DAY – 54 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – POLTY , PREVIOUS YEAR UPSC PAPER 2001 & 2002 and Aug & Sep 2023 CA

INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Consider the following countries: Germany Sri Lanka Brazil Ukraine Israel How many of the above have semi-presidential system of government? a) Only two b) Only three c) Only four d) All five Correct Answer: a Explanation: A presidential system involves a single head of state and government, often with significant executive powers, distinct from a parliamentary system where the executive powers are vested in a prime minister. In a semi-presidential system, the president and prime minister share powers, with varying degrees of authority depending on the country. Germany has a parliamentary system, with the Chancellor as the head of government and a largely ceremonial President. Sri Lanka has a semi-presidential system, with both a President and a Prime Minister, but the President wields significant executive power. Brazil has a presidential system, where the President is the head of state and government. Ukraine has a semi-presidential system, with a President who has significant powers and a Prime Minister sharing some executive responsibilities. Israel has a parliamentary system, with a Prime Minister as the head of government and a largely ceremonial President. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: A presidential system involves a single head of state and government, often with significant executive powers, distinct from a parliamentary system where the executive powers are vested in a prime minister. In a semi-presidential system, the president and prime minister share powers, with varying degrees of authority depending on the country. Germany has a parliamentary system, with the Chancellor as the head of government and a largely ceremonial President. Sri Lanka has a semi-presidential system, with both a President and a Prime Minister, but the President wields significant executive power. Brazil has a presidential system, where the President is the head of state and government. Ukraine has a semi-presidential system, with a President who has significant powers and a Prime Minister sharing some executive responsibilities. Israel has a parliamentary system, with a Prime Minister as the head of government and a largely ceremonial President. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following countries:

How many of the above have semi-presidential system of government?

• a) Only two

• b) Only three

• c) Only four

• d) All five

Explanation:

• A presidential system involves a single head of state and government, often with significant executive powers, distinct from a parliamentary system where the executive powers are vested in a prime minister. In a semi-presidential system, the president and prime minister share powers, with varying degrees of authority depending on the country.

• Germany has a parliamentary system, with the Chancellor as the head of government and a largely ceremonial President.

• Sri Lanka has a semi-presidential system, with both a President and a Prime Minister, but the President wields significant executive power.

• Brazil has a presidential system, where the President is the head of state and government.

• Ukraine has a semi-presidential system, with a President who has significant powers and a Prime Minister sharing some executive responsibilities.

• Israel has a parliamentary system, with a Prime Minister as the head of government and a largely ceremonial President.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• Germany has a parliamentary system, with the Chancellor as the head of government and a largely ceremonial President.

• Sri Lanka has a semi-presidential system, with both a President and a Prime Minister, but the President wields significant executive power.

• Brazil has a presidential system, where the President is the head of state and government.

• Ukraine has a semi-presidential system, with a President who has significant powers and a Prime Minister sharing some executive responsibilities.

• Israel has a parliamentary system, with a Prime Minister as the head of government and a largely ceremonial President.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the executive system in India: The President of India is the formal head of the state, while the Prime Minister is the head of government. The Prime Minister of India is appointed by the President but must have the support of the majority in the parliament. Which of the above given statements is/ are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither Correct Answer: a Explanation: President of India is the formal head of the state, while the Prime Minister is the head of government. The President holds a ceremonial position, while the Prime Minister has the primary executive authority. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The Prime Minister is appointed by the President, they must have the support of the majority in the Lok Sabha only, the lower house of Parliament.Hence, majority in Rajya Sabha is not mandated. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: President of India is the formal head of the state, while the Prime Minister is the head of government. The President holds a ceremonial position, while the Prime Minister has the primary executive authority. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The Prime Minister is appointed by the President, they must have the support of the majority in the Lok Sabha only, the lower house of Parliament.Hence, majority in Rajya Sabha is not mandated. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements about the executive system in India:

• The President of India is the formal head of the state, while the Prime Minister is the head of government.

• The Prime Minister of India is appointed by the President but must have the support of the majority in the parliament.

Which of the above given statements is/ are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither

Explanation:

• President of India is the formal head of the state, while the Prime Minister is the head of government. The President holds a ceremonial position, while the Prime Minister has the primary executive authority. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The Prime Minister is appointed by the President, they must have the support of the majority in the Lok Sabha only, the lower house of Parliament.Hence, majority in Rajya Sabha is not mandated. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Under what circumstances can the President of India exercise his/her discretion? Sending back the advice given by the Council of Ministers for reconsideration. Withholding or refusing assent to ordinary Bills passed by Parliament. Appointing the Prime Minister when there is no clear majority in the Lok Sabha. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2, and 3 Correct Answer: d Explanation: The President can send back the advice given by the Council of Ministers for reconsideration. The President has the discretionary power to ask the Council to reconsider its advice. However, if the Council of Ministers reiterates its advice, the President must act on it. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The President can withhold or refuse assent to Bills passed by Parliament. The President can refuse assent to a Bill (except Money Bills), which is known as a “veto,” and can also exercise a “pocket veto” by not signing or refusing to act on the Bill. Veto power is used as per the discretion of the president. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The President appoints the Prime Minister when there is no clear majority in the Lok Sabha. In situations where there is no clear majority, the President has the discretion to decide who should be appointed as Prime Minister, typically based on who can likely form a stable government. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: The President can send back the advice given by the Council of Ministers for reconsideration. The President has the discretionary power to ask the Council to reconsider its advice. However, if the Council of Ministers reiterates its advice, the President must act on it. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The President can withhold or refuse assent to Bills passed by Parliament. The President can refuse assent to a Bill (except Money Bills), which is known as a “veto,” and can also exercise a “pocket veto” by not signing or refusing to act on the Bill. Veto power is used as per the discretion of the president. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The President appoints the Prime Minister when there is no clear majority in the Lok Sabha. In situations where there is no clear majority, the President has the discretion to decide who should be appointed as Prime Minister, typically based on who can likely form a stable government. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (d) is correct.

#### 3. Question

Under what circumstances can the President of India exercise his/her discretion?

• Sending back the advice given by the Council of Ministers for reconsideration.

• Withholding or refusing assent to ordinary Bills passed by Parliament.

• Appointing the Prime Minister when there is no clear majority in the Lok Sabha.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• a) 1 and 2 only

• b) 2 and 3 only

• c) 1 and 3 only

• d) 1, 2, and 3

Explanation:

• The President can send back the advice given by the Council of Ministers for reconsideration. The President has the discretionary power to ask the Council to reconsider its advice. However, if the Council of Ministers reiterates its advice, the President must act on it. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The President can withhold or refuse assent to Bills passed by Parliament. The President can refuse assent to a Bill (except Money Bills), which is known as a “veto,” and can also exercise a “pocket veto” by not signing or refusing to act on the Bill. Veto power is used as per the discretion of the president. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• The President appoints the Prime Minister when there is no clear majority in the Lok Sabha. In situations where there is no clear majority, the President has the discretion to decide who should be appointed as Prime Minister, typically based on who can likely form a stable government. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Which of the following statements about the Indian bureaucracy is/are correct? The Indian Administrative Service (IAS) and Indian Police Service (IPS) officers are appointed by the central government but work under the supervision of the state government. The central government has the authority to take disciplinary action against IAS and IPS officers. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: c Explanation: IAS and IPS officers are appointed by the central government but work under the supervision of the state government. The central government appoints these officers, but they are assigned to states and work under the state’s administrative structure. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The central government has the authority to take disciplinary action against IAS and IPS officers. While these officers are supervised by the state government, disciplinary action, particularly severe measures, are under the central government’s jurisdiction. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Hence, option(c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: IAS and IPS officers are appointed by the central government but work under the supervision of the state government. The central government appoints these officers, but they are assigned to states and work under the state’s administrative structure. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The central government has the authority to take disciplinary action against IAS and IPS officers. While these officers are supervised by the state government, disciplinary action, particularly severe measures, are under the central government’s jurisdiction. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Hence, option(c) is correct.

#### 4. Question

Which of the following statements about the Indian bureaucracy is/are correct?

• The Indian Administrative Service (IAS) and Indian Police Service (IPS) officers are appointed by the central government but work under the supervision of the state government.

• The central government has the authority to take disciplinary action against IAS and IPS officers.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• IAS and IPS officers are appointed by the central government but work under the supervision of the state government. The central government appoints these officers, but they are assigned to states and work under the state’s administrative structure. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The central government has the authority to take disciplinary action against IAS and IPS officers. While these officers are supervised by the state government, disciplinary action, particularly severe measures, are under the central government’s jurisdiction. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Hence, option(c) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option(c) is correct.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points What was one of the primary tasks assigned to the Rohini Commission? a) To examine the distribution of benefits among OBCs b) To propose new educational reservation quotas for OBCs c) To recommend ways to merge OBC categories d) To study the representation of Scheduled Tribes in central jobs Correct Answer: a Explanation: Recently, Justice G. Rohini-headed Commission for the sub-categorisation of Other Backward Classes (OBC) caste groups submitted its long-awaited report to the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment after nearly six years of work. The Justice Rohini Commission, formally known as the Commission for the Sub-Categorization of Other Backward Classes (OBCs), was established on 2nd October 2017 by the President of India under Article 340 of the Indian Constitution. This article empowers the President to set up a commission to investigate the conditions of backward classes and propose measures for their improvement. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Recently, Justice G. Rohini-headed Commission for the sub-categorisation of Other Backward Classes (OBC) caste groups submitted its long-awaited report to the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment after nearly six years of work. The Justice Rohini Commission, formally known as the Commission for the Sub-Categorization of Other Backward Classes (OBCs), was established on 2nd October 2017 by the President of India under Article 340 of the Indian Constitution. This article empowers the President to set up a commission to investigate the conditions of backward classes and propose measures for their improvement. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 5. Question

What was one of the primary tasks assigned to the Rohini Commission?

• a) To examine the distribution of benefits among OBCs

• b) To propose new educational reservation quotas for OBCs

• c) To recommend ways to merge OBC categories

• d) To study the representation of Scheduled Tribes in central jobs

Explanation:

• Recently, Justice G. Rohini-headed Commission for the sub-categorisation of Other Backward Classes (OBC) caste groups submitted its long-awaited report to the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment after nearly six years of work.

• The Justice Rohini Commission, formally known as the Commission for the Sub-Categorization of Other Backward Classes (OBCs), was established on 2nd October 2017 by the President of India under Article 340 of the Indian Constitution. This article empowers the President to set up a commission to investigate the conditions of backward classes and propose measures for their improvement.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points What is one of the reasons critics believe Parliament is losing its central role in democratic governance? a) The decline in the quality of debates and discussions in Parliament b) The increasing influence and power of the executive over legislature. c) The increased focus on regional and state issues rather than national issues d) The overemphasis on electoral functions rather than legislative functions. Correct Answer: b Explanation: Parliament traditionally holds a central role in democratic governance, serving as a platform for legislation, debate, and holding the executive accountable. However, critics argue that Parliament’s influence is diminishing due to the increasing power and dominance of the executive branch, leading to a perceived decline in Parliament’s centrality. The decline in the quality of debates and discussions in Parliament could indicate a loss of vibrancy and robustness in the parliamentary process. However, this could be a symptom of executive dominance rather than a root cause. When the executive controls the legislative agenda, debates may become perfunctory, leading to a decline in quality. A decline in debate quality might result from the executive’s ability to set the agenda and control discussions. If the executive holds significant power, it can suppress meaningful debate, leading to fewer opportunities for dissent or scrutiny. When the executive has a strong grip on the legislative process, it can initiate and push through policies with limited input from Parliament. This dominance can lead to reduced debate, weakened accountability, and decreased scrutiny of the executive’s actions. Dominance of the Executive: In many parliamentary systems, including India, the executive branch, typically led by the Cabinet or the Prime Minister, has significant control over the legislative agenda. This can lead to a situation where the executive initiates policies and sets the governance agenda, reducing the scope for broader parliamentary debate and input. Legislative Control: When the executive dominates, it can control the flow of legislation, potentially reducing the role of Parliament to merely approving executive-driven policies. This undermines the traditional role of Parliament as a body for thorough debate and scrutiny. Majority Governments and Party Discipline: In systems where a single party or coalition holds a strong majority, party discipline can result in Members of Parliament (MPs) adhering to the party line, rather than engaging in robust debate or questioning executive decisions. This, in turn, can reduce Parliament’s effectiveness in acting as a check on executive power. Decline in Parliamentary Debate: A decrease in the quality or quantity of debates and discussions within Parliament may also contribute to the perception of its reduced role. If Parliament becomes a venue for routine approval of executive decisions rather than vibrant discussion and dissent, its central role in democratic governance can be compromised. Erosion of Parliamentary Procedures: Another reason for critics’ concerns is the erosion of parliamentary procedures. When executive power grows, parliamentary processes might be bypassed or manipulated to push through executive agendas, further diminishing Parliament’s role as a check on power. Ultimately, when the executive branch dominates, it can limit Parliament’s capacity to represent diverse viewpoints, ensure governmental accountability, and engage in meaningful debates. The consequences of such a shift can be significant, as it challenges the foundational principles of a democratic system where different branches of government serve as checks and balances for one another. The increased focus on regional and state issues rather than national issues can occur when MPs prioritize local interests over national governance. While this could fragment parliamentary focus, it doesn’t necessarily mean Parliament is losing its central role. In fact, regional representation is an essential aspect of a federal system. The overemphasis on electoral functions rather than legislative functions points to a shift in focus within Parliament. While this can be a concern, it’s generally not a root cause of Parliament’s declining role. The electoral functions of Parliament, such as electing the President and Vice-President, are part of its broader responsibilities, but they do not necessarily lead to a loss of centrality in governance. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Parliament traditionally holds a central role in democratic governance, serving as a platform for legislation, debate, and holding the executive accountable. However, critics argue that Parliament’s influence is diminishing due to the increasing power and dominance of the executive branch, leading to a perceived decline in Parliament’s centrality. The decline in the quality of debates and discussions in Parliament could indicate a loss of vibrancy and robustness in the parliamentary process. However, this could be a symptom of executive dominance rather than a root cause. When the executive controls the legislative agenda, debates may become perfunctory, leading to a decline in quality. A decline in debate quality might result from the executive’s ability to set the agenda and control discussions. If the executive holds significant power, it can suppress meaningful debate, leading to fewer opportunities for dissent or scrutiny. When the executive has a strong grip on the legislative process, it can initiate and push through policies with limited input from Parliament. This dominance can lead to reduced debate, weakened accountability, and decreased scrutiny of the executive’s actions. Dominance of the Executive: In many parliamentary systems, including India, the executive branch, typically led by the Cabinet or the Prime Minister, has significant control over the legislative agenda. This can lead to a situation where the executive initiates policies and sets the governance agenda, reducing the scope for broader parliamentary debate and input. Legislative Control: When the executive dominates, it can control the flow of legislation, potentially reducing the role of Parliament to merely approving executive-driven policies. This undermines the traditional role of Parliament as a body for thorough debate and scrutiny. Majority Governments and Party Discipline: In systems where a single party or coalition holds a strong majority, party discipline can result in Members of Parliament (MPs) adhering to the party line, rather than engaging in robust debate or questioning executive decisions. This, in turn, can reduce Parliament’s effectiveness in acting as a check on executive power. Decline in Parliamentary Debate: A decrease in the quality or quantity of debates and discussions within Parliament may also contribute to the perception of its reduced role. If Parliament becomes a venue for routine approval of executive decisions rather than vibrant discussion and dissent, its central role in democratic governance can be compromised. Erosion of Parliamentary Procedures: Another reason for critics’ concerns is the erosion of parliamentary procedures. When executive power grows, parliamentary processes might be bypassed or manipulated to push through executive agendas, further diminishing Parliament’s role as a check on power. Ultimately, when the executive branch dominates, it can limit Parliament’s capacity to represent diverse viewpoints, ensure governmental accountability, and engage in meaningful debates. The consequences of such a shift can be significant, as it challenges the foundational principles of a democratic system where different branches of government serve as checks and balances for one another. The increased focus on regional and state issues rather than national issues can occur when MPs prioritize local interests over national governance. While this could fragment parliamentary focus, it doesn’t necessarily mean Parliament is losing its central role. In fact, regional representation is an essential aspect of a federal system. The overemphasis on electoral functions rather than legislative functions points to a shift in focus within Parliament. While this can be a concern, it’s generally not a root cause of Parliament’s declining role. The electoral functions of Parliament, such as electing the President and Vice-President, are part of its broader responsibilities, but they do not necessarily lead to a loss of centrality in governance. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 6. Question

What is one of the reasons critics believe Parliament is losing its central role in democratic governance?

• a) The decline in the quality of debates and discussions in Parliament

• b) The increasing influence and power of the executive over legislature.

• c) The increased focus on regional and state issues rather than national issues

• d) The overemphasis on electoral functions rather than legislative functions.

Explanation:

• Parliament traditionally holds a central role in democratic governance, serving as a platform for legislation, debate, and holding the executive accountable. However, critics argue that Parliament’s influence is diminishing due to the increasing power and dominance of the executive branch, leading to a perceived decline in Parliament’s centrality.

• The decline in the quality of debates and discussions in Parliament could indicate a loss of vibrancy and robustness in the parliamentary process. However, this could be a symptom of executive dominance rather than a root cause. When the executive controls the legislative agenda, debates may become perfunctory, leading to a decline in quality.

• A decline in debate quality might result from the executive’s ability to set the agenda and control discussions. If the executive holds significant power, it can suppress meaningful debate, leading to fewer opportunities for dissent or scrutiny.

• When the executive has a strong grip on the legislative process, it can initiate and push through policies with limited input from Parliament. This dominance can lead to reduced debate, weakened accountability, and decreased scrutiny of the executive’s actions.

• Dominance of the Executive: In many parliamentary systems, including India, the executive branch, typically led by the Cabinet or the Prime Minister, has significant control over the legislative agenda. This can lead to a situation where the executive initiates policies and sets the governance agenda, reducing the scope for broader parliamentary debate and input.

• Legislative Control: When the executive dominates, it can control the flow of legislation, potentially reducing the role of Parliament to merely approving executive-driven policies. This undermines the traditional role of Parliament as a body for thorough debate and scrutiny.

• Majority Governments and Party Discipline: In systems where a single party or coalition holds a strong majority, party discipline can result in Members of Parliament (MPs) adhering to the party line, rather than engaging in robust debate or questioning executive decisions. This, in turn, can reduce Parliament’s effectiveness in acting as a check on executive power.

• Decline in Parliamentary Debate: A decrease in the quality or quantity of debates and discussions within Parliament may also contribute to the perception of its reduced role. If Parliament becomes a venue for routine approval of executive decisions rather than vibrant discussion and dissent, its central role in democratic governance can be compromised.

• Erosion of Parliamentary Procedures: Another reason for critics’ concerns is the erosion of parliamentary procedures. When executive power grows, parliamentary processes might be bypassed or manipulated to push through executive agendas, further diminishing Parliament’s role as a check on power.

• Ultimately, when the executive branch dominates, it can limit Parliament’s capacity to represent diverse viewpoints, ensure governmental accountability, and engage in meaningful debates. The consequences of such a shift can be significant, as it challenges the foundational principles of a democratic system where different branches of government serve as checks and balances for one another.

• The increased focus on regional and state issues rather than national issues can occur when MPs prioritize local interests over national governance. While this could fragment parliamentary focus, it doesn’t necessarily mean Parliament is losing its central role. In fact, regional representation is an essential aspect of a federal system.

• The overemphasis on electoral functions rather than legislative functions points to a shift in focus within Parliament. While this can be a concern, it’s generally not a root cause of Parliament’s declining role. The electoral functions of Parliament, such as electing the President and Vice-President, are part of its broader responsibilities, but they do not necessarily lead to a loss of centrality in governance.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the powers of the Rajya Sabha: The Rajya Sabha can alone initiate the procedure for the removal of the Vice President of India. The Rajya Sabha has equal power with the Lok Sabha when it comes to constitutional amendments. The Rajya Sabha can suggest amendments to money bills, but it cannot initiate money bills. How many of the above given statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: c Explanation: The Rajya Sabha can alone initiate the procedure for the removal of the Vice President of India. The process of removing the Vice President can be initiated only in the Rajya Sabha. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The Rajya Sabha has equal power with the Lok Sabha when it comes to constitutional amendments. Both the Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha have co-equal powers in the case of constitutional amendments. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The Rajya Sabha can suggest amendments to money bills, but it cannot initiate money bills. While the Rajya Sabha can offer suggestions on money bills, it cannot initiate them—only the Lok Sabha can do so. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option(c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: The Rajya Sabha can alone initiate the procedure for the removal of the Vice President of India. The process of removing the Vice President can be initiated only in the Rajya Sabha. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The Rajya Sabha has equal power with the Lok Sabha when it comes to constitutional amendments. Both the Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha have co-equal powers in the case of constitutional amendments. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The Rajya Sabha can suggest amendments to money bills, but it cannot initiate money bills. While the Rajya Sabha can offer suggestions on money bills, it cannot initiate them—only the Lok Sabha can do so. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option(c) is correct.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements about the powers of the Rajya Sabha:

• The Rajya Sabha can alone initiate the procedure for the removal of the Vice President of India.

• The Rajya Sabha has equal power with the Lok Sabha when it comes to constitutional amendments.

• The Rajya Sabha can suggest amendments to money bills, but it cannot initiate money bills.

How many of the above given statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Explanation:

• The Rajya Sabha can alone initiate the procedure for the removal of the Vice President of India. The process of removing the Vice President can be initiated only in the Rajya Sabha. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The Rajya Sabha has equal power with the Lok Sabha when it comes to constitutional amendments. Both the Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha have co-equal powers in the case of constitutional amendments. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• The Rajya Sabha can suggest amendments to money bills, but it cannot initiate money bills. While the Rajya Sabha can offer suggestions on money bills, it cannot initiate them—only the Lok Sabha can do so. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Hence, option(c) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option(c) is correct.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points The Indian Constitution terms India as a ‘Republic’. In this context, consider the following statements: Political sovereignty is not vested in a single individual. Absence of privileged classes. All public offices are open to citizens without discrimination. How many of the above features describes India as a Republic? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: c Explanation: A democratic polity can be classified into two categories– monarchy and republic. In a monarchy, the head of the state (usually king or queen) enjoys a hereditary position, that is, he comes into office through succession, e.g., Britain. In a republic, on the other hand, the head of the state is always elected directly or indirectly for a fixed period, e.g., USA.Therefore, the term ‘republic’ in our Preamble indicates that India has an elected head called the president. He is elected indirectly for a fixed period of five years. A republic also means two more things: One, vesting of political sovereignty in the people and not in a single individual like a king. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Second, the absence of any privileged class and hence all public offices being opened to every citizen without any discrimination. Hence, statement 2 and statement 3 are correct. Hence, option(c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: A democratic polity can be classified into two categories– monarchy and republic. In a monarchy, the head of the state (usually king or queen) enjoys a hereditary position, that is, he comes into office through succession, e.g., Britain. In a republic, on the other hand, the head of the state is always elected directly or indirectly for a fixed period, e.g., USA.Therefore, the term ‘republic’ in our Preamble indicates that India has an elected head called the president. He is elected indirectly for a fixed period of five years. A republic also means two more things: One, vesting of political sovereignty in the people and not in a single individual like a king. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Second, the absence of any privileged class and hence all public offices being opened to every citizen without any discrimination. Hence, statement 2 and statement 3 are correct. Hence, option(c) is correct.

#### 8. Question

The Indian Constitution terms India as a ‘Republic’. In this context, consider the following statements:

• Political sovereignty is not vested in a single individual.

• Absence of privileged classes.

• All public offices are open to citizens without discrimination.

How many of the above features describes India as a Republic?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Explanation:

• A democratic polity can be classified into two categories– monarchy and republic. In a monarchy, the head of the state (usually king or queen) enjoys a hereditary position, that is, he comes into office through succession, e.g., Britain.

• In a republic, on the other hand, the head of the state is always elected directly or indirectly for a fixed period, e.g., USA.Therefore, the term ‘republic’ in our Preamble indicates that India has an elected head called the president. He is elected indirectly for a fixed period of five years.

• A republic also means two more things:

• One, vesting of political sovereignty in the people and not in a single individual like a king. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Second, the absence of any privileged class and hence all public offices being opened to every citizen without any discrimination.

• Hence, statement 2 and statement 3 are correct.

• Hence, option(c) is correct.

Explanation:

• A republic also means two more things:

• One, vesting of political sovereignty in the people and not in a single individual like a king. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Second, the absence of any privileged class and hence all public offices being opened to every citizen without any discrimination.

• Hence, statement 2 and statement 3 are correct.

• Hence, option(c) is correct.

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points With reference to the Second schedule of the Indian Constitution, consider the following: Speaker of the Legislative Assembly in the states Prime Minister Judges of the High Courts Comptroller and Auditor-General Second Schedule deals with provisions relating to the remunerations, allowances, privileges etc. of how many of the above? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: c Explanation: Second Schedule deals with provisions relating to the emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of The President of India The Governors of States The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly in the states The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Legislative Council in the states The Judges of the Supreme Court The Judges of the High Courts The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India The remuneration for the prime minister and other ministers are covered under the purview of Salaries and Allowances of Minister Act, 1952. Leaders of Opposition is covered under the purview of Salary and Allowances of Leaders of Opposition in Parliament, 1977. Hence, option c is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Second Schedule deals with provisions relating to the emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of The President of India The Governors of States The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly in the states The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Legislative Council in the states The Judges of the Supreme Court The Judges of the High Courts The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India The remuneration for the prime minister and other ministers are covered under the purview of Salaries and Allowances of Minister Act, 1952. Leaders of Opposition is covered under the purview of Salary and Allowances of Leaders of Opposition in Parliament, 1977. Hence, option c is correct.

#### 9. Question

With reference to the Second schedule of the Indian Constitution, consider the following:

• Speaker of the Legislative Assembly in the states

• Prime Minister

• Judges of the High Courts

• Comptroller and Auditor-General

Second Schedule deals with provisions relating to the remunerations, allowances, privileges etc. of how many of the above?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

• Second Schedule deals with provisions relating to the emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of

• The President of India

• The Governors of States

• The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha

• The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

• The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly in the states

• The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Legislative Council in the states

• The Judges of the Supreme Court

• The Judges of the High Courts

• The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India

• The remuneration for the prime minister and other ministers are covered under the purview of Salaries and Allowances of Minister Act, 1952.

• Leaders of Opposition is covered under the purview of Salary and Allowances of Leaders of Opposition in Parliament, 1977.

• Hence, option c is correct.

Explanation:

• Second Schedule deals with provisions relating to the emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of

• The President of India

• The Governors of States

• The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha

• The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

• The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly in the states

• The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Legislative Council in the states

• The Judges of the Supreme Court

• The Judges of the High Courts

• The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India

• The remuneration for the prime minister and other ministers are covered under the purview of Salaries and Allowances of Minister Act, 1952.

• Leaders of Opposition is covered under the purview of Salary and Allowances of Leaders of Opposition in Parliament, 1977.

• Hence, option c is correct.

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points What are the mechanisms by which Parliament regulates its own conduct? The presiding officer oversees the smooth conduct of parliamentary business. The anti-defection law restricts members from switching parties after being elected. The Joint Parliamentary Committees ensure ethical conduct among members. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: b Explanation: The presiding officer oversees the smooth conduct of parliamentary business.The presiding officer (Speaker in the Lok Sabha, Chairman in the Rajya Sabha) ensures that parliamentary sessions are conducted orderly, decides on procedural matters, and has the authority to maintain discipline. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The anti-defection law restricts members from switching parties after being elected. The anti-defection law, introduced to prevent political defections, can lead to disqualification of members who switch parties or violate party instructions during key votes. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The Joint Parliamentary Committees (JPCs) are generally set up to address specific issues, such as investigating a particular bill or financial irregularities. They do not primarily focus on ensuring ethical conduct among members. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: The presiding officer oversees the smooth conduct of parliamentary business.The presiding officer (Speaker in the Lok Sabha, Chairman in the Rajya Sabha) ensures that parliamentary sessions are conducted orderly, decides on procedural matters, and has the authority to maintain discipline. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The anti-defection law restricts members from switching parties after being elected. The anti-defection law, introduced to prevent political defections, can lead to disqualification of members who switch parties or violate party instructions during key votes. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The Joint Parliamentary Committees (JPCs) are generally set up to address specific issues, such as investigating a particular bill or financial irregularities. They do not primarily focus on ensuring ethical conduct among members. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 10. Question

What are the mechanisms by which Parliament regulates its own conduct?

• The presiding officer oversees the smooth conduct of parliamentary business.

• The anti-defection law restricts members from switching parties after being elected.

• The Joint Parliamentary Committees ensure ethical conduct among members.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Explanation:

• The presiding officer oversees the smooth conduct of parliamentary business.The presiding officer (Speaker in the Lok Sabha, Chairman in the Rajya Sabha) ensures that parliamentary sessions are conducted orderly, decides on procedural matters, and has the authority to maintain discipline. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The anti-defection law restricts members from switching parties after being elected. The anti-defection law, introduced to prevent political defections, can lead to disqualification of members who switch parties or violate party instructions during key votes. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• The Joint Parliamentary Committees (JPCs) are generally set up to address specific issues, such as investigating a particular bill or financial irregularities. They do not primarily focus on ensuring ethical conduct among members. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points With reference to the Sponges, consider the following statements: Unlike corals, they are mobile aquatic invertebrates having simple structures with no tissues. Unlike corals, these species are found in freshwater and estuaries along with marine habitats. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: While sponges, like corals, are immobile aquatic invertebrates, they are otherwise completely different organisms with distinct anatomy, feeding methods, and reproductive processes. Corals are complex, many-celled organisms. Sponges are very simple creatures with no tissues. Statement 2 is correct: All corals require saltwater to survive. While most sponges are found in the ocean, numerous species are also found in fresh water and estuaries. A sponge’s skeletal type adapts well to its particular habitat, allowing it to live on hard, rocky surfaces or soft sediments such as sand and mud. Some sponges even attach themselves to floating debris! Rarely are they found completely free-floating. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: While sponges, like corals, are immobile aquatic invertebrates, they are otherwise completely different organisms with distinct anatomy, feeding methods, and reproductive processes. Corals are complex, many-celled organisms. Sponges are very simple creatures with no tissues. Statement 2 is correct: All corals require saltwater to survive. While most sponges are found in the ocean, numerous species are also found in fresh water and estuaries. A sponge’s skeletal type adapts well to its particular habitat, allowing it to live on hard, rocky surfaces or soft sediments such as sand and mud. Some sponges even attach themselves to floating debris! Rarely are they found completely free-floating.

#### 11. Question

With reference to the Sponges, consider the following statements:

• Unlike corals, they are mobile aquatic invertebrates having simple structures with no tissues.

• Unlike corals, these species are found in freshwater and estuaries along with marine habitats.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: While sponges, like corals, are immobile aquatic invertebrates, they are otherwise completely different organisms with distinct anatomy, feeding methods, and reproductive processes.

Corals are complex, many-celled organisms. Sponges are very simple creatures with no tissues.

Statement 2 is correct: All corals require saltwater to survive. While most sponges are found in the ocean, numerous species are also found in fresh water and estuaries.

A sponge’s skeletal type adapts well to its particular habitat, allowing it to live on hard, rocky surfaces or soft sediments such as sand and mud. Some sponges even attach themselves to floating debris! Rarely are they found completely free-floating.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Corals are complex, many-celled organisms. Sponges are very simple creatures with no tissues.

Statement 2 is correct: All corals require saltwater to survive. While most sponges are found in the ocean, numerous species are also found in fresh water and estuaries.

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Software-as-a-Service (SaaS): It allows software access on a subscription basis using external servers and allows to access programs without the Internet. It is not costly as users can pay for SaaS instead of purchasing multiple software licenses for multiple computers. It has major advantages including no security risks with greater speed and control of software customization. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) is a software licensing model. It allows access to software on a subscription basis using external servers. As its important feature, SaaS allows each user to access programs via the Internet. The user need not install the software on his/her computer. The rise of SaaS and cloud-based computing go hand in hand. Statement 2 is correct: It is easy to implement, update and debug. Moreover, it is not very costly as users pay for SaaS instead of purchasing multiple software licenses for multiple computers. This is a very cost-effective advantage. SaaS allows users to access the software through a web browser from multiple locations. He or she can have remote desktop software and can work from home. Statement 3 is not correct: Major disadvantages of SaaS consist of security risks, slower speed, lack of customization, lack of control and lack of customization. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) is a software licensing model. It allows access to software on a subscription basis using external servers. As its important feature, SaaS allows each user to access programs via the Internet. The user need not install the software on his/her computer. The rise of SaaS and cloud-based computing go hand in hand. Statement 2 is correct: It is easy to implement, update and debug. Moreover, it is not very costly as users pay for SaaS instead of purchasing multiple software licenses for multiple computers. This is a very cost-effective advantage. SaaS allows users to access the software through a web browser from multiple locations. He or she can have remote desktop software and can work from home. Statement 3 is not correct: Major disadvantages of SaaS consist of security risks, slower speed, lack of customization, lack of control and lack of customization.

#### 12. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Software-as-a-Service (SaaS):

• It allows software access on a subscription basis using external servers and allows to access programs without the Internet.

• It is not costly as users can pay for SaaS instead of purchasing multiple software licenses for multiple computers.

• It has major advantages including no security risks with greater speed and control of software customization.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) is a software licensing model. It allows access to software on a subscription basis using external servers. As its important feature, SaaS allows each user to access programs via the Internet.

The user need not install the software on his/her computer. The rise of SaaS and cloud-based computing go hand in hand.

Statement 2 is correct: It is easy to implement, update and debug. Moreover, it is not very costly as users pay for SaaS instead of purchasing multiple software licenses for multiple computers. This is a very cost-effective advantage.

SaaS allows users to access the software through a web browser from multiple locations. He or she can have remote desktop software and can work from home.

Statement 3 is not correct: Major disadvantages of SaaS consist of security risks, slower speed, lack of customization, lack of control and lack of customization.

Answer: A

Explanation:

The user need not install the software on his/her computer. The rise of SaaS and cloud-based computing go hand in hand.

SaaS allows users to access the software through a web browser from multiple locations. He or she can have remote desktop software and can work from home.

Statement 3 is not correct: Major disadvantages of SaaS consist of security risks, slower speed, lack of customization, lack of control and lack of customization.

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Deflation: It is associated with a contraction in the supply of money and credit. It decreases the economic power of savings-based equity financing. It leads to a decrease in employment and destabilizes the economy. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Deflation is a general decline in prices for goods and services, typically associated with a contraction in the supply of money and credit in the economy. During deflation, the purchasing power of currency rises over time. Statement 2 is not correct: Deflation makes it less economical for governments, businesses, and consumers to use debt financing. However, deflation increases the economic power of savings-based equity financing. Deflation is the general decline in prices of goods and services, which effectively increases the value of currency. It’s associated with a variety of causes, including a contraction in the availability of money, as well as increased productivity and advancements in technology. Statement 3 is not correct: According to the Pigou effect, price deflation leads to increased employment and wealth, stabilizing the economy. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Deflation is a general decline in prices for goods and services, typically associated with a contraction in the supply of money and credit in the economy. During deflation, the purchasing power of currency rises over time. Statement 2 is not correct: Deflation makes it less economical for governments, businesses, and consumers to use debt financing. However, deflation increases the economic power of savings-based equity financing. Deflation is the general decline in prices of goods and services, which effectively increases the value of currency. It’s associated with a variety of causes, including a contraction in the availability of money, as well as increased productivity and advancements in technology. Statement 3 is not correct: According to the Pigou effect, price deflation leads to increased employment and wealth, stabilizing the economy.

#### 13. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Deflation:

• It is associated with a contraction in the supply of money and credit.

• It decreases the economic power of savings-based equity financing.

• It leads to a decrease in employment and destabilizes the economy.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Deflation is a general decline in prices for goods and services, typically associated with a contraction in the supply of money and credit in the economy.

During deflation, the purchasing power of currency rises over time.

Statement 2 is not correct: Deflation makes it less economical for governments, businesses, and consumers to use debt financing. However, deflation increases the economic power of savings-based equity financing.

Deflation is the general decline in prices of goods and services, which effectively increases the value of currency.

It’s associated with a variety of causes, including a contraction in the availability of money, as well as increased productivity and advancements in technology.

Statement 3 is not correct: According to the Pigou effect, price deflation leads to increased employment and wealth, stabilizing the economy.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Deflation is a general decline in prices for goods and services, typically associated with a contraction in the supply of money and credit in the economy.

During deflation, the purchasing power of currency rises over time.

Deflation is the general decline in prices of goods and services, which effectively increases the value of currency.

It’s associated with a variety of causes, including a contraction in the availability of money, as well as increased productivity and advancements in technology.

Statement 3 is not correct: According to the Pigou effect, price deflation leads to increased employment and wealth, stabilizing the economy.

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Mediterranean Sea: It is connected to the Atlantic Ocean through the Strait of Gibraltar. It is connected to the Black Sea through the Bosporus Strait. It is connected to the Red Sea through the Suez Canal. It shares its boundary with Botswana and Mozambique. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Answer: C Explanation: The Mediterranean Sea is bordered by the continent of Europe in the north; by Asia in the east and by Africa in the south. Statement 1 is correct: In the west, the Mediterranean Sea is connected to the Atlantic Ocean via the narrow Strait of Gibraltar. Statement 2 is correct: In the extreme northeast, it is connected to the Black Sea via the Dardanelles Strait, the Sea of Marmara, and the Bosporus Strait. Statement 3 is correct: The Mediterranean Sea is also connected to the Red Sea via the Suez Canal in the southeast. Statement 4 is not correct: Some of the significant countries that are located along the Mediterranean Sea are Greece, France, Italy, Spain, Croatia, Algeria, Tunisia, Lebanon, etc. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: The Mediterranean Sea is bordered by the continent of Europe in the north; by Asia in the east and by Africa in the south. Statement 1 is correct: In the west, the Mediterranean Sea is connected to the Atlantic Ocean via the narrow Strait of Gibraltar. Statement 2 is correct: In the extreme northeast, it is connected to the Black Sea via the Dardanelles Strait, the Sea of Marmara, and the Bosporus Strait. Statement 3 is correct: The Mediterranean Sea is also connected to the Red Sea via the Suez Canal in the southeast. Statement 4 is not correct: Some of the significant countries that are located along the Mediterranean Sea are Greece, France, Italy, Spain, Croatia, Algeria, Tunisia, Lebanon, etc.

#### 14. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Mediterranean Sea:

• It is connected to the Atlantic Ocean through the Strait of Gibraltar.

• It is connected to the Black Sea through the Bosporus Strait.

• It is connected to the Red Sea through the Suez Canal.

• It shares its boundary with Botswana and Mozambique.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Answer: C

Explanation:

The Mediterranean Sea is bordered by the continent of Europe in the north; by Asia in the east and by Africa in the south.

Statement 1 is correct: In the west, the Mediterranean Sea is connected to the Atlantic Ocean via the narrow Strait of Gibraltar.

Statement 2 is correct: In the extreme northeast, it is connected to the Black Sea via the Dardanelles Strait, the Sea of Marmara, and the Bosporus Strait.

Statement 3 is correct: The Mediterranean Sea is also connected to the Red Sea via the Suez Canal in the southeast.

Statement 4 is not correct: Some of the significant countries that are located along the Mediterranean Sea are Greece, France, Italy, Spain, Croatia, Algeria, Tunisia, Lebanon, etc.

Answer: C

Explanation:

The Mediterranean Sea is bordered by the continent of Europe in the north; by Asia in the east and by Africa in the south.

Statement 1 is correct: In the west, the Mediterranean Sea is connected to the Atlantic Ocean via the narrow Strait of Gibraltar.

Statement 2 is correct: In the extreme northeast, it is connected to the Black Sea via the Dardanelles Strait, the Sea of Marmara, and the Bosporus Strait.

Statement 3 is correct: The Mediterranean Sea is also connected to the Red Sea via the Suez Canal in the southeast.

Statement 4 is not correct: Some of the significant countries that are located along the Mediterranean Sea are Greece, France, Italy, Spain, Croatia, Algeria, Tunisia, Lebanon, etc.

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Melghat Tiger Reserve: It is located in Central India on the Satpura Hill Range. It is drained by the rivers which are all tributaries of the Tapti. Its forests are categorized as Southern Tropical Dry Deciduous Forests. How many of the statements given above is/are *not correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: D Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Melghat Tiger Reserve is located in Central India on a southern branch of the Satpura Hill Range, commonly known as the Gavilgarh Hills. Statement 2 is correct: The area is drained by five large rivers: Khandu, Khapra, Sipna, Gadga, and Dolar, which are all tributaries of the Tapti. The River Tapti forms the Reserve’s northern and eastern boundaries. Melghat is Maharashtra’s premier biodiversity reserve. The extensive plateaus amidst the rough topography include Makhala, Chikhaldara, Chiladari, Patulda, and Gugamal. Statement 3 is correct: It comprises of five protected areas: the Gugamal National Park, the Melghat Sanctuary, the Narnala, the Ambabarwa, and the Wan Sanctuaries. The Reserve’s forests are categorized as Southern Tropical Dry Deciduous Forests. Incorrect Answer: D Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Melghat Tiger Reserve is located in Central India on a southern branch of the Satpura Hill Range, commonly known as the Gavilgarh Hills. Statement 2 is correct: The area is drained by five large rivers: Khandu, Khapra, Sipna, Gadga, and Dolar, which are all tributaries of the Tapti. The River Tapti forms the Reserve’s northern and eastern boundaries. Melghat is Maharashtra’s premier biodiversity reserve. The extensive plateaus amidst the rough topography include Makhala, Chikhaldara, Chiladari, Patulda, and Gugamal. Statement 3 is correct:* It comprises of five protected areas: the Gugamal National Park, the Melghat Sanctuary, the Narnala, the Ambabarwa, and the Wan Sanctuaries. The Reserve’s forests are categorized as Southern Tropical Dry Deciduous Forests.

#### 15. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Melghat Tiger Reserve:

• It is located in Central India on the Satpura Hill Range.

• It is drained by the rivers which are all tributaries of the Tapti.

• Its forests are categorized as Southern Tropical Dry Deciduous Forests.

How many of the statements given above is/are *not* correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: D

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Melghat Tiger Reserve is located in Central India on a southern branch of the Satpura Hill Range, commonly known as the Gavilgarh Hills.

Statement 2 is correct: The area is drained by five large rivers: Khandu, Khapra, Sipna, Gadga, and Dolar, which are all tributaries of the Tapti. The River Tapti forms the Reserve’s northern and eastern boundaries.

Melghat is Maharashtra’s premier biodiversity reserve. The extensive plateaus amidst the rough topography include Makhala, Chikhaldara, Chiladari, Patulda, and Gugamal.

Statement 3 is correct: It comprises of five protected areas: the Gugamal National Park, the Melghat Sanctuary, the Narnala, the Ambabarwa, and the Wan Sanctuaries. The Reserve’s forests are categorized as Southern Tropical Dry Deciduous Forests.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Melghat Tiger Reserve is located in Central India on a southern branch of the Satpura Hill Range, commonly known as the Gavilgarh Hills.

Melghat is Maharashtra’s premier biodiversity reserve. The extensive plateaus amidst the rough topography include Makhala, Chikhaldara, Chiladari, Patulda, and Gugamal.

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Assertion (A): Reducing air pollution can potentially help mitigate antibiotic resistance. Reason (R): Particulate matter PM2.5 in the air can contain antibiotic-resistant bacteria and genes, which might be inhaled by humans. In the context of the above, which of these is correct? a) A is correct, and R is an appropriate explanation of A. b) A is correct, but R is not an appropriate explanation of A. c) A is correct, but R is incorrect. d) Both A and R are incorrect. Correct Solution: a) Justification: Justification: A global study suggests that air pollution is contributing to a rise in antibiotic resistance, posing a significant threat to human health worldwide. The analysis shows a consistent link between increased air pollution and rising antibiotic resistance in every country and continent. Particulate matter PM2.5 in the air can contain antibiotic-resistant bacteria and genes, which might be inhaled by humans, potentially contributing to resistance. Key findings: The study, the first comprehensive global analysis of this connection, suggests that reducing air pollution could help mitigate antibiotic resistance. The study acknowledges that while air pollution is recognized as a pathway for disseminating antibiotic resistance, there is limited data on specific routes that antibiotic-resistant genes travel via air pollution. The research found that antibiotic resistance increases with PM2.5 air pollution, with a 10% rise in pollution associated with a 1.1% increase in resistance. A modelling scenario suggests that without changes to current air pollution policies, antibiotic resistance could rise by 17% by 2050, resulting in around 840,000 annual premature deaths attributed to resistance. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/08/09/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-9-august-2023/ Incorrect Solution: a) Justification: Justification: A global study suggests that air pollution is contributing to a rise in antibiotic resistance, posing a significant threat to human health worldwide. The analysis shows a consistent link between increased air pollution and rising antibiotic resistance in every country and continent. Particulate matter PM2.5 in the air can contain antibiotic-resistant bacteria and genes, which might be inhaled by humans, potentially contributing to resistance. Key findings: The study, the first comprehensive global analysis of this connection, suggests that reducing air pollution could help mitigate antibiotic resistance. The study acknowledges that while air pollution is recognized as a pathway for disseminating antibiotic resistance, there is limited data on specific routes that antibiotic-resistant genes travel via air pollution. The research found that antibiotic resistance increases with PM2.5 air pollution, with a 10% rise in pollution associated with a 1.1% increase in resistance. A modelling scenario suggests that without changes to current air pollution policies, antibiotic resistance could rise by 17% by 2050, resulting in around 840,000 annual premature deaths attributed to resistance. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/08/09/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-9-august-2023/

#### 16. Question

Consider the following statements.

Assertion (A): Reducing air pollution can potentially help mitigate antibiotic resistance.

Reason (R): Particulate matter PM2.5 in the air can contain antibiotic-resistant bacteria and genes, which might be inhaled by humans.

In the context of the above, which of these is correct?

• a) A is correct, and R is an appropriate explanation of A.

• b) A is correct, but R is not an appropriate explanation of A.

• c) A is correct, but R is incorrect.

• d) Both A and R are incorrect.

Solution: a)

Justification:

Justification: A global study suggests that air pollution is contributing to a rise in antibiotic resistance, posing a significant threat to human health worldwide.

The analysis shows a consistent link between increased air pollution and rising antibiotic resistance in every country and continent.

Particulate matter PM2.5 in the air can contain antibiotic-resistant bacteria and genes, which might be inhaled by humans, potentially contributing to resistance.

Key findings:

The study, the first comprehensive global analysis of this connection, suggests that reducing air pollution could help mitigate antibiotic resistance.

The study acknowledges that while air pollution is recognized as a pathway for disseminating antibiotic resistance, there is limited data on specific routes that antibiotic-resistant genes travel via air pollution.

The research found that antibiotic resistance increases with PM2.5 air pollution, with a 10% rise in pollution associated with a 1.1% increase in resistance.

A modelling scenario suggests that without changes to current air pollution policies, antibiotic resistance could rise by 17% by 2050, resulting in around 840,000 annual premature deaths attributed to resistance.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/08/09/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-9-august-2023/

Solution: a)

Justification:

Justification: A global study suggests that air pollution is contributing to a rise in antibiotic resistance, posing a significant threat to human health worldwide.

The analysis shows a consistent link between increased air pollution and rising antibiotic resistance in every country and continent.

Particulate matter PM2.5 in the air can contain antibiotic-resistant bacteria and genes, which might be inhaled by humans, potentially contributing to resistance.

Key findings:

The study, the first comprehensive global analysis of this connection, suggests that reducing air pollution could help mitigate antibiotic resistance.

The research found that antibiotic resistance increases with PM2.5 air pollution, with a 10% rise in pollution associated with a 1.1% increase in resistance.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/08/09/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-9-august-2023/

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Scientists rely on which of these natural sources to reconstruct climate conditions over longer timescales? Paleoclimate proxies Isotopes that undergo steady radioactive decay Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 Only b) 2 Only c) Both 1 and 2 d) None Correct Solution: c) Justification: Palaeo proxies, short for paleoclimate proxies, are indirect pieces of evidence that scientists use to infer past climate conditions. Since instrumental climate records (such as thermometer measurements) are only available for a relatively short period, usually a few hundred years, scientists rely on various natural sources to reconstruct climate conditions over longer timescales. To estimate past temperatures, scientists also use isotopes that undergo steady radioactive decay. Limitations of these techniques: Palaeo proxy technique has limitations. It can only provide temperature anomalies on long timescales, such as centuries or thousands of years. Even the best proxies only offer estimates on weekly or seasonal timescales. Additionally, all temperature proxies are local or regional, making global temperature estimates uncertain. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/08/03/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-3-august-2023/ Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: Palaeo proxies, short for paleoclimate proxies, are indirect pieces of evidence that scientists use to infer past climate conditions. Since instrumental climate records (such as thermometer measurements) are only available for a relatively short period, usually a few hundred years, scientists rely on various natural sources to reconstruct climate conditions over longer timescales. To estimate past temperatures, scientists also use isotopes that undergo steady radioactive decay. Limitations of these techniques: Palaeo proxy technique has limitations. It can only provide temperature anomalies on long timescales, such as centuries or thousands of years. Even the best proxies only offer estimates on weekly or seasonal timescales. Additionally, all temperature proxies are local or regional, making global temperature estimates uncertain. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/08/03/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-3-august-2023/

#### 17. Question

Scientists rely on which of these natural sources to reconstruct climate conditions over longer timescales?

• Paleoclimate proxies

• Isotopes that undergo steady radioactive decay

Which of the above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

Solution: c)

Justification: Palaeo proxies, short for paleoclimate proxies, are indirect pieces of evidence that scientists use to infer past climate conditions. Since instrumental climate records (such as thermometer measurements) are only available for a relatively short period, usually a few hundred years, scientists rely on various natural sources to reconstruct climate conditions over longer timescales.

To estimate past temperatures, scientists also use isotopes that undergo steady radioactive decay.

Limitations of these techniques:

Palaeo proxy technique has limitations. It can only provide temperature anomalies on long timescales, such as centuries or thousands of years. Even the best proxies only offer estimates on weekly or seasonal timescales. Additionally, all temperature proxies are local or regional, making global temperature estimates uncertain.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/08/03/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-3-august-2023/

Solution: c)

To estimate past temperatures, scientists also use isotopes that undergo steady radioactive decay.

Limitations of these techniques:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/08/03/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-3-august-2023/

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Which of the following principles/doctrines underlie Article 14 of the constitution? Doctrine of Non-Arbitrariness Doctrine of Reasonable Classification Which of the above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: c) Justification: India has a ‘Doctrine of Non-Arbitrariness and Reasonable Classification’ originating from Article 14 (fundamental right to equality to every citizen in the country) The ‘reasonableness doctrine is a legal principle used to evaluate the validity of administrative decisions. It assesses whether a decision is extremely unreasonable, based on factors like the consideration of relevant information, proper balancing of factors, and absence of irrelevant influences. For instance, if a government decision allocates resources without adequately considering the impact on citizens’ well-being, or if a political appointment is made without proper evaluation of the candidate’s qualifications, the ‘reasonableness’ doctrine can be used to challenge and overturn such decisions. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/08/03/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-3-august-2023/ Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: India has a ‘Doctrine of Non-Arbitrariness and Reasonable Classification’ originating from Article 14 (fundamental right to equality to every citizen in the country) The ‘reasonableness doctrine is a legal principle used to evaluate the validity of administrative decisions. It assesses whether a decision is extremely unreasonable, based on factors like the consideration of relevant information, proper balancing of factors, and absence of irrelevant influences. For instance, if a government decision allocates resources without adequately considering the impact on citizens’ well-being, or if a political appointment is made without proper evaluation of the candidate’s qualifications, the ‘reasonableness’ doctrine can be used to challenge and overturn such decisions. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/08/03/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-3-august-2023/

#### 18. Question

Which of the following principles/doctrines underlie Article 14 of the constitution?

• Doctrine of Non-Arbitrariness

• Doctrine of Reasonable Classification

Which of the above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c)

Justification: India has a ‘Doctrine of Non-Arbitrariness and Reasonable Classification’ originating from Article 14 (fundamental right to equality to every citizen in the country)

The ‘reasonableness doctrine is a legal principle used to evaluate the validity of administrative decisions. It assesses whether a decision is extremely unreasonable, based on factors like the consideration of relevant information, proper balancing of factors, and absence of irrelevant influences.

For instance, if a government decision allocates resources without adequately considering the impact on citizens’ well-being, or if a political appointment is made without proper evaluation of the candidate’s qualifications, the ‘reasonableness’ doctrine can be used to challenge and overturn such decisions.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/08/03/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-3-august-2023/

Solution: c)

Justification: India has a ‘Doctrine of Non-Arbitrariness and Reasonable Classification’ originating from Article 14 (fundamental right to equality to every citizen in the country)

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/08/03/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-3-august-2023/

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Pink diamonds get their distinct colour from unique structural irregularities in the crystal lattice of the diamond impurities like nitrogen and boron, which give coloured diamonds their hues Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 Only b) 2 Only c) Both 1 and 2 d) None Correct Solution: a) Justification: Pink diamonds are a rare and highly coveted type of diamond known for their stunning pink or reddish-pink colour. Pink diamonds are exceptionally rare, and their rarity, combined with their captivating beauty, makes them extremely valuable. How it is unique? Pink diamonds get their distinct colour from unique structural irregularities in the crystal lattice of the diamond, rather than impurities like nitrogen or boron, which give other coloured diamonds their hues (such as in the case of Yellow and blue diamonds) Where is it found? The Argyle diamond mine in Western Australia was one of the primary sources of pink diamonds (over 90% of production), although it ceased production in 2020. Pink diamonds from the Argyle mine were particularly famous for their quality and colour intensity. What does the study indicate? Pink diamonds were formed as a result of the breakup of Earth’s first supercontinent, Vaalbara, through intense geological forces from colliding tectonic plates that caused their crystal lattices to twist and bend. The critical event that turned once-colourless diamonds into pink was a monumental collision between Western Australia and Northern Australia. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/09/22/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-22-september-2023/ Incorrect Solution: a) Justification: Pink diamonds are a rare and highly coveted type of diamond known for their stunning pink or reddish-pink colour. Pink diamonds are exceptionally rare, and their rarity, combined with their captivating beauty, makes them extremely valuable. How it is unique? Pink diamonds get their distinct colour from unique structural irregularities in the crystal lattice of the diamond, rather than impurities like nitrogen or boron, which give other coloured diamonds their hues (such as in the case of Yellow and blue diamonds) Where is it found? The Argyle diamond mine in Western Australia was one of the primary sources of pink diamonds (over 90% of production), although it ceased production in 2020. Pink diamonds from the Argyle mine were particularly famous for their quality and colour intensity. What does the study indicate? Pink diamonds were formed as a result of the breakup of Earth’s first supercontinent, Vaalbara, through intense geological forces from colliding tectonic plates that caused their crystal lattices to twist and bend. The critical event that turned once-colourless diamonds into pink was a monumental collision between Western Australia and Northern Australia. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/09/22/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-22-september-2023/

#### 19. Question

Pink diamonds get their distinct colour from

• unique structural irregularities in the crystal lattice of the diamond

• impurities like nitrogen and boron, which give coloured diamonds their hues

Which of the above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

Solution: a)

Justification: Pink diamonds are a rare and highly coveted type of diamond known for their stunning pink or reddish-pink colour. Pink diamonds are exceptionally rare, and their rarity, combined with their captivating beauty, makes them extremely valuable.

How it is unique?

Pink diamonds get their distinct colour from unique structural irregularities in the crystal lattice of the diamond, rather than impurities like nitrogen or boron, which give other coloured diamonds their hues (such as in the case of Yellow and blue diamonds)

Where is it found?

The Argyle diamond mine in Western Australia was one of the primary sources of pink diamonds (over 90% of production), although it ceased production in 2020. Pink diamonds from the Argyle mine were particularly famous for their quality and colour intensity.

What does the study indicate?

Pink diamonds were formed as a result of the breakup of Earth’s first supercontinent, Vaalbara, through intense geological forces from colliding tectonic plates that caused their crystal lattices to twist and bend. The critical event that turned once-colourless diamonds into pink was a monumental collision between Western Australia and Northern Australia.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/09/22/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-22-september-2023/

Solution: a)

How it is unique?

Where is it found?

What does the study indicate?

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/09/22/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-22-september-2023/

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India. It was founded in pre-independent India. It is a statutory body. It is under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Finance. It is tasked with licensing both the insurance and re-insurance industries in India. How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution: c) Justification: The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (founded 1999; HQ: Hyderabad) is a statutory body (under the IRDA Act 1999) and is under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Finance and is tasked with regulating and licensing the insurance and re-insurance industries in India. The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) is creating the ‘Bima Sugam’ online platform, which is described as a ‘game-changer’ and a ‘UPI moment’ for the insurance sector. It will serve as a one-stop destination for insurance-related needs, including policies, portability, agent changes, and claims. Buyers can directly purchase life, motor, or health policies through web aggregators, brokers, banks, and insurance agents. Insurance companies will be major shareholders in the platform, which will offer services via an ‘e-insurance account’ (E-IA). Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/09/22/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-22-september-2023/ Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (founded 1999; HQ: Hyderabad) is a statutory body (under the IRDA Act 1999) and is under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Finance and is tasked with regulating and licensing the insurance and re-insurance industries in India. The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) is creating the ‘Bima Sugam’ online platform, which is described as a ‘game-changer’ and a ‘UPI moment’ for the insurance sector. It will serve as a one-stop destination for insurance-related needs, including policies, portability, agent changes, and claims. Buyers can directly purchase life, motor, or health policies through web aggregators, brokers, banks, and insurance agents. Insurance companies will be major shareholders in the platform, which will offer services via an ‘e-insurance account’ (E-IA). Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/09/22/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-22-september-2023/

#### 20. Question

Consider the following statements about the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India.

• It was founded in pre-independent India.

• It is a statutory body.

• It is under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Finance.

• It is tasked with licensing both the insurance and re-insurance industries in India.

How many of the above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Solution: c)

Justification: The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (founded 1999; HQ: Hyderabad) is a statutory body (under the IRDA Act 1999) and is under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Finance and is tasked with regulating and licensing the insurance and re-insurance industries in India.

The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) is creating the ‘Bima Sugam’ online platform, which is described as a ‘game-changer’ and a ‘UPI moment’ for the insurance sector.

It will serve as a one-stop destination for insurance-related needs, including policies, portability, agent changes, and claims.

Buyers can directly purchase life, motor, or health policies through web aggregators, brokers, banks, and insurance agents. Insurance companies will be major shareholders in the platform, which will offer services via an ‘e-insurance account’ (E-IA).

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/09/22/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-22-september-2023/

Solution: c)

It will serve as a one-stop destination for insurance-related needs, including policies, portability, agent changes, and claims.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/09/22/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-22-september-2023/

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Mahajanapadas: 1. Vajji and Malla were the only republic mahajanapadas. 2. Anga was the important trade center for traders moving to South-East Asia (Suvarnabhumi). 3. Mahabharata tells the story of the conflict in the Kuru clan. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: a Vajji, Malla, Kuru and Kamboja were the ganatantras (republic) Mahajanapadas. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Anga was the important trade center for traders moving to South-East Asia (Suvarnabhumi). Hence, statement 2 is correct. Mahabharata tells the story of the conflict in the Kuru clan. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Vajji, Malla, Kuru and Kamboja were the ganatantras (republic) Mahajanapadas. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Anga was the important trade center for traders moving to South-East Asia (Suvarnabhumi). Hence, statement 2 is correct. Mahabharata tells the story of the conflict in the Kuru clan. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

#### 21. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Mahajanapadas: 1. Vajji and Malla were the only republic mahajanapadas. 2. Anga was the important trade center for traders moving to South-East Asia (Suvarnabhumi). 3. Mahabharata tells the story of the conflict in the Kuru clan.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Vajji, Malla, Kuru and Kamboja were the ganatantras (republic) Mahajanapadas.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Anga was the important trade center for traders moving to South-East Asia (Suvarnabhumi).

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Mahabharata tells the story of the conflict in the Kuru clan.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Vajji, Malla, Kuru and Kamboja were the ganatantras (republic) Mahajanapadas.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Anga was the important trade center for traders moving to South-East Asia (Suvarnabhumi).

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Mahabharata tells the story of the conflict in the Kuru clan.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Sangam texts: 1. Sangam texts constitute religious literature. 2. Short and long poems were composed by numerous poets in praise of various heroes and heroines. 3. Sangam poems are not primitive songs, but literature of high quality. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None of the above Correct Answer: b The Sangam texts are different from the Vedic texts, particularly the Rig Veda. They do not constitute religious literature. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. The short and long poems were composed by numerous poets in praise of various heroes and heroines and are in secular nature. They are not primitive songs, but literature of high quality. Hence, statement 2 and statement 3 both are correct. Incorrect Answer: b The Sangam texts are different from the Vedic texts, particularly the Rig Veda. They do not constitute religious literature. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. The short and long poems were composed by numerous poets in praise of various heroes and heroines and are in secular nature. They are not primitive songs, but literature of high quality. Hence, statement 2 and statement 3 both are correct.

#### 22. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Sangam texts: 1. Sangam texts constitute religious literature. 2. Short and long poems were composed by numerous poets in praise of various heroes and heroines. 3. Sangam poems are not primitive songs, but literature of high quality.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

• d) None of the above

The Sangam texts are different from the Vedic texts, particularly the Rig Veda. They do not constitute religious literature.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

The short and long poems were composed by numerous poets in praise of various heroes and heroines and are in secular nature. They are not primitive songs, but literature of high quality.

Hence, statement 2 and statement 3 both are correct.

The Sangam texts are different from the Vedic texts, particularly the Rig Veda. They do not constitute religious literature.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

The short and long poems were composed by numerous poets in praise of various heroes and heroines and are in secular nature. They are not primitive songs, but literature of high quality.

Hence, statement 2 and statement 3 both are correct.

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Sungas: 1. The founder of the Sunga dynasty was Pusyamitra Sunga. 2. Magadha was the nucleus of the Sunga kingdom. 3. Patanjali’s Yoga Sutras and Mahabhasya were composed in this period. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: c o The Sunga dynasty was established in 185 B.C.E., about 50 years after Ashoka’s death, when the king Brhadrata, the last of the Mauryan rulers, was assassinated by the then commander-in-chief of the Mauryan armed forces, Pusyamitra Sunga. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Incorrect Answer: c o The Sunga dynasty was established in 185 B.C.E., about 50 years after Ashoka’s death, when the king Brhadrata, the last of the Mauryan rulers, was assassinated by the then commander-in-chief of the Mauryan armed forces, Pusyamitra Sunga. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

#### 23. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Sungas: 1. The founder of the Sunga dynasty was Pusyamitra Sunga. 2. Magadha was the nucleus of the Sunga kingdom. 3. Patanjali’s Yoga Sutras and Mahabhasya were composed in this period.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

o The Sunga dynasty was established in 185 B.C.E., about 50 years after Ashoka’s death, when the king Brhadrata, the last of the Mauryan rulers, was assassinated by the then commander-in-chief of the Mauryan armed forces, Pusyamitra Sunga.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Maurya Empire: 1. The victory of Chandragupta Maurya over Southern India is mentioned in Ashoka‟a inscriptions and Jain texts but not in Sangam literature. 2. Apart from four Varnas, Kautilya in his Arthashastra talked about Varnashankaras such as Nishad. 3. Kautilya in his Arthashastra mentioned the practice of sati system. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None of the above Correct Answer: a The victory of Chandragupta Maurya over Southern India is mentioned in Ashoka‟a inscriptions, Jain texts and Sangam literature. He gained control over the area of Northern Karnataka. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Varna system had completely developed during the time of Mauryas. There were four types of Varna i.e Brahman, Kshatriya, Vaishya, Shudra and their work was decided according to their Varna. Apart from these four Varnas, Kautilya in his Arthashastra talked about Varnashankaras such as Nishad, Magadh, Sut, Veg, Chandals, etc. Kautilya considered them to be Shudras. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Kautilya has not given any information about sati system. But Strabo mentioned that sati system was prevalent among the Kath tribes of Punjab. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Incorrect Answer: a The victory of Chandragupta Maurya over Southern India is mentioned in Ashoka‟a inscriptions, Jain texts and Sangam literature. He gained control over the area of Northern Karnataka. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Varna system had completely developed during the time of Mauryas. There were four types of Varna i.e Brahman, Kshatriya, Vaishya, Shudra and their work was decided according to their Varna. Apart from these four Varnas, Kautilya in his Arthashastra talked about Varnashankaras such as Nishad, Magadh, Sut, Veg, Chandals, etc. Kautilya considered them to be Shudras. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Kautilya has not given any information about sati system. But Strabo mentioned that sati system was prevalent among the Kath tribes of Punjab. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

#### 24. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Maurya Empire: 1. The victory of Chandragupta Maurya over Southern India is mentioned in Ashoka‟a inscriptions and Jain texts but not in Sangam literature. 2. Apart from four Varnas, Kautilya in his Arthashastra talked about Varnashankaras such as Nishad. 3. Kautilya in his Arthashastra mentioned the practice of sati system.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

• d) None of the above

The victory of Chandragupta Maurya over Southern India is mentioned in Ashoka‟a inscriptions, Jain texts and Sangam literature. He gained control over the area of Northern Karnataka.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Varna system had completely developed during the time of Mauryas. There were four types of Varna i.e Brahman, Kshatriya, Vaishya, Shudra and their work was decided according to their Varna. Apart from these four Varnas, Kautilya in his Arthashastra talked about Varnashankaras such as Nishad, Magadh, Sut, Veg, Chandals, etc. Kautilya considered them to be Shudras.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Kautilya has not given any information about sati system. But Strabo mentioned that sati system was prevalent among the Kath tribes of Punjab.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

The victory of Chandragupta Maurya over Southern India is mentioned in Ashoka‟a inscriptions, Jain texts and Sangam literature. He gained control over the area of Northern Karnataka.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Kautilya has not given any information about sati system. But Strabo mentioned that sati system was prevalent among the Kath tribes of Punjab.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points With reference to the Mesolithic sites in India, consider the following pairs: (Mesolithic Sites)(Location) 1. KuchaiBihar 2. HatkhambaMaharashtra 3. TilwaraRajasthan 4. GhaghariaUttarakhand How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? a) Only one b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Answer: b Indian Mesolithic sites The earliest discovery of microliths and other Mesolithic tools were discovered in the rock-shelters of Mirzapur district of Uttar Pradesh. Major excavated sites in India include: o Tilwara, Bagor, Ganeshwar in Rajasthan Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched. o Langhnaj, Akhaj, Valasana, Hirpura, Amrapur, Devnimori, Dhekvadlo, o Tarsang in Gujarat o Patne, Pachad, Hatkhamba in Maharashtra Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched. o Morkhana, Lekhahia, Baghai Khor, Sarai Nahar Rai, Mahadaha, Damdama, o Chopani Mando, Baidha Putpurihwa in Uttar Pradesh o Pachmarhi, Adamgarh, Putli Karar, Bhimbetka, Baghor II, Baghor III, o Ghagharia in Madhya Pradesh Hence, pair 4 is incorrectly matched. o Paisra in Bihar o Kuchai in Odisha Hence, pair 1 is incorrectly matched. o Birbhanpur in West Bengal o Muchatla Chintamanu Gavi, Gauri Gundam in Andhra Pradesh o Sanganakallu in Karnataka o Tenmalai in Kerala. Incorrect Answer: b Indian Mesolithic sites The earliest discovery of microliths and other Mesolithic tools were discovered in the rock-shelters of Mirzapur district of Uttar Pradesh. Major excavated sites in India include: o Tilwara, Bagor, Ganeshwar in Rajasthan Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched. o Langhnaj, Akhaj, Valasana, Hirpura, Amrapur, Devnimori, Dhekvadlo, o Tarsang in Gujarat o Patne, Pachad, Hatkhamba in Maharashtra Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched. o Morkhana, Lekhahia, Baghai Khor, Sarai Nahar Rai, Mahadaha, Damdama, o Chopani Mando, Baidha Putpurihwa in Uttar Pradesh o Pachmarhi, Adamgarh, Putli Karar, Bhimbetka, Baghor II, Baghor III, o Ghagharia in Madhya Pradesh Hence, pair 4 is incorrectly matched. o Paisra in Bihar o Kuchai in Odisha Hence, pair 1 is incorrectly matched. o Birbhanpur in West Bengal o Muchatla Chintamanu Gavi, Gauri Gundam in Andhra Pradesh o Sanganakallu in Karnataka o Tenmalai in Kerala.

#### 25. Question

With reference to the Mesolithic sites in India, consider the following pairs: (Mesolithic Sites)(Location) 1. KuchaiBihar 2. HatkhambaMaharashtra 3. TilwaraRajasthan 4. GhaghariaUttarakhand

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Indian Mesolithic sites

The earliest discovery of microliths and other Mesolithic tools were discovered in the rock-shelters of Mirzapur district of Uttar Pradesh. Major excavated sites in India include: o Tilwara, Bagor, Ganeshwar in Rajasthan

Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.

o Langhnaj, Akhaj, Valasana, Hirpura, Amrapur, Devnimori, Dhekvadlo, o Tarsang in Gujarat o Patne, Pachad, Hatkhamba in Maharashtra

Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.

o Morkhana, Lekhahia, Baghai Khor, Sarai Nahar Rai, Mahadaha, Damdama, o Chopani Mando, Baidha Putpurihwa in Uttar Pradesh o Pachmarhi, Adamgarh, Putli Karar, Bhimbetka, Baghor II, Baghor III, o Ghagharia in Madhya Pradesh

Hence, pair 4 is incorrectly matched.

o Paisra in Bihar o Kuchai in Odisha

Hence, pair 1 is incorrectly matched.

o Birbhanpur in West Bengal o Muchatla Chintamanu Gavi, Gauri Gundam in Andhra Pradesh o Sanganakallu in Karnataka o Tenmalai in Kerala.

Indian Mesolithic sites

Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.

o Langhnaj, Akhaj, Valasana, Hirpura, Amrapur, Devnimori, Dhekvadlo, o Tarsang in Gujarat o Patne, Pachad, Hatkhamba in Maharashtra

Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.

Hence, pair 4 is incorrectly matched.

o Paisra in Bihar o Kuchai in Odisha

Hence, pair 1 is incorrectly matched.

o Birbhanpur in West Bengal o Muchatla Chintamanu Gavi, Gauri Gundam in Andhra Pradesh o Sanganakallu in Karnataka o Tenmalai in Kerala.

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points An innovative India will be inclusive as well as technologically advanced, improving the lives of all Indians. Innovation and R&D can mitigate increases in social inequality and relieve the pressures created by rapid urbanization. The growing divergence in productivity between agriculture and knowledge-intensive manufacturing and services threatens to increase income inequality. By encouraging India’s R&D labs and universities to focus on the needs of poor people and by improving the ability of informal firms to absorb knowledge, an innovation and research agenda can counter this effect. Inclusive innovation can lower the cost of goods and services and create income – earning opportunities for the poor people. Which among the following is the most logical and rational assumption that can be made from the above passage (a) Innovation and R&D is the only way to reduce rural to urban migration. (b) Every rapidly growing country needs to minimize the divergence between productivity in agriculture and other sectors. (c) Inclusive innovation and R&D can help create an egalitarian society. (d) Rapid urbanization takes place only when a country's economic growth is rapid. Correct Correct Answer: C Explanation: A is wrong because there are other reasons too for rural to urban migration. D is wrong because it is the extreme statement. Incorrect Correct Answer: C Explanation: A is wrong because there are other reasons too for rural to urban migration. D is wrong because it is the extreme statement.

#### 26. Question

An innovative India will be inclusive as well as technologically advanced, improving the lives of all Indians. Innovation and R&D can mitigate increases in social inequality and relieve the pressures created by rapid urbanization. The growing divergence in productivity between agriculture and knowledge-intensive manufacturing and services threatens to increase income inequality. By encouraging India’s R&D labs and universities to focus on the needs of poor people and by improving the ability of informal firms to absorb knowledge, an innovation and research agenda can counter this effect. Inclusive innovation can lower the cost of goods and services and create income – earning opportunities for the poor people.

Which among the following is the most logical and rational assumption that can be made from the above passage

• (a) Innovation and R&D is the only way to reduce rural to urban migration.

• (b) Every rapidly growing country needs to minimize the divergence between productivity in agriculture and other sectors.

• (c) Inclusive innovation and R&D can help create an egalitarian society.

• (d) Rapid urbanization takes place only when a country's economic growth is rapid.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

A is wrong because there are other reasons too for rural to urban migration.

D is wrong because it is the extreme statement.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

A is wrong because there are other reasons too for rural to urban migration.

D is wrong because it is the extreme statement.

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points An innovative India will be inclusive as well as technologically advanced, improving the lives of all Indians. Innovation and R&D can mitigate increases in social inequality and relieve the pressures created by rapid urbanization. The growing divergence in productivity between agriculture and knowledge-intensive manufacturing and services threatens to increase income inequality. By encouraging India’s R&D labs and universities to focus on the needs of poor people and by improving the ability of informal firms to absorb knowledge, an innovation and research agenda can counter this effect. Inclusive innovation can lower the cost of goods and services and create income – earning opportunities for the poor people. Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage? (a) We must create conditions for the faster growth of highly productive service jobs to ensure employment growth and inclusion. (b) We must shift the farm workers to the highly productive manufacturing and service sectors to ensure the economic growth and inclusion. (c) We must create conditions for the faster growth of productive jobs outside of agriculture even while improving the productivity of agriculture. (d) We must emphasize the cultivation of high-yielding hybrid varieties and genetically modified crops to increase the per capita income in agriculture. Correct Correct Answer: C Explanation: Author of the passage is trying to convey that we should reduce our dependence on agriculture and also increase the productivity of agriculture. Option C is the nearest answer to this. Incorrect Correct Answer: C Explanation: Author of the passage is trying to convey that we should reduce our dependence on agriculture and also increase the productivity of agriculture. Option C is the nearest answer to this.

#### 27. Question

Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?

• (a) We must create conditions for the faster growth of highly productive service jobs to ensure employment growth and inclusion.

• (b) We must shift the farm workers to the highly productive manufacturing and service sectors to ensure the economic growth and inclusion.

• (c) We must create conditions for the faster growth of productive jobs outside of agriculture even while improving the productivity of agriculture.

• (d) We must emphasize the cultivation of high-yielding hybrid varieties and genetically modified crops to increase the per capita income in agriculture.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Author of the passage is trying to convey that we should reduce our dependence on agriculture and also increase the productivity of agriculture.

Option C is the nearest answer to this.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Author of the passage is trying to convey that we should reduce our dependence on agriculture and also increase the productivity of agriculture.

Option C is the nearest answer to this.

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points How many times in 24 hours, are the hands of a clock in a straight line but opposite in direction? a) 20 b) 22 c) 24 d) 48 Correct Answer b) 22 The hands of a clock point in opposite directions (in the same straight line) 11 times in every 12 hours. (Because between 5 and 7 they point in opposite directions at 6 o’clock only). So, in a day, the hands point in the opposite directions 22 times. Incorrect Answer b) 22 The hands of a clock point in opposite directions (in the same straight line) 11 times in every 12 hours. (Because between 5 and 7 they point in opposite directions at 6 o’clock only). So, in a day, the hands point in the opposite directions 22 times.

#### 28. Question

How many times in 24 hours, are the hands of a clock in a straight line but opposite in direction?

Answer b) 22

The hands of a clock point in opposite directions (in the same straight line) 11 times in every 12 hours. (Because between 5 and 7 they point in opposite directions at 6 o’clock only). So, in a day, the hands point in the opposite directions 22 times.

Answer b) 22

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points The calendar for the year 2007 will be the same for the year? a) 2014 b) 2016 c) 2018 d) 2017 Correct Answer c) 2018 Explanation Count the number of odd days from the year 2007 onwards to get the sum equal to 0 odd day. Year : 2007 2008 2009 2010 2011 2012 2013 2014 2015 2016 2017 Odd day : 1 2 1 1 1 2 1 1 1 2 1 Sum = 14 odd days 0 odd days. Calendar for the year 2018 will be the same as for the year 2007. Incorrect Answer c) 2018 Explanation Count the number of odd days from the year 2007 onwards to get the sum equal to 0 odd day. Year : 2007 2008 2009 2010 2011 2012 2013 2014 2015 2016 2017 Odd day : 1 2 1 1 1 2 1 1 1 2 1 Sum = 14 odd days 0 odd days. Calendar for the year 2018 will be the same as for the year 2007.

#### 29. Question

The calendar for the year 2007 will be the same for the year?

Answer c) 2018

Explanation

Count the number of odd days from the year 2007 onwards to get the sum equal to 0 odd day.

Year : 2007 2008 2009 2010 2011 2012 2013 2014 2015 2016 2017

Odd day : 1 2 1 1 1 2 1 1 1 2 1

Sum = 14 odd days 0 odd days.

Calendar for the year 2018 will be the same as for the year 2007.

Answer c) 2018

Explanation

Count the number of odd days from the year 2007 onwards to get the sum equal to 0 odd day.

Year : 2007 2008 2009 2010 2011 2012 2013 2014 2015 2016 2017

Odd day : 1 2 1 1 1 2 1 1 1 2 1

Sum = 14 odd days 0 odd days.

Calendar for the year 2018 will be the same as for the year 2007.

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points Five persons viz. A, B, C, D and E have different weights. A is heavier than at least two persons. D is heavier than B. Only C and E are lighter than B. Who among them is the second heaviest? (a) A (b) D (c) B (d) Cannot be determined Correct Ans. (d) Cannot be determined Sol. A/D > D/A > B > C/E > E/C. Incorrect Ans. (d) Cannot be determined Sol. A/D > D/A > B > C/E > E/C.

#### 30. Question

Five persons viz. A, B, C, D and E have different weights. A is heavier than at least two persons. D is heavier than B. Only C and E are lighter than B. Who among them is the second heaviest?

• (d) Cannot be determined

Ans. (d) Cannot be determined

Sol. A/D > D/A > B > C/E > E/C.

Ans. (d) Cannot be determined

Sol. A/D > D/A > B > C/E > E/C.

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