DAY – 52 : Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2025 : Polity

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India and the Finance Commission (FC) of India: The CAG audits the accounts related to all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India, whereas the FC recommends the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States. The reports of the CAG are examined by the Public Accounts Committee (PAC), while the recommendations of the FC are only advisory in nature and not binding on the government. The Constitution ensures the independence of the CAG through security of tenure and non-eligibility for further office, while the members of the FC are eligible for reappointment. The CAG submits audit reports related to the accounts of the Union directly to the Parliament, whereas the FC submits its report to the President who causes it to be laid before Parliament. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. Article 149 outlines the duties and powers of the CAG concerning the accounts of the Union and States. Article 280 outlines the duty of the Finance Commission to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Union and States and the allocation between the States of the respective shares of such proceeds. Statement 2 is correct. The CAG reports are indeed examined by the PAC (Lok Sabha Rule 308, Rajya Sabha Rule 204). The recommendations of the Finance Commission, as per constitutional convention and practice, are generally accepted by the government but are technically advisory and not legally binding [Article 281 implies the government will act upon them, but it’s not mandated]. Statement 3 is correct. Article 148(4) explicitly states that the CAG shall not be eligible for further office either under the Government of India or under the Government of any State after he has ceased to hold his office, ensuring independence. The Constitution (Article 280) does not place such a restriction on FC members, and they are eligible for reappointment. Statement 4 is incorrect. Article 151 states that the CAG submits audit reports relating to the accounts of the Union to the President, who causes them to be laid before each House of Parliament. Similarly, reports relating to state accounts are submitted to the Governor. The FC also submits its report to the President (Article 281). Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. Article 149 outlines the duties and powers of the CAG concerning the accounts of the Union and States. Article 280 outlines the duty of the Finance Commission to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Union and States and the allocation between the States of the respective shares of such proceeds. Statement 2 is correct. The CAG reports are indeed examined by the PAC (Lok Sabha Rule 308, Rajya Sabha Rule 204). The recommendations of the Finance Commission, as per constitutional convention and practice, are generally accepted by the government but are technically advisory and not legally binding [Article 281 implies the government will act upon them, but it’s not mandated]. Statement 3 is correct. Article 148(4) explicitly states that the CAG shall not be eligible for further office either under the Government of India or under the Government of any State after he has ceased to hold his office, ensuring independence. The Constitution (Article 280) does not place such a restriction on FC members, and they are eligible for reappointment. Statement 4 is incorrect. Article 151 states that the CAG submits audit reports relating to the accounts of the Union to the President, who causes them to be laid before each House of Parliament. Similarly, reports relating to state accounts are submitted to the Governor. The FC also submits its report to the President (Article 281).

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India and the Finance Commission (FC) of India:

• The CAG audits the accounts related to all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India, whereas the FC recommends the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States.

• The reports of the CAG are examined by the Public Accounts Committee (PAC), while the recommendations of the FC are only advisory in nature and not binding on the government.

• The Constitution ensures the independence of the CAG through security of tenure and non-eligibility for further office, while the members of the FC are eligible for reappointment.

• The CAG submits audit reports related to the accounts of the Union directly to the Parliament, whereas the FC submits its report to the President who causes it to be laid before Parliament.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct. Article 149 outlines the duties and powers of the CAG concerning the accounts of the Union and States. Article 280 outlines the duty of the Finance Commission to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Union and States and the allocation between the States of the respective shares of such proceeds.

• Statement 2 is correct. The CAG reports are indeed examined by the PAC (Lok Sabha Rule 308, Rajya Sabha Rule 204). The recommendations of the Finance Commission, as per constitutional convention and practice, are generally accepted by the government but are technically advisory and not legally binding [Article 281 implies the government will act upon them, but it’s not mandated].

• Statement 3 is correct. Article 148(4) explicitly states that the CAG shall not be eligible for further office either under the Government of India or under the Government of any State after he has ceased to hold his office, ensuring independence. The Constitution (Article 280) does not place such a restriction on FC members, and they are eligible for reappointment.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. Article 151 states that the CAG submits audit reports relating to the accounts of the Union to the President, who causes them to be laid before each House of Parliament. Similarly, reports relating to state accounts are submitted to the Governor. The FC also submits its report to the President (Article 281).

Solution: C

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement I: The Attorney General for India holds office during the pleasure of the President and receives such remuneration as the President may determine. Statement II: The Attorney General for India must be a person qualified to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court and is considered a member of the Union Cabinet. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect. (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct. Correct Solution: C Statement I is correct. Article 76(4) of the Constitution explicitly states that the Attorney General shall hold office during the pleasure of the President and shall receive such remuneration as the President may determine. Statement II is incorrect. While the first part is correct (Article 76(1) requires the Attorney General to be qualified to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court), the second part is incorrect. The Attorney General is the chief legal advisor to the government but is not a member of the Union Cabinet. They have the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of both Houses of Parliament (Article 88) but without the right to vote. Incorrect Solution: C Statement I is correct. Article 76(4) of the Constitution explicitly states that the Attorney General shall hold office during the pleasure of the President and shall receive such remuneration as the President may determine. Statement II is incorrect. While the first part is correct (Article 76(1) requires the Attorney General to be qualified to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court), the second part is incorrect. The Attorney General is the chief legal advisor to the government but is not a member of the Union Cabinet. They have the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of both Houses of Parliament (Article 88) but without the right to vote.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Statement I: The Attorney General for India holds office during the pleasure of the President and receives such remuneration as the President may determine.

• Statement II: The Attorney General for India must be a person qualified to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court and is considered a member of the Union Cabinet.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I

• (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

Solution: C

• Statement I is correct. Article 76(4) of the Constitution explicitly states that the Attorney General shall hold office during the pleasure of the President and shall receive such remuneration as the President may determine.

• Statement II is incorrect. While the first part is correct (Article 76(1) requires the Attorney General to be qualified to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court), the second part is incorrect. The Attorney General is the chief legal advisor to the government but is not a member of the Union Cabinet. They have the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of both Houses of Parliament (Article 88) but without the right to vote.

Solution: C

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Election Commission of India (ECI): The Constitution lays down the qualifications for the members of the Election Commission. The Constitution specifies the term of the members of the Election Commission and debars the retiring election commissioners from any further appointment by the government. The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) can be removed from office only in the same manner and on the same grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court. The Constitution has vested the ECI with powers related to delimitation of parliamentary and assembly constituencies. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect. The Constitution (Article 324) does not lay down any specific qualifications for the members of the Election Commission. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Constitution does not specify the term of office for the Election Commissioners. The term (6 years or up to 65 years of age, whichever is earlier) is determined by the President as per the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners (Conditions of Service) Act, 1991. The Constitution also does not debar retiring Election Commissioners from further government appointments. Statement 3 is correct. Article 324(5) provides that the Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his office except in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court. Statement 4 is incorrect. The delimitation of constituencies is carried out by the Delimitation Commission, an independent body appointed under an Act of Parliament (Delimitation Act). While the ECI implements the orders of the Delimitation Commission, the power of delimitation itself is vested in the Delimitation Commission, not the ECI by the Constitution. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect. The Constitution (Article 324) does not lay down any specific qualifications for the members of the Election Commission. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Constitution does not specify the term of office for the Election Commissioners. The term (6 years or up to 65 years of age, whichever is earlier) is determined by the President as per the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners (Conditions of Service) Act, 1991. The Constitution also does not debar retiring Election Commissioners from further government appointments. Statement 3 is correct. Article 324(5) provides that the Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his office except in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court. Statement 4 is incorrect. The delimitation of constituencies is carried out by the Delimitation Commission, an independent body appointed under an Act of Parliament (Delimitation Act). While the ECI implements the orders of the Delimitation Commission, the power of delimitation itself is vested in the Delimitation Commission, not the ECI by the Constitution.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Election Commission of India (ECI):

• The Constitution lays down the qualifications for the members of the Election Commission.

• The Constitution specifies the term of the members of the Election Commission and debars the retiring election commissioners from any further appointment by the government.

• The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) can be removed from office only in the same manner and on the same grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.

• The Constitution has vested the ECI with powers related to delimitation of parliamentary and assembly constituencies.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Constitution (Article 324) does not lay down any specific qualifications for the members of the Election Commission. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Constitution does not specify the term of office for the Election Commissioners. The term (6 years or up to 65 years of age, whichever is earlier) is determined by the President as per the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners (Conditions of Service) Act, 1991. The Constitution also does not debar retiring Election Commissioners from further government appointments. Statement 3 is correct. Article 324(5) provides that the Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his office except in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court. Statement 4 is incorrect. The delimitation of constituencies is carried out by the Delimitation Commission, an independent body appointed under an Act of Parliament (Delimitation Act). While the ECI implements the orders of the Delimitation Commission, the power of delimitation itself is vested in the Delimitation Commission, not the ECI by the Constitution.

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Constitution (Article 324) does not lay down any specific qualifications for the members of the Election Commission.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Constitution does not specify the term of office for the Election Commissioners. The term (6 years or up to 65 years of age, whichever is earlier) is determined by the President as per the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners (Conditions of Service) Act, 1991. The Constitution also does not debar retiring Election Commissioners from further government appointments.

• Statement 3 is correct. Article 324(5) provides that the Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his office except in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. The delimitation of constituencies is carried out by the Delimitation Commission, an independent body appointed under an Act of Parliament (Delimitation Act). While the ECI implements the orders of the Delimitation Commission, the power of delimitation itself is vested in the Delimitation Commission, not the ECI by the Constitution.

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Constitution (Article 324) does not lay down any specific qualifications for the members of the Election Commission.

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points With reference to the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities, consider the following statements: The office was created based on the recommendations of the States Reorganisation Commission. The Constitution specifies the qualifications, tenure, salaries, and conditions of service for the Special Officer. The Special Officer submits an annual report directly to the Parliament regarding the safeguards for linguistic minorities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. The States Reorganisation Commission (1953-55) recommended the creation of this office to provide equal opportunities to linguistic minorities. Consequently, Article 350-B was inserted into the Constitution by the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Constitution (Article 350-B) provides for the appointment of the Special Officer by the President but does not specify their qualifications, tenure, salaries, allowances, or conditions of service. These are typically determined by the President/Government. Statement 3 is incorrect. Article 350-B(2) states that the Special Officer shall investigate matters relating to safeguards for linguistic minorities and report to the President. The President shall cause all such reports to be laid before each House of Parliament and sent to the governments of the states concerned. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. The States Reorganisation Commission (1953-55) recommended the creation of this office to provide equal opportunities to linguistic minorities. Consequently, Article 350-B was inserted into the Constitution by the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Constitution (Article 350-B) provides for the appointment of the Special Officer by the President but does not specify their qualifications, tenure, salaries, allowances, or conditions of service. These are typically determined by the President/Government. Statement 3 is incorrect. Article 350-B(2) states that the Special Officer shall investigate matters relating to safeguards for linguistic minorities and report to the President. The President shall cause all such reports to be laid before each House of Parliament and sent to the governments of the states concerned.

#### 4. Question

With reference to the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities, consider the following statements:

• The office was created based on the recommendations of the States Reorganisation Commission.

• The Constitution specifies the qualifications, tenure, salaries, and conditions of service for the Special Officer.

• The Special Officer submits an annual report directly to the Parliament regarding the safeguards for linguistic minorities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 1 and 2 only

• (c) 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct. The States Reorganisation Commission (1953-55) recommended the creation of this office to provide equal opportunities to linguistic minorities. Consequently, Article 350-B was inserted into the Constitution by the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Constitution (Article 350-B) provides for the appointment of the Special Officer by the President but does not specify their qualifications, tenure, salaries, allowances, or conditions of service. These are typically determined by the President/Government.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. Article 350-B(2) states that the Special Officer shall investigate matters relating to safeguards for linguistic minorities and report to the President. The President shall cause all such reports to be laid before each House of Parliament and sent to the governments of the states concerned.

Solution: A

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding NITI Aayog: It is a statutory body established to replace the Planning Commission. The Prime Minister of India serves as the ex-officio Chairperson of NITI Aayog. It possesses the mandate to impose policies on states and allocate funds, similar to the Planning Commission. The Governing Council of NITI Aayog comprises Chief Ministers of all States, Lieutenant Governors of Union Territories, and the Prime Minister. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. NITI Aayog was established by an Executive Resolution of the Union Cabinet on January 1, 2015. It is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body. It replaced the Planning Commission, which was also an executive body. Statement 2 is correct. The organizational structure of NITI Aayog designates the Prime Minister of India as its ex-officio Chairperson. Statement 3 is incorrect. Unlike the Planning Commission, NITI Aayog is primarily a policy think tank and does not have the power to impose policies or allocate funds to states. Its role is advisory and promotes cooperative federalism. Statement 4 is correct. The Governing Council is the premier body of NITI Aayog, chaired by the Prime Minister, and includes Chief Ministers of all States and Lieutenant Governors of Union Territories (specifically, UTs with legislatures like Delhi, Puducherry, J&K, and administrators of other UTs). Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. NITI Aayog was established by an Executive Resolution of the Union Cabinet on January 1, 2015. It is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body. It replaced the Planning Commission, which was also an executive body. Statement 2 is correct. The organizational structure of NITI Aayog designates the Prime Minister of India as its ex-officio Chairperson. Statement 3 is incorrect. Unlike the Planning Commission, NITI Aayog is primarily a policy think tank and does not have the power to impose policies or allocate funds to states. Its role is advisory and promotes cooperative federalism. Statement 4 is correct. The Governing Council is the premier body of NITI Aayog, chaired by the Prime Minister, and includes Chief Ministers of all States and Lieutenant Governors of Union Territories (specifically, UTs with legislatures like Delhi, Puducherry, J&K, and administrators of other UTs).

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding NITI Aayog:

• It is a statutory body established to replace the Planning Commission.

• The Prime Minister of India serves as the ex-officio Chairperson of NITI Aayog.

• It possesses the mandate to impose policies on states and allocate funds, similar to the Planning Commission.

• The Governing Council of NITI Aayog comprises Chief Ministers of all States, Lieutenant Governors of Union Territories, and the Prime Minister.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. NITI Aayog was established by an Executive Resolution of the Union Cabinet on January 1, 2015. It is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body. It replaced the Planning Commission, which was also an executive body.

• Statement 2 is correct. The organizational structure of NITI Aayog designates the Prime Minister of India as its ex-officio Chairperson.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. Unlike the Planning Commission, NITI Aayog is primarily a policy think tank and does not have the power to impose policies or allocate funds to states. Its role is advisory and promotes cooperative federalism.

• Statement 4 is correct. The Governing Council is the premier body of NITI Aayog, chaired by the Prime Minister, and includes Chief Ministers of all States and Lieutenant Governors of Union Territories (specifically, UTs with legislatures like Delhi, Puducherry, J&K, and administrators of other UTs).

Solution: B

• Statement 2 is correct. The organizational structure of NITI Aayog designates the Prime Minister of India as its ex-officio Chairperson.

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Which of the following functions fall within the purview of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) as per Article 320 of the Constitution? Conducting examinations for appointments to the services of the Union. Advising the government on principles to be followed in making appointments and promotions. Advising the government on matters related to the grant of awards or honours. Advising the government on claims relating to costs incurred by a civil servant in defending legal proceedings. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: B Function 1 is correct. Article 320(1) explicitly states it shall be the duty of the Union Public Service Commission to conduct examinations for appointments to the services of the Union. Function 2 is correct. Article 320(3)(a) and (b) require consultation with UPSC on principles related to recruitment, appointments, promotions, and transfers. Function 3 is incorrect. Advising on the grant of awards or honours is not listed as a function of the UPSC under Article 320. Function 4 is correct. Article 320(3)(d) requires consultation with UPSC on any claim for the award of a pension in respect of injuries sustained by a person while serving under the Government of India or the Government of a State or any claim as to the amount of any such award, and Article 320(3)(e) mentions consultation functions enumerated in Article 320). Incorrect Solution: B Function 1 is correct. Article 320(1) explicitly states it shall be the duty of the Union Public Service Commission to conduct examinations for appointments to the services of the Union. Function 2 is correct. Article 320(3)(a) and (b) require consultation with UPSC on principles related to recruitment, appointments, promotions, and transfers. Function 3 is incorrect. Advising on the grant of awards or honours is not listed as a function of the UPSC under Article 320. Function 4 is correct. Article 320(3)(d) requires consultation with UPSC on any claim for the award of a pension in respect of injuries sustained by a person while serving under the Government of India or the Government of a State or any claim as to the amount of any such award, and Article 320(3)(e) mentions consultation functions enumerated in Article 320).

#### 6. Question

Which of the following functions fall within the purview of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) as per Article 320 of the Constitution?

• Conducting examinations for appointments to the services of the Union.

• Advising the government on principles to be followed in making appointments and promotions.

• Advising the government on matters related to the grant of awards or honours.

• Advising the government on claims relating to costs incurred by a civil servant in defending legal proceedings.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1, 2 and 4 only

• (c) 3 and 4 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: B

• Function 1 is correct. Article 320(1) explicitly states it shall be the duty of the Union Public Service Commission to conduct examinations for appointments to the services of the Union.

• Function 2 is correct. Article 320(3)(a) and (b) require consultation with UPSC on principles related to recruitment, appointments, promotions, and transfers.

• Function 3 is incorrect. Advising on the grant of awards or honours is not listed as a function of the UPSC under Article 320.

• Function 4 is correct. Article 320(3)(d) requires consultation with UPSC on any claim for the award of a pension in respect of injuries sustained by a person while serving under the Government of India or the Government of a State or any claim as to the amount of any such award, and Article 320(3)(e) mentions consultation functions enumerated in Article 320).

Solution: B

• Function 1 is correct. Article 320(1) explicitly states it shall be the duty of the Union Public Service Commission to conduct examinations for appointments to the services of the Union.

• Function 2 is correct. Article 320(3)(a) and (b) require consultation with UPSC on principles related to recruitment, appointments, promotions, and transfers.

• Function 3 is incorrect. Advising on the grant of awards or honours is not listed as a function of the UPSC under Article 320.

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Consider the following situations: The Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a majority of not less than two-thirds of members present and voting, declaring that it is necessary in the national interest for Parliament to make laws on a matter enumerated in the State List. Two or more State Legislatures pass resolutions requesting Parliament to legislate on a matter in the State List. A Proclamation of National Emergency under Article 352 is in operation. A Proclamation of President’s Rule under Article 356 is in operation in a state. In how many of the above situations can the Parliament of India legislate on matters enumerated in the State List? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: D Situation 1 is correct. Article 249 empowers Parliament to legislate on a State List matter if Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution. Situation 2 is correct. Article 252 allows Parliament to legislate for two or more states by their consent on a State List matter. Situation 3 is correct. During a National Emergency (Article 352), Article 250 empowers Parliament to legislate on any matter in the State List. Situation 4 is correct. During President’s Rule (Article 356) in a state, Article 357 allows Parliament to confer the power of the state legislature to make laws on itself (Parliament) or authorise the President to delegate this power. Thus, Parliament can legislate on State List matters for that state. Incorrect Solution: D Situation 1 is correct. Article 249 empowers Parliament to legislate on a State List matter if Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution. Situation 2 is correct. Article 252 allows Parliament to legislate for two or more states by their consent on a State List matter. Situation 3 is correct. During a National Emergency (Article 352), Article 250 empowers Parliament to legislate on any matter in the State List. Situation 4 is correct. During President’s Rule (Article 356) in a state, Article 357 allows Parliament to confer the power of the state legislature to make laws on itself (Parliament) or authorise the President to delegate this power. Thus, Parliament can legislate on State List matters for that state.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following situations:

• The Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a majority of not less than two-thirds of members present and voting, declaring that it is necessary in the national interest for Parliament to make laws on a matter enumerated in the State List.

• Two or more State Legislatures pass resolutions requesting Parliament to legislate on a matter in the State List.

• A Proclamation of National Emergency under Article 352 is in operation.

• A Proclamation of President’s Rule under Article 356 is in operation in a state.

In how many of the above situations can the Parliament of India legislate on matters enumerated in the State List?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: D

• Situation 1 is correct. Article 249 empowers Parliament to legislate on a State List matter if Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution.

• Situation 2 is correct. Article 252 allows Parliament to legislate for two or more states by their consent on a State List matter.

• Situation 3 is correct. During a National Emergency (Article 352), Article 250 empowers Parliament to legislate on any matter in the State List.

• Situation 4 is correct. During President’s Rule (Article 356) in a state, Article 357 allows Parliament to confer the power of the state legislature to make laws on itself (Parliament) or authorise the President to delegate this power. Thus, Parliament can legislate on State List matters for that state.

Solution: D

• Situation 1 is correct. Article 249 empowers Parliament to legislate on a State List matter if Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution.

• Situation 2 is correct. Article 252 allows Parliament to legislate for two or more states by their consent on a State List matter.

• Situation 3 is correct. During a National Emergency (Article 352), Article 250 empowers Parliament to legislate on any matter in the State List.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points With reference to the Representation of the People Act, 1951 (RPA, 1951), consider the following statements: The Act provides for disqualification from membership of Parliament and State Legislatures on grounds of conviction for certain offences, including those promoting enmity between groups. A person disqualified under the RPA, 1951 due to conviction is barred from contesting elections only for the period of their sentence. The power to decide on questions of disqualification of a sitting member of Parliament under the RPA, 1951 rests solely with the Election Commission of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. Section 8 of the RPA, 1951 lists various offences conviction for which leads to disqualification. Section 8(1) includes offences like promoting enmity between different groups (Section 153A IPC), bribery, undue influence at elections, etc. Statement 2 is incorrect. Section 8(3) of the RPA, 1951 states that a person convicted of any offence and sentenced to imprisonment for not less than two years shall be disqualified from the date of such conviction and shall continue to be disqualified for a further period of six years since his release. The disqualification extends beyond the sentence period. (Note: The SC judgment in Lily Thomas vs. Union of India (2013) struck down Section 8(4) which provided protection to sitting legislators). Statement 3 is incorrect. The question of whether a sitting member has become subject to disqualification under the Constitution (Article 102/191) or the RPA, 1951 (post-election) is decided by the President (for MPs, Article 103) or the Governor (for MLAs, Article 192), based on the opinion of the Election Commission. The ECI’s opinion is binding, but the final decision rests with the President/Governor. Disqualification under the Tenth Schedule (Defection) is decided by the Presiding Officer of the House. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. Section 8 of the RPA, 1951 lists various offences conviction for which leads to disqualification. Section 8(1) includes offences like promoting enmity between different groups (Section 153A IPC), bribery, undue influence at elections, etc. Statement 2 is incorrect. Section 8(3) of the RPA, 1951 states that a person convicted of any offence and sentenced to imprisonment for not less than two years shall be disqualified from the date of such conviction and shall continue to be disqualified for a further period of six years since his release. The disqualification extends beyond the sentence period. (Note: The SC judgment in Lily Thomas vs. Union of India (2013) struck down Section 8(4) which provided protection to sitting legislators). Statement 3 is incorrect. The question of whether a sitting member has become subject to disqualification under the Constitution (Article 102/191) or the RPA, 1951 (post-election) is decided by the President (for MPs, Article 103) or the Governor (for MLAs, Article 192), based on the opinion of the Election Commission. The ECI’s opinion is binding, but the final decision rests with the President/Governor. Disqualification under the Tenth Schedule (Defection) is decided by the Presiding Officer of the House.

#### 8. Question

With reference to the Representation of the People Act, 1951 (RPA, 1951), consider the following statements:

• The Act provides for disqualification from membership of Parliament and State Legislatures on grounds of conviction for certain offences, including those promoting enmity between groups.

• A person disqualified under the RPA, 1951 due to conviction is barred from contesting elections only for the period of their sentence.

• The power to decide on questions of disqualification of a sitting member of Parliament under the RPA, 1951 rests solely with the Election Commission of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 1 and 2 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct. Section 8 of the RPA, 1951 lists various offences conviction for which leads to disqualification. Section 8(1) includes offences like promoting enmity between different groups (Section 153A IPC), bribery, undue influence at elections, etc.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. Section 8(3) of the RPA, 1951 states that a person convicted of any offence and sentenced to imprisonment for not less than two years shall be disqualified from the date of such conviction and shall continue to be disqualified for a further period of six years since his release. The disqualification extends beyond the sentence period. (Note: The SC judgment in Lily Thomas vs. Union of India (2013) struck down Section 8(4) which provided protection to sitting legislators).

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The question of whether a sitting member has become subject to disqualification under the Constitution (Article 102/191) or the RPA, 1951 (post-election) is decided by the President (for MPs, Article 103) or the Governor (for MLAs, Article 192), based on the opinion of the Election Commission. The ECI’s opinion is binding, but the final decision rests with the President/Governor. Disqualification under the Tenth Schedule (Defection) is decided by the Presiding Officer of the House.

Solution: A

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Consider the following provisions related to Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) in India: The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act mandates the establishment of a Gram Sabha in every village or group of villages. The Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 (PESA) empowers the Gram Sabha in Scheduled Areas to approve plans and projects for social and economic development before they are implemented by the Panchayat at the village level. The State Election Commission is responsible for the superintendence, direction, and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections to the Panchayats. The State Finance Commission reviews the financial position of the Panchayats and makes recommendations regarding the distribution of state taxes and grants-in-aid to them. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is correct. Article 243A of the Constitution (inserted by the 73rd Amendment) provides for the Gram Sabha, defining its powers and functions at the village level as the State Legislature may by law provide. Article 243(b) defines “Gram Sabha” as a body consisting of persons registered in the electoral rolls relating to a village comprised within the area of Panchayat at the village level. While establishment details might vary by state law, the constitutional mandate exists. Statement 2 is correct. Section 4(d) of the PESA Act, 1996 explicitly states that every Gram Sabha shall be competent to safeguard traditions, customs, cultural identity, community resources and approve plans, programmes and projects for social and economic development before they are taken up for implementation by the Panchayat at the village level. Statement 3 is correct. Article 243K(1) vests the superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections to the Panchayats in the State Election Commission. Statement 4 is correct. Article 243-I mandates the constitution of a State Finance Commission to review the financial position of the Panchayats and make recommendations to the Governor regarding the principles governing the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the State and Panchayats, determination of taxes assigned to Panchayats, and grants-in-aid. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is correct. Article 243A of the Constitution (inserted by the 73rd Amendment) provides for the Gram Sabha, defining its powers and functions at the village level as the State Legislature may by law provide. Article 243(b) defines “Gram Sabha” as a body consisting of persons registered in the electoral rolls relating to a village comprised within the area of Panchayat at the village level. While establishment details might vary by state law, the constitutional mandate exists. Statement 2 is correct. Section 4(d) of the PESA Act, 1996 explicitly states that every Gram Sabha shall be competent to safeguard traditions, customs, cultural identity, community resources and approve plans, programmes and projects for social and economic development before they are taken up for implementation by the Panchayat at the village level. Statement 3 is correct. Article 243K(1) vests the superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections to the Panchayats in the State Election Commission. Statement 4 is correct. Article 243-I mandates the constitution of a State Finance Commission to review the financial position of the Panchayats and make recommendations to the Governor regarding the principles governing the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the State and Panchayats, determination of taxes assigned to Panchayats, and grants-in-aid.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following provisions related to Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) in India:

• The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act mandates the establishment of a Gram Sabha in every village or group of villages.

• The Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 (PESA) empowers the Gram Sabha in Scheduled Areas to approve plans and projects for social and economic development before they are implemented by the Panchayat at the village level.

• The State Election Commission is responsible for the superintendence, direction, and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections to the Panchayats.

• The State Finance Commission reviews the financial position of the Panchayats and makes recommendations regarding the distribution of state taxes and grants-in-aid to them.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is correct. Article 243A of the Constitution (inserted by the 73rd Amendment) provides for the Gram Sabha, defining its powers and functions at the village level as the State Legislature may by law provide. Article 243(b) defines “Gram Sabha” as a body consisting of persons registered in the electoral rolls relating to a village comprised within the area of Panchayat at the village level. While establishment details might vary by state law, the constitutional mandate exists.

• Statement 2 is correct. Section 4(d) of the PESA Act, 1996 explicitly states that every Gram Sabha shall be competent to safeguard traditions, customs, cultural identity, community resources and approve plans, programmes and projects for social and economic development before they are taken up for implementation by the Panchayat at the village level.

• Statement 3 is correct. Article 243K(1) vests the superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections to the Panchayats in the State Election Commission.

• Statement 4 is correct. Article 243-I mandates the constitution of a State Finance Commission to review the financial position of the Panchayats and make recommendations to the Governor regarding the principles governing the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the State and Panchayats, determination of taxes assigned to Panchayats, and grants-in-aid.

Solution: D

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Consider the following actions related to Constitutional Amendments under Article 368: Introduction of an amendment bill only in the Lok Sabha. Passage of the bill in each House by a simple majority of the total membership of the House. Requirement of ratification by the legislatures of not less than one-half of the states for amendments affecting the federal structure. President’s assent to the amendment bill, which is obligatory and cannot be withheld or returned for reconsideration. How many of the above actions/requirements are correctly stated as per the procedure laid down in Article 368? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Action 1 is incorrect. Article 368(2) states that an amendment bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament. Action 2 is incorrect. Article 368(2) requires the bill to be passed in each House by a majority of the total membership of that House (absolute majority) AND by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting (special majority). Simple majority is not sufficient. Action 3 is correct. The proviso to Article 368(2) requires ratification by the legislatures of not less than one-half of the states by resolutions for amendments that seek to change certain federal provisions (e.g., election of President, extent of executive power of Union/States, Supreme Court/High Courts, distribution of legislative powers, representation of states in Parliament, Article 368 itself). Action 4 is correct. The 24th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1971, amended Article 368 to make it obligatory for the President to give assent to a Constitutional Amendment Bill when presented. The President can neither withhold assent nor return the bill for reconsideration. Incorrect Solution: B Action 1 is incorrect. Article 368(2) states that an amendment bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament. Action 2 is incorrect. Article 368(2) requires the bill to be passed in each House by a majority of the total membership of that House (absolute majority) AND by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting (special majority). Simple majority is not sufficient. Action 3 is correct. The proviso to Article 368(2) requires ratification by the legislatures of not less than one-half of the states by resolutions for amendments that seek to change certain federal provisions (e.g., election of President, extent of executive power of Union/States, Supreme Court/High Courts, distribution of legislative powers, representation of states in Parliament, Article 368 itself). Action 4 is correct. The 24th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1971, amended Article 368 to make it obligatory for the President to give assent to a Constitutional Amendment Bill when presented. The President can neither withhold assent nor return the bill for reconsideration.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following actions related to Constitutional Amendments under Article 368:

• Introduction of an amendment bill only in the Lok Sabha.

• Passage of the bill in each House by a simple majority of the total membership of the House.

• Requirement of ratification by the legislatures of not less than one-half of the states for amendments affecting the federal structure.

• President’s assent to the amendment bill, which is obligatory and cannot be withheld or returned for reconsideration.

How many of the above actions/requirements are correctly stated as per the procedure laid down in Article 368?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

• Action 1 is incorrect. Article 368(2) states that an amendment bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament.

• Action 2 is incorrect. Article 368(2) requires the bill to be passed in each House by a majority of the total membership of that House (absolute majority) AND by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting (special majority). Simple majority is not sufficient.

• Action 3 is correct. The proviso to Article 368(2) requires ratification by the legislatures of not less than one-half of the states by resolutions for amendments that seek to change certain federal provisions (e.g., election of President, extent of executive power of Union/States, Supreme Court/High Courts, distribution of legislative powers, representation of states in Parliament, Article 368 itself).

• Action 4 is correct. The 24th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1971, amended Article 368 to make it obligatory for the President to give assent to a Constitutional Amendment Bill when presented. The President can neither withhold assent nor return the bill for reconsideration.

Solution: B

• Action 1 is incorrect. Article 368(2) states that an amendment bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Cantonment Board : It administers a delimited area where military forces are permanently settled. All the members of the board are nominated by the Ministry of Defence from amongst military personnel. The president and Vice President of the board are selected by the members of the board from amongst themselves. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution : A Cantonment board is set up for administration of civil population in cantonment area; cantonment area is a delimited area where military forces and troops are permanently settled. It is set up under provisions of Cantonment act of 2006 enacted by the central government It works under administrative control of Defence Ministry of the Central government. Hence statement 1 is correct. The board consists of partly elected and partly nominated members the elected members hold office for a term of 5 years while nominated members continue as long as the hold the office in that station The military officer commanding the station is the ex-officio president of the board and presides over its meetings. The vice president of the board is elected by the elected members from amongst themselves for a term of 5 years. Hence statements 2 and 3 are incorrect. Incorrect Solution : A Cantonment board is set up for administration of civil population in cantonment area; cantonment area is a delimited area where military forces and troops are permanently settled. It is set up under provisions of Cantonment act of 2006 enacted by the central government It works under administrative control of Defence Ministry of the Central government. Hence statement 1 is correct. The board consists of partly elected and partly nominated members the elected members hold office for a term of 5 years while nominated members continue as long as the hold the office in that station The military officer commanding the station is the ex-officio president of the board and presides over its meetings. The vice president of the board is elected by the elected members from amongst themselves for a term of 5 years. Hence statements 2 and 3 are incorrect.

#### 11. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Cantonment Board :

• It administers a delimited area where military forces are permanently settled.

• All the members of the board are nominated by the Ministry of Defence from amongst military personnel.

• The president and Vice President of the board are selected by the members of the board from amongst themselves.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution : A

• Cantonment board is set up for administration of civil population in cantonment area; cantonment area is a delimited area where military forces and troops are permanently settled.

• It is set up under provisions of Cantonment act of 2006 enacted by the central government

• It works under administrative control of Defence Ministry of the Central government.

Hence statement 1 is correct.

• The board consists of partly elected and partly nominated members

• the elected members hold office for a term of 5 years while nominated members continue as long as the hold the office in that station

• The military officer commanding the station is the ex-officio president of the board and presides over its meetings.

• The vice president of the board is elected by the elected members from amongst themselves for a term of 5 years.

Hence statements 2 and 3 are incorrect.

Solution : A

• Cantonment board is set up for administration of civil population in cantonment area; cantonment area is a delimited area where military forces and troops are permanently settled.

• It is set up under provisions of Cantonment act of 2006 enacted by the central government

• It works under administrative control of Defence Ministry of the Central government.

Hence statement 1 is correct.

• The board consists of partly elected and partly nominated members

• the elected members hold office for a term of 5 years while nominated members continue as long as the hold the office in that station

• The military officer commanding the station is the ex-officio president of the board and presides over its meetings.

• The vice president of the board is elected by the elected members from amongst themselves for a term of 5 years.

Hence statements 2 and 3 are incorrect.

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Constitutional provisions related to Official Language of India : Hindi with Devanagari form of numerals is to be used for official purposes of the Union. Under the Official Languages Act 1963, all communications between the Union and non-Hindi states should be in English. All proceedings in the Supreme Court are to be carried out in English. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only Correct Solution : D The constitution provided for official language of India in Part XVII (Articles 343-351). According to it, Hindi written in Devanagari script is to be the official language of the Union. But the form of numerals to be used for official purposes of the Union has to be the international form of Indian numerals and not Devanagari form of numerals. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The Constitution does not specify official language of various States. According to it, The Official Language of the Union, i.e., English, would remain the link language for communication between Union and the states or between various States. But two or more states are free to agree to use Hindi instead of English for communication between themselves. The Official Languages Act 1963 provides that English should be used for purposes of communication between Union and the non Hindi States (states that have not adopted Hindi as their official language). Hence statement 2 is correct The Constitution provides that all proceedings in the Supreme Court should be continued in English language only unless the parliament provides otherwise . However, the Parliament has not made any provision for the use of Hindi in Supreme Court. Hence the supreme court hears only those petitions that are appealed in English. Hence statement 3 is correct . Incorrect Solution : D The constitution provided for official language of India in Part XVII (Articles 343-351). According to it, Hindi written in Devanagari script is to be the official language of the Union. But the form of numerals to be used for official purposes of the Union has to be the international form of Indian numerals and not Devanagari form of numerals. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The Constitution does not specify official language of various States. According to it, The Official Language of the Union, i.e., English, would remain the link language for communication between Union and the states or between various States. But two or more states are free to agree to use Hindi instead of English for communication between themselves. The Official Languages Act 1963 provides that English should be used for purposes of communication between Union and the non Hindi States (states that have not adopted Hindi as their official language). Hence statement 2 is correct The Constitution provides that all proceedings in the Supreme Court should be continued in English language only unless the parliament provides otherwise . However, the Parliament has not made any provision for the use of Hindi in Supreme Court. Hence the supreme court hears only those petitions that are appealed in English. Hence statement 3 is correct .

#### 12. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Constitutional provisions related to Official Language of India :

• Hindi with Devanagari form of numerals is to be used for official purposes of the Union.

• Under the Official Languages Act 1963, all communications between the Union and non-Hindi states should be in English.

• All proceedings in the Supreme Court are to be carried out in English.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) 1 and 2 only

• (d) 2 and 3 only

Solution : D

The constitution provided for official language of India in Part XVII (Articles 343-351). According to it,

• Hindi written in Devanagari script is to be the official language of the Union.

• But the form of numerals to be used for official purposes of the Union has to be the international form of Indian numerals and not Devanagari form of numerals.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

The Constitution does not specify official language of various States. According to it,

• The Official Language of the Union, i.e., English, would remain the link language for communication between Union and the states or between various States.

• But two or more states are free to agree to use Hindi instead of English for communication between themselves.

The Official Languages Act 1963 provides that English should be used for purposes of communication between Union and the non Hindi States (states that have not adopted Hindi as their official language).

Hence statement 2 is correct

• The Constitution provides that all proceedings in the Supreme Court should be continued in English language only unless the parliament provides otherwise .

• However, the Parliament has not made any provision for the use of Hindi in Supreme Court.

• Hence the supreme court hears only those petitions that are appealed in English.

Hence statement 3 is correct .

Solution : D

The constitution provided for official language of India in Part XVII (Articles 343-351). According to it,

• Hindi written in Devanagari script is to be the official language of the Union.

• But the form of numerals to be used for official purposes of the Union has to be the international form of Indian numerals and not Devanagari form of numerals.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

The Constitution does not specify official language of various States. According to it,

• The Official Language of the Union, i.e., English, would remain the link language for communication between Union and the states or between various States.

• But two or more states are free to agree to use Hindi instead of English for communication between themselves.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• The Constitution provides that all proceedings in the Supreme Court should be continued in English language only unless the parliament provides otherwise .

• However, the Parliament has not made any provision for the use of Hindi in Supreme Court.

• Hence the supreme court hears only those petitions that are appealed in English.

Hence statement 3 is correct .

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Anticipatory bail : It was introduced under recommendations of Law Commission of India. The Code of Criminal Procedure grants High Court and session courts with power to grant anticipatory bail. According to the Supreme Court, anticipatory bail supports the right against arbitrary arrest and detention covered under article 22 of the constitution. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution : B Anticipatory bail is a legal provisions that provides an accused person to apply for bail before being arrested. Section 438 of the Code of Criminal Procedure lays down provisions of Anticipatory Bail The provision of Anticipatory Bail under this section was introduced in the Code after 41st Law Commission report of 1969 recommended for its inclusion. It intended to protect arbitrary violation of the right to personal liberty of the person. Hence statement 1 is correct. Under subsection 1 of the Code of Criminal Procedure provision, any person who believes that he can be arrested on acquisition of having committed a non-bailable offence, he may apply to the High Court or the Court of Sessions for granting an anticipatory bail. Hence the provision empowers only the Session Court and High Court to grant anticipatory bail. However the supreme court can exercise this power under specific circumstances. Hence statement 2 is correct In Gurbaksh Singh Sibbia v. State of Punjab case (1980), a five judge Supreme Court bench led by the then chief Justice Y.V. Chandrachud ruled that section 438 of the Code of Criminal Procedure is to be interpreted in the light of article 21 of the constitution (which reads protection of life and personal liberty) Hence statement 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution : B Anticipatory bail is a legal provisions that provides an accused person to apply for bail before being arrested. Section 438 of the Code of Criminal Procedure lays down provisions of Anticipatory Bail The provision of Anticipatory Bail under this section was introduced in the Code after 41st Law Commission report of 1969 recommended for its inclusion. It intended to protect arbitrary violation of the right to personal liberty of the person. Hence statement 1 is correct. Under subsection 1 of the Code of Criminal Procedure provision, any person who believes that he can be arrested on acquisition of having committed a non-bailable offence, he may apply to the High Court or the Court of Sessions for granting an anticipatory bail. Hence the provision empowers only the Session Court and High Court to grant anticipatory bail. However the supreme court can exercise this power under specific circumstances. Hence statement 2 is correct In Gurbaksh Singh Sibbia v. State of Punjab case (1980), a five judge Supreme Court bench led by the then chief Justice Y.V. Chandrachud ruled that section 438 of the Code of Criminal Procedure is to be interpreted in the light of article 21 of the constitution (which reads protection of life and personal liberty) Hence statement 3 is incorrect

#### 13. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Anticipatory bail :

• It was introduced under recommendations of Law Commission of India.

• The Code of Criminal Procedure grants High Court and session courts with power to grant anticipatory bail.

• According to the Supreme Court, anticipatory bail supports the right against arbitrary arrest and detention covered under article 22 of the constitution.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution : B

• Anticipatory bail is a legal provisions that provides an accused person to apply for bail before being arrested.

• Section 438 of the Code of Criminal Procedure lays down provisions of Anticipatory Bail

• The provision of Anticipatory Bail under this section was introduced in the Code after 41st Law Commission report of 1969 recommended for its inclusion.

• It intended to protect arbitrary violation of the right to personal liberty of the person.

Hence statement 1 is correct.

• Under subsection 1 of the Code of Criminal Procedure provision, any person who believes that he can be arrested on acquisition of having committed a non-bailable offence, he may apply to the High Court or the Court of Sessions for granting an anticipatory bail.

• Hence the provision empowers only the Session Court and High Court to grant anticipatory bail.

• However the supreme court can exercise this power under specific circumstances.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• In Gurbaksh Singh Sibbia v. State of Punjab case (1980), a five judge Supreme Court bench led by the then chief Justice Y.V. Chandrachud ruled that section 438 of the Code of Criminal Procedure is to be interpreted in the light of article 21 of the constitution (which reads protection of life and personal liberty)

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution : B

• Anticipatory bail is a legal provisions that provides an accused person to apply for bail before being arrested.

• Section 438 of the Code of Criminal Procedure lays down provisions of Anticipatory Bail

• The provision of Anticipatory Bail under this section was introduced in the Code after 41st Law Commission report of 1969 recommended for its inclusion.

• It intended to protect arbitrary violation of the right to personal liberty of the person.

Hence statement 1 is correct.

• Hence the provision empowers only the Session Court and High Court to grant anticipatory bail.

• However the supreme court can exercise this power under specific circumstances.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Central Administrative Tribunal : It was set up by the Parliament under provisions of 42nd Amendment Act 1976. It is not bound by the Civil Procedure Code of 1908. All members are appointed on recommendations of a committee headed by the Chief Justice of India or a judge nominated by CJI. Appeal against judgement of CAT can be made in the supreme court only. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution : C The original Constitution did not provide for Tribunals. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added a new part XIVA to the Constitution entitled as tribunals. It deals with only two articles viz. Articles 323A (dealing with administrative tribunals) and article 323B ( dealing with tribunals for other matters). In pursuance of article 323A, the Parliament enacted Administrative Tribunal act in 1985 that authorised the central government to established a Central Administrative Tribunal and State Administrative tribunals According to it, the Central Administrative Tribunal was set up in 1985 with principal bench at Delhi and additional benches in various States. Hence statement 1 is correct The Central administrative Tribunal : exercises original jurisdiction in relation to recruitment and all service matters of public servant. its jurisdiction extends to all India services, Central services, civil posts under Central and civilian employees of Defence Services The members of Defence forces, officers and servants of Supreme Court and secretarial staff of Parliament are not covered by Is not bound by the procedure down in Civil Procedure Code of 1908 and is guided by principals of natural justice. Hence statement 2 is correct The appointment of Chairman and members in the CAT is made by Central Government on the basis of recommendations of a committee chaired by Chief Justice of India or a judge of Supreme Court nominated by the Chief Justice of India. Hence statement 3 is correct Originally appeals against orders of CAT could be made only in the supreme court But in Chandra Kumar case ( 1997), the supreme court declared that this restriction on jurisdiction of High Court is unconstitutional ; appeals against orders of the CAT shall Iie before division bench of the concerned High Court. Hence now it is not possible for an aggrieved public servant to approach the supreme court directly against an Order of the CAT without first going to the concerned High Court. Hence statement 4 is incorrect Incorrect Solution : C The original Constitution did not provide for Tribunals. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added a new part XIVA to the Constitution entitled as tribunals. It deals with only two articles viz. Articles 323A (dealing with administrative tribunals) and article 323B ( dealing with tribunals for other matters). In pursuance of article 323A, the Parliament enacted Administrative Tribunal act in 1985 that authorised the central government to established a Central Administrative Tribunal and State Administrative tribunals According to it, the Central Administrative Tribunal was set up in 1985 with principal bench at Delhi and additional benches in various States. Hence statement 1 is correct The Central administrative Tribunal : exercises original jurisdiction in relation to recruitment and all service matters of public servant. its jurisdiction extends to all India services, Central services, civil posts under Central and civilian employees of Defence Services The members of Defence forces, officers and servants of Supreme Court and secretarial staff of Parliament are not covered by Is not bound by the procedure down in Civil Procedure Code of 1908 and is guided by principals of natural justice. Hence statement 2 is correct The appointment of Chairman and members in the CAT is made by Central Government on the basis of recommendations of a committee chaired by Chief Justice of India or a judge of Supreme Court nominated by the Chief Justice of India. Hence statement 3 is correct Originally appeals against orders of CAT could be made only in the supreme court But in Chandra Kumar case ( 1997), the supreme court declared that this restriction on jurisdiction of High Court is unconstitutional ; appeals against orders of the CAT shall Iie before division bench of the concerned High Court. Hence now it is not possible for an aggrieved public servant to approach the supreme court directly against an Order of the CAT without first going to the concerned High Court. Hence statement 4 is incorrect

#### 14. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Central Administrative Tribunal :

• It was set up by the Parliament under provisions of 42nd Amendment Act 1976.

• It is not bound by the Civil Procedure Code of 1908.

• All members are appointed on recommendations of a committee headed by the Chief Justice of India or a judge nominated by CJI.

• Appeal against judgement of CAT can be made in the supreme court only.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution : C

• The original Constitution did not provide for Tribunals.

• The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added a new part XIVA to the Constitution entitled as tribunals.

• It deals with only two articles viz. Articles 323A (dealing with administrative tribunals) and article 323B ( dealing with tribunals for other matters).

• In pursuance of article 323A, the Parliament enacted Administrative Tribunal act in 1985 that authorised the central government to established a Central Administrative Tribunal and State Administrative tribunals

• According to it, the Central Administrative Tribunal was set up in 1985 with principal bench at Delhi and additional benches in various States.

Hence statement 1 is correct

The Central administrative Tribunal :

• exercises original jurisdiction in relation to recruitment and all service matters of public servant.

• its jurisdiction extends to all India services, Central services, civil posts under Central and civilian employees of Defence Services

• The members of Defence forces, officers and servants of Supreme Court and secretarial staff of Parliament are not covered by

• Is not bound by the procedure down in Civil Procedure Code of 1908 and is guided by principals of natural justice.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• The appointment of Chairman and members in the CAT is made by Central Government on the basis of recommendations of a committee chaired by Chief Justice of India or a judge of Supreme Court nominated by the Chief Justice of India.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Originally appeals against orders of CAT could be made only in the supreme court

• But in Chandra Kumar case ( 1997), the supreme court declared that this restriction on jurisdiction of High Court is unconstitutional ; appeals against orders of the CAT shall Iie before division bench of the concerned High Court.

• Hence now it is not possible for an aggrieved public servant to approach the supreme court directly against an Order of the CAT without first going to the concerned High Court.

Hence statement 4 is incorrect

Solution : C

• The original Constitution did not provide for Tribunals.

• The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added a new part XIVA to the Constitution entitled as tribunals.

• It deals with only two articles viz. Articles 323A (dealing with administrative tribunals) and article 323B ( dealing with tribunals for other matters).

• According to it, the Central Administrative Tribunal was set up in 1985 with principal bench at Delhi and additional benches in various States.

Hence statement 1 is correct

The Central administrative Tribunal :

• exercises original jurisdiction in relation to recruitment and all service matters of public servant.

• its jurisdiction extends to all India services, Central services, civil posts under Central and civilian employees of Defence Services

• The members of Defence forces, officers and servants of Supreme Court and secretarial staff of Parliament are not covered by

• Is not bound by the procedure down in Civil Procedure Code of 1908 and is guided by principals of natural justice.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Originally appeals against orders of CAT could be made only in the supreme court

• Hence now it is not possible for an aggrieved public servant to approach the supreme court directly against an Order of the CAT without first going to the concerned High Court.

Hence statement 4 is incorrect

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Solicitor General of India : It is a statutory office that works under the Attorney General of India. He can appear in both Supreme Court or any High Court on behalf of the Government of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C The office of Solicitor General has not been mentioned in the constitution; it is a statutory post created by an act of the Parliament The Solicitor General is subordinate to the Attorney General of India ( a constitutional office created under article 76) He is the second highest law officer in the country ; he works under the Attorney General of India He also advises the government in legal matters. He is appointed by the president The appointment is done on recommendation of the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet chaired by the Prime minister the appointment is done for a period of 3 years Hence statement 1 is correct. The Solicitor General represents the Government of India in the Supreme Court or High Court in cases including suits, writ petitions, appeals and other proceedings in which the government of India is a concerned party or is otherwise interested. Hence statement 2 is correct. Incorrect Solution: C The office of Solicitor General has not been mentioned in the constitution; it is a statutory post created by an act of the Parliament The Solicitor General is subordinate to the Attorney General of India ( a constitutional office created under article 76) He is the second highest law officer in the country ; he works under the Attorney General of India He also advises the government in legal matters. He is appointed by the president The appointment is done on recommendation of the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet chaired by the Prime minister the appointment is done for a period of 3 years Hence statement 1 is correct. The Solicitor General represents the Government of India in the Supreme Court or High Court in cases including suits, writ petitions, appeals and other proceedings in which the government of India is a concerned party or is otherwise interested. Hence statement 2 is correct.

#### 15. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Solicitor General of India :

• It is a statutory office that works under the Attorney General of India.

• He can appear in both Supreme Court or any High Court on behalf of the Government of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

• The office of Solicitor General has not been mentioned in the constitution; it is a statutory post created by an act of the Parliament

• The Solicitor General is subordinate to the Attorney General of India ( a constitutional office created under article 76)

• He is the second highest law officer in the country ; he works under the Attorney General of India

• He also advises the government in legal matters.

• He is appointed by the president

• The appointment is done on recommendation of the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet chaired by the Prime minister

• the appointment is done for a period of 3 years

Hence statement 1 is correct.

• The Solicitor General represents the Government of India in the Supreme Court or High Court in cases including suits, writ petitions, appeals and other proceedings in which the government of India is a concerned party or is otherwise interested.

Hence statement 2 is correct.

Solution: C

• The office of Solicitor General has not been mentioned in the constitution; it is a statutory post created by an act of the Parliament

• The Solicitor General is subordinate to the Attorney General of India ( a constitutional office created under article 76)

• He is the second highest law officer in the country ; he works under the Attorney General of India

• He also advises the government in legal matters.

• He is appointed by the president

• The appointment is done on recommendation of the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet chaired by the Prime minister

• the appointment is done for a period of 3 years

Hence statement 1 is correct.

Hence statement 2 is correct.

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Advocate General of the state : Statement -I : He enjoys all privileges similar to a member of the state legislature and can take part in all proceedings of state legislature without the right to vote. Statement -II : He is a member of the state cabinet. Statement -III : He is a part of the state executive and the chief legal advisor to the state. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement- II and Statement -III are correct and both of them explain Statement- I (b) Both Statement- II and Statement-III are correct but only one of them explains Statement- I (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement- I (d) Neither Statement- II nor Statement-III is correct Correct Solution: C The Constitution under article 165 provides for office of Advocate General for States The constitution has established the office of Advocate General of state as the highest law officer in the state. It is a constitutional body and is the chief legal advisor to the state government to advise it on all legal matters. he is the chief law officer of the government in the state In performance of his official duties, he has the right to speak and take part in proceedings of both houses of the state legislature or any committee of it of which he may be named a member but without the right to vote As a part of the state executive (state executive consists of the Governor, Chief Minister, Council of Ministers and Advocate General), he enjoys all the privileges and immunities enjoyed by a member of the state legislature. Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct and statement 3 explains statement 1. The Advocate General is not a member of the state cabinet. There is a separate Law Minister to look after legal matters at the state government level. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: C The Constitution under article 165 provides for office of Advocate General for States The constitution has established the office of Advocate General of state as the highest law officer in the state. It is a constitutional body and is the chief legal advisor to the state government to advise it on all legal matters. he is the chief law officer of the government in the state In performance of his official duties, he has the right to speak and take part in proceedings of both houses of the state legislature or any committee of it of which he may be named a member but without the right to vote As a part of the state executive (state executive consists of the Governor, Chief Minister, Council of Ministers and Advocate General), he enjoys all the privileges and immunities enjoyed by a member of the state legislature. Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct and statement 3 explains statement 1. The Advocate General is not a member of the state cabinet. There is a separate Law Minister to look after legal matters at the state government level. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

#### 16. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Advocate General of the state :

Statement -I :

He enjoys all privileges similar to a member of the state legislature and can take part in all proceedings of state legislature without the right to vote.

Statement -II :

He is a member of the state cabinet.

Statement -III :

He is a part of the state executive and the chief legal advisor to the state.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement- II and Statement -III are correct and both of them explain Statement- I

• (b) Both Statement- II and Statement-III are correct but only one of them explains Statement- I

• (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement- I

• (d) Neither Statement- II nor Statement-III is correct

Solution: C

• The Constitution under article 165 provides for office of Advocate General for States

• The constitution has established the office of Advocate General of state as the highest law officer in the state.

• It is a constitutional body and is the chief legal advisor to the state government to advise it on all legal matters.

• he is the chief law officer of the government in the state

• In performance of his official duties, he has the right to speak and take part in proceedings of both houses of the state legislature or any committee of it of which he may be named a member but without the right to vote

• As a part of the state executive (state executive consists of the Governor, Chief Minister, Council of Ministers and Advocate General), he enjoys all the privileges and immunities enjoyed by a member of the state legislature.

Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct and statement 3 explains statement 1.

• The Advocate General is not a member of the state cabinet.

• There is a separate Law Minister to look after legal matters at the state government level.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Solution: C

• The Constitution under article 165 provides for office of Advocate General for States

• The constitution has established the office of Advocate General of state as the highest law officer in the state.

• It is a constitutional body and is the chief legal advisor to the state government to advise it on all legal matters.

• he is the chief law officer of the government in the state

Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct and statement 3 explains statement 1.

• The Advocate General is not a member of the state cabinet.

• There is a separate Law Minister to look after legal matters at the state government level.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : Statement – I : The National Foundation for Communal Harmony (NFCH) provides financial support for rehabilitation of child victims of communal and caste violence. Statement – II : NFCH is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Women and Child Development. Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ? (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct Correct Solution : C The National Foundation for Communal Harmony was set up as an autonomous body in 1992 It works under administrative control of Union Home Ministry It is a multi member body consists of official and non official members The official members include the Union Home minister, Minister of Education, Minister of Information and broadcasting, minister of Social justice and Empowerment among others. It is chaired by Union Home minister. It aims to promote communal harmony, fraternity and national integration. Its activities include granting financial support for rehabilitation of child victims of communal, caste, ethnic or terrorist violence. It promotes communal harmony and national integration by organising variety of activities either independently or in association with educational institutions, NGOs and other organisations. It also conduct studies and grant scholarships to institutions and scholars for conducting studies It also involve Central and state governments, commercial organisations, NGOs, in promoting objectives of the foundation. Hence statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution : C The National Foundation for Communal Harmony was set up as an autonomous body in 1992 It works under administrative control of Union Home Ministry It is a multi member body consists of official and non official members The official members include the Union Home minister, Minister of Education, Minister of Information and broadcasting, minister of Social justice and Empowerment among others. It is chaired by Union Home minister. It aims to promote communal harmony, fraternity and national integration. Its activities include granting financial support for rehabilitation of child victims of communal, caste, ethnic or terrorist violence. It promotes communal harmony and national integration by organising variety of activities either independently or in association with educational institutions, NGOs and other organisations. It also conduct studies and grant scholarships to institutions and scholars for conducting studies It also involve Central and state governments, commercial organisations, NGOs, in promoting objectives of the foundation. Hence statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect

#### 17. Question

Consider the following statements :

Statement – I :

The National Foundation for Communal Harmony (NFCH) provides financial support for rehabilitation of child victims of communal and caste violence.

Statement – II :

NFCH is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Women and Child Development.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?

• (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I

• (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I

• (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect

• (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct

Solution : C

• The National Foundation for Communal Harmony was set up as an autonomous body in 1992

• It works under administrative control of Union Home Ministry

• It is a multi member body consists of official and non official members

• The official members include the Union Home minister, Minister of Education, Minister of Information and broadcasting, minister of Social justice and Empowerment among others.

• It is chaired by Union Home minister.

• It aims to promote communal harmony, fraternity and national integration.

• Its activities include granting financial support for rehabilitation of child victims of communal, caste, ethnic or terrorist violence.

• It promotes communal harmony and national integration by organising variety of activities either independently or in association with educational institutions, NGOs and other organisations.

• It also conduct studies and grant scholarships to institutions and scholars for conducting studies

• It also involve Central and state governments, commercial organisations, NGOs, in promoting objectives of the foundation.

Hence statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect

Solution : C

• The National Foundation for Communal Harmony was set up as an autonomous body in 1992

• It works under administrative control of Union Home Ministry

• It is a multi member body consists of official and non official members

• The official members include the Union Home minister, Minister of Education, Minister of Information and broadcasting, minister of Social justice and Empowerment among others.

• It is chaired by Union Home minister.

• It aims to promote communal harmony, fraternity and national integration.

• Its activities include granting financial support for rehabilitation of child victims of communal, caste, ethnic or terrorist violence.

• It promotes communal harmony and national integration by organising variety of activities either independently or in association with educational institutions, NGOs and other organisations.

• It also conduct studies and grant scholarships to institutions and scholars for conducting studies

• It also involve Central and state governments, commercial organisations, NGOs, in promoting objectives of the foundation.

Hence statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points The Anubhav Awards are given by the Central Government to : (a) NGOs working for rehabilitation of women and child victims of human trafficking (b) Eminent authors who promote cultural and socio religious harmony through literary works (c) Central Government employees to recognise their contributions while in service (d) Individuals under 18 years of age who are involved in promoting sustainability Correct Solution : C The Anubhav Awards is organised by the Department of Pension and Pensioners’ Welfare to recognise the contribution made by the Central Government employees while in service. It is designed to recognise and document the experiences of retiring and retired Central Government employees. It was launched in March 2015 on the direction of the Prime Minister with an object to create a culture of sharing experiences, promoting good governance and administrative reforms through the Anubhav portal. Hence option C is correct Incorrect Solution : C The Anubhav Awards is organised by the Department of Pension and Pensioners’ Welfare to recognise the contribution made by the Central Government employees while in service. It is designed to recognise and document the experiences of retiring and retired Central Government employees. It was launched in March 2015 on the direction of the Prime Minister with an object to create a culture of sharing experiences, promoting good governance and administrative reforms through the Anubhav portal. Hence option C is correct

#### 18. Question

The Anubhav Awards are given by the Central Government to :

• (a) NGOs working for rehabilitation of women and child victims of human trafficking

• (b) Eminent authors who promote cultural and socio religious harmony through literary works

• (c) Central Government employees to recognise their contributions while in service

• (d) Individuals under 18 years of age who are involved in promoting sustainability

Solution : C

• The Anubhav Awards is organised by the Department of Pension and Pensioners’ Welfare to recognise the contribution made by the Central Government employees while in service.

• It is designed to recognise and document the experiences of retiring and retired Central Government employees.

• It was launched in March 2015 on the direction of the Prime Minister with an object to create a culture of sharing experiences, promoting good governance and administrative reforms through the Anubhav portal.

Hence option C is correct

Solution : C

• The Anubhav Awards is organised by the Department of Pension and Pensioners’ Welfare to recognise the contribution made by the Central Government employees while in service.

• It is designed to recognise and document the experiences of retiring and retired Central Government employees.

Hence option C is correct

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Tenth Schedule of the Constitution : No member can become disqualified if he leaves a party due to merger of the party with another party. An independent member becomes disqualified if he joins any political party. A nominated member of a House cannot become disqualified if he joins any political party within six months of acquiring seat in the House. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 2 only (b) 1 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution : D If a member goes out of his party as a result of a merger of the party with another party, he does not get disqualified on the ground of Defection. An independent member of a House elected without being set up as a candidate by any political party becomes disqualified to remain a member of the House if he joins any political party after such election. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct A nominated member of a House becomes disqualified for being the member of a House if he joins any political party after the expiry of 6 months from the date on which he takes his seat in the House . This implies that he may join any political party with in 6 months of taking his seat in the House without inviting the disqualification. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution : D If a member goes out of his party as a result of a merger of the party with another party, he does not get disqualified on the ground of Defection. An independent member of a House elected without being set up as a candidate by any political party becomes disqualified to remain a member of the House if he joins any political party after such election. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct A nominated member of a House becomes disqualified for being the member of a House if he joins any political party after the expiry of 6 months from the date on which he takes his seat in the House . This implies that he may join any political party with in 6 months of taking his seat in the House without inviting the disqualification. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 19. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Tenth Schedule of the Constitution :

• No member can become disqualified if he leaves a party due to merger of the party with another party.

• An independent member becomes disqualified if he joins any political party.

• A nominated member of a House cannot become disqualified if he joins any political party within six months of acquiring seat in the House.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 2 only

• (b) 1 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution : D

• If a member goes out of his party as a result of a merger of the party with another party, he does not get disqualified on the ground of Defection.

• An independent member of a House elected without being set up as a candidate by any political party becomes disqualified to remain a member of the House if he joins any political party after such election.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

• A nominated member of a House becomes disqualified for being the member of a House if he joins any political party after the expiry of 6 months from the date on which he takes his seat in the House .

• This implies that he may join any political party with in 6 months of taking his seat in the House without inviting the disqualification.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution : D

• If a member goes out of his party as a result of a merger of the party with another party, he does not get disqualified on the ground of Defection.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

• This implies that he may join any political party with in 6 months of taking his seat in the House without inviting the disqualification.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Central Information Commission : The Right to Information Act provided for formation of this non-constitutional body. The members are nominated by a committee headed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. The members can be removed only on recommendation of the Supreme Court. The commission can direct appointment of Public Information Officer. Which of the statements given above are correct ? (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 3 and 4 only Correct Solution : B The Central Information Commission was established by the central government in 2005 It was established under provisions of Right to Information Act 2005 and hence is not a constitutional body. Hence statement 1 is correct The commission consists of a Chief Information Commissioner and not more than 10 information commissioners They are appointed by the president on recommendation of a committee consisting of the Prime Minister as chairperson, Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister. Hence statement 2 is incorrect The president can remove any member if he/she : Adjudged an insolvent Convicted of an offence Engages in any paid employment outside duties of his office Unfit to continue in office due to infirmity of body or mind Has acquired such financial or other interest that affects his official functions Outside these, The president can remove members of the commission on ground of incapacity of proved misbehaviour; but in these cases the president should refer the matter to the supreme court for an enquiry after which, the member can be removed. Hence statement 3 is incorrect The commission has the power to secure compliance of its decisions from the public authority It can direct the public authority to appoint a Public Information Officer where none exists. Hence statement 4 is correct Incorrect Solution : B The Central Information Commission was established by the central government in 2005 It was established under provisions of Right to Information Act 2005 and hence is not a constitutional body. Hence statement 1 is correct The commission consists of a Chief Information Commissioner and not more than 10 information commissioners They are appointed by the president on recommendation of a committee consisting of the Prime Minister as chairperson, Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister. Hence statement 2 is incorrect The president can remove any member if he/she : Adjudged an insolvent Convicted of an offence Engages in any paid employment outside duties of his office Unfit to continue in office due to infirmity of body or mind Has acquired such financial or other interest that affects his official functions Outside these, The president can remove members of the commission on ground of incapacity of proved misbehaviour; but in these cases the president should refer the matter to the supreme court for an enquiry after which, the member can be removed. Hence statement 3 is incorrect The commission has the power to secure compliance of its decisions from the public authority It can direct the public authority to appoint a Public Information Officer where none exists. Hence statement 4 is correct

#### 20. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Central Information Commission :

• The Right to Information Act provided for formation of this non-constitutional body.

• The members are nominated by a committee headed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

• The members can be removed only on recommendation of the Supreme Court.

• The commission can direct appointment of Public Information Officer.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

• (a) 2 and 3 only

• (b) 1 and 4 only

• (c) 1 and 2 only

• (d) 3 and 4 only

Solution : B

• The Central Information Commission was established by the central government in 2005

• It was established under provisions of Right to Information Act 2005 and hence is not a constitutional body.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The commission consists of a Chief Information Commissioner and not more than 10 information commissioners

• They are appointed by the president on recommendation of a committee consisting of the Prime Minister as chairperson, Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

The president can remove any member if he/she :

• Adjudged an insolvent

• Convicted of an offence

• Engages in any paid employment outside duties of his office

• Unfit to continue in office due to infirmity of body or mind

• Has acquired such financial or other interest that affects his official functions

Outside these,

• The president can remove members of the commission on ground of incapacity of proved misbehaviour; but in these cases the president should refer the matter to the supreme court for an enquiry after which, the member can be removed.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• The commission has the power to secure compliance of its decisions from the public authority

• It can direct the public authority to appoint a Public Information Officer where none exists.

Hence statement 4 is correct

Solution : B

• The Central Information Commission was established by the central government in 2005

• It was established under provisions of Right to Information Act 2005 and hence is not a constitutional body.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The commission consists of a Chief Information Commissioner and not more than 10 information commissioners

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

The president can remove any member if he/she :

• Adjudged an insolvent

• Convicted of an offence

• Engages in any paid employment outside duties of his office

• Unfit to continue in office due to infirmity of body or mind

• Has acquired such financial or other interest that affects his official functions

Outside these,

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• The commission has the power to secure compliance of its decisions from the public authority

• It can direct the public authority to appoint a Public Information Officer where none exists.

Hence statement 4 is correct

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Which of the following scenarios constitutionally justifies the imposition of President’s Rule under Article 356, as interpreted by the Supreme Court? (a) A state's law-and-order situation deteriorates due to communal riots. (b) A democratically elected government loses majority, and the Governor reports failure to prove majority on the floor. (c) The Chief Minister resigns and recommends dissolution of the Legislative Assembly. (d) A state refuses to implement a central scheme that is not backed by a parliamentary law. Correct Solution: B Explanation: Under S.R. Bommai v. Union of India, the Supreme Court clarified that loss of majority in the House constitutes a valid ground for invoking Article 356 only when tested on the floor of the House. Mere law-and-order failure, as in (a), does not amount to constitutional breakdown unless it disables the constitutional machinery. In (c), recommendation for dissolution by the CM does not trigger Article 356 unless coupled with inability to form an alternative government. Refusal to implement a non-binding scheme as in (d) is not a constitutional failure unless it violates Article 256 or 365 conditions. Hence, only (b) satisfies the constitutional test. Incorrect Solution: B Explanation: Under S.R. Bommai v. Union of India, the Supreme Court clarified that loss of majority in the House constitutes a valid ground for invoking Article 356 only when tested on the floor of the House. Mere law-and-order failure, as in (a), does not amount to constitutional breakdown unless it disables the constitutional machinery. In (c), recommendation for dissolution by the CM does not trigger Article 356 unless coupled with inability to form an alternative government. Refusal to implement a non-binding scheme as in (d) is not a constitutional failure unless it violates Article 256 or 365 conditions. Hence, only (b) satisfies the constitutional test.

#### 21. Question

Which of the following scenarios constitutionally justifies the imposition of President’s Rule under Article 356, as interpreted by the Supreme Court?

• (a) A state's law-and-order situation deteriorates due to communal riots.

• (b) A democratically elected government loses majority, and the Governor reports failure to prove majority on the floor.

• (c) The Chief Minister resigns and recommends dissolution of the Legislative Assembly.

• (d) A state refuses to implement a central scheme that is not backed by a parliamentary law.

Solution: B

Explanation: Under S.R. Bommai v. Union of India, the Supreme Court clarified that loss of majority in the House constitutes a valid ground for invoking Article 356 only when tested on the floor of the House. Mere law-and-order failure, as in (a), does not amount to constitutional breakdown unless it disables the constitutional machinery. In (c), recommendation for dissolution by the CM does not trigger Article 356 unless coupled with inability to form an alternative government. Refusal to implement a non-binding scheme as in (d) is not a constitutional failure unless it violates Article 256 or 365 conditions. Hence, only (b) satisfies the constitutional test.

Solution: B

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Cali Fund and its operation: It will be administered jointly by the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) and the CBD Secretariat. At least 50% of its resources are earmarked for Indigenous Peoples and Local Communities (IPLCs). It is the result of a global agreement to equitably share benefits arising from the use of Digital Sequence Information (DSI). Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: B Explanation: Statement 1 – Incorrect: The Cali Fund is administered by UNDP and UNEP, with the Multi-Partner Trust Fund Office (MPTFO) managing administrative functions — UNFCCC has no role in this biodiversity-specific fund. Statement 2 – Correct: The fund mandates that at least 50% of its proceeds support Indigenous Peoples and Local Communities (IPLCs), recognizing their custodianship of biodiversity. Statement 3 – Correct: It follows a historic agreement under COP16, establishing a global system of benefit-sharing from DSI, a major breakthrough in Access and Benefit Sharing (ABS) negotiations. Thus, 2 and 3 are correct. Incorrect Solution: B Explanation: Statement 1 – Incorrect: The Cali Fund is administered by UNDP and UNEP, with the Multi-Partner Trust Fund Office (MPTFO) managing administrative functions — UNFCCC has no role in this biodiversity-specific fund. Statement 2 – Correct: The fund mandates that at least 50% of its proceeds support Indigenous Peoples and Local Communities (IPLCs), recognizing their custodianship of biodiversity. Statement 3 – Correct: It follows a historic agreement under COP16, establishing a global system of benefit-sharing from DSI, a major breakthrough in Access and Benefit Sharing (ABS) negotiations. Thus, 2 and 3 are correct.

#### 22. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Cali Fund and its operation:

• It will be administered jointly by the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) and the CBD Secretariat.

• At least 50% of its resources are earmarked for Indigenous Peoples and Local Communities (IPLCs).

• It is the result of a global agreement to equitably share benefits arising from the use of Digital Sequence Information (DSI).

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B

Explanation:

• Statement 1 – Incorrect: The Cali Fund is administered by UNDP and UNEP, with the Multi-Partner Trust Fund Office (MPTFO) managing administrative functions — UNFCCC has no role in this biodiversity-specific fund.

• Statement 2 – Correct: The fund mandates that at least 50% of its proceeds support Indigenous Peoples and Local Communities (IPLCs), recognizing their custodianship of biodiversity.

• Statement 3 – Correct: It follows a historic agreement under COP16, establishing a global system of benefit-sharing from DSI, a major breakthrough in Access and Benefit Sharing (ABS) negotiations. Thus, 2 and 3 are correct.

Solution: B

Explanation:

• Statement 2 – Correct: The fund mandates that at least 50% of its proceeds support Indigenous Peoples and Local Communities (IPLCs), recognizing their custodianship of biodiversity.

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Consider the following fiscal indicators with their correct characteristics: Indicator Characteristic A. Fiscal Deficit 1. Measures the annual borrowing requirement of the government B. Primary Deficit 2. Excludes interest payments from the fiscal deficit C. Debt-to-GDP Ratio 3. Indicates total outstanding liabilities relative to national income D. Revenue Deficit 4. Measures capital account surplus over interest-free current expenditure How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C Explanation: A–1: Correct → Fiscal Deficit = Total Expenditure – Total Receipts (excluding borrowings). It represents the government’s total borrowing needs in a financial year. B–2: Correct → Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit – Interest Payments. It shows the government’s borrowing requirement excluding interest obligations on past debts. C–3: Correct → Debt-to-GDP Ratio shows total debt stock as a percentage of GDP. This ratio compares a country’s total public debt to its GDP, indicating debt sustainability (ability to repay debt relative to economic size). D–4: Incorrect → Revenue Deficit = Revenue Expenditure – Revenue Receipts, and does not measure capital surplus. It indicates that the government is borrowing to meet day-to-day expenses (not asset creation). Thus, only three matches are correct → Solution: (c) Incorrect Solution: C Explanation: A–1: Correct → Fiscal Deficit = Total Expenditure – Total Receipts (excluding borrowings). It represents the government’s total borrowing needs in a financial year. B–2: Correct → Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit – Interest Payments. It shows the government’s borrowing requirement excluding interest obligations on past debts. C–3: Correct → Debt-to-GDP Ratio shows total debt stock as a percentage of GDP. This ratio compares a country’s total public debt to its GDP, indicating debt sustainability (ability to repay debt relative to economic size). D–4: Incorrect → Revenue Deficit = Revenue Expenditure – Revenue Receipts, and does not measure capital surplus. It indicates that the government is borrowing to meet day-to-day expenses (not asset creation). Thus, only three matches are correct → Solution: (c)

#### 23. Question

Consider the following fiscal indicators with their correct characteristics:

Indicator | Characteristic

A. Fiscal Deficit | 1. Measures the annual borrowing requirement of the government

B. Primary Deficit | 2. Excludes interest payments from the fiscal deficit

C. Debt-to-GDP Ratio | 3. Indicates total outstanding liabilities relative to national income

D. Revenue Deficit | 4. Measures capital account surplus over interest-free current expenditure

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

Explanation:

• A–1: Correct → Fiscal Deficit = Total Expenditure – Total Receipts (excluding borrowings). It represents the government’s total borrowing needs in a financial year.

• It represents the government’s total borrowing needs in a financial year.

• B–2: Correct → Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit – Interest Payments. It shows the government’s borrowing requirement excluding interest obligations on past debts.

• It shows the government’s borrowing requirement excluding interest obligations on past debts.

• C–3: Correct → Debt-to-GDP Ratio shows total debt stock as a percentage of GDP. This ratio compares a country’s total public debt to its GDP, indicating debt sustainability (ability to repay debt relative to economic size).

• This ratio compares a country’s total public debt to its GDP, indicating debt sustainability (ability to repay debt relative to economic size).

• D–4: Incorrect → Revenue Deficit = Revenue Expenditure – Revenue Receipts, and does not measure capital surplus. It indicates that the government is borrowing to meet day-to-day expenses (not asset creation).

• It indicates that the government is borrowing to meet day-to-day expenses (not asset creation).

Thus, only three matches are correct → Solution: (c)

Solution: C

Explanation:

• A–1: Correct → Fiscal Deficit = Total Expenditure – Total Receipts (excluding borrowings). It represents the government’s total borrowing needs in a financial year.

• It represents the government’s total borrowing needs in a financial year.

• B–2: Correct → Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit – Interest Payments. It shows the government’s borrowing requirement excluding interest obligations on past debts.

• It shows the government’s borrowing requirement excluding interest obligations on past debts.

• This ratio compares a country’s total public debt to its GDP, indicating debt sustainability (ability to repay debt relative to economic size).

• It indicates that the government is borrowing to meet day-to-day expenses (not asset creation).

Thus, only three matches are correct → Solution: (c)

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Statement-I: Vietnam and the Philippines are some of the most typhoon-prone countries in the world. Statement-II: Their location in the Western Pacific Typhoon Basin exposes them to frequent low-pressure systems originating from the Atlantic Ocean. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: C Explanation: Statement I is correct. The Philippines and Vietnam rank among the top nations globally in terms of frequency, damage, and fatalities from typhoons. Statement II is incorrect. These countries are influenced by systems from the Western Pacific, not the Atlantic, which affects the Americas, not East Asia. Why Vietnam and the Philippines are affected by so many typhoons? Vietnam and the Philippines are frequently affected by typhoons due to their geographic location in the Western Pacific, one of the most active typhoon basins in the world. Both countries lie along the Pacific typhoon belt, where warm ocean waters and atmospheric conditions favour the formation of strong tropical storms. Their long coastlines and low-lying areas also make them highly vulnerable to storm surges, flooding, and landslides triggered by typhoons. Additionally, the seasonal monsoons intensify these weather systems, especially during the peak typhoon season from June to November. Incorrect Solution: C Explanation: Statement I is correct. The Philippines and Vietnam rank among the top nations globally in terms of frequency, damage, and fatalities from typhoons. Statement II is incorrect. These countries are influenced by systems from the Western Pacific, not the Atlantic, which affects the Americas, not East Asia. Why Vietnam and the Philippines are affected by so many typhoons? Vietnam and the Philippines are frequently affected by typhoons due to their geographic location in the Western Pacific, one of the most active typhoon basins in the world. Both countries lie along the Pacific typhoon belt, where warm ocean waters and atmospheric conditions favour the formation of strong tropical storms. Their long coastlines and low-lying areas also make them highly vulnerable to storm surges, flooding, and landslides triggered by typhoons. Additionally, the seasonal monsoons intensify these weather systems, especially during the peak typhoon season from June to November.

#### 24. Question

Consider the following statements.

Statement-I: Vietnam and the Philippines are some of the most typhoon-prone countries in the world. Statement-II: Their location in the Western Pacific Typhoon Basin exposes them to frequent low-pressure systems originating from the Atlantic Ocean.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: C

Explanation:

• Statement I is correct. The Philippines and Vietnam rank among the top nations globally in terms of frequency, damage, and fatalities from typhoons.

• Statement II is incorrect. These countries are influenced by systems from the Western Pacific, not the Atlantic, which affects the Americas, not East Asia.

Why Vietnam and the Philippines are affected by so many typhoons?

• Vietnam and the Philippines are frequently affected by typhoons due to their geographic location in the Western Pacific, one of the most active typhoon basins in the world.

• Both countries lie along the Pacific typhoon belt, where warm ocean waters and atmospheric conditions favour the formation of strong tropical storms.

• Their long coastlines and low-lying areas also make them highly vulnerable to storm surges, flooding, and landslides triggered by typhoons.

Additionally, the seasonal monsoons intensify these weather systems, especially during the peak typhoon season from June to November.

Solution: C

Explanation:

• Statement I is correct. The Philippines and Vietnam rank among the top nations globally in terms of frequency, damage, and fatalities from typhoons.

• Statement II is incorrect. These countries are influenced by systems from the Western Pacific, not the Atlantic, which affects the Americas, not East Asia.

Why Vietnam and the Philippines are affected by so many typhoons?

• Vietnam and the Philippines are frequently affected by typhoons due to their geographic location in the Western Pacific, one of the most active typhoon basins in the world.

• Both countries lie along the Pacific typhoon belt, where warm ocean waters and atmospheric conditions favour the formation of strong tropical storms.

• Their long coastlines and low-lying areas also make them highly vulnerable to storm surges, flooding, and landslides triggered by typhoons.

Additionally, the seasonal monsoons intensify these weather systems, especially during the peak typhoon season from June to November.

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Which of the following actions can validly be taken by the State without amending the Constitution, based on current judicial interpretation of Article 26? Requiring religious trusts to be audited under state law Regulating appointments to religious institutions if public funds are involved Forbidding entry of women into a temple as a religious custom Select the correct answer using the code below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: (a) Explanation: Article 26 of the Indian Constitution grants freedom to manage religious affairs to religious denominations, but this is subject to public order, morality, and health as well as other constitutional provisions. Judicial interpretations have clarified the extent of state intervention: Requiring religious trusts to be audited under state law (Valid) The state can impose financial regulations (like audits) on religious trusts to ensure transparency, especially if they involve public donations or funds. This does not interfere with the essential religious practices of the denomination. Regulating appointments to religious institutions if public funds are involved (Valid) If a religious institution receives public funds, the state can impose conditions (like regulating appointments) to ensure accountability. The Supreme Court has upheld such measures in cases like Shirur Mutt (1954) and Sabarimala Temple (2018). Forbidding entry of women into a temple as a religious custom (Invalid) The Supreme Court, in Indian Young Lawyers Association v. State of Kerala (2018) (Sabarimala Case), held that discrimination based on gender (even if claimed as a religious custom) violates constitutional morality and equality (Articles 14, 15, 17, and 25). Hence, the state cannot allow such exclusion without violating constitutional principles. Incorrect Solution: (a) Explanation: Article 26 of the Indian Constitution grants freedom to manage religious affairs to religious denominations, but this is subject to public order, morality, and health as well as other constitutional provisions. Judicial interpretations have clarified the extent of state intervention: Requiring religious trusts to be audited under state law (Valid) The state can impose financial regulations (like audits) on religious trusts to ensure transparency, especially if they involve public donations or funds. This does not interfere with the essential religious practices of the denomination. Regulating appointments to religious institutions if public funds are involved (Valid) If a religious institution receives public funds, the state can impose conditions (like regulating appointments) to ensure accountability. The Supreme Court has upheld such measures in cases like Shirur Mutt (1954) and Sabarimala Temple (2018). Forbidding entry of women into a temple as a religious custom (Invalid) The Supreme Court, in Indian Young Lawyers Association v. State of Kerala (2018) (Sabarimala Case), held that discrimination based on gender (even if claimed as a religious custom) violates constitutional morality and equality (Articles 14, 15, 17, and 25). Hence, the state cannot allow such exclusion without violating constitutional principles.

#### 25. Question

Which of the following actions can validly be taken by the State without amending the Constitution, based on current judicial interpretation of Article 26?

• Requiring religious trusts to be audited under state law

• Regulating appointments to religious institutions if public funds are involved

• Forbidding entry of women into a temple as a religious custom

Select the correct answer using the code below:

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: (a) Explanation:

Article 26 of the Indian Constitution grants freedom to manage religious affairs to religious denominations, but this is subject to public order, morality, and health as well as other constitutional provisions. Judicial interpretations have clarified the extent of state intervention:

• Requiring religious trusts to be audited under state law (Valid) The state can impose financial regulations (like audits) on religious trusts to ensure transparency, especially if they involve public donations or funds. This does not interfere with the essential religious practices of the denomination.

• The state can impose financial regulations (like audits) on religious trusts to ensure transparency, especially if they involve public donations or funds. This does not interfere with the essential religious practices of the denomination.

• Regulating appointments to religious institutions if public funds are involved (Valid) If a religious institution receives public funds, the state can impose conditions (like regulating appointments) to ensure accountability. The Supreme Court has upheld such measures in cases like Shirur Mutt (1954) and Sabarimala Temple (2018).

• If a religious institution receives public funds, the state can impose conditions (like regulating appointments) to ensure accountability. The Supreme Court has upheld such measures in cases like Shirur Mutt (1954) and Sabarimala Temple (2018).

• Forbidding entry of women into a temple as a religious custom (Invalid) The Supreme Court, in Indian Young Lawyers Association v. State of Kerala (2018) (Sabarimala Case), held that discrimination based on gender (even if claimed as a religious custom) violates constitutional morality and equality (Articles 14, 15, 17, and 25). Hence, the state cannot allow such exclusion without violating constitutional principles.

• The Supreme Court, in Indian Young Lawyers Association v. State of Kerala (2018) (Sabarimala Case), held that discrimination based on gender (even if claimed as a religious custom) violates constitutional morality and equality (Articles 14, 15, 17, and 25). Hence, the state cannot allow such exclusion without violating constitutional principles.

Solution: (a) Explanation:

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points India’s higher education in a web of qualifying and competitive exams, regulatory agencies and professional bodies. All this is in the name of upholding standards. There is the excessively bureaucratic national system of accreditation and rankings for institutions. This led to thousands of research papers in worthless journals and hundreds of crores spent on exotic research areas. The new National Education Policy (NEP) claims that the purpose of higher education is to “enable personal accomplishment and enlightenment, and productive contribution to society”. But what is this in concrete terms, for students? Should a “good” student be able to write a newspaper article on a local issue, or conduct a study? Should IITs analyse the social issues in their cities? Can the state rely on its colleges for research on serious developmental issues like water security? Should the nation expect that elite institutions will work to improve the social welfare? These questions have never been answered. Instead, national competitive exams such as the JEE, NEET and GATE have become the de facto standards for education. The problem is, they adversely impact the overall development of our youth. They encourage coaching and intervene in the state’s ability to provide doctors and engineers from the local population. They distort the meaning and practice of science. This standardisation is merely “world-class” and not based on any study of what the states need. Pedagogically, it is known that students learn better when presented with real-life problems in a familiar context. And yet the case study on local problems has been absent in the curricula. a. The bureaucratised national system of regulating education eroded the autonomous growth of institutions b. Often the education policy deviates from imparting right form of science c. There have been few efforts to evolve standards and link them with concrete social goals d. Proliferation of coaching institutions and suppression of youth’s aspirations are twin defects of the present regulatory set-up Correct Correct Option : C Justification : The central focus of the passage is that, The standards of education are usually tested based on competitive exams and other regulatory standards by regulatory bodies But it is not tested whether the education can solve the social issues because ability of education to contribute to social goals is not a standard of test. This negligent focus on social dimension is the central theme of the passage. Others are secondary arguments. A is correct as per the passage but not the crucial inference since it does not talk about social dimension. B talks about a disadvantage of educational policies and D tells the problem of exams being standard of test, but did not mention the lack of social concern in these standards. Thus C is the most crucial inference. Hence C is the answer. Incorrect Correct Option : C Justification : The central focus of the passage is that, The standards of education are usually tested based on competitive exams and other regulatory standards by regulatory bodies But it is not tested whether the education can solve the social issues because ability of education to contribute to social goals is not a standard of test. This negligent focus on social dimension is the central theme of the passage. Others are secondary arguments. A is correct as per the passage but not the crucial inference since it does not talk about social dimension. B talks about a disadvantage of educational policies and D tells the problem of exams being standard of test, but did not mention the lack of social concern in these standards. Thus C is the most crucial inference. Hence C is the answer.

#### 26. Question

India’s higher education in a web of qualifying and competitive exams, regulatory agencies and professional bodies. All this is in the name of upholding standards. There is the excessively bureaucratic national system of accreditation and rankings for institutions. This led to thousands of research papers in worthless journals and hundreds of crores spent on exotic research areas.

The new National Education Policy (NEP) claims that the purpose of higher education is to “enable personal accomplishment and enlightenment, and productive contribution to society”. But what is this in concrete terms, for students? Should a “good” student be able to write a newspaper article on a local issue, or conduct a study? Should IITs analyse the social issues in their cities? Can the state rely on its colleges for research on serious developmental issues like water security? Should the nation expect that elite institutions will work to improve the social welfare? These questions have never been answered. Instead, national competitive exams such as the JEE, NEET and GATE have become the de facto standards for education.

The problem is, they adversely impact the overall development of our youth. They encourage coaching and intervene in the state’s ability to provide doctors and engineers from the local population. They distort the meaning and practice of science. This standardisation is merely “world-class” and not based on any study of what the states need. Pedagogically, it is known that students learn better when presented with real-life problems in a familiar context. And yet the case study on local problems has been absent in the curricula.

• a. The bureaucratised national system of regulating education eroded the autonomous growth of institutions

• b. Often the education policy deviates from imparting right form of science

• c. There have been few efforts to evolve standards and link them with concrete social goals

• d. Proliferation of coaching institutions and suppression of youth’s aspirations are twin defects of the present regulatory set-up

Correct Option : C

Justification :

The central focus of the passage is that,

• The standards of education are usually tested based on competitive exams and other regulatory standards by regulatory bodies But it is not tested whether the education can solve the social issues because ability of education to contribute to social goals is not a standard of test.

• The standards of education are usually tested based on competitive exams and other regulatory standards by regulatory bodies

• But it is not tested whether the education can solve the social issues because ability of education to contribute to social goals is not a standard of test.

This negligent focus on social dimension is the central theme of the passage. Others are secondary arguments.

A is correct as per the passage but not the crucial inference since it does not talk about social dimension.

B talks about a disadvantage of educational policies and D tells the problem of exams being standard of test, but did not mention the lack of social concern in these standards.

Thus C is the most crucial inference.

Hence C is the answer.

Correct Option : C

Justification :

The central focus of the passage is that,

• The standards of education are usually tested based on competitive exams and other regulatory standards by regulatory bodies

• But it is not tested whether the education can solve the social issues because ability of education to contribute to social goals is not a standard of test.

This negligent focus on social dimension is the central theme of the passage. Others are secondary arguments.

A is correct as per the passage but not the crucial inference since it does not talk about social dimension.

B talks about a disadvantage of educational policies and D tells the problem of exams being standard of test, but did not mention the lack of social concern in these standards.

Thus C is the most crucial inference.

Hence C is the answer.

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points In a class of 45 students, a boy is ranked 20th. When two boys joined, his rank was dropped by one. What is his new rank from the end? a. 25th b. 26th c. 27th d. 28th Correct Correct Option : C Justification : Explanation: Initial strength of class = 45 Now, new strength = 47 The boy’s rank is dropped by one Now, his rank becomes 21. Total number of boys in class = Boy’s rank from starting + Boy’s rank from end – 1 Boy’s rank from end = 47 – 21 + 1 = 27 Incorrect Correct Option : C Justification : Explanation: Initial strength of class = 45 Now, new strength = 47 The boy’s rank is dropped by one Now, his rank becomes 21. Total number of boys in class = Boy’s rank from starting + Boy’s rank from end – 1 Boy’s rank from end = 47 – 21 + 1 = 27

#### 27. Question

In a class of 45 students, a boy is ranked 20th. When two boys joined, his rank was dropped by one. What is his new rank from the end?

Correct Option : C

Justification :

Explanation:

Initial strength of class = 45

Now, new strength = 47

The boy’s rank is dropped by one Now, his rank

becomes 21.

Total number of boys in class =

Boy’s rank from starting + Boy’s rank from end – 1

Boy’s rank from end = 47 – 21 + 1 = 27

Correct Option : C

Justification :

Explanation:

Initial strength of class = 45

Now, new strength = 47

The boy’s rank is dropped by one Now, his rank

becomes 21.

Total number of boys in class =

Boy’s rank from starting + Boy’s rank from end – 1

Boy’s rank from end = 47 – 21 + 1 = 27

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points How many times are the hands of a clock at right angle in 12 hours? a. 22 b. 24 c. 44 d. 48 Correct Correct Option : A Justification : Explanation: In 12 hours, they are at right angles 22 times. In 24 hours, they are at right angles 44 times. Incorrect Correct Option : A Justification : Explanation: In 12 hours, they are at right angles 22 times. In 24 hours, they are at right angles 44 times.

#### 28. Question

How many times are the hands of a clock at right angle in 12 hours?

Correct Option : A

Justification :

Explanation:

In 12 hours, they are at right angles 22 times.

In 24 hours, they are at right angles 44 times.

Correct Option : A

Justification :

Explanation:

In 12 hours, they are at right angles 22 times.

In 24 hours, they are at right angles 44 times.

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points There are two clocks, both set to show the correct time at 10 a.m. One clock gains two minutes in one hour while the other gain one minute in one hour. If the clock which gains 2 minute shows the time as 22 minutes past 9 p. m., then what time does the other watch show? a. 9 hrs. 33 min b. 9 hrs. 12 min c. 9 hrs. 11 min d. 9 hrs. 23 min Correct Correct Option : C Justification : Explanation – Difference in minute between the two clocks in one hour = 1 minute. Number of hours = 11 hours. In 11 hours, one of the clock gains 22 minutes and shows the time as 9:22 p.m. The other clock which gains 1 minute per hour shows the time as 9:11 p.m. Incorrect Correct Option : C Justification : Explanation – Difference in minute between the two clocks in one hour = 1 minute. Number of hours = 11 hours. In 11 hours, one of the clock gains 22 minutes and shows the time as 9:22 p.m. The other clock which gains 1 minute per hour shows the time as 9:11 p.m.

#### 29. Question

There are two clocks, both set to show the correct time at 10 a.m. One clock gains two minutes in one hour while the other gain one minute in one hour. If the clock which gains 2 minute shows the time as 22 minutes past 9 p. m., then what time does the other watch show?

• a. 9 hrs. 33 min

• b. 9 hrs. 12 min

• c. 9 hrs. 11 min

• d. 9 hrs. 23 min

Correct Option : C

Justification :

Explanation –

Difference in minute between the two clocks in one hour = 1 minute.

Number of hours = 11 hours.

In 11 hours, one of the clock gains 22 minutes and shows the time as 9:22 p.m. The other clock which gains 1 minute per hour shows the time as 9:11 p.m.

Correct Option : C

Justification :

Explanation –

Difference in minute between the two clocks in one hour = 1 minute.

Number of hours = 11 hours.

In 11 hours, one of the clock gains 22 minutes and shows the time as 9:22 p.m. The other clock which gains 1 minute per hour shows the time as 9:11 p.m.

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points In a class of 75 students, the number of girls are twice the number of boys, Pankaj ranked 19th from the top. If there are 10 girls ahead of Pankaj, then the number of boys after him in rank. a. 15 b. 16 c. 17 d. 18 Correct Correct Option : B Justification : Number of girls are 50 and number of boys are 25. If 10 girls ahead of Pankaj, means only 8 boys are ahead of him. So number of boys after him = 25 – 8 -1 = 16 Incorrect Correct Option : B Justification : Number of girls are 50 and number of boys are 25. If 10 girls ahead of Pankaj, means only 8 boys are ahead of him. So number of boys after him = 25 – 8 -1 = 16

#### 30. Question

In a class of 75 students, the number of girls are twice the number of boys, Pankaj ranked 19th from the top. If there are 10 girls ahead of Pankaj, then the number of boys after him in rank.

Correct Option : B

Justification :

Number of girls are 50 and number of boys are 25. If 10 girls ahead of Pankaj, means only 8 boys are ahead of him.

So number of boys after him = 25 – 8 -1 = 16

Correct Option : B

Justification :

Number of girls are 50 and number of boys are 25. If 10 girls ahead of Pankaj, means only 8 boys are ahead of him.