DAY – 55 : Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2025 : ENVIRONMENT & ECOLOGY

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the System of Rice Intensification (SRI) as compared to conventional flooded-paddy cultivation: SRI mandates the transplantation of older seedlings (to ensure stronger initial growth. Continuous flooding of fields is a key principle in SRI to suppress weed growth effectively. SRI typically results in shallower but denser root systems due to intermittent wetting and drying. The practice of incorporating weeds back into the soil using mechanical weeders is central to nutrient recycling in SRI. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. SRI principles emphasize the transplantation of very young seedlings, typically 8-12 days old (before the 4th phyllochron), to conserve the plant’s potential for tiller and root growth. Older seedlings are used in conventional methods. Statement 2 is incorrect. A core principle of SRI is avoiding continuous flooding. It promotes alternate wetting and drying (AWD) or maintaining moist, aerobic soil conditions, which is better for root health and reduces water use. Continuous flooding is characteristic of conventional methods and leads to anaerobic conditions. Statement 3 is incorrect. SRI practices, particularly AWD and reduced plant density, encourage the development of larger, deeper, and stronger root systems, making plants more resilient to drought and lodging, not shallower systems. Statement 4 is correct. Mechanical weeding (e.g., with a push weeder) is preferred in SRI, and the incorporation of these weeds into the soil acts as green manure, contributing to nutrient recycling and soil health. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. SRI principles emphasize the transplantation of very young seedlings, typically 8-12 days old (before the 4th phyllochron), to conserve the plant’s potential for tiller and root growth. Older seedlings are used in conventional methods. Statement 2 is incorrect. A core principle of SRI is avoiding continuous flooding. It promotes alternate wetting and drying (AWD) or maintaining moist, aerobic soil conditions, which is better for root health and reduces water use. Continuous flooding is characteristic of conventional methods and leads to anaerobic conditions. Statement 3 is incorrect. SRI practices, particularly AWD and reduced plant density, encourage the development of larger, deeper, and stronger root systems, making plants more resilient to drought and lodging, not shallower systems. Statement 4 is correct. Mechanical weeding (e.g., with a push weeder) is preferred in SRI, and the incorporation of these weeds into the soil acts as green manure, contributing to nutrient recycling and soil health.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the System of Rice Intensification (SRI) as compared to conventional flooded-paddy cultivation:

• SRI mandates the transplantation of older seedlings (to ensure stronger initial growth.

• Continuous flooding of fields is a key principle in SRI to suppress weed growth effectively.

• SRI typically results in shallower but denser root systems due to intermittent wetting and drying.

• The practice of incorporating weeds back into the soil using mechanical weeders is central to nutrient recycling in SRI.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. SRI principles emphasize the transplantation of very young seedlings, typically 8-12 days old (before the 4th phyllochron), to conserve the plant’s potential for tiller and root growth. Older seedlings are used in conventional methods.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. A core principle of SRI is avoiding continuous flooding. It promotes alternate wetting and drying (AWD) or maintaining moist, aerobic soil conditions, which is better for root health and reduces water use. Continuous flooding is characteristic of conventional methods and leads to anaerobic conditions.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. SRI practices, particularly AWD and reduced plant density, encourage the development of larger, deeper, and stronger root systems, making plants more resilient to drought and lodging, not shallower systems.

• Statement 4 is correct. Mechanical weeding (e.g., with a push weeder) is preferred in SRI, and the incorporation of these weeds into the soil acts as green manure, contributing to nutrient recycling and soil health.

Solution: A

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Which of the following statements most accurately distinguishes Zero Budget Natural Farming (ZBNF) from conventional Organic Farming as practiced and certified in India? (A) ZBNF strictly prohibits the use of any external inputs, including organic manures like vermicompost, relying solely on microbial cultures, while Organic Farming permits the use of certified organic manures and inputs. (B) Organic Farming focuses primarily on soil aeration through minimal tillage (Waaphasa principle), whereas ZBNF emphasizes deep ploughing to incorporate microbial cultures. (C) ZBNF mandates the use of hybrid seeds treated with Bijamrita for enhanced pest resistance, while Organic Farming exclusively uses indigenous varieties. (D) Both ZBNF and Organic Farming rely heavily on purchased bio-pesticides and bio-fertilizers, differing only in the certification process. Correct Solution: A Statement (A) correctly identifies a key difference. ZBNF, particularly as conceptualized by Palekar, aims for ‘zero budget’ by avoiding all purchased inputs, including external organic manures like vermicompost or farmyard manure. It relies on stimulating soil microbes using preparations like Jiwamrita and Bijamrita, mulching (Acchadana), and soil aeration (Waaphasa). Conventional Organic Farming, while prohibiting synthetic chemicals, allows and often encourages the use of bulk organic manures (compost, vermicompost, FYM) and other certified organic inputs. Statement (B) is incorrect. ZBNF includes the principle of Waaphasa (soil aeration) and often discourages intensive tillage, similar to some organic practices. Organic farming does not universally mandate minimal tillage; practices vary, and some forms involve ploughing. Deep ploughing is generally contrary to ZBNF principles. Statement (C) is incorrect. ZBNF promotes the use of indigenous seeds treated with Bijamrita. While Organic Farming also encourages indigenous varieties, the defining characteristic regarding seeds in ZBNF isn’t the mandatory use of hybrids but the treatment method and emphasis on local adaptation. Statement (D) is incorrect. ZBNF fundamentally avoids purchased inputs, relying on on-farm preparations. Organic Farming uses certified bio-pesticides and bio-fertilizers but aims to minimize external inputs through holistic management. The reliance on purchased inputs differs significantly. Incorrect Solution: A Statement (A) correctly identifies a key difference. ZBNF, particularly as conceptualized by Palekar, aims for ‘zero budget’ by avoiding all purchased inputs, including external organic manures like vermicompost or farmyard manure. It relies on stimulating soil microbes using preparations like Jiwamrita and Bijamrita, mulching (Acchadana), and soil aeration (Waaphasa). Conventional Organic Farming, while prohibiting synthetic chemicals, allows and often encourages the use of bulk organic manures (compost, vermicompost, FYM) and other certified organic inputs. Statement (B) is incorrect. ZBNF includes the principle of Waaphasa (soil aeration) and often discourages intensive tillage, similar to some organic practices. Organic farming does not universally mandate minimal tillage; practices vary, and some forms involve ploughing. Deep ploughing is generally contrary to ZBNF principles. Statement (C) is incorrect. ZBNF promotes the use of indigenous seeds treated with Bijamrita. While Organic Farming also encourages indigenous varieties, the defining characteristic regarding seeds in ZBNF isn’t the mandatory use of hybrids but the treatment method and emphasis on local adaptation. Statement (D) is incorrect. ZBNF fundamentally avoids purchased inputs, relying on on-farm preparations. Organic Farming uses certified bio-pesticides and bio-fertilizers but aims to minimize external inputs through holistic management. The reliance on purchased inputs differs significantly.

#### 2. Question

Which of the following statements most accurately distinguishes Zero Budget Natural Farming (ZBNF) from conventional Organic Farming as practiced and certified in India?

• (A) ZBNF strictly prohibits the use of any external inputs, including organic manures like vermicompost, relying solely on microbial cultures, while Organic Farming permits the use of certified organic manures and inputs.

• (B) Organic Farming focuses primarily on soil aeration through minimal tillage (Waaphasa principle), whereas ZBNF emphasizes deep ploughing to incorporate microbial cultures.

• (C) ZBNF mandates the use of hybrid seeds treated with Bijamrita for enhanced pest resistance, while Organic Farming exclusively uses indigenous varieties.

• (D) Both ZBNF and Organic Farming rely heavily on purchased bio-pesticides and bio-fertilizers, differing only in the certification process.

Solution: A

• Statement (A) correctly identifies a key difference. ZBNF, particularly as conceptualized by Palekar, aims for ‘zero budget’ by avoiding all purchased inputs, including external organic manures like vermicompost or farmyard manure. It relies on stimulating soil microbes using preparations like Jiwamrita and Bijamrita, mulching (Acchadana), and soil aeration (Waaphasa). Conventional Organic Farming, while prohibiting synthetic chemicals, allows and often encourages the use of bulk organic manures (compost, vermicompost, FYM) and other certified organic inputs. Statement (B) is incorrect. ZBNF includes the principle of Waaphasa (soil aeration) and often discourages intensive tillage, similar to some organic practices. Organic farming does not universally mandate minimal tillage; practices vary, and some forms involve ploughing. Deep ploughing is generally contrary to ZBNF principles. Statement (C) is incorrect. ZBNF promotes the use of indigenous seeds treated with Bijamrita. While Organic Farming also encourages indigenous varieties, the defining characteristic regarding seeds in ZBNF isn’t the mandatory use of hybrids but the treatment method and emphasis on local adaptation. Statement (D) is incorrect. ZBNF fundamentally avoids purchased inputs, relying on on-farm preparations. Organic Farming uses certified bio-pesticides and bio-fertilizers but aims to minimize external inputs through holistic management. The reliance on purchased inputs differs significantly.

• Statement (B) is incorrect. ZBNF includes the principle of Waaphasa (soil aeration) and often discourages intensive tillage, similar to some organic practices. Organic farming does not universally mandate minimal tillage; practices vary, and some forms involve ploughing. Deep ploughing is generally contrary to ZBNF principles.

• Statement (C) is incorrect. ZBNF promotes the use of indigenous seeds treated with Bijamrita. While Organic Farming also encourages indigenous varieties, the defining characteristic regarding seeds in ZBNF isn’t the mandatory use of hybrids but the treatment method and emphasis on local adaptation.

• Statement (D) is incorrect. ZBNF fundamentally avoids purchased inputs, relying on on-farm preparations. Organic Farming uses certified bio-pesticides and bio-fertilizers but aims to minimize external inputs through holistic management. The reliance on purchased inputs differs significantly.

Solution: A

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points With reference to the regulation of Genetically Modified (GM) crops and foods in India, consider the following statements: The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is solely responsible for the environmental risk assessment and approval for the commercial cultivation of GM crops. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) regulates the manufacture, sale, and import of GM foods but requires GEAC clearance if the GMO is intended for use as seed or planting material. The recent amendments mandating disclosure of conflicts of interest for GEAC experts were prompted by concerns primarily related to the environmental release approval of Bt Brinjal. Currently, besides Bt Cotton, GM Mustard (DMH-11) has received final approval and is commercially cultivated in designated states. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. GEAC, functioning under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) and established under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, is the statutory body responsible for reviewing, monitoring, and approving GMO-related activities, including environmental release (commercial cultivation). Statement 2 is correct. FSSAI regulates GM foods under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, and its specific GM Foods Regulations, 2022. It handles safety assessments for food use. However, if a GMO is intended for environmental release (as seed/planting material), it requires parallel application and approval from GEAC for the environmental risk assessment aspect. FSSAI regulations also explicitly prohibit GMOs in infant foods. Statement 3 is incorrect. The amendments regarding conflict of interest disclosure for GEAC members, following a Supreme Court directive, were significantly influenced by controversies surrounding the environmental release approval process of GM Mustard (DMH-11) in 2022 and historical concerns about links between committee members and biotech companies involved with crops like Bt Cotton and potentially GM Mustard developers. While Bt Brinjal faced moratoriums and controversy , the recent trigger for conflict-of-interest rules was more directly linked to GM Mustard. Statement 4 is incorrect. As of recent reports, only Bt Cotton is approved for commercial cultivation in India. While GEAC recommended the environmental release of GM Mustard (DMH-11) in 2022, leading to a split verdict in the Supreme Court, it has not yet been released for commercial cultivation. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. GEAC, functioning under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) and established under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, is the statutory body responsible for reviewing, monitoring, and approving GMO-related activities, including environmental release (commercial cultivation). Statement 2 is correct. FSSAI regulates GM foods under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, and its specific GM Foods Regulations, 2022. It handles safety assessments for food use. However, if a GMO is intended for environmental release (as seed/planting material), it requires parallel application and approval from GEAC for the environmental risk assessment aspect. FSSAI regulations also explicitly prohibit GMOs in infant foods. Statement 3 is incorrect. The amendments regarding conflict of interest disclosure for GEAC members, following a Supreme Court directive, were significantly influenced by controversies surrounding the environmental release approval process of GM Mustard (DMH-11) in 2022 and historical concerns about links between committee members and biotech companies involved with crops like Bt Cotton and potentially GM Mustard developers. While Bt Brinjal faced moratoriums and controversy , the recent trigger for conflict-of-interest rules was more directly linked to GM Mustard. Statement 4 is incorrect. As of recent reports, only Bt Cotton is approved for commercial cultivation in India. While GEAC recommended the environmental release of GM Mustard (DMH-11) in 2022, leading to a split verdict in the Supreme Court, it has not yet been released for commercial cultivation.

#### 3. Question

With reference to the regulation of Genetically Modified (GM) crops and foods in India, consider the following statements:

• The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is solely responsible for the environmental risk assessment and approval for the commercial cultivation of GM crops.

• The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) regulates the manufacture, sale, and import of GM foods but requires GEAC clearance if the GMO is intended for use as seed or planting material.

• The recent amendments mandating disclosure of conflicts of interest for GEAC experts were prompted by concerns primarily related to the environmental release approval of Bt Brinjal.

• Currently, besides Bt Cotton, GM Mustard (DMH-11) has received final approval and is commercially cultivated in designated states.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. GEAC, functioning under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) and established under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, is the statutory body responsible for reviewing, monitoring, and approving GMO-related activities, including environmental release (commercial cultivation).

• Statement 2 is correct. FSSAI regulates GM foods under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, and its specific GM Foods Regulations, 2022. It handles safety assessments for food use. However, if a GMO is intended for environmental release (as seed/planting material), it requires parallel application and approval from GEAC for the environmental risk assessment aspect. FSSAI regulations also explicitly prohibit GMOs in infant foods.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The amendments regarding conflict of interest disclosure for GEAC members, following a Supreme Court directive, were significantly influenced by controversies surrounding the environmental release approval process of GM Mustard (DMH-11) in 2022 and historical concerns about links between committee members and biotech companies involved with crops like Bt Cotton and potentially GM Mustard developers. While Bt Brinjal faced moratoriums and controversy , the recent trigger for conflict-of-interest rules was more directly linked to GM Mustard.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. As of recent reports, only Bt Cotton is approved for commercial cultivation in India. While GEAC recommended the environmental release of GM Mustard (DMH-11) in 2022, leading to a split verdict in the Supreme Court, it has not yet been released for commercial cultivation.

Solution: B

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Shifting Cultivation (Jhum) in Northeast India: The Forest Rights Act, 2006, explicitly prohibits Shifting Cultivation as an unsustainable practice, mandating transition to settled agriculture for tribal communities. A key ecological rationale traditionally cited for Jhum is the rapid nutrient cycling achieved through slash-and-burn, which temporarily boosts soil fertility in nutrient-poor forest soils. Modern critiques argue that shortening Jhum cycles, driven by population pressure and land constraints, prevent adequate forest regeneration and lead to irreversible land degradation. Government policies historically, including the first forest policy of 1894, have consistently viewed Jhum as an efficient resource utilization strategy adapted to hilly terrains. Which of the above statements are correct? (A) 1 and 4 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1, 2 and 3 only (D) 2, 3 and 4 only Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The Forest Rights Act, 2006, recognizes traditional rights, including rights over community forest resources and traditional practices. While the sustainability of Jhum is debated, the Act itself does not explicitly prohibit it but aims to provide tenure security which could potentially influence land use practices. Historical policies, however, often sought to control or abolish it. Statement 2 is correct. From an ecological perspective within the traditional system (with long fallow periods), slashing and burning vegetation releases nutrients locked in biomass into the soil (ash), making them available for crops in the short term. This mimics natural fire cycles to some extent and was a way to farm on otherwise infertile forest soils. Mixed cropping in Jhum also optimizes resource use. Statement 3 is correct. A major contemporary issue with Jhum is the drastic reduction in the fallow period (the time land is left to regenerate). Traditionally long cycles (10-20 years or more) allowed forest and soil recovery. Shortened cycles (e.g., 3-5 years) due to increased population and limited land availability lead to incomplete regeneration, soil erosion, loss of biodiversity, and overall land degradation, making the practice unsustainable in its current form in many areas. Statement 4 is incorrect. Historical government policies, starting from the colonial era (e.g., Forest Policy 1894, Indian Forest Act 1927) and continuing post-independence, have predominantly viewed Jhum negatively – as primitive, wasteful, destructive to forests, and inefficient – and aimed to control, restrict, or replace it with settled agriculture or plantations. It was rarely seen as efficient by administrators. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The Forest Rights Act, 2006, recognizes traditional rights, including rights over community forest resources and traditional practices. While the sustainability of Jhum is debated, the Act itself does not explicitly prohibit it but aims to provide tenure security which could potentially influence land use practices. Historical policies, however, often sought to control or abolish it. Statement 2 is correct. From an ecological perspective within the traditional system (with long fallow periods), slashing and burning vegetation releases nutrients locked in biomass into the soil (ash), making them available for crops in the short term. This mimics natural fire cycles to some extent and was a way to farm on otherwise infertile forest soils. Mixed cropping in Jhum also optimizes resource use. Statement 3 is correct. A major contemporary issue with Jhum is the drastic reduction in the fallow period (the time land is left to regenerate). Traditionally long cycles (10-20 years or more) allowed forest and soil recovery. Shortened cycles (e.g., 3-5 years) due to increased population and limited land availability lead to incomplete regeneration, soil erosion, loss of biodiversity, and overall land degradation, making the practice unsustainable in its current form in many areas. Statement 4 is incorrect. Historical government policies, starting from the colonial era (e.g., Forest Policy 1894, Indian Forest Act 1927) and continuing post-independence, have predominantly viewed Jhum negatively – as primitive, wasteful, destructive to forests, and inefficient – and aimed to control, restrict, or replace it with settled agriculture or plantations. It was rarely seen as efficient by administrators.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Shifting Cultivation (Jhum) in Northeast India:

• The Forest Rights Act, 2006, explicitly prohibits Shifting Cultivation as an unsustainable practice, mandating transition to settled agriculture for tribal communities.

• A key ecological rationale traditionally cited for Jhum is the rapid nutrient cycling achieved through slash-and-burn, which temporarily boosts soil fertility in nutrient-poor forest soils.

• Modern critiques argue that shortening Jhum cycles, driven by population pressure and land constraints, prevent adequate forest regeneration and lead to irreversible land degradation.

• Government policies historically, including the first forest policy of 1894, have consistently viewed Jhum as an efficient resource utilization strategy adapted to hilly terrains.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (A) 1 and 4 only

• (B) 2 and 3 only

• (C) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (D) 2, 3 and 4 only

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Forest Rights Act, 2006, recognizes traditional rights, including rights over community forest resources and traditional practices. While the sustainability of Jhum is debated, the Act itself does not explicitly prohibit it but aims to provide tenure security which could potentially influence land use practices. Historical policies, however, often sought to control or abolish it.

• Statement 2 is correct. From an ecological perspective within the traditional system (with long fallow periods), slashing and burning vegetation releases nutrients locked in biomass into the soil (ash), making them available for crops in the short term. This mimics natural fire cycles to some extent and was a way to farm on otherwise infertile forest soils. Mixed cropping in Jhum also optimizes resource use.

• Statement 3 is correct. A major contemporary issue with Jhum is the drastic reduction in the fallow period (the time land is left to regenerate). Traditionally long cycles (10-20 years or more) allowed forest and soil recovery. Shortened cycles (e.g., 3-5 years) due to increased population and limited land availability lead to incomplete regeneration, soil erosion, loss of biodiversity, and overall land degradation, making the practice unsustainable in its current form in many areas.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. Historical government policies, starting from the colonial era (e.g., Forest Policy 1894, Indian Forest Act 1927) and continuing post-independence, have predominantly viewed Jhum negatively – as primitive, wasteful, destructive to forests, and inefficient – and aimed to control, restrict, or replace it with settled agriculture or plantations. It was rarely seen as efficient by administrators.

Solution: B

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points With reference to India’s drought management framework and NDMA guidelines, consider the following: The framework primarily relies on reactive measures, initiating drought relief only after a formal declaration based on meteorological data. Micro-irrigation systems (drip and sprinkler) are recognized primarily as post-drought recovery tools rather than proactive mitigation measures. Drought declaration involves assessing multiple indicators, potentially including rainfall deviation, agricultural impact (sown area, crop condition), hydrological indices (reservoir levels, groundwater), and remote sensing data. Cloud seeding is officially discouraged by NDMA guidelines due to its high cost and uncertain effectiveness in drought mitigation. Which of the following statements is/are correct? (A) 3 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 4 only (D) 1, 3 and 4 only Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. While past approaches were often reactive , the current NDMA guidelines emphasize a shift towards a proactive, prevention, preparedness, and mitigation-centric approach, moving beyond just post-drought relief. This includes long-term measures like water conservation and drought-proofing. Statement 2 is incorrect. Micro-irrigation systems (drip, sprinkler) are explicitly mentioned in NDMA guidelines as key mitigation strategies for judicious water use, enhancing water use efficiency, and thus building resilience against drought, not just as post-drought tools. Statement 3 is correct. Drought assessment and declaration are complex processes involving multiple indicators. These typically include meteorological factors (rainfall deficits), agricultural impacts (effects on crops), hydrological indicators (surface and groundwater levels), and increasingly, remote sensing data to monitor vegetation status and soil moisture. A combination of these indicators helps in characterizing the type and severity of drought. Statement 4 is incorrect. The NDMA guidelines discuss cloud seeding as a potential mitigation measure, acknowledging pioneering efforts and suggesting its consideration in drought-prone regions, rather than discouraging it outright. The focus is on its judicious use and ongoing research. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. While past approaches were often reactive , the current NDMA guidelines emphasize a shift towards a proactive, prevention, preparedness, and mitigation-centric approach, moving beyond just post-drought relief. This includes long-term measures like water conservation and drought-proofing. Statement 2 is incorrect. Micro-irrigation systems (drip, sprinkler) are explicitly mentioned in NDMA guidelines as key mitigation strategies for judicious water use, enhancing water use efficiency, and thus building resilience against drought, not just as post-drought tools. Statement 3 is correct. Drought assessment and declaration are complex processes involving multiple indicators. These typically include meteorological factors (rainfall deficits), agricultural impacts (effects on crops), hydrological indicators (surface and groundwater levels), and increasingly, remote sensing data to monitor vegetation status and soil moisture. A combination of these indicators helps in characterizing the type and severity of drought. Statement 4 is incorrect. The NDMA guidelines discuss cloud seeding as a potential mitigation measure, acknowledging pioneering efforts and suggesting its consideration in drought-prone regions, rather than discouraging it outright. The focus is on its judicious use and ongoing research.

#### 5. Question

With reference to India’s drought management framework and NDMA guidelines, consider the following:

• The framework primarily relies on reactive measures, initiating drought relief only after a formal declaration based on meteorological data.

• Micro-irrigation systems (drip and sprinkler) are recognized primarily as post-drought recovery tools rather than proactive mitigation measures.

• Drought declaration involves assessing multiple indicators, potentially including rainfall deviation, agricultural impact (sown area, crop condition), hydrological indices (reservoir levels, groundwater), and remote sensing data.

• Cloud seeding is officially discouraged by NDMA guidelines due to its high cost and uncertain effectiveness in drought mitigation.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

• (A) 3 only

• (B) 1 and 2 only

• (C) 2 and 4 only

• (D) 1, 3 and 4 only

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While past approaches were often reactive , the current NDMA guidelines emphasize a shift towards a proactive, prevention, preparedness, and mitigation-centric approach, moving beyond just post-drought relief. This includes long-term measures like water conservation and drought-proofing.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. Micro-irrigation systems (drip, sprinkler) are explicitly mentioned in NDMA guidelines as key mitigation strategies for judicious water use, enhancing water use efficiency, and thus building resilience against drought, not just as post-drought tools.

• Statement 3 is correct. Drought assessment and declaration are complex processes involving multiple indicators. These typically include meteorological factors (rainfall deficits), agricultural impacts (effects on crops), hydrological indicators (surface and groundwater levels), and increasingly, remote sensing data to monitor vegetation status and soil moisture. A combination of these indicators helps in characterizing the type and severity of drought.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. The NDMA guidelines discuss cloud seeding as a potential mitigation measure, acknowledging pioneering efforts and suggesting its consideration in drought-prone regions, rather than discouraging it outright. The focus is on its judicious use and ongoing research.

Solution: A

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Regarding food fortification regulations and FSSAI’s role in India, which statement is the most accurate? (a) FSSAI mandates fortification of all staple foods like rice, wheat, oil, milk, and salt with a standard set of micronutrients across the country. (b) The '+F' logo is mandatory only on imported fortified foods, while domestically produced fortified foods use state-specific logos. (c) The Food Safety and Standards (Fortification of Food) Regulation, 2018, primarily focuses on setting standards for voluntary fortification by food businesses. (d) FSSAI's role is limited to setting standards; the monitoring and enforcement of fortification levels are handled exclusively by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. Correct Solution: C Statement (A) is incorrect. While FSSAI has set standards for fortifying staples like wheat flour, rice, edible oil, milk, and salt , it is not mandatory for all these staples across the entire country in all contexts. Mandatory fortification has been implemented for specific items (like wheat flour and edible oil initially mentioned ) or within specific government schemes (like fortified rice in PDS/MDM), but universal mandatory fortification for all staples is not the current status. The regulations define standards for fortification when it is undertaken. Statement (B) is incorrect. The ‘+F’ logo was notified by FSSAI as a common identification mark for all fortified foods meeting the standards specified in the regulations, whether imported or domestic, to help consumers identify them. Statement (C) is correct. The Food Safety and Standards (Fortification of Food) Regulation, 2018, lays down the standards (types and levels of micronutrients, quality parameters) for foods that are fortified. While some fortification might be mandated through specific orders or schemes, the regulation itself provides the framework and standards primarily for food businesses undertaking fortification, often on a voluntary basis unless otherwise specified. FSSAI promotes fortification but the regulation itself sets the standards for how it should be done. Statement (D) is incorrect. FSSAI, as the statutory body under the FSS Act, 2006, is responsible for regulating the manufacture, storage, distribution, sale, and import of food, including setting standards and ensuring compliance. Its functions include laying down standards, facilitating food safety, and contributing to enforcement through Food Safety Officers who can inspect and sample products. While under the administrative control of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, FSSAI itself plays a direct role in the regulatory oversight. Incorrect Solution: C Statement (A) is incorrect. While FSSAI has set standards for fortifying staples like wheat flour, rice, edible oil, milk, and salt , it is not mandatory for all these staples across the entire country in all contexts. Mandatory fortification has been implemented for specific items (like wheat flour and edible oil initially mentioned ) or within specific government schemes (like fortified rice in PDS/MDM), but universal mandatory fortification for all staples is not the current status. The regulations define standards for fortification when it is undertaken. Statement (B) is incorrect. The ‘+F’ logo was notified by FSSAI as a common identification mark for all fortified foods meeting the standards specified in the regulations, whether imported or domestic, to help consumers identify them. Statement (C) is correct. The Food Safety and Standards (Fortification of Food) Regulation, 2018, lays down the standards (types and levels of micronutrients, quality parameters) for foods that are fortified. While some fortification might be mandated through specific orders or schemes, the regulation itself provides the framework and standards primarily for food businesses undertaking fortification, often on a voluntary basis unless otherwise specified. FSSAI promotes fortification but the regulation itself sets the standards for how it should be done. Statement (D) is incorrect. FSSAI, as the statutory body under the FSS Act, 2006, is responsible for regulating the manufacture, storage, distribution, sale, and import of food, including setting standards and ensuring compliance. Its functions include laying down standards, facilitating food safety, and contributing to enforcement through Food Safety Officers who can inspect and sample products. While under the administrative control of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, FSSAI itself plays a direct role in the regulatory oversight.

#### 6. Question

Regarding food fortification regulations and FSSAI’s role in India, which statement is the most accurate?

• (a) FSSAI mandates fortification of all staple foods like rice, wheat, oil, milk, and salt with a standard set of micronutrients across the country.

• (b) The '+F' logo is mandatory only on imported fortified foods, while domestically produced fortified foods use state-specific logos.

• (c) The Food Safety and Standards (Fortification of Food) Regulation, 2018, primarily focuses on setting standards for voluntary fortification by food businesses.

• (d) FSSAI's role is limited to setting standards; the monitoring and enforcement of fortification levels are handled exclusively by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

Solution: C

• Statement (A) is incorrect. While FSSAI has set standards for fortifying staples like wheat flour, rice, edible oil, milk, and salt , it is not mandatory for all these staples across the entire country in all contexts. Mandatory fortification has been implemented for specific items (like wheat flour and edible oil initially mentioned ) or within specific government schemes (like fortified rice in PDS/MDM), but universal mandatory fortification for all staples is not the current status. The regulations define standards for fortification when it is undertaken. Statement (B) is incorrect. The ‘+F’ logo was notified by FSSAI as a common identification mark for all fortified foods meeting the standards specified in the regulations, whether imported or domestic, to help consumers identify them. Statement (C) is correct. The Food Safety and Standards (Fortification of Food) Regulation, 2018, lays down the standards (types and levels of micronutrients, quality parameters) for foods that are fortified. While some fortification might be mandated through specific orders or schemes, the regulation itself provides the framework and standards primarily for food businesses undertaking fortification, often on a voluntary basis unless otherwise specified. FSSAI promotes fortification but the regulation itself sets the standards for how it should be done. Statement (D) is incorrect. FSSAI, as the statutory body under the FSS Act, 2006, is responsible for regulating the manufacture, storage, distribution, sale, and import of food, including setting standards and ensuring compliance. Its functions include laying down standards, facilitating food safety, and contributing to enforcement through Food Safety Officers who can inspect and sample products. While under the administrative control of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, FSSAI itself plays a direct role in the regulatory oversight.

• Statement (B) is incorrect. The ‘+F’ logo was notified by FSSAI as a common identification mark for all fortified foods meeting the standards specified in the regulations, whether imported or domestic, to help consumers identify them.

• Statement (C) is correct. The Food Safety and Standards (Fortification of Food) Regulation, 2018, lays down the standards (types and levels of micronutrients, quality parameters) for foods that are fortified. While some fortification might be mandated through specific orders or schemes, the regulation itself provides the framework and standards primarily for food businesses undertaking fortification, often on a voluntary basis unless otherwise specified. FSSAI promotes fortification but the regulation itself sets the standards for how it should be done.

• Statement (D) is incorrect. FSSAI, as the statutory body under the FSS Act, 2006, is responsible for regulating the manufacture, storage, distribution, sale, and import of food, including setting standards and ensuring compliance. Its functions include laying down standards, facilitating food safety, and contributing to enforcement through Food Safety Officers who can inspect and sample products. While under the administrative control of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, FSSAI itself plays a direct role in the regulatory oversight.

Solution: C

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points With reference to Nano Urea and Nano DAP in India, consider the following statements: Both Nano Urea and Nano DAP have been provisionally notified under the Fertilizer Control Order (FCO), 1985, based on ICAR-conducted bio-efficacy trials. The primary mode of application recommended for both Nano Urea and Nano DAP is soil application during basal dose administration. ICAR studies suggest that substituting conventional urea entirely with Nano Urea (as per recommended foliar sprays) leads to significantly higher yields across all major crops. A key proposed benefit of Nano DAP is its potential to reduce phosphorus fixation in the soil and improve Phosphorus Use Efficiency (PUE) compared to conventional DAP. Which of the above statements are correct? (A) 1 and 4 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1, 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2 and 4 only Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. Both Nano Urea (as Nano Nitrogen Fertilizer) and Nano DAP have been provisionally notified under the FCO, 1985, following evaluation based on bio-efficacy trials conducted by ICAR institutions and toxicology tests. Statement 2 is incorrect. The recommended application method for both Nano Urea and Nano DAP, based on initial trials and product design (e.g., by IFFCO), is primarily foliar spray at critical crop growth stages. Nano Urea is typically recommended as a top-dressing substitute/supplement, not basal application. Nano DAP trials also involved seed treatment and foliar application. Soil application is the norm for conventional granular fertilizers. Statement 3 is incorrect. ICAR trials indicated that foliar sprays of Nano Urea, when used to supplement nitrogen needs (partially replacing conventional urea top-dressing, often by 25-50%), resulted in comparable yields to conventional methods, sometimes with a marginal yield advantage (3-8%), not significantly higher yields across all crops when conventional urea is entirely replaced. The claim is primarily about maintaining yield with reduced conventional urea usage. Statement 4 is correct. Conventional phosphate fertilizers like DAP suffer from low use efficiency as phosphorus gets easily fixed in the soil (becomes unavailable to plants). Nano-fertilizers, including Nano DAP, are proposed to improve nutrient use efficiency by facilitating better absorption, targeted delivery, and potentially reducing fixation and losses through mechanisms like gradual release or better plant uptake pathways. Improving PUE is a major rationale for Nano DAP development. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. Both Nano Urea (as Nano Nitrogen Fertilizer) and Nano DAP have been provisionally notified under the FCO, 1985, following evaluation based on bio-efficacy trials conducted by ICAR institutions and toxicology tests. Statement 2 is incorrect. The recommended application method for both Nano Urea and Nano DAP, based on initial trials and product design (e.g., by IFFCO), is primarily foliar spray at critical crop growth stages. Nano Urea is typically recommended as a top-dressing substitute/supplement, not basal application. Nano DAP trials also involved seed treatment and foliar application. Soil application is the norm for conventional granular fertilizers. Statement 3 is incorrect. ICAR trials indicated that foliar sprays of Nano Urea, when used to supplement nitrogen needs (partially replacing conventional urea top-dressing, often by 25-50%), resulted in comparable yields to conventional methods, sometimes with a marginal yield advantage (3-8%), not significantly higher yields across all crops when conventional urea is entirely replaced. The claim is primarily about maintaining yield with reduced conventional urea usage. Statement 4 is correct. Conventional phosphate fertilizers like DAP suffer from low use efficiency as phosphorus gets easily fixed in the soil (becomes unavailable to plants). Nano-fertilizers, including Nano DAP, are proposed to improve nutrient use efficiency by facilitating better absorption, targeted delivery, and potentially reducing fixation and losses through mechanisms like gradual release or better plant uptake pathways. Improving PUE is a major rationale for Nano DAP development.

#### 7. Question

With reference to Nano Urea and Nano DAP in India, consider the following statements:

• Both Nano Urea and Nano DAP have been provisionally notified under the Fertilizer Control Order (FCO), 1985, based on ICAR-conducted bio-efficacy trials.

• The primary mode of application recommended for both Nano Urea and Nano DAP is soil application during basal dose administration.

• ICAR studies suggest that substituting conventional urea entirely with Nano Urea (as per recommended foliar sprays) leads to significantly higher yields across all major crops.

• A key proposed benefit of Nano DAP is its potential to reduce phosphorus fixation in the soil and improve Phosphorus Use Efficiency (PUE) compared to conventional DAP.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (A) 1 and 4 only

• (B) 2 and 3 only

• (C) 1, 3 and 4 only

• (D) 1, 2 and 4 only

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct. Both Nano Urea (as Nano Nitrogen Fertilizer) and Nano DAP have been provisionally notified under the FCO, 1985, following evaluation based on bio-efficacy trials conducted by ICAR institutions and toxicology tests.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The recommended application method for both Nano Urea and Nano DAP, based on initial trials and product design (e.g., by IFFCO), is primarily foliar spray at critical crop growth stages. Nano Urea is typically recommended as a top-dressing substitute/supplement, not basal application. Nano DAP trials also involved seed treatment and foliar application. Soil application is the norm for conventional granular fertilizers.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. ICAR trials indicated that foliar sprays of Nano Urea, when used to supplement nitrogen needs (partially replacing conventional urea top-dressing, often by 25-50%), resulted in comparable yields to conventional methods, sometimes with a marginal yield advantage (3-8%), not significantly higher yields across all crops when conventional urea is entirely replaced. The claim is primarily about maintaining yield with reduced conventional urea usage.

• Statement 4 is correct. Conventional phosphate fertilizers like DAP suffer from low use efficiency as phosphorus gets easily fixed in the soil (becomes unavailable to plants). Nano-fertilizers, including Nano DAP, are proposed to improve nutrient use efficiency by facilitating better absorption, targeted delivery, and potentially reducing fixation and losses through mechanisms like gradual release or better plant uptake pathways. Improving PUE is a major rationale for Nano DAP development.

Solution: A

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Seed Replacement Rate (SRR) and seed policies in India: Seed Replacement Rate (SRR) refers to the percentage of the total cropped area sown with farm-saved seeds of traditional varieties. India’s National Seed Policy, 2002, primarily aimed to restrict the entry of private sector companies in seed production to protect farmers’ interests. Achieving a high SRR, particularly for non-hybrid crops, is crucial for realizing the yield potential of newly developed improved varieties. The Seed Bill, intended to replace the Seed Act 1966, has been enacted and provides a comprehensive framework for regulating genetically modified seeds. How many of the above statements are correct? (A) Only one (B) Only two (C) Only three (D) All four Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. SRR is the percentage of cropped area sown with certified/quality seeds rather than farm-saved seeds. A higher SRR indicates greater adoption of quality seeds. Farm-saved seeds represent the portion not covered by SRR. Statement 2 is incorrect. The National Seed Policy, 2002, aimed to provide a framework for the growth of the seed industry, encourage private sector participation, protect farmers’ interests, and facilitate access to quality seeds and planting material. It focused on varietal development, quality assurance, and intellectual property, not restricting the private sector. The policy environment actually fostered a vibrant public-private seed sector. Statement 3 is correct. Farm-saved seeds, especially for self-pollinated crops, often lose genetic purity and vigour over generations. Replacing them periodically with certified seeds of improved varieties (i.e., increasing SRR) is essential to harness the higher yield potential and other desirable traits (like disease resistance, climate resilience) bred into those varieties by researchers. For hybrids, SRR is inherently 100% as saved seeds are not viable for maintaining hybrid characteristics. Statement 4 is incorrect. The Seed Bill, proposed multiple times (e.g., 2004, 2014, 2019) to replace the outdated Seed Act, 1966, has faced hurdles and has not been enacted into law as of recent information. Issues around farmer rights, regulation of seed prices, and GM seed provisions have been contentious. GM seeds are currently regulated primarily under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, and related rules, not a comprehensive Seed Act. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. SRR is the percentage of cropped area sown with certified/quality seeds rather than farm-saved seeds. A higher SRR indicates greater adoption of quality seeds. Farm-saved seeds represent the portion not covered by SRR. Statement 2 is incorrect. The National Seed Policy, 2002, aimed to provide a framework for the growth of the seed industry, encourage private sector participation, protect farmers’ interests, and facilitate access to quality seeds and planting material. It focused on varietal development, quality assurance, and intellectual property, not restricting the private sector. The policy environment actually fostered a vibrant public-private seed sector. Statement 3 is correct. Farm-saved seeds, especially for self-pollinated crops, often lose genetic purity and vigour over generations. Replacing them periodically with certified seeds of improved varieties (i.e., increasing SRR) is essential to harness the higher yield potential and other desirable traits (like disease resistance, climate resilience) bred into those varieties by researchers. For hybrids, SRR is inherently 100% as saved seeds are not viable for maintaining hybrid characteristics. Statement 4 is incorrect. The Seed Bill, proposed multiple times (e.g., 2004, 2014, 2019) to replace the outdated Seed Act, 1966, has faced hurdles and has not been enacted into law as of recent information. Issues around farmer rights, regulation of seed prices, and GM seed provisions have been contentious. GM seeds are currently regulated primarily under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, and related rules, not a comprehensive Seed Act.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Seed Replacement Rate (SRR) and seed policies in India:

• Seed Replacement Rate (SRR) refers to the percentage of the total cropped area sown with farm-saved seeds of traditional varieties.

• India’s National Seed Policy, 2002, primarily aimed to restrict the entry of private sector companies in seed production to protect farmers’ interests.

• Achieving a high SRR, particularly for non-hybrid crops, is crucial for realizing the yield potential of newly developed improved varieties.

• The Seed Bill, intended to replace the Seed Act 1966, has been enacted and provides a comprehensive framework for regulating genetically modified seeds.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (A) Only one

• (B) Only two

• (C) Only three

• (D) All four

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. SRR is the percentage of cropped area sown with certified/quality seeds rather than farm-saved seeds. A higher SRR indicates greater adoption of quality seeds. Farm-saved seeds represent the portion not covered by SRR.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The National Seed Policy, 2002, aimed to provide a framework for the growth of the seed industry, encourage private sector participation, protect farmers’ interests, and facilitate access to quality seeds and planting material. It focused on varietal development, quality assurance, and intellectual property, not restricting the private sector. The policy environment actually fostered a vibrant public-private seed sector.

• Statement 3 is correct. Farm-saved seeds, especially for self-pollinated crops, often lose genetic purity and vigour over generations. Replacing them periodically with certified seeds of improved varieties (i.e., increasing SRR) is essential to harness the higher yield potential and other desirable traits (like disease resistance, climate resilience) bred into those varieties by researchers. For hybrids, SRR is inherently 100% as saved seeds are not viable for maintaining hybrid characteristics.

• Statement 4 is incorrect.

• The Seed Bill, proposed multiple times (e.g., 2004, 2014, 2019) to replace the outdated Seed Act, 1966, has faced hurdles and has not been enacted into law as of recent information. Issues around farmer rights, regulation of seed prices, and GM seed provisions have been contentious. GM seeds are currently regulated primarily under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, and related rules, not a comprehensive Seed Act.

Solution: A

• Statement 4 is incorrect.

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan (PM-KUSUM) scheme: Component A focuses exclusively on providing subsidies for large-scale solar parks developed by private corporations on agricultural land. Component B aims at replacing existing diesel pumps with subsidized standalone solar-powered agricultural pumps. Component C involves the solarization of existing grid-connected agricultural pumps, allowing farmers to use solar power and potentially sell surplus energy back to the grid. The Central Financial Assistance (CFA) structure is uniform across all states, providing a 60% subsidy (30% Centre + 30% State) for Components B and C. Which of the above statements are correct? (A) 1 and 4 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1, 2 and 3 only (D) 2, 3 and 4 only Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. Component A supports setting up decentralized, small solar power plants (up to 2 MW capacity) on barren/fallow/agricultural land, primarily by individual farmers, groups of farmers, cooperatives, panchayats, or Farmer Producer Organisations (FPOs). While developers can be involved if farmers lack equity, the focus is not exclusively on large corporate parks. DISCOMs purchase the power at a feed-in tariff. Statement 2 is correct. Component B specifically targets the installation of new standalone solar-powered agricultural pumps, providing an alternative to diesel pumps and addressing irrigation needs in off-grid areas. It aims to install 20 lakh such pumps. Statement 3 is correct. Component C focuses on solarizing existing grid-connected agricultural pumps. This allows farmers to meet their irrigation needs using solar energy during the day and potentially feed surplus solar power into the grid, generating extra income. It targets 15 lakh such pumps. Statement 4 is incorrect. The CFA structure for Components B and C varies for certain categories of states. While the standard model is 30% Centre + 30% State + 40% Farmer, for North Eastern States, Sikkim, J&K, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Lakshadweep, and Andaman & Nicobar Islands, the central CFA is higher (50%), with the state providing 30% and the farmer contributing the remaining 20%. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. Component A supports setting up decentralized, small solar power plants (up to 2 MW capacity) on barren/fallow/agricultural land, primarily by individual farmers, groups of farmers, cooperatives, panchayats, or Farmer Producer Organisations (FPOs). While developers can be involved if farmers lack equity, the focus is not exclusively on large corporate parks. DISCOMs purchase the power at a feed-in tariff. Statement 2 is correct. Component B specifically targets the installation of new standalone solar-powered agricultural pumps, providing an alternative to diesel pumps and addressing irrigation needs in off-grid areas. It aims to install 20 lakh such pumps. Statement 3 is correct. Component C focuses on solarizing existing grid-connected agricultural pumps. This allows farmers to meet their irrigation needs using solar energy during the day and potentially feed surplus solar power into the grid, generating extra income. It targets 15 lakh such pumps. Statement 4 is incorrect. The CFA structure for Components B and C varies for certain categories of states. While the standard model is 30% Centre + 30% State + 40% Farmer, for North Eastern States, Sikkim, J&K, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Lakshadweep, and Andaman & Nicobar Islands, the central CFA is higher (50%), with the state providing 30% and the farmer contributing the remaining 20%.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan (PM-KUSUM) scheme:

• Component A focuses exclusively on providing subsidies for large-scale solar parks developed by private corporations on agricultural land.

• Component B aims at replacing existing diesel pumps with subsidized standalone solar-powered agricultural pumps.

• Component C involves the solarization of existing grid-connected agricultural pumps, allowing farmers to use solar power and potentially sell surplus energy back to the grid.

• The Central Financial Assistance (CFA) structure is uniform across all states, providing a 60% subsidy (30% Centre + 30% State) for Components B and C.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (A) 1 and 4 only

• (B) 2 and 3 only

• (C) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (D) 2, 3 and 4 only

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Component A supports setting up decentralized, small solar power plants (up to 2 MW capacity) on barren/fallow/agricultural land, primarily by individual farmers, groups of farmers, cooperatives, panchayats, or Farmer Producer Organisations (FPOs). While developers can be involved if farmers lack equity, the focus is not exclusively on large corporate parks. DISCOMs purchase the power at a feed-in tariff.

• Statement 2 is correct. Component B specifically targets the installation of new standalone solar-powered agricultural pumps, providing an alternative to diesel pumps and addressing irrigation needs in off-grid areas. It aims to install 20 lakh such pumps.

• Statement 3 is correct. Component C focuses on solarizing existing grid-connected agricultural pumps. This allows farmers to meet their irrigation needs using solar energy during the day and potentially feed surplus solar power into the grid, generating extra income. It targets 15 lakh such pumps.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. The CFA structure for Components B and C varies for certain categories of states. While the standard model is 30% Centre + 30% State + 40% Farmer, for North Eastern States, Sikkim, J&K, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Lakshadweep, and Andaman & Nicobar Islands, the central CFA is higher (50%), with the state providing 30% and the farmer contributing the remaining 20%.

Solution: B

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Consider the features and operational aspects of the Kisan Credit Card (KCC) scheme in India: The KCC scheme provides only short-term crop loans to meet cultivation expenses. The interest rate for KCC loans up to ₹3 lakh is fixed at 4% per annum for all farmers, irrespective of repayment timeliness. Tenant farmers, oral lessees, and Self Help Groups (SHGs) of farmers are explicitly excluded from KCC eligibility. The credit limit under KCC is determined based on the scale of finance for crops, anticipated post-harvest expenses, farm maintenance costs, and includes escalation for subsequent years within the card’s validity period. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect. While primarily known for short-term crop loans, the KCC framework also includes components for term loans for allied activities, investment credit, and working capital for farm asset maintenance and post-harvest expenses. Recent guidelines also incorporate working capital for animal husbandry and fisheries within the KCC limit. Statement 2 is incorrect. The applicable interest rate is generally linked to the bank’s lending rate (e.g., MCLR). For short-term crop loans up to ₹3 lakh, the Government of India provides an interest subvention of 2%. An additional Prompt Repayment Incentive (PRI) of 3% is given to farmers who repay on time. This makes the effective interest rate 4% for prompt payers, not a fixed rate of 4% for everyone. The standard rate without subvention/incentive is higher (e.g., 7% mentioned as a benchmark before PRI). Statement 3 is incorrect. The eligibility criteria for KCC explicitly include tenant farmers, oral lessees, sharecroppers, and also Self Help Groups (SHGs) or Joint Liability Groups (JLGs) of farmers. Statement 4 is correct. The short-term credit limit calculation considers the scale of finance (decided by District Level Technical Committee) multiplied by the area cultivated, plus margins for post-harvest/household needs (e.g., 10%) and farm asset repair/maintenance (e.g., 20%). For subsequent years within the 5-year validity, an escalation factor (e.g., 10%) is typically added to account for increased costs. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect. While primarily known for short-term crop loans, the KCC framework also includes components for term loans for allied activities, investment credit, and working capital for farm asset maintenance and post-harvest expenses. Recent guidelines also incorporate working capital for animal husbandry and fisheries within the KCC limit. Statement 2 is incorrect. The applicable interest rate is generally linked to the bank’s lending rate (e.g., MCLR). For short-term crop loans up to ₹3 lakh, the Government of India provides an interest subvention of 2%. An additional Prompt Repayment Incentive (PRI) of 3% is given to farmers who repay on time. This makes the effective interest rate 4% for prompt payers, not a fixed rate of 4% for everyone. The standard rate without subvention/incentive is higher (e.g., 7% mentioned as a benchmark before PRI). Statement 3 is incorrect. The eligibility criteria for KCC explicitly include tenant farmers, oral lessees, sharecroppers, and also Self Help Groups (SHGs) or Joint Liability Groups (JLGs) of farmers. Statement 4 is correct. The short-term credit limit calculation considers the scale of finance (decided by District Level Technical Committee) multiplied by the area cultivated, plus margins for post-harvest/household needs (e.g., 10%) and farm asset repair/maintenance (e.g., 20%). For subsequent years within the 5-year validity, an escalation factor (e.g., 10%) is typically added to account for increased costs.

#### 10. Question

Consider the features and operational aspects of the Kisan Credit Card (KCC) scheme in India:

• The KCC scheme provides only short-term crop loans to meet cultivation expenses.

• The interest rate for KCC loans up to ₹3 lakh is fixed at 4% per annum for all farmers, irrespective of repayment timeliness.

• Tenant farmers, oral lessees, and Self Help Groups (SHGs) of farmers are explicitly excluded from KCC eligibility.

• The credit limit under KCC is determined based on the scale of finance for crops, anticipated post-harvest expenses, farm maintenance costs, and includes escalation for subsequent years within the card’s validity period.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While primarily known for short-term crop loans, the KCC framework also includes components for term loans for allied activities, investment credit, and working capital for farm asset maintenance and post-harvest expenses. Recent guidelines also incorporate working capital for animal husbandry and fisheries within the KCC limit.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The applicable interest rate is generally linked to the bank’s lending rate (e.g., MCLR). For short-term crop loans up to ₹3 lakh, the Government of India provides an interest subvention of 2%. An additional Prompt Repayment Incentive (PRI) of 3% is given to farmers who repay on time. This makes the effective interest rate 4% for prompt payers, not a fixed rate of 4% for everyone. The standard rate without subvention/incentive is higher (e.g., 7% mentioned as a benchmark before PRI).

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The eligibility criteria for KCC explicitly include tenant farmers, oral lessees, sharecroppers, and also Self Help Groups (SHGs) or Joint Liability Groups (JLGs) of farmers.

• Statement 4 is correct. The short-term credit limit calculation considers the scale of finance (decided by District Level Technical Committee) multiplied by the area cultivated, plus margins for post-harvest/household needs (e.g., 10%) and farm asset repair/maintenance (e.g., 20%). For subsequent years within the 5-year validity, an escalation factor (e.g., 10%) is typically added to account for increased costs.

Solution: C

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: More than 50% of bamboo produced in India is utilised in paper and pulp industry. Bamboo cultivation is restricted to Northeast India. The National Bamboo Mission promotes biofuel production from bamboo. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 1 and 2 only Correct Solution: B Construction and building materials industry uses largest percentage of bamboo produced in India; the sector consumes nearly 40% of bamboo produced in the country It is followed by furniture and handicrafts then flooring and finally the paper and pulp industry which consumes nearly 10% of bamboo produced in the country. Hence statement 1 is incorrect India produces and estimated 3.23 million tons of bamboo annually making it the second largest bamboo producer globally after China. Northeast region is the major producer of bamboo; states like Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Arunachal Pradesh and Odisha also have significant bamboo resources. Hence statement 2 is incorrect The National Bamboo Mission aims to promote holistic development of the bamboo sector including biofuel production It facilitates development of a value chain for bamboo, including plantation, production, processing, standardisation with a focus on bio energy extraction and biofuel production. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: B Construction and building materials industry uses largest percentage of bamboo produced in India; the sector consumes nearly 40% of bamboo produced in the country It is followed by furniture and handicrafts then flooring and finally the paper and pulp industry which consumes nearly 10% of bamboo produced in the country. Hence statement 1 is incorrect India produces and estimated 3.23 million tons of bamboo annually making it the second largest bamboo producer globally after China. Northeast region is the major producer of bamboo; states like Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Arunachal Pradesh and Odisha also have significant bamboo resources. Hence statement 2 is incorrect The National Bamboo Mission aims to promote holistic development of the bamboo sector including biofuel production It facilitates development of a value chain for bamboo, including plantation, production, processing, standardisation with a focus on bio energy extraction and biofuel production. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 11. Question

Consider the following statements:

• More than 50% of bamboo produced in India is utilised in paper and pulp industry.

• Bamboo cultivation is restricted to Northeast India.

• The National Bamboo Mission promotes biofuel production from bamboo.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 3 only

• (c) 2 only

• (d) 1 and 2 only

Solution: B

• Construction and building materials industry uses largest percentage of bamboo produced in India; the sector consumes nearly 40% of bamboo produced in the country

• It is followed by furniture and handicrafts then flooring and finally the paper and pulp industry which consumes nearly 10% of bamboo produced in the country.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• India produces and estimated 3.23 million tons of bamboo annually making it the second largest bamboo producer globally after China.

• Northeast region is the major producer of bamboo; states like Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Arunachal Pradesh and Odisha also have significant bamboo resources.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• The National Bamboo Mission aims to promote holistic development of the bamboo sector including biofuel production

• It facilitates development of a value chain for bamboo, including plantation, production, processing, standardisation with a focus on bio energy extraction and biofuel production.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: B

• Construction and building materials industry uses largest percentage of bamboo produced in India; the sector consumes nearly 40% of bamboo produced in the country

• It is followed by furniture and handicrafts then flooring and finally the paper and pulp industry which consumes nearly 10% of bamboo produced in the country.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• India produces and estimated 3.23 million tons of bamboo annually making it the second largest bamboo producer globally after China.

• Northeast region is the major producer of bamboo; states like Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Arunachal Pradesh and Odisha also have significant bamboo resources.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• The National Bamboo Mission aims to promote holistic development of the bamboo sector including biofuel production

• It facilitates development of a value chain for bamboo, including plantation, production, processing, standardisation with a focus on bio energy extraction and biofuel production.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : Statement – I : Silvopasture system help buffering against extreme temperature and winds, thus improving animal welfare. Statement – II : Silvopasture system create microclimate conditions. Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ? (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct Correct Solution : A Silvopasture systems are sustainable Land management approach that combines trees, livestock grazing and forage production on the same land providing ecological and economic benefits. Silvopasture systems create a microlimate ; the presence of trees alter the local environment creating conditions that differ from open pasture This altered micro climate can have several beneficial effects including reducing heat stress in livestock and improving forage quality. Microclimate creation significantly impact local weather system Microclimates, which are small scale variation in climate compared to the larger regional climate, can influence temperature, wind pattern, humidity and precipitation ; this localised weather variation can affect agriculture areas and urban environments. It regulates local climatic conditions, buffering against extreme temperature and winds, and providing a favourable environment for livestock, thus improving animal welfare. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 explains statement 1 Incorrect Solution : A Silvopasture systems are sustainable Land management approach that combines trees, livestock grazing and forage production on the same land providing ecological and economic benefits. Silvopasture systems create a microlimate ; the presence of trees alter the local environment creating conditions that differ from open pasture This altered micro climate can have several beneficial effects including reducing heat stress in livestock and improving forage quality. Microclimate creation significantly impact local weather system Microclimates, which are small scale variation in climate compared to the larger regional climate, can influence temperature, wind pattern, humidity and precipitation ; this localised weather variation can affect agriculture areas and urban environments. It regulates local climatic conditions, buffering against extreme temperature and winds, and providing a favourable environment for livestock, thus improving animal welfare. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 explains statement 1

#### 12. Question

Consider the following statements :

Statement – I :

Silvopasture system help buffering against extreme temperature and winds, thus improving animal welfare.

Statement – II :

Silvopasture system create microclimate conditions.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?

• (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I

• (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I

• (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect

• (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct

Solution : A

• Silvopasture systems are sustainable Land management approach that combines trees, livestock grazing and forage production on the same land providing ecological and economic benefits.

• Silvopasture systems create a microlimate ; the presence of trees alter the local environment creating conditions that differ from open pasture

• This altered micro climate can have several beneficial effects including reducing heat stress in livestock and improving forage quality.

• Microclimate creation significantly impact local weather system

• Microclimates, which are small scale variation in climate compared to the larger regional climate, can influence temperature, wind pattern, humidity and precipitation ; this localised weather variation can affect agriculture areas and urban environments.

• It regulates local climatic conditions, buffering against extreme temperature and winds, and providing a favourable environment for livestock, thus improving animal welfare.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 explains statement 1

Solution : A

• Silvopasture systems are sustainable Land management approach that combines trees, livestock grazing and forage production on the same land providing ecological and economic benefits.

• Silvopasture systems create a microlimate ; the presence of trees alter the local environment creating conditions that differ from open pasture

• This altered micro climate can have several beneficial effects including reducing heat stress in livestock and improving forage quality.

• Microclimate creation significantly impact local weather system

• It regulates local climatic conditions, buffering against extreme temperature and winds, and providing a favourable environment for livestock, thus improving animal welfare.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 explains statement 1

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Namo Drone Didi Scheme : It will be administered by the Department of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare under the Deen Dayal Antodaya Yojana – National Rural livelihood mission. Under it Farmer Producer Organisations can apply for drones, for which they have to provide 50% of cost for the drones. The drones will be used for application of liquid fertilizers. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Namo Drone Didi came has been launched by India under the Deendayal Antodaya Yojana National Rural Livelihood Mission. It is administered by the Department of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare, Ministry of Agriculture, in partnership with the Ministry of Rural Development. Hence statement 1 is correct Namo Drone Didi Scheme has been launched to provide women self help groups with drones for agriculture related services, empowering them with new income sources while enhancing farming efficiency Central financial assistance covered in 80% of the Drone cost capped at Rs.8 lakh per Drone has been fixed. Hence statement 2 is incorrect The scheme aims to provide drones 250 thousand selected women SHGs during the period from 2024-25 to 2025-26 for providing rental services to farmers for agriculture purposes (application of liquid fertilizers and pesticides). Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: B Namo Drone Didi came has been launched by India under the Deendayal Antodaya Yojana National Rural Livelihood Mission. It is administered by the Department of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare, Ministry of Agriculture, in partnership with the Ministry of Rural Development. Hence statement 1 is correct Namo Drone Didi Scheme has been launched to provide women self help groups with drones for agriculture related services, empowering them with new income sources while enhancing farming efficiency Central financial assistance covered in 80% of the Drone cost capped at Rs.8 lakh per Drone has been fixed. Hence statement 2 is incorrect The scheme aims to provide drones 250 thousand selected women SHGs during the period from 2024-25 to 2025-26 for providing rental services to farmers for agriculture purposes (application of liquid fertilizers and pesticides). Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 13. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Namo Drone Didi Scheme :

• It will be administered by the Department of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare under the Deen Dayal Antodaya Yojana – National Rural livelihood mission.

• Under it Farmer Producer Organisations can apply for drones, for which they have to provide 50% of cost for the drones.

• The drones will be used for application of liquid fertilizers.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Namo Drone Didi came has been launched by India under the Deendayal Antodaya Yojana National Rural Livelihood Mission.

• It is administered by the Department of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare, Ministry of Agriculture, in partnership with the Ministry of Rural Development.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Namo Drone Didi Scheme has been launched to provide women self help groups with drones for agriculture related services, empowering them with new income sources while enhancing farming efficiency

• Central financial assistance covered in 80% of the Drone cost capped at Rs.8 lakh per Drone has been fixed.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• The scheme aims to provide drones 250 thousand selected women SHGs during the period from 2024-25 to 2025-26 for providing rental services to farmers for agriculture purposes (application of liquid fertilizers and pesticides).

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: B

• Namo Drone Didi came has been launched by India under the Deendayal Antodaya Yojana National Rural Livelihood Mission.

• It is administered by the Department of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare, Ministry of Agriculture, in partnership with the Ministry of Rural Development.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Central financial assistance covered in 80% of the Drone cost capped at Rs.8 lakh per Drone has been fixed.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : The National Pest Surveillance System (NPSS) uses Artificial intelligence and Machine Learning to provide solution on crop diseases and crop damages. Presently, NPSS is available only for the crops covered under the Minimum Support Price and Fair Remunurative Price. NPSS is available in all regional languages. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A NPSS has been launched by the Minister of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare to enhance surveillance and management of pest diseases. The system utilizes latest digital technologies such as Artificial intelligence and Machine Learning to provide quick and instant solution regarding pest attack, crop diseases and crop damages by issuing real tine crop protection advisory to farmers. Hence statement 1 is correct NPSS is being used by farmers across the country for identification of Pest and diseases in 61 crops and pest management advisories for 15 major crops- cotton, paddy, wheat, maize, pigeon pea, moong, soybean, sugarcane, brinjal, tomato, Apple, banana, grapes and pomegranate. On the other hand, the government announces MSP for 22 mandated agriculture crops that are categorised into 14 kharif crops, 6 Rabi crops and 2 commercial crops; also the Fair and Remunerative Price is set for sugarcane. Hence statement 2 is incorrect At present, NPSS is available in four languages English, Hindi, Marathi and Punjabi. Hence statement 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: A NPSS has been launched by the Minister of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare to enhance surveillance and management of pest diseases. The system utilizes latest digital technologies such as Artificial intelligence and Machine Learning to provide quick and instant solution regarding pest attack, crop diseases and crop damages by issuing real tine crop protection advisory to farmers. Hence statement 1 is correct NPSS is being used by farmers across the country for identification of Pest and diseases in 61 crops and pest management advisories for 15 major crops- cotton, paddy, wheat, maize, pigeon pea, moong, soybean, sugarcane, brinjal, tomato, Apple, banana, grapes and pomegranate. On the other hand, the government announces MSP for 22 mandated agriculture crops that are categorised into 14 kharif crops, 6 Rabi crops and 2 commercial crops; also the Fair and Remunerative Price is set for sugarcane. Hence statement 2 is incorrect At present, NPSS is available in four languages English, Hindi, Marathi and Punjabi. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

#### 14. Question

Consider the following statements :

• The National Pest Surveillance System (NPSS) uses Artificial intelligence and Machine Learning to provide solution on crop diseases and crop damages.

• Presently, NPSS is available only for the crops covered under the Minimum Support Price and Fair Remunurative Price.

• NPSS is available in all regional languages.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• NPSS has been launched by the Minister of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare to enhance surveillance and management of pest diseases.

• The system utilizes latest digital technologies such as Artificial intelligence and Machine Learning to provide quick and instant solution regarding pest attack, crop diseases and crop damages by issuing real tine crop protection advisory to farmers.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• NPSS is being used by farmers across the country for identification of Pest and diseases in 61 crops and pest management advisories for 15 major crops- cotton, paddy, wheat, maize, pigeon pea, moong, soybean, sugarcane, brinjal, tomato, Apple, banana, grapes and pomegranate.

• On the other hand, the government announces MSP for 22 mandated agriculture crops that are categorised into 14 kharif crops, 6 Rabi crops and 2 commercial crops; also the Fair and Remunerative Price is set for sugarcane.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• At present, NPSS is available in four languages English, Hindi, Marathi and Punjabi.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution: A

• NPSS has been launched by the Minister of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare to enhance surveillance and management of pest diseases.

Hence statement 1 is correct

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• At present, NPSS is available in four languages English, Hindi, Marathi and Punjabi.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement – I : Poor genetic diversity in mangoes is responsible for decreasing mango productivity of India compared to China, since last 3 years. Statement – II : Higher temperature results in early maturity and fruit drop issues with mangoes in India. Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ? (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct Correct Solution : D Higher temperatures lead to early maturity, fruit drop and disorders such as spongy tissue in several varieties of mango including Alphonso variety; this can impact mango productivity in the country. Empirical evidence and statistical data of the Horticulture Department of India suggest the contradicting perception of decline The data from Horticulture Department and Agriculture Marketing Intelligence Centre show that mango productivity and cultivated area in India have both increased. Mango productivity in India has increased from 5.5 metric tonnes per hectare in FY 2009 to 9.7 metric tonnes per hectare in FY 2018; India’s productivity of mango in 2024-25 is expected to surpass that of major producers like China and Thailand. According to experts, this resilience in mango crop in India is due to genetic diversity of the fruits genetic diversity allows the fruit to adopt to changing conditions such as higher temperature and irregular rainfall Indian researchers and horticulture experts suggest that while extreme weather can disrupt flowering and fruiting stages, the physiological mechanism and genetic variation in mango species help them withstand environmental stress. Hence statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct Incorrect Solution : D Higher temperatures lead to early maturity, fruit drop and disorders such as spongy tissue in several varieties of mango including Alphonso variety; this can impact mango productivity in the country. Empirical evidence and statistical data of the Horticulture Department of India suggest the contradicting perception of decline The data from Horticulture Department and Agriculture Marketing Intelligence Centre show that mango productivity and cultivated area in India have both increased. Mango productivity in India has increased from 5.5 metric tonnes per hectare in FY 2009 to 9.7 metric tonnes per hectare in FY 2018; India’s productivity of mango in 2024-25 is expected to surpass that of major producers like China and Thailand. According to experts, this resilience in mango crop in India is due to genetic diversity of the fruits genetic diversity allows the fruit to adopt to changing conditions such as higher temperature and irregular rainfall Indian researchers and horticulture experts suggest that while extreme weather can disrupt flowering and fruiting stages, the physiological mechanism and genetic variation in mango species help them withstand environmental stress. Hence statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct

#### 15. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement – I :

Poor genetic diversity in mangoes is responsible for decreasing mango productivity of India compared to China, since last 3 years.

Statement – II :

Higher temperature results in early maturity and fruit drop issues with mangoes in India.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?

• (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I

• (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I

• (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect

• (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct

Solution : D

• Higher temperatures lead to early maturity, fruit drop and disorders such as spongy tissue in several varieties of mango including Alphonso variety; this can impact mango productivity in the country.

• Empirical evidence and statistical data of the Horticulture Department of India suggest the contradicting perception of decline

• The data from Horticulture Department and Agriculture Marketing Intelligence Centre show that mango productivity and cultivated area in India have both increased. Mango productivity in India has increased from 5.5 metric tonnes per hectare in FY 2009 to 9.7 metric tonnes per hectare in FY 2018; India’s productivity of mango in 2024-25 is expected to surpass that of major producers like China and Thailand.

• According to experts, this resilience in mango crop in India is due to genetic diversity of the fruits genetic diversity allows the fruit to adopt to changing conditions such as higher temperature and irregular rainfall

• Indian researchers and horticulture experts suggest that while extreme weather can disrupt flowering and fruiting stages, the physiological mechanism and genetic variation in mango species help them withstand environmental stress.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct

Solution : D

• Empirical evidence and statistical data of the Horticulture Department of India suggest the contradicting perception of decline

Hence statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : Market Intervention Scheme (MIS) is a component of PM AASHA. MIS supports perishable crops not covered under Minimum Support Price, only if market prices of those fall by at least 10% from the previous normal year. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C The government has revised the Market Intervention Scheme guidelines recently to encourage more states to implement the scheme MIS supports perishable crops like fruits, vegetables and spices that are not covered under the minimum support price initiative in order to prevent distress sale during price drop from excess Production. The revised provisions made MIS a component of the integrity scheme of PM-AASHA MIS is activated only if market prices fall by at least 10% from the previous normal year The coverage limit for procurement has been raised from 20 to 25% of total production. Now, instead of physical procurement, states can transfer the price difference between the Market Intervention Price and the selling price directly to the farmers’ bank accounts. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct Incorrect Solution: C The government has revised the Market Intervention Scheme guidelines recently to encourage more states to implement the scheme MIS supports perishable crops like fruits, vegetables and spices that are not covered under the minimum support price initiative in order to prevent distress sale during price drop from excess Production. The revised provisions made MIS a component of the integrity scheme of PM-AASHA MIS is activated only if market prices fall by at least 10% from the previous normal year The coverage limit for procurement has been raised from 20 to 25% of total production. Now, instead of physical procurement, states can transfer the price difference between the Market Intervention Price and the selling price directly to the farmers’ bank accounts. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

#### 16. Question

Consider the following statements :

• Market Intervention Scheme (MIS) is a component of PM AASHA.

• MIS supports perishable crops not covered under Minimum Support Price, only if market prices of those fall by at least 10% from the previous normal year.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

• The government has revised the Market Intervention Scheme guidelines recently to encourage more states to implement the scheme

• MIS supports perishable crops like fruits, vegetables and spices that are not covered under the minimum support price initiative in order to prevent distress sale during price drop from excess Production.

• The revised provisions made MIS a component of the integrity scheme of PM-AASHA

• MIS is activated only if market prices fall by at least 10% from the previous normal year

• The coverage limit for procurement has been raised from 20 to 25% of total production.

• Now, instead of physical procurement, states can transfer the price difference between the Market Intervention Price and the selling price directly to the farmers’ bank accounts.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

Solution: C

• The government has revised the Market Intervention Scheme guidelines recently to encourage more states to implement the scheme

• The revised provisions made MIS a component of the integrity scheme of PM-AASHA

• MIS is activated only if market prices fall by at least 10% from the previous normal year

• The coverage limit for procurement has been raised from 20 to 25% of total production.

• Now, instead of physical procurement, states can transfer the price difference between the Market Intervention Price and the selling price directly to the farmers’ bank accounts.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) has launched the Honey Mission to integrate the farming with agriculture for additional income. Honey Mission is a part of National Beekeeping and Honey Mission of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare to promote Sweet revolution in India. KVIC is an autonomous organisation under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only Correct Solution: A KVIC has recently distributed bee-boxes, Honey colonies and toolkit to bee keepers under the Honey Mission to spread the sweet revolution. The Honey Mission 2017 is an initiative of KVIC that promotes beekeeping and honey production (Apiculture) and integrates bee farming with agriculture for additional income. The Honey Mission is a part of the larger National Beekeeping and Honey Mission, a Central sector scheme of the Ministry of Agriculture that aims to to promote scientific Beekeeping and enhancing Honey production in India. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct KVIC is a statutory body established under the Khadi and Village Industries Commission Act 1956. It is an Apex organisation under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Industries. It promotes, facilitates, organises and assists in establishment and development of khadi and village industries in rural areas. Hence statement 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: A KVIC has recently distributed bee-boxes, Honey colonies and toolkit to bee keepers under the Honey Mission to spread the sweet revolution. The Honey Mission 2017 is an initiative of KVIC that promotes beekeeping and honey production (Apiculture) and integrates bee farming with agriculture for additional income. The Honey Mission is a part of the larger National Beekeeping and Honey Mission, a Central sector scheme of the Ministry of Agriculture that aims to to promote scientific Beekeeping and enhancing Honey production in India. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct KVIC is a statutory body established under the Khadi and Village Industries Commission Act 1956. It is an Apex organisation under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Industries. It promotes, facilitates, organises and assists in establishment and development of khadi and village industries in rural areas. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

#### 17. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) has launched the Honey Mission to integrate the farming with agriculture for additional income.

• Honey Mission is a part of National Beekeeping and Honey Mission of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare to promote Sweet revolution in India.

• KVIC is an autonomous organisation under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3

• (d) 1 and 3 only

Solution: A

• KVIC has recently distributed bee-boxes, Honey colonies and toolkit to bee keepers under the Honey Mission to spread the sweet revolution.

• The Honey Mission 2017 is an initiative of KVIC that promotes beekeeping and honey production (Apiculture) and integrates bee farming with agriculture for additional income.

• The Honey Mission is a part of the larger National Beekeeping and Honey Mission, a Central sector scheme of the Ministry of Agriculture that aims to to promote scientific Beekeeping and enhancing Honey production in India.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

• KVIC is a statutory body established under the Khadi and Village Industries Commission Act 1956.

• It is an Apex organisation under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Industries.

• It promotes, facilitates, organises and assists in establishment and development of khadi and village industries in rural areas.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution: A

• KVIC has recently distributed bee-boxes, Honey colonies and toolkit to bee keepers under the Honey Mission to spread the sweet revolution.

• The Honey Mission 2017 is an initiative of KVIC that promotes beekeeping and honey production (Apiculture) and integrates bee farming with agriculture for additional income.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

• KVIC is a statutory body established under the Khadi and Village Industries Commission Act 1956.

• It is an Apex organisation under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Industries.

• It promotes, facilitates, organises and assists in establishment and development of khadi and village industries in rural areas.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : The National Plan of Action for Conservation and Management of Sharks (NPOA- Sharks) has been launched in collaboration with the Bay of Bengal Program Intergovernmental Organisation. NPOA- Sharks aligns with the Food and Agriculture Organisation’s International Plan of Action for the Conservation and Management of Sharks. NPOA- Sharks aims to promote fishing of sharks, Sting rays and Chimeras and establish India as one of the leading exporters of these fishes globally. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: C NPOA- Sharks showcases important steps in India’s commitment to sustainable Marine biodiversity and meeting its obligations under several significant International agreements. It has been developed through the collaborative efforts of the Government of India through its line Agencies and the Bay of Bengal Programme Intergovernmental Organisation for conservation of sharks- collectively referring to true sharks, rays and Chimeras. NPOA- Sharks align with the Food and Agriculture Organisation’s International Plan of Action for the Conservation and Management of Sharks and underscores India’s proactive role in global sustainable fisheries. The plan also aligns with Convention on Biological Diversity, United Nations Fish stock Agreement, Convention on Migratory Species (CMS) and CITES. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct NPOA- Sharks do not promote direct catching of sharks till sufficient scientific evidence is there. It aims to identify and ascertain Shark breeding grounds and agree on conservation measures including specific area closures. It will also promote awareness among stakeholders, share research findings with fishermen and encourage fishermen and their associations to monitor and report Shark catches. Hence statement 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: C NPOA- Sharks showcases important steps in India’s commitment to sustainable Marine biodiversity and meeting its obligations under several significant International agreements. It has been developed through the collaborative efforts of the Government of India through its line Agencies and the Bay of Bengal Programme Intergovernmental Organisation for conservation of sharks- collectively referring to true sharks, rays and Chimeras. NPOA- Sharks align with the Food and Agriculture Organisation’s International Plan of Action for the Conservation and Management of Sharks and underscores India’s proactive role in global sustainable fisheries. The plan also aligns with Convention on Biological Diversity, United Nations Fish stock Agreement, Convention on Migratory Species (CMS) and CITES. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct NPOA- Sharks do not promote direct catching of sharks till sufficient scientific evidence is there. It aims to identify and ascertain Shark breeding grounds and agree on conservation measures including specific area closures. It will also promote awareness among stakeholders, share research findings with fishermen and encourage fishermen and their associations to monitor and report Shark catches. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

#### 18. Question

Consider the following statements :

• The National Plan of Action for Conservation and Management of Sharks (NPOA- Sharks) has been launched in collaboration with the Bay of Bengal Program Intergovernmental Organisation.

• NPOA- Sharks aligns with the Food and Agriculture Organisation’s International Plan of Action for the Conservation and Management of Sharks.

• NPOA- Sharks aims to promote fishing of sharks, Sting rays and Chimeras and establish India as one of the leading exporters of these fishes globally.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 2 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: C

• NPOA- Sharks showcases important steps in India’s commitment to sustainable Marine biodiversity and meeting its obligations under several significant International agreements.

• It has been developed through the collaborative efforts of the Government of India through its line Agencies and the Bay of Bengal Programme Intergovernmental Organisation for conservation of sharks- collectively referring to true sharks, rays and Chimeras.

• NPOA- Sharks align with the Food and Agriculture Organisation’s International Plan of Action for the Conservation and Management of Sharks and underscores India’s proactive role in global sustainable fisheries.

• The plan also aligns with Convention on Biological Diversity, United Nations Fish stock Agreement, Convention on Migratory Species (CMS) and CITES.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

• NPOA- Sharks do not promote direct catching of sharks till sufficient scientific evidence is there.

• It aims to identify and ascertain Shark breeding grounds and agree on conservation measures including specific area closures.

• It will also promote awareness among stakeholders, share research findings with fishermen and encourage fishermen and their associations to monitor and report Shark catches.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution: C

• NPOA- Sharks showcases important steps in India’s commitment to sustainable Marine biodiversity and meeting its obligations under several significant International agreements.

• The plan also aligns with Convention on Biological Diversity, United Nations Fish stock Agreement, Convention on Migratory Species (CMS) and CITES.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

• NPOA- Sharks do not promote direct catching of sharks till sufficient scientific evidence is there.

• It aims to identify and ascertain Shark breeding grounds and agree on conservation measures including specific area closures.

• It will also promote awareness among stakeholders, share research findings with fishermen and encourage fishermen and their associations to monitor and report Shark catches.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : Statement – I : The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices is responsible for fixing the compensation for farmers in case of a lower Out Turn Ratio. Statement – II : The Food Corporation of India mandates a standard Out Turn Ratio for millers for extraction of rice from paddy after miling. Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ? (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct Correct Solution : D Out Turn Ratio measures the percentage of rice yeild extracted from paddy after milling. The Food Corporation of India mandates a standard of 67% per quintal for Millers meaning 67 kg of rice per 100 kg of paddy If the OTR falls below 67%, the Millers must compensate the government for the deficit leading to financial loss for the Millers; hence, OTR is a primary concern for the Millers and not for the farmers directly. Hence, the government need not compensate the farmers for a low OTR; CACP is involved in determining the ratio; it plays a major role in fixing the minimum support price for paddy and this MSP is influenced by factors including the OTR. Hence statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct Incorrect Solution : D Out Turn Ratio measures the percentage of rice yeild extracted from paddy after milling. The Food Corporation of India mandates a standard of 67% per quintal for Millers meaning 67 kg of rice per 100 kg of paddy If the OTR falls below 67%, the Millers must compensate the government for the deficit leading to financial loss for the Millers; hence, OTR is a primary concern for the Millers and not for the farmers directly. Hence, the government need not compensate the farmers for a low OTR; CACP is involved in determining the ratio; it plays a major role in fixing the minimum support price for paddy and this MSP is influenced by factors including the OTR. Hence statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct

#### 19. Question

Consider the following statements :

Statement – I :

The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices is responsible for fixing the compensation for farmers in case of a lower Out Turn Ratio.

Statement – II :

The Food Corporation of India mandates a standard Out Turn Ratio for millers for extraction of rice from paddy after miling.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?

• (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I

• (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I

• (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect

• (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct

Solution : D

• Out Turn Ratio measures the percentage of rice yeild extracted from paddy after milling.

• The Food Corporation of India mandates a standard of 67% per quintal for Millers meaning 67 kg of rice per 100 kg of paddy

• If the OTR falls below 67%, the Millers must compensate the government for the deficit leading to financial loss for the Millers; hence, OTR is a primary concern for the Millers and not for the farmers directly.

• Hence, the government need not compensate the farmers for a low OTR;

• CACP is involved in determining the ratio; it plays a major role in fixing the minimum support price for paddy and this MSP is influenced by factors including the OTR.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct

Solution : D

• Out Turn Ratio measures the percentage of rice yeild extracted from paddy after milling.

• The Food Corporation of India mandates a standard of 67% per quintal for Millers meaning 67 kg of rice per 100 kg of paddy

• Hence, the government need not compensate the farmers for a low OTR;

• CACP is involved in determining the ratio; it plays a major role in fixing the minimum support price for paddy and this MSP is influenced by factors including the OTR.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Clean Plant Programme : It will be implemented in association with Indian Council of Agriculture Research to established India as a global exporter of horticulture products. It introduces a robust certification system under the Seeds Act 1966. Under it, virus free, high quality planting material will be provided to farmers. It envisages formation of Clean Plant Centres equipped with tissue culture labs across India. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution : D The Clean Plant Programme is aimed to boost India’s horticulture sector; it is a crucial step towards establishing India as a leading Global exporter of fruits and driving transformative change across the sector The program will be implemented by the National Horticulture Board in association with Indian Council of Agriculture Research. The CPP will provide access to virus free high quality planting material to farmers leading to increase crop yields and improved income opportunities. Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct Under the programme, a robust certification system will be implemented supported by a regulatory Framework under the Seeds Act 1966 to ensure thorough accountability and feasibility in planting material production and sale. Hence statement 2 is correct The programme provides for formation of nine world class state-of-the-art Clean Plant Centres equipped with advanced diagnostic therapeutics and tissue culture labs established across India. The centres will play a crucial role in producing and maintaining virus free planting material meant for larger propagation. Hence statement 4 is correct Incorrect Solution : D The Clean Plant Programme is aimed to boost India’s horticulture sector; it is a crucial step towards establishing India as a leading Global exporter of fruits and driving transformative change across the sector The program will be implemented by the National Horticulture Board in association with Indian Council of Agriculture Research. The CPP will provide access to virus free high quality planting material to farmers leading to increase crop yields and improved income opportunities. Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct Under the programme, a robust certification system will be implemented supported by a regulatory Framework under the Seeds Act 1966 to ensure thorough accountability and feasibility in planting material production and sale. Hence statement 2 is correct The programme provides for formation of nine world class state-of-the-art Clean Plant Centres equipped with advanced diagnostic therapeutics and tissue culture labs established across India. The centres will play a crucial role in producing and maintaining virus free planting material meant for larger propagation. Hence statement 4 is correct

#### 20. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Clean Plant Programme :

• It will be implemented in association with Indian Council of Agriculture Research to established India as a global exporter of horticulture products.

• It introduces a robust certification system under the Seeds Act 1966.

• Under it, virus free, high quality planting material will be provided to farmers.

• It envisages formation of Clean Plant Centres equipped with tissue culture labs across India.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution : D

• The Clean Plant Programme is aimed to boost India’s horticulture sector; it is a crucial step towards establishing India as a leading Global exporter of fruits and driving transformative change across the sector

• The program will be implemented by the National Horticulture Board in association with Indian Council of Agriculture Research.

• The CPP will provide access to virus free high quality planting material to farmers leading to increase crop yields and improved income opportunities.

Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct

• Under the programme, a robust certification system will be implemented supported by a regulatory Framework under the Seeds Act 1966 to ensure thorough accountability and feasibility in planting material production and sale.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• The programme provides for formation of nine world class state-of-the-art Clean Plant Centres equipped with advanced diagnostic therapeutics and tissue culture labs established across India.

• The centres will play a crucial role in producing and maintaining virus free planting material meant for larger propagation.

Hence statement 4 is correct

Solution : D

• The program will be implemented by the National Horticulture Board in association with Indian Council of Agriculture Research.

• The CPP will provide access to virus free high quality planting material to farmers leading to increase crop yields and improved income opportunities.

Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct

Hence statement 2 is correct

• The programme provides for formation of nine world class state-of-the-art Clean Plant Centres equipped with advanced diagnostic therapeutics and tissue culture labs established across India.

• The centres will play a crucial role in producing and maintaining virus free planting material meant for larger propagation.

Hence statement 4 is correct

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement–I: A constitutional amendment that seeks to permanently abrogate Article 14 or Article 32 would be valid if passed by the prescribed special majority under Article 368. Statement–II: The Supreme Court in Kesavananda Bharati held that any constitutional amendment that damages the basic structure is unconstitutional, even if passed under Article 368. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Correct Answer: D Explanation: Article 368 gives Parliament the power to amend the Constitution, but this power is not unlimited. In Kesavananda Bharati (1973), the Supreme Court introduced the “Basic Structure Doctrine”, under which essential features like Article 14 (equality before law) and Article 32 (remedial right) are non-abrogable, even by constitutional amendment. Thus, Statement-I is wrong. Statement-II correctly reflects the position established by the apex court . Incorrect Answer: D Explanation: Article 368 gives Parliament the power to amend the Constitution, but this power is not unlimited. In Kesavananda Bharati (1973), the Supreme Court introduced the “Basic Structure Doctrine”, under which essential features like Article 14 (equality before law) and Article 32 (remedial right) are non-abrogable, even by constitutional amendment. Thus, Statement-I is wrong. Statement-II correctly reflects the position established by the apex court .

#### 21. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement–I: A constitutional amendment that seeks to permanently abrogate Article 14 or Article 32 would be valid if passed by the prescribed special majority under Article 368.

Statement–II: The Supreme Court in Kesavananda Bharati held that any constitutional amendment that damages the basic structure is unconstitutional, even if passed under Article 368.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I

• (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I

• (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

• (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer: D

Explanation: Article 368 gives Parliament the power to amend the Constitution, but this power is not unlimited. In Kesavananda Bharati (1973), the Supreme Court introduced the “Basic Structure Doctrine”, under which essential features like Article 14 (equality before law) and Article 32 (remedial right) are non-abrogable, even by constitutional amendment.

Thus, Statement-I is wrong. Statement-II correctly reflects the position established by the apex court .

Answer: D

Thus, Statement-I is wrong. Statement-II correctly reflects the position established by the apex court .

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Consider the following Reports: Agriculture and Conservation Flagship Report Regenerative Blue Economy Report Global Environment Outlook Red List of Threatened Species Catalysing Biodiversity on Buildings Report How many of these reports/initiatives are by the IUCN? (a) Only two (b) Only three (c) Only four (d) All five Correct Solution: C IUCN is a global authority on biodiversity and conservation. It publishes the Red List, Agriculture and Conservation Flagship Report, Regenerative Blue Economy Report, and Catalysing Biodiversity on Buildings Report. These address species risk, sustainable farming, marine conservation, and urban biodiversity respectively. However, the Global Environment Outlook is published by UNEP, not IUCN. Hence, only four of the listed reports are IUCN publications. Incorrect Solution: C IUCN is a global authority on biodiversity and conservation. It publishes the Red List, Agriculture and Conservation Flagship Report, Regenerative Blue Economy Report, and Catalysing Biodiversity on Buildings Report. These address species risk, sustainable farming, marine conservation, and urban biodiversity respectively. However, the Global Environment Outlook is published by UNEP, not IUCN. Hence, only four of the listed reports are IUCN publications.

#### 22. Question

Consider the following Reports:

• Agriculture and Conservation Flagship Report

• Regenerative Blue Economy Report

• Global Environment Outlook

• Red List of Threatened Species

• Catalysing Biodiversity on Buildings Report

How many of these reports/initiatives are by the IUCN?

• (a) Only two

• (b) Only three

• (c) Only four

• (d) All five

Solution: C

IUCN is a global authority on biodiversity and conservation. It publishes the Red List, Agriculture and Conservation Flagship Report, Regenerative Blue Economy Report, and Catalysing Biodiversity on Buildings Report.

• These address species risk, sustainable farming, marine conservation, and urban biodiversity respectively.

• However, the Global Environment Outlook is published by UNEP, not IUCN.

Hence, only four of the listed reports are IUCN publications.

Solution: C

• These address species risk, sustainable farming, marine conservation, and urban biodiversity respectively.

• However, the Global Environment Outlook is published by UNEP, not IUCN.

Hence, only four of the listed reports are IUCN publications.

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes “PresVu,” recently approved by the Drug Controller General of India (DCGI)? (a) A vaccine developed to prevent age-related macular degeneration in elderly patients (b) A dietary supplement formulated to improve night vision in patients with glaucoma (c) An eye drop containing pilocarpine to temporarily improve near vision in individuals with presbyopia (d) A surgical gel used in cataract operations to reduce postoperative inflammation Correct Solution: C PresVu – Eye Drop for Presbyopia PresVu is an eye drop developed by Mumbai-based Entod Pharmaceuticals and approved by the Drug Controller General of India (DCGI) in 2024. It is designed to reduce dependency on reading glasses among individuals suffering from presbyopia, a condition associated with aging that affects the eye’s ability to focus on nearby objects. The active ingredient in PresVu is pilocarpine, which works by contracting the iris muscles, thereby improving near vision temporarily. (Hence, option C is correct) It uses advanced buffer technology to maintain long-term safety and consistent efficacy. Effect duration: The effects of PresVu typically last for 4 to 6 hours, requiring daily use for continued benefit. Side effects include eye itching, redness, and occasional eye spasms. Although approved, marketing of PresVu was later suspended by the DCGI due to unauthorized and misleading claims, highlighting regulatory oversight in drug promotion. Incorrect Solution: C PresVu – Eye Drop for Presbyopia PresVu is an eye drop developed by Mumbai-based Entod Pharmaceuticals and approved by the Drug Controller General of India (DCGI) in 2024. It is designed to reduce dependency on reading glasses among individuals suffering from presbyopia, a condition associated with aging that affects the eye’s ability to focus on nearby objects. The active ingredient in PresVu is pilocarpine, which works by contracting the iris muscles, thereby improving near vision temporarily. (Hence, option C is correct) It uses advanced buffer technology to maintain long-term safety and consistent efficacy. Effect duration: The effects of PresVu typically last for 4 to 6 hours, requiring daily use for continued benefit. Side effects include eye itching, redness, and occasional eye spasms. Although approved, marketing of PresVu was later suspended by the DCGI due to unauthorized and misleading claims, highlighting regulatory oversight in drug promotion.

#### 23. Question

Which of the following best describes “PresVu,” recently approved by the Drug Controller General of India (DCGI)?

• (a) A vaccine developed to prevent age-related macular degeneration in elderly patients

• (b) A dietary supplement formulated to improve night vision in patients with glaucoma

• (c) An eye drop containing pilocarpine to temporarily improve near vision in individuals with presbyopia

• (d) A surgical gel used in cataract operations to reduce postoperative inflammation

Solution: C

PresVu – Eye Drop for Presbyopia

• PresVu is an eye drop developed by Mumbai-based Entod Pharmaceuticals and approved by the Drug Controller General of India (DCGI) in 2024. It is designed to reduce dependency on reading glasses among individuals suffering from presbyopia, a condition associated with aging that affects the eye’s ability to focus on nearby objects.

• The active ingredient in PresVu is pilocarpine, which works by contracting the iris muscles, thereby improving near vision temporarily. (Hence, option C is correct)

• It uses advanced buffer technology to maintain long-term safety and consistent efficacy.

• Effect duration: The effects of PresVu typically last for 4 to 6 hours, requiring daily use for continued benefit.

• Side effects include eye itching, redness, and occasional eye spasms.

• Although approved, marketing of PresVu was later suspended by the DCGI due to unauthorized and misleading claims, highlighting regulatory oversight in drug promotion.

Solution: C

PresVu – Eye Drop for Presbyopia

• The active ingredient in PresVu is pilocarpine, which works by contracting the iris muscles, thereby improving near vision temporarily. (Hence, option C is correct)

• It uses advanced buffer technology to maintain long-term safety and consistent efficacy.

• Effect duration: The effects of PresVu typically last for 4 to 6 hours, requiring daily use for continued benefit.

• Side effects include eye itching, redness, and occasional eye spasms.

• Although approved, marketing of PresVu was later suspended by the DCGI due to unauthorized and misleading claims, highlighting regulatory oversight in drug promotion.

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the IUCN Green Status of Species: It provides a global framework for assessing how close a species is to full ecological recovery. It is a mandatory component of the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species. A species is considered fully recovered only if it is viable and performs ecological functions within current range. How many statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 – Correct The IUCN Green Status of Species is a new global tool developed to assess species recovery, not just extinction risk. It asks whether a species is: Present across its historical range (even where lost due to human activity), Viable (not at risk of extinction), and Performing its ecological role across its range. Hence, it provides a structured way to measure how far a species is from being fully recovered. This complements the IUCN Red List, which focuses on extinction risk. Statement 2 – Incorrect The Green Status is an optional part of the IUCN Red List assessment process. While all species on the Red List are assessed for their extinction risk, only some (~100 as of now) have additionally been assessed for their recovery potential under the Green Status. Therefore, it is not a mandatory component. Statement 3 – Incorrect A species is considered fully recovered under the Green Status only if it: Exists across its historical range, Is viable, and Is functioning ecologically in all parts of that range. The statement incorrectly limits this to “current range” — omitting historical range makes it incomplete and hence incorrect. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 – Correct The IUCN Green Status of Species is a new global tool developed to assess species recovery, not just extinction risk. It asks whether a species is: Present across its historical range (even where lost due to human activity), Viable (not at risk of extinction), and Performing its ecological role across its range. Hence, it provides a structured way to measure how far a species is from being fully recovered. This complements the IUCN Red List, which focuses on extinction risk. Statement 2 – Incorrect The Green Status is an optional part of the IUCN Red List assessment process. While all species on the Red List are assessed for their extinction risk, only some (~100 as of now) have additionally been assessed for their recovery potential under the Green Status. Therefore, it is not a mandatory component. Statement 3 – Incorrect A species is considered fully recovered under the Green Status only if it: Exists across its historical range, Is viable, and Is functioning ecologically in all parts of that range. The statement incorrectly limits this to “current range” — omitting historical range makes it incomplete and hence incorrect.

#### 24. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the IUCN Green Status of Species:

• It provides a global framework for assessing how close a species is to full ecological recovery.

• It is a mandatory component of the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.

• A species is considered fully recovered only if it is viable and performs ecological functions within current range.

How many statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 – Correct The IUCN Green Status of Species is a new global tool developed to assess species recovery, not just extinction risk. It asks whether a species is: Present across its historical range (even where lost due to human activity), Viable (not at risk of extinction), and Performing its ecological role across its range. Hence, it provides a structured way to measure how far a species is from being fully recovered. This complements the IUCN Red List, which focuses on extinction risk.

• Present across its historical range (even where lost due to human activity),

• Viable (not at risk of extinction), and

• Performing its ecological role across its range. Hence, it provides a structured way to measure how far a species is from being fully recovered. This complements the IUCN Red List, which focuses on extinction risk.

• Statement 2 – Incorrect The Green Status is an optional part of the IUCN Red List assessment process. While all species on the Red List are assessed for their extinction risk, only some (~100 as of now) have additionally been assessed for their recovery potential under the Green Status. Therefore, it is not a mandatory component.

• Statement 3 – Incorrect A species is considered fully recovered under the Green Status only if it: Exists across its historical range, Is viable, and Is functioning ecologically in all parts of that range. The statement incorrectly limits this to “current range” — omitting historical range makes it incomplete and hence incorrect.

• Exists across its historical range,

• Is viable, and

• Is functioning ecologically in all parts of that range. The statement incorrectly limits this to “current range” — omitting historical range makes it incomplete and hence incorrect.

Solution: A

• Present across its historical range (even where lost due to human activity),

• Viable (not at risk of extinction), and

• Exists across its historical range,

• Is viable, and

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points With reference to the National Council for Vocational Education and Training (NCVET), consider the following statements It was established to regulate and improve the quality of vocational education and training in India. It has taken over the functions of both the National Skill Development Agency (NSDA) and the National Council of Vocational Training (NCVT). Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C National Council for Vocational Education and Training (NCVET): Establishment: NCVET was established in 2018 by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE), Government of India. Purpose: It serves as a regulatory body to ensure quality assurance and standardization across the Technical and Vocational Education and Training (TVET) ecosystem in India. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) Functions taken over: NCVET subsumed the roles and responsibilities of both: National Skill Development Agency (NSDA) National Council for Vocational Training (NCVT) This consolidation was aimed at streamlining the regulatory framework in the skill development sector. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) Scope: It regulates entities involved in both short-term (like PMKVY) and long-term vocational training. It develops standards, accredits awarding bodies, and ensures continuous quality improvement in the training ecosystem. Incorrect Solution: C National Council for Vocational Education and Training (NCVET): Establishment: NCVET was established in 2018 by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE), Government of India. Purpose: It serves as a regulatory body to ensure quality assurance and standardization across the Technical and Vocational Education and Training (TVET) ecosystem in India. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) Functions taken over: NCVET subsumed the roles and responsibilities of both: National Skill Development Agency (NSDA) National Council for Vocational Training (NCVT) This consolidation was aimed at streamlining the regulatory framework in the skill development sector. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) Scope: It regulates entities involved in both short-term (like PMKVY) and long-term vocational training. It develops standards, accredits awarding bodies, and ensures continuous quality improvement in the training ecosystem.

#### 25. Question

With reference to the National Council for Vocational Education and Training (NCVET), consider the following statements

• It was established to regulate and improve the quality of vocational education and training in India.

• It has taken over the functions of both the National Skill Development Agency (NSDA) and the National Council of Vocational Training (NCVT).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

National Council for Vocational Education and Training (NCVET):

• Establishment: NCVET was established in 2018 by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE), Government of India.

• Purpose: It serves as a regulatory body to ensure quality assurance and standardization across the Technical and Vocational Education and Training (TVET) ecosystem in India. (Hence, statement 1 is correct)

• Functions taken over: NCVET subsumed the roles and responsibilities of both: National Skill Development Agency (NSDA) National Council for Vocational Training (NCVT) This consolidation was aimed at streamlining the regulatory framework in the skill development sector. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

• National Skill Development Agency (NSDA)

• National Council for Vocational Training (NCVT) This consolidation was aimed at streamlining the regulatory framework in the skill development sector. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

• Scope: It regulates entities involved in both short-term (like PMKVY) and long-term vocational training. It develops standards, accredits awarding bodies, and ensures continuous quality improvement in the training ecosystem.

• It regulates entities involved in both short-term (like PMKVY) and long-term vocational training.

• It develops standards, accredits awarding bodies, and ensures continuous quality improvement in the training ecosystem.

Solution: C

National Council for Vocational Education and Training (NCVET):

• Establishment: NCVET was established in 2018 by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE), Government of India.

• National Skill Development Agency (NSDA)

• National Council for Vocational Training (NCVT) This consolidation was aimed at streamlining the regulatory framework in the skill development sector. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

• It regulates entities involved in both short-term (like PMKVY) and long-term vocational training.

• It develops standards, accredits awarding bodies, and ensures continuous quality improvement in the training ecosystem.

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points Myanmar’s military did it again. On Tuesday, the junta, notorious for its attacks on civilians, carried out air strikes on an opposition gathering in the rebel-held Sagaing region, killing over 100, including women and children. The National Unity Government (NUG), the parallel administration formed by opposition groups, as well as witnesses, said a fighter jet and a combat helicopter bombed the gathering, which was celebrating the opening of an administrative office of the NUG; the regime, led by Gen. Min Aung Hlaing, calls it a “terrorist entity”. The junta later confirmed the strike, but said most of those killed were resistance fighters. The strikes actually show the junta’s growing vulnerabilities rather than strength in the country’s ongoing civil war. In the past, the main opposition that the military regimes had faced was the non-violent democratic movement led by Aung San Suu Kyi. But after the February 2021 coup, which toppled an increasingly popular Ms. Suu Kyi (her National League for Democracy had won back-to-back elections), the country slipped into a civil war between the regime and the NUG. The NUG and its armed wing, the People’s Defence Force (PDF), have joined hands with ethnic militias to oust the military. The military has lost swathes of territories, mostly sparsely populated rural and jungle areas. Unable to recapture lost land, it has relied on air strikes to weaken the opposition. What is the central message of the passage? a. It is not possible to defeat military junta in Myanmar b. There is decline in popularity of Junta after the air strikes c. The air strikes confirms a trend of declining popularity and strength of Junta d. The lack of intervention by India is not a good sign Correct Correct Option : C Justification : Explanation: The central message of the paragraph can be deciphered form the following : “The military has lost swathes of territories, mostly sparsely populated rural and jungle areas. Unable to recapture lost land, it has relied on air strikes to weaken the opposition.” Incorrect Correct Option : C Justification : Explanation: The central message of the paragraph can be deciphered form the following : “The military has lost swathes of territories, mostly sparsely populated rural and jungle areas. Unable to recapture lost land, it has relied on air strikes to weaken the opposition.”

#### 26. Question

Myanmar’s military did it again. On Tuesday, the junta, notorious for its attacks on civilians, carried out air strikes on an opposition gathering in the rebel-held Sagaing region, killing over 100, including women and children. The National Unity Government (NUG), the parallel administration formed by opposition groups, as well as witnesses, said a fighter jet and a combat helicopter bombed the gathering, which was celebrating the opening of an administrative office of the NUG; the regime, led by Gen. Min Aung Hlaing, calls it a “terrorist entity”. The junta later confirmed the strike, but said most of those killed were resistance fighters. The strikes actually show the junta’s growing vulnerabilities rather than strength in the country’s ongoing civil war. In the past, the main opposition that the military regimes had faced was the non-violent democratic movement led by Aung San Suu Kyi. But after the February 2021 coup, which toppled an increasingly popular Ms. Suu Kyi (her National League for Democracy had won back-to-back elections), the country slipped into a civil war between the regime and the NUG. The NUG and its armed wing, the People’s Defence Force (PDF), have joined hands with ethnic militias to oust the military. The military has lost swathes of territories, mostly sparsely populated rural and jungle areas. Unable to recapture lost land, it has relied on air strikes to weaken the opposition.

What is the central message of the passage?

• a. It is not possible to defeat military junta in Myanmar

• b. There is decline in popularity of Junta after the air strikes

• c. The air strikes confirms a trend of declining popularity and strength of Junta

• d. The lack of intervention by India is not a good sign

Correct Option : C

Justification :

Explanation:

The central message of the paragraph can be deciphered form the following :

“The military has lost swathes of territories, mostly sparsely populated rural and jungle areas. Unable to recapture lost land, it has relied on air strikes to weaken the opposition.”

Correct Option : C

Justification :

Explanation:

The central message of the paragraph can be deciphered form the following :

“The military has lost swathes of territories, mostly sparsely populated rural and jungle areas. Unable to recapture lost land, it has relied on air strikes to weaken the opposition.”

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points If 5th February, 2016 was a Friday, then what will be the date on the last Friday of March 2016? a. 23rd b. 24th c. 25th d. 26th Correct Correct Option : C Justification : Explanation: February 2016 has 29 days, i.e. 1 odd day. (29 days = 4 weeks plus 1 day) Now, 5th February, 2016 was a Friday. So, 5th March 2016 will be a Saturday. So, 4th March will be a Friday. Last Friday in March = 4 + maximum possible multiple of 7 = 4 + 21 = 25th March. (If we will add 28 then the date will become 32, which is not possible) Incorrect Correct Option : C Justification : Explanation: February 2016 has 29 days, i.e. 1 odd day. (29 days = 4 weeks plus 1 day) Now, 5th February, 2016 was a Friday. So, 5th March 2016 will be a Saturday. So, 4th March will be a Friday. Last Friday in March = 4 + maximum possible multiple of 7 = 4 + 21 = 25th March. (If we will add 28 then the date will become 32, which is not possible)

#### 27. Question

If 5th February, 2016 was a Friday, then what will be the date on the last Friday of March 2016?

Correct Option : C

Justification :

Explanation:

February 2016 has 29 days, i.e. 1 odd day. (29 days = 4 weeks plus 1 day)

Now, 5th February, 2016 was a Friday. So, 5th March 2016 will be a Saturday.

So, 4th March will be a Friday.

Last Friday in March = 4 + maximum possible multiple of 7 = 4 + 21 = 25th March.

(If we will add 28 then the date will become 32, which is not possible)

Correct Option : C

Justification :

Explanation:

February 2016 has 29 days, i.e. 1 odd day. (29 days = 4 weeks plus 1 day)

Now, 5th February, 2016 was a Friday. So, 5th March 2016 will be a Saturday.

So, 4th March will be a Friday.

Last Friday in March = 4 + maximum possible multiple of 7 = 4 + 21 = 25th March.

(If we will add 28 then the date will become 32, which is not possible)

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points Find the angle traced by the hour hand of a clock between 5:15 AM and 5:45 PM? a. 15° b. 375° c. 195° d. 60° Correct Correct Option : B Justification : Explanation: It is known that the hour hand traces 360° in 12 hours. So, Angle covered by hour hand in 1 hour = 360/12 = 30°. Angle traced in half an hour = 15° The time-period 5:15 AM to 5:45 PM is half hour more than 12 hours. So, the angle traced from 5:15 AM to 5:45 PM = 360° + 15° = 375°. Answer Option B) 55(8/61) min past 5 Explanation Clock gains one minute an hour. In 61 min, it shows 1 min less. In 5 hrs (300 min) it will show 300/61 min less actual time will be 6 –(300/61) i.e. 55(5/61) min past 5 pm Incorrect Correct Option : B Justification : Explanation: It is known that the hour hand traces 360° in 12 hours. So, Angle covered by hour hand in 1 hour = 360/12 = 30°. Angle traced in half an hour = 15° The time-period 5:15 AM to 5:45 PM is half hour more than 12 hours. So, the angle traced from 5:15 AM to 5:45 PM = 360° + 15° = 375°.

#### 28. Question

Find the angle traced by the hour hand of a clock between 5:15 AM and 5:45 PM?

Correct Option : B

Justification :

Explanation:

It is known that the hour hand traces 360° in 12 hours.

So, Angle covered by hour hand in 1 hour = 360/12 = 30°.

Angle traced in half an hour = 15°

The time-period 5:15 AM to 5:45 PM is half hour more than 12 hours.

So, the angle traced from 5:15 AM to 5:45 PM = 360° + 15° = 375°.

Answer Option B) 55(8/61) min past 5

Explanation

Clock gains one minute an hour. In 61 min, it shows 1 min less.

In 5 hrs (300 min) it will show 300/61 min less actual time will be 6 –(300/61)

i.e. 55(5/61) min past 5 pm

Correct Option : B

Justification :

Explanation:

It is known that the hour hand traces 360° in 12 hours.

So, Angle covered by hour hand in 1 hour = 360/12 = 30°.

Angle traced in half an hour = 15°

The time-period 5:15 AM to 5:45 PM is half hour more than 12 hours.

So, the angle traced from 5:15 AM to 5:45 PM = 360° + 15° = 375°.

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points In a class of 60, where girls are twice that of boys, Kamal ranked seventeenth from the top. If there are 9 girls ahead of Kamal, how many boys are after him in rank? a. 3 b. 7 c. 12 d. 23 Correct Correct Option : C Justification : Explanation: Let the number of boys be x. Then, number of girls = 2x. x + 2x = 60 or 3x = 60 or x = 20. So, number of boys = 20 and number of girls = 40. Number of students behind Kamal in rank (60 – 17) =43. Number of girls ahead of Kamal in rank = 9. Number of girls behind Kamal in rank = (40 – 9) = 31 Number of boys behind Kamal in rank = (43 – 31) = 12. Incorrect Correct Option : C Justification : Explanation: Let the number of boys be x. Then, number of girls = 2x. x + 2x = 60 or 3x = 60 or x = 20. So, number of boys = 20 and number of girls = 40. Number of students behind Kamal in rank (60 – 17) =43. Number of girls ahead of Kamal in rank = 9. Number of girls behind Kamal in rank = (40 – 9) = 31 Number of boys behind Kamal in rank = (43 – 31) = 12.

#### 29. Question

In a class of 60, where girls are twice that of boys, Kamal ranked seventeenth from the top. If there are 9 girls ahead of Kamal, how many boys are after him in rank?

Correct Option : C

Justification :

Explanation:

Let the number of boys be x.

Then, number of girls = 2x.

x + 2x = 60 or 3x = 60 or x = 20.

So, number of boys = 20 and number of girls = 40.

Number of students behind Kamal in rank (60 – 17) =43.

Number of girls ahead of Kamal in rank = 9.

Number of girls behind Kamal in rank = (40 – 9) = 31

Number of boys behind Kamal in rank = (43 – 31) = 12.

Correct Option : C

Justification :

Explanation:

Let the number of boys be x.

Then, number of girls = 2x.

x + 2x = 60 or 3x = 60 or x = 20.

So, number of boys = 20 and number of girls = 40.

Number of students behind Kamal in rank (60 – 17) =43.

Number of girls ahead of Kamal in rank = 9.

Number of girls behind Kamal in rank = (40 – 9) = 31

Number of boys behind Kamal in rank = (43 – 31) = 12.

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points The positions of how many digits in the number 2451479638 will remain same when the first half and the second half of the digits are arranged in ascending order separately? a. Only one b. Two c. None d. Three Correct Correct Option : C Justification : 2 4 5 1 4 7 9 6 3 8 After arranging the first half and the second half of the digits of given number in ascending order, we get new number as: 1 2 4 4 5 3 6 7 8 9 Now, 2 4 5 1 4 7 9 6 3 8 1 2 4 4 5 3 6 7 8 9 Comparing both the numbers, we can say that there is no number whose position remains unchanged. Hence, the correct answer is option C. Incorrect Correct Option : C Justification : 2 4 5 1 4 7 9 6 3 8 After arranging the first half and the second half of the digits of given number in ascending order, we get new number as: 1 2 4 4 5 3 6 7 8 9 Now, 2 4 5 1 4 7 9 6 3 8 1 2 4 4 5 3 6 7 8 9 Comparing both the numbers, we can say that there is no number whose position remains unchanged. Hence, the correct answer is option C.

#### 30. Question

The positions of how many digits in the number 2451479638 will remain same when the first half and the second half of the digits are arranged in ascending order separately?

• a. Only one

Correct Option : C

Justification :

2 4 5 1 4 7 9 6 3 8

After arranging the first half and the second half of the digits of given number in ascending order, we get new number as:

1 2 4 4 5 3 6 7 8 9

2 4 5 1 4 7 9 6 3 8 1 2 4 4 5 3 6 7 8 9 Comparing both the numbers, we can say that there is no number whose position remains unchanged.

Hence, the correct answer is option C.

Correct Option : C

Justification :

2 4 5 1 4 7 9 6 3 8

After arranging the first half and the second half of the digits of given number in ascending order, we get new number as:

1 2 4 4 5 3 6 7 8 9

2 4 5 1 4 7 9 6 3 8 1 2 4 4 5 3 6 7 8 9 Comparing both the numbers, we can say that there is no number whose position remains unchanged.