DAY – 54 : Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2025 : ENVIRONMENT & ECOLOGY

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Global Environment Facility (GEF): It serves as a financial mechanism for the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) and the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), but not for the Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants. The GEF Trust Fund receives contributions from donor countries every four years through a process known as GEF Replenishment. Projects funded by the GEF must be country-driven and based on national priorities designed to support sustainable development. The World Bank serves as the GEF Trustee, managing the GEF Trust Fund. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect. The GEF serves as a financial mechanism for five major international environmental conventions: the Minamata Convention on Mercury, the Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs), the United Nations Convention on Biological Diversity (UNCBD), the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD), and the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). Statement 2 is correct. The GEF Trust Fund is replenished every four years by donor countries. This replenishment process ensures the GEF has predictable funding to support its projects and programs. Statement 3 is correct. A core operating principle of the GEF is country ownership. Projects must align with national priorities and frameworks, ensuring relevance and promoting sustainable development within the recipient country context. Statement 4 is correct. The World Bank acts as the Trustee for the GEF Trust Fund, providing administrative and financial management services, including managing contributions, investments, and disbursements. Therefore, statements 2, 3, and 4 are correct. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect. The GEF serves as a financial mechanism for five major international environmental conventions: the Minamata Convention on Mercury, the Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs), the United Nations Convention on Biological Diversity (UNCBD), the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD), and the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). Statement 2 is correct. The GEF Trust Fund is replenished every four years by donor countries. This replenishment process ensures the GEF has predictable funding to support its projects and programs. Statement 3 is correct. A core operating principle of the GEF is country ownership. Projects must align with national priorities and frameworks, ensuring relevance and promoting sustainable development within the recipient country context. Statement 4 is correct. The World Bank acts as the Trustee for the GEF Trust Fund, providing administrative and financial management services, including managing contributions, investments, and disbursements. Therefore, statements 2, 3, and 4 are correct.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Global Environment Facility (GEF):

• It serves as a financial mechanism for the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) and the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), but not for the Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants.

• The GEF Trust Fund receives contributions from donor countries every four years through a process known as GEF Replenishment.

• Projects funded by the GEF must be country-driven and based on national priorities designed to support sustainable development.

• The World Bank serves as the GEF Trustee, managing the GEF Trust Fund.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The GEF serves as a financial mechanism for five major international environmental conventions: the Minamata Convention on Mercury, the Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs), the United Nations Convention on Biological Diversity (UNCBD), the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD), and the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).

• Statement 2 is correct. The GEF Trust Fund is replenished every four years by donor countries. This replenishment process ensures the GEF has predictable funding to support its projects and programs.

• Statement 3 is correct. A core operating principle of the GEF is country ownership. Projects must align with national priorities and frameworks, ensuring relevance and promoting sustainable development within the recipient country context.

• Statement 4 is correct. The World Bank acts as the Trustee for the GEF Trust Fund, providing administrative and financial management services, including managing contributions, investments, and disbursements.

Therefore, statements 2, 3, and 4 are correct.

Solution: C

Therefore, statements 2, 3, and 4 are correct.

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The Consultative Group on International Agricultural Research (CGIAR) primarily focuses on funding agricultural research in developed countries to enhance global food security. Statement-II: The International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT), headquartered in India, is one of the research centers operating under the CGIAR partnership. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I. (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct but Statement-II is NOT the correct explanation for Statement-I. (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect. (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct. Correct Solution: D Statement-I is incorrect. CGIAR is a global research partnership focused on reducing poverty, enhancing food and nutrition security, and improving natural resources and ecosystem services, primarily in developing countries. Its research aims to benefit the rural poor through agricultural innovation. Statement-II is correct. ICRISAT, headquartered in Patancheru, Hyderabad, India, is indeed a CGIAR Research Center. It conducts agricultural research for development in the drylands of Asia and sub-Saharan Africa. Therefore, Statement-I is incorrect, and Statement-II is correct. Incorrect Solution: D Statement-I is incorrect. CGIAR is a global research partnership focused on reducing poverty, enhancing food and nutrition security, and improving natural resources and ecosystem services, primarily in developing countries. Its research aims to benefit the rural poor through agricultural innovation. Statement-II is correct. ICRISAT, headquartered in Patancheru, Hyderabad, India, is indeed a CGIAR Research Center. It conducts agricultural research for development in the drylands of Asia and sub-Saharan Africa. Therefore, Statement-I is incorrect, and Statement-II is correct.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Consultative Group on International Agricultural Research (CGIAR) primarily focuses on funding agricultural research in developed countries to enhance global food security.

Statement-II: The International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT), headquartered in India, is one of the research centers operating under the CGIAR partnership.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct but Statement-II is NOT the correct explanation for Statement-I.

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

Solution: D

• Statement-I is incorrect. CGIAR is a global research partnership focused on reducing poverty, enhancing food and nutrition security, and improving natural resources and ecosystem services, primarily in developing countries. Its research aims to benefit the rural poor through agricultural innovation.

• Statement-II is correct. ICRISAT, headquartered in Patancheru, Hyderabad, India, is indeed a CGIAR Research Center. It conducts agricultural research for development in the drylands of Asia and sub-Saharan Africa.

Therefore, Statement-I is incorrect, and Statement-II is correct.

Solution: D

Therefore, Statement-I is incorrect, and Statement-II is correct.

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Consider the following regarding the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES): Appendices I, II, and III list species afforded different levels or types of protection from over-exploitation. Species listed in Appendix I are generally prohibited from international commercial trade, except under exceptional circumstances. A Reservation entered by a Party state regarding a specific species listing means that the state is treated as a non-Party with respect to trade in that species. The Conference of the Parties (CoP) to CITES meets annually to review progress and amend the Appendices. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. CITES works by subjecting international trade in specimens of selected species to certain controls. All import, export, re-export and introduction from the sea of species covered by the Convention has to be authorized through a licensing system. Species are grouped in Appendices according to how threatened they are by international trade. Appendix I includes species threatened with extinction. Appendix II includes species not necessarily threatened with extinction, but in which trade must be controlled. Appendix III contains species that are protected in at least one country, which has asked other CITES Parties for assistance in controlling the trade. Statement 2 is correct. Appendix I lists species that are the most endangered. International commercial trade in specimens of these species is generally prohibited, although non-commercial trade (e.g., for scientific research) may be permitted under exceptional circumstances with specific permits. Statement 3 is correct. When a state enters a reservation regarding a particular species listing (in Appendix I, II or III), it means that state will not be bound by the Convention’s provisions for that specific species. Effectively, it is treated as if it were not a Party to CITES concerning trade in that species. Statement 4 is incorrect. The Conference of the Parties (CoP) to CITES typically meets every two to three years, not annually, to review the implementation of the Convention and make decisions, including amending the Appendices. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. CITES works by subjecting international trade in specimens of selected species to certain controls. All import, export, re-export and introduction from the sea of species covered by the Convention has to be authorized through a licensing system. Species are grouped in Appendices according to how threatened they are by international trade. Appendix I includes species threatened with extinction. Appendix II includes species not necessarily threatened with extinction, but in which trade must be controlled. Appendix III contains species that are protected in at least one country, which has asked other CITES Parties for assistance in controlling the trade. Statement 2 is correct. Appendix I lists species that are the most endangered. International commercial trade in specimens of these species is generally prohibited, although non-commercial trade (e.g., for scientific research) may be permitted under exceptional circumstances with specific permits. Statement 3 is correct. When a state enters a reservation regarding a particular species listing (in Appendix I, II or III), it means that state will not be bound by the Convention’s provisions for that specific species. Effectively, it is treated as if it were not a Party to CITES concerning trade in that species. Statement 4 is incorrect. The Conference of the Parties (CoP) to CITES typically meets every two to three years, not annually, to review the implementation of the Convention and make decisions, including amending the Appendices.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following regarding the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES):

• Appendices I, II, and III list species afforded different levels or types of protection from over-exploitation.

• Species listed in Appendix I are generally prohibited from international commercial trade, except under exceptional circumstances.

• A Reservation entered by a Party state regarding a specific species listing means that the state is treated as a non-Party with respect to trade in that species.

• The Conference of the Parties (CoP) to CITES meets annually to review progress and amend the Appendices.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct. CITES works by subjecting international trade in specimens of selected species to certain controls. All import, export, re-export and introduction from the sea of species covered by the Convention has to be authorized through a licensing system. Species are grouped in Appendices according to how threatened they are by international trade. Appendix I includes species threatened with extinction. Appendix II includes species not necessarily threatened with extinction, but in which trade must be controlled. Appendix III contains species that are protected in at least one country, which has asked other CITES Parties for assistance in controlling the trade.

• Statement 2 is correct. Appendix I lists species that are the most endangered. International commercial trade in specimens of these species is generally prohibited, although non-commercial trade (e.g., for scientific research) may be permitted under exceptional circumstances with specific permits.

• Statement 3 is correct. When a state enters a reservation regarding a particular species listing (in Appendix I, II or III), it means that state will not be bound by the Convention’s provisions for that specific species. Effectively, it is treated as if it were not a Party to CITES concerning trade in that species.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. The Conference of the Parties (CoP) to CITES typically meets every two to three years, not annually, to review the implementation of the Convention and make decisions, including amending the Appendices.

Solution: C

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Which of the following international bodies or initiatives is specifically mandated to assess the state of biodiversity and ecosystem services to inform policy decisions, analogous to the role the IPCC plays for climate change? (a) The World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) (b) The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) (c) The Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES) (d) The Secretariat of the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) Correct Solution: C (a) WWF is a non-governmental organization focused on wilderness preservation and the reduction of human impact on the environment. It conducts research and advocacy but is not an intergovernmental assessment body. (b) IUCN is an international organization working in the field of nature conservation and sustainable use of natural resources. It is known for the IUCN Red List but its mandate is broader than just assessment for policy. (c) IPBES is an independent intergovernmental body established to strengthen the science-policy interface for biodiversity and ecosystem services. Its primary role is to provide policymakers with objective scientific assessments about the state of knowledge regarding the planet’s biodiversity, ecosystems, and the benefits they provide to people, as well as the tools and methods to protect and sustainably use them. This role is directly analogous to the IPCC’s role concerning climate change. (d) The CBD Secretariat supports the implementation of the Convention on Biological Diversity but does not itself conduct the comprehensive global assessments in the way IPBES does. Incorrect Solution: C (a) WWF is a non-governmental organization focused on wilderness preservation and the reduction of human impact on the environment. It conducts research and advocacy but is not an intergovernmental assessment body. (b) IUCN is an international organization working in the field of nature conservation and sustainable use of natural resources. It is known for the IUCN Red List but its mandate is broader than just assessment for policy. (c) IPBES is an independent intergovernmental body established to strengthen the science-policy interface for biodiversity and ecosystem services. Its primary role is to provide policymakers with objective scientific assessments about the state of knowledge regarding the planet’s biodiversity, ecosystems, and the benefits they provide to people, as well as the tools and methods to protect and sustainably use them. This role is directly analogous to the IPCC’s role concerning climate change. (d) The CBD Secretariat supports the implementation of the Convention on Biological Diversity but does not itself conduct the comprehensive global assessments in the way IPBES does.

#### 4. Question

Which of the following international bodies or initiatives is specifically mandated to assess the state of biodiversity and ecosystem services to inform policy decisions, analogous to the role the IPCC plays for climate change?

• (a) The World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF)

• (b) The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)

• (c) The Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES)

• (d) The Secretariat of the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)

Solution: C

• (a) WWF is a non-governmental organization focused on wilderness preservation and the reduction of human impact on the environment. It conducts research and advocacy but is not an intergovernmental assessment body.

• (b) IUCN is an international organization working in the field of nature conservation and sustainable use of natural resources. It is known for the IUCN Red List but its mandate is broader than just assessment for policy.

• (c) IPBES is an independent intergovernmental body established to strengthen the science-policy interface for biodiversity and ecosystem services. Its primary role is to provide policymakers with objective scientific assessments about the state of knowledge regarding the planet’s biodiversity, ecosystems, and the benefits they provide to people, as well as the tools and methods to protect and sustainably use them. This role is directly analogous to the IPCC’s role concerning climate change.

• (d) The CBD Secretariat supports the implementation of the Convention on Biological Diversity but does not itself conduct the comprehensive global assessments in the way IPBES does.

Solution: C

• (d) The CBD Secretariat supports the implementation of the Convention on Biological Diversity but does not itself conduct the comprehensive global assessments in the way IPBES does.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Ramsar Convention’s Scientific and Technical Review Panel (STRP): It is composed of government-nominated experts from each Contracting Party. Its primary function is to provide scientific and technical guidance to the Conference of the Parties (COP) and the Standing Committee. It develops criteria for the identification and designation of Wetlands of International Importance (Ramsar Sites). It operates independently of the Ramsar Convention Secretariat. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The STRP is composed of independent experts chosen for their scientific and technical expertise in wetland conservation and wise use, not necessarily government nominees from each Party. Experts are selected through a process involving nominations from Parties and International Organization Partners. Statement 2 is correct. The core mandate of the STRP is to provide scientific and technical advice and guidance to the Ramsar Convention’s governing bodies (COP, Standing Committee) and Contracting Parties on the implementation of the Convention. Statement 3 is correct. The STRP plays a key role in developing and refining the criteria used for identifying and designating Ramsar Sites, ensuring they are based on sound scientific understanding of wetland ecology and importance. Statement 4 is incorrect. The STRP works in close collaboration with the Ramsar Convention Secretariat, which provides support for its activities and facilitates communication between the Panel and the Convention bodies. It is a subsidiary body established by the COP, not entirely independent. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The STRP is composed of independent experts chosen for their scientific and technical expertise in wetland conservation and wise use, not necessarily government nominees from each Party. Experts are selected through a process involving nominations from Parties and International Organization Partners. Statement 2 is correct. The core mandate of the STRP is to provide scientific and technical advice and guidance to the Ramsar Convention’s governing bodies (COP, Standing Committee) and Contracting Parties on the implementation of the Convention. Statement 3 is correct. The STRP plays a key role in developing and refining the criteria used for identifying and designating Ramsar Sites, ensuring they are based on sound scientific understanding of wetland ecology and importance. Statement 4 is incorrect. The STRP works in close collaboration with the Ramsar Convention Secretariat, which provides support for its activities and facilitates communication between the Panel and the Convention bodies. It is a subsidiary body established by the COP, not entirely independent.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Ramsar Convention’s Scientific and Technical Review Panel (STRP):

• It is composed of government-nominated experts from each Contracting Party.

• Its primary function is to provide scientific and technical guidance to the Conference of the Parties (COP) and the Standing Committee.

• It develops criteria for the identification and designation of Wetlands of International Importance (Ramsar Sites).

• It operates independently of the Ramsar Convention Secretariat.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 4 only

• (d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The STRP is composed of independent experts chosen for their scientific and technical expertise in wetland conservation and wise use, not necessarily government nominees from each Party. Experts are selected through a process involving nominations from Parties and International Organization Partners.

• Statement 2 is correct. The core mandate of the STRP is to provide scientific and technical advice and guidance to the Ramsar Convention’s governing bodies (COP, Standing Committee) and Contracting Parties on the implementation of the Convention.

• Statement 3 is correct. The STRP plays a key role in developing and refining the criteria used for identifying and designating Ramsar Sites, ensuring they are based on sound scientific understanding of wetland ecology and importance.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. The STRP works in close collaboration with the Ramsar Convention Secretariat, which provides support for its activities and facilitates communication between the Panel and the Convention bodies. It is a subsidiary body established by the COP, not entirely independent.

Solution: B

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points With reference to the International Solar Alliance (ISA), consider the following statements: It was launched jointly by India and France during the UNFCCC CoP21 in Paris. Its membership is restricted to countries lying fully or partially between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn. One of its major initiatives is the ‘One Sun One World One Grid’ (OSOWOG) project. The ISA Secretariat is located in New Delhi, India. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. The ISA was indeed launched by the Prime Minister of India and the President of France on the sidelines of the UNFCCC CoP21 held in Paris in 2015. Statement 2 is incorrect. Initially, membership was limited to countries within the tropics (‘solar-rich’ countries). However, the ISA Framework Agreement was amended in 2018 to open membership to all UN member states, recognizing the global nature of solar energy deployment. Statement 3 is correct. The OSOWOG initiative, aimed at connecting energy grids across borders to facilitate the transfer of solar power, is a major program spearheaded by the ISA in collaboration with the World Bank. Statement 4 is correct. The headquarters and Secretariat of the International Solar Alliance are located in Gurugram, Haryana, near New Delhi, India. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. The ISA was indeed launched by the Prime Minister of India and the President of France on the sidelines of the UNFCCC CoP21 held in Paris in 2015. Statement 2 is incorrect. Initially, membership was limited to countries within the tropics (‘solar-rich’ countries). However, the ISA Framework Agreement was amended in 2018 to open membership to all UN member states, recognizing the global nature of solar energy deployment. Statement 3 is correct. The OSOWOG initiative, aimed at connecting energy grids across borders to facilitate the transfer of solar power, is a major program spearheaded by the ISA in collaboration with the World Bank. Statement 4 is correct. The headquarters and Secretariat of the International Solar Alliance are located in Gurugram, Haryana, near New Delhi, India.

#### 6. Question

With reference to the International Solar Alliance (ISA), consider the following statements:

• It was launched jointly by India and France during the UNFCCC CoP21 in Paris.

• Its membership is restricted to countries lying fully or partially between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn.

• One of its major initiatives is the ‘One Sun One World One Grid’ (OSOWOG) project.

• The ISA Secretariat is located in New Delhi, India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 2 and 4 only

• (c) 1, 3 and 4 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct. The ISA was indeed launched by the Prime Minister of India and the President of France on the sidelines of the UNFCCC CoP21 held in Paris in 2015.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. Initially, membership was limited to countries within the tropics (‘solar-rich’ countries). However, the ISA Framework Agreement was amended in 2018 to open membership to all UN member states, recognizing the global nature of solar energy deployment.

• Statement 3 is correct. The OSOWOG initiative, aimed at connecting energy grids across borders to facilitate the transfer of solar power, is a major program spearheaded by the ISA in collaboration with the World Bank.

• Statement 4 is correct. The headquarters and Secretariat of the International Solar Alliance are located in Gurugram, Haryana, near New Delhi, India.

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct. The ISA was indeed launched by the Prime Minister of India and the President of France on the sidelines of the UNFCCC CoP21 held in Paris in 2015.

• Statement 4 is correct. The headquarters and Secretariat of the International Solar Alliance are located in Gurugram, Haryana, near New Delhi, India.

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI): It is a specialized agency of the United Nations focused on disaster risk reduction. It aims to promote the resilience of new and existing infrastructure systems to climate and disaster risks. Membership is open only to national governments. India hosts the Secretariat of the CDRI. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. CDRI is an independent international partnership; it is not a specialized agency of the UN, although it works closely with UN bodies like UNDRR. Statement 2 is correct. The primary objective of CDRI is to promote the resilience of infrastructure systems (both new and existing) to climate and disaster risks, thereby ensuring sustainable development. Statement 3 is incorrect. Membership in CDRI is open not only to national governments but also to UN agencies, multilateral development banks, the private sector, and academic institutions. It is a multi-stakeholder coalition. Statement 4 is correct. The Secretariat of the CDRI is based in New Delhi, India. The initiative was launched by the Prime Minister of India at the UN Climate Action Summit in 2019. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. CDRI is an independent international partnership; it is not a specialized agency of the UN, although it works closely with UN bodies like UNDRR. Statement 2 is correct. The primary objective of CDRI is to promote the resilience of infrastructure systems (both new and existing) to climate and disaster risks, thereby ensuring sustainable development. Statement 3 is incorrect. Membership in CDRI is open not only to national governments but also to UN agencies, multilateral development banks, the private sector, and academic institutions. It is a multi-stakeholder coalition. Statement 4 is correct. The Secretariat of the CDRI is based in New Delhi, India. The initiative was launched by the Prime Minister of India at the UN Climate Action Summit in 2019.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI):

• It is a specialized agency of the United Nations focused on disaster risk reduction.

• It aims to promote the resilience of new and existing infrastructure systems to climate and disaster risks.

• Membership is open only to national governments.

• India hosts the Secretariat of the CDRI.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. CDRI is an independent international partnership; it is not a specialized agency of the UN, although it works closely with UN bodies like UNDRR.

• Statement 2 is correct. The primary objective of CDRI is to promote the resilience of infrastructure systems (both new and existing) to climate and disaster risks, thereby ensuring sustainable development.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. Membership in CDRI is open not only to national governments but also to UN agencies, multilateral development banks, the private sector, and academic institutions. It is a multi-stakeholder coalition.

• Statement 4 is correct. The Secretariat of the CDRI is based in New Delhi, India. The initiative was launched by the Prime Minister of India at the UN Climate Action Summit in 2019.

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. CDRI is an independent international partnership; it is not a specialized agency of the UN, although it works closely with UN bodies like UNDRR.

• Statement 4 is correct. The Secretariat of the CDRI is based in New Delhi, India. The initiative was launched by the Prime Minister of India at the UN Climate Action Summit in 2019.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points The term ‘Climate Action Tracker’ is often mentioned in the news. It refers to: (a) A legally binding protocol under the UNFCCC that sets emission reduction targets for developed countries. (b) An independent scientific analysis produced by research organizations that tracks government climate action against Paris Agreement goals. (c) A global fund established to finance climate change adaptation projects in Least Developed Countries (LDCs). (d) A satellite-based monitoring system managed by NASA and ESA to measure global greenhouse gas concentrations. Correct Solution: B (a) Incorrect. This describes elements of the Kyoto Protocol, not the Climate Action Tracker. (b) Correct. The Climate Action Tracker (CAT) is an independent scientific analysis produced by two research organizations (Climate Analytics and NewClimate Institute) tracking government climate action and measuring it against the globally agreed aim of holding warming well below 2°C and pursuing efforts to limit warming to 1.5°C, as per the Paris Agreement. It assesses national policies, pledges (NDCs), and their aggregate effect on global temperature rise. (c) Incorrect. This might describe funds like the Least Developed Countries Fund (LDCF) managed by the GEF, not the CAT. (d) Incorrect. While satellite systems monitor GHGs, the CAT is an analytical project assessing policy and action, not a direct measurement system. Incorrect Solution: B (a) Incorrect. This describes elements of the Kyoto Protocol, not the Climate Action Tracker. (b) Correct. The Climate Action Tracker (CAT) is an independent scientific analysis produced by two research organizations (Climate Analytics and NewClimate Institute) tracking government climate action and measuring it against the globally agreed aim of holding warming well below 2°C and pursuing efforts to limit warming to 1.5°C, as per the Paris Agreement. It assesses national policies, pledges (NDCs), and their aggregate effect on global temperature rise. (c) Incorrect. This might describe funds like the Least Developed Countries Fund (LDCF) managed by the GEF, not the CAT. (d) Incorrect. While satellite systems monitor GHGs, the CAT is an analytical project assessing policy and action, not a direct measurement system.

#### 8. Question

The term ‘Climate Action Tracker’ is often mentioned in the news. It refers to:

• (a) A legally binding protocol under the UNFCCC that sets emission reduction targets for developed countries.

• (b) An independent scientific analysis produced by research organizations that tracks government climate action against Paris Agreement goals.

• (c) A global fund established to finance climate change adaptation projects in Least Developed Countries (LDCs).

• (d) A satellite-based monitoring system managed by NASA and ESA to measure global greenhouse gas concentrations.

Solution: B

• (a) Incorrect. This describes elements of the Kyoto Protocol, not the Climate Action Tracker.

• (b) Correct. The Climate Action Tracker (CAT) is an independent scientific analysis produced by two research organizations (Climate Analytics and NewClimate Institute) tracking government climate action and measuring it against the globally agreed aim of holding warming well below 2°C and pursuing efforts to limit warming to 1.5°C, as per the Paris Agreement. It assesses national policies, pledges (NDCs), and their aggregate effect on global temperature rise.

• (c) Incorrect. This might describe funds like the Least Developed Countries Fund (LDCF) managed by the GEF, not the CAT.

• (d) Incorrect. While satellite systems monitor GHGs, the CAT is an analytical project assessing policy and action, not a direct measurement system.

Solution: B

• (a) Incorrect. This describes elements of the Kyoto Protocol, not the Climate Action Tracker.

• (c) Incorrect. This might describe funds like the Least Developed Countries Fund (LDCF) managed by the GEF, not the CAT.

• (d) Incorrect. While satellite systems monitor GHGs, the CAT is an analytical project assessing policy and action, not a direct measurement system.

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Consider the ‘LiFE (Lifestyle for Environment)’ initiative prominently featured by India. Which of the following statements best reflects its core philosophy and approach? (a) It primarily focuses on large-scale government investments in renewable energy infrastructure to transition away from fossil fuels. (b) It advocates for legally binding international targets for per capita resource consumption reduction in developed nations. (c) It emphasizes individual and community behavioural changes towards mindful and deliberate utilization of resources, moving from 'use-and-dispose' to a circular economy model. (d) It promotes the mandatory adoption of traditional, low-impact agricultural practices across all farming communities in India. Correct Solution: C (a) Incorrect. While renewable energy is important, LiFE’s primary focus is not on large-scale infrastructure projects but on demand-side management through behavioural change. (b) Incorrect. LiFE encourages global action but its core is voluntary behavioural change, not advocating specific legally binding international targets for consumption reduction, though it aligns with sustainable consumption goals. (c) Correct. The essence of the LiFE initiative, launched by India, is to nudge individuals and communities globally towards adopting environmentally conscious lifestyles (‘Pro-Planet People’). It promotes mindful consumption, reducing waste, and embracing principles of the circular economy, shifting away from mindless and destructive consumption patterns. (d) Incorrect. While promoting sustainable practices, LiFE does not mandate specific traditional agricultural methods universally; its scope is broader, encompassing various aspects of daily life and consumption patterns. Incorrect Solution: C (a) Incorrect. While renewable energy is important, LiFE’s primary focus is not on large-scale infrastructure projects but on demand-side management through behavioural change. (b) Incorrect. LiFE encourages global action but its core is voluntary behavioural change, not advocating specific legally binding international targets for consumption reduction, though it aligns with sustainable consumption goals. (c) Correct. The essence of the LiFE initiative, launched by India, is to nudge individuals and communities globally towards adopting environmentally conscious lifestyles (‘Pro-Planet People’). It promotes mindful consumption, reducing waste, and embracing principles of the circular economy, shifting away from mindless and destructive consumption patterns. (d) Incorrect. While promoting sustainable practices, LiFE does not mandate specific traditional agricultural methods universally; its scope is broader, encompassing various aspects of daily life and consumption patterns.

#### 9. Question

Consider the ‘LiFE (Lifestyle for Environment)’ initiative prominently featured by India. Which of the following statements best reflects its core philosophy and approach?

• (a) It primarily focuses on large-scale government investments in renewable energy infrastructure to transition away from fossil fuels.

• (b) It advocates for legally binding international targets for per capita resource consumption reduction in developed nations.

• (c) It emphasizes individual and community behavioural changes towards mindful and deliberate utilization of resources, moving from 'use-and-dispose' to a circular economy model.

• (d) It promotes the mandatory adoption of traditional, low-impact agricultural practices across all farming communities in India.

Solution: C

• (a) Incorrect. While renewable energy is important, LiFE’s primary focus is not on large-scale infrastructure projects but on demand-side management through behavioural change.

• (b) Incorrect. LiFE encourages global action but its core is voluntary behavioural change, not advocating specific legally binding international targets for consumption reduction, though it aligns with sustainable consumption goals.

• (c) Correct. The essence of the LiFE initiative, launched by India, is to nudge individuals and communities globally towards adopting environmentally conscious lifestyles (‘Pro-Planet People’). It promotes mindful consumption, reducing waste, and embracing principles of the circular economy, shifting away from mindless and destructive consumption patterns.

• (d) Incorrect. While promoting sustainable practices, LiFE does not mandate specific traditional agricultural methods universally; its scope is broader, encompassing various aspects of daily life and consumption patterns.

Solution: C

• (a) Incorrect. While renewable energy is important, LiFE’s primary focus is not on large-scale infrastructure projects but on demand-side management through behavioural change.

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the ecological concept of ‘Edge Effect’: It refers to the changes in population or community structures that occur at the boundary of two or more distinct habitats (ecotones). Edge effects invariably lead to a decrease in biodiversity due to habitat fragmentation. Species specifically adapted to edge conditions are known as ‘interior species’. The intensity of the edge effect is generally proportional to the contrast between the adjacent habitats. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The edge effect describes the ecological changes—in species composition, abundance, and interactions—that occur at the transition zone (ecotone) between two different habitat types. Statement 2 is incorrect. Edge effects can sometimes lead to an increase in local biodiversity (higher species richness or density) compared to the adjacent habitats, because the ecotone may contain species from both habitats plus species specifically adapted to the edge conditions. However, extensive habitat fragmentation leading to excessive edge can negatively impact interior species and overall ecosystem health. The effect is not invariably negative for biodiversity count at the edge itself. Statement 3 is incorrect. Species specifically adapted to or thriving in edge conditions are known as ‘edge species’, not ‘interior species’. Interior species are those adapted to the stable conditions found deep within a habitat, often negatively impacted by edge effects. Statement 4 is correct. The magnitude or intensity of the edge effect is often greater when the two adjacent habitats are structurally very different (e.g., forest edge next to an open field shows a strong contrast and pronounced edge effects) compared to boundaries between similar habitats (e.g., two different types of grassland). Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The edge effect describes the ecological changes—in species composition, abundance, and interactions—that occur at the transition zone (ecotone) between two different habitat types. Statement 2 is incorrect. Edge effects can sometimes lead to an increase in local biodiversity (higher species richness or density) compared to the adjacent habitats, because the ecotone may contain species from both habitats plus species specifically adapted to the edge conditions. However, extensive habitat fragmentation leading to excessive edge can negatively impact interior species and overall ecosystem health. The effect is not invariably negative for biodiversity count at the edge itself. Statement 3 is incorrect. Species specifically adapted to or thriving in edge conditions are known as ‘edge species’, not ‘interior species’. Interior species are those adapted to the stable conditions found deep within a habitat, often negatively impacted by edge effects. Statement 4 is correct. The magnitude or intensity of the edge effect is often greater when the two adjacent habitats are structurally very different (e.g., forest edge next to an open field shows a strong contrast and pronounced edge effects) compared to boundaries between similar habitats (e.g., two different types of grassland).

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the ecological concept of ‘Edge Effect’:

• It refers to the changes in population or community structures that occur at the boundary of two or more distinct habitats (ecotones).

• Edge effects invariably lead to a decrease in biodiversity due to habitat fragmentation.

• Species specifically adapted to edge conditions are known as ‘interior species’.

• The intensity of the edge effect is generally proportional to the contrast between the adjacent habitats.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The edge effect describes the ecological changes—in species composition, abundance, and interactions—that occur at the transition zone (ecotone) between two different habitat types.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. Edge effects can sometimes lead to an increase in local biodiversity (higher species richness or density) compared to the adjacent habitats, because the ecotone may contain species from both habitats plus species specifically adapted to the edge conditions. However, extensive habitat fragmentation leading to excessive edge can negatively impact interior species and overall ecosystem health. The effect is not invariably negative for biodiversity count at the edge itself.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. Species specifically adapted to or thriving in edge conditions are known as ‘edge species’, not ‘interior species’. Interior species are those adapted to the stable conditions found deep within a habitat, often negatively impacted by edge effects.

• Statement 4 is correct. The magnitude or intensity of the edge effect is often greater when the two adjacent habitats are structurally very different (e.g., forest edge next to an open field shows a strong contrast and pronounced edge effects) compared to boundaries between similar habitats (e.g., two different types of grassland).

Solution: B

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Global Biodiversity Framework Fund: It is the funding mechanism for Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (KMGBF). The World Bank functions as the trustee of the Fund. About 20% of the fund will be allocated to Indigenous Peoples and Local Communities (IPLC). How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution : C The Global Biodiversity Framework Fund (first approved in July 2023 under the Global Environment Facility), has been ratified at the GEF’s seventh Assembly in Vancouver, Canada by representatives of 185 countries. GBFF is essentially the funding mechanism for the KMGBF; it helps countries achieve the goals by providing necessary financial resources to implement the Framework’s plans and targets. The World bank will serve as the trustee of GBFF. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct 20% of the fund will be allocated to Indigenous Peoples and Local Communities (IPLCs) The allocation for IPLC will be reviewed for 2 years. The fund is aimed at raising International Financial flows to developing countries. Also, 36% of the fund will be allocated to Small Island Developing States and 3% to Least Developed Countries the Small Island Developing States and LCDs will receive over a third of the fund’s resources prioritizing their biodiversity conservation efforts. Hence statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution : C The Global Biodiversity Framework Fund (first approved in July 2023 under the Global Environment Facility), has been ratified at the GEF’s seventh Assembly in Vancouver, Canada by representatives of 185 countries. GBFF is essentially the funding mechanism for the KMGBF; it helps countries achieve the goals by providing necessary financial resources to implement the Framework’s plans and targets. The World bank will serve as the trustee of GBFF. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct 20% of the fund will be allocated to Indigenous Peoples and Local Communities (IPLCs) The allocation for IPLC will be reviewed for 2 years. The fund is aimed at raising International Financial flows to developing countries. Also, 36% of the fund will be allocated to Small Island Developing States and 3% to Least Developed Countries the Small Island Developing States and LCDs will receive over a third of the fund’s resources prioritizing their biodiversity conservation efforts. Hence statement 3 is correct.

#### 11. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Global Biodiversity Framework Fund:

• It is the funding mechanism for Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (KMGBF).

• The World Bank functions as the trustee of the Fund.

• About 20% of the fund will be allocated to Indigenous Peoples and Local Communities (IPLC).

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution : C

• The Global Biodiversity Framework Fund (first approved in July 2023 under the Global Environment Facility), has been ratified at the GEF’s seventh Assembly in Vancouver, Canada by representatives of 185 countries.

• GBFF is essentially the funding mechanism for the KMGBF; it helps countries achieve the goals by providing necessary financial resources to implement the Framework’s plans and targets.

• The World bank will serve as the trustee of GBFF.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

• 20% of the fund will be allocated to Indigenous Peoples and Local Communities (IPLCs)

• The allocation for IPLC will be reviewed for 2 years.

• The fund is aimed at raising International Financial flows to developing countries.

• Also, 36% of the fund will be allocated to Small Island Developing States and 3% to Least Developed Countries

• the Small Island Developing States and LCDs will receive over a third of the fund’s resources prioritizing their biodiversity conservation efforts.

Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution : C

• GBFF is essentially the funding mechanism for the KMGBF; it helps countries achieve the goals by providing necessary financial resources to implement the Framework’s plans and targets.

• The World bank will serve as the trustee of GBFF.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

• 20% of the fund will be allocated to Indigenous Peoples and Local Communities (IPLCs)

• The allocation for IPLC will be reviewed for 2 years.

• The fund is aimed at raising International Financial flows to developing countries.

• Also, 36% of the fund will be allocated to Small Island Developing States and 3% to Least Developed Countries

• the Small Island Developing States and LCDs will receive over a third of the fund’s resources prioritizing their biodiversity conservation efforts.

Hence statement 3 is correct.

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Climate Promise Initiative is a flagship project of the United Nations Environment Programme to deal with the climate crisis. The Climate Promise Initiative supports countries to update their Nationally Determined Contributions towards net zero emissions, to more ambitious targets. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B Climate Promise initiative has been launched by United Nations Development Programme It is UNDP’s response to climate change. Hence statement 1 is incorrect All countries are required to make pledges under the Paris agreement to reduce agreement emissions of greenhouse gases that cause global warming and adaptation to its impact The Climate Promise is UNDP’s commitment to ensure that any country wishing to increase the ambition of their national climate pledge is able to do so These pledges or Nationally Determined Contributions are crucial stepping stones towards net zero emission and meeting the Paris goals The initiative supported over 120 countries in revising their NDCs and trying to commit to even more ambitious targets. Hence statement 2 is correct Incorrect Solution: B Climate Promise initiative has been launched by United Nations Development Programme It is UNDP’s response to climate change. Hence statement 1 is incorrect All countries are required to make pledges under the Paris agreement to reduce agreement emissions of greenhouse gases that cause global warming and adaptation to its impact The Climate Promise is UNDP’s commitment to ensure that any country wishing to increase the ambition of their national climate pledge is able to do so These pledges or Nationally Determined Contributions are crucial stepping stones towards net zero emission and meeting the Paris goals The initiative supported over 120 countries in revising their NDCs and trying to commit to even more ambitious targets. Hence statement 2 is correct

#### 12. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Climate Promise Initiative is a flagship project of the United Nations Environment Programme to deal with the climate crisis.

• The Climate Promise Initiative supports countries to update their Nationally Determined Contributions towards net zero emissions, to more ambitious targets.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

• Climate Promise initiative has been launched by United Nations Development Programme

• It is UNDP’s response to climate change.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• All countries are required to make pledges under the Paris agreement to reduce agreement emissions of greenhouse gases that cause global warming and adaptation to its impact

• The Climate Promise is UNDP’s commitment to ensure that any country wishing to increase the ambition of their national climate pledge is able to do so

• These pledges or Nationally Determined Contributions are crucial stepping stones towards net zero emission and meeting the Paris goals

• The initiative supported over 120 countries in revising their NDCs and trying to commit to even more ambitious targets.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Solution: B

• Climate Promise initiative has been launched by United Nations Development Programme

• It is UNDP’s response to climate change.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• All countries are required to make pledges under the Paris agreement to reduce agreement emissions of greenhouse gases that cause global warming and adaptation to its impact

• The Climate Promise is UNDP’s commitment to ensure that any country wishing to increase the ambition of their national climate pledge is able to do so

• These pledges or Nationally Determined Contributions are crucial stepping stones towards net zero emission and meeting the Paris goals

• The initiative supported over 120 countries in revising their NDCs and trying to commit to even more ambitious targets.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD): The Conference of Parties is the main decision making body made up of governments and organisations. It is responsible for supervising the implementation of G20 Global Land Initiative. In collaboration with Global Green Growth Institute, UNCCD promotes sustainable water management and drought mitigation. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution : D The UNCCD was established in 1994 to protect and restore our land and ensure a safer just and more sustainable future It is the only legally binding framework set up to address desertification and the effects of drought. There are 197 parties to the convention including 196 country parties and the European Union The Conference of Parties was established by the Convention as its main decision making body It is made up of governments and organisations such as the European Union It is responsible for guiding the convention so that it can respond to global challenges and national needs. Hence statement 1 is correct The G20 launched the Global initiative on Reducing Land Degradation and Enhancing Conservation of Terrestrial Habitats in November 2020. The initiative is intended to prevent, halt and reverse Land Degradation and reduce degraded Land by 50% by 2040. The Initiative Coordination Office is responsible for implementation of the initiative under oversight of UNCCD. Hence statement 2 is correct Recently the Global Green Growth Institute and UNCCD has signed a Memorandum of Understanding to build partnership in sustainable land and water management, biodiversity conservation, drought mitigation and climate resilience. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution : D The UNCCD was established in 1994 to protect and restore our land and ensure a safer just and more sustainable future It is the only legally binding framework set up to address desertification and the effects of drought. There are 197 parties to the convention including 196 country parties and the European Union The Conference of Parties was established by the Convention as its main decision making body It is made up of governments and organisations such as the European Union It is responsible for guiding the convention so that it can respond to global challenges and national needs. Hence statement 1 is correct The G20 launched the Global initiative on Reducing Land Degradation and Enhancing Conservation of Terrestrial Habitats in November 2020. The initiative is intended to prevent, halt and reverse Land Degradation and reduce degraded Land by 50% by 2040. The Initiative Coordination Office is responsible for implementation of the initiative under oversight of UNCCD. Hence statement 2 is correct Recently the Global Green Growth Institute and UNCCD has signed a Memorandum of Understanding to build partnership in sustainable land and water management, biodiversity conservation, drought mitigation and climate resilience. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 13. Question

Consider the following statements regarding UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD):

• The Conference of Parties is the main decision making body made up of governments and organisations.

• It is responsible for supervising the implementation of G20 Global Land Initiative.

• In collaboration with Global Green Growth Institute, UNCCD promotes sustainable water management and drought mitigation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 1 and 2 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution : D

• The UNCCD was established in 1994 to protect and restore our land and ensure a safer just and more sustainable future

• It is the only legally binding framework set up to address desertification and the effects of drought.

• There are 197 parties to the convention including 196 country parties and the European Union

• The Conference of Parties was established by the Convention as its main decision making body

• It is made up of governments and organisations such as the European Union

• It is responsible for guiding the convention so that it can respond to global challenges and national needs.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The G20 launched the Global initiative on Reducing Land Degradation and Enhancing Conservation of Terrestrial Habitats in November 2020.

• The initiative is intended to prevent, halt and reverse Land Degradation and reduce degraded Land by 50% by 2040.

• The Initiative Coordination Office is responsible for implementation of the initiative under oversight of UNCCD.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Recently the Global Green Growth Institute and UNCCD has signed a Memorandum of Understanding to build partnership in sustainable land and water management, biodiversity conservation, drought mitigation and climate resilience.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution : D

• The UNCCD was established in 1994 to protect and restore our land and ensure a safer just and more sustainable future

• It is the only legally binding framework set up to address desertification and the effects of drought.

• There are 197 parties to the convention including 196 country parties and the European Union

• The Conference of Parties was established by the Convention as its main decision making body

• It is made up of governments and organisations such as the European Union

• It is responsible for guiding the convention so that it can respond to global challenges and national needs.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The G20 launched the Global initiative on Reducing Land Degradation and Enhancing Conservation of Terrestrial Habitats in November 2020.

• The initiative is intended to prevent, halt and reverse Land Degradation and reduce degraded Land by 50% by 2040.

• The Initiative Coordination Office is responsible for implementation of the initiative under oversight of UNCCD.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : Statement – I : Nitrates from industrial discharge and wastewater treatment plants is a major reason for eutrophication. Statement – II : Nitrate is essential for the growth of Cyanobacteria. Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ? (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct Correct Solution : A Nitrate contamination is a major reason for eutrophication a process in which excessive nutrients including nitrates lead to harmful algal bloom and depletion of oxygen in water body This happens as nitrate acts as fertilizers simulating the excessive growth of algae and other aquatic plants. When excess nitrates often from agricultural run off, wastewater treatment or industrial discharge fall into a water body, they trigger rapid growth of algae and aquatic plants- a phenomena known as eutrophication Cyanobacteria or blue green algae is responsible for eutrophication. Hence statement 1 is correct Nitrate is essential for the growth of many Cyanobacterial species who use nitrate as source of Nitrogen, crucial for building proteins and other essential molecules. Ammonium is also a source of Nitrogen under certain conditions but nitrogen is a vital nutrient for cyanobacterial growth. Hence statement 2 is correct and statement 2 explains statement 1 Incorrect Solution : A Nitrate contamination is a major reason for eutrophication a process in which excessive nutrients including nitrates lead to harmful algal bloom and depletion of oxygen in water body This happens as nitrate acts as fertilizers simulating the excessive growth of algae and other aquatic plants. When excess nitrates often from agricultural run off, wastewater treatment or industrial discharge fall into a water body, they trigger rapid growth of algae and aquatic plants- a phenomena known as eutrophication Cyanobacteria or blue green algae is responsible for eutrophication. Hence statement 1 is correct Nitrate is essential for the growth of many Cyanobacterial species who use nitrate as source of Nitrogen, crucial for building proteins and other essential molecules. Ammonium is also a source of Nitrogen under certain conditions but nitrogen is a vital nutrient for cyanobacterial growth. Hence statement 2 is correct and statement 2 explains statement 1

#### 14. Question

Consider the following statements :

Statement – I :

Nitrates from industrial discharge and wastewater treatment plants is a major reason for eutrophication.

Statement – II :

Nitrate is essential for the growth of Cyanobacteria.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?

• (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I

• (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I

• (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect

• (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct

Solution : A

• Nitrate contamination is a major reason for eutrophication a process in which excessive nutrients including nitrates lead to harmful algal bloom and depletion of oxygen in water body

• This happens as nitrate acts as fertilizers simulating the excessive growth of algae and other aquatic plants.

• When excess nitrates often from agricultural run off, wastewater treatment or industrial discharge fall into a water body, they trigger rapid growth of algae and aquatic plants- a phenomena known as eutrophication

• Cyanobacteria or blue green algae is responsible for eutrophication.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Nitrate is essential for the growth of many Cyanobacterial species who use nitrate as source of Nitrogen, crucial for building proteins and other essential molecules.

• Ammonium is also a source of Nitrogen under certain conditions but nitrogen is a vital nutrient for cyanobacterial growth.

Hence statement 2 is correct and statement 2 explains statement 1

Solution : A

• Nitrate contamination is a major reason for eutrophication a process in which excessive nutrients including nitrates lead to harmful algal bloom and depletion of oxygen in water body

• This happens as nitrate acts as fertilizers simulating the excessive growth of algae and other aquatic plants.

• Cyanobacteria or blue green algae is responsible for eutrophication.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Nitrate is essential for the growth of many Cyanobacterial species who use nitrate as source of Nitrogen, crucial for building proteins and other essential molecules.

• Ammonium is also a source of Nitrogen under certain conditions but nitrogen is a vital nutrient for cyanobacterial growth.

Hence statement 2 is correct and statement 2 explains statement 1

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points The main aim of TrailGuard AI is to : (a) Mitigation of marine plastic pollution (b) Monitoring the levels of particulate matter in industrial areas (c) Combating poaching and wildlife trade (d) Detection of elephant movements to prevent them from electrocution Correct Solution : C TrailGuard AI is an end to end AI powered camera based alert system to enhance wildlife conservation and promote human wildlife coexistence in remote areas. It is a surveillance system designed to combat coaching and illegal wildlife trade by providing real time monitoring in Protected Forests. It can autonomously detect target objects and transmits real time alert that can trigger rapid response. The AI powered cameras remain in low power mode and activate when they detect movement; the built in AI chip analyses the image and categorises it as animal, human or vehicle. If a threat is detected, the camera transmits the image within 40 seconds to a control room, after which intelligence team analyse the images, identify poachers and conduct raids. Hence option D is correct Incorrect Solution : C TrailGuard AI is an end to end AI powered camera based alert system to enhance wildlife conservation and promote human wildlife coexistence in remote areas. It is a surveillance system designed to combat coaching and illegal wildlife trade by providing real time monitoring in Protected Forests. It can autonomously detect target objects and transmits real time alert that can trigger rapid response. The AI powered cameras remain in low power mode and activate when they detect movement; the built in AI chip analyses the image and categorises it as animal, human or vehicle. If a threat is detected, the camera transmits the image within 40 seconds to a control room, after which intelligence team analyse the images, identify poachers and conduct raids. Hence option D is correct

#### 15. Question

The main aim of TrailGuard AI is to :

• (a) Mitigation of marine plastic pollution

• (b) Monitoring the levels of particulate matter in industrial areas

• (c) Combating poaching and wildlife trade

• (d) Detection of elephant movements to prevent them from electrocution

Solution : C

• TrailGuard AI is an end to end AI powered camera based alert system to enhance wildlife conservation and promote human wildlife coexistence in remote areas.

• It is a surveillance system designed to combat coaching and illegal wildlife trade by providing real time monitoring in Protected Forests.

• It can autonomously detect target objects and transmits real time alert that can trigger rapid response.

• The AI powered cameras remain in low power mode and activate when they detect movement; the built in AI chip analyses the image and categorises it as animal, human or vehicle.

• If a threat is detected, the camera transmits the image within 40 seconds to a control room, after which intelligence team analyse the images, identify poachers and conduct raids.

Hence option D is correct

Solution : C

• TrailGuard AI is an end to end AI powered camera based alert system to enhance wildlife conservation and promote human wildlife coexistence in remote areas.

• It is a surveillance system designed to combat coaching and illegal wildlife trade by providing real time monitoring in Protected Forests.

• It can autonomously detect target objects and transmits real time alert that can trigger rapid response.

• The AI powered cameras remain in low power mode and activate when they detect movement; the built in AI chip analyses the image and categorises it as animal, human or vehicle.

• If a threat is detected, the camera transmits the image within 40 seconds to a control room, after which intelligence team analyse the images, identify poachers and conduct raids.

Hence option D is correct

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : The Greening Education Partnership (GEP) has been launched by UN Higher Education Sustainability Initiative aligning with Sustainable Development Target 4.7. GEP is aimed at transforming at least 50% of educational institutions into ‘green schools’ by 2030. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B The Greening Education Partnership is a flagship initiative of UNESCO. It is structured around 4 key pillars of transformative education aligning with sustainable development goal target 4.7. Hence statement 1 is incorrect GEP is a global initiative that takes a whole of system approach to support countries to tackle climate crisis by harnessing the critical role of education as a collaborative platform for governments, Inter governmental organisations, civil society, Youth, academia, private sector. It aims to transfer at least 50% of schools, colleges and Universities into Green schools by 2030, preparing learners to become climate ready and active participants in sustainability initiatives. The partnership intends to deliver strong coordinated and comprehensive action that will prepare every Learner to acquire the knowledge, skill and attitude to handle climate change and promote sustainable development. Hence statement 2 is correct Incorrect Solution: B The Greening Education Partnership is a flagship initiative of UNESCO. It is structured around 4 key pillars of transformative education aligning with sustainable development goal target 4.7. Hence statement 1 is incorrect GEP is a global initiative that takes a whole of system approach to support countries to tackle climate crisis by harnessing the critical role of education as a collaborative platform for governments, Inter governmental organisations, civil society, Youth, academia, private sector. It aims to transfer at least 50% of schools, colleges and Universities into Green schools by 2030, preparing learners to become climate ready and active participants in sustainability initiatives. The partnership intends to deliver strong coordinated and comprehensive action that will prepare every Learner to acquire the knowledge, skill and attitude to handle climate change and promote sustainable development. Hence statement 2 is correct

#### 16. Question

Consider the following statements :

• The Greening Education Partnership (GEP) has been launched by UN Higher Education Sustainability Initiative aligning with Sustainable Development Target 4.7.

• GEP is aimed at transforming at least 50% of educational institutions into ‘green schools’ by 2030.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

• The Greening Education Partnership is a flagship initiative of UNESCO.

• It is structured around 4 key pillars of transformative education aligning with sustainable development goal target 4.7.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• GEP is a global initiative that takes a whole of system approach to support countries to tackle climate crisis by harnessing the critical role of education as a collaborative platform for governments, Inter governmental organisations, civil society, Youth, academia, private sector.

• It aims to transfer at least 50% of schools, colleges and Universities into Green schools by 2030, preparing learners to become climate ready and active participants in sustainability initiatives.

• The partnership intends to deliver strong coordinated and comprehensive action that will prepare every Learner to acquire the knowledge, skill and attitude to handle climate change and promote sustainable development.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Solution: B

• The Greening Education Partnership is a flagship initiative of UNESCO.

• It is structured around 4 key pillars of transformative education aligning with sustainable development goal target 4.7.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : The Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) has been formed under Environment (Protection) Act 1986. The Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act (CAFA) 2016 mandated formation of National Compensatory Afforestation Fund (NCAF) under the Public Account of India. State Compensatory Afforestation Funds (SCAF) receive 50% of the funds for compensatory afforestation and Net Present Value of Forest as per provisions of the Forest Conservation Act 1980. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A The CAMPA serves as a mechanism to manage and utilise fund generated from compensatory Afforestation -a process aimed at offsetting the environmental impact of deforestation due to industrial and developmental activities. It was initially established under the Forest Conservation Act 1980. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The CAFA 2016 established the National Compensatory Afforestation Fund under Public Account of India and State Compensatory Afforestation Fund under Public Accounts of States. CAFA provides statutory status to the two ad-hoc Institutions of National Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority for utilisation of NCAF and State Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority for utilisation of state compensatory afforestation fund. Hence statement 2 is correct NCAF and SCAF receive funds for : Compensatory afforestation Net present value of forest Other project specific payments The National Fund receives 10% of these funds while the state funds receive the remaining 90%. Hence statement 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: A The CAMPA serves as a mechanism to manage and utilise fund generated from compensatory Afforestation -a process aimed at offsetting the environmental impact of deforestation due to industrial and developmental activities. It was initially established under the Forest Conservation Act 1980. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The CAFA 2016 established the National Compensatory Afforestation Fund under Public Account of India and State Compensatory Afforestation Fund under Public Accounts of States. CAFA provides statutory status to the two ad-hoc Institutions of National Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority for utilisation of NCAF and State Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority for utilisation of state compensatory afforestation fund. Hence statement 2 is correct NCAF and SCAF receive funds for : Compensatory afforestation Net present value of forest Other project specific payments The National Fund receives 10% of these funds while the state funds receive the remaining 90%. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

#### 17. Question

Consider the following statements :

• The Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) has been formed under Environment (Protection) Act 1986.

• The Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act (CAFA) 2016 mandated formation of National Compensatory Afforestation Fund (NCAF) under the Public Account of India.

• State Compensatory Afforestation Funds (SCAF) receive 50% of the funds for compensatory afforestation and Net Present Value of Forest as per provisions of the Forest Conservation Act 1980.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• The CAMPA serves as a mechanism to manage and utilise fund generated from compensatory Afforestation -a process aimed at offsetting the environmental impact of deforestation due to industrial and developmental activities.

• It was initially established under the Forest Conservation Act 1980.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The CAFA 2016 established the National Compensatory Afforestation Fund under Public Account of India and State Compensatory Afforestation Fund under Public Accounts of States.

• CAFA provides statutory status to the two ad-hoc Institutions of National Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority for utilisation of NCAF and State Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority for utilisation of state compensatory afforestation fund.

Hence statement 2 is correct

NCAF and SCAF receive funds for :

• Compensatory afforestation

• Net present value of forest

• Other project specific payments

The National Fund receives 10% of these funds while the state funds receive the remaining 90%.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution: A

• It was initially established under the Forest Conservation Act 1980.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The CAFA 2016 established the National Compensatory Afforestation Fund under Public Account of India and State Compensatory Afforestation Fund under Public Accounts of States.

Hence statement 2 is correct

NCAF and SCAF receive funds for :

• Compensatory afforestation

• Net present value of forest

• Other project specific payments

The National Fund receives 10% of these funds while the state funds receive the remaining 90%.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following animals : Opossum Koala Wallaroo How many of the above are Marsupials? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution : C Opossum are marsupials endemic to the Americas. These are semi- arboreal omnivorous animals. Koala is an arboreal herbivorous marsupial native to Australia; it is found in coastal areas of eastern and Southern regions of Australia. They typically inhabit open Eucalyptus Woodland as leaves of these trees make most of their diet. Wallaroo is a species of macropod; macropod refers to a family of marsupials that includes Kangaroo, tree-kangaroos, Wallabies, Wallaroos and several other groups. These are native to Australia, New Guinea and nearby Islands. Hence option C is correct Incorrect Solution : C Opossum are marsupials endemic to the Americas. These are semi- arboreal omnivorous animals. Koala is an arboreal herbivorous marsupial native to Australia; it is found in coastal areas of eastern and Southern regions of Australia. They typically inhabit open Eucalyptus Woodland as leaves of these trees make most of their diet. Wallaroo is a species of macropod; macropod refers to a family of marsupials that includes Kangaroo, tree-kangaroos, Wallabies, Wallaroos and several other groups. These are native to Australia, New Guinea and nearby Islands. Hence option C is correct

#### 18. Question

Consider the following animals :

How many of the above are Marsupials?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution : C

• Opossum are marsupials endemic to the Americas. These are semi- arboreal omnivorous animals.

• Koala is an arboreal herbivorous marsupial native to Australia; it is found in coastal areas of eastern and Southern regions of Australia. They typically inhabit open Eucalyptus Woodland as leaves of these trees make most of their diet.

• Wallaroo is a species of macropod; macropod refers to a family of marsupials that includes Kangaroo, tree-kangaroos, Wallabies, Wallaroos and several other groups. These are native to Australia, New Guinea and nearby Islands.

Hence option C is correct

Solution : C

• Opossum are marsupials endemic to the Americas. These are semi- arboreal omnivorous animals.

Hence option C is correct

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points The Oil and Gas Methane Partnership 2.0 and Steel Methane Programme, sometimes seen in news, are initiatives of : (a) United Nations Environment Programme (b) Arctic Council and Global Methane Initiative (c) Organisation of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (d) Climate and Clean Air Coalition Correct Solution : A The Steel Methane Programme and Oil and Gas Methane Partnership 2.0 are United Nations Environment Programme’s flagship oil and gas reporting and mitigation programmes. International Methane Emissions Observatory (IMEO) of UNEP engages Methane emitting Industries to reduce emissions transformative partnership and data driven solutions. Oil and Gas Methane Partnership of IMEO is the only comprehensive measurement based reporting Framework for oil and gas industry that improves the accuracy and transparency of Methane emission reporting h; this is key to prioritising Methane mitigation actions in the sector. It’s data is one of the components of UNEP’s International Methane Emissions Observatory’s solution to the Methane data problem. Through the Steel Methane Programme, IMEO aims to mitigate Methane emissions in the Steel supply chain. IMEO integrates and reconcile methane data to generate a public data set of Methane emission levels and sources that allows to track and compare progress and performance across companies. Hence option A is correct Incorrect Solution : A The Steel Methane Programme and Oil and Gas Methane Partnership 2.0 are United Nations Environment Programme’s flagship oil and gas reporting and mitigation programmes. International Methane Emissions Observatory (IMEO) of UNEP engages Methane emitting Industries to reduce emissions transformative partnership and data driven solutions. Oil and Gas Methane Partnership of IMEO is the only comprehensive measurement based reporting Framework for oil and gas industry that improves the accuracy and transparency of Methane emission reporting h; this is key to prioritising Methane mitigation actions in the sector. It’s data is one of the components of UNEP’s International Methane Emissions Observatory’s solution to the Methane data problem. Through the Steel Methane Programme, IMEO aims to mitigate Methane emissions in the Steel supply chain. IMEO integrates and reconcile methane data to generate a public data set of Methane emission levels and sources that allows to track and compare progress and performance across companies. Hence option A is correct

#### 19. Question

The Oil and Gas Methane Partnership 2.0 and Steel Methane Programme, sometimes seen in news, are initiatives of :

• (a) United Nations Environment Programme

• (b) Arctic Council and Global Methane Initiative

• (c) Organisation of the Petroleum Exporting Countries

• (d) Climate and Clean Air Coalition

Solution : A

• The Steel Methane Programme and Oil and Gas Methane Partnership 2.0 are United Nations Environment Programme’s flagship oil and gas reporting and mitigation programmes.

• International Methane Emissions Observatory (IMEO) of UNEP engages Methane emitting Industries to reduce emissions transformative partnership and data driven solutions.

• Oil and Gas Methane Partnership of IMEO is the only comprehensive measurement based reporting Framework for oil and gas industry that improves the accuracy and transparency of Methane emission reporting h; this is key to prioritising Methane mitigation actions in the sector.

• It’s data is one of the components of UNEP’s International Methane Emissions Observatory’s solution to the Methane data problem.

• Through the Steel Methane Programme, IMEO aims to mitigate Methane emissions in the Steel supply chain.

• IMEO integrates and reconcile methane data to generate a public data set of Methane emission levels and sources that allows to track and compare progress and performance across companies.

Hence option A is correct

Solution : A

• The Steel Methane Programme and Oil and Gas Methane Partnership 2.0 are United Nations Environment Programme’s flagship oil and gas reporting and mitigation programmes.

• International Methane Emissions Observatory (IMEO) of UNEP engages Methane emitting Industries to reduce emissions transformative partnership and data driven solutions.

• It’s data is one of the components of UNEP’s International Methane Emissions Observatory’s solution to the Methane data problem.

• Through the Steel Methane Programme, IMEO aims to mitigate Methane emissions in the Steel supply chain.

• IMEO integrates and reconcile methane data to generate a public data set of Methane emission levels and sources that allows to track and compare progress and performance across companies.

Hence option A is correct

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : Statement – I : The International Centre for Integrated Mountain Development (ICIMOD) is involved in improving environment and culture of people in the Hindukush Himalaya region. Statement – II : ICIMOD is a regional Intergovernmental Organisation established by the members of South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) in Nepal. Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ? (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct Correct Solution : C ICIMOD is an intergovernmental knowledge and learning centre working on behalf of the people of HinduKush Himalaya, in and for the 8 regional members of Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, China, India, Myanmar, Nepal and Pakistan It works to improve the livelihoods of men, women and children in the Hindukush Himalaya region and protect mountain environment and cultures. Hence statement 1 is correct In 1979 concrete commitments were made to establish a centre for development of Hindukush Himalaya region during UNESCO regional meeting in Kathmandu under the Man and Biosphere program. The Government of Nepal offered to host the new Institution and UNESCO along with the governments of Switzerland and Germany agreed to act as founding sponsors. Subsequently, the Government of Nepal and UNESCO signed an agreement providing the legal basis for ICIMOD as an autonomous international centre in 1981 in Paris, France. ICIMOD has its headquarter in Kathmandu, Nepal Hence statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution : C ICIMOD is an intergovernmental knowledge and learning centre working on behalf of the people of HinduKush Himalaya, in and for the 8 regional members of Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, China, India, Myanmar, Nepal and Pakistan It works to improve the livelihoods of men, women and children in the Hindukush Himalaya region and protect mountain environment and cultures. Hence statement 1 is correct In 1979 concrete commitments were made to establish a centre for development of Hindukush Himalaya region during UNESCO regional meeting in Kathmandu under the Man and Biosphere program. The Government of Nepal offered to host the new Institution and UNESCO along with the governments of Switzerland and Germany agreed to act as founding sponsors. Subsequently, the Government of Nepal and UNESCO signed an agreement providing the legal basis for ICIMOD as an autonomous international centre in 1981 in Paris, France. ICIMOD has its headquarter in Kathmandu, Nepal Hence statement 2 is incorrect

#### 20. Question

Consider the following statements :

Statement – I :

The International Centre for Integrated Mountain Development (ICIMOD) is involved in improving environment and culture of people in the Hindukush Himalaya region.

Statement – II :

ICIMOD is a regional Intergovernmental Organisation established by the members of South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) in Nepal.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?

• (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I

• (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I

• (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect

• (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct

Solution : C

• ICIMOD is an intergovernmental knowledge and learning centre working on behalf of the people of HinduKush Himalaya, in and for the 8 regional members of Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, China, India, Myanmar, Nepal and Pakistan

• It works to improve the livelihoods of men, women and children in the Hindukush Himalaya region and protect mountain environment and cultures.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• In 1979 concrete commitments were made to establish a centre for development of Hindukush Himalaya region during UNESCO regional meeting in Kathmandu under the Man and Biosphere program.

• The Government of Nepal offered to host the new Institution and UNESCO along with the governments of Switzerland and Germany agreed to act as founding sponsors.

• Subsequently, the Government of Nepal and UNESCO signed an agreement providing the legal basis for ICIMOD as an autonomous international centre in 1981 in Paris, France.

• ICIMOD has its headquarter in Kathmandu, Nepal

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Solution : C

• It works to improve the livelihoods of men, women and children in the Hindukush Himalaya region and protect mountain environment and cultures.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• In 1979 concrete commitments were made to establish a centre for development of Hindukush Himalaya region during UNESCO regional meeting in Kathmandu under the Man and Biosphere program.

• The Government of Nepal offered to host the new Institution and UNESCO along with the governments of Switzerland and Germany agreed to act as founding sponsors.

• Subsequently, the Government of Nepal and UNESCO signed an agreement providing the legal basis for ICIMOD as an autonomous international centre in 1981 in Paris, France.

• ICIMOD has its headquarter in Kathmandu, Nepal

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Consider the following statements with reference to Hangul Deer: Statement I: The population of Hangul deer has continued to decline despite legal protection and designation of national parks. Statement II: Habitat fragmentation, anthropogenic stress during breeding seasons, and lack of genetic diversity have contributed to reduced reproductive success in Hangul populations. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Correct Solution: A Explanation: Both statements are correct, and Statement II logically explains the reasons behind the continued population decline of the Hangul deer, despite their protection under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act and their presence in protected zones like Dachigam National Park. Field research has revealed that habitat fragmentation, human interference during rutting and birthing, and a shrinking gene pool—due to isolation—have adversely affected reproduction and survival. These factors lead to poor recruitment rates, contributing directly to the species’ Critically Endangered (CR) status. Legal frameworks alone cannot reverse demographic decline unless threats to reproductive ecology and habitat connectivity are addressed. Incorrect Solution: A Explanation: Both statements are correct, and Statement II logically explains the reasons behind the continued population decline of the Hangul deer, despite their protection under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act and their presence in protected zones like Dachigam National Park. Field research has revealed that habitat fragmentation, human interference during rutting and birthing, and a shrinking gene pool—due to isolation—have adversely affected reproduction and survival. These factors lead to poor recruitment rates, contributing directly to the species’ Critically Endangered (CR) status. Legal frameworks alone cannot reverse demographic decline unless threats to reproductive ecology and habitat connectivity are addressed.

#### 21. Question

Consider the following statements with reference to Hangul Deer:

Statement I: The population of Hangul deer has continued to decline despite legal protection and designation of national parks. Statement II: Habitat fragmentation, anthropogenic stress during breeding seasons, and lack of genetic diversity have contributed to reduced reproductive success in Hangul populations.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I

• (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I

• (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

• (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Solution: A

Explanation: Both statements are correct, and Statement II logically explains the reasons behind the continued population decline of the Hangul deer, despite their protection under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act and their presence in protected zones like Dachigam National Park.

Field research has revealed that habitat fragmentation, human interference during rutting and birthing, and a shrinking gene pool—due to isolation—have adversely affected reproduction and survival.

These factors lead to poor recruitment rates, contributing directly to the species’ Critically Endangered (CR) status. Legal frameworks alone cannot reverse demographic decline unless threats to reproductive ecology and habitat connectivity are addressed.

Solution: A

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points With reference to the National Board for Wildlife (NBWL), consider the following statements: No alteration to the boundary of a National Park or Wildlife Sanctuary can be made without a prior recommendation from the NBWL. The NBWL has legal authority to approve, modify, or reject eco-tourism activities proposed in protected areas. Which of the above statements is / are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 – Correct: As per the Wildlife (Protection) Act and upheld by judicial interpretation, any boundary change in PAs requires mandatory NBWL recommendation. Statement 2 –correct: Under Section 33(a) of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, the construction of commercial tourist lodges, hotels, zoos, and safari parks within sanctuaries or national parks requires prior approval from the NBWL. This provision extends to eco-tourism activities, granting the NBWL authority over such proposals. Hence, option c is correct. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 – Correct: As per the Wildlife (Protection) Act and upheld by judicial interpretation, any boundary change in PAs requires mandatory NBWL recommendation. Statement 2 –correct: Under Section 33(a) of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, the construction of commercial tourist lodges, hotels, zoos, and safari parks within sanctuaries or national parks requires prior approval from the NBWL. This provision extends to eco-tourism activities, granting the NBWL authority over such proposals. Hence, option c is correct.

#### 22. Question

With reference to the National Board for Wildlife (NBWL), consider the following statements:

• No alteration to the boundary of a National Park or Wildlife Sanctuary can be made without a prior recommendation from the NBWL.

• The NBWL has legal authority to approve, modify, or reject eco-tourism activities proposed in protected areas.

Which of the above statements is / are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation: Statement 1 – Correct: As per the Wildlife (Protection) Act and upheld by judicial interpretation, any boundary change in PAs requires mandatory NBWL recommendation.

Statement 2 –correct: Under Section 33(a) of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, the construction of commercial tourist lodges, hotels, zoos, and safari parks within sanctuaries or national parks requires prior approval from the NBWL. This provision extends to eco-tourism activities, granting the NBWL authority over such proposals.

Hence, option c is correct.

Answer: C

Explanation: Statement 1 – Correct: As per the Wildlife (Protection) Act and upheld by judicial interpretation, any boundary change in PAs requires mandatory NBWL recommendation.

Hence, option c is correct.

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the organizational mandate of United Nations Relief and Works Agency for Palestine Refugees (UNRWA): UNRWA operates under a permanent UN statute approved by all its host countries and is legally equivalent to other specialized agencies like WHO. UNRWA’s mandate is periodically renewed by the UN General Assembly and is technically a temporary organ. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: UNRWA does not have a permanent statute like WHO or ILO. Its legal basis stems from UNGA Resolutions, and its mandate is renewable every 3 years, making it technically a temporary body. Statement 2 is correct: UNRWA is a subsidiary organ of the UNGA, created under Articles 7(2) and 22 of the UN Charter, as reaffirmed during its periodic renewals. Hence, only Statement 2 is valid. Incorrect Solution: B Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: UNRWA does not have a permanent statute like WHO or ILO. Its legal basis stems from UNGA Resolutions, and its mandate is renewable every 3 years, making it technically a temporary body. Statement 2 is correct: UNRWA is a subsidiary organ of the UNGA, created under Articles 7(2) and 22 of the UN Charter, as reaffirmed during its periodic renewals. Hence, only Statement 2 is valid.

#### 23. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the organizational mandate of United Nations Relief and Works Agency for Palestine Refugees (UNRWA):

• UNRWA operates under a permanent UN statute approved by all its host countries and is legally equivalent to other specialized agencies like WHO.

• UNRWA’s mandate is periodically renewed by the UN General Assembly and is technically a temporary organ.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: UNRWA does not have a permanent statute like WHO or ILO. Its legal basis stems from UNGA Resolutions, and its mandate is renewable every 3 years, making it technically a temporary body.

Statement 2 is correct: UNRWA is a subsidiary organ of the UNGA, created under Articles 7(2) and 22 of the UN Charter, as reaffirmed during its periodic renewals. Hence, only Statement 2 is valid.

Solution: B

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points With reference to the distribution of solar insolation and its climatic implications, consider the following statements: The thermal equator coincides with the geographic Equator throughout the year. The pattern of solar insolation differs between the Northern and Southern Hemispheres due to differences in landmass distribution and axial tilt. Land-dominated regions exhibit higher diurnal and annual temperature variations compared to ocean-dominated regions under similar solar conditions. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: C Explanation: Statement 1 is Incorrect : The thermal equator (or heat equator) does not coincide exactly with the geographic Equator; it shifts seasonally, following the zone of highest mean annual temperature, often influenced by land-ocean contrasts. Statement 2 is Correct : The Northern Hemisphere, being more land-dominated, heats up and cools faster than the Southern Hemisphere, which is ocean-dominated — leading to differences in solar absorption and distribution. Statement 3 is Correct : Land heats and cools more quickly than water, leading to greater temperature extremes in continental interiors than over oceans. Incorrect Solution: C Explanation: Statement 1 is Incorrect : The thermal equator (or heat equator) does not coincide exactly with the geographic Equator; it shifts seasonally, following the zone of highest mean annual temperature, often influenced by land-ocean contrasts. Statement 2 is Correct : The Northern Hemisphere, being more land-dominated, heats up and cools faster than the Southern Hemisphere, which is ocean-dominated — leading to differences in solar absorption and distribution. Statement 3 is Correct : Land heats and cools more quickly than water, leading to greater temperature extremes in continental interiors than over oceans.

#### 24. Question

With reference to the distribution of solar insolation and its climatic implications, consider the following statements:

• The thermal equator coincides with the geographic Equator throughout the year.

• The pattern of solar insolation differs between the Northern and Southern Hemispheres due to differences in landmass distribution and axial tilt.

• Land-dominated regions exhibit higher diurnal and annual temperature variations compared to ocean-dominated regions under similar solar conditions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: C

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is Incorrect : The thermal equator (or heat equator) does not coincide exactly with the geographic Equator; it shifts seasonally, following the zone of highest mean annual temperature, often influenced by land-ocean contrasts.

• Statement 2 is Correct : The Northern Hemisphere, being more land-dominated, heats up and cools faster than the Southern Hemisphere, which is ocean-dominated — leading to differences in solar absorption and distribution.

• Statement 3 is Correct : Land heats and cools more quickly than water, leading to greater temperature extremes in continental interiors than over oceans.

Solution: C

Explanation:

• Statement 3 is Correct : Land heats and cools more quickly than water, leading to greater temperature extremes in continental interiors than over oceans.

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Which of the following can be potential outcomes of persistent current account deficit in an emerging economy? Depreciation of the domestic currency Depletion of foreign exchange reserves Increase in sovereign credit rating Dependence on external borrowing Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: A Explanation: A current account deficit (CAD) reflects excess imports over exports. When persistent, it puts pressure on the exchange rate, leading to currency depreciation (1). Financing CAD may require drawing down foreign reserves (2) or relying on external debt (4). However, Statement 3 is incorrect — a persistent CAD can lead to downgrades, not improvements, in sovereign ratings due to macroeconomic vulnerabilities. Therefore, options 1, 2, and 4 are correct. Incorrect Solution: A Explanation: A current account deficit (CAD) reflects excess imports over exports. When persistent, it puts pressure on the exchange rate, leading to currency depreciation (1). Financing CAD may require drawing down foreign reserves (2) or relying on external debt (4). However, Statement 3 is incorrect — a persistent CAD can lead to downgrades, not improvements, in sovereign ratings due to macroeconomic vulnerabilities. Therefore, options 1, 2, and 4 are correct.

#### 25. Question

Which of the following can be potential outcomes of persistent current account deficit in an emerging economy?

• Depreciation of the domestic currency

• Depletion of foreign exchange reserves

• Increase in sovereign credit rating

• Dependence on external borrowing

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1, 2 and 4 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2, 3 and 4 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: A

Explanation: A current account deficit (CAD) reflects excess imports over exports. When persistent, it puts pressure on the exchange rate, leading to currency depreciation (1). Financing CAD may require drawing down foreign reserves (2) or relying on external debt (4). However, Statement 3 is incorrect — a persistent CAD can lead to downgrades, not improvements, in sovereign ratings due to macroeconomic vulnerabilities.

Therefore, options 1, 2, and 4 are correct.

Solution: A

Therefore, options 1, 2, and 4 are correct.

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points While India offers an amazing variety of local food and cuisines, people’s appetite for new kinds of food is never satisfied. More and more restaurants, hotels, food exhibitions and individuals are exploring exotic world food. Indians would like to believe there are no foodies in the world like them. This could well be true. I wonder how many hours in a day the average Indian spends thinking of, planning, buying or cooking food? Traditional family recipes from all parts of India are elaborate and take time to prepare, but we haven’t given up on those. Technology has come in to help you have your gulab jamun by using a powder mix, or ready-to-eat halwa which is cooked after a few minutes of heating in the microwave. Food cravings must be satisfied in any way! Apart from traditional food from one’s own state, people have moved on to exploring food from other states. Some states have been more popular than others. People are more likely to try out Goan rather than Konkan fish dishes, for example. Mughlai and Punjabi cuisine have found much more popularity than, say, Bengali dishes. But all of that has changed in the recent past. The first step was of course experimenting with food from different regions of India, and now India is open to the world! There has been an explosion of activity on the world food front in India, with exotic cuisines being welcomed. A very popular food fair ‘Annapoorna’ is held every year in Mumbai, to encourage world food in India. This exhibition is a treat for foodies—from meats like camel and giraffe, to fruits like Durian (which by the way, smells like garbage and public consumption of it is banned in most places), to less controversial choices like octopus, eel, the best varieties of olive oil, ginger, spices, breads, coffee, teas, wine. You name it! Chefs from top hotels and restaurants flock at Annapoorna to buy the best ingredients and also to hear top international chefs share recipes in workshops. The trend is visible in neighbourhood supermarkets as well. Sections in the supermarket are named after popular world cuisines—Thai, Japanese, Italian, Chinese. One can choose between local fruit and the imported variety. This wasn’t the case even ten years back. With more and more people travelling internationally, the Indian taste buds have gotten used to flavours they never knew of. It’s a new age where food—local and international, are equally respected and loved. Which of the following best captures the essence of the passage? a. Improved technology and global exposure has expanded the average Indian tastes in food. b. Goan food is more popular than Konkan cuisine because of marketing techniques. c. Popularity of imported foods and international sections in grocery stores are making the average Indian diet more expensive. d. Indians consume more food every year than any other country. Correct Correct Option : A Justification : The passage discusses food trends in India and the expansion of the Indian palate. It talks about how improvements from ready-to-eat meals to increase in imported ingredients have led to Indians experimenting more with food and exotic cuisines. This is captured in the first statement itself. Incorrect Correct Option : A Justification : The passage discusses food trends in India and the expansion of the Indian palate. It talks about how improvements from ready-to-eat meals to increase in imported ingredients have led to Indians experimenting more with food and exotic cuisines. This is captured in the first statement itself.

#### 26. Question

While India offers an amazing variety of local food and cuisines, people’s appetite for new kinds of food is never satisfied. More and more restaurants, hotels, food exhibitions and individuals are exploring exotic world food. Indians would like to believe there are no foodies in the world like them. This could well be true. I wonder how many hours in a day the average Indian spends thinking of, planning, buying or cooking food? Traditional family recipes from all parts of India are elaborate and take time to prepare, but we haven’t given up on those. Technology has come in to help you have your gulab jamun by using a powder mix, or ready-to-eat halwa which is cooked after a few minutes of heating in the microwave. Food cravings must be satisfied in any way!

Apart from traditional food from one’s own state, people have moved on to exploring food from other states. Some states have been more popular than others. People are more likely to try out Goan rather than Konkan fish dishes, for example. Mughlai and Punjabi cuisine have found much more popularity than, say, Bengali dishes. But all of that has changed in the recent past. The first step was of course experimenting with food from different regions of India, and now India is open to the world!

There has been an explosion of activity on the world food front in India, with exotic cuisines being welcomed. A very popular food fair ‘Annapoorna’ is held every year in Mumbai, to encourage world food in India. This exhibition is a treat for foodies—from meats like camel and giraffe, to fruits like Durian (which by the way, smells like garbage and public consumption of it is banned in most places), to less controversial choices like octopus, eel, the best varieties of olive oil, ginger, spices, breads, coffee, teas, wine. You name it!

Chefs from top hotels and restaurants flock at Annapoorna to buy the best ingredients and also to hear top international chefs share recipes in workshops. The trend is visible in neighbourhood supermarkets as well. Sections in the supermarket are named after popular world cuisines—Thai, Japanese, Italian, Chinese. One can choose between local fruit and the imported variety. This wasn’t the case even ten years back. With more and more people travelling internationally, the Indian taste buds have gotten used to flavours they never knew of. It’s a new age where food—local and international, are equally respected and loved.

Which of the following best captures the essence of the passage?

• a. Improved technology and global exposure has expanded the average Indian tastes in food.

• b. Goan food is more popular than Konkan cuisine because of marketing techniques.

• c. Popularity of imported foods and international sections in grocery stores are making the average Indian diet more expensive.

• d. Indians consume more food every year than any other country.

Correct Option : A

Justification :

The passage discusses food trends in India and the expansion of the Indian palate. It talks about how improvements from ready-to-eat meals to increase in imported ingredients have led to Indians experimenting more with food and exotic cuisines. This is captured in the first statement itself.

Correct Option : A

Justification :

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points At what time between 3 PM and 4 PM would the two hands of the clock be together? a. 16 (4/11) past 3 b. 20 (4/11) past 3 c. 16 (11/4) past 3 d. 20 (11/4) past 3 Correct Correct Option : A Justification : Answer A) 16 (4/11) past 3 Explanation: At 3 PM, the hour hand would be at 15 spaces and the minute hand would be at 0 spaces. The minute hand would have to cover these extra 15 spaces in order to meet the hour hand. Now, 55 minutes are gained by the minute hand in 60 minutes. => 15 minutes would be gained in (60 / 55) x 15 = 180 / 11 minutes Thus, the two hands of the clock meet at 180 / 11 minutes past 3 PM, i.e., around 3:16:22 PM or 16 (4/11) past 3 Incorrect Correct Option : A Justification : Answer A) 16 (4/11) past 3 Explanation: At 3 PM, the hour hand would be at 15 spaces and the minute hand would be at 0 spaces. The minute hand would have to cover these extra 15 spaces in order to meet the hour hand. Now, 55 minutes are gained by the minute hand in 60 minutes. => 15 minutes would be gained in (60 / 55) x 15 = 180 / 11 minutes Thus, the two hands of the clock meet at 180 / 11 minutes past 3 PM, i.e., around 3:16:22 PM or 16 (4/11) past 3

#### 27. Question

At what time between 3 PM and 4 PM would the two hands of the clock be together?

• a. 16 (4/11) past 3

• b. 20 (4/11) past 3

• c. 16 (11/4) past 3

• d. 20 (11/4) past 3

Correct Option : A

Justification :

Answer A) 16 (4/11) past 3

Explanation:

At 3 PM, the hour hand would be at 15 spaces and the minute hand would be at 0 spaces. The minute hand would have to cover these extra 15 spaces in order to meet the hour hand. Now, 55 minutes are gained by the minute hand in 60 minutes.

=> 15 minutes would be gained in (60 / 55) x 15 = 180 / 11 minutes Thus, the two hands of the clock meet at 180 / 11 minutes past 3 PM,

i.e., around 3:16:22 PM or 16 (4/11) past 3

Correct Option : A

Justification :

Answer A) 16 (4/11) past 3

Explanation:

=> 15 minutes would be gained in (60 / 55) x 15 = 180 / 11 minutes Thus, the two hands of the clock meet at 180 / 11 minutes past 3 PM,

i.e., around 3:16:22 PM or 16 (4/11) past 3

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points A clock is set right at 1 pm. If it gains one minute an hour, what is the true time when the clock indicates 6 pm the same day? a. 5(7/61) min past 5 b. 55(8/61) min past 5 c. 55(8/61) min past 5 d. . 56(5/61) min past 5 Correct Correct Option : B Justification : Answer Option B) 55(8/61) min past 5 Explanation Clock gains one minute an hour. In 61 min, it shows 1 min less. In 5 hrs (300 min) it will show 300/61 min less actual time will be 6 –(300/61) i.e. 55(5/61) min past 5 pm Incorrect Correct Option : B Justification : Answer Option B) 55(8/61) min past 5 Explanation Clock gains one minute an hour. In 61 min, it shows 1 min less. In 5 hrs (300 min) it will show 300/61 min less actual time will be 6 –(300/61) i.e. 55(5/61) min past 5 pm In 1 hour =360/12=30 and in 1 minute=30/60=1/2 Similarly, angle covered by minute hand in 1 hour = 360° In 1 minute = 360/60=6 => Every minute, the angle between the two hands changes By 6-(1/2)= 11/2 From 7:45 A.M. to 7:47 A.M., i.e. in 2 minutes the angle between the two hands will change by 2* (11/2)=11 degree

#### 28. Question

A clock is set right at 1 pm. If it gains one minute an hour, what is the true time when the clock indicates 6 pm the same day?

• a. 5(7/61) min past 5

• b. 55(8/61) min past 5

• c. 55(8/61) min past 5

• d. . 56(5/61) min past 5

Correct Option : B

Justification :

Answer Option B) 55(8/61) min past 5

Explanation

Clock gains one minute an hour. In 61 min, it shows 1 min less.

In 5 hrs (300 min) it will show 300/61 min less actual time will be 6 –(300/61)

i.e. 55(5/61) min past 5 pm

Correct Option : B

Justification :

Answer Option B) 55(8/61) min past 5

Explanation

Clock gains one minute an hour. In 61 min, it shows 1 min less.

In 5 hrs (300 min) it will show 300/61 min less actual time will be 6 –(300/61)

i.e. 55(5/61) min past 5 pm

In 1 hour =360/12=30 and in 1 minute=30/60=1/2

Similarly, angle covered by minute hand in 1 hour = 360°

In 1 minute = 360/60=6

=> Every minute, the angle between the two hands changes By 6-(1/2)= 11/2

From 7:45 A.M. to 7:47 A.M.,

i.e. in 2 minutes the angle between the two hands will change by 2* (11/2)=11 degree

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points Seven letters – A, E, F, G, I, L and R are placed in a straight row from left to right such that no meaningful English word is formed. Find the position of L with respect to F? Statement I: A is third to the left of G, who is placed exactly in the middle of the word. L is adjacent to A. I is second to the right of F but not adjacent to G. Statement II: R is to the immediate left of I. F is second to the right of A, which is placed at an extreme left end. L is not placed after G, which is placed exactly in the middle of the row. a. If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question. b. If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question. c. . If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question. d. If the data in both statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question. Correct Correct Option : C Justification : Seven letters – A, E, F, G, I, L and R are placed in a straight row from left to right such that no meaningful English word is formed. Find the position of L with respect to F? Statement I: A is third to the left of G, who is placed exactly in the middle of the word. L is adjacent to A. I is second to the right of F but not adjacent to G. Statement II: R is to the immediate left of I. F is second to the right of A, which is placed at an extreme left end. L is not placed after G, which is placed exactly in the middle of the row. Checking statement I: As per the given hints, following positions can be drawn. A L _ G F _ I Clearly, L is third to the left of F. Hence data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question. Checking statement II: Following position can be drawn with the hints given in statement II. A L F G _ _ _ Clearly, L is on the immediate left of F. Hence data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question. Hence data in either statement I alone or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question. Hence option C is correct. Incorrect Correct Option : C Justification : Seven letters – A, E, F, G, I, L and R are placed in a straight row from left to right such that no meaningful English word is formed. Find the position of L with respect to F? Statement I: A is third to the left of G, who is placed exactly in the middle of the word. L is adjacent to A. I is second to the right of F but not adjacent to G. Statement II: R is to the immediate left of I. F is second to the right of A, which is placed at an extreme left end. L is not placed after G, which is placed exactly in the middle of the row. Checking statement I: As per the given hints, following positions can be drawn. A L _ G F _ I Clearly, L is third to the left of F. Hence data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question. Checking statement II: Following position can be drawn with the hints given in statement II. A L F G _ _ _ Clearly, L is on the immediate left of F. Hence data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question. Hence data in either statement I alone or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question. Hence option C is correct.

#### 29. Question

Seven letters – A, E, F, G, I, L and R are placed in a straight row from left to right such that no meaningful English word is formed. Find the position of L with respect to F?

• Statement I: A is third to the left of G, who is placed exactly in the middle of the word. L is adjacent to A. I is second to the right of F but not adjacent to G.

• Statement II: R is to the immediate left of I. F is second to the right of A, which is placed at an extreme left end. L is not placed after G, which is placed exactly in the middle of the row.

• a. If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

• b. If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

• c. . If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

• d. If the data in both statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Correct Option : C

Justification :

Seven letters – A, E, F, G, I, L and R are placed in a straight row from left to right such that no

meaningful English word is formed. Find the position of L with respect to F?

Statement I: A is third to the left of G, who is placed exactly in the middle of the word. L is adjacent to A. I is second to the right of F but not adjacent to G.

Statement II: R is to the immediate left of I. F is second to the right of A, which is placed at an extreme left end. L is not placed after G, which is placed exactly in the middle of the row.

Checking statement I:

As per the given hints, following positions can be drawn.

A L _ G F _ I

Clearly, L is third to the left of F.

Hence data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Checking statement II:

Following position can be drawn with the hints given in statement II.

A L F G _ _ _

Clearly, L is on the immediate left of F.

Hence data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Hence data in either statement I alone or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Hence option C is correct.

Correct Option : C

Justification :

Seven letters – A, E, F, G, I, L and R are placed in a straight row from left to right such that no

meaningful English word is formed. Find the position of L with respect to F?

Statement I: A is third to the left of G, who is placed exactly in the middle of the word. L is adjacent to A. I is second to the right of F but not adjacent to G.

Statement II: R is to the immediate left of I. F is second to the right of A, which is placed at an extreme left end. L is not placed after G, which is placed exactly in the middle of the row.

Checking statement I:

As per the given hints, following positions can be drawn.

A L _ G F _ I

Clearly, L is third to the left of F.

Hence data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Checking statement II:

Following position can be drawn with the hints given in statement II.

A L F G _ _ _

Clearly, L is on the immediate left of F.

Hence data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Hence data in either statement I alone or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Hence option C is correct.

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following? apartment town street building complex a. 1, 5, 4, 3, 2 b. 4, 5, 3, 2, 1 c. 4, 5, 3, 2, 1 d. 1, 4, 5, 3, 2 Correct Correct Option : D Justification : Incorrect Correct Option : D Justification :

#### 30. Question

Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following?

• a. 1, 5, 4, 3, 2

• b. 4, 5, 3, 2, 1

• c. 4, 5, 3, 2, 1

• d. 1, 4, 5, 3, 2

Correct Option : D

Justification :

Correct Option : D

Justification :

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