DAY – 53 : Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2025 : ENVIRONMENT & ECOLOGY

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the ecological impacts of microplastic pollution in terrestrial ecosystems: Microplastics can alter soil bulk density and water holding capacity, potentially affecting plant growth. Earthworms readily ingest microplastics, leading to fragmentation into smaller nanoplastics within their digestive tracts, thereby increasing bioavailability. Certain soil fungi possess enzymatic capabilities to partially degrade specific types of microplastics like polyethylene terephthalate (PET). Microplastics act as vectors primarily for hydrophobic organic contaminants but rarely adsorb heavy metals due to their surface charge characteristics. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. Studies have shown that microplastics can affect soil physical properties like bulk density, porosity, and water retention, which in turn can influence plant germination and growth, although the effects can vary depending on plastic type, size, concentration, and soil type. Statement 2 is correct. Earthworms are known to ingest microplastics present in the soil. Physical and chemical processes within their gut can lead to the fragmentation of these microplastics into smaller particles, including nanoplastics, potentially increasing their mobility and bioavailability in the ecosystem. Statement 3 is correct. Research has identified certain species of fungi (and bacteria) that possess enzymes capable of partially degrading some types of plastics, including PET, offering potential avenues for bioremediation, although the process is generally slow in natural environments. Statement 4 is incorrect. Microplastics can act as vectors for a range of contaminants. While they readily adsorb hydrophobic organic pollutants (like pesticides, PAHs), their surface properties (often modified by environmental weathering) can also facilitate the adsorption of heavy metals, acting as transport vehicles for these inorganic contaminants as well. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. Studies have shown that microplastics can affect soil physical properties like bulk density, porosity, and water retention, which in turn can influence plant germination and growth, although the effects can vary depending on plastic type, size, concentration, and soil type. Statement 2 is correct. Earthworms are known to ingest microplastics present in the soil. Physical and chemical processes within their gut can lead to the fragmentation of these microplastics into smaller particles, including nanoplastics, potentially increasing their mobility and bioavailability in the ecosystem. Statement 3 is correct. Research has identified certain species of fungi (and bacteria) that possess enzymes capable of partially degrading some types of plastics, including PET, offering potential avenues for bioremediation, although the process is generally slow in natural environments. Statement 4 is incorrect. Microplastics can act as vectors for a range of contaminants. While they readily adsorb hydrophobic organic pollutants (like pesticides, PAHs), their surface properties (often modified by environmental weathering) can also facilitate the adsorption of heavy metals, acting as transport vehicles for these inorganic contaminants as well.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the ecological impacts of microplastic pollution in terrestrial ecosystems:

• Microplastics can alter soil bulk density and water holding capacity, potentially affecting plant growth.

• Earthworms readily ingest microplastics, leading to fragmentation into smaller nanoplastics within their digestive tracts, thereby increasing bioavailability.

• Certain soil fungi possess enzymatic capabilities to partially degrade specific types of microplastics like polyethylene terephthalate (PET).

• Microplastics act as vectors primarily for hydrophobic organic contaminants but rarely adsorb heavy metals due to their surface charge characteristics.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct. Studies have shown that microplastics can affect soil physical properties like bulk density, porosity, and water retention, which in turn can influence plant germination and growth, although the effects can vary depending on plastic type, size, concentration, and soil type.

• Statement 2 is correct. Earthworms are known to ingest microplastics present in the soil. Physical and chemical processes within their gut can lead to the fragmentation of these microplastics into smaller particles, including nanoplastics, potentially increasing their mobility and bioavailability in the ecosystem.

• Statement 3 is correct. Research has identified certain species of fungi (and bacteria) that possess enzymes capable of partially degrading some types of plastics, including PET, offering potential avenues for bioremediation, although the process is generally slow in natural environments.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. Microplastics can act as vectors for a range of contaminants. While they readily adsorb hydrophobic organic pollutants (like pesticides, PAHs), their surface properties (often modified by environmental weathering) can also facilitate the adsorption of heavy metals, acting as transport vehicles for these inorganic contaminants as well.

Solution: C

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs regarding methods discussed for Marine Carbon Dioxide Removal (mCDR): Ocean Alkalinity Enhancement : Addition of alkaline minerals like olivine or lime to seawater to increase its capacity to absorb atmospheric CO2. Artificial Upwelling/Downwelling : Pumping nutrient-rich deep water to the surface to stimulate phytoplankton growth (carbon sink) or pumping surface water down. Seaweed Cultivation : Large-scale farming of macroalgae which absorb CO2 during growth, followed by sinking the biomass to the deep ocean. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C Pair 1 is correctly matched. Ocean Alkalinity Enhancement (OAE) aims to increase the ocean’s natural ability to store carbon by adding alkaline substances, counteracting ocean acidification and enhancing CO2 uptake. Pair 2 is correctly matched. Artificial upwelling aims to enhance biological carbon sequestration by stimulating phytoplankton blooms. Artificial downwelling aims to transport carbon-rich surface water to the deep ocean. Both manipulate ocean mixing for CDR purposes. Pair 3 is correctly matched. Large-scale cultivation of seaweed (macroalgae) absorbs significant amounts of CO2. If this biomass is subsequently sunk into the deep ocean where decomposition is slow, the carbon can be sequestered long-term. Incorrect Solution: C Pair 1 is correctly matched. Ocean Alkalinity Enhancement (OAE) aims to increase the ocean’s natural ability to store carbon by adding alkaline substances, counteracting ocean acidification and enhancing CO2 uptake. Pair 2 is correctly matched. Artificial upwelling aims to enhance biological carbon sequestration by stimulating phytoplankton blooms. Artificial downwelling aims to transport carbon-rich surface water to the deep ocean. Both manipulate ocean mixing for CDR purposes. Pair 3 is correctly matched. Large-scale cultivation of seaweed (macroalgae) absorbs significant amounts of CO2. If this biomass is subsequently sunk into the deep ocean where decomposition is slow, the carbon can be sequestered long-term.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following pairs regarding methods discussed for Marine Carbon Dioxide Removal (mCDR):

• Ocean Alkalinity Enhancement : Addition of alkaline minerals like olivine or lime to seawater to increase its capacity to absorb atmospheric CO2.

• Artificial Upwelling/Downwelling : Pumping nutrient-rich deep water to the surface to stimulate phytoplankton growth (carbon sink) or pumping surface water down.

• Seaweed Cultivation : Large-scale farming of macroalgae which absorb CO2 during growth, followed by sinking the biomass to the deep ocean.

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

• Pair 1 is correctly matched. Ocean Alkalinity Enhancement (OAE) aims to increase the ocean’s natural ability to store carbon by adding alkaline substances, counteracting ocean acidification and enhancing CO2 uptake. Pair 2 is correctly matched. Artificial upwelling aims to enhance biological carbon sequestration by stimulating phytoplankton blooms. Artificial downwelling aims to transport carbon-rich surface water to the deep ocean. Both manipulate ocean mixing for CDR purposes. Pair 3 is correctly matched. Large-scale cultivation of seaweed (macroalgae) absorbs significant amounts of CO2. If this biomass is subsequently sunk into the deep ocean where decomposition is slow, the carbon can be sequestered long-term.

• Pair 2 is correctly matched. Artificial upwelling aims to enhance biological carbon sequestration by stimulating phytoplankton blooms. Artificial downwelling aims to transport carbon-rich surface water to the deep ocean. Both manipulate ocean mixing for CDR purposes.

• Pair 3 is correctly matched. Large-scale cultivation of seaweed (macroalgae) absorbs significant amounts of CO2. If this biomass is subsequently sunk into the deep ocean where decomposition is slow, the carbon can be sequestered long-term.

Solution: C

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points With reference to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, as amended, consider the following statements: The Act establishes a National Board for Wildlife chaired by the Prime Minister, whose recommendations are mandatory for any diversion of land from a National Park or Sanctuary. Schedule I animals are provided absolute protection, and hunting them is prohibited except under specific conditions like threat to human life, as permitted by the Chief Wildlife Warden. The concept of ‘Community Reserves’ allows for conservation on private or community lands, but restricts traditional resource usage rights of the local community. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) is indeed chaired by the Prime Minister. However, while its recommendations are crucial and generally adhered to for diversion of land from Protected Areas (PAs), the final decision rests with the government/Supreme Court directives often play a role. The Act doesn’t state its recommendations are absolutely mandatory in all circumstances overriding all other legal provisions or judicial oversight, though they carry significant weight. Also, the Standing Committee of the NBWL, chaired by the Environment Minister, often handles clearance proposals. Statement 2 is correct. Animals listed in Schedule I (and Part II of Schedule II) are accorded the highest degree of protection. Hunting of these animals is prohibited under Section 9. Exceptions under Section 11(1)(a) allow the Chief Wildlife Warden (CWLW) to permit hunting if an animal becomes dangerous to human life or is disabled/diseased beyond recovery. Statement 3 is incorrect. Community Reserves are declared under Section 36C of the WPA on private or community lands (notified by the State Government if communities volunteer). While conservation is the goal, the Act aims to achieve it with the participation of the community. Section 36D provides for a Community Reserve Management Committee, and the rules aim to ensure that traditional rights and livelihoods are not unduly affected, allowing for sustainable resource use compatible with conservation goals, unlike the stricter regulations in National Parks or Sanctuaries. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) is indeed chaired by the Prime Minister. However, while its recommendations are crucial and generally adhered to for diversion of land from Protected Areas (PAs), the final decision rests with the government/Supreme Court directives often play a role. The Act doesn’t state its recommendations are absolutely mandatory in all circumstances overriding all other legal provisions or judicial oversight, though they carry significant weight. Also, the Standing Committee of the NBWL, chaired by the Environment Minister, often handles clearance proposals. Statement 2 is correct. Animals listed in Schedule I (and Part II of Schedule II) are accorded the highest degree of protection. Hunting of these animals is prohibited under Section 9. Exceptions under Section 11(1)(a) allow the Chief Wildlife Warden (CWLW) to permit hunting if an animal becomes dangerous to human life or is disabled/diseased beyond recovery. Statement 3 is incorrect. Community Reserves are declared under Section 36C of the WPA on private or community lands (notified by the State Government if communities volunteer). While conservation is the goal, the Act aims to achieve it with the participation of the community. Section 36D provides for a Community Reserve Management Committee, and the rules aim to ensure that traditional rights and livelihoods are not unduly affected, allowing for sustainable resource use compatible with conservation goals, unlike the stricter regulations in National Parks or Sanctuaries.

#### 3. Question

With reference to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, as amended, consider the following statements:

• The Act establishes a National Board for Wildlife chaired by the Prime Minister, whose recommendations are mandatory for any diversion of land from a National Park or Sanctuary.

• Schedule I animals are provided absolute protection, and hunting them is prohibited except under specific conditions like threat to human life, as permitted by the Chief Wildlife Warden.

• The concept of ‘Community Reserves’ allows for conservation on private or community lands, but restricts traditional resource usage rights of the local community.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) is indeed chaired by the Prime Minister. However, while its recommendations are crucial and generally adhered to for diversion of land from Protected Areas (PAs), the final decision rests with the government/Supreme Court directives often play a role. The Act doesn’t state its recommendations are absolutely mandatory in all circumstances overriding all other legal provisions or judicial oversight, though they carry significant weight. Also, the Standing Committee of the NBWL, chaired by the Environment Minister, often handles clearance proposals. Statement 2 is correct. Animals listed in Schedule I (and Part II of Schedule II) are accorded the highest degree of protection. Hunting of these animals is prohibited under Section 9. Exceptions under Section 11(1)(a) allow the Chief Wildlife Warden (CWLW) to permit hunting if an animal becomes dangerous to human life or is disabled/diseased beyond recovery. Statement 3 is incorrect. Community Reserves are declared under Section 36C of the WPA on private or community lands (notified by the State Government if communities volunteer). While conservation is the goal, the Act aims to achieve it with the participation of the community. Section 36D provides for a Community Reserve Management Committee, and the rules aim to ensure that traditional rights and livelihoods are not unduly affected, allowing for sustainable resource use compatible with conservation goals, unlike the stricter regulations in National Parks or Sanctuaries.

• Statement 2 is correct. Animals listed in Schedule I (and Part II of Schedule II) are accorded the highest degree of protection. Hunting of these animals is prohibited under Section 9. Exceptions under Section 11(1)(a) allow the Chief Wildlife Warden (CWLW) to permit hunting if an animal becomes dangerous to human life or is disabled/diseased beyond recovery.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. Community Reserves are declared under Section 36C of the WPA on private or community lands (notified by the State Government if communities volunteer). While conservation is the goal, the Act aims to achieve it with the participation of the community. Section 36D provides for a Community Reserve Management Committee, and the rules aim to ensure that traditional rights and livelihoods are not unduly affected, allowing for sustainable resource use compatible with conservation goals, unlike the stricter regulations in National Parks or Sanctuaries.

Solution: B

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Consider the following ecological concepts: Ecological Footprint : A measure of human demand on Earth’s ecosystems, comparing human demand against the Earth’s ecological capacity to regenerate. Ecocline : A gradual, continuous change in species composition or community structure along an environmental gradient. Edge Effect : The tendency for increased variety and density of species at the ecotone or boundary between two different habitat types. Ecological Niche : The functional role and position of a species within an ecosystem, encompassing its interactions with biotic and abiotic factors. How many of the above definitions are correctly stated? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is correct. Ecological Footprint is a standard metric used in sustainability studies to quantify human impact relative to biocapacity. Statement 2 is correct. Ecocline describes gradual transitions in ecological communities along environmental gradients (e.g., altitude, moisture), distinct from the sharper transition zone of an ecotone. Statement 3 is correct. Edge effect refers to the distinct ecological conditions and often higher biodiversity found at the boundary (ecotone) between adjacent ecosystems. Statement 4 is correct. Ecological Niche defines the specific role (‘profession’) of a species in its environment, including its resource use and interactions. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is correct. Ecological Footprint is a standard metric used in sustainability studies to quantify human impact relative to biocapacity. Statement 2 is correct. Ecocline describes gradual transitions in ecological communities along environmental gradients (e.g., altitude, moisture), distinct from the sharper transition zone of an ecotone. Statement 3 is correct. Edge effect refers to the distinct ecological conditions and often higher biodiversity found at the boundary (ecotone) between adjacent ecosystems. Statement 4 is correct. Ecological Niche defines the specific role (‘profession’) of a species in its environment, including its resource use and interactions.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following ecological concepts:

• Ecological Footprint : A measure of human demand on Earth’s ecosystems, comparing human demand against the Earth’s ecological capacity to regenerate.

• Ecocline : A gradual, continuous change in species composition or community structure along an environmental gradient.

• Edge Effect : The tendency for increased variety and density of species at the ecotone or boundary between two different habitat types.

• Ecological Niche : The functional role and position of a species within an ecosystem, encompassing its interactions with biotic and abiotic factors.

How many of the above definitions are correctly stated?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is correct. Ecological Footprint is a standard metric used in sustainability studies to quantify human impact relative to biocapacity.

• Statement 2 is correct. Ecocline describes gradual transitions in ecological communities along environmental gradients (e.g., altitude, moisture), distinct from the sharper transition zone of an ecotone.

• Statement 3 is correct. Edge effect refers to the distinct ecological conditions and often higher biodiversity found at the boundary (ecotone) between adjacent ecosystems.

Statement 4 is correct. Ecological Niche defines the specific role (‘profession’) of a species in its environment, including its resource use and interactions.

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is correct. Ecological Footprint is a standard metric used in sustainability studies to quantify human impact relative to biocapacity.

• Statement 3 is correct. Edge effect refers to the distinct ecological conditions and often higher biodiversity found at the boundary (ecotone) between adjacent ecosystems.

Statement 4 is correct. Ecological Niche defines the specific role (‘profession’) of a species in its environment, including its resource use and interactions.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Bioaccumulation refers to the gradual accumulation of substances, such as pesticides, or other chemicals in an organism, occurring when the organism absorbs the substance at a rate faster than that at which the substance is lost by catabolism and excretion. Statement-II: Biomagnification is the process whereby certain substances become more concentrated in organisms at successively higher levels of the food chain. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I. (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I. (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect. (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct. Correct Solution: B Statement-I is correct. It accurately defines bioaccumulation as the buildup of a substance within a single organism over time due to intake exceeding elimination. Statement-II is correct. It accurately defines biomagnification (or bioamplification) as the increasing concentration of a substance in organisms at successively higher trophic levels in a food chain. Relationship: While bioaccumulation within individual organisms is a prerequisite for biomagnification to occur up the food chain, Statement II (biomagnification) is a distinct process operating at the food chain level, not merely an explanation of Statement I (bioaccumulation within an individual). Therefore, both statements are correct, but II does not explain I; rather, I enables II. Incorrect Solution: B Statement-I is correct. It accurately defines bioaccumulation as the buildup of a substance within a single organism over time due to intake exceeding elimination. Statement-II is correct. It accurately defines biomagnification (or bioamplification) as the increasing concentration of a substance in organisms at successively higher trophic levels in a food chain. Relationship: While bioaccumulation within individual organisms is a prerequisite for biomagnification to occur up the food chain, Statement II (biomagnification) is a distinct process operating at the food chain level, not merely an explanation of Statement I (bioaccumulation within an individual). Therefore, both statements are correct, but II does not explain I; rather, I enables II.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Bioaccumulation refers to the gradual accumulation of substances, such as pesticides, or other chemicals in an organism, occurring when the organism absorbs the substance at a rate faster than that at which the substance is lost by catabolism and excretion.

Statement-II: Biomagnification is the process whereby certain substances become more concentrated in organisms at successively higher levels of the food chain.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

Solution: B

• Statement-I is correct. It accurately defines bioaccumulation as the buildup of a substance within a single organism over time due to intake exceeding elimination.

• Statement-II is correct. It accurately defines biomagnification (or bioamplification) as the increasing concentration of a substance in organisms at successively higher trophic levels in a food chain.

• Relationship: While bioaccumulation within individual organisms is a prerequisite for biomagnification to occur up the food chain, Statement II (biomagnification) is a distinct process operating at the food chain level, not merely an explanation of Statement I (bioaccumulation within an individual). Therefore, both statements are correct, but II does not explain I; rather, I enables II.

Solution: B

• Statement-I is correct. It accurately defines bioaccumulation as the buildup of a substance within a single organism over time due to intake exceeding elimination.

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points With reference to the Biodiversity Act, 2002, consider the following statements: The Act establishes a three-tiered structure comprising the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA), State Biodiversity Boards (SBBs), and Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) at the local level. Access to biological resources and associated traditional knowledge for commercial utilization requires prior approval primarily from the BMC concerned. The Act mandates that benefits arising from the use of biological resources must be shared equitably with the local communities responsible for conserving the resources, primarily through mechanisms determined by the NBA. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The Biodiversity Act, 2002, indeed sets up a decentralized, three-tiered structure: the NBA at the national level, SBBs at the state level, and BMCs at the local body level. Statement 2 is incorrect. While BMCs play a crucial role in documenting biodiversity and knowledge, and their consultation is often required, the primary approval for accessing biological resources for commercial utilization or research by non-Indian entities or for transferring research results typically comes from the NBA. For Indian entities, approval often comes from the SBB. BMCs primarily regulate access for local use and have a role in benefit sharing decisions. The primary approval authority depends on the applicant’s status and purpose. Statement 3 is correct. The Act enshrines the principle of Access and Benefit Sharing (ABS). It mandates that benefits derived from accessing biological resources and associated knowledge must be shared in a fair and equitable manner with the benefit claimers, often local communities involved in conservation, through mutually agreed terms determined as per the guidelines set by the NBA. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The Biodiversity Act, 2002, indeed sets up a decentralized, three-tiered structure: the NBA at the national level, SBBs at the state level, and BMCs at the local body level. Statement 2 is incorrect. While BMCs play a crucial role in documenting biodiversity and knowledge, and their consultation is often required, the primary approval for accessing biological resources for commercial utilization or research by non-Indian entities or for transferring research results typically comes from the NBA. For Indian entities, approval often comes from the SBB. BMCs primarily regulate access for local use and have a role in benefit sharing decisions. The primary approval authority depends on the applicant’s status and purpose. Statement 3 is correct. The Act enshrines the principle of Access and Benefit Sharing (ABS). It mandates that benefits derived from accessing biological resources and associated knowledge must be shared in a fair and equitable manner with the benefit claimers, often local communities involved in conservation, through mutually agreed terms determined as per the guidelines set by the NBA.

#### 6. Question

With reference to the Biodiversity Act, 2002, consider the following statements:

• The Act establishes a three-tiered structure comprising the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA), State Biodiversity Boards (SBBs), and Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) at the local level.

• Access to biological resources and associated traditional knowledge for commercial utilization requires prior approval primarily from the BMC concerned.

• The Act mandates that benefits arising from the use of biological resources must be shared equitably with the local communities responsible for conserving the resources, primarily through mechanisms determined by the NBA.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The Biodiversity Act, 2002, indeed sets up a decentralized, three-tiered structure: the NBA at the national level, SBBs at the state level, and BMCs at the local body level.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. While BMCs play a crucial role in documenting biodiversity and knowledge, and their consultation is often required, the primary approval for accessing biological resources for commercial utilization or research by non-Indian entities or for transferring research results typically comes from the NBA. For Indian entities, approval often comes from the SBB. BMCs primarily regulate access for local use and have a role in benefit sharing decisions. The primary approval authority depends on the applicant’s status and purpose.

• Statement 3 is correct. The Act enshrines the principle of Access and Benefit Sharing (ABS). It mandates that benefits derived from accessing biological resources and associated knowledge must be shared in a fair and equitable manner with the benefit claimers, often local communities involved in conservation, through mutually agreed terms determined as per the guidelines set by the NBA.

Solution: B

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Which of the following activities are explicitly regulated or require clearance under the Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) Notification, 2019 Setting up of non-polluting industries in the notified industrial estates within CRZ-II areas. Construction of dwelling units for traditional coastal communities like fishermen within CRZ-III areas. Exploration and extraction of oil and natural gas. Development of Foreshore facilities like ports, harbours, and jetties. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: D Activity 1 is regulated. Setting up non-polluting industries is generally permissible in notified industrial areas within CRZ-II (developed areas up to the shoreline), subject to clearances and regulations. Activity 2 is regulated. Construction of dwelling units for traditional coastal communities is permissible in CRZ-III (relatively undisturbed rural areas), subject to specific norms regarding location (landward side of hazard line, etc.) and size. Activity 3 is regulated. Exploration and extraction of oil and natural gas are listed as regulated activities requiring specific environmental safeguards and clearances under the notification. Activity 4 is regulated. Development of foreshore facilities like ports, harbours, jetties, etc., are permissible activities, often requiring environmental impact assessments and specific clearances due to their potential impact on coastal processes and ecology. Therefore, all four listed activities fall under the regulatory purview of the CRZ Notification, 2019. Incorrect Solution: D Activity 1 is regulated. Setting up non-polluting industries is generally permissible in notified industrial areas within CRZ-II (developed areas up to the shoreline), subject to clearances and regulations. Activity 2 is regulated. Construction of dwelling units for traditional coastal communities is permissible in CRZ-III (relatively undisturbed rural areas), subject to specific norms regarding location (landward side of hazard line, etc.) and size. Activity 3 is regulated. Exploration and extraction of oil and natural gas are listed as regulated activities requiring specific environmental safeguards and clearances under the notification. Activity 4 is regulated. Development of foreshore facilities like ports, harbours, jetties, etc., are permissible activities, often requiring environmental impact assessments and specific clearances due to their potential impact on coastal processes and ecology. Therefore, all four listed activities fall under the regulatory purview of the CRZ Notification, 2019.

#### 7. Question

Which of the following activities are explicitly regulated or require clearance under the Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) Notification, 2019

• Setting up of non-polluting industries in the notified industrial estates within CRZ-II areas.

• Construction of dwelling units for traditional coastal communities like fishermen within CRZ-III areas.

• Exploration and extraction of oil and natural gas.

• Development of Foreshore facilities like ports, harbours, and jetties.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1, 2 and 4 only

• (b) 3 and 4 only

• (c) 1, 3 and 4 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: D

• Activity 1 is regulated. Setting up non-polluting industries is generally permissible in notified industrial areas within CRZ-II (developed areas up to the shoreline), subject to clearances and regulations. Activity 2 is regulated. Construction of dwelling units for traditional coastal communities is permissible in CRZ-III (relatively undisturbed rural areas), subject to specific norms regarding location (landward side of hazard line, etc.) and size. Activity 3 is regulated. Exploration and extraction of oil and natural gas are listed as regulated activities requiring specific environmental safeguards and clearances under the notification. Activity 4 is regulated. Development of foreshore facilities like ports, harbours, jetties, etc., are permissible activities, often requiring environmental impact assessments and specific clearances due to their potential impact on coastal processes and ecology. Therefore, all four listed activities fall under the regulatory purview of the CRZ Notification, 2019.

• Activity 2 is regulated. Construction of dwelling units for traditional coastal communities is permissible in CRZ-III (relatively undisturbed rural areas), subject to specific norms regarding location (landward side of hazard line, etc.) and size.

• Activity 3 is regulated. Exploration and extraction of oil and natural gas are listed as regulated activities requiring specific environmental safeguards and clearances under the notification.

• Activity 4 is regulated. Development of foreshore facilities like ports, harbours, jetties, etc., are permissible activities, often requiring environmental impact assessments and specific clearances due to their potential impact on coastal processes and ecology.

• Therefore, all four listed activities fall under the regulatory purview of the CRZ Notification, 2019.

Solution: D

• Therefore, all four listed activities fall under the regulatory purview of the CRZ Notification, 2019.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Invasive Alien Species (IAS) in India: Lantana camara is considered one of the most widespread terrestrial invasive plants, negatively impacting native biodiversity and forest regeneration. The introduction of African Catfish (Clarias gariepinus) has led to a decline in native fish populations in many Indian water bodies. The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, provides a comprehensive framework specifically for the management and control of invasive alien species across all ecosystems. ‘Invasive Species Specialist Group’ (ISSG), which maintains the Global Invasive Species Database, operates under the aegis of the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. Lantana camara is widely recognized as one of India’s most problematic invasive weeds, aggressively colonizing diverse habitats and suppressing native flora. Statement 2 is correct. The introduction of the predatory and highly adaptable African Catfish (Clarias gariepinus) is well-documented to have caused significant declines in indigenous fish species in various rivers and wetlands across India due to predation and competition. Statement 3 is incorrect. While the WPA, 1972, focuses on protecting native wildlife, it does not have a dedicated, comprehensive framework specifically addressing the control and management of Invasive Alien Species (IAS). Management of IAS often falls under different sectoral laws (agriculture, fisheries, environment) or specific state-level initiatives, lacking a single unified national legal framework for IAS across all taxa and ecosystems. The recent amendments might include enabling provisions, but a comprehensive framework solely dedicated to IAS management isn’t its primary structure. Statement 4 is correct. The Invasive Species Specialist Group (ISSG) is a global network of scientific and policy experts on invasive species, organized under the Species Survival Commission (SSC) of the IUCN. It manages the Global Invasive Species Database (GISD). Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. Lantana camara is widely recognized as one of India’s most problematic invasive weeds, aggressively colonizing diverse habitats and suppressing native flora. Statement 2 is correct. The introduction of the predatory and highly adaptable African Catfish (Clarias gariepinus) is well-documented to have caused significant declines in indigenous fish species in various rivers and wetlands across India due to predation and competition. Statement 3 is incorrect. While the WPA, 1972, focuses on protecting native wildlife, it does not have a dedicated, comprehensive framework specifically addressing the control and management of Invasive Alien Species (IAS). Management of IAS often falls under different sectoral laws (agriculture, fisheries, environment) or specific state-level initiatives, lacking a single unified national legal framework for IAS across all taxa and ecosystems. The recent amendments might include enabling provisions, but a comprehensive framework solely dedicated to IAS management isn’t its primary structure. Statement 4 is correct. The Invasive Species Specialist Group (ISSG) is a global network of scientific and policy experts on invasive species, organized under the Species Survival Commission (SSC) of the IUCN. It manages the Global Invasive Species Database (GISD).

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Invasive Alien Species (IAS) in India:

• Lantana camara is considered one of the most widespread terrestrial invasive plants, negatively impacting native biodiversity and forest regeneration.

• The introduction of African Catfish (Clarias gariepinus) has led to a decline in native fish populations in many Indian water bodies.

• The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, provides a comprehensive framework specifically for the management and control of invasive alien species across all ecosystems.

• ‘Invasive Species Specialist Group’ (ISSG), which maintains the Global Invasive Species Database, operates under the aegis of the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct. Lantana camara is widely recognized as one of India’s most problematic invasive weeds, aggressively colonizing diverse habitats and suppressing native flora. Statement 2 is correct. The introduction of the predatory and highly adaptable African Catfish (Clarias gariepinus) is well-documented to have caused significant declines in indigenous fish species in various rivers and wetlands across India due to predation and competition. Statement 3 is incorrect. While the WPA, 1972, focuses on protecting native wildlife, it does not have a dedicated, comprehensive framework specifically addressing the control and management of Invasive Alien Species (IAS). Management of IAS often falls under different sectoral laws (agriculture, fisheries, environment) or specific state-level initiatives, lacking a single unified national legal framework for IAS across all taxa and ecosystems. The recent amendments might include enabling provisions, but a comprehensive framework solely dedicated to IAS management isn’t its primary structure. Statement 4 is correct. The Invasive Species Specialist Group (ISSG) is a global network of scientific and policy experts on invasive species, organized under the Species Survival Commission (SSC) of the IUCN. It manages the Global Invasive Species Database (GISD).

• Statement 1 is correct. Lantana camara is widely recognized as one of India’s most problematic invasive weeds, aggressively colonizing diverse habitats and suppressing native flora.

• Statement 2 is correct. The introduction of the predatory and highly adaptable African Catfish (Clarias gariepinus) is well-documented to have caused significant declines in indigenous fish species in various rivers and wetlands across India due to predation and competition.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. While the WPA, 1972, focuses on protecting native wildlife, it does not have a dedicated, comprehensive framework specifically addressing the control and management of Invasive Alien Species (IAS). Management of IAS often falls under different sectoral laws (agriculture, fisheries, environment) or specific state-level initiatives, lacking a single unified national legal framework for IAS across all taxa and ecosystems. The recent amendments might include enabling provisions, but a comprehensive framework solely dedicated to IAS management isn’t its primary structure.

• Statement 4 is correct. The Invasive Species Specialist Group (ISSG) is a global network of scientific and policy experts on invasive species, organized under the Species Survival Commission (SSC) of the IUCN. It manages the Global Invasive Species Database (GISD).

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct. Lantana camara is widely recognized as one of India’s most problematic invasive weeds, aggressively colonizing diverse habitats and suppressing native flora.

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol aims to phase down the production and consumption of Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs). Statement-II: HFCs were introduced as alternatives to Ozone Depleting Substances (ODS) but are potent greenhouse gases contributing significantly to global warming. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I. (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I. (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect. (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct. Correct Solution: A Statement-I is correct. The Kigali Amendment, adopted in 2016, legally binds parties to the Montreal Protocol to gradually reduce the production and consumption of HFCs. Statement-II is correct. HFCs were widely adopted as replacements for ODS like Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and Hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs) because they do not deplete the ozone layer. However, they possess high Global Warming Potentials (GWPs), making them significant contributors to climate change. Relationship: Statement II provides the rationale why the phase-down of HFCs under the Kigali Amendment (Statement I) became necessary. The fact that HFCs, despite being ozone-friendly alternatives, are potent GHGs is the direct reason for their inclusion under the Montreal Protocol framework via the Kigali Amendment. Thus, Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I. Incorrect Solution: A Statement-I is correct. The Kigali Amendment, adopted in 2016, legally binds parties to the Montreal Protocol to gradually reduce the production and consumption of HFCs. Statement-II is correct. HFCs were widely adopted as replacements for ODS like Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and Hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs) because they do not deplete the ozone layer. However, they possess high Global Warming Potentials (GWPs), making them significant contributors to climate change. Relationship: Statement II provides the rationale why the phase-down of HFCs under the Kigali Amendment (Statement I) became necessary. The fact that HFCs, despite being ozone-friendly alternatives, are potent GHGs is the direct reason for their inclusion under the Montreal Protocol framework via the Kigali Amendment. Thus, Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol aims to phase down the production and consumption of Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs).

Statement-II: HFCs were introduced as alternatives to Ozone Depleting Substances (ODS) but are potent greenhouse gases contributing significantly to global warming.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

Solution: A

• Statement-I is correct. The Kigali Amendment, adopted in 2016, legally binds parties to the Montreal Protocol to gradually reduce the production and consumption of HFCs.

• Statement-II is correct. HFCs were widely adopted as replacements for ODS like Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and Hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs) because they do not deplete the ozone layer. However, they possess high Global Warming Potentials (GWPs), making them significant contributors to climate change.

Relationship: Statement II provides the rationale why the phase-down of HFCs under the Kigali Amendment (Statement I) became necessary. The fact that HFCs, despite being ozone-friendly alternatives, are potent GHGs is the direct reason for their inclusion under the Montreal Protocol framework via the Kigali Amendment. Thus, Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.

Solution: A

• Statement-I is correct. The Kigali Amendment, adopted in 2016, legally binds parties to the Montreal Protocol to gradually reduce the production and consumption of HFCs.

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Consider the following impacts associated with ocean acidification: Reduced availability of carbonate ions (CO32−) makes it difficult for calcifying organisms like corals, shellfish, and some plankton to build their shells and skeletons. Increased acidity can interfere with the olfactory senses (sense of smell) of some fish species, affecting their ability to detect predators or find food. Ocean acidification enhances the ocean’s capacity to absorb atmospheric CO2, acting as a negative feedback loop to climate change. Lower pH levels can directly increase the dissolution rates of existing calcium carbonate structures. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. As the ocean absorbs more CO2, it forms carbonic acid, which releases hydrogen ions (H+). These ions react with carbonate ions (CO32−), reducing their availability. Calcifying organisms need carbonate ions to form calcium carbonate (CaCO3) for their shells and skeletons. Statement 2 is correct. Research indicates that changes in seawater chemistry due to acidification can impair the olfactory systems of certain fish, affecting crucial behaviors like predator avoidance, homing, and foraging. Statement 3 is incorrect. Ocean acidification is a direct consequence of the ocean absorbing excess atmospheric CO2. While the ocean is a major carbon sink, acidification itself does not enhance its capacity to absorb more CO2 in a way that creates a negative feedback loop strong enough to counteract the problem; rather, it signifies the system is being overwhelmed. Continued absorption leads to further acidification. Statement 4 is correct. Increased acidity (lower pH) makes seawater more corrosive to calcium carbonate, leading to increased dissolution rates of existing shells, skeletons, and coral reefs. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. As the ocean absorbs more CO2, it forms carbonic acid, which releases hydrogen ions (H+). These ions react with carbonate ions (CO32−), reducing their availability. Calcifying organisms need carbonate ions to form calcium carbonate (CaCO3) for their shells and skeletons. Statement 2 is correct. Research indicates that changes in seawater chemistry due to acidification can impair the olfactory systems of certain fish, affecting crucial behaviors like predator avoidance, homing, and foraging. Statement 3 is incorrect. Ocean acidification is a direct consequence of the ocean absorbing excess atmospheric CO2. While the ocean is a major carbon sink, acidification itself does not enhance its capacity to absorb more CO2 in a way that creates a negative feedback loop strong enough to counteract the problem; rather, it signifies the system is being overwhelmed. Continued absorption leads to further acidification. Statement 4 is correct. Increased acidity (lower pH) makes seawater more corrosive to calcium carbonate, leading to increased dissolution rates of existing shells, skeletons, and coral reefs.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following impacts associated with ocean acidification:

• Reduced availability of carbonate ions (CO32−) makes it difficult for calcifying organisms like corals, shellfish, and some plankton to build their shells and skeletons.

• Increased acidity can interfere with the olfactory senses (sense of smell) of some fish species, affecting their ability to detect predators or find food.

• Ocean acidification enhances the ocean’s capacity to absorb atmospheric CO2, acting as a negative feedback loop to climate change.

• Lower pH levels can directly increase the dissolution rates of existing calcium carbonate structures.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct. As the ocean absorbs more CO2, it forms carbonic acid, which releases hydrogen ions (H+). These ions react with carbonate ions (CO32−), reducing their availability. Calcifying organisms need carbonate ions to form calcium carbonate (CaCO3) for their shells and skeletons.

• Statement 2 is correct. Research indicates that changes in seawater chemistry due to acidification can impair the olfactory systems of certain fish, affecting crucial behaviors like predator avoidance, homing, and foraging.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. Ocean acidification is a direct consequence of the ocean absorbing excess atmospheric CO2. While the ocean is a major carbon sink, acidification itself does not enhance its capacity to absorb more CO2 in a way that creates a negative feedback loop strong enough to counteract the problem; rather, it signifies the system is being overwhelmed. Continued absorption leads to further acidification.

• Statement 4 is correct. Increased acidity (lower pH) makes seawater more corrosive to calcium carbonate, leading to increased dissolution rates of existing shells, skeletons, and coral reefs.

Solution: C

• Statement 4 is correct. Increased acidity (lower pH) makes seawater more corrosive to calcium carbonate, leading to increased dissolution rates of existing shells, skeletons, and coral reefs.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Kashmir stag is the only surviving Asiatic sub-species of the Red Deer family. The only surviving population of Hangul deer in India is found in the Dachigam National Park in Jammu and Kashmir. Project Hangul, an initiative to protect the Hangul, is a joint collaborative effort between India, IUCN and WWF. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Hangul is a sub species of Central Asian Red deer endemic to Kashmir and northern Himachal Pradesh It is the state animal of Jammu and Kashmir It is the only surviving Asiatic sub-species of the Red deer family. Project Hangul was initiated in 1970 to address the declineing population of Kashmir stag; it was a collaborative effort between the Jammu and Kashmir Government, IUCN and WWF. Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct Hangul is found in dense riverine forests, valleys and mountain regions of Jammu and Kashmir as well as Northern Himachal Pradesh It is primarily found in the Dachigam National Park. However a small population is found in Northern Chamba district of Himachal Pradesh in the Gamgul Siya Behi Sanctuary within the district. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: B Hangul is a sub species of Central Asian Red deer endemic to Kashmir and northern Himachal Pradesh It is the state animal of Jammu and Kashmir It is the only surviving Asiatic sub-species of the Red deer family. Project Hangul was initiated in 1970 to address the declineing population of Kashmir stag; it was a collaborative effort between the Jammu and Kashmir Government, IUCN and WWF. Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct Hangul is found in dense riverine forests, valleys and mountain regions of Jammu and Kashmir as well as Northern Himachal Pradesh It is primarily found in the Dachigam National Park. However a small population is found in Northern Chamba district of Himachal Pradesh in the Gamgul Siya Behi Sanctuary within the district. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

#### 11. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Kashmir stag is the only surviving Asiatic sub-species of the Red Deer family.

• The only surviving population of Hangul deer in India is found in the Dachigam National Park in Jammu and Kashmir.

• Project Hangul, an initiative to protect the Hangul, is a joint collaborative effort between India, IUCN and WWF.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Hangul is a sub species of Central Asian Red deer endemic to Kashmir and northern Himachal Pradesh

• It is the state animal of Jammu and Kashmir

• It is the only surviving Asiatic sub-species of the Red deer family.

• Project Hangul was initiated in 1970 to address the declineing population of Kashmir stag; it was a collaborative effort between the Jammu and Kashmir Government, IUCN and WWF.

Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct

• Hangul is found in dense riverine forests, valleys and mountain regions of Jammu and Kashmir as well as Northern Himachal Pradesh

• It is primarily found in the Dachigam National Park.

• However a small population is found in Northern Chamba district of Himachal Pradesh in the Gamgul Siya Behi Sanctuary within the district.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Solution: B

• Hangul is a sub species of Central Asian Red deer endemic to Kashmir and northern Himachal Pradesh

• It is the state animal of Jammu and Kashmir

• It is the only surviving Asiatic sub-species of the Red deer family.

• Project Hangul was initiated in 1970 to address the declineing population of Kashmir stag; it was a collaborative effort between the Jammu and Kashmir Government, IUCN and WWF.

Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct

• Hangul is found in dense riverine forests, valleys and mountain regions of Jammu and Kashmir as well as Northern Himachal Pradesh

• It is primarily found in the Dachigam National Park.

• However a small population is found in Northern Chamba district of Himachal Pradesh in the Gamgul Siya Behi Sanctuary within the district.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement – I : Black plastic contain heavy metals like cadmium and mercury which can have carcinogenic effect on human. Statement – II : Black plastic is produced from recycled electronic wastes. Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct Correct Solution : A Black plastic is a type of plastic material often produced from recycled electronic waste like TV, computer and other appliances These contain flame retardants such as bromine and heavy metals like lead, Mercury and cadmium. Mercury, lead and cadmium are often found in electronic goods Cadmium is classified as human carcinogen by the International Agency for Research on Cancer; while lead and mercury compounds are also possibly carcinogenic. Hence statement 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 explains statement 1 Incorrect Solution : A Black plastic is a type of plastic material often produced from recycled electronic waste like TV, computer and other appliances These contain flame retardants such as bromine and heavy metals like lead, Mercury and cadmium. Mercury, lead and cadmium are often found in electronic goods Cadmium is classified as human carcinogen by the International Agency for Research on Cancer; while lead and mercury compounds are also possibly carcinogenic. Hence statement 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 explains statement 1

#### 12. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement – I :

Black plastic contain heavy metals like cadmium and mercury which can have carcinogenic effect on human.

Statement – II :

Black plastic is produced from recycled electronic wastes.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I

• (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I

• (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect

• (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct

Solution : A

• Black plastic is a type of plastic material often produced from recycled electronic waste like TV, computer and other appliances

• These contain flame retardants such as bromine and heavy metals like lead, Mercury and cadmium.

• Mercury, lead and cadmium are often found in electronic goods

• Cadmium is classified as human carcinogen by the International Agency for Research on Cancer; while lead and mercury compounds are also possibly carcinogenic.

Hence statement 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 explains statement 1

Solution : A

• Black plastic is a type of plastic material often produced from recycled electronic waste like TV, computer and other appliances

• These contain flame retardants such as bromine and heavy metals like lead, Mercury and cadmium.

• Mercury, lead and cadmium are often found in electronic goods

• Cadmium is classified as human carcinogen by the International Agency for Research on Cancer; while lead and mercury compounds are also possibly carcinogenic.

Hence statement 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 explains statement 1

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs: Ramsar Site Description 1.Udhwa Lake Bird Sanctuary Located on the floodplain of Ganga river 2. Sakkarakottai Bird Sanctuary Home to Lion tailed Macaque 3. Therthangal Bird Sanctuary Only breeding site for Spot-billed Pelican in India How many of the pairs given above are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 only Correct Solution: D Udhwa Lake Bird Sanctuary is located in Sahebganj district in Jharkhand on the flood plain of Ganga. It consists of two interconnected water bodies Patauda and Berhale, which are linked by a water channel. It is an important habitat for several Avian Species and is a designated Ramsar site. Hence pair 1 is correct Sakkarakottai Bird Sanctuary is located in Ramanathapura district of Tamil Nadu. It is an irrigation tank that stores water for agriculture and is recharged by North-East monsoon during October to January It lies along the Central Asian flyway serving as a critical breading and foraging ground for water birds. It is home to several animals including lion tailed Macaque, giant squirrel. Hence pair 2 is correct Therthangal Bird Sanctuary is located in Tamil Nadu It is home to diverse flora. It is an important breeding and foraging ground for various waterbird species. The common breeding grounds for Spot-billed Pelicans in India include water bodies in Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu. Hence pair 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: D Udhwa Lake Bird Sanctuary is located in Sahebganj district in Jharkhand on the flood plain of Ganga. It consists of two interconnected water bodies Patauda and Berhale, which are linked by a water channel. It is an important habitat for several Avian Species and is a designated Ramsar site. Hence pair 1 is correct Sakkarakottai Bird Sanctuary is located in Ramanathapura district of Tamil Nadu. It is an irrigation tank that stores water for agriculture and is recharged by North-East monsoon during October to January It lies along the Central Asian flyway serving as a critical breading and foraging ground for water birds. It is home to several animals including lion tailed Macaque, giant squirrel. Hence pair 2 is correct Therthangal Bird Sanctuary is located in Tamil Nadu It is home to diverse flora. It is an important breeding and foraging ground for various waterbird species. The common breeding grounds for Spot-billed Pelicans in India include water bodies in Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu. Hence pair 3 is incorrect

#### 13. Question

Consider the following pairs:

Ramsar Site | Description

1.Udhwa Lake Bird Sanctuary | Located on the floodplain of Ganga river

1.Sakkarakottai Bird Sanctuary | Home to Lion tailed Macaque
2.Therthangal Bird Sanctuary | Only breeding site for Spot-billed Pelican in India

Bird Sanctuary

How many of the pairs given above are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 3 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3

• (d) 1 and 2 only

Solution: D

• Udhwa Lake Bird Sanctuary is located in Sahebganj district in Jharkhand on the flood plain of Ganga.

• It consists of two interconnected water bodies Patauda and Berhale, which are linked by a water channel.

• It is an important habitat for several Avian Species and is a designated Ramsar site.

Hence pair 1 is correct

• Sakkarakottai Bird Sanctuary is located in Ramanathapura district of Tamil Nadu.

• It is an irrigation tank that stores water for agriculture and is recharged by North-East monsoon during October to January

• It lies along the Central Asian flyway serving as a critical breading and foraging ground for water birds.

• It is home to several animals including lion tailed Macaque, giant squirrel.

Hence pair 2 is correct

• Therthangal Bird Sanctuary is located in Tamil Nadu

• It is home to diverse flora.

• It is an important breeding and foraging ground for various waterbird species.

• The common breeding grounds for Spot-billed Pelicans in India include water bodies in Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.

Hence pair 3 is incorrect

Solution: D

• Udhwa Lake Bird Sanctuary is located in Sahebganj district in Jharkhand on the flood plain of Ganga.

• It consists of two interconnected water bodies Patauda and Berhale, which are linked by a water channel.

• It is an important habitat for several Avian Species and is a designated Ramsar site.

Hence pair 1 is correct

• Sakkarakottai Bird Sanctuary is located in Ramanathapura district of Tamil Nadu.

• It is an irrigation tank that stores water for agriculture and is recharged by North-East monsoon during October to January

• It lies along the Central Asian flyway serving as a critical breading and foraging ground for water birds.

• It is home to several animals including lion tailed Macaque, giant squirrel.

Hence pair 2 is correct

• Therthangal Bird Sanctuary is located in Tamil Nadu

• It is home to diverse flora.

• It is an important breeding and foraging ground for various waterbird species.

• The common breeding grounds for Spot-billed Pelicans in India include water bodies in Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.

Hence pair 3 is incorrect

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : Preparation of People’s Biodiversity Register (PBR) is mandated by the Biological Diversity Act 2002. Chief Wildlife Wardens are responsible for supervising development of PBRs across the country. PBRs help in Conservation of traditional knowledge. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Preparation of People’s Biodiversity Register is mandated by the Biological Diversity Act 2002. It is a Register that contains comprehensive information on availablity and knowledge of local biological resource (flora and fauna), their medicinal or any other uses. BMCs oversee the development of these registers across India with an aim to conserve biodiversity, promote sustainable use and protect traditional knowledge. The BMC is to maintain a Register containing information about details of biological resources and traditional knowledge available within the jurisdiction of BMC. Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct Biodiversity Management Committees are responsible for preparing maintaining and validating People’s Biodiversity Register in consultation with local people. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: B Preparation of People’s Biodiversity Register is mandated by the Biological Diversity Act 2002. It is a Register that contains comprehensive information on availablity and knowledge of local biological resource (flora and fauna), their medicinal or any other uses. BMCs oversee the development of these registers across India with an aim to conserve biodiversity, promote sustainable use and protect traditional knowledge. The BMC is to maintain a Register containing information about details of biological resources and traditional knowledge available within the jurisdiction of BMC. Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct Biodiversity Management Committees are responsible for preparing maintaining and validating People’s Biodiversity Register in consultation with local people. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

#### 14. Question

Consider the following statements :

• Preparation of People’s Biodiversity Register (PBR) is mandated by the Biological Diversity Act 2002.

• Chief Wildlife Wardens are responsible for supervising development of PBRs across the country.

• PBRs help in Conservation of traditional knowledge.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Preparation of People’s Biodiversity Register is mandated by the Biological Diversity Act 2002.

• It is a Register that contains comprehensive information on availablity and knowledge of local biological resource (flora and fauna), their medicinal or any other uses.

• BMCs oversee the development of these registers across India with an aim to conserve biodiversity, promote sustainable use and protect traditional knowledge.

• The BMC is to maintain a Register containing information about details of biological resources and traditional knowledge available within the jurisdiction of BMC.

Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct

• Biodiversity Management Committees are responsible for preparing maintaining and validating People’s Biodiversity Register in consultation with local people.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Solution: B

• Preparation of People’s Biodiversity Register is mandated by the Biological Diversity Act 2002.

• It is a Register that contains comprehensive information on availablity and knowledge of local biological resource (flora and fauna), their medicinal or any other uses.

• BMCs oversee the development of these registers across India with an aim to conserve biodiversity, promote sustainable use and protect traditional knowledge.

• The BMC is to maintain a Register containing information about details of biological resources and traditional knowledge available within the jurisdiction of BMC.

Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct

• Biodiversity Management Committees are responsible for preparing maintaining and validating People’s Biodiversity Register in consultation with local people.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement -I : Light fishing disturbs Marine food web. Statement -II : Light fishing involves suspension of LED lights over the water or underwater. Statement -III : Light fishing depletes Juvenile fish population in water bodies. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement- II and Statement -III are correct and both of them explain Statement- I (b) Both Statement- II and Statement-III are correct but only one of them explains Statement- I (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement- I (d) Neither Statement- II nor Statement-III is correct Correct Solution: A Light fishing is a method which uses high intensity artificial lights powered by generators like LED or halogen to attract fish to the water surface during night operation LED or halogen lights are suspended over the water or placed underwater; the bright light disturbs the fishes’ natural orientation and attracts entire shoals. Fish including juveniles, are easily netted, increasing bycatch and unsustainable harvest. Light fishing depletes Juvenile fishes; by removing immature fish before reproduction, thus reducing future fish population; this method attracts non target species, thus disturbing the entire Marine food web; It is also harmful for international straight as over fishing can impact sea food exports Hence both statements 2 and 3 are correct and both of them explain statement 1. Incorrect Solution: A Light fishing is a method which uses high intensity artificial lights powered by generators like LED or halogen to attract fish to the water surface during night operation LED or halogen lights are suspended over the water or placed underwater; the bright light disturbs the fishes’ natural orientation and attracts entire shoals. Fish including juveniles, are easily netted, increasing bycatch and unsustainable harvest. Light fishing depletes Juvenile fishes; by removing immature fish before reproduction, thus reducing future fish population; this method attracts non target species, thus disturbing the entire Marine food web; It is also harmful for international straight as over fishing can impact sea food exports Hence both statements 2 and 3 are correct and both of them explain statement 1.

#### 15. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement -I :

Light fishing disturbs Marine food web.

Statement -II :

Light fishing involves suspension of LED lights over the water or underwater.

Statement -III :

Light fishing depletes Juvenile fish population in water bodies.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement- II and Statement -III are correct and both of them explain Statement- I

• (b) Both Statement- II and Statement-III are correct but only one of them explains Statement- I

• (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement- I

• (d) Neither Statement- II nor Statement-III is correct

Solution: A

• Light fishing is a method which uses high intensity artificial lights powered by generators like LED or halogen to attract fish to the water surface during night operation

• LED or halogen lights are suspended over the water or placed underwater; the bright light disturbs the fishes’ natural orientation and attracts entire shoals.

• Fish including juveniles, are easily netted, increasing bycatch and unsustainable harvest.

• Light fishing depletes Juvenile fishes; by removing immature fish before reproduction, thus reducing future fish population; this method attracts non target species, thus disturbing the entire Marine food web;

• It is also harmful for international straight as over fishing can impact sea food exports

Hence both statements 2 and 3 are correct and both of them explain statement 1.

Solution: A

• Light fishing is a method which uses high intensity artificial lights powered by generators like LED or halogen to attract fish to the water surface during night operation

• LED or halogen lights are suspended over the water or placed underwater; the bright light disturbs the fishes’ natural orientation and attracts entire shoals.

• Fish including juveniles, are easily netted, increasing bycatch and unsustainable harvest.

• It is also harmful for international straight as over fishing can impact sea food exports

Hence both statements 2 and 3 are correct and both of them explain statement 1.

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : The Sustainable Finance for Tiger Landscape Conference (SFTLC) is convened under the Nature 2030 initiative of the IUCN. SFTLC aims to catalyse US $1 billion by 2034 from public and private investors for Tiger conservation. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution : B The Sustainable Finance for Tiger Landscapes Conference was convened by Bhutan Government along with the Tiger Conservation Coalition along with other conservation organisations. it acknowledged the Tiger as the emblematic species of Asia and a cultural and spiritual symbol for millions of people throughout Tiger range and around the globe. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The conference called for a joint effort to catalyse US$ 1 billion in additional funding for Tiger conservation over ten years (2024-2034) by mobilizing new and additional financial resources, technical expertise, developing and capitalising new financial mechanisms for Tiger conservation in support of Tiger Recovery Programme 2.0. Hence statement 2 is correct Incorrect Solution : B The Sustainable Finance for Tiger Landscapes Conference was convened by Bhutan Government along with the Tiger Conservation Coalition along with other conservation organisations. it acknowledged the Tiger as the emblematic species of Asia and a cultural and spiritual symbol for millions of people throughout Tiger range and around the globe. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The conference called for a joint effort to catalyse US$ 1 billion in additional funding for Tiger conservation over ten years (2024-2034) by mobilizing new and additional financial resources, technical expertise, developing and capitalising new financial mechanisms for Tiger conservation in support of Tiger Recovery Programme 2.0. Hence statement 2 is correct

#### 16. Question

Consider the following statements :

• The Sustainable Finance for Tiger Landscape Conference (SFTLC) is convened under the Nature 2030 initiative of the IUCN.

• SFTLC aims to catalyse US $1 billion by 2034 from public and private investors for Tiger conservation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : B

• The Sustainable Finance for Tiger Landscapes Conference was convened by Bhutan Government along with the Tiger Conservation Coalition along with other conservation organisations.

• it acknowledged the Tiger as the emblematic species of Asia and a cultural and spiritual symbol for millions of people throughout Tiger range and around the globe.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The conference called for a joint effort to catalyse US$ 1 billion in additional funding for Tiger conservation over ten years (2024-2034) by mobilizing new and additional financial resources, technical expertise, developing and capitalising new financial mechanisms for Tiger conservation in support of Tiger Recovery Programme 2.0.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Solution : B

• The Sustainable Finance for Tiger Landscapes Conference was convened by Bhutan Government along with the Tiger Conservation Coalition along with other conservation organisations.

• it acknowledged the Tiger as the emblematic species of Asia and a cultural and spiritual symbol for millions of people throughout Tiger range and around the globe.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : Statement – I : Pyramid of biomass is always upright in case of marine ecosystems. Statement – II : Pyramid of biomass represents dry weight of biomass per unit area at each trophic level. Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ? (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct Correct Solution : D Pyramid of biomass in Marine ecosystems is generally inverted and not upright ; it implies that biomass of the primary producers or phytoplanktons in Marine ecosystems at the base of the pyramid is typically less than biomass of the higher trophic levels like zooplankton and fish. This can be due to rapid growth and reproduction rate of phytoplanktons who are quickly consumed leading to a small overall biomass compared to the consumers that feed on them. Hence statement 1 is incorrect Pyramid of biomass represents the dry weight of the biomass per unit area at each tropic level of an ecosystem Usually pyramid of biomass is tapered towards the top that is it is wide at the base and narrow upwards but in case of marine ecosystems, it is usually inverted. Hence statement 2 is correct Incorrect Solution : D Pyramid of biomass in Marine ecosystems is generally inverted and not upright ; it implies that biomass of the primary producers or phytoplanktons in Marine ecosystems at the base of the pyramid is typically less than biomass of the higher trophic levels like zooplankton and fish. This can be due to rapid growth and reproduction rate of phytoplanktons who are quickly consumed leading to a small overall biomass compared to the consumers that feed on them. Hence statement 1 is incorrect Pyramid of biomass represents the dry weight of the biomass per unit area at each tropic level of an ecosystem Usually pyramid of biomass is tapered towards the top that is it is wide at the base and narrow upwards but in case of marine ecosystems, it is usually inverted. Hence statement 2 is correct

#### 17. Question

Consider the following statements :

Statement – I :

Pyramid of biomass is always upright in case of marine ecosystems.

Statement – II :

Pyramid of biomass represents dry weight of biomass per unit area at each trophic level.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?

• (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I

• (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I

• (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect

• (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct

Solution : D

• Pyramid of biomass in Marine ecosystems is generally inverted and not upright ; it implies that biomass of the primary producers or phytoplanktons in Marine ecosystems at the base of the pyramid is typically less than biomass of the higher trophic levels like zooplankton and fish.

• This can be due to rapid growth and reproduction rate of phytoplanktons who are quickly consumed leading to a small overall biomass compared to the consumers that feed on them.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• Pyramid of biomass represents the dry weight of the biomass per unit area at each tropic level of an ecosystem

• Usually pyramid of biomass is tapered towards the top that is it is wide at the base and narrow upwards but in case of marine ecosystems, it is usually inverted.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Solution : D

• This can be due to rapid growth and reproduction rate of phytoplanktons who are quickly consumed leading to a small overall biomass compared to the consumers that feed on them.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• Pyramid of biomass represents the dry weight of the biomass per unit area at each tropic level of an ecosystem

• Usually pyramid of biomass is tapered towards the top that is it is wide at the base and narrow upwards but in case of marine ecosystems, it is usually inverted.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : Reaction of primary pollutants in presence of sunlight trigger formation of ground level ozone. Hear waves enhance formation of Tropospheric ozone. Ground level ozone is harmful for cultivation of wheat. Tropospheric ozone concentrations decreases from poles towards the equator. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution : C Ground level ozone or tropospheric ozone is not emitted directly into the air. It is also known as tropospheric ozone It is a secondary pollutant and a colourless gas formed just above the surface of the Earth It is created by chemical reaction between oxides of nitrogen and volatile organic compounds ; both of these are considered primary pollutants. this happens when pollutants emitted by power plants, vehicles, industries, refineries, chemical plants and other sources chemically react in the presence of sunlight. Rising temperature specially during heat waves worsen ground level ozone formation. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct Tropospheric ozone is detrimental to wheat and rice cultivation in India posing a significant threat to food security Ozone pollution can lead to reduced crop yields and seed quality with wheat being particularly sensitive. Hence statement 3 is correct Ozone concentrations in the troposphere vary widely over the Earth’s surface The more direct the angle of sunlight, the greater it intensity When ozone’s precursors exist more ozone tends to occur in regions closer to the equator ( lower latitude) than in regions at the poles (higher latitude). Tropospheric ozone levels are not higher at the poles; it typically is more abundant closer to the equator due to higher UV radiation and presence of the ozone precursors. Hence statement 4 is incorrect Incorrect Solution : C Ground level ozone or tropospheric ozone is not emitted directly into the air. It is also known as tropospheric ozone It is a secondary pollutant and a colourless gas formed just above the surface of the Earth It is created by chemical reaction between oxides of nitrogen and volatile organic compounds ; both of these are considered primary pollutants. this happens when pollutants emitted by power plants, vehicles, industries, refineries, chemical plants and other sources chemically react in the presence of sunlight. Rising temperature specially during heat waves worsen ground level ozone formation. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct Tropospheric ozone is detrimental to wheat and rice cultivation in India posing a significant threat to food security Ozone pollution can lead to reduced crop yields and seed quality with wheat being particularly sensitive. Hence statement 3 is correct Ozone concentrations in the troposphere vary widely over the Earth’s surface The more direct the angle of sunlight, the greater it intensity When ozone’s precursors exist more ozone tends to occur in regions closer to the equator ( lower latitude) than in regions at the poles (higher latitude). Tropospheric ozone levels are not higher at the poles; it typically is more abundant closer to the equator due to higher UV radiation and presence of the ozone precursors. Hence statement 4 is incorrect

#### 18. Question

Consider the following statements :

• Reaction of primary pollutants in presence of sunlight trigger formation of ground level ozone.

• Hear waves enhance formation of Tropospheric ozone.

• Ground level ozone is harmful for cultivation of wheat.

• Tropospheric ozone concentrations decreases from poles towards the equator.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution : C

• Ground level ozone or tropospheric ozone is not emitted directly into the air.

• It is also known as tropospheric ozone

• It is a secondary pollutant and a colourless gas formed just above the surface of the Earth

• It is created by chemical reaction between oxides of nitrogen and volatile organic compounds ; both of these are considered primary pollutants.

• this happens when pollutants emitted by power plants, vehicles, industries, refineries, chemical plants and other sources chemically react in the presence of sunlight.

• Rising temperature specially during heat waves worsen ground level ozone formation.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

• Tropospheric ozone is detrimental to wheat and rice cultivation in India posing a significant threat to food security

• Ozone pollution can lead to reduced crop yields and seed quality with wheat being particularly sensitive.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Ozone concentrations in the troposphere vary widely over the Earth’s surface

• The more direct the angle of sunlight, the greater it intensity

• When ozone’s precursors exist more ozone tends to occur in regions closer to the equator ( lower latitude) than in regions at the poles (higher latitude).

• Tropospheric ozone levels are not higher at the poles; it typically is more abundant closer to the equator due to higher UV radiation and presence of the ozone precursors.

Hence statement 4 is incorrect

Solution : C

• Ground level ozone or tropospheric ozone is not emitted directly into the air.

• It is also known as tropospheric ozone

• It is a secondary pollutant and a colourless gas formed just above the surface of the Earth

• It is created by chemical reaction between oxides of nitrogen and volatile organic compounds ; both of these are considered primary pollutants.

• this happens when pollutants emitted by power plants, vehicles, industries, refineries, chemical plants and other sources chemically react in the presence of sunlight.

• Rising temperature specially during heat waves worsen ground level ozone formation.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

• Tropospheric ozone is detrimental to wheat and rice cultivation in India posing a significant threat to food security

• Ozone pollution can lead to reduced crop yields and seed quality with wheat being particularly sensitive.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Ozone concentrations in the troposphere vary widely over the Earth’s surface

• The more direct the angle of sunlight, the greater it intensity

• When ozone’s precursors exist more ozone tends to occur in regions closer to the equator ( lower latitude) than in regions at the poles (higher latitude).

• Tropospheric ozone levels are not higher at the poles; it typically is more abundant closer to the equator due to higher UV radiation and presence of the ozone precursors.

Hence statement 4 is incorrect

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : Black panther is endemic to dense Tropical rainforests in Northeast India and North Bengal. Genetic mutation leading to increased production of melanin in skin of Bengal Tiger species leads to black coloured fur in black panthers. Black panther is protected under Appendix I of Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES). How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Black panther is found across Asia, Africa and the Americas. It is commonly found in Southwest China, eastern and southern India, Nepal, Malaysia, Indonesia, Burma In India it is found in Karnataka, Sundarbans and other parts of South India. Hence statement 1 is incorrect Genetic mutation in Bengal Tigers do not directly give rise to black panthers ; excess melanin production gives rise to black coloured fur in black panthers which are actually melanistic leopards or jaguars and not tigers. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Conservation status of black panther : Vulnerable under IUCN Red list Schedule I of Indian Wildlife Protection Act 1972 Appendix I of CITES Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: A Black panther is found across Asia, Africa and the Americas. It is commonly found in Southwest China, eastern and southern India, Nepal, Malaysia, Indonesia, Burma In India it is found in Karnataka, Sundarbans and other parts of South India. Hence statement 1 is incorrect Genetic mutation in Bengal Tigers do not directly give rise to black panthers ; excess melanin production gives rise to black coloured fur in black panthers which are actually melanistic leopards or jaguars and not tigers. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Conservation status of black panther : Vulnerable under IUCN Red list Schedule I of Indian Wildlife Protection Act 1972 Appendix I of CITES Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 19. Question

Consider the following statements :

• Black panther is endemic to dense Tropical rainforests in Northeast India and North Bengal.

• Genetic mutation leading to increased production of melanin in skin of Bengal Tiger species leads to black coloured fur in black panthers.

• Black panther is protected under Appendix I of Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES).

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Black panther is found across Asia, Africa and the Americas.

• It is commonly found in Southwest China, eastern and southern India, Nepal, Malaysia, Indonesia, Burma

• In India it is found in Karnataka, Sundarbans and other parts of South India.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• Genetic mutation in Bengal Tigers do not directly give rise to black panthers ; excess melanin production gives rise to black coloured fur in black panthers which are actually melanistic leopards or jaguars and not tigers.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Conservation status of black panther :

• Vulnerable under IUCN Red list

• Schedule I of Indian Wildlife Protection Act 1972

• Appendix I of CITES

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: A

• Black panther is found across Asia, Africa and the Americas.

• It is commonly found in Southwest China, eastern and southern India, Nepal, Malaysia, Indonesia, Burma

• In India it is found in Karnataka, Sundarbans and other parts of South India.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Conservation status of black panther :

• Vulnerable under IUCN Red list

• Schedule I of Indian Wildlife Protection Act 1972

• Appendix I of CITES

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Kasampatty Sacred Grove : It is a Biodiversity Heritage site under Biological Diversity Act 2002. This sacred site is revered by Chenchus and Gond tribes. It supports pollination and soil fertility in nearby mango plantations by acting as an ecological bridge. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: A The Kasampatty Sacred Grove is located in Dindigul district in Tamil Nadu It has recently been officially notified as the second biodiversity Heritage site in Tamil Nadu under the Biological Diversity Act 2002. It is supported by the Tamil Nadu Biodiversity Board and district collector. Hence statement 1 is correct The Chenchus and Gonds are major tribal groups in Andhra Pradesh and are not found in Tamil Nadu. The Kasampatty Sacred Grove is not directly associated with any specific tribe; the grove is protected by the community living nearby Kasampatty village and Reddiyapatti Panchayat. The locals worship the deity Veeranan at the Veera Kovil temple. Hence statement 2 is incorrect It the site enhances local climate stability and wildlife connectivity It also act as an ecological bridge by supporting pollination and soil fertility in nearby mango plantations. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: A The Kasampatty Sacred Grove is located in Dindigul district in Tamil Nadu It has recently been officially notified as the second biodiversity Heritage site in Tamil Nadu under the Biological Diversity Act 2002. It is supported by the Tamil Nadu Biodiversity Board and district collector. Hence statement 1 is correct The Chenchus and Gonds are major tribal groups in Andhra Pradesh and are not found in Tamil Nadu. The Kasampatty Sacred Grove is not directly associated with any specific tribe; the grove is protected by the community living nearby Kasampatty village and Reddiyapatti Panchayat. The locals worship the deity Veeranan at the Veera Kovil temple. Hence statement 2 is incorrect It the site enhances local climate stability and wildlife connectivity It also act as an ecological bridge by supporting pollination and soil fertility in nearby mango plantations. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 20. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Kasampatty Sacred Grove :

• It is a Biodiversity Heritage site under Biological Diversity Act 2002.

• This sacred site is revered by Chenchus and Gond tribes.

• It supports pollination and soil fertility in nearby mango plantations by acting as an ecological bridge.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 1 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

• The Kasampatty Sacred Grove is located in Dindigul district in Tamil Nadu

• It has recently been officially notified as the second biodiversity Heritage site in Tamil Nadu under the Biological Diversity Act 2002.

• It is supported by the Tamil Nadu Biodiversity Board and district collector.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The Chenchus and Gonds are major tribal groups in Andhra Pradesh and are not found in Tamil Nadu.

• The Kasampatty Sacred Grove is not directly associated with any specific tribe; the grove is protected by the community living nearby Kasampatty village and Reddiyapatti Panchayat.

• The locals worship the deity Veeranan at the Veera Kovil temple.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• It the site enhances local climate stability and wildlife connectivity

• It also act as an ecological bridge by supporting pollination and soil fertility in nearby mango plantations.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: A

• The Kasampatty Sacred Grove is located in Dindigul district in Tamil Nadu

• It has recently been officially notified as the second biodiversity Heritage site in Tamil Nadu under the Biological Diversity Act 2002.

• It is supported by the Tamil Nadu Biodiversity Board and district collector.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The Chenchus and Gonds are major tribal groups in Andhra Pradesh and are not found in Tamil Nadu.

• The Kasampatty Sacred Grove is not directly associated with any specific tribe; the grove is protected by the community living nearby Kasampatty village and Reddiyapatti Panchayat.

• The locals worship the deity Veeranan at the Veera Kovil temple.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• It the site enhances local climate stability and wildlife connectivity

• It also act as an ecological bridge by supporting pollination and soil fertility in nearby mango plantations.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Consider the following statements with reference to recently announced Gyan Bharatam Mission: Statement I: Gyan Bharatam Mission was launched to centralize the management of manuscript conservation under the National Education Policy. Statement II: The mission proposes the establishment of a dedicated autonomous body for conservation, digitization, and accessibility of manuscript collections. Which of the following is correct? (a) Both Statement I and II are correct, and Statement II explains Statement I (b) Both Statement I and II are correct, but Statement II does not explain Statement I (c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect (d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct Correct Solution: D Explanation: Statement I is incorrect. The Gyan Bharatam Mission is not a component of the National Education Policy (NEP), nor is it administered by the Ministry of Education. It is a Ministry of Culture initiative, focusing on heritage preservation, not curriculum reform. Statement II is correct. A notable feature of the Gyan Bharatam Mission is the plan to establish an autonomous body to manage activities like manuscript conservation, digitization, and public access. This is intended to provide institutional continuity and avoid bureaucratic delays. Incorrect Solution: D Explanation: Statement I is incorrect. The Gyan Bharatam Mission is not a component of the National Education Policy (NEP), nor is it administered by the Ministry of Education. It is a Ministry of Culture initiative, focusing on heritage preservation, not curriculum reform. Statement II is correct. A notable feature of the Gyan Bharatam Mission is the plan to establish an autonomous body to manage activities like manuscript conservation, digitization, and public access. This is intended to provide institutional continuity and avoid bureaucratic delays.

#### 21. Question

Consider the following statements with reference to recently announced Gyan Bharatam Mission:

Statement I: Gyan Bharatam Mission was launched to centralize the management of manuscript conservation under the National Education Policy. Statement II: The mission proposes the establishment of a dedicated autonomous body for conservation, digitization, and accessibility of manuscript collections.

Which of the following is correct?

• (a) Both Statement I and II are correct, and Statement II explains Statement I

• (b) Both Statement I and II are correct, but Statement II does not explain Statement I

• (c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect

• (d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct

Solution: D

Explanation: Statement I is incorrect. The Gyan Bharatam Mission is not a component of the National Education Policy (NEP), nor is it administered by the Ministry of Education. It is a Ministry of Culture initiative, focusing on heritage preservation, not curriculum reform.

Statement II is correct. A notable feature of the Gyan Bharatam Mission is the plan to establish an autonomous body to manage activities like manuscript conservation, digitization, and public access. This is intended to provide institutional continuity and avoid bureaucratic delays.

Solution: D

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Convention on Cluster Munitions (CCM): India is a signatory to the CCM but has not ratified it due to strategic and defense concerns. The treaty requires member countries to destroy their existing stockpiles of cluster munitions within eight years of joining. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. India has neither signed nor ratified the Convention on Cluster Munitions (CCM). Along with major powers like the U.S., Russia, China, Israel, and Ukraine, India has cited military utility and national security concerns as reasons for staying out of the treaty. Statement 2 is correct. One of the treaty’s core obligations is that member states must destroy their stockpiles of cluster munitions within eight years of joining. This is part of a broader agenda to eliminate the humanitarian threat posed by unexploded submunitions, which often remain lethal for decades after a conflict. Incorrect Solution: B Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. India has neither signed nor ratified the Convention on Cluster Munitions (CCM). Along with major powers like the U.S., Russia, China, Israel, and Ukraine, India has cited military utility and national security concerns as reasons for staying out of the treaty. Statement 2 is correct. One of the treaty’s core obligations is that member states must destroy their stockpiles of cluster munitions within eight years of joining. This is part of a broader agenda to eliminate the humanitarian threat posed by unexploded submunitions, which often remain lethal for decades after a conflict.

#### 22. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Convention on Cluster Munitions (CCM):

• India is a signatory to the CCM but has not ratified it due to strategic and defense concerns.

• The treaty requires member countries to destroy their existing stockpiles of cluster munitions within eight years of joining.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. India has neither signed nor ratified the Convention on Cluster Munitions (CCM). Along with major powers like the U.S., Russia, China, Israel, and Ukraine, India has cited military utility and national security concerns as reasons for staying out of the treaty.

Statement 2 is correct. One of the treaty’s core obligations is that member states must destroy their stockpiles of cluster munitions within eight years of joining. This is part of a broader agenda to eliminate the humanitarian threat posed by unexploded submunitions, which often remain lethal for decades after a conflict.

Solution: B

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Atomic Energy Commission (AEC) of India: It was originally set up in 1948 under the Department of Scientific Research. The Commission includes senior bureaucrats such as the Cabinet Secretary and National Security Adviser as ex-officio members. The AEC is the statutory body responsible for nuclear regulation in India under the Atomic Energy Act of 1962. How many of the above given statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. The Atomic Energy Commission was initially set up in 1948, but under the Department of Scientific Research, It was reconstituted in 1958 under the DAE in its current form. Statement 2 is correct. The AEC includes high-ranking officials like the Cabinet Secretary, National Security Adviser, and Foreign Secretary as ex-officio members, underscoring the interdisciplinary and strategic nature of nuclear governance in India. Statement 3 is incorrect. The AEC is a policy-making and advisory body, not the statutory regulatory authority. The Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB), established under the Atomic Energy Act, 1962, handles nuclear regulation and safety compliance. Incorrect Solution: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. The Atomic Energy Commission was initially set up in 1948, but under the Department of Scientific Research, It was reconstituted in 1958 under the DAE in its current form. Statement 2 is correct. The AEC includes high-ranking officials like the Cabinet Secretary, National Security Adviser, and Foreign Secretary as ex-officio members, underscoring the interdisciplinary and strategic nature of nuclear governance in India. Statement 3 is incorrect. The AEC is a policy-making and advisory body, not the statutory regulatory authority. The Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB), established under the Atomic Energy Act, 1962, handles nuclear regulation and safety compliance.

#### 23. Question

Consider the following statements about the Atomic Energy Commission (AEC) of India:

• It was originally set up in 1948 under the Department of Scientific Research.

• The Commission includes senior bureaucrats such as the Cabinet Secretary and National Security Adviser as ex-officio members.

• The AEC is the statutory body responsible for nuclear regulation in India under the Atomic Energy Act of 1962.

How many of the above given statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. The Atomic Energy Commission was initially set up in 1948, but under the Department of Scientific Research, It was reconstituted in 1958 under the DAE in its current form.

Statement 2 is correct. The AEC includes high-ranking officials like the Cabinet Secretary, National Security Adviser, and Foreign Secretary as ex-officio members, underscoring the interdisciplinary and strategic nature of nuclear governance in India.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The AEC is a policy-making and advisory body, not the statutory regulatory authority. The Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB), established under the Atomic Energy Act, 1962, handles nuclear regulation and safety compliance.

Solution: B

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Under the Forest Rights Act, 2006, which of the following best defines “habitat rights” as granted to Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs)? (a) Legal ownership of forest land for residential and agricultural use (b) Access to forest produce for commercial purposes (c) Customary rights over demarcated forest regions including religious and livelihood spaces (d) Priority employment under MGNREGA in forested areas Correct Solution: C Explanation: The Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006, under Section 3(1)(e), recognizes habitat rights for PVTGs, which encompass rights over customary habitats, including those within reserved and protected forests. These rights are not limited to land ownership or access to produce, but include social, cultural, and livelihood practices of the communities. Recognition of habitat rights involves consultations and mapping of traditional territories. It grants autonomy in local decision-making and control over natural resources. In 2024, Odisha’s Juangs and Mankidia tribes were accorded these rights through District Level Committees, reflecting the Act’s progressive interpretation. Incorrect Solution: C Explanation: The Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006, under Section 3(1)(e), recognizes habitat rights for PVTGs, which encompass rights over customary habitats, including those within reserved and protected forests. These rights are not limited to land ownership or access to produce, but include social, cultural, and livelihood practices of the communities. Recognition of habitat rights involves consultations and mapping of traditional territories. It grants autonomy in local decision-making and control over natural resources. In 2024, Odisha’s Juangs and Mankidia tribes were accorded these rights through District Level Committees, reflecting the Act’s progressive interpretation.

#### 24. Question

Under the Forest Rights Act, 2006, which of the following best defines “habitat rights” as granted to Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs)?

• (a) Legal ownership of forest land for residential and agricultural use

• (b) Access to forest produce for commercial purposes

• (c) Customary rights over demarcated forest regions including religious and livelihood spaces

• (d) Priority employment under MGNREGA in forested areas

Solution: C

Explanation: The Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006, under Section 3(1)(e), recognizes habitat rights for PVTGs, which encompass rights over customary habitats, including those within reserved and protected forests. These rights are not limited to land ownership or access to produce, but include social, cultural, and livelihood practices of the communities.

Recognition of habitat rights involves consultations and mapping of traditional territories. It grants autonomy in local decision-making and control over natural resources.

In 2024, Odisha’s Juangs and Mankidia tribes were accorded these rights through District Level Committees, reflecting the Act’s progressive interpretation.

Solution: C

Recognition of habitat rights involves consultations and mapping of traditional territories. It grants autonomy in local decision-making and control over natural resources.

In 2024, Odisha’s Juangs and Mankidia tribes were accorded these rights through District Level Committees, reflecting the Act’s progressive interpretation.

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs: Rebel Group Country 1. Abu Sayyaf Philippines 2. PKK (Kurdistan Workers’ Party) Turkey 3. Ansar Dine Nigeria How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs (c) All three pairs (d) None of the pairs Correct Solution: B Explanation: Abu Sayyaf, an Islamist extremist group, is based in the Philippines, primarily in the southern regions like Mindanao and Sulu Archipelago. It has been responsible for kidnappings, bombings, and affiliations with global jihadist groups like al-Qaeda and ISIS. The PKK (Kurdistan Workers’ Party) is a Kurdish separatist group that operates from southeastern Turkey and parts of northern Iraq, seeking autonomy or independence for Kurdish people. It is designated a terrorist organization by Turkey, the U.S., and the EU. Ansar Dine, however, is incorrectly matched. It is not from Nigeria but from Mali. It is a Tuareg Islamist group active in northern Mali and part of the broader jihadist insurgency in the Sahel. Nigeria’s primary Islamist threat is Boko Haram, not Ansar Dine. Thus, only two pairs are correctly matched. Incorrect Solution: B Explanation: Abu Sayyaf, an Islamist extremist group, is based in the Philippines, primarily in the southern regions like Mindanao and Sulu Archipelago. It has been responsible for kidnappings, bombings, and affiliations with global jihadist groups like al-Qaeda and ISIS. The PKK (Kurdistan Workers’ Party) is a Kurdish separatist group that operates from southeastern Turkey and parts of northern Iraq, seeking autonomy or independence for Kurdish people. It is designated a terrorist organization by Turkey, the U.S., and the EU. Ansar Dine, however, is incorrectly matched. It is not from Nigeria but from Mali. It is a Tuareg Islamist group active in northern Mali and part of the broader jihadist insurgency in the Sahel. Nigeria’s primary Islamist threat is Boko Haram, not Ansar Dine. Thus, only two pairs are correctly matched.

#### 25. Question

Consider the following pairs:

Rebel Group | Country

1.Abu Sayyaf | Philippines
2.PKK (Kurdistan Workers’ Party) | Turkey
3.Ansar Dine | Nigeria

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

• (a) Only one pair

• (b) Only two pairs

• (c) All three pairs

• (d) None of the pairs

Solution: B

Explanation:

• Abu Sayyaf, an Islamist extremist group, is based in the Philippines, primarily in the southern regions like Mindanao and Sulu Archipelago. It has been responsible for kidnappings, bombings, and affiliations with global jihadist groups like al-Qaeda and ISIS.

• The PKK (Kurdistan Workers’ Party) is a Kurdish separatist group that operates from southeastern Turkey and parts of northern Iraq, seeking autonomy or independence for Kurdish people. It is designated a terrorist organization by Turkey, the U.S., and the EU.

• Ansar Dine, however, is incorrectly matched. It is not from Nigeria but from Mali. It is a Tuareg Islamist group active in northern Mali and part of the broader jihadist insurgency in the Sahel. Nigeria’s primary Islamist threat is Boko Haram, not Ansar Dine.

Thus, only two pairs are correctly matched.

Solution: B

Explanation:

Thus, only two pairs are correctly matched.

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points Many young people spend more time communicating with people online than actually doing it face-to-face. Some people believe that this affects the development of social skills. However, it can be said that this is because they are communicating more than people did before there was technology. Online communication increases the range of young people’s social skills, rather than decreasing it. Young people go to school and are in personal contact with people all day, just like in the past. Now they go home and continue their conversations and contacts with other people electronically. This communication is merely an addition to the normal amount they already do. In addition, young people spend less time watching television than older people did at their age. Now they tend to play games online instead, where they interact with other people. In addition to that, they are in constant contact with friends through text messaging. Of course, young people do need to build up their face-to-face social skills, as they are still fundamental. They need to be able to read faces and body language and be comfortable in the presence of other people. However, being able to effectively communicate using new technology is a part of their future and they require skills in that area too. It is not something they really learn at school, so they have to teach themselves. Young people do need to be educated on how to safely use the internet, and certainly, like any form of communication, there are right and wrong ways to go about it. A lot of that learning process is a case of trial and error. They will soon learn that spending hours playing online games might mean they do not have enough time to do their homework or enjoy outdoor activities. People will always find something to complain about with young people. The generation before this watched too much television, the one before that listened to the radio too much, and perhaps the one before that read too many books! Young people need to learn to communicate in many different ways these days, and all this extra learning takes time. The secret may be trying to find a balance between face-to-face communication and the electronic versions. Which of the following statements supports the given passage? a. Technology has led to decrease in social skills of teenagers. b. Young people are learning a lot on the internet. c. Face to face communication is losing importance in the modern world. d. Technological communication is an important skill for young people to learn. Correct Correct Option : D Justification : The passage shows how technology has changed communication and the need for young people to be familiar with these forms as they will be the ways of communication in the future. Face to face communication is still important but it is equally needed for young people to learn the ins and outs as well as the positives and negatives of socialising through the internet. Hence, D. Incorrect Correct Option : D Justification : The passage shows how technology has changed communication and the need for young people to be familiar with these forms as they will be the ways of communication in the future. Face to face communication is still important but it is equally needed for young people to learn the ins and outs as well as the positives and negatives of socialising through the internet. Hence, D.

#### 26. Question

Many young people spend more time communicating with people online than actually doing it face-to-face. Some people believe that this affects the development of social skills. However, it can be said that this is because they are communicating more than people did before there was technology. Online communication increases the range of young people’s social skills, rather than decreasing it.

Young people go to school and are in personal contact with people all day, just like in the past. Now they go home and continue their conversations and contacts with other people electronically. This communication is merely an addition to the normal amount they already do. In addition, young people spend less time watching television than older people did at their age. Now they tend to play games online instead, where they interact with other people. In addition to that, they are in constant contact with friends through text messaging.

Of course, young people do need to build up their face-to-face social skills, as they are still fundamental. They need to be able to read faces and body language and be comfortable in the presence of other people. However, being able to effectively communicate using new technology is a part of their future and they require skills in that area too. It is not something they really learn at school, so they have to teach themselves. Young people do need to be educated on how to safely use the internet, and certainly, like any form of communication, there are right and wrong ways to go about it. A lot of that learning process is a case of trial and error. They will soon learn that spending hours playing online games might mean they do not have enough time to do their homework or enjoy outdoor activities.

People will always find something to complain about with young people. The generation before this watched too much television, the one before that listened to the radio too much, and perhaps the one before that read too many books! Young people need to learn to communicate in many different ways these days, and all this extra learning takes time. The secret may be trying to find a balance between face-to-face communication and the electronic versions.

Which of the following statements supports the given passage?

• a. Technology has led to decrease in social skills of teenagers.

• b. Young people are learning a lot on the internet.

• c. Face to face communication is losing importance in the modern world.

• d. Technological communication is an important skill for young people to learn.

Correct Option : D

Justification :

The passage shows how technology has changed communication and the need for young people to be familiar with these forms as they will be the ways of communication in the future. Face to face communication is still important but it is equally needed for young people to learn the ins and outs as well as the positives and negatives of socialising through the internet. Hence, D.

Correct Option : D

Justification :

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points When the time is 5:40, then what is the angle b/w the hour hand & the minute hand of a clock? a. . 70° b. 60° c. 74° d. . 80° Correct Correct Option : A Justification : Formula used= θ=(11/2)M -30H where, H= hours, M= minutes H= 5 , M= 40 Required angle, θ=(11/2)40 -30×5 = 70° Incorrect Correct Option : A Justification : Formula used= θ=(11/2)M -30H where, H= hours, M= minutes H= 5 , M= 40 Required angle, θ=(11/2)40 -30×5 = 70°

#### 27. Question

When the time is 5:40, then what is the angle b/w the hour hand & the minute hand of a clock?

Correct Option : A

Justification :

Formula used= θ=(11/2)M -30H where, H= hours, M= minutes

H= 5 , M= 40

Required angle, θ=(11/2)40 -30×5 = 70°

Correct Option : A

Justification :

Formula used= θ=(11/2)M -30H where, H= hours, M= minutes

H= 5 , M= 40

Required angle, θ=(11/2)40 -30×5 = 70°

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points In a clock having a circular scale of twelve hours, when time changes from 7:45 A.M. to 7:47 A.M., by how many degrees the angle formed by the hour hand and minute hand changes? a. 10 degree b. 11 degree c. 12 degree d. 15 degree Correct Correct Option : B Justification : In 1 hour =360/12=30 and in 1 minute=30/60=1/2 Similarly, angle covered by minute hand in 1 hour = 360° In 1 minute = 360/60=6 => Every minute, the angle between the two hands changes By 6-(1/2)= 11/2 From 7:45 A.M. to 7:47 A.M., i.e. in 2 minutes the angle between the two hands will change by 2 (11/2)=11 degree Incorrect Correct Option : B Justification : In 1 hour =360/12=30 and in 1 minute=30/60=1/2 Similarly, angle covered by minute hand in 1 hour = 360° In 1 minute = 360/60=6 => Every minute, the angle between the two hands changes By 6-(1/2)= 11/2 From 7:45 A.M. to 7:47 A.M., i.e. in 2 minutes the angle between the two hands will change by 2 (11/2)=11 degree

#### 28. Question

In a clock having a circular scale of twelve hours, when time changes from 7:45 A.M. to 7:47 A.M., by how many degrees the angle formed by the hour hand and minute hand changes?

• a. 10 degree

• b. 11 degree

• c. 12 degree

• d. 15 degree

Correct Option : B

Justification :

In 1 hour =360/12=30 and in 1 minute=30/60=1/2

Similarly, angle covered by minute hand in 1 hour = 360°

In 1 minute = 360/60=6

=> Every minute, the angle between the two hands changes By 6-(1/2)= 11/2

From 7:45 A.M. to 7:47 A.M.,

i.e. in 2 minutes the angle between the two hands will change by 2* (11/2)=11 degree

Correct Option : B

Justification :

In 1 hour =360/12=30 and in 1 minute=30/60=1/2

Similarly, angle covered by minute hand in 1 hour = 360°

In 1 minute = 360/60=6

=> Every minute, the angle between the two hands changes By 6-(1/2)= 11/2

From 7:45 A.M. to 7:47 A.M.,

i.e. in 2 minutes the angle between the two hands will change by 2* (11/2)=11 degree

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points Kingini has a digital watch that shows time in a 24 hour format. The time on the watch is 4:56. How many minutes will pass before the watch next shows a time with digits in an ascending order from left to right? a. 71 mins b. 459 mins c. 457 mins d. 458 mins Correct Correct Option : D Justification : The digits on the clock will be in an ascending order from left to right at 12:34. So, the required time difference will be 760 + 4 + 34 = 458 minutes. Incorrect Correct Option : D Justification : The digits on the clock will be in an ascending order from left to right at 12:34. So, the required time difference will be 760 + 4 + 34 = 458 minutes.

#### 29. Question

Kingini has a digital watch that shows time in a 24 hour format. The time on the watch is 4:56. How many minutes will pass before the watch next shows a time with digits in an ascending order from left to right?

• a. 71 mins

• b. 459 mins

• c. 457 mins

• d. 458 mins

Correct Option : D

Justification :

The digits on the clock will be in an ascending order from left to right at 12:34.

So, the required time difference will be 7*60 + 4 + 34 = 458 minutes.

Correct Option : D

Justification :

The digits on the clock will be in an ascending order from left to right at 12:34.

So, the required time difference will be 7*60 + 4 + 34 = 458 minutes.

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points There is a clock which loses 5 minutes after every hour. It shows correct time at9’o clock on Wednesday on 1st September. Among the following options, when will it show the correct time of 9’o clock again? a. Friday,10th September b. Tuesday,14th September c. Monday, 13th September d. Monday, 6th September Correct Correct Option : C Justification : Answer (C) Monday, 13th September Since the watch has to show correct time as 9, when it looses 12 hours. Time taken to lose 5 minutes = 1 hour. Time taken to lose 12 hours = 1260/5 = 144 hours = 6days Starting from Wednesday, after 6 days it would be Tuesday 7th September. After Tuesday 7th September, Monday (13th September) would occur after further 6 days. Incorrect Correct Option : C Justification : Answer (C) Monday, 13th September Since the watch has to show correct time as 9, when it looses 12 hours. Time taken to lose 5 minutes = 1 hour. Time taken to lose 12 hours = 1260/5 = 144 hours = 6days Starting from Wednesday, after 6 days it would be Tuesday 7th September. After Tuesday 7th September, Monday (13th September) would occur after further 6 days.

#### 30. Question

There is a clock which loses 5 minutes after every hour. It shows correct time at9’o clock on Wednesday on 1st September. Among the following options, when will it show the correct time of 9’o clock again?

• a. Friday,10th September

• b. Tuesday,14th September

• c. Monday, 13th September

• d. Monday, 6th September

Correct Option : C

Justification :

Answer (C) Monday, 13th September

Since the watch has to show correct time as 9, when it looses 12 hours.

Time taken to lose 5 minutes = 1 hour.

Time taken to lose 12 hours = 12*60/5 = 144 hours = 6days

Starting from Wednesday, after 6 days it would be Tuesday 7th September.

After Tuesday 7th September, Monday (13th September) would occur after further 6 days.

Correct Option : C

Justification :

Answer (C) Monday, 13th September

Since the watch has to show correct time as 9, when it looses 12 hours.

Time taken to lose 5 minutes = 1 hour.

Time taken to lose 12 hours = 12*60/5 = 144 hours = 6days

Starting from Wednesday, after 6 days it would be Tuesday 7th September.

After Tuesday 7th September, Monday (13th September) would occur after further 6 days.

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