cooperation. It involves the exchange of information and collaboration in the field of judicial matters, focusing on enhancing the justice system in the Maldives. This MoU is not focused on technology and education. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 1. Question

Which of the following statements about India-Maldives is/are correct?

• India has been providing the largest number of training opportunities for the Maldivian National Defence Force (MNDF).

• India’s Operation Cactus in 1988 was a prompt response to a coup attempt in the Maldives, fostering trust between the two countries.

• The 2023-2024 Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) between India and Maldives is centred around cooperation in the field of technology and education.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• c) 1 and 2 only

• d) 1,2 and 3

Explanation:

• India has been a key partner in the defence training of the Maldivian National Defence Force (MNDF). India provides the largest number of training opportunities for the MNDF, meeting around 70% of their defence training requirements. This robust training partnership underscores the close defence cooperation between India and the Maldives. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• In 1988, the Maldives experienced an attempted coup, and India responded with Operation Cactus to stabilize the situation. India’s prompt intervention to restore order in the Maldives played a significant role in building trust and establishing a friendly bilateral relationship between the two countries. India’s assistance helped to demonstrate its commitment to the security and stability of the Maldives. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• The Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) signed between India and the Maldives for 2023-2024 is related to judicial cooperation. It involves the exchange of information and collaboration in the field of judicial matters, focusing on enhancing the justice system in the Maldives. This MoU is not focused on technology and education. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Which of the following countries are considered under the Neighbourhood First Policy? Afghanistan Bhutan Myanmar Vietnam Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1, 2, and 3 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 2 and 4 only d) All of the above Correct Answer: a Explanation: India’s Neighbourhood First Policy is a central tenet of its foreign policy, emphasizing the importance of building strong, stable, and cooperative relationships with its immediate neighbours. The concept of the Neighbourhood First Policy emerged in 2008, reflecting India’s commitment to strengthening ties with its neighbours. This approach prioritizes a collaborative, consultative, and non-reciprocal engagement with countries in the region, seeking to enhance connectivity, infrastructure development, economic cooperation, security, and people-to-people exchanges. India’s immediate neighbourhood includes Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, China, Maldives, Myanmar, Nepal, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka. These countries share land and maritime boundaries with India and have deep civilizational links, with a shared history, culture, and extensive social connections. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: India’s Neighbourhood First Policy is a central tenet of its foreign policy, emphasizing the importance of building strong, stable, and cooperative relationships with its immediate neighbours. The concept of the Neighbourhood First Policy emerged in 2008, reflecting India’s commitment to strengthening ties with its neighbours. This approach prioritizes a collaborative, consultative, and non-reciprocal engagement with countries in the region, seeking to enhance connectivity, infrastructure development, economic cooperation, security, and people-to-people exchanges. India’s immediate neighbourhood includes Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, China, Maldives, Myanmar, Nepal, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka. These countries share land and maritime boundaries with India and have deep civilizational links, with a shared history, culture, and extensive social connections. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 2. Question

Which of the following countries are considered under the Neighbourhood First Policy?

• Afghanistan

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• a) 1, 2, and 3 only

• b) 1 and 2 only

• c) 2 and 4 only

• d) All of the above

Explanation:

• India’s Neighbourhood First Policy is a central tenet of its foreign policy, emphasizing the importance of building strong, stable, and cooperative relationships with its immediate neighbours.

• The concept of the Neighbourhood First Policy emerged in 2008, reflecting India’s commitment to strengthening ties with its neighbours. This approach prioritizes a collaborative, consultative, and non-reciprocal engagement with countries in the region, seeking to enhance connectivity, infrastructure development, economic cooperation, security, and people-to-people exchanges.

• India’s immediate neighbourhood includes Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, China, Maldives, Myanmar, Nepal, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka. These countries share land and maritime boundaries with India and have deep civilizational links, with a shared history, culture, and extensive social connections.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• India’s Neighbourhood First Policy is a central tenet of its foreign policy, emphasizing the importance of building strong, stable, and cooperative relationships with its immediate neighbours.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points The Migration and Mobility Partnership Agreement (MMPA) is between which of the following countries? a) India and France b) India and Italy c) India and Germany d) India and the United Kingdom Correct Answer: b Explanation: Migration and Mobility Partnership Agreement (MMPA) between India and Italy was signed in November 2023 during the visit of External Affairs Minister to Italy. India and Italy have excellent bilateral relations, people to people ties and historical bonds of friendship. MMPA will further strengthen our peoples’ connect and mobility. In particular, the Agreement will facilitate mobility of employed, self-employed workers, skilled workers, students, academics, researchers, business people, artists, according to identified needs of respective labour markets; thereby providing employment opportunities for Indian workers and professionals. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Migration and Mobility Partnership Agreement (MMPA) between India and Italy was signed in November 2023 during the visit of External Affairs Minister to Italy. India and Italy have excellent bilateral relations, people to people ties and historical bonds of friendship. MMPA will further strengthen our peoples’ connect and mobility. In particular, the Agreement will facilitate mobility of employed, self-employed workers, skilled workers, students, academics, researchers, business people, artists, according to identified needs of respective labour markets; thereby providing employment opportunities for Indian workers and professionals. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 3. Question

The Migration and Mobility Partnership Agreement (MMPA) is between which of the following countries?

• a) India and France

• b) India and Italy

• c) India and Germany

• d) India and the United Kingdom

Explanation:

• Migration and Mobility Partnership Agreement (MMPA) between India and Italy was signed in November 2023 during the visit of External Affairs Minister to Italy. India and Italy have excellent bilateral relations, people to people ties and historical bonds of friendship. MMPA will further strengthen our peoples’ connect and mobility.

• In particular, the Agreement will facilitate mobility of employed, self-employed workers, skilled workers, students, academics, researchers, business people, artists, according to identified needs of respective labour markets; thereby providing employment opportunities for Indian workers and professionals.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points What is the Innovation Handshake as defined in the MoU between India and the US? a) A structure that brings together various stakeholders to consider opportunities and resolve sector-specific challenges. b) A system designed to encourage technical cooperation through joint efforts and shared technologies. c) An approach to foster collaborative projects among academic entities in both countries. d) A government-to-government agreement aimed at enhancing shared practices and cultural ties. Correct Answer: a Explanation: The Innovation Handshake is a ground-breaking concept developed under the US-India Commercial Dialogue, designed to foster stronger ties between India and the United States in the realm of technology, business, and innovation. This initiative focuses on creating an open platform for dialogue among government officials, venture capitalists, entrepreneurs, and industry players to explore opportunities and address challenges in key sectors. The Innovation Handshake emerged from the broader goal of enhancing cooperation between India and the US, particularly in the context of the US-India Critical and Emerging Technology (CET) initiative. The memorandum of understanding (MoU) for the Innovation Handshake was signed in November 2023, reflecting a commitment to deepen the engagement between the two nations. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: The Innovation Handshake is a ground-breaking concept developed under the US-India Commercial Dialogue, designed to foster stronger ties between India and the United States in the realm of technology, business, and innovation. This initiative focuses on creating an open platform for dialogue among government officials, venture capitalists, entrepreneurs, and industry players to explore opportunities and address challenges in key sectors. The Innovation Handshake emerged from the broader goal of enhancing cooperation between India and the US, particularly in the context of the US-India Critical and Emerging Technology (CET) initiative. The memorandum of understanding (MoU) for the Innovation Handshake was signed in November 2023, reflecting a commitment to deepen the engagement between the two nations. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 4. Question

What is the Innovation Handshake as defined in the MoU between India and the US?

• a) A structure that brings together various stakeholders to consider opportunities and resolve sector-specific challenges.

• b) A system designed to encourage technical cooperation through joint efforts and shared technologies.

• c) An approach to foster collaborative projects among academic entities in both countries.

• d) A government-to-government agreement aimed at enhancing shared practices and cultural ties.

Explanation:

• The Innovation Handshake is a ground-breaking concept developed under the US-India Commercial Dialogue, designed to foster stronger ties between India and the United States in the realm of technology, business, and innovation. This initiative focuses on creating an open platform for dialogue among government officials, venture capitalists, entrepreneurs, and industry players to explore opportunities and address challenges in key sectors.

• The Innovation Handshake emerged from the broader goal of enhancing cooperation between India and the US, particularly in the context of the US-India Critical and Emerging Technology (CET) initiative. The memorandum of understanding (MoU) for the Innovation Handshake was signed in November 2023, reflecting a commitment to deepen the engagement between the two nations.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points When was the Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence (GPAI) launched, and how many member countries does it currently have? a) Launched in June 2020 and has 28 members b) Launched in January 2023 and has 35 members. c) Launched in June 2019 and has 24 members. d) Launched in January 2016 and has 30 members. Correct Answer: a Explanation: India is hosted the Annual Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence (GPAI) Summit from December 12 – 14, 2023. The Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence (GPAI) was launched in June 2020, marking the formal establishment of a multi-stakeholder initiative aimed at promoting the responsible development and use of artificial intelligence. As of now, GPAI has 28 members, including the European Union, indicating the broad international support for the initiative. This diverse membership reflects a global commitment to advancing AI technologies responsibly. Membership in GPAI is open to all countries, including emerging and developing countries. Its secretariat is hosted at the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD), Paris. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: India is hosted the Annual Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence (GPAI) Summit from December 12 – 14, 2023. The Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence (GPAI) was launched in June 2020, marking the formal establishment of a multi-stakeholder initiative aimed at promoting the responsible development and use of artificial intelligence. As of now, GPAI has 28 members, including the European Union, indicating the broad international support for the initiative. This diverse membership reflects a global commitment to advancing AI technologies responsibly. Membership in GPAI is open to all countries, including emerging and developing countries. Its secretariat is hosted at the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD), Paris. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 5. Question

When was the Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence (GPAI) launched, and how many member countries does it currently have?

• a) Launched in June 2020 and has 28 members

• b) Launched in January 2023 and has 35 members.

• c) Launched in June 2019 and has 24 members.

• d) Launched in January 2016 and has 30 members.

Explanation:

• India is hosted the Annual Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence (GPAI) Summit from December 12 – 14, 2023.

• The Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence (GPAI) was launched in June 2020, marking the formal establishment of a multi-stakeholder initiative aimed at promoting the responsible development and use of artificial intelligence.

• As of now, GPAI has 28 members, including the European Union, indicating the broad international support for the initiative. This diverse membership reflects a global commitment to advancing AI technologies responsibly.

• Membership in GPAI is open to all countries, including emerging and developing countries.

• Its secretariat is hosted at the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD), Paris.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• India is hosted the Annual Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence (GPAI) Summit from December 12 – 14, 2023.

• Membership in GPAI is open to all countries, including emerging and developing countries.

• Its secretariat is hosted at the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD), Paris.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Which of the following statements about Project PRAYAS are correct? It consolidates all state-level initiatives for safe and well-managed international migration. It aims to undertake a study to understand migration trends and share this analysis with the Ministry of External Affairs. It focuses primarily on providing financial support to migrants during their transition abroad. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) All of the above Correct Answer: a Explanation: Recently, the International Organisation for Migration (IOM) launched Project PRAYAS to help Indian workers and students migrate in a secure, orderly, and regular manner. The project seeks to consolidate state-level initiatives into a unified approach that strengthens international migration governance. This is achieved by coordinating efforts among state governments, central authorities, and other stakeholders involved in the migration process. Project PRAYAS aims to consolidate all state-level initiatives for safe, orderly, and well-managed international migration. This includes integrating various regional approaches to migration into a more cohesive framework. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Project PRAYAS intends to undertake a study to capture migration trends and share this analysis with the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA). The objective is to provide a better understanding of the needs and aspirations of migrants, along with the major international migration and mobility initiatives undertaken by the central and state governments. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Project PRAYAS does not primarily focus on providing financial support to migrants during their transition abroad. Its emphasis is on facilitating safe, orderly, and regular migration for Indian migrant workers and students through policy recommendations, studies, and coordination with state and central authorities. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Recently, the International Organisation for Migration (IOM) launched Project PRAYAS to help Indian workers and students migrate in a secure, orderly, and regular manner. The project seeks to consolidate state-level initiatives into a unified approach that strengthens international migration governance. This is achieved by coordinating efforts among state governments, central authorities, and other stakeholders involved in the migration process. Project PRAYAS aims to consolidate all state-level initiatives for safe, orderly, and well-managed international migration. This includes integrating various regional approaches to migration into a more cohesive framework. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Project PRAYAS intends to undertake a study to capture migration trends and share this analysis with the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA). The objective is to provide a better understanding of the needs and aspirations of migrants, along with the major international migration and mobility initiatives undertaken by the central and state governments. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Project PRAYAS does not primarily focus on providing financial support to migrants during their transition abroad. Its emphasis is on facilitating safe, orderly, and regular migration for Indian migrant workers and students through policy recommendations, studies, and coordination with state and central authorities. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 6. Question

Which of the following statements about Project PRAYAS are correct?

• It consolidates all state-level initiatives for safe and well-managed international migration.

• It aims to undertake a study to understand migration trends and share this analysis with the Ministry of External Affairs.

• It focuses primarily on providing financial support to migrants during their transition abroad.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• a) 1 and 2 only

• b) 2 and 3 only

• c) 1 and 3 only

• d) All of the above

Explanation:

• Recently, the International Organisation for Migration (IOM) launched Project PRAYAS to help Indian workers and students migrate in a secure, orderly, and regular manner.

• The project seeks to consolidate state-level initiatives into a unified approach that strengthens international migration governance. This is achieved by coordinating efforts among state governments, central authorities, and other stakeholders involved in the migration process.

• Project PRAYAS aims to consolidate all state-level initiatives for safe, orderly, and well-managed international migration. This includes integrating various regional approaches to migration into a more cohesive framework. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Project PRAYAS intends to undertake a study to capture migration trends and share this analysis with the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA). The objective is to provide a better understanding of the needs and aspirations of migrants, along with the major international migration and mobility initiatives undertaken by the central and state governments. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Project PRAYAS does not primarily focus on providing financial support to migrants during their transition abroad. Its emphasis is on facilitating safe, orderly, and regular migration for Indian migrant workers and students through policy recommendations, studies, and coordination with state and central authorities. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• Recently, the International Organisation for Migration (IOM) launched Project PRAYAS to help Indian workers and students migrate in a secure, orderly, and regular manner.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Which of the fowllowing is the anchor organization for the “Global Alliance for Global Good – Gender Equity and Equality”? a) United Nations Organisation b) Confederation of Indian Industry c) Women's World Banking d) International Labour Organization Correct Answer: b Explanation: India established the “Global Alliance for Global Good – Gender Equity and Equality” at the 54th annual World Economic Forum (WEF) in Davos, gaining full support from WEF for promoting women’s empowerment and gender equality. The alliance is a response to the G20 Summit 2023 Leaders’ Declaration and India’s commitment to women-led development. It seeks to build on the initiatives of the Engagement Group and frameworks like Business 20, Women 20, and G20 EMPOWER. The G20 Alliance for the Empowerment and Progression of Women’s Economic Representation (G20 EMPOWER) is an initiative that aims to increase women’s leadership and empowerment in the private sector. The primary objective of this new Alliance is to bring together global best practices, knowledge sharing and investments in the identified areas of women’s health, education, and enterprise. Supported by the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation, the alliance will be housed and anchored by the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) Centre for Women Leadership. The “Global Alliance for Global Good – Gender Equity and Equality” is anchored by the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) Centre for Women Leadership. This organization plays a central role in the alliance by hosting and supporting its operations, focusing on initiatives that promote gender equity and women’s empowerment in various sectors. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: India established the “Global Alliance for Global Good – Gender Equity and Equality” at the 54th annual World Economic Forum (WEF) in Davos, gaining full support from WEF for promoting women’s empowerment and gender equality. The alliance is a response to the G20 Summit 2023 Leaders’ Declaration and India’s commitment to women-led development. It seeks to build on the initiatives of the Engagement Group and frameworks like Business 20, Women 20, and G20 EMPOWER. The G20 Alliance for the Empowerment and Progression of Women’s Economic Representation (G20 EMPOWER) is an initiative that aims to increase women’s leadership and empowerment in the private sector. The primary objective of this new Alliance is to bring together global best practices, knowledge sharing and investments in the identified areas of women’s health, education, and enterprise. Supported by the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation, the alliance will be housed and anchored by the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) Centre for Women Leadership. The “Global Alliance for Global Good – Gender Equity and Equality” is anchored by the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) Centre for Women Leadership. This organization plays a central role in the alliance by hosting and supporting its operations, focusing on initiatives that promote gender equity and women’s empowerment in various sectors. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 7. Question

Which of the fowllowing is the anchor organization for the “Global Alliance for Global Good – Gender Equity and Equality”?

• a) United Nations Organisation

• b) Confederation of Indian Industry

• c) Women's World Banking

• d) International Labour Organization

Explanation:

• India established the “Global Alliance for Global Good – Gender Equity and Equality” at the 54th annual World Economic Forum (WEF) in Davos, gaining full support from WEF for promoting women’s empowerment and gender equality.

• The alliance is a response to the G20 Summit 2023 Leaders’ Declaration and India’s commitment to women-led development.

• It seeks to build on the initiatives of the Engagement Group and frameworks like Business 20, Women 20, and G20 EMPOWER.

• The G20 Alliance for the Empowerment and Progression of Women’s Economic Representation (G20 EMPOWER) is an initiative that aims to increase women’s leadership and empowerment in the private sector.

• The primary objective of this new Alliance is to bring together global best practices, knowledge sharing and investments in the identified areas of women’s health, education, and enterprise.

• Supported by the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation, the alliance will be housed and anchored by the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) Centre for Women Leadership.

• The “Global Alliance for Global Good – Gender Equity and Equality” is anchored by the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) Centre for Women Leadership. This organization plays a central role in the alliance by hosting and supporting its operations, focusing on initiatives that promote gender equity and women’s empowerment in various sectors.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• The alliance is a response to the G20 Summit 2023 Leaders’ Declaration and India’s commitment to women-led development.

• It seeks to build on the initiatives of the Engagement Group and frameworks like Business 20, Women 20, and G20 EMPOWER.

• The primary objective of this new Alliance is to bring together global best practices, knowledge sharing and investments in the identified areas of women’s health, education, and enterprise.

• Supported by the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation, the alliance will be housed and anchored by the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) Centre for Women Leadership.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Which of the following statements is correct about the National Fellowship for OBC Students under SHREYAS? a) It provides financial assistance for OBC students pursuing higher education. b) It offers financial support to OBC students pursuing undergraduate degrees. c) It provides fellowships to OBC students exclusively for research in scientific fields. d) It provides internships for OBC students in international institutions. Correct Answer: a Explanation: The scheme Scholarships for Higher Education for Young Achievers Scheme (SHREYAS), has been proposed to be implemented during the 2021-22 to 2025-26 by placing two ongoing Central Sector Schemes for OBC (Other Backward Classes) and EBC. These schemes are, National Fellowship for OBC and Dr. Ambedkar Central Sector Scheme of Interest Subsidy on Educational Loans for Overseas Studies for OBCs and Economically Backward Classes (EBCs). The National Fellowship for OBC Students under SHREYAS is designed to support OBC students pursuing higher education, specifically at the M.Phil and Ph.D. It offers financial assistance to facilitate their advanced studies and research in recognized universities, research institutions, and scientific establishments. This financial assistance is provided through Junior Research Fellowships (JRFs), with 1000 fellowships awarded annually to students who have qualified through specific tests like the UGC-NET or UGC-CSIR NET-JRF Joint Test. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: The scheme Scholarships for Higher Education for Young Achievers Scheme (SHREYAS), has been proposed to be implemented during the 2021-22 to 2025-26 by placing two ongoing Central Sector Schemes for OBC (Other Backward Classes) and EBC. These schemes are, National Fellowship for OBC and Dr. Ambedkar Central Sector Scheme of Interest Subsidy on Educational Loans for Overseas Studies for OBCs and Economically Backward Classes (EBCs). The National Fellowship for OBC Students under SHREYAS is designed to support OBC students pursuing higher education, specifically at the M.Phil and Ph.D. It offers financial assistance to facilitate their advanced studies and research in recognized universities, research institutions, and scientific establishments. This financial assistance is provided through Junior Research Fellowships (JRFs), with 1000 fellowships awarded annually to students who have qualified through specific tests like the UGC-NET or UGC-CSIR NET-JRF Joint Test. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 8. Question

Which of the following statements is correct about the National Fellowship for OBC Students under SHREYAS?

• a) It provides financial assistance for OBC students pursuing higher education.

• b) It offers financial support to OBC students pursuing undergraduate degrees.

• c) It provides fellowships to OBC students exclusively for research in scientific fields.

• d) It provides internships for OBC students in international institutions.

Explanation:

• The scheme Scholarships for Higher Education for Young Achievers Scheme (SHREYAS), has been proposed to be implemented during the 2021-22 to 2025-26 by placing two ongoing Central Sector Schemes for OBC (Other Backward Classes) and EBC.

• These schemes are, National Fellowship for OBC and Dr. Ambedkar Central Sector Scheme of Interest Subsidy on Educational Loans for Overseas Studies for OBCs and Economically Backward Classes (EBCs).

• The National Fellowship for OBC Students under SHREYAS is designed to support OBC students pursuing higher education, specifically at the M.Phil and Ph.D. It offers financial assistance to facilitate their advanced studies and research in recognized universities, research institutions, and scientific establishments.

• This financial assistance is provided through Junior Research Fellowships (JRFs), with 1000 fellowships awarded annually to students who have qualified through specific tests like the UGC-NET or UGC-CSIR NET-JRF Joint Test.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Which of the following are objectives of the NAMASTE Scheme? Zero fatalities in sanitation work in India. All sanitation work is performed by skilled workers. No sanitation workers come in direct contact with human faecal matter. Sanitation workers are collectivized into Self Help Groups (SHGs) to run sanitation enterprises. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1, 2, and 3 only d) All of the above Correct Answer: d Explanation: “National Action for Mechanized Sanitation Ecosystem” (NAMASTE) for cleaning sewers, and septic tanks (implementation from 2022 to 2026) as a Central Sector Scheme. The scheme is being undertaken jointly by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs and the Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment (MoSJE) and aims to eradicate unsafe sewer and septic tank cleaning practices. Union Budget 2023-2024 has allocated nearly Rs 100 crore for the National Action for Mechanized Sanitation Ecosystem (NAMASTE) and the government is looking to enable 100% mechanical desludging of septic tanks and sewers in all cities and towns. Objectives: Zero fatalities in sanitation work in India. All sanitation work is performed by skilled workers. No sanitation workers come in direct contact with human faecal matter. Sanitation workers are collectivised into Self Help Groups (SHGs) and are empowered to run sanitation enterprises. Strengthened supervisory and monitoring systems at National, State and Urban Local Body (ULB) levels to ensure enforcement and monitoring of safe sanitation work. Increased awareness among sanitation services seekers (individuals and institutions) to seek services from registered and skilled sanitation workers. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: “National Action for Mechanized Sanitation Ecosystem” (NAMASTE) for cleaning sewers, and septic tanks (implementation from 2022 to 2026) as a Central Sector Scheme. The scheme is being undertaken jointly by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs and the Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment (MoSJE) and aims to eradicate unsafe sewer and septic tank cleaning practices. Union Budget 2023-2024 has allocated nearly Rs 100 crore for the National Action for Mechanized Sanitation Ecosystem (NAMASTE) and the government is looking to enable 100% mechanical desludging of septic tanks and sewers in all cities and towns. Objectives: Zero fatalities in sanitation work in India. All sanitation work is performed by skilled workers. No sanitation workers come in direct contact with human faecal matter. Sanitation workers are collectivised into Self Help Groups (SHGs) and are empowered to run sanitation enterprises. Strengthened supervisory and monitoring systems at National, State and Urban Local Body (ULB) levels to ensure enforcement and monitoring of safe sanitation work. Increased awareness among sanitation services seekers (individuals and institutions) to seek services from registered and skilled sanitation workers. Hence, option (d) is correct.

#### 9. Question

Which of the following are objectives of the NAMASTE Scheme?

• Zero fatalities in sanitation work in India.

• All sanitation work is performed by skilled workers.

• No sanitation workers come in direct contact with human faecal matter.

• Sanitation workers are collectivized into Self Help Groups (SHGs) to run sanitation enterprises.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• a) 1 and 2 only

• b) 2 and 3 only

• c) 1, 2, and 3 only

• d) All of the above

Explanation:

• “National Action for Mechanized Sanitation Ecosystem” (NAMASTE) for cleaning sewers, and septic tanks (implementation from 2022 to 2026) as a Central Sector Scheme.

• The scheme is being undertaken jointly by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs and the Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment (MoSJE) and aims to eradicate unsafe sewer and septic tank cleaning practices.

• Union Budget 2023-2024 has allocated nearly Rs 100 crore for the National Action for Mechanized Sanitation Ecosystem (NAMASTE) and the government is looking to enable 100% mechanical desludging of septic tanks and sewers in all cities and towns.

• Objectives:

• Zero fatalities in sanitation work in India.

• All sanitation work is performed by skilled workers.

• No sanitation workers come in direct contact with human faecal matter.

• Sanitation workers are collectivised into Self Help Groups (SHGs) and are empowered to run sanitation enterprises.

• Strengthened supervisory and monitoring systems at National, State and Urban Local Body (ULB) levels to ensure enforcement and monitoring of safe sanitation work.

• Increased awareness among sanitation services seekers (individuals and institutions) to seek services from registered and skilled sanitation workers.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

• “National Action for Mechanized Sanitation Ecosystem” (NAMASTE) for cleaning sewers, and septic tanks (implementation from 2022 to 2026) as a Central Sector Scheme.

• Objectives:

• Zero fatalities in sanitation work in India.

• All sanitation work is performed by skilled workers.

• No sanitation workers come in direct contact with human faecal matter.

• Sanitation workers are collectivised into Self Help Groups (SHGs) and are empowered to run sanitation enterprises.

• Strengthened supervisory and monitoring systems at National, State and Urban Local Body (ULB) levels to ensure enforcement and monitoring of safe sanitation work.

• Increased awareness among sanitation services seekers (individuals and institutions) to seek services from registered and skilled sanitation workers.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points What are the primary objectives of the ‘AAINA Dashboard for Cities’? To help cities see how they are faring compared to other cities. To inspire cities by pointing to possibilities and areas of improvement. To rank Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) based on their key performance metrics. To promote peer learning among cities. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 and 2 only b) 1, 2, and 4 only c) 2 and 3 only d) All of the above Correct Answer: b Explanation: The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) launched the ‘AAINA Dashboard for Cities’ portal, offering Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) a platform to voluntarily submit key data on November, 2023. AAINA aims to help cities assess their performance relative to others. It seeks to inspire cities by highlighting possibilities and areas for enhancement. The Dashboard categorizes data into five pillars: Political & Administrative Structure, Finance, Planning, Citizen-Centric Governance, and Delivery of Basic Services. The ‘AAINA Dashboard for Cities’ is designed to help Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) see how they are faring compared to other cities. This objective is achieved by collecting and presenting key data on the dashboard, allowing cities to benchmark their performance. The dashboard also aims to inspire cities by pointing to possibilities and areas of improvement. By highlighting best practices and successful initiatives from other cities, it encourages ULBs to adopt and adapt these practices for their own improvement. The dashboard does not rank Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) based on their key performance metrics. Instead, it provides a comparison platform for similarly placed cities without explicitly ranking them, focusing on peer learning and cooperative improvement rather than competition. The ‘AAINA Dashboard for Cities’ promotes peer learning among cities. By enabling ULBs to compare themselves with others and engage with frontrunners, the dashboard fosters an environment where cities can learn from each other and collaboratively work towards better governance and service delivery. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) launched the ‘AAINA Dashboard for Cities’ portal, offering Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) a platform to voluntarily submit key data on November, 2023. AAINA aims to help cities assess their performance relative to others. It seeks to inspire cities by highlighting possibilities and areas for enhancement. The Dashboard categorizes data into five pillars: Political & Administrative Structure, Finance, Planning, Citizen-Centric Governance, and Delivery of Basic Services. The ‘AAINA Dashboard for Cities’ is designed to help Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) see how they are faring compared to other cities. This objective is achieved by collecting and presenting key data on the dashboard, allowing cities to benchmark their performance. The dashboard also aims to inspire cities by pointing to possibilities and areas of improvement. By highlighting best practices and successful initiatives from other cities, it encourages ULBs to adopt and adapt these practices for their own improvement. The dashboard does not rank Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) based on their key performance metrics. Instead, it provides a comparison platform for similarly placed cities without explicitly ranking them, focusing on peer learning and cooperative improvement rather than competition. The ‘AAINA Dashboard for Cities’ promotes peer learning among cities. By enabling ULBs to compare themselves with others and engage with frontrunners, the dashboard fosters an environment where cities can learn from each other and collaboratively work towards better governance and service delivery. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 10. Question

What are the primary objectives of the ‘AAINA Dashboard for Cities’?

• To help cities see how they are faring compared to other cities.

• To inspire cities by pointing to possibilities and areas of improvement.

• To rank Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) based on their key performance metrics.

• To promote peer learning among cities.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• a) 1 and 2 only

• b) 1, 2, and 4 only

• c) 2 and 3 only

• d) All of the above

Explanation:

• The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) launched the ‘AAINA Dashboard for Cities’ portal, offering Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) a platform to voluntarily submit key data on November, 2023.

• AAINA aims to help cities assess their performance relative to others. It seeks to inspire cities by highlighting possibilities and areas for enhancement.

• The Dashboard categorizes data into five pillars: Political & Administrative Structure, Finance, Planning, Citizen-Centric Governance, and Delivery of Basic Services.

• The ‘AAINA Dashboard for Cities’ is designed to help Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) see how they are faring compared to other cities. This objective is achieved by collecting and presenting key data on the dashboard, allowing cities to benchmark their performance.

• The dashboard also aims to inspire cities by pointing to possibilities and areas of improvement. By highlighting best practices and successful initiatives from other cities, it encourages ULBs to adopt and adapt these practices for their own improvement.

• The dashboard does not rank Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) based on their key performance metrics. Instead, it provides a comparison platform for similarly placed cities without explicitly ranking them, focusing on peer learning and cooperative improvement rather than competition.

• The ‘AAINA Dashboard for Cities’ promotes peer learning among cities. By enabling ULBs to compare themselves with others and engage with frontrunners, the dashboard fosters an environment where cities can learn from each other and collaboratively work towards better governance and service delivery.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• AAINA aims to help cities assess their performance relative to others. It seeks to inspire cities by highlighting possibilities and areas for enhancement.

• The Dashboard categorizes data into five pillars: Political & Administrative Structure, Finance, Planning, Citizen-Centric Governance, and Delivery of Basic Services.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the mRNA Vaccines: These vaccines only introduce a piece of the genetic material that corresponds to a viral protein. The mRNA in these vaccines is fragile and can be shredded apart by the body’s enzymes when injected. The major drawback of these vaccines is that they expose individuals directly to the virus itself. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Explanation: mRNA stands for messenger RNA, is a form of nucleic acid which carries genetic information. Like other vaccines, the mRNA vaccine also attempts to activate the immune system to produce antibodies that help counter an infection from a live virus. Statement 1 is correct: mRNA vaccines only introduces a piece of the genetic material that corresponds to a viral protein. This is usually a protein found on the membrane of the virus and is called spike protein. A piece of DNA must be converted into RNA for a cell to be able manufacture the spike protein. Statement 2 is correct: While an mRNA vaccine might look like a more direct approach to getting the cell to produce the necessary proteins, mRNA is very fragile and will be shred apart at room temperature or by the body’s enzymes when injected. Statement 3 is not correct: Therefore, the mRNA vaccine does not expose individuals to the virus itself. Incorrect Explanation: mRNA stands for messenger RNA, is a form of nucleic acid which carries genetic information. Like other vaccines, the mRNA vaccine also attempts to activate the immune system to produce antibodies that help counter an infection from a live virus. Statement 1 is correct: mRNA vaccines only introduces a piece of the genetic material that corresponds to a viral protein. This is usually a protein found on the membrane of the virus and is called spike protein. A piece of DNA must be converted into RNA for a cell to be able manufacture the spike protein. Statement 2 is correct: While an mRNA vaccine might look like a more direct approach to getting the cell to produce the necessary proteins, mRNA is very fragile and will be shred apart at room temperature or by the body’s enzymes when injected. Statement 3 is not correct: Therefore, the mRNA vaccine does not expose individuals to the virus itself.

#### 11. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the mRNA Vaccines:

• These vaccines only introduce a piece of the genetic material that corresponds to a viral protein.

• The mRNA in these vaccines is fragile and can be shredded apart by the body’s enzymes when injected.

• The major drawback of these vaccines is that they expose individuals directly to the virus itself.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Explanation:

mRNA stands for messenger RNA, is a form of nucleic acid which carries genetic information. Like other vaccines, the mRNA vaccine also attempts to activate the immune system to produce antibodies that help counter an infection from a live virus.

Statement 1 is correct: mRNA vaccines only introduces a piece of the genetic material that corresponds to a viral protein. This is usually a protein found on the membrane of the virus and is called spike protein.

A piece of DNA must be converted into RNA for a cell to be able manufacture the spike protein.

Statement 2 is correct: While an mRNA vaccine might look like a more direct approach to getting the cell to produce the necessary proteins, mRNA is very fragile and will be shred apart at room temperature or by the body’s enzymes when injected.

Statement 3 is not correct: Therefore, the mRNA vaccine does not expose individuals to the virus itself.

Explanation:

A piece of DNA must be converted into RNA for a cell to be able manufacture the spike protein.

Statement 3 is not correct: Therefore, the mRNA vaccine does not expose individuals to the virus itself.

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Kolleru Lake: It is a eutrophic lake between the basins of the Godavari and Krishna rivers. Its catchment area is famous for the Kurinji flowers that bloom once in 12 years. It provides habitat for migratory birds including the vulnerable Grey Pelican. How many of the statements given above is/are *not correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Kolleru Lake is a natural eutrophic lake, situated between the two major river basins of the Godavari and the Krishna, fed by two seasonal rivers and a number of drains and channels, which functions as a natural flood balancing reservoir between the deltas of the two rivers. Statement 2 is not correct: Kurinji or Strobilanthes cynthiana, which blooms once in 12 years, is found in the catchment area of Kodai Lake of Tamil Nadu, not in the Kolleru Lake. Statement 3 is correct: Kolleru Lake provides habitat for a number of resident and migratory birds, including declining numbers of the vulnerable Grey Pelican (Pelecanus philippensis), and sustains both culture and capture fisheries, agriculture and related occupations of the people in the area. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Kolleru Lake is a natural eutrophic lake, situated between the two major river basins of the Godavari and the Krishna, fed by two seasonal rivers and a number of drains and channels, which functions as a natural flood balancing reservoir between the deltas of the two rivers. Statement 2 is not correct: Kurinji or Strobilanthes cynthiana, which blooms once in 12 years, is found in the catchment area of Kodai Lake of Tamil Nadu, not in the Kolleru Lake. Statement 3 is correct:* Kolleru Lake provides habitat for a number of resident and migratory birds, including declining numbers of the vulnerable Grey Pelican (Pelecanus philippensis), and sustains both culture and capture fisheries, agriculture and related occupations of the people in the area.

#### 12. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Kolleru Lake:

• It is a eutrophic lake between the basins of the Godavari and Krishna rivers.

• Its catchment area is famous for the Kurinji flowers that bloom once in 12 years.

• It provides habitat for migratory birds including the vulnerable Grey Pelican.

How many of the statements given above is/are *not* correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Kolleru Lake is a natural eutrophic lake, situated between the two major river basins of the Godavari and the Krishna, fed by two seasonal rivers and a number of drains and channels, which functions as a natural flood balancing reservoir between the deltas of the two rivers.

Statement 2 is not correct: Kurinji or Strobilanthes cynthiana, which blooms once in 12 years, is found in the catchment area of Kodai Lake of Tamil Nadu, not in the Kolleru Lake.

Statement 3 is correct: Kolleru Lake provides habitat for a number of resident and migratory birds, including declining numbers of the vulnerable Grey Pelican (Pelecanus philippensis), and sustains both culture and capture fisheries, agriculture and related occupations of the people in the area.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 2 is not correct: Kurinji or Strobilanthes cynthiana, which blooms once in 12 years, is found in the catchment area of Kodai Lake of Tamil Nadu, not in the Kolleru Lake.

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points With reference to the Sun Temple of Modhera, consider the following statements: It is built in the Maru-gurjara architectural style as it has no gadhamandapa or Sabhamandapa. It was built in 13thcentury, in western India under the patronage of the Pratihara Dynasty. It is younger than the Konark Sun Temple but older than the Martand Sun Temple of Kashmir. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: D Explanation: The outstanding Sun Temple at Modhera is located on the left bank of the river Pushpavati, a tributary of river Rupan in Becharaji Taluka of Mehsana District of Gujarat. Modhera is called Mundera, the original settlement of the Modha Brahmans and is fabled to have been given them as a Krishnarpana on occasion of marriage of Ram and Sita. Statement 1 is not correct: The temple, built in Maru-gurjara architectural style, consists of the main temple shrine (garbhagriha), a hall (gadhamandapa), an outer hall or assembly hall (Sabhamandapa or rangamandapa) and a sacred pool (Kunda) which is now called Ramakunda. Statement 2 is not correct: It was built in the 11th century of western India under the patronage of the Solanki dynasty. The age of the temple may be inferred from its style belonging to the reign of Bhimadeva I (1022-1063 CE). Statement 3 is not correct: Along with the 8th century CE Martand Sun Temple in Kashmir and the 13th century CE Sun temple at Konark, this temple forms invaluable link in the history of diffusion of the practice of Surya worship in India, which originates in Kashmir during the 8th Century CE. The ancient Sun Temple of Modhera is older than the Konark Sun Temple in Orissa. Incorrect Answer: D Explanation: The outstanding Sun Temple at Modhera is located on the left bank of the river Pushpavati, a tributary of river Rupan in Becharaji Taluka of Mehsana District of Gujarat. Modhera is called Mundera, the original settlement of the Modha Brahmans and is fabled to have been given them as a Krishnarpana on occasion of marriage of Ram and Sita. Statement 1 is not correct: The temple, built in Maru-gurjara architectural style, consists of the main temple shrine (garbhagriha), a hall (gadhamandapa), an outer hall or assembly hall (Sabhamandapa or rangamandapa) and a sacred pool (Kunda) which is now called Ramakunda. Statement 2 is not correct: It was built in the 11th century of western India under the patronage of the Solanki dynasty. The age of the temple may be inferred from its style belonging to the reign of Bhimadeva I (1022-1063 CE). Statement 3 is not correct: Along with the 8th century CE Martand Sun Temple in Kashmir and the 13th century CE Sun temple at Konark, this temple forms invaluable link in the history of diffusion of the practice of Surya worship in India, which originates in Kashmir during the 8th Century CE. The ancient Sun Temple of Modhera is older than the Konark Sun Temple in Orissa.

#### 13. Question

With reference to the Sun Temple of Modhera, consider the following statements:

• It is built in the Maru-gurjara architectural style as it has no gadhamandapa or Sabhamandapa.

• It was built in 13thcentury, in western India under the patronage of the Pratihara Dynasty.

• It is younger than the Konark Sun Temple but older than the Martand Sun Temple of Kashmir.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Answer: D

Explanation:

The outstanding Sun Temple at Modhera is located on the left bank of the river Pushpavati, a tributary of river Rupan in Becharaji Taluka of Mehsana District of Gujarat.

Modhera is called Mundera, the original settlement of the Modha Brahmans and is fabled to have been given them as a Krishnarpana on occasion of marriage of Ram and Sita.

Statement 1 is not correct: The temple, built in Maru-gurjara architectural style, consists of the main temple shrine (garbhagriha), a hall (gadhamandapa), an outer hall or assembly hall (Sabhamandapa or rangamandapa) and a sacred pool (Kunda) which is now called Ramakunda.

Statement 2 is not correct: It was built in the 11th century of western India under the patronage of the Solanki dynasty. The age of the temple may be inferred from its style belonging to the reign of Bhimadeva I (1022-1063 CE).

Statement 3 is not correct: Along with the 8th century CE Martand Sun Temple in Kashmir and the 13th century CE Sun temple at Konark, this temple forms invaluable link in the history of diffusion of the practice of Surya worship in India, which originates in Kashmir during the 8th Century CE.

The ancient Sun Temple of Modhera is older than the Konark Sun Temple in Orissa.

Answer: D

Explanation:

The outstanding Sun Temple at Modhera is located on the left bank of the river Pushpavati, a tributary of river Rupan in Becharaji Taluka of Mehsana District of Gujarat.

Modhera is called Mundera, the original settlement of the Modha Brahmans and is fabled to have been given them as a Krishnarpana on occasion of marriage of Ram and Sita.

The ancient Sun Temple of Modhera is older than the Konark Sun Temple in Orissa.

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the International Coral Reef Initiative (ICRI): It was launched in India at the United Nations Global Conference on Sustainable Development of Small Islands Developing States. It is a joint initiative of countries in partnership with coral reef nations, non-governmental and the international organizations. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: B Explanation: The International Coral Reef Initiative (ICRI) is an informal partnership between Nations and organizations which strives to preserve coral reefs and related ecosystems around the world. Statement 1 is not correct: ICRI was launched at the United Nations Global Conference on Sustainable Development of Small Islands Developing States in Barbados in 1994. Statement 2 is correct: ICRI is a joint initiative of several countries in partnership with other coral reef nations around the world, non-governmental organizations (NGOs), international organizations, multilateral development banks, and private sector businesses. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: The International Coral Reef Initiative (ICRI) is an informal partnership between Nations and organizations which strives to preserve coral reefs and related ecosystems around the world. Statement 1 is not correct: ICRI was launched at the United Nations Global Conference on Sustainable Development of Small Islands Developing States in Barbados in 1994. Statement 2 is correct: ICRI is a joint initiative of several countries in partnership with other coral reef nations around the world, non-governmental organizations (NGOs), international organizations, multilateral development banks, and private sector businesses.

#### 14. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the International Coral Reef Initiative (ICRI):

• It was launched in India at the United Nations Global Conference on Sustainable Development of Small Islands Developing States.

• It is a joint initiative of countries in partnership with coral reef nations, non-governmental and the international organizations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Explanation:

The International Coral Reef Initiative (ICRI) is an informal partnership between Nations and organizations which strives to preserve coral reefs and related ecosystems around the world.

Statement 1 is not correct: ICRI was launched at the United Nations Global Conference on Sustainable Development of Small Islands Developing States in Barbados in 1994.

Statement 2 is correct: ICRI is a joint initiative of several countries in partnership with other coral reef nations around the world, non-governmental organizations (NGOs), international organizations, multilateral development banks, and private sector businesses.

Answer: B

Explanation:

The International Coral Reef Initiative (ICRI) is an informal partnership between Nations and organizations which strives to preserve coral reefs and related ecosystems around the world.

Statement 1 is not correct: ICRI was launched at the United Nations Global Conference on Sustainable Development of Small Islands Developing States in Barbados in 1994.

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points The Government of India launched a Central scheme called “PM MITRA” to- a) Take care of the needs of the senior citizens including financial security, health care and life of dignity. b) Provide support for rehabilitation of women so that they could lead their life with dignity. c) Establish mega textile parks and promote entire value chain by building resilient infrastructure. d) Position India as a global leader in robotics by 2030 to actualize its transformative potential. Correct Answer: C Explanation: Option (c) is correct: Inspired by the 5F vision of the Prime Minister (i.e. Farm to Fibre to Factory to Fashion to Foreign), the PM MITRA Parks are a major step forward in realising the Government’s vision of making India a global hub for textile manufacturing and exports. India has launched PM MITRA scheme to set up mega textile parks and promote the entire value chain. It is expected that these parks will enhance the competitiveness of the textiles industry by helping it achieve economies of scale as well as attract global players to manufacture in India. Eligible States and sites were evaluated using a transparent Challenge Method based on objective criteria taking into account a variety of factors such as connectivity, existing ecosystem, textile/industry policy, infrastructure, utility services etc. PM MITRA Parks will help in creating world-class industrial infrastructure that would attract large scale investment including foreign direct investment (FDI) and encourage innovation and job creation within the sector. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Option (c) is correct: Inspired by the 5F vision of the Prime Minister (i.e. Farm to Fibre to Factory to Fashion to Foreign), the PM MITRA Parks are a major step forward in realising the Government’s vision of making India a global hub for textile manufacturing and exports. India has launched PM MITRA scheme to set up mega textile parks and promote the entire value chain. It is expected that these parks will enhance the competitiveness of the textiles industry by helping it achieve economies of scale as well as attract global players to manufacture in India. Eligible States and sites were evaluated using a transparent Challenge Method based on objective criteria taking into account a variety of factors such as connectivity, existing ecosystem, textile/industry policy, infrastructure, utility services etc. PM MITRA Parks will help in creating world-class industrial infrastructure that would attract large scale investment including foreign direct investment (FDI) and encourage innovation and job creation within the sector.

#### 15. Question

The Government of India launched a Central scheme called “PM MITRA” to-

• a) Take care of the needs of the senior citizens including financial security, health care and life of dignity.

• b) Provide support for rehabilitation of women so that they could lead their life with dignity.

• c) Establish mega textile parks and promote entire value chain by building resilient infrastructure.

• d) Position India as a global leader in robotics by 2030 to actualize its transformative potential.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Option (c) is correct: Inspired by the 5F vision of the Prime Minister (i.e. Farm to Fibre to Factory to Fashion to Foreign), the PM MITRA Parks are a major step forward in realising the Government’s vision of making India a global hub for textile manufacturing and exports.

• India has launched PM MITRA scheme to set up mega textile parks and promote the entire value chain.

• It is expected that these parks will enhance the competitiveness of the textiles industry by helping it achieve economies of scale as well as attract global players to manufacture in India.

• Eligible States and sites were evaluated using a transparent Challenge Method based on objective criteria taking into account a variety of factors such as connectivity, existing ecosystem, textile/industry policy, infrastructure, utility services etc.

• PM MITRA Parks will help in creating world-class industrial infrastructure that would attract large scale investment including foreign direct investment (FDI) and encourage innovation and job creation within the sector.

Answer: C

Explanation:

• India has launched PM MITRA scheme to set up mega textile parks and promote the entire value chain.

• It is expected that these parks will enhance the competitiveness of the textiles industry by helping it achieve economies of scale as well as attract global players to manufacture in India.

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Cirques are the most common landforms in glaciated mountains and are found at the heads of glacial valleys. Very deep glacial troughs filled with seawater that make up the shorelines are called fiords. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c)Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Cirques are the most common landforms in glaciated mountains. The cirques quite often are found at the heads of glacial valleys. The accumulated ice cuts these cirques while moving down the mountain tops. They are deep, long and wide troughs or basins with very steep concave to vertically dropping high walls at its head as well as sides. A lake of water can be seen quite often within the cirques after the glacier disappears. Such lakes are called cirque or tarn lakes. There can be two or more cirques one leading into another down below in a stepped sequence. Statement 2 is correct: Very deep glacial troughs filled with sea water and making up shorelines (in high latitudes) are called fjords/fiords Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Cirques are the most common landforms in glaciated mountains. The cirques quite often are found at the heads of glacial valleys. The accumulated ice cuts these cirques while moving down the mountain tops. They are deep, long and wide troughs or basins with very steep concave to vertically dropping high walls at its head as well as sides. A lake of water can be seen quite often within the cirques after the glacier disappears. Such lakes are called cirque or tarn lakes. There can be two or more cirques one leading into another down below in a stepped sequence. Statement 2 is correct: Very deep glacial troughs filled with sea water and making up shorelines (in high latitudes) are called fjords/fiords

#### 16. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Cirques are the most common landforms in glaciated mountains and are found at the heads of glacial valleys.

• Very deep glacial troughs filled with seawater that make up the shorelines are called fiords.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• c)Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Cirques are the most common landforms in glaciated mountains. The cirques quite often are found at the heads of glacial valleys.

The accumulated ice cuts these cirques while moving down the mountain tops.

They are deep, long and wide troughs or basins with very steep concave to vertically dropping high walls at its head as well as sides.

A lake of water can be seen quite often within the cirques after the glacier disappears.

Such lakes are called cirque or tarn lakes. There can be two or more cirques one leading into another down below in a stepped sequence.

Statement 2 is correct: Very deep glacial troughs filled with sea water and making up shorelines (in high latitudes) are called fjords/fiords

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Cirques are the most common landforms in glaciated mountains. The cirques quite often are found at the heads of glacial valleys.

The accumulated ice cuts these cirques while moving down the mountain tops.

They are deep, long and wide troughs or basins with very steep concave to vertically dropping high walls at its head as well as sides.

A lake of water can be seen quite often within the cirques after the glacier disappears.

Such lakes are called cirque or tarn lakes. There can be two or more cirques one leading into another down below in a stepped sequence.

Statement 2 is correct: Very deep glacial troughs filled with sea water and making up shorelines (in high latitudes) are called fjords/fiords

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points The term ‘Golden Crescent’ recently seen in the news refers to- a) A key area of illegal opium growth spanning Western, Central, and South Asia. b) The area covering South East Asia at the borders of Laos, Thailand, and Myanmar. (c) The countries of the Persian Gulf or Arabian Gulf region of the Middle East. (d) The diplomatic friction between Israel and its neighbours over Sinai Peninsula. Correct Answer: A Explanation: Option (a) is correct: The Golden Crescent is a key area of illegal opium growth spanning Western, Central, and South Asia. It covers the mountains of Afghanistan, Iran, and Pakistan. It should not be confused with the Golden Triangle which is the only other significant region of illegal opium growing area. It is easy to differentiate the two by geographical coverage because the Golden Triangle covers South East Asia at the borders of Laos, Thailand, and Myanmar. The opium grown in the Golden Crescent is the raw ingredient in the production of certain illicit drugs and other legal medicinal drugs. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Option (a) is correct: The Golden Crescent is a key area of illegal opium growth spanning Western, Central, and South Asia. It covers the mountains of Afghanistan, Iran, and Pakistan. It should not be confused with the Golden Triangle which is the only other significant region of illegal opium growing area. It is easy to differentiate the two by geographical coverage because the Golden Triangle covers South East Asia at the borders of Laos, Thailand, and Myanmar. The opium grown in the Golden Crescent is the raw ingredient in the production of certain illicit drugs and other legal medicinal drugs.

#### 17. Question

The term ‘Golden Crescent’ recently seen in the news refers to-

• a) A key area of illegal opium growth spanning Western, Central, and South Asia.

• b) The area covering South East Asia at the borders of Laos, Thailand, and Myanmar.

• (c) The countries of the Persian Gulf or Arabian Gulf region of the Middle East.

• (d) The diplomatic friction between Israel and its neighbours over Sinai Peninsula.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Option (a) is correct: The Golden Crescent is a key area of illegal opium growth spanning Western, Central, and South Asia. It covers the mountains of Afghanistan, Iran, and Pakistan. It should not be confused with the Golden Triangle which is the only other significant region of illegal opium growing area.

It is easy to differentiate the two by geographical coverage because the Golden Triangle covers South East Asia at the borders of Laos, Thailand, and Myanmar.

The opium grown in the Golden Crescent is the raw ingredient in the production of certain illicit drugs and other legal medicinal drugs.

Answer: A

Explanation:

It is easy to differentiate the two by geographical coverage because the Golden Triangle covers South East Asia at the borders of Laos, Thailand, and Myanmar.

The opium grown in the Golden Crescent is the raw ingredient in the production of certain illicit drugs and other legal medicinal drugs.

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Which of the following schedule deals with the provisions relating to the Languages recognized by the Constitution? a) Ninth Schedule b) Eighth Schedule c) Sixth Schedule d) Seventh Schedule Correct Solution: B Sixth Schedule Provisions relating to the administration of tribal areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. Seventh Schedule Division of powers between the Union and the States in terms of List I (Union List), List II (State List) and List III (Concurrent List). Eighth Schedule Languages recognized by the Constitution. Originally, it had 14 languages but presently there are 22 languages. Ninth Schedule Acts and Regulations (originally 13 but presently 282) of the state legislatures dealing with land reforms and abolition of the zamindari system and of the Parliament dealing with other matters. This schedule was added by the 1st Amendment (1951) to protect the laws included in it from judicial scrutiny on the ground of violation of fundamental rights. However, in 2007, the Supreme Court ruled that the laws included in this schedule after April 24, 1973, are now open to judicial review. Incorrect Solution: B Sixth Schedule Provisions relating to the administration of tribal areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. Seventh Schedule Division of powers between the Union and the States in terms of List I (Union List), List II (State List) and List III (Concurrent List). Eighth Schedule Languages recognized by the Constitution. Originally, it had 14 languages but presently there are 22 languages. Ninth Schedule Acts and Regulations (originally 13 but presently 282) of the state legislatures dealing with land reforms and abolition of the zamindari system and of the Parliament dealing with other matters. This schedule was added by the 1st Amendment (1951) to protect the laws included in it from judicial scrutiny on the ground of violation of fundamental rights. However, in 2007, the Supreme Court ruled that the laws included in this schedule after April 24, 1973, are now open to judicial review.

#### 18. Question

Which of the following schedule deals with the provisions relating to the Languages recognized by the Constitution?

• a) Ninth Schedule

• b) Eighth Schedule

• c) Sixth Schedule

• d) Seventh Schedule

Solution: B

Sixth Schedule

Provisions relating to the administration of tribal areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.

Seventh Schedule

Division of powers between the Union and the States in terms of List I (Union List), List II (State List) and List III (Concurrent List).

Eighth Schedule

Languages recognized by the Constitution. Originally, it had 14 languages but presently there are 22 languages.

Ninth Schedule

Acts and Regulations (originally 13 but presently 282) of the state legislatures dealing with land reforms and abolition of the zamindari system and of the Parliament dealing with other matters. This schedule was added by the 1st Amendment (1951) to protect the laws included in it from judicial scrutiny on the ground of violation of fundamental rights. However, in 2007, the Supreme Court ruled that the laws included in this schedule after April 24, 1973, are now open to judicial review.

Solution: B

Sixth Schedule

Provisions relating to the administration of tribal areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.

Seventh Schedule

Division of powers between the Union and the States in terms of List I (Union List), List II (State List) and List III (Concurrent List).

Eighth Schedule

Languages recognized by the Constitution. Originally, it had 14 languages but presently there are 22 languages.

Ninth Schedule

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs regarding major ports and their location Duqm port : Turkey Dammam port : Israel Mongla port : Bangladesh How many of the above pairs are correct? (a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None of the above Correct Solution : A Duqm port is in Oman. It is strategically important for India’s maritime strategy in the Indian Ocean. It provides India with access to the Gulf of Oman Red Sea the Indian Ocean and the Arabian Sea this location is significant as it allows India to counter China’s expanding presence in the region. Hence pair 1 is incorrect Dammam port is in Saudi Arabia It is the largest port in the Persian Gulf and the third largest and third busiest in the Middle East and North Africa region. It is a major export Centre for oil industry and key distribution Centre for Major landlocked cities in the country. It is one of the fort that is shortlisted to be connected to the Indian ports under the India- Middle East- Europe Economic Corridor that has been launched by India, US, Saudi Arabia, UAE along with other countries. Hence pair 2 is incorrect Mongla port is in Bangladesh. Recently the Prime Ministers of India and Bangladesh inaugurated three important Indian assisted development projects- khulna-Mongla port railway, Akhaura- Agartala cross border rail link and Maitree Super Thermal Power Project The khulna-Mongla port rail line project will be implemented under India’s concessional line of credit It involves constructing 65 km of broad gauge rail route connecting Mongla port with Khulna’s existing Rail Network. Hence pair 3 is correct Incorrect Solution : A Duqm port is in Oman. It is strategically important for India’s maritime strategy in the Indian Ocean. It provides India with access to the Gulf of Oman Red Sea the Indian Ocean and the Arabian Sea this location is significant as it allows India to counter China’s expanding presence in the region. Hence pair 1 is incorrect Dammam port is in Saudi Arabia It is the largest port in the Persian Gulf and the third largest and third busiest in the Middle East and North Africa region. It is a major export Centre for oil industry and key distribution Centre for Major landlocked cities in the country. It is one of the fort that is shortlisted to be connected to the Indian ports under the India- Middle East- Europe Economic Corridor that has been launched by India, US, Saudi Arabia, UAE along with other countries. Hence pair 2 is incorrect Mongla port is in Bangladesh. Recently the Prime Ministers of India and Bangladesh inaugurated three important Indian assisted development projects- khulna-Mongla port railway, Akhaura- Agartala cross border rail link and Maitree Super Thermal Power Project The khulna-Mongla port rail line project will be implemented under India’s concessional line of credit It involves constructing 65 km of broad gauge rail route connecting Mongla port with Khulna’s existing Rail Network. Hence pair 3 is correct

#### 19. Question

Consider the following pairs regarding major ports and their location

• Duqm port : Turkey

• Dammam port : Israel

• Mongla port : Bangladesh

How many of the above pairs are correct?

• (a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

• d) None of the above

Solution : A

• Duqm port is in Oman.

• It is strategically important for India’s maritime strategy in the Indian Ocean.

• It provides India with access to the Gulf of Oman Red Sea the Indian Ocean and the Arabian Sea

• this location is significant as it allows India to counter China’s expanding presence in the region.

Hence pair 1 is incorrect

• Dammam port is in Saudi Arabia

• It is the largest port in the Persian Gulf and the third largest and third busiest in the Middle East and North Africa region.

• It is a major export Centre for oil industry and key distribution Centre for Major landlocked cities in the country.

• It is one of the fort that is shortlisted to be connected to the Indian ports under the India- Middle East- Europe Economic Corridor that has been launched by India, US, Saudi Arabia, UAE along with other countries.

Hence pair 2 is incorrect

• Mongla port is in Bangladesh.

• Recently the Prime Ministers of India and Bangladesh inaugurated three important Indian assisted development projects- khulna-Mongla port railway, Akhaura- Agartala cross border rail link and Maitree Super Thermal Power Project

• The khulna-Mongla port rail line project will be implemented under India’s concessional line of credit

• It involves constructing 65 km of broad gauge rail route connecting Mongla port with Khulna’s existing Rail Network.

Hence pair 3 is correct

Solution : A

• Duqm port is in Oman.

• It is strategically important for India’s maritime strategy in the Indian Ocean.

• It provides India with access to the Gulf of Oman Red Sea the Indian Ocean and the Arabian Sea

• this location is significant as it allows India to counter China’s expanding presence in the region.

Hence pair 1 is incorrect

• Dammam port is in Saudi Arabia

• It is the largest port in the Persian Gulf and the third largest and third busiest in the Middle East and North Africa region.

• It is a major export Centre for oil industry and key distribution Centre for Major landlocked cities in the country.

Hence pair 2 is incorrect

• Mongla port is in Bangladesh.

• The khulna-Mongla port rail line project will be implemented under India’s concessional line of credit

• It involves constructing 65 km of broad gauge rail route connecting Mongla port with Khulna’s existing Rail Network.

Hence pair 3 is correct

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Seaweeds are species of microscopic as well as macroscopic marine algae. Some seaweeds are used for making bioplastics. Both gelatine and Alginate are obtained from seaweed species How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution : B Seaweeds are macroscopic multicellular Marine algal species they can be of different colours- red, green and brown. Some can also be microscopic such as the phytoplankton that lives suspended in the water column or can be enormous like the giant kelp that grow in abundant forest. These are found mostly in shallow and deep waters and also in estuaries and backwaters. Hence statement 1 is correct Seaweed extracts are used in wide range of products including cosmetics, pharmaceutical industry and bioplastics they offer sustainable alternative to conventional options that can be harmful to the environment. Seaweeds produce polysaccharides while growing that can be used as a biomaterials for bioplastic production or as binding agents the by-product of photosynthesis is clean air and oxygen; seaweed bioplastics biodegrade in the soil in only few weeks. Hence statement 2 is correct Alginate is obtained from brown algae, amarine seaweed ;it is used as thickener and stabilizer in ice cream sauces and other food items Gelatine which is widely used in several food products specially bakery items, is a protein made from animal collagen usually from cows and pigs ; it is used to make cosmetics, capsules, ointments along with food items. Hence statement 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution : B Seaweeds are macroscopic multicellular Marine algal species they can be of different colours- red, green and brown. Some can also be microscopic such as the phytoplankton that lives suspended in the water column or can be enormous like the giant kelp that grow in abundant forest. These are found mostly in shallow and deep waters and also in estuaries and backwaters. Hence statement 1 is correct Seaweed extracts are used in wide range of products including cosmetics, pharmaceutical industry and bioplastics they offer sustainable alternative to conventional options that can be harmful to the environment. Seaweeds produce polysaccharides while growing that can be used as a biomaterials for bioplastic production or as binding agents the by-product of photosynthesis is clean air and oxygen; seaweed bioplastics biodegrade in the soil in only few weeks. Hence statement 2 is correct Alginate is obtained from brown algae, amarine seaweed ;it is used as thickener and stabilizer in ice cream sauces and other food items Gelatine which is widely used in several food products specially bakery items, is a protein made from animal collagen usually from cows and pigs ; it is used to make cosmetics, capsules, ointments along with food items. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

#### 20. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Seaweeds are species of microscopic as well as macroscopic marine algae.

• Some seaweeds are used for making bioplastics.

• Both gelatine and Alginate are obtained from seaweed species

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution : B

• Seaweeds are macroscopic multicellular Marine algal species they can be of different colours- red, green and brown.

• Some can also be microscopic such as the phytoplankton that lives suspended in the water column or can be enormous like the giant kelp that grow in abundant forest.

• These are found mostly in shallow and deep waters and also in estuaries and backwaters.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Seaweed extracts are used in wide range of products including cosmetics, pharmaceutical industry and bioplastics

• they offer sustainable alternative to conventional options that can be harmful to the environment.

• Seaweeds produce polysaccharides while growing that can be used as a biomaterials for bioplastic production or as binding agents

• the by-product of photosynthesis is clean air and oxygen; seaweed bioplastics biodegrade in the soil in only few weeks.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Alginate is obtained from brown algae, amarine seaweed ;it is used as thickener and stabilizer in ice cream sauces and other food items

• Gelatine which is widely used in several food products specially bakery items, is a protein made from animal collagen usually from cows and pigs ; it is used to make cosmetics, capsules, ointments along with food items.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution : B

• Seaweeds are macroscopic multicellular Marine algal species they can be of different colours- red, green and brown.

• Some can also be microscopic such as the phytoplankton that lives suspended in the water column or can be enormous like the giant kelp that grow in abundant forest.

• These are found mostly in shallow and deep waters and also in estuaries and backwaters.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Seaweed extracts are used in wide range of products including cosmetics, pharmaceutical industry and bioplastics

• they offer sustainable alternative to conventional options that can be harmful to the environment.

• Seaweeds produce polysaccharides while growing that can be used as a biomaterials for bioplastic production or as binding agents

• the by-product of photosynthesis is clean air and oxygen; seaweed bioplastics biodegrade in the soil in only few weeks.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Alginate is obtained from brown algae, amarine seaweed ;it is used as thickener and stabilizer in ice cream sauces and other food items

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Dogra architecture in Jammu and Kashmir is mainly characterized by use of imported materials asymmetrical designs stone balconies How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: d) Justification: Dogra architecture is a term used to describe the buildings and structures constructed by the Dogra Hindu kings who ruled over Jammu. The Dogra kings ruled from 1846 to 1947. Dogra architecture in Jammu and Kashmir is characterized by: Use of local materials: Utilizes stone, wood, and bricks from the region. Symmetrical designs: Often feature symmetrical layouts and ornate detailing. Wooden balconies: Prominent use of intricately carved wooden balconies. Sloping roofs: Sloped roofs to withstand snowfall, with overhanging eaves. Courtyards: Central courtyards for light and ventilation in homes. Influence of Hindu and Tibetan styles: Combines elements of both architectural traditions. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/10/25/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-25-october-2023/ Incorrect Solution: d) Justification: Dogra architecture is a term used to describe the buildings and structures constructed by the Dogra Hindu kings who ruled over Jammu. The Dogra kings ruled from 1846 to 1947. Dogra architecture in Jammu and Kashmir is characterized by: Use of local materials: Utilizes stone, wood, and bricks from the region. Symmetrical designs: Often feature symmetrical layouts and ornate detailing. Wooden balconies: Prominent use of intricately carved wooden balconies. Sloping roofs: Sloped roofs to withstand snowfall, with overhanging eaves. Courtyards: Central courtyards for light and ventilation in homes. Influence of Hindu and Tibetan styles: Combines elements of both architectural traditions. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/10/25/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-25-october-2023/

#### 21. Question

Dogra architecture in Jammu and Kashmir is mainly characterized by

• use of imported materials

• asymmetrical designs

• stone balconies

How many of the above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: d)

Justification: Dogra architecture is a term used to describe the buildings and structures constructed by the Dogra Hindu kings who ruled over Jammu. The Dogra kings ruled from 1846 to 1947.

Dogra architecture in Jammu and Kashmir is characterized by:

• Use of local materials: Utilizes stone, wood, and bricks from the region.

• Symmetrical designs: Often feature symmetrical layouts and ornate detailing.

• Wooden balconies: Prominent use of intricately carved wooden balconies.

• Sloping roofs: Sloped roofs to withstand snowfall, with overhanging eaves.

• Courtyards: Central courtyards for light and ventilation in homes.

• Influence of Hindu and Tibetan styles: Combines elements of both architectural traditions.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/10/25/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-25-october-2023/