DAY – 53 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – POLTY , Subject-wise Test 36 and Aug & Sep 2023 CA

INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points How do a constitution’s underlying principles of justice contribute to its authority? a) By entrenching privileges for specific groups, thereby consolidating support. b) By prioritizing stability over flexibility, ensuring continuity in governance. c) By striking a delicate balance between tradition and innovation. d) By fostering a sense of collective responsibility. Correct Answer: d Explanation: Fostering a sense of collective responsibility emphasizes the idea of a constitution creating a sense of shared duty among citizens, encouraging them to work toward common goals. When a constitution fosters collective responsibility, it helps build a society where individuals see themselves as part of a greater whole, reinforcing the constitution’s authority. This sense of collective responsibility is closely tied to principles of justice, as it encourages individuals to contribute to a fair and equitable society. Fostering a sense of collective responsibility aligns with the underlying principles of justice by promoting a unified society where individuals work together for the common good. This sense of unity and shared purpose enhances the constitution’s authority, as it creates a stable framework for societal governance based on justice and equity. This approach supports the idea that justice should benefit the broader society and not just a select few. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: Fostering a sense of collective responsibility emphasizes the idea of a constitution creating a sense of shared duty among citizens, encouraging them to work toward common goals. When a constitution fosters collective responsibility, it helps build a society where individuals see themselves as part of a greater whole, reinforcing the constitution’s authority. This sense of collective responsibility is closely tied to principles of justice, as it encourages individuals to contribute to a fair and equitable society. Fostering a sense of collective responsibility aligns with the underlying principles of justice by promoting a unified society where individuals work together for the common good. This sense of unity and shared purpose enhances the constitution’s authority, as it creates a stable framework for societal governance based on justice and equity. This approach supports the idea that justice should benefit the broader society and not just a select few. Hence, option (d) is correct.

#### 1. Question

How do a constitution’s underlying principles of justice contribute to its authority?

• a) By entrenching privileges for specific groups, thereby consolidating support.

• b) By prioritizing stability over flexibility, ensuring continuity in governance.

• c) By striking a delicate balance between tradition and innovation.

• d) By fostering a sense of collective responsibility.

Explanation:

• Fostering a sense of collective responsibility emphasizes the idea of a constitution creating a sense of shared duty among citizens, encouraging them to work toward common goals. When a constitution fosters collective responsibility, it helps build a society where individuals see themselves as part of a greater whole, reinforcing the constitution’s authority.

• This sense of collective responsibility is closely tied to principles of justice, as it encourages individuals to contribute to a fair and equitable society.

• Fostering a sense of collective responsibility aligns with the underlying principles of justice by promoting a unified society where individuals work together for the common good.

• This sense of unity and shared purpose enhances the constitution’s authority, as it creates a stable framework for societal governance based on justice and equity. This approach supports the idea that justice should benefit the broader society and not just a select few.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

• This sense of collective responsibility is closely tied to principles of justice, as it encourages individuals to contribute to a fair and equitable society.

• Fostering a sense of collective responsibility aligns with the underlying principles of justice by promoting a unified society where individuals work together for the common good.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Which of the following is the biggest potential threat that could undermine the efficacy of a constitution? a) The constitution systematically favoring specific factions. b) The consolidation of power within a central authority. c) A rigid framework that resists change to maintain historical continuity. d) A flexible structure that allows for dynamic adaptation to evolving societal needs Correct Answer: a Explanation: A constitution that systematically favors specific factions risks creating a society marked by inequality and discrimination. If certain groups are consistently privileged, it can lead to disenfranchisement, resentment, and societal unrest. This kind of favoritism undermines the fundamental principles of justice and equality, potentially leading to conflict and reducing the constitution’s authority. When power is concentrated within a central authority, there is a significant risk of authoritarianism or dictatorship. A constitution’s efficacy depends on a balance of power, with checks and balances to prevent abuse. Consolidated power can lead to the erosion of democratic principles, suppression of dissent, and limitations on freedoms and rights. This centralization can undermine the effectiveness of a constitution in maintaining a fair and just society. A constitution that is too rigid may struggle to adapt to changing societal norms and needs. While stability is important, an inflexible constitution can become outdated, failing to address contemporary issues. This rigidity can lead to legal stagnation, making it difficult to respond to evolving concepts of justice, technology, and societal values. However, rigidity alone might not completely undermine the constitution’s efficacy if other democratic institutions remain robust. Flexibility in a constitution can be advantageous because it allows for changes in response to new challenges or societal shifts. However, too much flexibility can lead to unpredictability, inconsistency, and even exploitation. If a constitution can be easily altered, it may lose its authority and stability, potentially allowing for the erosion of fundamental rights and enabling the rise of autocratic leaders. While each of these factors could undermine the efficacy of a constitution, Option A represents the most significant potential threat. Systematic favoritism of specific factions erodes the foundation of equality and justice, leading to societal divisions and unrest. When a constitution inherently discriminates or creates imbalances, it loses credibility and the ability to govern fairly. Options B and C are also considerable threats—consolidation of power can lead to autocracy, while rigid frameworks can become outdated. However, both can still maintain some level of constitutional integrity under certain conditions. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: A constitution that systematically favors specific factions risks creating a society marked by inequality and discrimination. If certain groups are consistently privileged, it can lead to disenfranchisement, resentment, and societal unrest. This kind of favoritism undermines the fundamental principles of justice and equality, potentially leading to conflict and reducing the constitution’s authority. When power is concentrated within a central authority, there is a significant risk of authoritarianism or dictatorship. A constitution’s efficacy depends on a balance of power, with checks and balances to prevent abuse. Consolidated power can lead to the erosion of democratic principles, suppression of dissent, and limitations on freedoms and rights. This centralization can undermine the effectiveness of a constitution in maintaining a fair and just society. A constitution that is too rigid may struggle to adapt to changing societal norms and needs. While stability is important, an inflexible constitution can become outdated, failing to address contemporary issues. This rigidity can lead to legal stagnation, making it difficult to respond to evolving concepts of justice, technology, and societal values. However, rigidity alone might not completely undermine the constitution’s efficacy if other democratic institutions remain robust. Flexibility in a constitution can be advantageous because it allows for changes in response to new challenges or societal shifts. However, too much flexibility can lead to unpredictability, inconsistency, and even exploitation. If a constitution can be easily altered, it may lose its authority and stability, potentially allowing for the erosion of fundamental rights and enabling the rise of autocratic leaders. While each of these factors could undermine the efficacy of a constitution, Option A represents the most significant potential threat. Systematic favoritism of specific factions erodes the foundation of equality and justice, leading to societal divisions and unrest. When a constitution inherently discriminates or creates imbalances, it loses credibility and the ability to govern fairly. Options B and C are also considerable threats—consolidation of power can lead to autocracy, while rigid frameworks can become outdated. However, both can still maintain some level of constitutional integrity under certain conditions. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 2. Question

Which of the following is the biggest potential threat that could undermine the efficacy of a constitution?

• a) The constitution systematically favoring specific factions.

• b) The consolidation of power within a central authority.

• c) A rigid framework that resists change to maintain historical continuity.

• d) A flexible structure that allows for dynamic adaptation to evolving societal needs

Explanation:

• A constitution that systematically favors specific factions risks creating a society marked by inequality and discrimination. If certain groups are consistently privileged, it can lead to disenfranchisement, resentment, and societal unrest. This kind of favoritism undermines the fundamental principles of justice and equality, potentially leading to conflict and reducing the constitution’s authority.

• When power is concentrated within a central authority, there is a significant risk of authoritarianism or dictatorship. A constitution’s efficacy depends on a balance of power, with checks and balances to prevent abuse. Consolidated power can lead to the erosion of democratic principles, suppression of dissent, and limitations on freedoms and rights. This centralization can undermine the effectiveness of a constitution in maintaining a fair and just society.

• A constitution that is too rigid may struggle to adapt to changing societal norms and needs. While stability is important, an inflexible constitution can become outdated, failing to address contemporary issues. This rigidity can lead to legal stagnation, making it difficult to respond to evolving concepts of justice, technology, and societal values. However, rigidity alone might not completely undermine the constitution’s efficacy if other democratic institutions remain robust.

• Flexibility in a constitution can be advantageous because it allows for changes in response to new challenges or societal shifts. However, too much flexibility can lead to unpredictability, inconsistency, and even exploitation. If a constitution can be easily altered, it may lose its authority and stability, potentially allowing for the erosion of fundamental rights and enabling the rise of autocratic leaders.

• While each of these factors could undermine the efficacy of a constitution, Option A represents the most significant potential threat. Systematic favoritism of specific factions erodes the foundation of equality and justice, leading to societal divisions and unrest. When a constitution inherently discriminates or creates imbalances, it loses credibility and the ability to govern fairly.

• Options B and C are also considerable threats—consolidation of power can lead to autocracy, while rigid frameworks can become outdated. However, both can still maintain some level of constitutional integrity under certain conditions.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points What role did the Objectives Resolution play in the making of the Indian Constitution? a) It served as a comprehensive blueprint for the Constitution's provisions. b) It outlined the principles and aspirations that guided the drafting process. c) It detailed the administrative procedures for implementing the Constitution. d) It defined the territorial boundaries of the Indian Union. Correct Answer: b Explanation: The Resolution, moved by Jawaharlal Nehru in 1946, encapsulated key values such as equality, liberty, democracy, sovereignty, and a commitment to justice and social welfare. These principles served as a guiding light for the Constituent Assembly’s deliberations, informing the direction and spirit of the Constitution’s drafting process. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: The Resolution, moved by Jawaharlal Nehru in 1946, encapsulated key values such as equality, liberty, democracy, sovereignty, and a commitment to justice and social welfare. These principles served as a guiding light for the Constituent Assembly’s deliberations, informing the direction and spirit of the Constitution’s drafting process. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 3. Question

What role did the Objectives Resolution play in the making of the Indian Constitution?

• a) It served as a comprehensive blueprint for the Constitution's provisions.

• b) It outlined the principles and aspirations that guided the drafting process.

• c) It detailed the administrative procedures for implementing the Constitution.

• d) It defined the territorial boundaries of the Indian Union.

Explanation:

• The Resolution, moved by Jawaharlal Nehru in 1946, encapsulated key values such as equality, liberty, democracy, sovereignty, and a commitment to justice and social welfare. These principles served as a guiding light for the Constituent Assembly’s deliberations, informing the direction and spirit of the Constitution’s drafting process.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points If a government official confers titles to individuals based on their religion, caste, or gender, which fundamental right would this most likely violate? a) Right to Equality. b) Right to Freedom of Speech. c) Right to Freedom of Religion. d) Abolition of titles Correct Answer: a Explanation: The Right to Equality (Article 14) ensures that all individuals are treated equally and without discrimination. If a government official confers titles based solely on religion, caste, or gender, this would clearly violate the principle of equality by favouring certain groups over others. The basis of this right is that everyone should be subject to the same laws and have equal access to public opportunities, without discrimination based on inherent characteristics like religion, caste, or gender. Abolition of titles (Article 18) in the Indian Constitution prohibits the government from conferring titles that are not linked to military or academic achievement. However, the question specifies that titles are being conferred based on religion, caste, or gender, suggesting discrimination rather than the mere conferral of titles. While the right against titles might seem relevant, it doesn’t directly address the discriminatory aspect of conferring titles based on identity markers like religion, caste, or gender. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: The Right to Equality (Article 14) ensures that all individuals are treated equally and without discrimination. If a government official confers titles based solely on religion, caste, or gender, this would clearly violate the principle of equality by favouring certain groups over others. The basis of this right is that everyone should be subject to the same laws and have equal access to public opportunities, without discrimination based on inherent characteristics like religion, caste, or gender. Abolition of titles (Article 18) in the Indian Constitution prohibits the government from conferring titles that are not linked to military or academic achievement. However, the question specifies that titles are being conferred based on religion, caste, or gender, suggesting discrimination rather than the mere conferral of titles. While the right against titles might seem relevant, it doesn’t directly address the discriminatory aspect of conferring titles based on identity markers like religion, caste, or gender. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 4. Question

If a government official confers titles to individuals based on their religion, caste, or gender, which fundamental right would this most likely violate?

• a) Right to Equality.

• b) Right to Freedom of Speech.

• c) Right to Freedom of Religion.

• d) Abolition of titles

Explanation:

• The Right to Equality (Article 14) ensures that all individuals are treated equally and without discrimination. If a government official confers titles based solely on religion, caste, or gender, this would clearly violate the principle of equality by favouring certain groups over others. The basis of this right is that everyone should be subject to the same laws and have equal access to public opportunities, without discrimination based on inherent characteristics like religion, caste, or gender.

• Abolition of titles (Article 18) in the Indian Constitution prohibits the government from conferring titles that are not linked to military or academic achievement. However, the question specifies that titles are being conferred based on religion, caste, or gender, suggesting discrimination rather than the mere conferral of titles. While the right against titles might seem relevant, it doesn’t directly address the discriminatory aspect of conferring titles based on identity markers like religion, caste, or gender.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Consider the following: A school denying admission to a student because of their religion. A government policy that restricts religious gatherings A law that bans certain religious practices A workplace policy that requires all employees to participate in religious ceremonies. How many of the above situations would be considered a violation of the Right to Freedom of Religion in India? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: b Explanation: A school denying admission to a student because of their religion clearly violates the Right to Freedom of Religion as it discriminates against someone based on their religion. The Indian Constitution prohibits discrimination in educational institutions based on religion, among other grounds. A government policy that restricts religious gatherings. This situation does not inherently violate the Right to Freedom of Religion, as the Constitution allows for restrictions on religious practices to protect public order, health, or morality. Such policies are often enacted to ensure public safety and are typically justified under the Constitution’s permissible limitations. A law that bans certain religious practices. This might not necessarily violate the Right to Freedom of Religion, depending on the context and the reason for the ban. The Indian Constitution allows the government to impose restrictions to protect public order, health, or morality. If the banned practices are harmful or pose a risk to public safety or morality, the law might be considered a permissible restriction rather than a violation of religious freedom. A workplace policy that requires all employees to participate in religious ceremonies. This situation violates the Right to Freedom of Religion, as it compels individuals to engage in religious practices, infringing on their freedom of conscience. The Constitution guarantees individuals the freedom to choose their religion or not follow any religion, and requiring participation in religious ceremonies goes against this right. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: A school denying admission to a student because of their religion clearly violates the Right to Freedom of Religion as it discriminates against someone based on their religion. The Indian Constitution prohibits discrimination in educational institutions based on religion, among other grounds. A government policy that restricts religious gatherings. This situation does not inherently violate the Right to Freedom of Religion, as the Constitution allows for restrictions on religious practices to protect public order, health, or morality. Such policies are often enacted to ensure public safety and are typically justified under the Constitution’s permissible limitations. A law that bans certain religious practices. This might not necessarily violate the Right to Freedom of Religion, depending on the context and the reason for the ban. The Indian Constitution allows the government to impose restrictions to protect public order, health, or morality. If the banned practices are harmful or pose a risk to public safety or morality, the law might be considered a permissible restriction rather than a violation of religious freedom. A workplace policy that requires all employees to participate in religious ceremonies. This situation violates the Right to Freedom of Religion, as it compels individuals to engage in religious practices, infringing on their freedom of conscience. The Constitution guarantees individuals the freedom to choose their religion or not follow any religion, and requiring participation in religious ceremonies goes against this right. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following:

• A school denying admission to a student because of their religion.

• A government policy that restricts religious gatherings

• A law that bans certain religious practices

• A workplace policy that requires all employees to participate in religious ceremonies.

How many of the above situations would be considered a violation of the Right to Freedom of Religion in India?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

• A school denying admission to a student because of their religion clearly violates the Right to Freedom of Religion as it discriminates against someone based on their religion. The Indian Constitution prohibits discrimination in educational institutions based on religion, among other grounds.

• A government policy that restricts religious gatherings. This situation does not inherently violate the Right to Freedom of Religion, as the Constitution allows for restrictions on religious practices to protect public order, health, or morality. Such policies are often enacted to ensure public safety and are typically justified under the Constitution’s permissible limitations.

• A law that bans certain religious practices. This might not necessarily violate the Right to Freedom of Religion, depending on the context and the reason for the ban. The Indian Constitution allows the government to impose restrictions to protect public order, health, or morality. If the banned practices are harmful or pose a risk to public safety or morality, the law might be considered a permissible restriction rather than a violation of religious freedom.

• A workplace policy that requires all employees to participate in religious ceremonies. This situation violates the Right to Freedom of Religion, as it compels individuals to engage in religious practices, infringing on their freedom of conscience. The Constitution guarantees individuals the freedom to choose their religion or not follow any religion, and requiring participation in religious ceremonies goes against this right.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points How is Article 355 different from Article 356 in the Indian Constitution? a) Article 355 concerns only internal disturbances, while Article 356 deals with external aggression b) Article 356 empowers the President to impose President's Rule, while Article 355 focuses on issuing directions to states c) Article 355 involves the suspension of the state assembly, while Article 356 does not d) Article 355 allows for the removal of a state government, while Article 356 does not Correct Answer: b Explanation: Article 355: This provision places the duty on the Union to protect every state against external aggression and internal disturbances. Additionally, it empowers the Union to issue directions to states to ensure compliance with Union laws and regulations, particularly when states are dealing with internal disturbances or external threats. It serves as a more advisory or directive function, providing a mechanism for the central government to support states during emergencies or threats. Article 356: This provision allows the President to impose President’s Rule in a state in cases where there is a failure or breakdown of constitutional machinery. When Article 356 is invoked, the state machinery, including the state assembly, is effectively taken over by the Centre. It is more drastic and comprehensive, allowing for the dismissal of the state government and assuming control over the state’s governance. Distinction: While Article 355 is focused on providing support and issuing directives to states during emergencies, Article 356 is used when there’s a need to take over the governance of a state due to a constitutional breakdown. Thus, Article 356 is a more direct form of intervention, involving a significant change in the state’s administration, while Article 355 offers more flexibility and is not as severe in its implications. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Article 355: This provision places the duty on the Union to protect every state against external aggression and internal disturbances. Additionally, it empowers the Union to issue directions to states to ensure compliance with Union laws and regulations, particularly when states are dealing with internal disturbances or external threats. It serves as a more advisory or directive function, providing a mechanism for the central government to support states during emergencies or threats. Article 356: This provision allows the President to impose President’s Rule in a state in cases where there is a failure or breakdown of constitutional machinery. When Article 356 is invoked, the state machinery, including the state assembly, is effectively taken over by the Centre. It is more drastic and comprehensive, allowing for the dismissal of the state government and assuming control over the state’s governance. Distinction: While Article 355 is focused on providing support and issuing directives to states during emergencies, Article 356 is used when there’s a need to take over the governance of a state due to a constitutional breakdown. Thus, Article 356 is a more direct form of intervention, involving a significant change in the state’s administration, while Article 355 offers more flexibility and is not as severe in its implications. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 6. Question

How is Article 355 different from Article 356 in the Indian Constitution?

• a) Article 355 concerns only internal disturbances, while Article 356 deals with external aggression

• b) Article 356 empowers the President to impose President's Rule, while Article 355 focuses on issuing directions to states

• c) Article 355 involves the suspension of the state assembly, while Article 356 does not

• d) Article 355 allows for the removal of a state government, while Article 356 does not

Explanation:

• Article 355: This provision places the duty on the Union to protect every state against external aggression and internal disturbances. Additionally, it empowers the Union to issue directions to states to ensure compliance with Union laws and regulations, particularly when states are dealing with internal disturbances or external threats. It serves as a more advisory or directive function, providing a mechanism for the central government to support states during emergencies or threats.

• Article 356: This provision allows the President to impose President’s Rule in a state in cases where there is a failure or breakdown of constitutional machinery. When Article 356 is invoked, the state machinery, including the state assembly, is effectively taken over by the Centre. It is more drastic and comprehensive, allowing for the dismissal of the state government and assuming control over the state’s governance.

• Distinction: While Article 355 is focused on providing support and issuing directives to states during emergencies, Article 356 is used when there’s a need to take over the governance of a state due to a constitutional breakdown. Thus, Article 356 is a more direct form of intervention, involving a significant change in the state’s administration, while Article 355 offers more flexibility and is not as severe in its implications.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points In which landmark case did the Supreme Court of India uphold the constitutionality of Section 124A but limited its application? a) Kedar Nath Singh v State of Bihar b) Balwant Singh v State of Punjab c) Shreya Singhal v Union of India d) Navtej Singh Johar v Union of India Correct Answer: a Explanation: Kedar Nath Singh v State of Bihar (1962): This landmark case upheld the constitutionality of Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), which defines the offence of sedition. The Supreme Court, however, clarified the scope of sedition by limiting its application to acts that have the intention or tendency to incite violence, cause disorder, or create a disturbance of law and order. The court distinguished these acts from strong or critical speech that does not lead to violence or disorder. This case set the precedent that mere criticism of the government, no matter how strong, does not constitute sedition unless it incites violence or public disorder. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Kedar Nath Singh v State of Bihar (1962): This landmark case upheld the constitutionality of Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), which defines the offence of sedition. The Supreme Court, however, clarified the scope of sedition by limiting its application to acts that have the intention or tendency to incite violence, cause disorder, or create a disturbance of law and order. The court distinguished these acts from strong or critical speech that does not lead to violence or disorder. This case set the precedent that mere criticism of the government, no matter how strong, does not constitute sedition unless it incites violence or public disorder. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 7. Question

In which landmark case did the Supreme Court of India uphold the constitutionality of Section 124A but limited its application?

• a) Kedar Nath Singh v State of Bihar

• b) Balwant Singh v State of Punjab

• c) Shreya Singhal v Union of India

• d) Navtej Singh Johar v Union of India

Explanation:

• Kedar Nath Singh v State of Bihar (1962): This landmark case upheld the constitutionality of Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), which defines the offence of sedition. The Supreme Court, however, clarified the scope of sedition by limiting its application to acts that have the intention or tendency to incite violence, cause disorder, or create a disturbance of law and order. The court distinguished these acts from strong or critical speech that does not lead to violence or disorder. This case set the precedent that mere criticism of the government, no matter how strong, does not constitute sedition unless it incites violence or public disorder.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Consider the following: Nationalization of banks Right to education Formation of Panchayati raj institutions How many of the above is/are example/s of Directive Principle/s that has/have been implemented by the Indian government? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: c Explanation: Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP): These are guidelines or principles in the Indian Constitution that guide the State in making policies and laws. They are non-justiciable, meaning they are not legally enforceable in a court of law, but they serve as moral and ethical guidelines for governance. Nationalization of banks: This was part of the effort to promote economic equality and social justice, reflecting the spirit of Directive Principles aiming at reducing inequality. Right to education: While originally a directive principle, it eventually became a fundamental right under Article 21A of the Constitution. However, its initial concept was embedded within the Directive Principles, which stress the importance of education. Formation of Panchayati raj institutions: This aligns with the directive principle that encourages decentralization and promoting village panchayats. The implementation of Panchayati raj through the 73rd Amendment Act reflected this objective. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP): These are guidelines or principles in the Indian Constitution that guide the State in making policies and laws. They are non-justiciable, meaning they are not legally enforceable in a court of law, but they serve as moral and ethical guidelines for governance. Nationalization of banks: This was part of the effort to promote economic equality and social justice, reflecting the spirit of Directive Principles aiming at reducing inequality. Right to education: While originally a directive principle, it eventually became a fundamental right under Article 21A of the Constitution. However, its initial concept was embedded within the Directive Principles, which stress the importance of education. Formation of Panchayati raj institutions: This aligns with the directive principle that encourages decentralization and promoting village panchayats. The implementation of Panchayati raj through the 73rd Amendment Act reflected this objective. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following:

• Nationalization of banks

• Right to education

• Formation of Panchayati raj institutions

How many of the above is/are example/s of Directive Principle/s that has/have been implemented by the Indian government?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Explanation:

• Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP): These are guidelines or principles in the Indian Constitution that guide the State in making policies and laws. They are non-justiciable, meaning they are not legally enforceable in a court of law, but they serve as moral and ethical guidelines for governance.

• Nationalization of banks: This was part of the effort to promote economic equality and social justice, reflecting the spirit of Directive Principles aiming at reducing inequality.

• Right to education: While originally a directive principle, it eventually became a fundamental right under Article 21A of the Constitution. However, its initial concept was embedded within the Directive Principles, which stress the importance of education.

• Formation of Panchayati raj institutions: This aligns with the directive principle that encourages decentralization and promoting village panchayats. The implementation of Panchayati raj through the 73rd Amendment Act reflected this objective.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

• Nationalization of banks: This was part of the effort to promote economic equality and social justice, reflecting the spirit of Directive Principles aiming at reducing inequality.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements with reference to the Preamble of the Constitution of India: The Preamble is based on the ‘Objective Resolution’ moved by Jawaharlal Nehru in the Constitution Assembly. The Preamble has been amended only twice so far. In the Berubari Union case, the Supreme Court held that Preamble is a part of the Constitution. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: a Explanation: The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the ‘Objectives Resolution’, drafted and moved by Pandit Nehru, and adopted by the Constituent Assembly. Hence statement 1 is correct. The Preamble has been amended only once so far, in 1976, by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, which has added three new words–Socialist, Secular and Integrity–to the Preamble. This amendment was held to be valid. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. In the Berubari Union case (1960), the Supreme Court said that the Preamble shows the general purposes behind the several provisions in the Constitution, and is thus a key to the minds of the makers of the Constitution. Despite this recognition of the significance of the Preamble, the Supreme Court specifically opined that Preamble is not a part of the Constitution. In the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Supreme Court rejected the earlier opinion and held that Preamble is a part of the Constitution. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the ‘Objectives Resolution’, drafted and moved by Pandit Nehru, and adopted by the Constituent Assembly. Hence statement 1 is correct. The Preamble has been amended only once so far, in 1976, by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, which has added three new words–Socialist, Secular and Integrity–to the Preamble. This amendment was held to be valid. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. In the Berubari Union case (1960), the Supreme Court said that the Preamble shows the general purposes behind the several provisions in the Constitution, and is thus a key to the minds of the makers of the Constitution. Despite this recognition of the significance of the Preamble, the Supreme Court specifically opined that Preamble is not a part of the Constitution. In the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Supreme Court rejected the earlier opinion and held that Preamble is a part of the Constitution. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements with reference to the Preamble of the Constitution of India:

• The Preamble is based on the ‘Objective Resolution’ moved by Jawaharlal Nehru in the Constitution Assembly.

• The Preamble has been amended only twice so far.

• In the Berubari Union case, the Supreme Court held that Preamble is a part of the Constitution.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Explanation:

• The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the ‘Objectives Resolution’, drafted and moved by Pandit Nehru, and adopted by the Constituent Assembly. Hence statement 1 is correct.

• The Preamble has been amended only once so far, in 1976, by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, which has added three new words–Socialist, Secular and Integrity–to the Preamble. This amendment was held to be valid. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

• In the Berubari Union case (1960), the Supreme Court said that the Preamble shows the general purposes behind the several provisions in the Constitution, and is thus a key to the minds of the makers of the Constitution. Despite this recognition of the significance of the Preamble, the Supreme Court specifically opined that Preamble is not a part of the Constitution.

• In the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Supreme Court rejected the earlier opinion and held that Preamble is a part of the Constitution. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• In the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Supreme Court rejected the earlier opinion and held that Preamble is a part of the Constitution. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Consider the following: Article 2 Article 3 Article 368 How many of the above articles will be used by the parliament, if India decides to cede its territory to a neighbor? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: a Explanation: Being a sovereign state, India can acquire foreign territories or cede own territories according to the modes recognized by international law, i.e., cession (following treaty, purchase, gift, lease or plebiscite), occupation (hitherto unoccupied by a recognized ruler), conquest or subjugation Article 2: It relates to the admission or establishment of new states that are not part of the Union of India. Article 3: It relates to the formation of or changes in the existing states of the Union of India. In other words, it deals with the internal re-adjustment inter se of the territories of the constituent states of the Union of India. The Supreme Court held that the power of Parliament to diminish the area of a state (under Article 3) does not cover the cession of Indian Territory to a foreign country. Hence, Indian Territory can be ceded to a foreign state only by amending the Constitution under Article 368. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Being a sovereign state, India can acquire foreign territories or cede own territories according to the modes recognized by international law, i.e., cession (following treaty, purchase, gift, lease or plebiscite), occupation (hitherto unoccupied by a recognized ruler), conquest or subjugation Article 2: It relates to the admission or establishment of new states that are not part of the Union of India. Article 3: It relates to the formation of or changes in the existing states of the Union of India. In other words, it deals with the internal re-adjustment inter se of the territories of the constituent states of the Union of India. The Supreme Court held that the power of Parliament to diminish the area of a state (under Article 3) does not cover the cession of Indian Territory to a foreign country. Hence, Indian Territory can be ceded to a foreign state only by amending the Constitution under Article 368. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following:

• Article 368

How many of the above articles will be used by the parliament, if India decides to cede its territory to a neighbor?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Explanation:

• Being a sovereign state, India can acquire foreign territories or cede own territories according to the modes recognized by international law, i.e., cession (following treaty, purchase, gift, lease or plebiscite), occupation (hitherto unoccupied by a recognized ruler), conquest or subjugation

• Article 2: It relates to the admission or establishment of new states that are not part of the Union of India.

• Article 3: It relates to the formation of or changes in the existing states of the Union of India. In other words, it deals with the internal re-adjustment inter se of the territories of the constituent states of the Union of India.

• The Supreme Court held that the power of Parliament to diminish the area of a state (under Article 3) does not cover the cession of Indian Territory to a foreign country. Hence, Indian Territory can be ceded to a foreign state only by amending the Constitution under Article 368.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• Article 2: It relates to the admission or establishment of new states that are not part of the Union of India.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points The Mount Semeru, recently seen in news, is located in: (a) Indonesia (b) Italy (c) Japan (d) Myanmar Correct Solution: A The Semeru, or Mount Semeru, is an active volcano located in East Java, Indonesia. It is located in a subduction zone, where the Indo-Australian plate subducts under the Eurasia plate. It is the highest mountain on the island of Java. Incorrect Solution: A The Semeru, or Mount Semeru, is an active volcano located in East Java, Indonesia. It is located in a subduction zone, where the Indo-Australian plate subducts under the Eurasia plate. It is the highest mountain on the island of Java.

#### 11. Question

The Mount Semeru, recently seen in news, is located in:

• (a) Indonesia

• (d) Myanmar

Solution: A

• The Semeru, or Mount Semeru, is an active volcano located in East Java, Indonesia.

• It is located in a subduction zone, where the Indo-Australian plate subducts under the Eurasia plate.

• It is the highest mountain on the island of Java.

Solution: A

• The Semeru, or Mount Semeru, is an active volcano located in East Java, Indonesia.

• It is located in a subduction zone, where the Indo-Australian plate subducts under the Eurasia plate.

• It is the highest mountain on the island of Java.

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: A geoglyph is a large design or motif produced on the ground by durable elements of the landscape. One of the famous geoglyphs of world are Nazca lines located in Peru. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Both the statements given above are correct. A geoglyph is a large design or motif (generally longer than 4 metres) produced on the ground by durable elements of the landscape, such as stones, stone fragments, gravel, or earth. Geoglyphs are generally a type of land art, and sometimes rock art. A hill figure is created on a slope, so that it can be seen from a distance. Perhaps the most famous geoglyphs are the Nazca lines in Peru. The cultural significance of these geoglyphs for their creators remains unclear, despite many hypotheses Incorrect Solution: C Both the statements given above are correct. A geoglyph is a large design or motif (generally longer than 4 metres) produced on the ground by durable elements of the landscape, such as stones, stone fragments, gravel, or earth. Geoglyphs are generally a type of land art, and sometimes rock art. A hill figure is created on a slope, so that it can be seen from a distance. Perhaps the most famous geoglyphs are the Nazca lines in Peru. The cultural significance of these geoglyphs for their creators remains unclear, despite many hypotheses

#### 12. Question

Consider the following statements:

• A geoglyph is a large design or motif produced on the ground by durable elements of the landscape.

• One of the famous geoglyphs of world are Nazca lines located in Peru.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

Both the statements given above are correct.

• A geoglyph is a large design or motif (generally longer than 4 metres) produced on the ground by durable elements of the landscape, such as stones, stone fragments, gravel, or earth.

• Geoglyphs are generally a type of land art, and sometimes rock art. A hill figure is created on a slope, so that it can be seen from a distance.

Perhaps the most famous geoglyphs are the Nazca lines in Peru. The cultural significance of these geoglyphs for their creators remains unclear, despite many hypotheses

Solution: C

Both the statements given above are correct.

• A geoglyph is a large design or motif (generally longer than 4 metres) produced on the ground by durable elements of the landscape, such as stones, stone fragments, gravel, or earth.

• Geoglyphs are generally a type of land art, and sometimes rock art. A hill figure is created on a slope, so that it can be seen from a distance.

Perhaps the most famous geoglyphs are the Nazca lines in Peru. The cultural significance of these geoglyphs for their creators remains unclear, despite many hypotheses

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points The term “Betelguese” has been talked about in news recently in context of- (a) A supergiant Star (b) A near-Earth Asteroid (c) A newly discovered exoplanet (d) A newly designated lunar crater Correct Answer: A Explanation: Option (a) is correct: Analyzing data from NASA’s Hubble Space Telescope and several other observatories, astronomers have concluded that the bright red supergiant star Betelgeuse quite literally blew its top in 2019. The monster star is still slowly recovering from this catastrophic upheaval. “Betelgeuse continues doing some very unusual things right now; the interior is sort of bouncing. It is suspected that Betelgeuse lost a large part of its surface material in this remarkable event. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Option (a) is correct: Analyzing data from NASA’s Hubble Space Telescope and several other observatories, astronomers have concluded that the bright red supergiant star Betelgeuse quite literally blew its top in 2019. The monster star is still slowly recovering from this catastrophic upheaval. “Betelgeuse continues doing some very unusual things right now; the interior is sort of bouncing. It is suspected that Betelgeuse lost a large part of its surface material in this remarkable event.

#### 13. Question

The term “Betelguese” has been talked about in news recently in context of-

• (a) A supergiant Star

• (b) A near-Earth Asteroid

• (c) A newly discovered exoplanet

• (d) A newly designated lunar crater

Answer: A

Explanation:

Option (a) is correct: Analyzing data from NASA’s Hubble Space Telescope and several other observatories, astronomers have concluded that the bright red supergiant star Betelgeuse quite literally blew its top in 2019.

The monster star is still slowly recovering from this catastrophic upheaval. “Betelgeuse continues doing some very unusual things right now; the interior is sort of bouncing.

It is suspected that Betelgeuse lost a large part of its surface material in this remarkable event.

Answer: A

Explanation:

The monster star is still slowly recovering from this catastrophic upheaval. “Betelgeuse continues doing some very unusual things right now; the interior is sort of bouncing.

It is suspected that Betelgeuse lost a large part of its surface material in this remarkable event.

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Which of the following statements is/are correct about the RNA granules? These granules are composed of RNA-binding proteins but cannot provide functional compartmentalization within the cells. These granules are involved in neurodegenerative diseases in addition to apoptosis and mRNA metabolism. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: RNA granules are ubiquitous and are composed of RNA-binding proteins and RNAs, they provide functional compartmentalization within cells. They are inextricably linked with RNA biology and as such are often referred to as the hubs for post-transcriptional regulation. RNA granules have been functionally associated with myriad biological processes and disease states. They represent a broad variety of phase separated RNA and protein condensates. These granules can be constitutive or stress-induced, nuclear or cytoplasmic, static or dynamic. Statement 2 is correct: RNA granules are known to be involved in neurodegenerative disease and cancer, in addition to broad-ranging cellular processes including apoptosis, translational control, and mRNA metabolism. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: RNA granules are ubiquitous and are composed of RNA-binding proteins and RNAs, they provide functional compartmentalization within cells. They are inextricably linked with RNA biology and as such are often referred to as the hubs for post-transcriptional regulation. RNA granules have been functionally associated with myriad biological processes and disease states. They represent a broad variety of phase separated RNA and protein condensates. These granules can be constitutive or stress-induced, nuclear or cytoplasmic, static or dynamic. Statement 2 is correct: RNA granules are known to be involved in neurodegenerative disease and cancer, in addition to broad-ranging cellular processes including apoptosis, translational control, and mRNA metabolism.

#### 14. Question

Which of the following statements is/are correct about the RNA granules?

• These granules are composed of RNA-binding proteins but cannot provide functional compartmentalization within the cells.

• These granules are involved in neurodegenerative diseases in addition to apoptosis and mRNA metabolism.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: RNA granules are ubiquitous and are composed of RNA-binding proteins and RNAs, they provide functional compartmentalization within cells. They are inextricably linked with RNA biology and as such are often referred to as the hubs for post-transcriptional regulation.

RNA granules have been functionally associated with myriad biological processes and disease states. They represent a broad variety of phase separated RNA and protein condensates. These granules can be constitutive or stress-induced, nuclear or cytoplasmic, static or dynamic.

Statement 2 is correct: RNA granules are known to be involved in neurodegenerative disease and cancer, in addition to broad-ranging cellular processes including apoptosis, translational control, and mRNA metabolism.

Answer: B

Explanation:

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points With reference to the Countercyclical Capital Buffer (CCyB), how many of the following statements is/are correct? CCyB restricts the banking sector from indiscriminate lending in periods of excess credit growth. CCyB indicators include incremental credit-deposit ratio for a moving period of three years. CCyB cannot be maintained in the form of Common Equity Tier 1 capital. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Countercyclical capital buffer (CCyB) requires banks to build up a buffer of capital in good times which may be used to maintain flow of credit to the real sector in difficult times. Statements 1 is correct: It achieves the broader macro-prudential goal of restricting the banking sector from indiscriminate lending in the periods of excess credit growth that have often been associated with the building up of system-wide risk. Statement 2 is correct: CCyB indicators include credit-to-GDP gap, incremental credit-deposit ratio for a moving period of three years, industry outlook assessment index (along with its correlation with GNPA growth) and interest coverage ratio (along with its correlation with credit-to-GDP gap). Statement 3 is not correct: According to RBI, CCyB may be maintained in the form of Common Equity Tier 1 (CET 1) capital or other fully loss absorbing capital only, and the amount of the CCyB may vary from 0 to 2.5 per cent of total risk weighted assets of the banks. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Countercyclical capital buffer (CCyB) requires banks to build up a buffer of capital in good times which may be used to maintain flow of credit to the real sector in difficult times. Statements 1 is correct: It achieves the broader macro-prudential goal of restricting the banking sector from indiscriminate lending in the periods of excess credit growth that have often been associated with the building up of system-wide risk. Statement 2 is correct: CCyB indicators include credit-to-GDP gap, incremental credit-deposit ratio for a moving period of three years, industry outlook assessment index (along with its correlation with GNPA growth) and interest coverage ratio (along with its correlation with credit-to-GDP gap). Statement 3 is not correct: According to RBI, CCyB may be maintained in the form of Common Equity Tier 1 (CET 1) capital or other fully loss absorbing capital only, and the amount of the CCyB may vary from 0 to 2.5 per cent of total risk weighted assets of the banks.

#### 15. Question

With reference to the Countercyclical Capital Buffer (CCyB), how many of the following statements is/are correct?

• CCyB restricts the banking sector from indiscriminate lending in periods of excess credit growth.

• CCyB indicators include incremental credit-deposit ratio for a moving period of three years.

• CCyB cannot be maintained in the form of Common Equity Tier 1 capital.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

Countercyclical capital buffer (CCyB) requires banks to build up a buffer of capital in good times which may be used to maintain flow of credit to the real sector in difficult times.

Statements 1 is correct: It achieves the broader macro-prudential goal of restricting the banking sector from indiscriminate lending in the periods of excess credit growth that have often been associated with the building up of system-wide risk.

Statement 2 is correct: CCyB indicators include credit-to-GDP gap, incremental credit-deposit ratio for a moving period of three years, industry outlook assessment index (along with its correlation with GNPA growth) and interest coverage ratio (along with its correlation with credit-to-GDP gap).

Statement 3 is not correct: According to RBI, CCyB may be maintained in the form of Common Equity Tier 1 (CET 1) capital or other fully loss absorbing capital only, and the amount of the CCyB may vary from 0 to 2.5 per cent of total risk weighted assets of the banks.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Countercyclical capital buffer (CCyB) requires banks to build up a buffer of capital in good times which may be used to maintain flow of credit to the real sector in difficult times.

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Tier-1 Bonds: These are unsecured bonds that have perpetual tenure and have no maturity date. They emerged as the capital instruments for state banks to shore up capital ratios. They have a call option used by the banks to buy the bonds back from investors. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: AT1 Bonds stand for additional tier-1 bonds. These are unsecured bonds which have perpetual tenure. In other words, the bonds have no maturity date. Statement 2 is correct: AT1 bonds have emerged as the capital instrument of choice for state banks as they strive to shore up capital ratios. If there are restrictions on investments by mutual funds in such bonds, banks will find it tough to raise capital at a time when they need funds in the wake of the soaring bad assets AT1 bonds are subordinate to all other debt and only senior to common equity. Mutual funds (MFs) are among the largest investors in perpetual debt instruments, and hold over Rs 35,000 crore of the outstanding additional tier-I bond issuances of Rs 90,000 crore. Statement 3 is correct: Typically, MFs have treated the date of the call option on AT1 bonds as maturity date. Now, if these bonds are treated as 100-year bonds, it raises the risk in these bonds as they become ultra-long-term. They have call option, which can be used by the banks to buy these bonds back from investors. These bonds are typically used by banks to bolster their core or tier-1 capital. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: AT1 Bonds stand for additional tier-1 bonds. These are unsecured bonds which have perpetual tenure. In other words, the bonds have no maturity date. Statement 2 is correct: AT1 bonds have emerged as the capital instrument of choice for state banks as they strive to shore up capital ratios. If there are restrictions on investments by mutual funds in such bonds, banks will find it tough to raise capital at a time when they need funds in the wake of the soaring bad assets AT1 bonds are subordinate to all other debt and only senior to common equity. Mutual funds (MFs) are among the largest investors in perpetual debt instruments, and hold over Rs 35,000 crore of the outstanding additional tier-I bond issuances of Rs 90,000 crore. Statement 3 is correct: Typically, MFs have treated the date of the call option on AT1 bonds as maturity date. Now, if these bonds are treated as 100-year bonds, it raises the risk in these bonds as they become ultra-long-term. They have call option, which can be used by the banks to buy these bonds back from investors. These bonds are typically used by banks to bolster their core or tier-1 capital.

#### 16. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Tier-1 Bonds:

• These are unsecured bonds that have perpetual tenure and have no maturity date.

• They emerged as the capital instruments for state banks to shore up capital ratios.

• They have a call option used by the banks to buy the bonds back from investors.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: AT1 Bonds stand for additional tier-1 bonds. These are unsecured bonds which have perpetual tenure. In other words, the bonds have no maturity date.

Statement 2 is correct: AT1 bonds have emerged as the capital instrument of choice for state banks as they strive to shore up capital ratios.

If there are restrictions on investments by mutual funds in such bonds, banks will find it tough to raise capital at a time when they need funds in the wake of the soaring bad assets

AT1 bonds are subordinate to all other debt and only senior to common equity. Mutual funds (MFs) are among the largest investors in perpetual debt instruments, and hold over Rs 35,000 crore of the outstanding additional tier-I bond issuances of Rs 90,000 crore.

Statement 3 is correct: Typically, MFs have treated the date of the call option on AT1 bonds as maturity date. Now, if these bonds are treated as 100-year bonds, it raises the risk in these bonds as they become ultra-long-term.

They have call option, which can be used by the banks to buy these bonds back from investors. These bonds are typically used by banks to bolster their core or tier-1 capital.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: AT1 Bonds stand for additional tier-1 bonds. These are unsecured bonds which have perpetual tenure. In other words, the bonds have no maturity date.

Statement 2 is correct: AT1 bonds have emerged as the capital instrument of choice for state banks as they strive to shore up capital ratios.

If there are restrictions on investments by mutual funds in such bonds, banks will find it tough to raise capital at a time when they need funds in the wake of the soaring bad assets

They have call option, which can be used by the banks to buy these bonds back from investors. These bonds are typically used by banks to bolster their core or tier-1 capital.

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Iberian Peninsula: It connects the Middle Eastern part of Asia with North Africa. It is bordered by the Mediterranean Sea and Israel. It is separated from the Gaza Strip through the Gulf of Aqaba. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: D Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: The Iberian Peninsula is separated from the rest of Europe by the Pyrenees mountain range located between France and Spain. Statement 2 is not correct: The peninsula is mainly occupied by Spain and Portugal. However, it also comprises Andorra, part of Southern France and Gibraltar (British overseas territory). Statement 3 is not correct: Spain’s European continental territory is located entirely on the peninsula. Andorra is located entirely on the Iberian Peninsula. It is the peninsula’s smallest country, covering 468 square kilometers. The Sinai Peninsula, which is part of Egypt, is shaped like a triangle, and as previously mentioned, serves as a land bridge between the Middle Eastern portion of Asia and North Africa. The peninsula is bordered to the north by the Mediterranean Sea, and to the east by Israel and the Gaza Strip. Incorrect Answer: D Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: The Iberian Peninsula is separated from the rest of Europe by the Pyrenees mountain range located between France and Spain. Statement 2 is not correct: The peninsula is mainly occupied by Spain and Portugal. However, it also comprises Andorra, part of Southern France and Gibraltar (British overseas territory). Statement 3 is not correct: Spain’s European continental territory is located entirely on the peninsula. Andorra is located entirely on the Iberian Peninsula. It is the peninsula’s smallest country, covering 468 square kilometers. The Sinai Peninsula, which is part of Egypt, is shaped like a triangle, and as previously mentioned, serves as a land bridge between the Middle Eastern portion of Asia and North Africa. The peninsula is bordered to the north by the Mediterranean Sea, and to the east by Israel and the Gaza Strip.

#### 17. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Iberian Peninsula:

• It connects the Middle Eastern part of Asia with North Africa.

• It is bordered by the Mediterranean Sea and Israel.

• It is separated from the Gaza Strip through the Gulf of Aqaba.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: D

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: The Iberian Peninsula is separated from the rest of Europe by the Pyrenees mountain range located between France and Spain.

Statement 2 is not correct: The peninsula is mainly occupied by Spain and Portugal. However, it also comprises Andorra, part of Southern France and Gibraltar (British overseas territory).

Statement 3 is not correct: Spain’s European continental territory is located entirely on the peninsula.

Andorra is located entirely on the Iberian Peninsula. It is the peninsula’s smallest country, covering 468 square kilometers.

The Sinai Peninsula, which is part of Egypt, is shaped like a triangle, and as previously mentioned, serves as a land bridge between the Middle Eastern portion of Asia and North Africa.

The peninsula is bordered to the north by the Mediterranean Sea, and to the east by Israel and the Gaza Strip.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: The Iberian Peninsula is separated from the rest of Europe by the Pyrenees mountain range located between France and Spain.

Statement 2 is not correct: The peninsula is mainly occupied by Spain and Portugal. However, it also comprises Andorra, part of Southern France and Gibraltar (British overseas territory).

Statement 3 is not correct: Spain’s European continental territory is located entirely on the peninsula.

Andorra is located entirely on the Iberian Peninsula. It is the peninsula’s smallest country, covering 468 square kilometers.

The Sinai Peninsula, which is part of Egypt, is shaped like a triangle, and as previously mentioned, serves as a land bridge between the Middle Eastern portion of Asia and North Africa.

The peninsula is bordered to the north by the Mediterranean Sea, and to the east by Israel and the Gaza Strip.

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Single Photon Emission Computed Tomography (SPECT): SPECT provides a three-dimensional image of the distribution of radioactive tracer molecules introduced into the patient’s body SPECT imagers operate only on the ultraviolet camera detectors that can detect the emissions from the tracers injected into the patient. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: A Explanation: Single Photon Emission Computed Tomography (SPECT): Statement 1 is correct: SPECT imaging instruments provide three-dimensional (tomographic) images of the distribution of radioactive tracer molecules that have been introduced into the patient’s body. The 3D images are computer generated from a large number of projection images of the body recorded at different angles. Statement 2 is not correct: SPECT imagers have gamma camera detectors that can detect the gamma ray emissions from the tracers that have been injected into the patient. Gamma rays are a form of light that moves at a different wavelength than visible light. The cameras are mounted on a rotating gantry that allows the detectors to be moved in a tight circle around a patient who is lying motionless on a pallet. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Single Photon Emission Computed Tomography (SPECT): Statement 1 is correct: SPECT imaging instruments provide three-dimensional (tomographic) images of the distribution of radioactive tracer molecules that have been introduced into the patient’s body. The 3D images are computer generated from a large number of projection images of the body recorded at different angles. Statement 2 is not correct: SPECT imagers have gamma camera detectors that can detect the gamma ray emissions from the tracers that have been injected into the patient. Gamma rays are a form of light that moves at a different wavelength than visible light. The cameras are mounted on a rotating gantry that allows the detectors to be moved in a tight circle around a patient who is lying motionless on a pallet.

#### 18. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Single Photon Emission Computed Tomography (SPECT):

• SPECT provides a three-dimensional image of the distribution of radioactive tracer molecules introduced into the patient’s body

• SPECT imagers operate only on the ultraviolet camera detectors that can detect the emissions from the tracers injected into the patient.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Explanation:

Single Photon Emission Computed Tomography (SPECT):

Statement 1 is correct: SPECT imaging instruments provide three-dimensional (tomographic) images of the distribution of radioactive tracer molecules that have been introduced into the patient’s body.

The 3D images are computer generated from a large number of projection images of the body recorded at different angles.

Statement 2 is not correct: SPECT imagers have gamma camera detectors that can detect the gamma ray emissions from the tracers that have been injected into the patient.

Gamma rays are a form of light that moves at a different wavelength than visible light. The cameras are mounted on a rotating gantry that allows the detectors to be moved in a tight circle around a patient who is lying motionless on a pallet.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Single Photon Emission Computed Tomography (SPECT):

The 3D images are computer generated from a large number of projection images of the body recorded at different angles.

Statement 2 is not correct: SPECT imagers have gamma camera detectors that can detect the gamma ray emissions from the tracers that have been injected into the patient.

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Which one of the following statements provides the best explanation about the term “Neerakshi” recently seen in the news? (a) It is India’s first indigenous nuclear-powered ballistic missile capable submarine crucial for India’s nuclear deterrence capability. (b) It is a domestically developed supersonic aircraft used by the Indian Military and established by the Aeronautical Development Agency. (c) It is an Autonomous Underwater Vehicle capable of carrying a variety of payloads required for roles like mine detection. (d) It is primarily a multi-barrel rocket system with batteries consisting of six launch vehicles and accompanied by the loader systems. Correct Answer: C Explanation: Option (c) is correct: An Autonomous Underwater Vehicle (AUV) ‘Neerakshi’ is capable of carrying a variety of payloads required for roles like mine detection, ASW training, underwater inspection, search & rescue missions and scientific exploration. The signing of MoU between the Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers Ltd. (GRSE) and Indian Register of Shipping (IRS) marks a significant milestone in the journey towards fostering innovation and sustainability in the maritime industry. IRS and GRSE are poised to drive positive change and propel India towards a greener and more technologically advanced future. The primary objective of the collaboration is to jointly pursue and execute contracts for the development of autonomous and green energy vessels, leveraging the complementary capabilities of GRSE and IRS. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Option (c) is correct: An Autonomous Underwater Vehicle (AUV) ‘Neerakshi’ is capable of carrying a variety of payloads required for roles like mine detection, ASW training, underwater inspection, search & rescue missions and scientific exploration. The signing of MoU between the Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers Ltd. (GRSE) and Indian Register of Shipping (IRS) marks a significant milestone in the journey towards fostering innovation and sustainability in the maritime industry. IRS and GRSE are poised to drive positive change and propel India towards a greener and more technologically advanced future. The primary objective of the collaboration is to jointly pursue and execute contracts for the development of autonomous and green energy vessels, leveraging the complementary capabilities of GRSE and IRS.

#### 19. Question

Which one of the following statements provides the best explanation about the term “Neerakshi” recently seen in the news?

• (a) It is India’s first indigenous nuclear-powered ballistic missile capable submarine crucial for India’s nuclear deterrence capability.

• (b) It is a domestically developed supersonic aircraft used by the Indian Military and established by the Aeronautical Development Agency.

• (c) It is an Autonomous Underwater Vehicle capable of carrying a variety of payloads required for roles like mine detection.

• (d) It is primarily a multi-barrel rocket system with batteries consisting of six launch vehicles and accompanied by the loader systems.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Option (c) is correct: An Autonomous Underwater Vehicle (AUV) ‘Neerakshi’ is capable of carrying a variety of payloads required for roles like mine detection, ASW training, underwater inspection, search & rescue missions and scientific exploration.

The signing of MoU between the Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers Ltd. (GRSE) and Indian Register of Shipping (IRS) marks a significant milestone in the journey towards fostering innovation and sustainability in the maritime industry.

IRS and GRSE are poised to drive positive change and propel India towards a greener and more technologically advanced future.

The primary objective of the collaboration is to jointly pursue and execute contracts for the development of autonomous and green energy vessels, leveraging the complementary capabilities of GRSE and IRS.

Answer: C

Explanation:

IRS and GRSE are poised to drive positive change and propel India towards a greener and more technologically advanced future.

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points India recently has notified the creation of a category of Ayush (AY) visa for foreign nationals for treatment under Indian systems of medicine. Introduction of this category is part of India’s roadmap for- (a) The Heal in India initiative (b) The Mission LiFE (c) The Arogya Bharat Initiative (d) The One World One Health Project Correct Answer: A Explanation: Option (a) is correct: Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India has notified the creation of a new category of Ayush (AY) visa for foreign nationals for treatment under Ayush systems/Indian systems of medicine. The introduction of Ayush Visa fulfills the proposal for introduction of a special visa scheme for foreigners visiting India for treatment under Ayush systems/Indian systems of medicine like therapeutic care, wellness and Yoga. ntroduction of Ayush Visa category is part of India’s roadmap for the Heal in India initiative of the government, which is intended at promoting India as a medical value travel destination. Ministry of Ayush and the ministry of Health & Family Welfare are working together to develop a one stop Heal in India portal to promote India as a Medical tourism destination of the world. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Option (a) is correct: Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India has notified the creation of a new category of Ayush (AY) visa for foreign nationals for treatment under Ayush systems/Indian systems of medicine. The introduction of Ayush Visa fulfills the proposal for introduction of a special visa scheme for foreigners visiting India for treatment under Ayush systems/Indian systems of medicine like therapeutic care, wellness and Yoga. ntroduction of Ayush Visa category is part of India’s roadmap for the Heal in India initiative of the government, which is intended at promoting India as a medical value travel destination. Ministry of Ayush and the ministry of Health & Family Welfare are working together to develop a one stop Heal in India portal to promote India as a Medical tourism destination of the world.

#### 20. Question

India recently has notified the creation of a category of Ayush (AY) visa for foreign nationals for treatment under Indian systems of medicine. Introduction of this category is part of India’s roadmap for-

• (a) The Heal in India initiative

• (b) The Mission LiFE

• (c) The Arogya Bharat Initiative

• (d) The One World One Health Project

Answer: A

Explanation:

Option (a) is correct: Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India has notified the creation of a new category of Ayush (AY) visa for foreign nationals for treatment under Ayush systems/Indian systems of medicine.

The introduction of Ayush Visa fulfills the proposal for introduction of a special visa scheme for foreigners visiting India for treatment under Ayush systems/Indian systems of medicine like therapeutic care, wellness and Yoga.

ntroduction of Ayush Visa category is part of India’s roadmap for the Heal in India initiative of the government, which is intended at promoting India as a medical value travel destination.

Ministry of Ayush and the ministry of Health & Family Welfare are working together to develop a one stop Heal in India portal to promote India as a Medical tourism destination of the world.

Answer: A

Explanation:

ntroduction of Ayush Visa category is part of India’s roadmap for the Heal in India initiative of the government, which is intended at promoting India as a medical value travel destination.

Ministry of Ayush and the ministry of Health & Family Welfare are working together to develop a one stop Heal in India portal to promote India as a Medical tourism destination of the world.

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Recently, a 20% duty was introduced on all parboiled non-basmati rice exports. This was done in view of depleting rice stocks, especially in light of the pressure on free-foodgrain schemes potential decline in rice production in several Indian states due to the prediction of El Nino Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 Only b) 2 Only c) Both 1 and 2 d) None of the above Correct Solution: c) Justification: The Indian government has implemented several measures to regulate rice exports and ensure domestic food security, including a 20% export duty on par-boiled rice until October 15 and restrictions on white rice exports. In July 2023, non-basmati white rice exports were entirely prohibited, with only parboiled non-basmati and basmati rice allowed. Recently, a 20% duty was introduced on all parboiled non-basmati rice exports. Why is the Indian government imposing restrictions on rice and wheat exports? Enhancing Domestic Supply: The government’s goal is to reduce exports to ensure an adequate supply of grains within the country. There are concerns about depleting rice stocks, especially in light of the free-foodgrains scheme’s continuation pressure (Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana) Impact of monsoon/El Nino: It includes potential declines in rice production in several Indian states. El Nino may affect new crop arrivals. Tackling Inflation: Retail food inflation was at 1.5% in July, and the government is taking measures to control rising food prices. Preventing Illicit Exports: The minimum export price rule is meant to prevent illegal exports of non-basmati white rice from being misrepresented as basmati rice. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/09/01/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-1-september-2023/ Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: The Indian government has implemented several measures to regulate rice exports and ensure domestic food security, including a 20% export duty on par-boiled rice until October 15 and restrictions on white rice exports. In July 2023, non-basmati white rice exports were entirely prohibited, with only parboiled non-basmati and basmati rice allowed. Recently, a 20% duty was introduced on all parboiled non-basmati rice exports. Why is the Indian government imposing restrictions on rice and wheat exports? Enhancing Domestic Supply: The government’s goal is to reduce exports to ensure an adequate supply of grains within the country. There are concerns about depleting rice stocks, especially in light of the free-foodgrains scheme’s continuation pressure (Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana) Impact of monsoon/El Nino: It includes potential declines in rice production in several Indian states. El Nino may affect new crop arrivals. Tackling Inflation: Retail food inflation was at 1.5% in July, and the government is taking measures to control rising food prices. Preventing Illicit Exports: The minimum export price rule is meant to prevent illegal exports of non-basmati white rice from being misrepresented as basmati rice. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/09/01/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-1-september-2023/

#### 21. Question

Recently, a 20% duty was introduced on all parboiled non-basmati rice exports. This was done in view of

• depleting rice stocks, especially in light of the pressure on free-foodgrain schemes

• potential decline in rice production in several Indian states due to the prediction of El Nino

Which of the above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) None of the above

Solution: c)

Justification: The Indian government has implemented several measures to regulate rice exports and ensure domestic food security, including a 20% export duty on par-boiled rice until October 15 and restrictions on white rice exports.

In July 2023, non-basmati white rice exports were entirely prohibited, with only parboiled non-basmati and basmati rice allowed.

Recently, a 20% duty was introduced on all parboiled non-basmati rice exports.

Why is the Indian government imposing restrictions on rice and wheat exports?

Enhancing Domestic Supply: The government’s goal is to reduce exports to ensure an adequate supply of grains within the country.

There are concerns about depleting rice stocks, especially in light of the free-foodgrains scheme’s continuation pressure (Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana)

Impact of monsoon/El Nino: It includes potential declines in rice production in several Indian states. El Nino may affect new crop arrivals.

Tackling Inflation: Retail food inflation was at 1.5% in July, and the government is taking measures to control rising food prices.

Preventing Illicit Exports: The minimum export price rule is meant to prevent illegal exports of non-basmati white rice from being misrepresented as basmati rice.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/09/01/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-1-september-2023/