DAY – 55 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – POLITY , PREVIOUS YEAR UPSC PAPER 2023 and Oct 2023 CA

INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points What role does public opinion play in influencing judicial decisions? a) It serves as the primary determinant of legal outcomes b) It has no impact on judges' rulings c) It may influence judges indirectly d) It is an important factor judges consider during rulings Correct Answer: c Explanation: While judges do not directly rely on public opinion for their rulings, it can have an indirect impact. This can occur through various channels, such as media coverage, societal expectations, and community values. Judges might be aware of the general sentiment without letting it dictate their judgments. This subtle influence aligns with the real-world dynamics of the judiciary. Hence, option(c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: While judges do not directly rely on public opinion for their rulings, it can have an indirect impact. This can occur through various channels, such as media coverage, societal expectations, and community values. Judges might be aware of the general sentiment without letting it dictate their judgments. This subtle influence aligns with the real-world dynamics of the judiciary. Hence, option(c) is correct.

#### 1. Question

What role does public opinion play in influencing judicial decisions?

• a) It serves as the primary determinant of legal outcomes

• b) It has no impact on judges' rulings

• c) It may influence judges indirectly

• d) It is an important factor judges consider during rulings

Explanation:

• While judges do not directly rely on public opinion for their rulings, it can have an indirect impact. This can occur through various channels, such as media coverage, societal expectations, and community values. Judges might be aware of the general sentiment without letting it dictate their judgments. This subtle influence aligns with the real-world dynamics of the judiciary.

• Hence, option(c) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option(c) is correct.

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Chief Justice of India (CJI) is always the most senior judge of the Supreme Court. In 1973, a convention of appointing the senior-most judge as CJI was broken. The final decision in matters of judicial appointment rests solely with the Chief Justice of India. Which of the above given statements is/are true? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1 and 3 only Correct Answer: b Explanation: While there has been a convention that the most senior judge is appointed as the CJI, it has been broken in the past. For example, in 1973, A. N. Ray was appointed as CJI, superseding three senior judges. Similarly, in 1975, Justice M.H. Beg was appointed superseding Justice H.R. Khanna. This shows that the convention can be, and has been, broken. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. As mentioned earlier, in 1973, A. N. Ray was appointed as CJI, breaking the tradition of appointing the senior-most judge. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Judicial appointments involve several stakeholders, including the President, the Council of Ministers, and the Chief Justice of India. Ultimately, the President makes the appointment after consultation with the CJI. The final decision does not rest solely with the CJI. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: While there has been a convention that the most senior judge is appointed as the CJI, it has been broken in the past. For example, in 1973, A. N. Ray was appointed as CJI, superseding three senior judges. Similarly, in 1975, Justice M.H. Beg was appointed superseding Justice H.R. Khanna. This shows that the convention can be, and has been, broken. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. As mentioned earlier, in 1973, A. N. Ray was appointed as CJI, breaking the tradition of appointing the senior-most judge. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Judicial appointments involve several stakeholders, including the President, the Council of Ministers, and the Chief Justice of India. Ultimately, the President makes the appointment after consultation with the CJI. The final decision does not rest solely with the CJI. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Chief Justice of India (CJI) is always the most senior judge of the Supreme Court.

• In 1973, a convention of appointing the senior-most judge as CJI was broken.

• The final decision in matters of judicial appointment rests solely with the Chief Justice of India.

Which of the above given statements is/are true?

• c) 2 and 3 only

• d) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

• While there has been a convention that the most senior judge is appointed as the CJI, it has been broken in the past. For example, in 1973, A. N. Ray was appointed as CJI, superseding three senior judges. Similarly, in 1975, Justice M.H. Beg was appointed superseding Justice H.R. Khanna. This shows that the convention can be, and has been, broken. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• As mentioned earlier, in 1973, A. N. Ray was appointed as CJI, breaking the tradition of appointing the senior-most judge. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Judicial appointments involve several stakeholders, including the President, the Council of Ministers, and the Chief Justice of India. Ultimately, the President makes the appointment after consultation with the CJI. The final decision does not rest solely with the CJI. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• As mentioned earlier, in 1973, A. N. Ray was appointed as CJI, breaking the tradition of appointing the senior-most judge. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the removal of judges in India: A judge of the Supreme Court or High Court can be removed only on the grounds of proven misbehavior or incapacity. A parliamentary motion to remove a judge requires a majority of the total strength of each House in addition to a special majority among those present and voting. If one House fails to meet the required majority, the motion for removal fails. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Explanation: The Indian Constitution sets a high bar for removing judges, requiring proven misbehavior or incapacity as grounds for their removal. Hence, statement 1 is correct. To remove a judge, there must be a special majority (two-thirds of the members present and voting) as well as a majority of the total strength in each House of Parliament. If this total majority is not met, the motion for removal will not succeed. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Since the removal process requires approval by both Houses, a failure to meet the required majorities in any one House results in the motion’s failure. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option(c) is correct. Incorrect Explanation: The Indian Constitution sets a high bar for removing judges, requiring proven misbehavior or incapacity as grounds for their removal. Hence, statement 1 is correct. To remove a judge, there must be a special majority (two-thirds of the members present and voting) as well as a majority of the total strength in each House of Parliament. If this total majority is not met, the motion for removal will not succeed. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Since the removal process requires approval by both Houses, a failure to meet the required majorities in any one House results in the motion’s failure. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option(c) is correct.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements about the removal of judges in India:

• A judge of the Supreme Court or High Court can be removed only on the grounds of proven misbehavior or incapacity.

• A parliamentary motion to remove a judge requires a majority of the total strength of each House in addition to a special majority among those present and voting.

• If one House fails to meet the required majority, the motion for removal fails.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Explanation:

• The Indian Constitution sets a high bar for removing judges, requiring proven misbehavior or incapacity as grounds for their removal. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• To remove a judge, there must be a special majority (two-thirds of the members present and voting) as well as a majority of the total strength in each House of Parliament. If this total majority is not met, the motion for removal will not succeed. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Since the removal process requires approval by both Houses, a failure to meet the required majorities in any one House results in the motion’s failure. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Hence, option(c) is correct.

Explanation:

• The Indian Constitution sets a high bar for removing judges, requiring proven misbehavior or incapacity as grounds for their removal. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Since the removal process requires approval by both Houses, a failure to meet the required majorities in any one House results in the motion’s failure. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Hence, option(c) is correct.

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The legislature has more power to remove judges than executive, while the executive has more power in appointments of judges than legislature. Both the executive and the legislature play equal roles in the removal of judges. Which of the above given statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: a Explanation: In India, the legislature has the power to remove judges through an impeachment process, while the executive plays a key role in the appointment of judges. To remove a judge of the Supreme Court or High Court, the legislature must pass a motion with a special majority. The executive i.e. the president (through the collegium system and after consultation with the Chief Justice of India) plays a crucial role in appointing judges. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The removal process of judges is solely within the purview of the legislature, with no direct involvement from the executive. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: In India, the legislature has the power to remove judges through an impeachment process, while the executive plays a key role in the appointment of judges. To remove a judge of the Supreme Court or High Court, the legislature must pass a motion with a special majority. The executive i.e. the president (through the collegium system and after consultation with the Chief Justice of India) plays a crucial role in appointing judges. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The removal process of judges is solely within the purview of the legislature, with no direct involvement from the executive. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The legislature has more power to remove judges than executive, while the executive has more power in appointments of judges than legislature.

• Both the executive and the legislature play equal roles in the removal of judges.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• In India, the legislature has the power to remove judges through an impeachment process, while the executive plays a key role in the appointment of judges.

• To remove a judge of the Supreme Court or High Court, the legislature must pass a motion with a special majority. The executive i.e. the president (through the collegium system and after consultation with the Chief Justice of India) plays a crucial role in appointing judges. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The removal process of judges is solely within the purview of the legislature, with no direct involvement from the executive. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• In India, the legislature has the power to remove judges through an impeachment process, while the executive plays a key role in the appointment of judges.

• The removal process of judges is solely within the purview of the legislature, with no direct involvement from the executive. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Which article empowers the Supreme Court to review its own judgments? a) Article 137 b) Article 144 c) Article 148 d) Article 150 Correct Answer: a Explanation: Article 137 of the Indian Constitution gives the Supreme Court the power to review its own judgments or orders. This provision allows the Supreme Court to re-evaluate its decisions in light of new evidence, legal arguments, or other considerations. It is a significant article that allows the Supreme Court to correct errors or reconsider its decisions if needed. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Article 137 of the Indian Constitution gives the Supreme Court the power to review its own judgments or orders. This provision allows the Supreme Court to re-evaluate its decisions in light of new evidence, legal arguments, or other considerations. It is a significant article that allows the Supreme Court to correct errors or reconsider its decisions if needed. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 5. Question

Which article empowers the Supreme Court to review its own judgments?

• a) Article 137

• b) Article 144

• c) Article 148

• d) Article 150

Explanation:

• Article 137 of the Indian Constitution gives the Supreme Court the power to review its own judgments or orders. This provision allows the Supreme Court to re-evaluate its decisions in light of new evidence, legal arguments, or other considerations. It is a significant article that allows the Supreme Court to correct errors or reconsider its decisions if needed.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court’s appellate jurisdiction: The Supreme Court can hear appeals from lower courts without any prior certification from lower courts. The Supreme Court’s appellate jurisdiction applies only to cases that originate from High Courts. The Supreme Court’s appellate jurisdiction extends to cases involving constitutional and federal disputes. How many of the above are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Explanation: Generally, cases appealed to the Supreme Court require certification from lower courts (such as High Courts) or special leave from the Supreme Court itself. The Supreme Court has discretion to admit appeals but typically involves some level of certification from a lower court, especially in civil and criminal cases. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. The appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court applies to cases originating from various courts, including both High Courts and subordinate courts. It is not limited to cases from High Courts. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. The Supreme Court’s appellate jurisdiction indeed extends to cases involving constitutional and federal disputes. However, this jurisdiction also covers other areas such as civil and criminal cases. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Explanation: Generally, cases appealed to the Supreme Court require certification from lower courts (such as High Courts) or special leave from the Supreme Court itself. The Supreme Court has discretion to admit appeals but typically involves some level of certification from a lower court, especially in civil and criminal cases. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. The appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court applies to cases originating from various courts, including both High Courts and subordinate courts. It is not limited to cases from High Courts. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. The Supreme Court’s appellate jurisdiction indeed extends to cases involving constitutional and federal disputes. However, this jurisdiction also covers other areas such as civil and criminal cases. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court’s appellate jurisdiction:

• The Supreme Court can hear appeals from lower courts without any prior certification from lower courts.

• The Supreme Court’s appellate jurisdiction applies only to cases that originate from High Courts.

• The Supreme Court’s appellate jurisdiction extends to cases involving constitutional and federal disputes.

How many of the above are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Explanation:

• Generally, cases appealed to the Supreme Court require certification from lower courts (such as High Courts) or special leave from the Supreme Court itself. The Supreme Court has discretion to admit appeals but typically involves some level of certification from a lower court, especially in civil and criminal cases. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• The appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court applies to cases originating from various courts, including both High Courts and subordinate courts. It is not limited to cases from High Courts. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• The Supreme Court’s appellate jurisdiction indeed extends to cases involving constitutional and federal disputes. However, this jurisdiction also covers other areas such as civil and criminal cases. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Which of the following best defines Social Action Litigation (SAL)? a) A legal process often involving cases filed by individuals or groups on behalf of marginalized or underprivileged communities. b) A type of litigation where the government can initiate cases to address social policies and public welfare, focusing on wider social implications. c) A legal framework designed to handle disputes involving individuals' property rights and related matters in a social context. d) A judicial mechanism that allows corporations to take legal action against individuals for defamation or harm to corporate interests. Correct Answer: a Explanation: Social Action Litigation (SAL) is a legal mechanism in India that allows individuals or groups to file cases in courts to address broader social issues and public interest matters. Unlike conventional litigation, where parties must have a direct personal stake, SAL is designed to serve the interests of marginalized or underprivileged communities, advocating for systemic changes and social justice. SAL is closely related to Public Interest Litigation (PIL), a broader term that encompasses various cases filed in the interest of the public. SAL often addresses issues like human rights, environmental protection, prisoners’ rights, and social justice. It enables the judiciary to play an active role in safeguarding fundamental rights and improving the quality of life for society’s most vulnerable sections. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Social Action Litigation (SAL) is a legal mechanism in India that allows individuals or groups to file cases in courts to address broader social issues and public interest matters. Unlike conventional litigation, where parties must have a direct personal stake, SAL is designed to serve the interests of marginalized or underprivileged communities, advocating for systemic changes and social justice. SAL is closely related to Public Interest Litigation (PIL), a broader term that encompasses various cases filed in the interest of the public. SAL often addresses issues like human rights, environmental protection, prisoners’ rights, and social justice. It enables the judiciary to play an active role in safeguarding fundamental rights and improving the quality of life for society’s most vulnerable sections. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 7. Question

Which of the following best defines Social Action Litigation (SAL)?

• a) A legal process often involving cases filed by individuals or groups on behalf of marginalized or underprivileged communities.

• b) A type of litigation where the government can initiate cases to address social policies and public welfare, focusing on wider social implications.

• c) A legal framework designed to handle disputes involving individuals' property rights and related matters in a social context.

• d) A judicial mechanism that allows corporations to take legal action against individuals for defamation or harm to corporate interests.

Explanation:

• Social Action Litigation (SAL) is a legal mechanism in India that allows individuals or groups to file cases in courts to address broader social issues and public interest matters. Unlike conventional litigation, where parties must have a direct personal stake, SAL is designed to serve the interests of marginalized or underprivileged communities, advocating for systemic changes and social justice.

• SAL is closely related to Public Interest Litigation (PIL), a broader term that encompasses various cases filed in the interest of the public. SAL often addresses issues like human rights, environmental protection, prisoners’ rights, and social justice. It enables the judiciary to play an active role in safeguarding fundamental rights and improving the quality of life for society’s most vulnerable sections.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Under Article 257(1) of the Indian Constitution, what can the central government do with regard to state governments? a) Give directions to state governments to ensure they do not impede or prejudice the central government's executive power. b) Overrule any state laws that contradict central government policies. c) Appoint and dismiss state governors at will. d) Abolish state governments during times of political instability. Correct Explanation: Article 257(1) grants the central government the power to issue directives to state governments when it is necessary to prevent states from impeding or prejudicing the exercise of executive power by the Union. This can include a wide range of directives, from administrative issues to broader governance concerns. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Explanation: Article 257(1) grants the central government the power to issue directives to state governments when it is necessary to prevent states from impeding or prejudicing the exercise of executive power by the Union. This can include a wide range of directives, from administrative issues to broader governance concerns. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 8. Question

Under Article 257(1) of the Indian Constitution, what can the central government do with regard to state governments?

• a) Give directions to state governments to ensure they do not impede or prejudice the central government's executive power.

• b) Overrule any state laws that contradict central government policies.

• c) Appoint and dismiss state governors at will.

• d) Abolish state governments during times of political instability.

Explanation:

• Article 257(1) grants the central government the power to issue directives to state governments when it is necessary to prevent states from impeding or prejudicing the exercise of executive power by the Union. This can include a wide range of directives, from administrative issues to broader governance concerns.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points With reference to Model Code of Conduct (MCC), consider the following statements: Transfer of an election official without prior approval of the Election Commission. Combining official visit with electioneering work by the Prime Minister. Fresh release of funds under MPs Local Area Development Fund. Combining official work with electioneering work by the ministers. How many of the above amounts to the violation of the Model Code of Conduct (MCC)? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: c Explanation: The Model Code of Conduct for the guidance of political parties and candidates is a set of norms which has been evolved with the consensus of political parties who have consented to abide by the principles embodied in the said code and also binds them to respect and observe it in its letter and spirit. The Election Commission ensures its observance by political parties in power, including ruling parties at the Centre and in the States and contesting candidates in the discharge of its constitutional duties for conducting the free, fair and peaceful elections to the Parliament and the State Legislatures under Article 324 of the Constitution of India. It is also ensured that official machinery for the electoral purposes is not misused. Further, it is also ensured that electoral offences, malpractices and corrupt practices such as impersonation, bribing and inducement of voters, threat and intimidation to the voters are prevented by all means. In case of violation, appropriate measures are taken. The Model Code of Conduct is enforced from the date of announcement of election schedule by the Election Commission and is operational until the process of elections is completed. Some of the features of MCC are: There shall be a total ban on the transfer and posting of all officers/officials directly or indirectly connected with the conduct of the election. If any transfer or posting of an officer is considered necessary, prior approval of the Commission shall be obtained. Hence option 1 is correct. The Ministers shall not combine their official visit with electioneering work and shall not also make use of official machinery or personnel during the electioneering work. However, the Commission has exempted the Prime Minister from the operation of the model code of conduct provision pertaining to the combining of an official visit with electioneering visit. Governor may participate and address the Convocation. Chief Minister or Ministers may be advised not to participate and address the Convocation. The Central Ministers / Chief Minister / Ministers in the States and other political functionaries can attend the Independence Day/Republic Day celebration. However, it will be ensured that no political speeches highlighting the achievements of the party in power are made on the occasions. Fresh release of funds under MPs/MLAs/MLCs Local Area Development Fund of any scheme shall not be made in any area where the election is in progress, till the completion of the election process. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: The Model Code of Conduct for the guidance of political parties and candidates is a set of norms which has been evolved with the consensus of political parties who have consented to abide by the principles embodied in the said code and also binds them to respect and observe it in its letter and spirit. The Election Commission ensures its observance by political parties in power, including ruling parties at the Centre and in the States and contesting candidates in the discharge of its constitutional duties for conducting the free, fair and peaceful elections to the Parliament and the State Legislatures under Article 324 of the Constitution of India. It is also ensured that official machinery for the electoral purposes is not misused. Further, it is also ensured that electoral offences, malpractices and corrupt practices such as impersonation, bribing and inducement of voters, threat and intimidation to the voters are prevented by all means. In case of violation, appropriate measures are taken. The Model Code of Conduct is enforced from the date of announcement of election schedule by the Election Commission and is operational until the process of elections is completed. Some of the features of MCC are: There shall be a total ban on the transfer and posting of all officers/officials directly or indirectly connected with the conduct of the election. If any transfer or posting of an officer is considered necessary, prior approval of the Commission shall be obtained. Hence option 1 is correct. The Ministers shall not combine their official visit with electioneering work and shall not also make use of official machinery or personnel during the electioneering work. However, the Commission has exempted the Prime Minister from the operation of the model code of conduct provision pertaining to the combining of an official visit with electioneering visit. Governor may participate and address the Convocation. Chief Minister or Ministers may be advised not to participate and address the Convocation. The Central Ministers / Chief Minister / Ministers in the States and other political functionaries can attend the Independence Day/Republic Day celebration. However, it will be ensured that no political speeches highlighting the achievements of the party in power are made on the occasions. Fresh release of funds under MPs/MLAs/MLCs Local Area Development Fund of any scheme shall not be made in any area where the election is in progress, till the completion of the election process. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 9. Question

With reference to Model Code of Conduct (MCC), consider the following statements:

• Transfer of an election official without prior approval of the Election Commission.

• Combining official visit with electioneering work by the Prime Minister.

• Fresh release of funds under MPs Local Area Development Fund.

• Combining official work with electioneering work by the ministers.

How many of the above amounts to the violation of the Model Code of Conduct (MCC)?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

• The Model Code of Conduct for the guidance of political parties and candidates is a set of norms which has been evolved with the consensus of political parties who have consented to abide by the principles embodied in the said code and also binds them to respect and observe it in its letter and spirit.

• The Election Commission ensures its observance by political parties in power, including ruling parties at the Centre and in the States and contesting candidates in the discharge of its constitutional duties for conducting the free, fair and peaceful elections to the Parliament and the State Legislatures under Article 324 of the Constitution of India.

• It is also ensured that official machinery for the electoral purposes is not misused. Further, it is also ensured that electoral offences, malpractices and corrupt practices such as impersonation, bribing and inducement of voters, threat and intimidation to the voters are prevented by all means. In case of violation, appropriate measures are taken.

• The Model Code of Conduct is enforced from the date of announcement of election schedule by the Election Commission and is operational until the process of elections is completed.

• Some of the features of MCC are: There shall be a total ban on the transfer and posting of all officers/officials directly or indirectly connected with the conduct of the election. If any transfer or posting of an officer is considered necessary, prior approval of the Commission shall be obtained. Hence option 1 is correct. The Ministers shall not combine their official visit with electioneering work and shall not also make use of official machinery or personnel during the electioneering work. However, the Commission has exempted the Prime Minister from the operation of the model code of conduct provision pertaining to the combining of an official visit with electioneering visit. Governor may participate and address the Convocation. Chief Minister or Ministers may be advised not to participate and address the Convocation. The Central Ministers / Chief Minister / Ministers in the States and other political functionaries can attend the Independence Day/Republic Day celebration. However, it will be ensured that no political speeches highlighting the achievements of the party in power are made on the occasions. Fresh release of funds under MPs/MLAs/MLCs Local Area Development Fund of any scheme shall not be made in any area where the election is in progress, till the completion of the election process.

• There shall be a total ban on the transfer and posting of all officers/officials directly or indirectly connected with the conduct of the election. If any transfer or posting of an officer is considered necessary, prior approval of the Commission shall be obtained. Hence option 1 is correct.

• The Ministers shall not combine their official visit with electioneering work and shall not also make use of official machinery or personnel during the electioneering work.

• However, the Commission has exempted the Prime Minister from the operation of the model code of conduct provision pertaining to the combining of an official visit with electioneering visit.

• Governor may participate and address the Convocation. Chief Minister or Ministers may be advised not to participate and address the Convocation.

• The Central Ministers / Chief Minister / Ministers in the States and other political functionaries can attend the Independence Day/Republic Day celebration. However, it will be ensured that no political speeches highlighting the achievements of the party in power are made on the occasions.

• Fresh release of funds under MPs/MLAs/MLCs Local Area Development Fund of any scheme shall not be made in any area where the election is in progress, till the completion of the election process.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

• The Model Code of Conduct is enforced from the date of announcement of election schedule by the Election Commission and is operational until the process of elections is completed.

• The Ministers shall not combine their official visit with electioneering work and shall not also make use of official machinery or personnel during the electioneering work.

• Governor may participate and address the Convocation. Chief Minister or Ministers may be advised not to participate and address the Convocation.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points With reference to Electronics Voting Machines (EVMs), consider the following statements: Provisions for the use of EVMs are provided under the Representation of the People Act, 1950. EVM data is continuously monitored through a centralized storage server. EVMs completely eliminate the possibilities of booth capturing. How many of the above statements are* incorrect? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: c Explanation: Electronic Voting Machine was introduced in India to conduct free and fair elections. Hence, the Indian Parliament amended the Representation of the People Act, 1951 and introduced Section 61-A which lays down the provisions for the use of Electronic Voting Machine by the Election Commission of India to Conduct General and State election in India. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. An Electronic Voting Machine consists of two Units – a Control Unit and a Balloting Unit – joined by a five-meter cable. An EVM is a stand-alone setup, not connected to any network either through wired or wireless technology. The Control Unit is with the Presiding Officer or a Polling Officer and the Balloting Unit is placed inside the voting compartment. Instead of issuing a ballot paper, the Polling Officer in-charge of the Control Unit will press the Ballot Button. This will enable the voter to cast his vote by pressing the blue button on the Balloting Unit against the candidate and symbol of his choice. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Booth-capturing means taking away or damaging of ballot boxes or ballot papers, this cannot be prevented by the use of EVMs as EVMs can also be forcibly taken away or damaged by miscreants. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option(c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Electronic Voting Machine was introduced in India to conduct free and fair elections. Hence, the Indian Parliament amended the Representation of the People Act, 1951 and introduced Section 61-A which lays down the provisions for the use of Electronic Voting Machine by the Election Commission of India to Conduct General and State election in India. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. An Electronic Voting Machine consists of two Units – a Control Unit and a Balloting Unit – joined by a five-meter cable. An EVM is a stand-alone setup, not connected to any network either through wired or wireless technology. The Control Unit is with the Presiding Officer or a Polling Officer and the Balloting Unit is placed inside the voting compartment. Instead of issuing a ballot paper, the Polling Officer in-charge of the Control Unit will press the Ballot Button. This will enable the voter to cast his vote by pressing the blue button on the Balloting Unit against the candidate and symbol of his choice. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Booth-capturing means taking away or damaging of ballot boxes or ballot papers, this cannot be prevented by the use of EVMs as EVMs can also be forcibly taken away or damaged by miscreants. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option(c) is correct. *

#### 10. Question

With reference to Electronics Voting Machines (EVMs), consider the following statements:

• Provisions for the use of EVMs are provided under the Representation of the People Act, 1950.

• EVM data is continuously monitored through a centralized storage server.

• EVMs completely eliminate the possibilities of booth capturing.

How many of the above statements are* incorrect*?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Explanation:

• Electronic Voting Machine was introduced in India to conduct free and fair elections. Hence, the Indian Parliament amended the Representation of the People Act, 1951 and introduced Section 61-A which lays down the provisions for the use of Electronic Voting Machine by the Election Commission of India to Conduct General and State election in India. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• An Electronic Voting Machine consists of two Units – a Control Unit and a Balloting Unit – joined by a five-meter cable. An EVM is a stand-alone setup, not connected to any network either through wired or wireless technology.

• The Control Unit is with the Presiding Officer or a Polling Officer and the Balloting Unit is placed inside the voting compartment. Instead of issuing a ballot paper, the Polling Officer in-charge of the Control Unit will press the Ballot Button. This will enable the voter to cast his vote by pressing the blue button on the Balloting Unit against the candidate and symbol of his choice. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• Booth-capturing means taking away or damaging of ballot boxes or ballot papers, this cannot be prevented by the use of EVMs as EVMs can also be forcibly taken away or damaged by miscreants. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Hence, option(c) is correct.

Explanation:

Hence, option(c) is correct.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following countries: South Africa Somalia Malaysia Nepal How many of the above countries is/are members of the Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA)? a) Only one country b) Only two countries c) Only three countries d) All four countries Correct Solution: C The Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA) is a dynamic inter-governmental organisation aimed at strengthening regional cooperation and sustainable development within the Indian Ocean region through its 23 Member States and 10 Dialogue Partners. Promoting sustained growth and balanced development within the Indian Ocean region, IORA strengthens cooperation and dialogue with Member States namely: Commonwealth of Australia, People’s Republic of Bangladesh, Union of Comoros, French Republic, Republic of India, Republic of Indonesia, Islamic Republic of Iran, Republic of Kenya, Republic of Madagascar, Malaysia, Republic of Maldives, Republic of Mauritius, Republic of Mozambique, Sultanate of Oman, Republic of Seychelles, Republic of Singapore, Federal Republic of Somalia , Republic of South Africa, Democratic Socialist Republic of Sri Lanka, United Republic of Tanzania, Kingdom of Thailand, United Arab Emirates and Republic of Yemen. All sovereign States of the Indian Ocean Rim are eligible for membership of the Association. To become members, States must adhere to the principles and objectives enshrined in the Charter of the Association. Incorrect Solution: C The Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA) is a dynamic inter-governmental organisation aimed at strengthening regional cooperation and sustainable development within the Indian Ocean region through its 23 Member States and 10 Dialogue Partners. Promoting sustained growth and balanced development within the Indian Ocean region, IORA strengthens cooperation and dialogue with Member States namely: Commonwealth of Australia, People’s Republic of Bangladesh, Union of Comoros, French Republic, Republic of India, Republic of Indonesia, Islamic Republic of Iran, Republic of Kenya, Republic of Madagascar, Malaysia, Republic of Maldives, Republic of Mauritius, Republic of Mozambique, Sultanate of Oman, Republic of Seychelles, Republic of Singapore, Federal Republic of Somalia , Republic of South Africa, Democratic Socialist Republic of Sri Lanka, United Republic of Tanzania, Kingdom of Thailand, United Arab Emirates and Republic of Yemen. All sovereign States of the Indian Ocean Rim are eligible for membership of the Association. To become members, States must adhere to the principles and objectives enshrined in the Charter of the Association.

#### 11. Question

Consider the following countries:

• South Africa

How many of the above countries is/are members of the Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA)?

• a) Only one country

• b) Only two countries

• c) Only three countries

• d) All four countries

Solution: C

The Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA) is a dynamic inter-governmental organisation aimed at strengthening regional cooperation and sustainable development within the Indian Ocean region through its 23 Member States and 10 Dialogue Partners.

Promoting sustained growth and balanced development within the Indian Ocean region, IORA strengthens cooperation and dialogue with Member States namely:

Commonwealth of Australia, People’s Republic of Bangladesh, Union of Comoros, French Republic, Republic of India, Republic of Indonesia, Islamic Republic of Iran, Republic of Kenya, Republic of Madagascar, Malaysia, Republic of Maldives, Republic of Mauritius, Republic of Mozambique, Sultanate of Oman, Republic of Seychelles, Republic of Singapore, Federal Republic of Somalia , Republic of South Africa, Democratic Socialist Republic of Sri Lanka, United Republic of Tanzania, Kingdom of Thailand, United Arab Emirates and Republic of Yemen.

All sovereign States of the Indian Ocean Rim are eligible for membership of the Association. To become members, States must adhere to the principles and objectives enshrined in the Charter of the Association.

Solution: C

Promoting sustained growth and balanced development within the Indian Ocean region, IORA strengthens cooperation and dialogue with Member States namely:

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following countries: Iran Turkmenistan Kazakhstan Kyrgyzstan How many of the above countries share border with Afghanistan? a) Only one country b) Only two countries c) Only three countries d) All four countries Correct Solution: B Afghanistan is bounded to the south by Pakistan, to the west by Iran, and to the north by the Central Asian states of Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan, and Tajikistan. Incorrect Solution: B Afghanistan is bounded to the south by Pakistan, to the west by Iran, and to the north by the Central Asian states of Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan, and Tajikistan.

#### 12. Question

Consider the following countries:

• Turkmenistan

• Kazakhstan

• Kyrgyzstan

How many of the above countries share border with Afghanistan?

• a) Only one country

• b) Only two countries

• c) Only three countries

• d) All four countries

Solution: B

Afghanistan is bounded to the south by Pakistan, to the west by Iran, and to the north by the Central Asian states of Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan, and Tajikistan.

Solution: B

Afghanistan is bounded to the south by Pakistan, to the west by Iran, and to the north by the Central Asian states of Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan, and Tajikistan.

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Chargesheets in India: As per the Criminal Code of Procedure, it is the final report prepared by investigative agencies after completing their investigation of a case. As per the Supreme Court, these are not public documents and enabling their free public access violates the provisions of the Criminal Code of Procedure. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: A chargesheet, as defined under Section 173 CrPC, is the final report prepared by a police officer or investigative agencies after completing their investigation of a case. After preparing the chargesheet, the officer-in-charge of the police station forwards it to a Magistrate, who is empowered to take notice of the offences mentioned in it. The chargesheet should contain details of names, the nature of the information, and offences. Whether the accused is under arrest, in custody, or has been released, whether any action was taken against him, are all important questions that the chargesheet answers. The charge-sheet is nothing but a final report of the police officer under s. 173(2) of the CrPC. A chargesheet must be filed against the accused within a prescribed period of 60-90 days, otherwise the arrest is illegal and the accused is entitled to bail. Statement 2 is correct: The Supreme Court held that chargesheets are not ‘public documents’ and enabling their free public access violates the provisions of the Criminal Code of Procedure as it compromises the rights of the accused, victim, and the investigation agencies. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: A chargesheet, as defined under Section 173 CrPC, is the final report prepared by a police officer or investigative agencies after completing their investigation of a case. After preparing the chargesheet, the officer-in-charge of the police station forwards it to a Magistrate, who is empowered to take notice of the offences mentioned in it. The chargesheet should contain details of names, the nature of the information, and offences. Whether the accused is under arrest, in custody, or has been released, whether any action was taken against him, are all important questions that the chargesheet answers. The charge-sheet is nothing but a final report of the police officer under s. 173(2) of the CrPC. A chargesheet must be filed against the accused within a prescribed period of 60-90 days, otherwise the arrest is illegal and the accused is entitled to bail. Statement 2 is correct: The Supreme Court held that chargesheets are not ‘public documents’ and enabling their free public access violates the provisions of the Criminal Code of Procedure as it compromises the rights of the accused, victim, and the investigation agencies.

#### 13. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Chargesheets in India:

• As per the Criminal Code of Procedure, it is the final report prepared by investigative agencies after completing their investigation of a case.

• As per the Supreme Court, these are not public documents and enabling their free public access violates the provisions of the Criminal Code of Procedure.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: A chargesheet, as defined under Section 173 CrPC, is the final report prepared by a police officer or investigative agencies after completing their investigation of a case.

• After preparing the chargesheet, the officer-in-charge of the police station forwards it to a Magistrate, who is empowered to take notice of the offences mentioned in it.

• The chargesheet should contain details of names, the nature of the information, and offences.

• Whether the accused is under arrest, in custody, or has been released, whether any action was taken against him, are all important questions that the chargesheet answers.

• The charge-sheet is nothing but a final report of the police officer under s. 173(2) of the CrPC.

• A chargesheet must be filed against the accused within a prescribed period of 60-90 days, otherwise the arrest is illegal and the accused is entitled to bail.

Statement 2 is correct: The Supreme Court held that chargesheets are not ‘public documents’ and enabling their free public access violates the provisions of the Criminal Code of Procedure as it compromises the rights of the accused, victim, and the investigation agencies.

Answer: C

Explanation:

• After preparing the chargesheet, the officer-in-charge of the police station forwards it to a Magistrate, who is empowered to take notice of the offences mentioned in it.

• The chargesheet should contain details of names, the nature of the information, and offences.

• Whether the accused is under arrest, in custody, or has been released, whether any action was taken against him, are all important questions that the chargesheet answers.

• The charge-sheet is nothing but a final report of the police officer under s. 173(2) of the CrPC.

• A chargesheet must be filed against the accused within a prescribed period of 60-90 days, otherwise the arrest is illegal and the accused is entitled to bail.

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Which one of the following best resemble ‘Instrument of Instructions’ enumerated in the Government of India Act of 1935. a) The Fundamental Rights b) The Fundamental Duties c) The Directive Principles of State Policy d) The Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties Correct Answer: C Explanation: Option (c) is correct: The Directive Principles resemble the ‘Instrument of Instructions’ enumerated in the Government of India Act of 1935. In the words of Dr B R Ambedkar, ‘the Directive Principles are like the instrument of instructions, which were issued to the Governor-General and to the Governors of the colonies of India by the British Government under the Government of India Act of 1935. What is called Directive Principles is merely another name for the instrument of instructions. The only difference is that they are instructions to the legislature and the executive’. The Directive Principles constitute a very comprehensive economic, social and political programme for a modern democratic State. They aim at realising the high ideals of justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as outlined in the Preamble to the Constitution Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Option (c) is correct: The Directive Principles resemble the ‘Instrument of Instructions’ enumerated in the Government of India Act of 1935. In the words of Dr B R Ambedkar, ‘the Directive Principles are like the instrument of instructions, which were issued to the Governor-General and to the Governors of the colonies of India by the British Government under the Government of India Act of 1935. What is called Directive Principles is merely another name for the instrument of instructions. The only difference is that they are instructions to the legislature and the executive’. The Directive Principles constitute a very comprehensive economic, social and political programme for a modern democratic State. They aim at realising the high ideals of justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as outlined in the Preamble to the Constitution

#### 14. Question

Which one of the following best resemble ‘Instrument of Instructions’ enumerated in the Government of India Act of 1935.

• a) The Fundamental Rights

• b) The Fundamental Duties

• c) The Directive Principles of State Policy

• d) The Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties

Answer: C

Explanation:

Option (c) is correct: The Directive Principles resemble the ‘Instrument of Instructions’ enumerated in the Government of India Act of 1935.

• In the words of Dr B R Ambedkar, ‘the Directive Principles are like the instrument of instructions, which were issued to the Governor-General and to the Governors of the colonies of India by the British Government under the Government of India Act of 1935.

• What is called Directive Principles is merely another name for the instrument of instructions. The only difference is that they are instructions to the legislature and the executive’.

• The Directive Principles constitute a very comprehensive economic, social and political programme for a modern democratic State.

• They aim at realising the high ideals of justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as outlined in the Preamble to the Constitution

Answer: C

Explanation:

Option (c) is correct: The Directive Principles resemble the ‘Instrument of Instructions’ enumerated in the Government of India Act of 1935.

• What is called Directive Principles is merely another name for the instrument of instructions. The only difference is that they are instructions to the legislature and the executive’.

• The Directive Principles constitute a very comprehensive economic, social and political programme for a modern democratic State.

• They aim at realising the high ideals of justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as outlined in the Preamble to the Constitution

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points The Petermann Glacier recently seen in the news connects- a) Greenland ice sheet to the Arctic Ocean b) Akkem Glacier to the Altai Mountains c) Lake Vostok to the Southern Ocean d) Drake Passage and Falkland Islands Correct Answer: A Explanation: Option (a) is correct: The Petermann Glacier connects the Greenland ice sheet to the Arctic Ocean and is named for German cartographer, August Heinrich Petermann. It consists of a 70km long and 15km wide ‘ice tongue’ whose thickness varies from 600 m to 60 m. Recent research discovered an unknown mechanism, in how the glacier’s ice interacted with the ocean and suggests that climate scientists may be vastly underestimating the magnitude of future sea-level rise from polar ice deterioration. It emerges that the Petermann Glacier’s grounding line where ice detaches from the land bed and begins floating in the ocean. It shifts substantially during tidal cycles, allowing warm seawater to intrude and melt ice at an accelerated rate. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Option (a) is correct: The Petermann Glacier connects the Greenland ice sheet to the Arctic Ocean and is named for German cartographer, August Heinrich Petermann. It consists of a 70km long and 15km wide ‘ice tongue’ whose thickness varies from 600 m to 60 m. Recent research discovered an unknown mechanism, in how the glacier’s ice interacted with the ocean and suggests that climate scientists may be vastly underestimating the magnitude of future sea-level rise from polar ice deterioration. It emerges that the Petermann Glacier’s grounding line where ice detaches from the land bed and begins floating in the ocean. It shifts substantially during tidal cycles, allowing warm seawater to intrude and melt ice at an accelerated rate.

#### 15. Question

The Petermann Glacier recently seen in the news connects-

• a) Greenland ice sheet to the Arctic Ocean

• b) Akkem Glacier to the Altai Mountains

• c) Lake Vostok to the Southern Ocean

• d) Drake Passage and Falkland Islands

Answer: A

Explanation:

Option (a) is correct: The Petermann Glacier connects the Greenland ice sheet to the Arctic Ocean and is named for German cartographer, August Heinrich Petermann.

• It consists of a 70km long and 15km wide ‘ice tongue’ whose thickness varies from 600 m to 60 m.

• Recent research discovered an unknown mechanism, in how the glacier’s ice interacted with the ocean and suggests that climate scientists may be vastly underestimating the magnitude of future sea-level rise from polar ice deterioration.

• It emerges that the Petermann Glacier’s grounding line where ice detaches from the land bed and begins floating in the ocean.

• It shifts substantially during tidal cycles, allowing warm seawater to intrude and melt ice at an accelerated rate.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Option (a) is correct: The Petermann Glacier connects the Greenland ice sheet to the Arctic Ocean and is named for German cartographer, August Heinrich Petermann.

• It consists of a 70km long and 15km wide ‘ice tongue’ whose thickness varies from 600 m to 60 m.

• It emerges that the Petermann Glacier’s grounding line where ice detaches from the land bed and begins floating in the ocean.

• It shifts substantially during tidal cycles, allowing warm seawater to intrude and melt ice at an accelerated rate.

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points With reference to the Quantum Dots, consider the following statements: They can be used as security markers on currency as an anti-counterfeit measure. They can be used in photovoltaic cells to convert solar light into electricity. The properties of quantum dots cannot be changed by changing their size. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None of the above Correct Answer: B Explanation: One of the simplest applications of quantum dots is to light computer monitors and television screens. Statement 1 is correct: Quantum dots can be used as security markers on currency and documents as an anti-counterfeit measure. Broadly, they can be used as fluorescent markers to tag and track objects. Statement 2 is correct: Quantum dots are also used in photovoltaic cells to improve the absorption and efficiency in converting solar light into electricity. Certain cancer treatments use quantum dots for targeted drug delivery and other therapeutic measures. This has wider applications in the field of nanomedicine too. Quantum dots are particles that are a few nanometres wide. They exhibit unique optical properties due to their small physical size. Statement 3 is not correct: In fact, the properties of quantum dots can be changed by changing their size. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: One of the simplest applications of quantum dots is to light computer monitors and television screens. Statement 1 is correct: Quantum dots can be used as security markers on currency and documents as an anti-counterfeit measure. Broadly, they can be used as fluorescent markers to tag and track objects. Statement 2 is correct: Quantum dots are also used in photovoltaic cells to improve the absorption and efficiency in converting solar light into electricity. Certain cancer treatments use quantum dots for targeted drug delivery and other therapeutic measures. This has wider applications in the field of nanomedicine too. Quantum dots are particles that are a few nanometres wide. They exhibit unique optical properties due to their small physical size. Statement 3 is not correct: In fact, the properties of quantum dots can be changed by changing their size.

#### 16. Question

With reference to the Quantum Dots, consider the following statements:

• They can be used as security markers on currency as an anti-counterfeit measure.

• They can be used in photovoltaic cells to convert solar light into electricity.

• The properties of quantum dots cannot be changed by changing their size.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

• d) None of the above

Answer: B

Explanation:

One of the simplest applications of quantum dots is to light computer monitors and television screens.

Statement 1 is correct: Quantum dots can be used as security markers on currency and documents as an anti-counterfeit measure. Broadly, they can be used as fluorescent markers to tag and track objects.

Statement 2 is correct: Quantum dots are also used in photovoltaic cells to improve the absorption and efficiency in converting solar light into electricity.

Certain cancer treatments use quantum dots for targeted drug delivery and other therapeutic measures. This has wider applications in the field of nanomedicine too.

Quantum dots are particles that are a few nanometres wide. They exhibit unique optical properties due to their small physical size.

Statement 3 is not correct: In fact, the properties of quantum dots can be changed by changing their size.

Answer: B

Explanation:

One of the simplest applications of quantum dots is to light computer monitors and television screens.

Statement 2 is correct: Quantum dots are also used in photovoltaic cells to improve the absorption and efficiency in converting solar light into electricity.

Certain cancer treatments use quantum dots for targeted drug delivery and other therapeutic measures. This has wider applications in the field of nanomedicine too.

Quantum dots are particles that are a few nanometres wide. They exhibit unique optical properties due to their small physical size.

Statement 3 is not correct: In fact, the properties of quantum dots can be changed by changing their size.

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Limited Liability Partnership: It is a hybrid between a Limited Liability Company and a Partnership but has no advantage of a body corporate. It is regulated by the LLP Agreements and the statutory provisions and includes a partner to file compliance with the authorities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: D Explanation: The Corporate Affairs Ministry has recently notified the Limited Liability Partnership (Significant Beneficial Owners) Rules, 2023. Statement 1 is not correct: An LLP is quintessentially a hybrid between a Limited Liability Company and a Partnership. It has the advantage of being a body corporate. Statement 2 is not correct: LLP are regulated by the LLP Agreement and not by any statutory provisions. It has a partner designated to file compliance with the authorities. Incorrect Answer: D Explanation: The Corporate Affairs Ministry has recently notified the Limited Liability Partnership (Significant Beneficial Owners) Rules, 2023. Statement 1 is not correct: An LLP is quintessentially a hybrid between a Limited Liability Company and a Partnership. It has the advantage of being a body corporate. Statement 2 is not correct: LLP are regulated by the LLP Agreement and not by any statutory provisions. It has a partner designated to file compliance with the authorities.

#### 17. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Limited Liability Partnership:

• It is a hybrid between a Limited Liability Company and a Partnership but has no advantage of a body corporate.

• It is regulated by the LLP Agreements and the statutory provisions and includes a partner to file compliance with the authorities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Explanation:

The Corporate Affairs Ministry has recently notified the Limited Liability Partnership (Significant Beneficial Owners) Rules, 2023.

Statement 1 is not correct: An LLP is quintessentially a hybrid between a Limited Liability Company and a Partnership. It has the advantage of being a body corporate.

Statement 2 is not correct: LLP are regulated by the LLP Agreement and not by any statutory provisions. It has a partner designated to file compliance with the authorities.

Answer: D

Explanation:

The Corporate Affairs Ministry has recently notified the Limited Liability Partnership (Significant Beneficial Owners) Rules, 2023.

Statement 1 is not correct: An LLP is quintessentially a hybrid between a Limited Liability Company and a Partnership. It has the advantage of being a body corporate.

Statement 2 is not correct: LLP are regulated by the LLP Agreement and not by any statutory provisions. It has a partner designated to file compliance with the authorities.

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Amazon River: Its watershed spans the countries of Ecuador and Colombia. It releases high amounts of freshwater into the Atlantic Ocean. It is the main habitat of the boto which is a freshwater dolphin. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Its watershed spans the countries of Brazil, Peru, Ecuador, Colombia, Venezuela, and Bolivia. The river is generally 19 to 50 km wide, with a maximum width of 100 km. Statement 2 is correct: The Amazon releases freshwater into the Atlantic Ocean at 300,000 m3 per second. The Amazon River is the second-longest river in the world after the Nile and the largest river in South America. Statement 3 is correct: Along with the Orinoco, the Amazon is the main habitat of the boto, also known as the Amazon river dolphin, the largest river dolphin measuring up to 2.6 m in length. Also present in the Amazon waters are piranhas, carnivorous fish that congregate in large schools and attack animals and sometimes even humans. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Its watershed spans the countries of Brazil, Peru, Ecuador, Colombia, Venezuela, and Bolivia. The river is generally 19 to 50 km wide, with a maximum width of 100 km. Statement 2 is correct: The Amazon releases freshwater into the Atlantic Ocean at 300,000 m3 per second. The Amazon River is the second-longest river in the world after the Nile and the largest river in South America. Statement 3 is correct: Along with the Orinoco, the Amazon is the main habitat of the boto, also known as the Amazon river dolphin, the largest river dolphin measuring up to 2.6 m in length. Also present in the Amazon waters are piranhas, carnivorous fish that congregate in large schools and attack animals and sometimes even humans.

#### 18. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Amazon River:

• Its watershed spans the countries of Ecuador and Colombia.

• It releases high amounts of freshwater into the Atlantic Ocean.

• It is the main habitat of the boto which is a freshwater dolphin.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Its watershed spans the countries of Brazil, Peru, Ecuador, Colombia, Venezuela, and Bolivia. The river is generally 19 to 50 km wide, with a maximum width of 100 km.

Statement 2 is correct: The Amazon releases freshwater into the Atlantic Ocean at 300,000 m3 per second.

The Amazon River is the second-longest river in the world after the Nile and the largest river in South America.

Statement 3 is correct: Along with the Orinoco, the Amazon is the main habitat of the boto, also known as the Amazon river dolphin, the largest river dolphin measuring up to 2.6 m in length.

Also present in the Amazon waters are piranhas, carnivorous fish that congregate in large schools and attack animals and sometimes even humans.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Its watershed spans the countries of Brazil, Peru, Ecuador, Colombia, Venezuela, and Bolivia. The river is generally 19 to 50 km wide, with a maximum width of 100 km.

Statement 2 is correct: The Amazon releases freshwater into the Atlantic Ocean at 300,000 m3 per second.

The Amazon River is the second-longest river in the world after the Nile and the largest river in South America.

Statement 3 is correct: Along with the Orinoco, the Amazon is the main habitat of the boto, also known as the Amazon river dolphin, the largest river dolphin measuring up to 2.6 m in length.

Also present in the Amazon waters are piranhas, carnivorous fish that congregate in large schools and attack animals and sometimes even humans.

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Pet Coke: It is a direct replacement of coal as a fuel but has a much lower calorific value. It is hydrophobic as compared to coal which is hydrophilic in nature. It has low volatile matter but has higher density compared to liquid fuels. How many of the statements given above is/are *not correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None of the above Correct Answer: A Explanation: Petroleum coke is a carbonaceous product obtained in the oil refining process. It is abbreviated as Coke or Petcoke, and is a carbon-rich solid material derived from final cracking process — a thermo-based chemical engineering process that splits long chain hydrocarbons of petroleum into shorter chains— that takes place in coker units. Statement 1 is not correct: Petcoke is a direct replacement of coal as a fuel but has higher calorific value. Statement 2 is correct: Petcoke is hydrophobic as compared to coal which is hydrophilic, thereby having edge during rainy season. Statement 3 is correct: Being solid fuel, Petcoke has low volatile matter thus no evaporation losses. Helps saving in transportation cost due to higher density compared to liquid fuels. It has low ash content. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Petroleum coke is a carbonaceous product obtained in the oil refining process. It is abbreviated as Coke or Petcoke, and is a carbon-rich solid material derived from final cracking process — a thermo-based chemical engineering process that splits long chain hydrocarbons of petroleum into shorter chains— that takes place in coker units. Statement 1 is not correct: Petcoke is a direct replacement of coal as a fuel but has higher calorific value. Statement 2 is correct: Petcoke is hydrophobic as compared to coal which is hydrophilic, thereby having edge during rainy season. Statement 3 is correct:* Being solid fuel, Petcoke has low volatile matter thus no evaporation losses. Helps saving in transportation cost due to higher density compared to liquid fuels. It has low ash content.

#### 19. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Pet Coke:

• It is a direct replacement of coal as a fuel but has a much lower calorific value.

• It is hydrophobic as compared to coal which is hydrophilic in nature.

• It has low volatile matter but has higher density compared to liquid fuels.

How many of the statements given above is/are *not* correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

• d) None of the above

Answer: A

Explanation:

Petroleum coke is a carbonaceous product obtained in the oil refining process. It is abbreviated as Coke or Petcoke, and is a carbon-rich solid material derived from final cracking process — a thermo-based chemical engineering process that splits long chain hydrocarbons of petroleum into shorter chains— that takes place in coker units.

Statement 1 is not correct: Petcoke is a direct replacement of coal as a fuel but has higher calorific value.

Statement 2 is correct: Petcoke is hydrophobic as compared to coal which is hydrophilic, thereby having edge during rainy season.

Statement 3 is correct: Being solid fuel, Petcoke has low volatile matter thus no evaporation losses. Helps saving in transportation cost due to higher density compared to liquid fuels.

It has low ash content.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: Petcoke is a direct replacement of coal as a fuel but has higher calorific value.

Statement 2 is correct: Petcoke is hydrophobic as compared to coal which is hydrophilic, thereby having edge during rainy season.

Statement 3 is correct: Being solid fuel, Petcoke has low volatile matter thus no evaporation losses. Helps saving in transportation cost due to higher density compared to liquid fuels.

It has low ash content.

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Macrophages: Macrophages are cells of the innate immune system and represent an important component of the first-line defense against tumor cells. Like all immune cells, macrophages are derived from a pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell in the bone marrow. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Macrophages are cells of the innate immune system and represent an important component of the first-line defense against pathogens and tumor cells. Macrophages are important cells of the innate or nonspecific immune system present in all vertebrates. Statement 2 is correct: Like all immune cells, macrophages are derived from a pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell in the bone marrow. Monocytes that migrate from the circulation into tissue mature into macrophages Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Macrophages are cells of the innate immune system and represent an important component of the first-line defense against pathogens and tumor cells. Macrophages are important cells of the innate or nonspecific immune system present in all vertebrates. Statement 2 is correct: Like all immune cells, macrophages are derived from a pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell in the bone marrow. Monocytes that migrate from the circulation into tissue mature into macrophages

#### 20. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Macrophages:

• Macrophages are cells of the innate immune system and represent an important component of the first-line defense against tumor cells.

• Like all immune cells, macrophages are derived from a pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell in the bone marrow.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Macrophages are cells of the innate immune system and represent an important component of the first-line defense against pathogens and tumor cells.

Macrophages are important cells of the innate or nonspecific immune system present in all vertebrates.

Statement 2 is correct: Like all immune cells, macrophages are derived from a pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell in the bone marrow.

Monocytes that migrate from the circulation into tissue mature into macrophages

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Macrophages are cells of the innate immune system and represent an important component of the first-line defense against pathogens and tumor cells.

Macrophages are important cells of the innate or nonspecific immune system present in all vertebrates.

Statement 2 is correct: Like all immune cells, macrophages are derived from a pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell in the bone marrow.

Monocytes that migrate from the circulation into tissue mature into macrophages

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Which of the following global ecosystems account for 80% of the world’s tropical forests and nearly two-thirds of the earth’s biodiversity? Amazon basin Congo basin Indo-Burmese Himalayan region Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1, 2 and 3 d) 1 and 3 only Correct Justification: Three basins are Congo basin: Spans across Cameroon, Central African Republic, Democratic Republic of the Congo, Republic of the Congo, Equatorial Guinea, and Gabon. Amazon Basin – It extends over 9 countries in South America. Borneo-Mekong-Southeast Asia Basin Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/10/27/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-27-october-2023/ Incorrect Justification: Three basins are Congo basin: Spans across Cameroon, Central African Republic, Democratic Republic of the Congo, Republic of the Congo, Equatorial Guinea, and Gabon. Amazon Basin – It extends over 9 countries in South America. Borneo-Mekong-Southeast Asia Basin Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/10/27/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-27-october-2023/

#### 21. Question

Which of the following global ecosystems account for 80% of the world’s tropical forests and nearly two-thirds of the earth’s biodiversity?

• Amazon basin

• Congo basin

• Indo-Burmese Himalayan region

Which of the above is/are correct?

• a) 1 and 2 only

• b) 2 and 3 only

• c) 1, 2 and 3

• d) 1 and 3 only

Justification: Three basins are

Congo basin: Spans across Cameroon, Central African Republic, Democratic Republic of the Congo, Republic of the Congo, Equatorial Guinea, and Gabon.

Amazon Basin – It extends over 9 countries in South America.

Borneo-Mekong-Southeast Asia Basin

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/10/27/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-27-october-2023/

Justification: Three basins are

Congo basin: Spans across Cameroon, Central African Republic, Democratic Republic of the Congo, Republic of the Congo, Equatorial Guinea, and Gabon.

Amazon Basin – It extends over 9 countries in South America.

Borneo-Mekong-Southeast Asia Basin

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/10/27/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-27-october-2023/

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points If you walk on the streets of New Delhi, you are likely to notice public signboards in which of these languages? Gurmukhi Urdu Awadhi Which of the above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None of the above Correct Justification: You will see signboards in English, Devanagri, Urdu and Gurumukhi. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/10/28/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-28-october-2023/ Incorrect Justification: You will see signboards in English, Devanagri, Urdu and Gurumukhi. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/10/28/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-28-october-2023/

#### 22. Question

If you walk on the streets of New Delhi, you are likely to notice public signboards in which of these languages?

Which of the above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3

• (d) None of the above

Justification: You will see signboards in English, Devanagri, Urdu and Gurumukhi.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/10/28/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-28-october-2023/

Justification: You will see signboards in English, Devanagri, Urdu and Gurumukhi.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/10/28/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-28-october-2023/

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points In terms of preserving and promoting languages, the Constitution of India provides for the formation of a Commission to recommend the progressive use of Hindi for official purposes. states to adopt any language in use in the state or Hindi for official purposes. the languages to be used for communication between states and between states and the Union. How many of the above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/10/28/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-28-october-2023/ Incorrect Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/10/28/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-28-october-2023/

#### 23. Question

In terms of preserving and promoting languages, the Constitution of India provides for

• the formation of a Commission to recommend the progressive use of Hindi for official purposes.

• states to adopt any language in use in the state or Hindi for official purposes.

• the languages to be used for communication between states and between states and the Union.

How many of the above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/10/28/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-28-october-2023/

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/10/28/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-28-october-2023/

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points India is third in terms of the numbers of dams constructed in the country. The major reason cited for dam failure in India is (a) flooding (b) silt accummulation (c) migration of various species (d) seasonal variation leading to expansion and contraction of dam joints Correct Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/10/27/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-27-october-2023/ Incorrect Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/10/27/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-27-october-2023/

#### 24. Question

India is third in terms of the numbers of dams constructed in the country. The major reason cited for dam failure in India is

• (a) flooding

• (b) silt accummulation

• (c) migration of various species

• (d) seasonal variation leading to expansion and contraction of dam joints

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/10/27/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-27-october-2023/

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/10/27/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-27-october-2023/

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Graphite is a mineral that can be found in metamorphic rocks igneous rocks sedimentary rocks How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: b) Justification: Graphite is a naturally occurring crystalline form of carbon. It’s made up of stacked layers of graphene. Graphite is the most stable form of carbon under standard conditions. Graphite is a mineral that’s found in metamorphic and igneous rocks. It’s extremely soft, cleaves with very light pressure, and has a very low specific gravity. Graphite is a good conductor of electricity and heat. It’s also lighter than diamond, smooth and slippery to touch. Graphite, a key component in electric vehicle (EV) batteries, has seen a surge in demand due to the growth of the EV industry. The battery end-use market for graphite has grown by 250% globally since 2018. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/10/27/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-27-october-2023/ Incorrect Solution: b) Justification: Graphite is a naturally occurring crystalline form of carbon. It’s made up of stacked layers of graphene. Graphite is the most stable form of carbon under standard conditions. Graphite is a mineral that’s found in metamorphic and igneous rocks. It’s extremely soft, cleaves with very light pressure, and has a very low specific gravity. Graphite is a good conductor of electricity and heat. It’s also lighter than diamond, smooth and slippery to touch. Graphite, a key component in electric vehicle (EV) batteries, has seen a surge in demand due to the growth of the EV industry. The battery end-use market for graphite has grown by 250% globally since 2018. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/10/27/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-27-october-2023/

#### 25. Question

Graphite is a mineral that can be found in

• metamorphic rocks

• igneous rocks

• sedimentary rocks

How many of the above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: b)

Justification: Graphite is a naturally occurring crystalline form of carbon. It’s made up of stacked layers of graphene. Graphite is the most stable form of carbon under standard conditions.

Graphite is a mineral that’s found in metamorphic and igneous rocks. It’s extremely soft, cleaves with very light pressure, and has a very low specific gravity.

Graphite is a good conductor of electricity and heat. It’s also lighter than diamond, smooth and slippery to touch.

Graphite, a key component in electric vehicle (EV) batteries, has seen a surge in demand due to the growth of the EV industry. The battery end-use market for graphite has grown by 250% globally since 2018.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/10/27/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-27-october-2023/

Solution: b)

Justification: Graphite is a naturally occurring crystalline form of carbon. It’s made up of stacked layers of graphene. Graphite is the most stable form of carbon under standard conditions.

Graphite is a mineral that’s found in metamorphic and igneous rocks. It’s extremely soft, cleaves with very light pressure, and has a very low specific gravity.

Graphite is a good conductor of electricity and heat. It’s also lighter than diamond, smooth and slippery to touch.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/10/27/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-27-october-2023/

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points A watch which gains uniformly is 2 minutes low at noon on Monday and is 4 min 48 sec fast at 2 p.m. on the following Monday. When was it correct? a) 2 pm on Tuesday b) 2 pm on Wednesday c) 3 pm on Thursday d) 1 pm on Friday Correct Answer b) 2 pm on Wednesday Explanation Time from 12 p.m. on Monday to 2 p.m. on the following Monday = 7 days 2 hours. =170 hours. The watch gains = (2 + 4 x 4/5) min = 34/5 min. in 170 hrs. Now,34/5 min are gained in 170 hrs. 2 min are gained in (170 x 5/34 x 2) hrs. Watch is correct 2 days 2 hrs after 12 p.m. on Monday, i.e., it will be correct at 2 p.m. on Wednesday. Incorrect Answer b) 2 pm on Wednesday Explanation Time from 12 p.m. on Monday to 2 p.m. on the following Monday = 7 days 2 hours. =170 hours. The watch gains = (2 + 4 x 4/5) min = 34/5 min. in 170 hrs. Now,34/5 min are gained in 170 hrs. 2 min are gained in (170 x 5/34 x 2) hrs. Watch is correct 2 days 2 hrs after 12 p.m. on Monday, i.e., it will be correct at 2 p.m. on Wednesday.

#### 26. Question

A watch which gains uniformly is 2 minutes low at noon on Monday and is 4 min 48 sec fast at 2 p.m. on the following Monday. When was it correct?

• a) 2 pm on Tuesday

• b) 2 pm on Wednesday

• c) 3 pm on Thursday

• d) 1 pm on Friday

Answer b) 2 pm on Wednesday

Explanation

Time from 12 p.m. on Monday to 2 p.m. on the following Monday = 7 days 2 hours.

=170 hours.

The watch gains = (2 + 4 x 4/5) min

= 34/5 min. in 170 hrs.

Now,34/5 min are gained in 170 hrs.

2 min are gained in (170 x 5/34 x 2) hrs.

Watch is correct 2 days 2 hrs after 12 p.m. on Monday, i.e., it will be correct at 2 p.m. on Wednesday.

Answer b) 2 pm on Wednesday

Explanation

Time from 12 p.m. on Monday to 2 p.m. on the following Monday = 7 days 2 hours.

=170 hours.

The watch gains = (2 + 4 x 4/5) min

= 34/5 min. in 170 hrs.

Now,34/5 min are gained in 170 hrs.

2 min are gained in (170 x 5/34 x 2) hrs.

Watch is correct 2 days 2 hrs after 12 p.m. on Monday, i.e., it will be correct at 2 p.m. on Wednesday.

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points On 22nd Nov, 2007 Thursday falls. What day of the week was it on 8th Nov, 2006? a) Sunday b) Thursday c) Tuesday d) Wednesday Correct Answer D) Wednesday Explanation The year 2006 is an ordinary year. So, it has 1 odd day. So, the day on 22nd Nov, 2007 will be 1 day beyond the day on 22nd Nov, 2006. But, 22nd Nov, 2007 is Thursday. 22 – 8 = 14 days. Therefore, 2 weeks ago it is same day. Thus, 8th Nov, 2006 is Wednesday. Incorrect Answer D) Wednesday Explanation The year 2006 is an ordinary year. So, it has 1 odd day. So, the day on 22nd Nov, 2007 will be 1 day beyond the day on 22nd Nov, 2006. But, 22nd Nov, 2007 is Thursday. 22 – 8 = 14 days. Therefore, 2 weeks ago it is same day. Thus, 8th Nov, 2006 is Wednesday.

#### 27. Question

On 22nd Nov, 2007 Thursday falls. What day of the week was it on 8th Nov, 2006?

• b) Thursday

• c) Tuesday

• d) Wednesday

Answer D) Wednesday

Explanation

The year 2006 is an ordinary year. So, it has 1 odd day.

So, the day on 22nd Nov, 2007 will be 1 day beyond the day on 22nd Nov, 2006.

But, 22nd Nov, 2007 is Thursday.

22 – 8 = 14 days.

Therefore, 2 weeks ago it is same day.

Thus, 8th Nov, 2006 is Wednesday.

Answer D) Wednesday

Explanation

The year 2006 is an ordinary year. So, it has 1 odd day.

So, the day on 22nd Nov, 2007 will be 1 day beyond the day on 22nd Nov, 2006.

But, 22nd Nov, 2007 is Thursday.

22 – 8 = 14 days.

Therefore, 2 weeks ago it is same day.

Thus, 8th Nov, 2006 is Wednesday.

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points In a row of 55 students, Karan’s position is 39th from the left and Mayank’s position is 36th from right then how many students are there between them? a) 19 b) 17 c) 16 d) 18 Correct Sol. Karan’s position is 39th from the left Mayank’s position from the left is (55-36+1= 20th) from the left Hence, there are 18 students between them. Incorrect Sol. Karan’s position is 39th from the left Mayank’s position from the left is (55-36+1= 20th) from the left Hence, there are 18 students between them.

#### 28. Question

In a row of 55 students, Karan’s position is 39th from the left and Mayank’s position is 36th from right then how many students are there between them?

Sol. Karan’s position is 39th from the left

Mayank’s position from the left is (55-36+1= 20th) from the left

Hence, there are 18 students between them.

Sol. Karan’s position is 39th from the left

Mayank’s position from the left is (55-36+1= 20th) from the left

Hence, there are 18 students between them.

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points Passage 1 In the last decade, the banking sector has been restructured with a high degree of automation and products that mainly serve middle-class and upper middle-class society. Today there is need for a new agenda for the banking and non-banking financial services that does not exclude the common man. Which one of the following is the message that is essentially implied in the above passage? A. Need for more automation and more products of bank. B. Need for a radical restructuring of our entire public finance system. C. Need to integrate banking and non-banking institutions. D. Need to promote financial inclusion. Correct Explanation: The main idea of the passage is to promote the banking and non-banking financial services that do not exclude the common man. Other options are just means to reach financial Inclusion. Incorrect Explanation: The main idea of the passage is to promote the banking and non-banking financial services that do not exclude the common man. Other options are just means to reach financial Inclusion.

#### 29. Question

Passage 1

In the last decade, the banking sector has been restructured with a high degree of automation and products that mainly serve middle-class and upper middle-class society. Today there is need for a new agenda for the banking and non-banking financial services that does not exclude the common man.

Which one of the following is the message that is essentially implied in the above passage?

• A. Need for more automation and more products of bank.

• B. Need for a radical restructuring of our entire public finance system.

• C. Need to integrate banking and non-banking institutions.

• D. Need to promote financial inclusion.

Explanation:

The main idea of the passage is to promote the banking and non-banking financial services that do not exclude the common man.

Other options are just means to reach financial Inclusion.

Explanation:

The main idea of the passage is to promote the banking and non-banking financial services that do not exclude the common man.

Other options are just means to reach financial Inclusion.

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points Passage 2 Safe and sustainable sanitation in slums has immeasurable benefits to women and girls in terms of their health, safety, privacy and dimity. However, women do not feature in most of the schemes and policies on urban sanitation. The fact that even now the manual scavenging exists, ones to show that not enough has been done to promote pour-flush toilets and discontinue the use of dry latrines. A more sustained and rigorous campaign needs to be launched towards the right to sanitation on a very large scale. This should primarily focus on the abolition of manual scavenging. With reference to the above passage, consider the following statements: 1. Urban sanitation problems can be fully solved by the abolition of manual scavenging only. 2. There is a need to promote greater awareness on safe sanitation practices in urban areas. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 & 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2. Correct Explanation: Manual scavenging is not the only problem of urban sanitation so 1 is wrong. Awareness creation is more needed for proper sanitation so 2 is correct. Incorrect Explanation: Manual scavenging is not the only problem of urban sanitation so 1 is wrong. Awareness creation is more needed for proper sanitation so 2 is correct.

#### 30. Question

Passage 2

Safe and sustainable sanitation in slums has immeasurable benefits to women and girls in terms of their health, safety, privacy and dimity. However, women do not feature in most of the schemes and policies on urban sanitation. The fact that even now the manual scavenging exists, ones to show that not enough has been done to promote pour-flush toilets and discontinue the use of dry latrines. A more sustained and rigorous campaign needs to be launched towards the right to sanitation on a very large scale. This should primarily focus on the abolition of manual scavenging.

With reference to the above passage, consider the following statements: 1. Urban sanitation problems can be fully solved by the abolition of manual scavenging only. 2. There is a need to promote greater awareness on safe sanitation practices in urban areas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• C. Both 1 & 2

• D. Neither 1 nor 2.

Explanation:

Manual scavenging is not the only problem of urban sanitation so 1 is wrong.

Awareness creation is more needed for proper sanitation so 2 is correct.

Explanation:

Manual scavenging is not the only problem of urban sanitation so 1 is wrong.

Awareness creation is more needed for proper sanitation so 2 is correct.

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