DAY – 52 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – ENVIRONMENT & ECOLOGY and AGRICULTURE, Subject-wise Test 33, 34 and September 2023 CA
Kartavya Desk Staff
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024
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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Consider the following: Type of soil Minimum support price Land holding size Irrigational facilities How many of the above are determinants of cropping pattern? a) Only one b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Answers: d Explanation: Factors Determining Cropping Pattern: Soil: The components of soil and the climatic influence of a region determine the type of crop that would be grown using a specific type of soil. Climate: The dry regions, where rainfall is scarce and monsoons are unpredictable, rely on jowar and bajra. Rice is grown in flood-prone areas. Irrigation facilities: Cropping patterns are also influenced by irrigation. Wherever water is available, not only can a different crop be grown, but also double or triple cropping. Government Policies has the ability to influence cropping patterns through legislative and administrative measures. MSP, Food Crops Acts, Land Use Acts, intensive paddy schemes, cotton and oilseed schemes, and subsidies all have an impact on cropping patterns. Size of Farm: There is also a positive relationship between farm size and cropping pattern. Small farmers may choose cash crops after meeting their own food needs in order to maximise their monetary income. Farmers on large farms, on the other hand, prefer to follow cropping patterns that maximise their income. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answers: d Explanation: Factors Determining Cropping Pattern: Soil: The components of soil and the climatic influence of a region determine the type of crop that would be grown using a specific type of soil. Climate: The dry regions, where rainfall is scarce and monsoons are unpredictable, rely on jowar and bajra. Rice is grown in flood-prone areas. Irrigation facilities: Cropping patterns are also influenced by irrigation. Wherever water is available, not only can a different crop be grown, but also double or triple cropping. Government Policies has the ability to influence cropping patterns through legislative and administrative measures. MSP, Food Crops Acts, Land Use Acts, intensive paddy schemes, cotton and oilseed schemes, and subsidies all have an impact on cropping patterns. Size of Farm: There is also a positive relationship between farm size and cropping pattern. Small farmers may choose cash crops after meeting their own food needs in order to maximise their monetary income. Farmers on large farms, on the other hand, prefer to follow cropping patterns that maximise their income. Hence, option (d) is correct.
#### 1. Question
Consider the following:
• Type of soil
• Minimum support price
• Land holding size
• Irrigational facilities
How many of the above are determinants of cropping pattern?
• a) Only one
• b) Only two
• (c) Only three
• (d) All four
Answers: d
Explanation:
Factors Determining Cropping Pattern:
• Soil: The components of soil and the climatic influence of a region determine the type of crop that would be grown using a specific type of soil.
• Climate: The dry regions, where rainfall is scarce and monsoons are unpredictable, rely on jowar and bajra. Rice is grown in flood-prone areas.
• Irrigation facilities: Cropping patterns are also influenced by irrigation. Wherever water is available, not only can a different crop be grown, but also double or triple cropping.
• Government Policies has the ability to influence cropping patterns through legislative and administrative measures. MSP, Food Crops Acts, Land Use Acts, intensive paddy schemes, cotton and oilseed schemes, and subsidies all have an impact on cropping patterns.
• Size of Farm: There is also a positive relationship between farm size and cropping pattern. Small farmers may choose cash crops after meeting their own food needs in order to maximise their monetary income. Farmers on large farms, on the other hand, prefer to follow cropping patterns that maximise their income.
• Hence, option (d) is correct.
Answers: d
Explanation:
Factors Determining Cropping Pattern:
• Soil: The components of soil and the climatic influence of a region determine the type of crop that would be grown using a specific type of soil.
• Climate: The dry regions, where rainfall is scarce and monsoons are unpredictable, rely on jowar and bajra. Rice is grown in flood-prone areas.
• Irrigation facilities: Cropping patterns are also influenced by irrigation. Wherever water is available, not only can a different crop be grown, but also double or triple cropping.
• Government Policies has the ability to influence cropping patterns through legislative and administrative measures. MSP, Food Crops Acts, Land Use Acts, intensive paddy schemes, cotton and oilseed schemes, and subsidies all have an impact on cropping patterns.
• Size of Farm: There is also a positive relationship between farm size and cropping pattern. Small farmers may choose cash crops after meeting their own food needs in order to maximise their monetary income. Farmers on large farms, on the other hand, prefer to follow cropping patterns that maximise their income.
• Hence, option (d) is correct.
• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Consider the following: India is the third largest fish producing country globally and ranks second in aquaculture production. Marine fish production in India is higher than aquaculture production. West Bengal is the largest fish producing state in India. Which of the above given statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1 and 3 only Correct Answer: a Explanation: India is the third largest fish producing country, contributing 8 percent to the global fish production and ranks second in aquaculture production. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The fish production in 2021-22 was16.24 Million Tonnes comprising of marine fish production of 4.12 Million Tonnes and 12 Million Tonnes from Aquaculture. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Andhra Pradesh is the largest producer of fish in India followed by West Bengal. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: India is the third largest fish producing country, contributing 8 percent to the global fish production and ranks second in aquaculture production. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The fish production in 2021-22 was16.24 Million Tonnes comprising of marine fish production of 4.12 Million Tonnes and 12 Million Tonnes from Aquaculture. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Andhra Pradesh is the largest producer of fish in India followed by West Bengal. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct.
#### 2. Question
Consider the following:
• India is the third largest fish producing country globally and ranks second in aquaculture production.
• Marine fish production in India is higher than aquaculture production.
• West Bengal is the largest fish producing state in India.
Which of the above given statements is/are correct?
• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• c) 2 and 3 only
• d) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
• India is the third largest fish producing country, contributing 8 percent to the global fish production and ranks second in aquaculture production. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The fish production in 2021-22 was16.24 Million Tonnes comprising of marine fish production of 4.12 Million Tonnes and 12 Million Tonnes from Aquaculture. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Andhra Pradesh is the largest producer of fish in India followed by West Bengal. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
Explanation:
• India is the third largest fish producing country, contributing 8 percent to the global fish production and ranks second in aquaculture production. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The fish production in 2021-22 was16.24 Million Tonnes comprising of marine fish production of 4.12 Million Tonnes and 12 Million Tonnes from Aquaculture. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Andhra Pradesh is the largest producer of fish in India followed by West Bengal. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Given the seasonal nature of crop production in India, which of the following sequences of crops and their corresponding seasons is correct? a) Rice, Barley, Watermelon b) Wheat, Rice, Groundnut c) Jute, Cotton, Muskmelon d) Cucumber ,Groundnut, Wheat Correct Answer: a Explanation: Kharif Season: This season typically starts with the onset of monsoon, around June, and extends until October. Crops like rice, groundnut, jute, and cotton are common during this season. Rabi Season: This season begins around October and continues until the spring harvest in March or April. Common crops during this season include wheat, barley, and mustard. Zaid Season: This is the summer season between Rabi and Kharif, typically running from March to June. During this time, crops like watermelon, muskmelon, and cucumber are grown. Option a (Rice, Barley, Watermelon) Rice is a Kharif crop. Barley is a Rabi crop. Watermelon is a Zaid crop. This sequence corresponds to Kharif, Rabi, and Zaid seasons. Option b (Wheat, Rice, Groundnut): Wheat is a Rabi crop. Rice is a Kharif crop. Groundnut is also a Kharif crop. This sequence does not follow the correct order. Option c (Jute, Cotton, Muskmelon): Jute is a Kharif crop. Cotton is also a Kharif crop. Muskmelon is a Zaid crop. This sequence doesn’t align with seasons. Option d (Groundnut, Wheat, Cucumber): Cucumber is a Zaid crop Groundnut is a Kharif crop. Wheat is a Rabi crop This sequence doesn’t align with seasons. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Kharif Season: This season typically starts with the onset of monsoon, around June, and extends until October. Crops like rice, groundnut, jute, and cotton are common during this season. Rabi Season: This season begins around October and continues until the spring harvest in March or April. Common crops during this season include wheat, barley, and mustard. Zaid Season: This is the summer season between Rabi and Kharif, typically running from March to June. During this time, crops like watermelon, muskmelon, and cucumber are grown. Option a (Rice, Barley, Watermelon) Rice is a Kharif crop. Barley is a Rabi crop. Watermelon is a Zaid crop. This sequence corresponds to Kharif, Rabi, and Zaid seasons. Option b (Wheat, Rice, Groundnut): Wheat is a Rabi crop. Rice is a Kharif crop. Groundnut is also a Kharif crop. This sequence does not follow the correct order. Option c (Jute, Cotton, Muskmelon): Jute is a Kharif crop. Cotton is also a Kharif crop. Muskmelon is a Zaid crop. This sequence doesn’t align with seasons. Option d (Groundnut, Wheat, Cucumber): Cucumber is a Zaid crop Groundnut is a Kharif crop. Wheat is a Rabi crop This sequence doesn’t align with seasons. Hence, option (a) is correct.
#### 3. Question
Given the seasonal nature of crop production in India, which of the following sequences of crops and their corresponding seasons is correct?
• a) Rice, Barley, Watermelon
• b) Wheat, Rice, Groundnut
• c) Jute, Cotton, Muskmelon
• d) Cucumber ,Groundnut, Wheat
Explanation:
• Kharif Season: This season typically starts with the onset of monsoon, around June, and extends until October. Crops like rice, groundnut, jute, and cotton are common during this season.
• Rabi Season: This season begins around October and continues until the spring harvest in March or April. Common crops during this season include wheat, barley, and mustard.
• Zaid Season: This is the summer season between Rabi and Kharif, typically running from March to June. During this time, crops like watermelon, muskmelon, and cucumber are grown.
• Option a (Rice, Barley, Watermelon)
• Rice is a Kharif crop.
• Barley is a Rabi crop.
• Watermelon is a Zaid crop.
• This sequence corresponds to Kharif, Rabi, and Zaid seasons.
• Option b (Wheat, Rice, Groundnut):
• Wheat is a Rabi crop.
• Rice is a Kharif crop.
• Groundnut is also a Kharif crop.
• This sequence does not follow the correct order.
• Option c (Jute, Cotton, Muskmelon):
• Jute is a Kharif crop.
• Cotton is also a Kharif crop.
• Muskmelon is a Zaid crop.
• This sequence doesn’t align with seasons.
• Option d (Groundnut, Wheat, Cucumber):
• Cucumber is a Zaid crop
• Groundnut is a Kharif crop.
• Wheat is a Rabi crop
• This sequence doesn’t align with seasons.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
Explanation:
• Kharif Season: This season typically starts with the onset of monsoon, around June, and extends until October. Crops like rice, groundnut, jute, and cotton are common during this season.
• Rabi Season: This season begins around October and continues until the spring harvest in March or April. Common crops during this season include wheat, barley, and mustard.
• Zaid Season: This is the summer season between Rabi and Kharif, typically running from March to June. During this time, crops like watermelon, muskmelon, and cucumber are grown.
• Option a (Rice, Barley, Watermelon)
• Rice is a Kharif crop.
• Barley is a Rabi crop.
• Watermelon is a Zaid crop.
• This sequence corresponds to Kharif, Rabi, and Zaid seasons.
• Option b (Wheat, Rice, Groundnut):
• Wheat is a Rabi crop.
• Rice is a Kharif crop.
• Groundnut is also a Kharif crop.
• This sequence does not follow the correct order.
• Option c (Jute, Cotton, Muskmelon):
• Jute is a Kharif crop.
• Cotton is also a Kharif crop.
• Muskmelon is a Zaid crop.
• This sequence doesn’t align with seasons.
• Option d (Groundnut, Wheat, Cucumber):
• Cucumber is a Zaid crop
• Groundnut is a Kharif crop.
• Wheat is a Rabi crop
• This sequence doesn’t align with seasons.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points How does cropping pattern diversification help in reducing the cost of production? By allowing certain crops that require less labor and machinery, thus distributing workload throughout the year. By focusing on cash crops that generate higher revenue, reducing production costs By using fewer fertilizers due to better soil regeneration, thus reducing input costs. By relying on a single crop that needs fewer resources to produce. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 and 3 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 4 only d) 2,3 and 4 only Correct Answer: a Explanation: Diversifying the cropping pattern allows farmers to select crops that vary in their labor and machinery requirements. This approach enables a more efficient distribution of work throughout the year, potentially avoiding labor peaks and reducing machinery costs. By spreading labor and machinery demands across different crops and times of the year, farmers can reduce production costs. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Although focusing on cash crops might increase revenue, it does not necessarily reduce production costs. Cash crops often require more inputs, such as fertilizers, pesticides, and water, which might increase production costs. The key to cost reduction in cropping pattern diversification lies in efficiency and reduced input requirements, rather than focusing solely on cash crops. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Cropping pattern diversification, especially through crop rotation, can help maintain or improve soil fertility naturally, and reducing the need for additional chemical fertilizers. This can lead to a decrease in input costs associated with fertilizers, thereby reducing the overall cost of production. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Relying on a single type of crop (monoculture) does not align with the concept of diversification. Moreover, monoculture can lead to soil degradation and increased susceptibility to pests and diseases, often requiring more resources to manage, thereby potentially increasing production costs. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Diversifying the cropping pattern allows farmers to select crops that vary in their labor and machinery requirements. This approach enables a more efficient distribution of work throughout the year, potentially avoiding labor peaks and reducing machinery costs. By spreading labor and machinery demands across different crops and times of the year, farmers can reduce production costs. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Although focusing on cash crops might increase revenue, it does not necessarily reduce production costs. Cash crops often require more inputs, such as fertilizers, pesticides, and water, which might increase production costs. The key to cost reduction in cropping pattern diversification lies in efficiency and reduced input requirements, rather than focusing solely on cash crops. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Cropping pattern diversification, especially through crop rotation, can help maintain or improve soil fertility naturally, and reducing the need for additional chemical fertilizers. This can lead to a decrease in input costs associated with fertilizers, thereby reducing the overall cost of production. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Relying on a single type of crop (monoculture) does not align with the concept of diversification. Moreover, monoculture can lead to soil degradation and increased susceptibility to pests and diseases, often requiring more resources to manage, thereby potentially increasing production costs. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct.
#### 4. Question
How does cropping pattern diversification help in reducing the cost of production?
• By allowing certain crops that require less labor and machinery, thus distributing workload throughout the year.
• By focusing on cash crops that generate higher revenue, reducing production costs
• By using fewer fertilizers due to better soil regeneration, thus reducing input costs.
• By relying on a single crop that needs fewer resources to produce.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
• a) 1 and 3 only
• b) 2 and 3 only
• c) 1 and 4 only
• d) 2,3 and 4 only
Explanation:
• Diversifying the cropping pattern allows farmers to select crops that vary in their labor and machinery requirements. This approach enables a more efficient distribution of work throughout the year, potentially avoiding labor peaks and reducing machinery costs. By spreading labor and machinery demands across different crops and times of the year, farmers can reduce production costs. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Although focusing on cash crops might increase revenue, it does not necessarily reduce production costs. Cash crops often require more inputs, such as fertilizers, pesticides, and water, which might increase production costs. The key to cost reduction in cropping pattern diversification lies in efficiency and reduced input requirements, rather than focusing solely on cash crops. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Cropping pattern diversification, especially through crop rotation, can help maintain or improve soil fertility naturally, and reducing the need for additional chemical fertilizers. This can lead to a decrease in input costs associated with fertilizers, thereby reducing the overall cost of production. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Relying on a single type of crop (monoculture) does not align with the concept of diversification. Moreover, monoculture can lead to soil degradation and increased susceptibility to pests and diseases, often requiring more resources to manage, thereby potentially increasing production costs. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
Explanation:
• Diversifying the cropping pattern allows farmers to select crops that vary in their labor and machinery requirements. This approach enables a more efficient distribution of work throughout the year, potentially avoiding labor peaks and reducing machinery costs. By spreading labor and machinery demands across different crops and times of the year, farmers can reduce production costs. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Although focusing on cash crops might increase revenue, it does not necessarily reduce production costs. Cash crops often require more inputs, such as fertilizers, pesticides, and water, which might increase production costs. The key to cost reduction in cropping pattern diversification lies in efficiency and reduced input requirements, rather than focusing solely on cash crops. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Cropping pattern diversification, especially through crop rotation, can help maintain or improve soil fertility naturally, and reducing the need for additional chemical fertilizers. This can lead to a decrease in input costs associated with fertilizers, thereby reducing the overall cost of production. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Relying on a single type of crop (monoculture) does not align with the concept of diversification. Moreover, monoculture can lead to soil degradation and increased susceptibility to pests and diseases, often requiring more resources to manage, thereby potentially increasing production costs. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Jeevamrutha Bijamrita Acchadana Sameekshana How many of the above are integral part of Zero Budget Natural Farming? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: c Explanation: Zero budget natural farming is a method of chemical-free agriculture drawing from traditional Indian practices. It was originally promoted by agriculturist Subhash Palekar, who developed it in the mid-1990s as an alternative to the Green Revolution’s methods that are driven by chemical fertilizers and pesticides and intensive irrigation. It is a unique model that relies on Agro-ecology. ZBNF is based on 4 pillars Jeevamrutha: It is a fermented microbial culture. Tt is a mixture of fresh cow dung and cow urine, jaggery, pulse flour, water and soil. It provides nutrients and acts as a catalytic agent that promotes the activity of micro-organisms in the soil as well increases the earthworm activities Jivamrita also helps to prevent the fungal and bacterial plant diseases. Bijamrita: It is a concoction of neem leaves & pulp, tobacco and green chilies prepared for insect and pest management that can be used to treat seeds. Acchadana (Mulching): It protects topsoil during cultivation and does not destroy it by tilling. Whapasa: It is the condition where there are both air molecules and water molecules present in the soil. Thereby helping in reducing irrigation requirement. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Zero budget natural farming is a method of chemical-free agriculture drawing from traditional Indian practices. It was originally promoted by agriculturist Subhash Palekar, who developed it in the mid-1990s as an alternative to the Green Revolution’s methods that are driven by chemical fertilizers and pesticides and intensive irrigation. It is a unique model that relies on Agro-ecology. ZBNF is based on 4 pillars Jeevamrutha: It is a fermented microbial culture. Tt is a mixture of fresh cow dung and cow urine, jaggery, pulse flour, water and soil. It provides nutrients and acts as a catalytic agent that promotes the activity of micro-organisms in the soil as well increases the earthworm activities Jivamrita also helps to prevent the fungal and bacterial plant diseases. Bijamrita: It is a concoction of neem leaves & pulp, tobacco and green chilies prepared for insect and pest management that can be used to treat seeds. Acchadana (Mulching): It protects topsoil during cultivation and does not destroy it by tilling. Whapasa: It is the condition where there are both air molecules and water molecules present in the soil. Thereby helping in reducing irrigation requirement. Hence, option (c) is correct.
#### 5. Question
Consider the following statements:
• Jeevamrutha
• Sameekshana
How many of the above are integral part of Zero Budget Natural Farming?
• a) Only one
• b) Only two
• c) Only three
• d) All four
Explanation:
• Zero budget natural farming is a method of chemical-free agriculture drawing from traditional Indian practices.
• It was originally promoted by agriculturist Subhash Palekar, who developed it in the mid-1990s as an alternative to the Green Revolution’s methods that are driven by chemical fertilizers and pesticides and intensive irrigation. It is a unique model that relies on Agro-ecology.
• ZBNF is based on 4 pillars
• Jeevamrutha: It is a fermented microbial culture. Tt is a mixture of fresh cow dung and cow urine, jaggery, pulse flour, water and soil. It provides nutrients and acts as a catalytic agent that promotes the activity of micro-organisms in the soil as well increases the earthworm activities Jivamrita also helps to prevent the fungal and bacterial plant diseases.
• Bijamrita: It is a concoction of neem leaves & pulp, tobacco and green chilies prepared for insect and pest management that can be used to treat seeds.
• Acchadana (Mulching): It protects topsoil during cultivation and does not destroy it by tilling.
• Whapasa: It is the condition where there are both air molecules and water molecules present in the soil. Thereby helping in reducing irrigation requirement.
Hence, option (c) is correct.
Explanation:
• Zero budget natural farming is a method of chemical-free agriculture drawing from traditional Indian practices.
• It was originally promoted by agriculturist Subhash Palekar, who developed it in the mid-1990s as an alternative to the Green Revolution’s methods that are driven by chemical fertilizers and pesticides and intensive irrigation. It is a unique model that relies on Agro-ecology.
• ZBNF is based on 4 pillars
• Jeevamrutha: It is a fermented microbial culture. Tt is a mixture of fresh cow dung and cow urine, jaggery, pulse flour, water and soil. It provides nutrients and acts as a catalytic agent that promotes the activity of micro-organisms in the soil as well increases the earthworm activities Jivamrita also helps to prevent the fungal and bacterial plant diseases.
• Bijamrita: It is a concoction of neem leaves & pulp, tobacco and green chilies prepared for insect and pest management that can be used to treat seeds.
• Acchadana (Mulching): It protects topsoil during cultivation and does not destroy it by tilling.
• Whapasa: It is the condition where there are both air molecules and water molecules present in the soil. Thereby helping in reducing irrigation requirement.
Hence, option (c) is correct.
• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Which of the following statements about the Unified Farmer Service Platform (UFSP) is/are correct? UFSP acts as a central agency in the agricultural ecosystem, similar to UPI in e-payments. UFSP is designed to enable seamless interoperability among various public and private IT systems in agriculture. UFSP allows the registration of service providers and enforces rules and validations during service delivery. UFSP is used exclusively for e-commerce transactions related to agricultural produce. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 2, 3 and 4 only c) 1, 3 and 4 only d) 1, 2 and 4 only Correct Answer: a Explanation: The Unified Farmer Service Platform (UFSP) is a digital infrastructure initiative by the Indian government designed to streamline, integrate, and digitize various services and data within the agricultural ecosystem. It is an integral part of India’s broader strategy to leverage technology in aiding farmers and modernizing agriculture. Purpose and Objectives: UFSP serves as a central agency in the agricultural ecosystem, much like Unified Payments Interface (UPI) in the realm of digital payments. It aims to: Facilitate seamless interoperability among different public and private Information Technology (IT) systems in agriculture. Act as a central repository for standards, APIs (Application Programming Interfaces), and data formats to ensure smooth communication among various platforms. Enable comprehensive delivery of services to farmers by connecting disparate schemes and services. Serve as a platform for registering service providers and enforcing rules and validations during service delivery. UFSP plays a role similar to UPI in e-payments, serving as a central agency for various agricultural services. Hence, statement 1 is correct. UFSP aims to ensure interoperability across different IT systems in agriculture, facilitating communication and data exchange. Hence, statement 2 is correct. UFSP provides a mechanism for registering service providers and enforcing relevant rules and validations. Hence, statement 3 is correct. While UFSP can be used for e-commerce transactions, it’s not exclusively designed for that purpose. It has a broader scope, focusing on multiple aspects of agricultural services and data exchange. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: The Unified Farmer Service Platform (UFSP) is a digital infrastructure initiative by the Indian government designed to streamline, integrate, and digitize various services and data within the agricultural ecosystem. It is an integral part of India’s broader strategy to leverage technology in aiding farmers and modernizing agriculture. Purpose and Objectives: UFSP serves as a central agency in the agricultural ecosystem, much like Unified Payments Interface (UPI) in the realm of digital payments. It aims to: Facilitate seamless interoperability among different public and private Information Technology (IT) systems in agriculture. Act as a central repository for standards, APIs (Application Programming Interfaces), and data formats to ensure smooth communication among various platforms. Enable comprehensive delivery of services to farmers by connecting disparate schemes and services. Serve as a platform for registering service providers and enforcing rules and validations during service delivery. UFSP plays a role similar to UPI in e-payments, serving as a central agency for various agricultural services. Hence, statement 1 is correct. UFSP aims to ensure interoperability across different IT systems in agriculture, facilitating communication and data exchange. Hence, statement 2 is correct. UFSP provides a mechanism for registering service providers and enforcing relevant rules and validations. Hence, statement 3 is correct. While UFSP can be used for e-commerce transactions, it’s not exclusively designed for that purpose. It has a broader scope, focusing on multiple aspects of agricultural services and data exchange. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct.
#### 6. Question
Which of the following statements about the Unified Farmer Service Platform (UFSP) is/are correct?
• UFSP acts as a central agency in the agricultural ecosystem, similar to UPI in e-payments.
• UFSP is designed to enable seamless interoperability among various public and private IT systems in agriculture.
• UFSP allows the registration of service providers and enforces rules and validations during service delivery.
• UFSP is used exclusively for e-commerce transactions related to agricultural produce.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
• a) 1, 2 and 3 only
• b) 2, 3 and 4 only
• c) 1, 3 and 4 only
• d) 1, 2 and 4 only
Explanation:
• The Unified Farmer Service Platform (UFSP) is a digital infrastructure initiative by the Indian government designed to streamline, integrate, and digitize various services and data within the agricultural ecosystem. It is an integral part of India’s broader strategy to leverage technology in aiding farmers and modernizing agriculture.
• Purpose and Objectives: UFSP serves as a central agency in the agricultural ecosystem, much like Unified Payments Interface (UPI) in the realm of digital payments. It aims to:
• Facilitate seamless interoperability among different public and private Information Technology (IT) systems in agriculture.
• Act as a central repository for standards, APIs (Application Programming Interfaces), and data formats to ensure smooth communication among various platforms.
• Enable comprehensive delivery of services to farmers by connecting disparate schemes and services.
• Serve as a platform for registering service providers and enforcing rules and validations during service delivery.
• UFSP plays a role similar to UPI in e-payments, serving as a central agency for various agricultural services. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• UFSP aims to ensure interoperability across different IT systems in agriculture, facilitating communication and data exchange. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• UFSP provides a mechanism for registering service providers and enforcing relevant rules and validations. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• While UFSP can be used for e-commerce transactions, it’s not exclusively designed for that purpose. It has a broader scope, focusing on multiple aspects of agricultural services and data exchange. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
Explanation:
• The Unified Farmer Service Platform (UFSP) is a digital infrastructure initiative by the Indian government designed to streamline, integrate, and digitize various services and data within the agricultural ecosystem. It is an integral part of India’s broader strategy to leverage technology in aiding farmers and modernizing agriculture.
• Purpose and Objectives: UFSP serves as a central agency in the agricultural ecosystem, much like Unified Payments Interface (UPI) in the realm of digital payments. It aims to:
• Facilitate seamless interoperability among different public and private Information Technology (IT) systems in agriculture.
• Act as a central repository for standards, APIs (Application Programming Interfaces), and data formats to ensure smooth communication among various platforms.
• Enable comprehensive delivery of services to farmers by connecting disparate schemes and services.
• Serve as a platform for registering service providers and enforcing rules and validations during service delivery.
• UFSP plays a role similar to UPI in e-payments, serving as a central agency for various agricultural services. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• UFSP aims to ensure interoperability across different IT systems in agriculture, facilitating communication and data exchange. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• UFSP provides a mechanism for registering service providers and enforcing relevant rules and validations. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• While UFSP can be used for e-commerce transactions, it’s not exclusively designed for that purpose. It has a broader scope, focusing on multiple aspects of agricultural services and data exchange. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding M.S. Swaminathan: The National Commission on Farmers was constituted in 2004 under the chairmanship of M.S. Swaminathan. He was awarded Bharat Ratna in 2008. M S Swaminathan report had recommended that the MSP should be calculated by including all actual farm costs along with an additional 50% margin. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: b Explanation: Monkomb Sambasivan (MS) Swaminathan, known as the ‘Father of the India’s Green Revolution,’passed away recently. He was born on 7th August, 1925, in Kumbakonam, Tamil Nadu. The National Commission on Farmers (NCF) was constituted on November 18, 2004 under the chairmanship of Professor M.S. Swaminathan. It submitted five reports through the period December 2004 – October 2006. Following from the first four, the final report focused on causes of famer distresses and the rise in farmer suicides, and recommends addressing them through a holistic national policy for farmers. The findings and recommendations encompass issues of access to resources and social security entitlements. Hence, statement 1 is correct. He was conferred with Padma Shri (1967), Padma Bhushan(1972), and Padma Vibhushan(1989). Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. M S Swaminathan report had recommended that the MSP should be calculated by including all actual farm costs as C2 along with an additional 50% margin. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Monkomb Sambasivan (MS) Swaminathan, known as the ‘Father of the India’s Green Revolution,’passed away recently. He was born on 7th August, 1925, in Kumbakonam, Tamil Nadu. The National Commission on Farmers (NCF) was constituted on November 18, 2004 under the chairmanship of Professor M.S. Swaminathan. It submitted five reports through the period December 2004 – October 2006. Following from the first four, the final report focused on causes of famer distresses and the rise in farmer suicides, and recommends addressing them through a holistic national policy for farmers. The findings and recommendations encompass issues of access to resources and social security entitlements. Hence, statement 1 is correct. He was conferred with Padma Shri (1967), Padma Bhushan(1972), and Padma Vibhushan(1989). Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. M S Swaminathan report had recommended that the MSP should be calculated by including all actual farm costs as C2 along with an additional 50% margin. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (b) is correct.
#### 7. Question
Consider the following statements regarding M.S. Swaminathan:
• The National Commission on Farmers was constituted in 2004 under the chairmanship of M.S. Swaminathan.
• He was awarded Bharat Ratna in 2008.
• M S Swaminathan report had recommended that the MSP should be calculated by including all actual farm costs along with an additional 50% margin.
How many of the above statements are correct?
• a) Only one
• b) Only two
• c) All three
Explanation:
• Monkomb Sambasivan (MS) Swaminathan, known as the ‘Father of the India’s Green Revolution,’passed away recently. He was born on 7th August, 1925, in Kumbakonam, Tamil Nadu.
• The National Commission on Farmers (NCF) was constituted on November 18, 2004 under the chairmanship of Professor M.S. Swaminathan. It submitted five reports through the period December 2004 – October 2006. Following from the first four, the final report focused on causes of famer distresses and the rise in farmer suicides, and recommends addressing them through a holistic national policy for farmers. The findings and recommendations encompass issues of access to resources and social security entitlements. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• He was conferred with Padma Shri (1967), Padma Bhushan(1972), and Padma Vibhushan(1989). Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• M S Swaminathan report had recommended that the MSP should be calculated by including all actual farm costs as C2 along with an additional 50% margin. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Hence, option (b) is correct.
Explanation:
• Monkomb Sambasivan (MS) Swaminathan, known as the ‘Father of the India’s Green Revolution,’passed away recently. He was born on 7th August, 1925, in Kumbakonam, Tamil Nadu.
• The National Commission on Farmers (NCF) was constituted on November 18, 2004 under the chairmanship of Professor M.S. Swaminathan. It submitted five reports through the period December 2004 – October 2006. Following from the first four, the final report focused on causes of famer distresses and the rise in farmer suicides, and recommends addressing them through a holistic national policy for farmers. The findings and recommendations encompass issues of access to resources and social security entitlements. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• He was conferred with Padma Shri (1967), Padma Bhushan(1972), and Padma Vibhushan(1989). Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• M S Swaminathan report had recommended that the MSP should be calculated by including all actual farm costs as C2 along with an additional 50% margin. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Hence, option (b) is correct.
• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements with reference to e-choupals: e-choupal is an initiative by ITC that provides an alternative marketing channel. e-choupal kiosks are equipped with computers and internet access. e-choupal aims to assist farmers with information on weather and agricultural practices. e-choupal is managed by the Indian government through a public-private partnership. How many of the above are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: c Explanation: e-choupal was initiated by ITC, a major Indian conglomerate, to offer farmers an alternative marketing channel, allowing them to connect directly with markets and reduce intermediaries. Hence, statement 1 is correct. e-choupal kiosks are typically located in villages and are equipped with computers and internet access to provide farmers with a range of services, including market information, weather updates, and more. Hence, statement 2 is correct. e-choupal provides farmers with valuable information on weather, agricultural practices, crop prices, and other relevant data to help them make informed decisions. Hence, statement 3 is correct. e-choupal is a private initiative by ITC and is not managed by the Indian government. It is a business-led effort, with ITC managing the program to support farmers and create a market-driven supply chain. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. Hence, option(c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: e-choupal was initiated by ITC, a major Indian conglomerate, to offer farmers an alternative marketing channel, allowing them to connect directly with markets and reduce intermediaries. Hence, statement 1 is correct. e-choupal kiosks are typically located in villages and are equipped with computers and internet access to provide farmers with a range of services, including market information, weather updates, and more. Hence, statement 2 is correct. e-choupal provides farmers with valuable information on weather, agricultural practices, crop prices, and other relevant data to help them make informed decisions. Hence, statement 3 is correct. e-choupal is a private initiative by ITC and is not managed by the Indian government. It is a business-led effort, with ITC managing the program to support farmers and create a market-driven supply chain. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. Hence, option(c) is correct.
#### 8. Question
Consider the following statements with reference to e-choupals:
• e-choupal is an initiative by ITC that provides an alternative marketing channel.
• e-choupal kiosks are equipped with computers and internet access.
• e-choupal aims to assist farmers with information on weather and agricultural practices.
• e-choupal is managed by the Indian government through a public-private partnership.
How many of the above are correct?
• a) Only one
• b) Only two
• c) Only three
• d) All four
Explanation:
• e-choupal was initiated by ITC, a major Indian conglomerate, to offer farmers an alternative marketing channel, allowing them to connect directly with markets and reduce intermediaries. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• e-choupal kiosks are typically located in villages and are equipped with computers and internet access to provide farmers with a range of services, including market information, weather updates, and more. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• e-choupal provides farmers with valuable information on weather, agricultural practices, crop prices, and other relevant data to help them make informed decisions. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• e-choupal is a private initiative by ITC and is not managed by the Indian government. It is a business-led effort, with ITC managing the program to support farmers and create a market-driven supply chain. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
• Hence, option(c) is correct.
Explanation:
• e-choupal was initiated by ITC, a major Indian conglomerate, to offer farmers an alternative marketing channel, allowing them to connect directly with markets and reduce intermediaries. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• e-choupal kiosks are typically located in villages and are equipped with computers and internet access to provide farmers with a range of services, including market information, weather updates, and more. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• e-choupal provides farmers with valuable information on weather, agricultural practices, crop prices, and other relevant data to help them make informed decisions. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• e-choupal is a private initiative by ITC and is not managed by the Indian government. It is a business-led effort, with ITC managing the program to support farmers and create a market-driven supply chain. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
• Hence, option(c) is correct.
• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Which of the following statements about the Digital Agriculture Mission (2021–2025) are true? The Digital Agriculture Mission supports projects based on new technologies like AI, blockchain, remote sensing, and GIS. The Digital Agriculture Mission aims to modernize farming equipment and machinery. The Digital Agriculture Mission focuses on using drones and robots in agricultural operations. The Digital Agriculture Mission is intended to improve the efficiency and precision of agricultural practices. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 1, 3 and 4 only c) 2, 3 and 4 only d) 1, 2 and 4 only Correct Answer: b Explanation: The Digital Agriculture Mission (2021–2025) is an ambitious initiative by the Government of India aimed at transforming the agricultural sector through the adoption of advanced digital technologies. The mission recognizes that modern agriculture relies heavily on data, technology, and innovation to enhance productivity, sustainability, and profitability. The Digital Agriculture Mission is designed to support and promote the use of advanced technologies such as Artificial Intelligence (AI), blockchain, remote sensing, and Geographic Information Systems (GIS) to modernize agriculture. Hence, statement 1 is correct. While the Digital Agriculture Mission focuses on technology and digital advancements, its primary emphasis is on data-driven agriculture and advanced information technologies. It doesn’t specifically aim to modernize farming equipment and machinery. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. The Digital Agriculture Mission includes the use of emerging technologies like drones and robots to enhance precision in agricultural practices. Hence, statement 3 is correct. The overall goal of the Digital Agriculture Mission is to make agricultural practices more efficient and precise through the use of advanced technologies. Hence, statement 4 is correct. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: The Digital Agriculture Mission (2021–2025) is an ambitious initiative by the Government of India aimed at transforming the agricultural sector through the adoption of advanced digital technologies. The mission recognizes that modern agriculture relies heavily on data, technology, and innovation to enhance productivity, sustainability, and profitability. The Digital Agriculture Mission is designed to support and promote the use of advanced technologies such as Artificial Intelligence (AI), blockchain, remote sensing, and Geographic Information Systems (GIS) to modernize agriculture. Hence, statement 1 is correct. While the Digital Agriculture Mission focuses on technology and digital advancements, its primary emphasis is on data-driven agriculture and advanced information technologies. It doesn’t specifically aim to modernize farming equipment and machinery. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. The Digital Agriculture Mission includes the use of emerging technologies like drones and robots to enhance precision in agricultural practices. Hence, statement 3 is correct. The overall goal of the Digital Agriculture Mission is to make agricultural practices more efficient and precise through the use of advanced technologies. Hence, statement 4 is correct. Hence, option (b) is correct.
#### 9. Question
Which of the following statements about the Digital Agriculture Mission (2021–2025) are true?
• The Digital Agriculture Mission supports projects based on new technologies like AI, blockchain, remote sensing, and GIS.
• The Digital Agriculture Mission aims to modernize farming equipment and machinery.
• The Digital Agriculture Mission focuses on using drones and robots in agricultural operations.
• The Digital Agriculture Mission is intended to improve the efficiency and precision of agricultural practices.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
• a) 1, 2 and 3 only
• b) 1, 3 and 4 only
• c) 2, 3 and 4 only
• d) 1, 2 and 4 only
Explanation:
• The Digital Agriculture Mission (2021–2025) is an ambitious initiative by the Government of India aimed at transforming the agricultural sector through the adoption of advanced digital technologies. The mission recognizes that modern agriculture relies heavily on data, technology, and innovation to enhance productivity, sustainability, and profitability.
• The Digital Agriculture Mission is designed to support and promote the use of advanced technologies such as Artificial Intelligence (AI), blockchain, remote sensing, and Geographic Information Systems (GIS) to modernize agriculture. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• While the Digital Agriculture Mission focuses on technology and digital advancements, its primary emphasis is on data-driven agriculture and advanced information technologies. It doesn’t specifically aim to modernize farming equipment and machinery. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• The Digital Agriculture Mission includes the use of emerging technologies like drones and robots to enhance precision in agricultural practices. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• The overall goal of the Digital Agriculture Mission is to make agricultural practices more efficient and precise through the use of advanced technologies. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
• Hence, option (b) is correct.
Explanation:
• The Digital Agriculture Mission (2021–2025) is an ambitious initiative by the Government of India aimed at transforming the agricultural sector through the adoption of advanced digital technologies. The mission recognizes that modern agriculture relies heavily on data, technology, and innovation to enhance productivity, sustainability, and profitability.
• The Digital Agriculture Mission is designed to support and promote the use of advanced technologies such as Artificial Intelligence (AI), blockchain, remote sensing, and Geographic Information Systems (GIS) to modernize agriculture. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• While the Digital Agriculture Mission focuses on technology and digital advancements, its primary emphasis is on data-driven agriculture and advanced information technologies. It doesn’t specifically aim to modernize farming equipment and machinery. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• The Digital Agriculture Mission includes the use of emerging technologies like drones and robots to enhance precision in agricultural practices. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• The overall goal of the Digital Agriculture Mission is to make agricultural practices more efficient and precise through the use of advanced technologies. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
• Hence, option (b) is correct.
• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Which of the following statements about the Central Issue Price (CIP) in the Public Distribution System (PDS) is correct? a) CIP is set by the Central Government and is uniform across all states. b) CIP includes the cost of transportation, handling, and storage of food grains. c) CIP is higher than the economic cost incurred by the Central Government. d) CIP is determined by the State Governments and varies across regions. Correct Answer: a Explanation: The Central Issue Price (CIP) is a key component in India’s Public Distribution System (PDS), serving as the predetermined price at which food grains and other essential commodities are provided to state governments for distribution among the public, especially those who are economically disadvantaged. The CIP plays a crucial role in determining the affordability and accessibility of essential goods for beneficiaries under the PDS. The Central Issue Price is determined by the Central Government and remains consistent across all states, ensuring a standardized pricing framework for the Public Distribution System. The Central Issue Price (CIP) does not typically include the complete economic cost, which comprises transportation, handling, storage, and other costs. The CIP is typically lower than the economic cost. The economic cost includes the full range of expenses, such as payment to growers, transportation, handling, storage, and distribution costs. The food subsidy by the Central Government covers the difference between the economic cost and the CIP. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: The Central Issue Price (CIP) is a key component in India’s Public Distribution System (PDS), serving as the predetermined price at which food grains and other essential commodities are provided to state governments for distribution among the public, especially those who are economically disadvantaged. The CIP plays a crucial role in determining the affordability and accessibility of essential goods for beneficiaries under the PDS. The Central Issue Price is determined by the Central Government and remains consistent across all states, ensuring a standardized pricing framework for the Public Distribution System. The Central Issue Price (CIP) does not typically include the complete economic cost, which comprises transportation, handling, storage, and other costs. The CIP is typically lower than the economic cost. The economic cost includes the full range of expenses, such as payment to growers, transportation, handling, storage, and distribution costs. The food subsidy by the Central Government covers the difference between the economic cost and the CIP. Hence, option (a) is correct.
#### 10. Question
Which of the following statements about the Central Issue Price (CIP) in the Public Distribution System (PDS) is correct?
• a) CIP is set by the Central Government and is uniform across all states.
• b) CIP includes the cost of transportation, handling, and storage of food grains.
• c) CIP is higher than the economic cost incurred by the Central Government.
• d) CIP is determined by the State Governments and varies across regions.
Explanation:
• The Central Issue Price (CIP) is a key component in India’s Public Distribution System (PDS), serving as the predetermined price at which food grains and other essential commodities are provided to state governments for distribution among the public, especially those who are economically disadvantaged. The CIP plays a crucial role in determining the affordability and accessibility of essential goods for beneficiaries under the PDS.
• The Central Issue Price is determined by the Central Government and remains consistent across all states, ensuring a standardized pricing framework for the Public Distribution System.
• The Central Issue Price (CIP) does not typically include the complete economic cost, which comprises transportation, handling, storage, and other costs.
• The CIP is typically lower than the economic cost. The economic cost includes the full range of expenses, such as payment to growers, transportation, handling, storage, and distribution costs. The food subsidy by the Central Government covers the difference between the economic cost and the CIP.
• Hence, option (a) is correct.
Explanation:
• The Central Issue Price (CIP) is a key component in India’s Public Distribution System (PDS), serving as the predetermined price at which food grains and other essential commodities are provided to state governments for distribution among the public, especially those who are economically disadvantaged. The CIP plays a crucial role in determining the affordability and accessibility of essential goods for beneficiaries under the PDS.
• The Central Issue Price is determined by the Central Government and remains consistent across all states, ensuring a standardized pricing framework for the Public Distribution System.
• The Central Issue Price (CIP) does not typically include the complete economic cost, which comprises transportation, handling, storage, and other costs.
• The CIP is typically lower than the economic cost. The economic cost includes the full range of expenses, such as payment to growers, transportation, handling, storage, and distribution costs. The food subsidy by the Central Government covers the difference between the economic cost and the CIP.
• Hence, option (a) is correct.
• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Angel tax: It is applied when the unlisted companies issue shares at a price higher than their fair market value. It was originally imposed on investments that were made by resident investors as well as non-resident investors. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Angel tax (income tax at the rate of 30.6 per cent) is levied when an unlisted company issues shares to an investor at a price higher than its fair market value (FMV). Earlier, it was imposed only on investments made by a resident investor. Statement 2 is not correct: But Budget 2023-24 proposed to extend angel tax even to non-resident investors from April 1, 2024. Besides the discounted cash flow (DCF) method for resident investors, the new rule prescribes five methods for non-resident investors – comparable company multiple method, probability weighted expected return method, option pricing method, milestone analysis method and replacement cost methods. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Angel tax (income tax at the rate of 30.6 per cent) is levied when an unlisted company issues shares to an investor at a price higher than its fair market value (FMV). Earlier, it was imposed only on investments made by a resident investor. Statement 2 is not correct: But Budget 2023-24 proposed to extend angel tax even to non-resident investors from April 1, 2024. Besides the discounted cash flow (DCF) method for resident investors, the new rule prescribes five methods for non-resident investors – comparable company multiple method, probability weighted expected return method, option pricing method, milestone analysis method and replacement cost methods.
#### 11. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Angel tax:
• It is applied when the unlisted companies issue shares at a price higher than their fair market value.
• It was originally imposed on investments that were made by resident investors as well as non-resident investors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Angel tax (income tax at the rate of 30.6 per cent) is levied when an unlisted company issues shares to an investor at a price higher than its fair market value (FMV). Earlier, it was imposed only on investments made by a resident investor.
Statement 2 is not correct: But Budget 2023-24 proposed to extend angel tax even to non-resident investors from April 1, 2024.
Besides the discounted cash flow (DCF) method for resident investors, the new rule prescribes five methods for non-resident investors – comparable company multiple method, probability weighted expected return method, option pricing method, milestone analysis method and replacement cost methods.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Angel tax (income tax at the rate of 30.6 per cent) is levied when an unlisted company issues shares to an investor at a price higher than its fair market value (FMV). Earlier, it was imposed only on investments made by a resident investor.
Statement 2 is not correct: But Budget 2023-24 proposed to extend angel tax even to non-resident investors from April 1, 2024.
Besides the discounted cash flow (DCF) method for resident investors, the new rule prescribes five methods for non-resident investors – comparable company multiple method, probability weighted expected return method, option pricing method, milestone analysis method and replacement cost methods.
• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Phosphorus: It is a component of bones, teeth including the DNA. It plays key role in regulation of gene transcription. It undergoes passive absorption in the small intestine. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: C Explanation: Phosphorus is an essential mineral, is naturally present in many foods and available as a dietary supplement. Statement 1 is correct: Phosphorus is a component of bones, teeth, DNA, and RNA. In the form of phospholipids, phosphorus is also a component of cell membrane structure and of the body’s key energy source, adenosine triphosphate (ATP). Statement 2 is correct: In addition, phosphorus plays key roles in regulation of gene transcription, activation of enzymes, maintenance of normal pH in extracellular fluid, and intracellular energy storage. In humans, phosphorus makes up about 1% to 1.4% of fat-free mass. Statement 3 is correct: Phosphorus undergoes passive absorption in the small intestine, although some is absorbed by active transport. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Phosphorus is an essential mineral, is naturally present in many foods and available as a dietary supplement. Statement 1 is correct: Phosphorus is a component of bones, teeth, DNA, and RNA. In the form of phospholipids, phosphorus is also a component of cell membrane structure and of the body’s key energy source, adenosine triphosphate (ATP). Statement 2 is correct: In addition, phosphorus plays key roles in regulation of gene transcription, activation of enzymes, maintenance of normal pH in extracellular fluid, and intracellular energy storage. In humans, phosphorus makes up about 1% to 1.4% of fat-free mass. Statement 3 is correct: Phosphorus undergoes passive absorption in the small intestine, although some is absorbed by active transport.
#### 12. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Phosphorus:
• It is a component of bones, teeth including the DNA.
• It plays key role in regulation of gene transcription.
• It undergoes passive absorption in the small intestine.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Answer: C
Explanation:
Phosphorus is an essential mineral, is naturally present in many foods and available as a dietary supplement.
Statement 1 is correct: Phosphorus is a component of bones, teeth, DNA, and RNA.
In the form of phospholipids, phosphorus is also a component of cell membrane structure and of the body’s key energy source, adenosine triphosphate (ATP).
Statement 2 is correct: In addition, phosphorus plays key roles in regulation of gene transcription, activation of enzymes, maintenance of normal pH in extracellular fluid, and intracellular energy storage. In humans, phosphorus makes up about 1% to 1.4% of fat-free mass.
Statement 3 is correct: Phosphorus undergoes passive absorption in the small intestine, although some is absorbed by active transport.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Phosphorus is an essential mineral, is naturally present in many foods and available as a dietary supplement.
Statement 1 is correct: Phosphorus is a component of bones, teeth, DNA, and RNA.
In the form of phospholipids, phosphorus is also a component of cell membrane structure and of the body’s key energy source, adenosine triphosphate (ATP).
Statement 2 is correct: In addition, phosphorus plays key roles in regulation of gene transcription, activation of enzymes, maintenance of normal pH in extracellular fluid, and intracellular energy storage. In humans, phosphorus makes up about 1% to 1.4% of fat-free mass.
Statement 3 is correct: Phosphorus undergoes passive absorption in the small intestine, although some is absorbed by active transport.
• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Kamlang Wildlife Sanctuary: It is located in Assam and shares its boundary with Namdapha Tiger Reserve. It contains a Ramsar site of the Brahmaputra Valley called Deepor Beel. It harbours a rare assemblage of sympatric carnivores like Royal Bengal Tiger. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: Kamlang Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in the South-Eastern part of Lohit District of Arunachal Pradesh. The name Kamlang comes from the River Kamlang, which flows through the Sanctuary and joins Brahmaputra. Statement 2 is not correct: It harbours an enchanting lake, called Glaw Lake spread over an area of 82 ha. The reserve is a catchment area of Kamlang, Lang and Lati rivers, which are tributaries of the mighty Lohit River. The ‘Glaw lake’ has an elevation of 1168 m and is around 18 km towards the South-East direction from Wakro. Statement 3 is correct: It harbours a rare assemblage of sympatric carnivores such as Royal Bengal Tiger, Clouded Leopard, Leopard cat, Asiatic dhole, Golden jackal and Yellow throated marten. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: Kamlang Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in the South-Eastern part of Lohit District of Arunachal Pradesh. The name Kamlang comes from the River Kamlang, which flows through the Sanctuary and joins Brahmaputra. Statement 2 is not correct: It harbours an enchanting lake, called Glaw Lake spread over an area of 82 ha. The reserve is a catchment area of Kamlang, Lang and Lati rivers, which are tributaries of the mighty Lohit River. The ‘Glaw lake’ has an elevation of 1168 m and is around 18 km towards the South-East direction from Wakro. Statement 3 is correct: It harbours a rare assemblage of sympatric carnivores such as Royal Bengal Tiger, Clouded Leopard, Leopard cat, Asiatic dhole, Golden jackal and Yellow throated marten.
#### 13. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Kamlang Wildlife Sanctuary:
• It is located in Assam and shares its boundary with Namdapha Tiger Reserve.
• It contains a Ramsar site of the Brahmaputra Valley called Deepor Beel.
• It harbours a rare assemblage of sympatric carnivores like Royal Bengal Tiger.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is not correct: Kamlang Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in the South-Eastern part of Lohit District of Arunachal Pradesh. The name Kamlang comes from the River Kamlang, which flows through the Sanctuary and joins Brahmaputra.
Statement 2 is not correct: It harbours an enchanting lake, called Glaw Lake spread over an area of 82 ha. The reserve is a catchment area of Kamlang, Lang and Lati rivers, which are tributaries of the mighty Lohit River.
The ‘Glaw lake’ has an elevation of 1168 m and is around 18 km towards the South-East direction from Wakro.
Statement 3 is correct: It harbours a rare assemblage of sympatric carnivores such as Royal Bengal Tiger, Clouded Leopard, Leopard cat, Asiatic dhole, Golden jackal and Yellow throated marten.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is not correct: Kamlang Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in the South-Eastern part of Lohit District of Arunachal Pradesh. The name Kamlang comes from the River Kamlang, which flows through the Sanctuary and joins Brahmaputra.
Statement 2 is not correct: It harbours an enchanting lake, called Glaw Lake spread over an area of 82 ha. The reserve is a catchment area of Kamlang, Lang and Lati rivers, which are tributaries of the mighty Lohit River.
The ‘Glaw lake’ has an elevation of 1168 m and is around 18 km towards the South-East direction from Wakro.
Statement 3 is correct: It harbours a rare assemblage of sympatric carnivores such as Royal Bengal Tiger, Clouded Leopard, Leopard cat, Asiatic dhole, Golden jackal and Yellow throated marten.
• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Which one of the following statements best describes the objective of the Project Udbhav? (a) It aims to synthesize ancient wisdom with contemporary military practices forging a holistic approach to address modern security challenges. (b) It aims to boost the well-being of farmers, rejuvenate soil productivity and ensure environmental sustainability. (c) It focuses on subsidizing the liquid Nano urea that is produced by Indian Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative Limited. (d) It focuses on extending the ease of living by upscaling universal coverage in water supply and universal coverage of sewerage. Correct Answer: A Explanation: Option (a) is correct: Project UDBHAV is a collaboration between the Indian Army and the USI, is an endeavour to revisit the roots of India’s ancient military thoughts. ‘Udbhav’, which translates to ‘origin’ or ‘genesis’, acknowledges the vintage scriptures and writings of our Nation, that span centuries in the past and contain profound knowledge that can benefit modern military strategies. The objective of the Project is to synthesize ancient wisdom with contemporary military practices, forging a unique and holistic approach to address modern security challenges. It is a visionary initiative by the Indian Army that seeks to integrate age-old wisdom with contemporary military pedagogy. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Option (a) is correct: Project UDBHAV is a collaboration between the Indian Army and the USI, is an endeavour to revisit the roots of India’s ancient military thoughts. ‘Udbhav’, which translates to ‘origin’ or ‘genesis’, acknowledges the vintage scriptures and writings of our Nation, that span centuries in the past and contain profound knowledge that can benefit modern military strategies. The objective of the Project is to synthesize ancient wisdom with contemporary military practices, forging a unique and holistic approach to address modern security challenges. It is a visionary initiative by the Indian Army that seeks to integrate age-old wisdom with contemporary military pedagogy.
#### 14. Question
Which one of the following statements best describes the objective of the Project Udbhav?
• (a) It aims to synthesize ancient wisdom with contemporary military practices forging a holistic approach to address modern security challenges.
• (b) It aims to boost the well-being of farmers, rejuvenate soil productivity and ensure environmental sustainability.
• (c) It focuses on subsidizing the liquid Nano urea that is produced by Indian Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative Limited.
• (d) It focuses on extending the ease of living by upscaling universal coverage in water supply and universal coverage of sewerage.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Option (a) is correct: Project UDBHAV is a collaboration between the Indian Army and the USI, is an endeavour to revisit the roots of India’s ancient military thoughts.
‘Udbhav’, which translates to ‘origin’ or ‘genesis’, acknowledges the vintage scriptures and writings of our Nation, that span centuries in the past and contain profound knowledge that can benefit modern military strategies.
The objective of the Project is to synthesize ancient wisdom with contemporary military practices, forging a unique and holistic approach to address modern security challenges.
It is a visionary initiative by the Indian Army that seeks to integrate age-old wisdom with contemporary military pedagogy.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Option (a) is correct: Project UDBHAV is a collaboration between the Indian Army and the USI, is an endeavour to revisit the roots of India’s ancient military thoughts.
‘Udbhav’, which translates to ‘origin’ or ‘genesis’, acknowledges the vintage scriptures and writings of our Nation, that span centuries in the past and contain profound knowledge that can benefit modern military strategies.
The objective of the Project is to synthesize ancient wisdom with contemporary military practices, forging a unique and holistic approach to address modern security challenges.
It is a visionary initiative by the Indian Army that seeks to integrate age-old wisdom with contemporary military pedagogy.
• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Which one of the following Indian States constitutes the Sarna Tribe which has been recently mentioned in news? (a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Maharashtra (c) Jharkhand (d) Jammu and Kashmir Correct Answer: C Explanation: Option (c) is correct: The followers of Sarna faith believe pray to nature. The holy grail of the faith is “Jal, Jungle, Zameen” and its followers pray to the trees and hills while believing in protecting the forest areas. Jharkhand has 32 tribal groups of which eight are from Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups. The Jharkhand government convened a special session and passed a resolution to send the Centre a letter to recognise Sarna religion and include it as a separate code in the Census of 2021. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Option (c) is correct: The followers of Sarna faith believe pray to nature. The holy grail of the faith is “Jal, Jungle, Zameen” and its followers pray to the trees and hills while believing in protecting the forest areas. Jharkhand has 32 tribal groups of which eight are from Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups. The Jharkhand government convened a special session and passed a resolution to send the Centre a letter to recognise Sarna religion and include it as a separate code in the Census of 2021.
#### 15. Question
Which one of the following Indian States constitutes the Sarna Tribe which has been recently mentioned in news?
• (a) Andhra Pradesh
• (b) Maharashtra
• (c) Jharkhand
• (d) Jammu and Kashmir
Answer: C
Explanation:
Option (c) is correct: The followers of Sarna faith believe pray to nature. The holy grail of the faith is “Jal, Jungle, Zameen” and its followers pray to the trees and hills while believing in protecting the forest areas.
• Jharkhand has 32 tribal groups of which eight are from Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups.
The Jharkhand government convened a special session and passed a resolution to send the Centre a letter to recognise Sarna religion and include it as a separate code in the Census of 2021.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Option (c) is correct: The followers of Sarna faith believe pray to nature. The holy grail of the faith is “Jal, Jungle, Zameen” and its followers pray to the trees and hills while believing in protecting the forest areas.
• Jharkhand has 32 tribal groups of which eight are from Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups.
The Jharkhand government convened a special session and passed a resolution to send the Centre a letter to recognise Sarna religion and include it as a separate code in the Census of 2021.
• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding UrbanShift Programme It has been launched by United Nations Environment Programme as a pilot project in South East Asian countries to study impact of migration on climate. It is funded by Global Environment Facility. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 Only b) 2 Only c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution : B UrbanShift is a UNEP led initiative that supports more than 20 cities in Asia, Africa and Latin America to adopt integrated approaches to Urban Development helping shape cities that are efficient, resilient and inclusive it aims to bring together local and global Stakeholders to build a living, liveable future for all. Hence statement 1 is incorrect . UrbanShift is funded by Global Environment Facility and is led by UNEP in partnership with World Resources Institute, United Nations Development Programme, World Bank and Asian Development Bank among others. Hence statement 2 is correct . Incorrect Solution : B UrbanShift is a UNEP led initiative that supports more than 20 cities in Asia, Africa and Latin America to adopt integrated approaches to Urban Development helping shape cities that are efficient, resilient and inclusive it aims to bring together local and global Stakeholders to build a living, liveable future for all. Hence statement 1 is incorrect . UrbanShift is funded by Global Environment Facility and is led by UNEP in partnership with World Resources Institute, United Nations Development Programme, World Bank and Asian Development Bank among others. Hence statement 2 is correct .
#### 16. Question
Consider the following statements regarding UrbanShift Programme
• It has been launched by United Nations Environment Programme as a pilot project in South East Asian countries to study impact of migration on climate.
• It is funded by Global Environment Facility.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution : B
• UrbanShift is a UNEP led initiative that supports more than 20 cities in Asia, Africa and Latin America to adopt integrated approaches to Urban Development helping shape cities that are efficient, resilient and inclusive
• it aims to bring together local and global Stakeholders to build a living, liveable future for all.
Hence statement 1 is incorrect .
• UrbanShift is funded by Global Environment Facility and is led by UNEP in partnership with World Resources Institute, United Nations Development Programme, World Bank and Asian Development Bank among others.
Hence statement 2 is correct .
Solution : B
• UrbanShift is a UNEP led initiative that supports more than 20 cities in Asia, Africa and Latin America to adopt integrated approaches to Urban Development helping shape cities that are efficient, resilient and inclusive
• it aims to bring together local and global Stakeholders to build a living, liveable future for all.
Hence statement 1 is incorrect .
• UrbanShift is funded by Global Environment Facility and is led by UNEP in partnership with World Resources Institute, United Nations Development Programme, World Bank and Asian Development Bank among others.
Hence statement 2 is correct .
• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Green Events Tool: It is a digital assessment platform intended to identify ways to host eco-friendly events with reduced carbon footprints It has been developed by The Energy and Resources Institute with inputs from the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution : A Events both big and small are significant source of greenhouse gas emissions and sustainability impact. the Green Events Tool is an integrated web based assessment platform that has been designed to promote and evaluate the sustainability of events . GET targets decarbonization and sustainable development by focusing on environmental impacts of conferences, meetings, trade fairs, etc. It is suitable for Mega events, conferences, meetings, exhibitions and so on. From transportation and lodging to Catering and energy use, the tool provides an all-encompassing approach that identifies ways to host eco-friendly events with reduced carbon footprint and other impacts. Hence statement 1 is correct . The Green Events Tool has been developed, hosted and maintained by United Nations Environment Programme, the UNFCCC secretariat and the Gulf Organization for Research and Development. Hence statement 2 is incorrect . Incorrect Solution : A Events both big and small are significant source of greenhouse gas emissions and sustainability impact. the Green Events Tool is an integrated web based assessment platform that has been designed to promote and evaluate the sustainability of events . GET targets decarbonization and sustainable development by focusing on environmental impacts of conferences, meetings, trade fairs, etc. It is suitable for Mega events, conferences, meetings, exhibitions and so on. From transportation and lodging to Catering and energy use, the tool provides an all-encompassing approach that identifies ways to host eco-friendly events with reduced carbon footprint and other impacts. Hence statement 1 is correct . The Green Events Tool has been developed, hosted and maintained by United Nations Environment Programme, the UNFCCC secretariat and the Gulf Organization for Research and Development. Hence statement 2 is incorrect .
#### 17. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Green Events Tool:
• It is a digital assessment platform intended to identify ways to host eco-friendly events with reduced carbon footprints
• It has been developed by The Energy and Resources Institute with inputs from the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution : A
• Events both big and small are significant source of greenhouse gas emissions and sustainability impact.
• the Green Events Tool is an integrated web based assessment platform that has been designed to promote and evaluate the sustainability of events .
• GET targets decarbonization and sustainable development by focusing on environmental impacts of conferences, meetings, trade fairs, etc.
• It is suitable for Mega events, conferences, meetings, exhibitions and so on.
• From transportation and lodging to Catering and energy use, the tool provides an all-encompassing approach that identifies ways to host eco-friendly events with reduced carbon footprint and other impacts.
Hence statement 1 is correct .
• The Green Events Tool has been developed, hosted and maintained by United Nations Environment Programme, the UNFCCC secretariat and the Gulf Organization for Research and Development.
Hence statement 2 is incorrect .
Solution : A
• Events both big and small are significant source of greenhouse gas emissions and sustainability impact.
• the Green Events Tool is an integrated web based assessment platform that has been designed to promote and evaluate the sustainability of events .
• GET targets decarbonization and sustainable development by focusing on environmental impacts of conferences, meetings, trade fairs, etc.
• It is suitable for Mega events, conferences, meetings, exhibitions and so on.
• From transportation and lodging to Catering and energy use, the tool provides an all-encompassing approach that identifies ways to host eco-friendly events with reduced carbon footprint and other impacts.
Hence statement 1 is correct .
• The Green Events Tool has been developed, hosted and maintained by United Nations Environment Programme, the UNFCCC secretariat and the Gulf Organization for Research and Development.
Hence statement 2 is incorrect .
• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : As per Strict Liability Principle hazardous industry has to mandatorily pay compensation, whether or not the disaster was caused by its negligence. The National Green Tribunal Act of 2010 incorporates the absolute liability principle. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution :- B Strict vs Absolute Liability Principle Strict Liability Principle: a party is not liable and need not pay compensation if a hazardous substance escapes its premises by accident or by an ‘act of God’ among other circumstances. Hence statement 1 is incorrect . Absolute Liability Principle: a party in a hazardous industry cannot claim any exemption. It has to mandatorily pay compensation, whether or not the disaster was caused by its negligence. The National Green Tribunal Act of 2010 incorporates the absolute liability principle. Hence statement 2 is correct . NGT act mandates that the absolute liability should be applied even if the disaster caused is an accident. Incorrect Solution :- B Strict vs Absolute Liability Principle Strict Liability Principle: a party is not liable and need not pay compensation if a hazardous substance escapes its premises by accident or by an ‘act of God’ among other circumstances. Hence statement 1 is incorrect . Absolute Liability Principle: a party in a hazardous industry cannot claim any exemption. It has to mandatorily pay compensation, whether or not the disaster was caused by its negligence. The National Green Tribunal Act of 2010 incorporates the absolute liability principle. Hence statement 2 is correct . NGT act mandates that the absolute liability should be applied even if the disaster caused is an accident.
#### 18. Question
Consider the following statements :
• As per Strict Liability Principle hazardous industry has to mandatorily pay compensation, whether or not the disaster was caused by its negligence.
• The National Green Tribunal Act of 2010 incorporates the absolute liability principle.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution :- B
Strict vs Absolute Liability Principle
Strict Liability Principle: a party is not liable and need not pay compensation if a hazardous substance escapes its premises by accident or by an ‘act of God’ among other circumstances. Hence statement 1 is incorrect .
Absolute Liability Principle: a party in a hazardous industry cannot claim any exemption. It has to mandatorily pay compensation, whether or not the disaster was caused by its negligence.
• The National Green Tribunal Act of 2010 incorporates the absolute liability principle. Hence statement 2 is correct .
• NGT act mandates that the absolute liability should be applied even if the disaster caused is an accident.
Solution :- B
Strict vs Absolute Liability Principle
Strict Liability Principle: a party is not liable and need not pay compensation if a hazardous substance escapes its premises by accident or by an ‘act of God’ among other circumstances. Hence statement 1 is incorrect .
Absolute Liability Principle: a party in a hazardous industry cannot claim any exemption. It has to mandatorily pay compensation, whether or not the disaster was caused by its negligence.
• The National Green Tribunal Act of 2010 incorporates the absolute liability principle. Hence statement 2 is correct .
• NGT act mandates that the absolute liability should be applied even if the disaster caused is an accident.
• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Nationally Determined Contributions (NDC) – Transport Initiative for Asia (TIA): It is a joint programme, supported by the International Climate Initiative (IKI) of the German Ministry for the Environment . It aims to promote a comprehensive approach to decarbonize transport only in India, Vietnam and China. Select the correct statement using the code given below : a) 1 Only b) 2 Only c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution : -C Nationally Determined Contributions (NDC)-Transport Initiative for Asia (TIA) NITI Aayog has launched the India Component of the Nationally Determined Contributions (NDC)–Transport Initiative for Asia (TIA). About NDC- TIA: It is a joint programme, supported by the International Climate Initiative (IKI) of the German Ministry for the Environment, Nature Conservation and Nuclear Safety (BMU). Hence statement 1 is correct . It aims to promote a comprehensive approach to decarbonize transport in India, Vietnam and China. Hence statement 2 is correct . It is implemented by a consortium of seven other organisations. On behalf of the Government of India, NITI Aayog will be the implementing partner. Implementation: The NDC-TIA programme has a duration of 4 years. It will allow India and other partner countries to achieve accountable long-term targets by making a sectoral contribution through various interventions, coordinated with a large number of stakeholders in the domain. This will contribute towards achieving their NDCs and increasing their ambition in the transport sector of 2025 NDCs. Incorrect Solution : -C Nationally Determined Contributions (NDC)-Transport Initiative for Asia (TIA) NITI Aayog has launched the India Component of the Nationally Determined Contributions (NDC)–Transport Initiative for Asia (TIA). About NDC- TIA: It is a joint programme, supported by the International Climate Initiative (IKI) of the German Ministry for the Environment, Nature Conservation and Nuclear Safety (BMU). Hence statement 1 is correct . It aims to promote a comprehensive approach to decarbonize transport in India, Vietnam and China. Hence statement 2 is correct . It is implemented by a consortium of seven other organisations. On behalf of the Government of India, NITI Aayog will be the implementing partner. Implementation: The NDC-TIA programme has a duration of 4 years. It will allow India and other partner countries to achieve accountable long-term targets by making a sectoral contribution through various interventions, coordinated with a large number of stakeholders in the domain. This will contribute towards achieving their NDCs and increasing their ambition in the transport sector of 2025 NDCs.
#### 19. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Nationally Determined Contributions (NDC) – Transport Initiative for Asia (TIA):
• It is a joint programme, supported by the International Climate Initiative (IKI) of the German Ministry for the Environment .
• It aims to promote a comprehensive approach to decarbonize transport only in India, Vietnam and China.
Select the correct statement using the code given below :
• c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution : -C
Nationally Determined Contributions (NDC)-Transport Initiative for Asia (TIA)
• NITI Aayog has launched the India Component of the Nationally Determined Contributions (NDC)–Transport Initiative for Asia (TIA).
About NDC- TIA:
• It is a joint programme, supported by the International Climate Initiative (IKI) of the German Ministry for the Environment, Nature Conservation and Nuclear Safety (BMU). Hence statement 1 is correct .
• It aims to promote a comprehensive approach to decarbonize transport in India, Vietnam and China. Hence statement 2 is correct .
• It is implemented by a consortium of seven other organisations.
• On behalf of the Government of India, NITI Aayog will be the implementing partner.
Implementation:
• The NDC-TIA programme has a duration of 4 years.
• It will allow India and other partner countries to achieve accountable long-term targets by making a sectoral contribution through various interventions, coordinated with a large number of stakeholders in the domain.
• This will contribute towards achieving their NDCs and increasing their ambition in the transport sector of 2025 NDCs.
Solution : -C
Nationally Determined Contributions (NDC)-Transport Initiative for Asia (TIA)
• NITI Aayog has launched the India Component of the Nationally Determined Contributions (NDC)–Transport Initiative for Asia (TIA).
About NDC- TIA:
• It is a joint programme, supported by the International Climate Initiative (IKI) of the German Ministry for the Environment, Nature Conservation and Nuclear Safety (BMU). Hence statement 1 is correct .
• It aims to promote a comprehensive approach to decarbonize transport in India, Vietnam and China. Hence statement 2 is correct .
• It is implemented by a consortium of seven other organisations.
• On behalf of the Government of India, NITI Aayog will be the implementing partner.
Implementation:
• The NDC-TIA programme has a duration of 4 years.
• It will allow India and other partner countries to achieve accountable long-term targets by making a sectoral contribution through various interventions, coordinated with a large number of stakeholders in the domain.
• This will contribute towards achieving their NDCs and increasing their ambition in the transport sector of 2025 NDCs.
• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Omdurman, North Khartoum and Kassala cities sometime seen in the news is located in (a) South Sudan (b) Sudan (c) Syria (d) Lebanon Correct Solution: B Incorrect Solution: B
#### 20. Question
Omdurman, North Khartoum and Kassala cities sometime seen in the news is located in
• (a) South Sudan
• (d) Lebanon
Solution: B
Solution: B
• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about The India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEE-EC). It is an infrastructure development project that aims to create connectivity through rail and shipping networks, energy cables, and data links. It is part of the Partnership for Rail and Shipping Corridors Global Infrastructure Investment (PGII) and focuses on enhancing global trade and cooperation through critical infrastructure development. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 Only b) 2 Only c) Both 1 and 2 d) None of the above Correct Solution: c) Justification: The PGII (Partnership for Global Infrastructure Investment) initiative (announced in 2021 during the G7 summit in the UK) is a collaborative effort by G7 countries to fund infrastructure projects in developing nations. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/09/12/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-12-september-2023/ Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: The PGII (Partnership for Global Infrastructure Investment) initiative (announced in 2021 during the G7 summit in the UK) is a collaborative effort by G7 countries to fund infrastructure projects in developing nations. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/09/12/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-12-september-2023/
#### 21. Question
Consider the following statements about The India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEE-EC).
• It is an infrastructure development project that aims to create connectivity through rail and shipping networks, energy cables, and data links.
• It is part of the Partnership for Rail and Shipping Corridors Global Infrastructure Investment (PGII) and focuses on enhancing global trade and cooperation through critical infrastructure development.
Which of the above is/are correct?
• c) Both 1 and 2
• d) None of the above
Solution: c)
Justification: The PGII (Partnership for Global Infrastructure Investment) initiative (announced in 2021 during the G7 summit in the UK) is a collaborative effort by G7 countries to fund infrastructure projects in developing nations.
Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/09/12/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-12-september-2023/
Solution: c)
Justification: The PGII (Partnership for Global Infrastructure Investment) initiative (announced in 2021 during the G7 summit in the UK) is a collaborative effort by G7 countries to fund infrastructure projects in developing nations.
Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/09/12/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-12-september-2023/
• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. The Ministry of Science and Technology operates autonomously under the Societies Registration Act, 1860. The Council of Scientific and Industrial Research was established by the Government of India after India’s independence. There have been no women recipients for the Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar (SSB) annual Prize for Science and Technology. How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None of the above Correct Solution: a) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/09/12/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-12-september-2023/ Incorrect Solution: a) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/09/12/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-12-september-2023/
#### 22. Question
Consider the following statements.
• The Ministry of Science and Technology operates autonomously under the Societies Registration Act, 1860.
• The Council of Scientific and Industrial Research was established by the Government of India after India’s independence.
• There have been no women recipients for the Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar (SSB) annual Prize for Science and Technology.
How many of the above is/are correct?
• a) Only one
• b) Only two
• c) All three
• d) None of the above
Solution: a)
Justification:
Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/09/12/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-12-september-2023/
Solution: a)
Justification:
Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/09/12/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-12-september-2023/
• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. After harvesting cotton, the breakdown (seed, fibre, waste) consists dominantly of its fibre. Cottonseed is used for feed cake production. Cottonseed oil is the largest domestically produced vegetable oil in India. How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None of the above Correct Solution: a) Justification: Cotton in India provides food, feed, and fibre, making it a crucial crop for agriculture and the textile sector. Cotton Components: After harvesting cotton (Kapas), the breakdown is approximately 36% fibre, 62% seeds, and 2% waste. Cottonseed is essential for vegetable oil and feed cake production. Market Contribution: Cottonseed oil is the third-largest domestically produced vegetable oil in India, following mustard and soyabean. It also ranks second in feed cake production, with soybeans leading. Textile Dominance: Cotton is the dominant fibre in India’s textile industry, accounting for about two-thirds of the total consumption. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/09/12/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-12-september-2023/ Incorrect Solution: a) Justification: Cotton in India provides food, feed, and fibre, making it a crucial crop for agriculture and the textile sector. Cotton Components: After harvesting cotton (Kapas), the breakdown is approximately 36% fibre, 62% seeds, and 2% waste. Cottonseed is essential for vegetable oil and feed cake production. Market Contribution: Cottonseed oil is the third-largest domestically produced vegetable oil in India, following mustard and soyabean. It also ranks second in feed cake production, with soybeans leading. Textile Dominance: Cotton is the dominant fibre in India’s textile industry, accounting for about two-thirds of the total consumption. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/09/12/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-12-september-2023/
#### 23. Question
Consider the following statements.
• After harvesting cotton, the breakdown (seed, fibre, waste) consists dominantly of its fibre.
• Cottonseed is used for feed cake production.
• Cottonseed oil is the largest domestically produced vegetable oil in India.
How many of the above is/are correct?
• a) Only one
• b) Only two
• c) All three
• d) None of the above
Solution: a)
Justification: Cotton in India provides food, feed, and fibre, making it a crucial crop for agriculture and the textile sector.
Cotton Components: After harvesting cotton (Kapas), the breakdown is approximately 36% fibre, 62% seeds, and 2% waste.
Cottonseed is essential for vegetable oil and feed cake production.
Market Contribution: Cottonseed oil is the third-largest domestically produced vegetable oil in India, following mustard and soyabean. It also ranks second in feed cake production, with soybeans leading.
Textile Dominance: Cotton is the dominant fibre in India’s textile industry, accounting for about two-thirds of the total consumption.
Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/09/12/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-12-september-2023/
Solution: a)
Justification: Cotton in India provides food, feed, and fibre, making it a crucial crop for agriculture and the textile sector.
Cotton Components: After harvesting cotton (Kapas), the breakdown is approximately 36% fibre, 62% seeds, and 2% waste.
Cottonseed is essential for vegetable oil and feed cake production.
Market Contribution: Cottonseed oil is the third-largest domestically produced vegetable oil in India, following mustard and soyabean. It also ranks second in feed cake production, with soybeans leading.
Textile Dominance: Cotton is the dominant fibre in India’s textile industry, accounting for about two-thirds of the total consumption.
Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/09/12/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-12-september-2023/
• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. The Organization of African Unity (OAU) was founded to promote cooperation among African states. The African Continental Free Trade Area (AfCFTA), established before the OAU, seeks to create a single continental market for goods and services. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 Only b) 2 Only c) Both 1 and 2 d) None Correct Solution: a) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/09/11/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-11-september-2023/ Incorrect Solution: a) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/09/11/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-11-september-2023/
#### 24. Question
Consider the following statements.
• The Organization of African Unity (OAU) was founded to promote cooperation among African states.
• The African Continental Free Trade Area (AfCFTA), established before the OAU, seeks to create a single continental market for goods and services.
Which of the above is/are correct?
• c) Both 1 and 2
Solution: a)
Justification:
Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/09/11/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-11-september-2023/
Solution: a)
Justification:
Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/09/11/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-11-september-2023/
• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Match the following tribal arts to the regions they are mainly practiced in: * Art: Region Saura: Leh-Ladakh Dhokra: Odisha Angora: Madhya Pradesh Pithora: Gujarat How many of the matches above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution: B Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/09/11/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-11-september-2023/ Incorrect Solution: B Justification: Q Source:* https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/09/11/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-11-september-2023/
#### 25. Question
Match the following tribal arts to the regions they are mainly practiced in:
* Art: Region*
• Saura: Leh-Ladakh
• Dhokra: Odisha
• Angora: Madhya Pradesh
• Pithora: Gujarat
How many of the matches above is/are correct?
• a) Only one
• b) Only two
• c) Only three
• d) All four
Solution: B
Justification:
Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/09/11/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-11-september-2023/
Solution: B
Justification:
Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/09/11/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-11-september-2023/
• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points An increase in the level of serotonin levels in the human body is known to significantly enhance the mood of the person and in some cases, help people overcome depression. Serotonin taken orally does not pass into the pathways of the central nervous system, because it does not cross the blood–brain barrier. However, tryptophan and its metabolite 5-hydroxytryptophan (5- HTP), from which serotonin is synthesized, does cross the blood–brain barrier. These agents are available as dietary supplements, and may be effective serotonergic agents. Which of the following can be correctly inferred from the statements above? (a) Individuals who do not consume enough tryptophan can develop depressive tendencies. (b) Individuals who consume tryptophan can metabolize enough serotonin and do not run the risk of depression. (c) Consumption of serotonin laced foods can help cure depression in some cases. (d) Tryptophan is an effective agent that can help cure depression in some cases. Correct Correct Answer: D Explanation: In the given case, option D is the only valid inference. We know tryptophan helps produce serotonin, which in turn helps cure depression in some cases. This connection is highlighted by option D. Option A is something we cannot conclude. We are not sure whether not consuming tryptophan causes depression. Option B is again ruled out as the paragraph does not state that producing enough serotonin precludes depression. Option C is incorrect as serotonin is not directly metabolized in the body and this means that having foods containing serotonin cannot be synthesized by the body directly. Incorrect Correct Answer: D Explanation: In the given case, option D is the only valid inference. We know tryptophan helps produce serotonin, which in turn helps cure depression in some cases. This connection is highlighted by option D. Option A is something we cannot conclude. We are not sure whether not consuming tryptophan causes depression. Option B is again ruled out as the paragraph does not state that producing enough serotonin precludes depression. Option C is incorrect as serotonin is not directly metabolized in the body and this means that having foods containing serotonin cannot be synthesized by the body directly.
#### 26. Question
An increase in the level of serotonin levels in the human body is known to significantly enhance the mood of the person and in some cases, help people overcome depression. Serotonin taken orally does not pass into the pathways of the central nervous system, because it does not cross the blood–brain barrier. However, tryptophan and its metabolite 5-hydroxytryptophan (5- HTP), from which serotonin is synthesized, does cross the blood–brain barrier. These agents are available as dietary supplements, and may be effective serotonergic agents.
Which of the following can be correctly inferred from the statements above?
• (a) Individuals who do not consume enough tryptophan can develop depressive tendencies.
• (b) Individuals who consume tryptophan can metabolize enough serotonin and do not run the risk of depression.
• (c) Consumption of serotonin laced foods can help cure depression in some cases.
• (d) Tryptophan is an effective agent that can help cure depression in some cases.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
In the given case, option D is the only valid inference. We know tryptophan helps produce serotonin, which in turn helps cure depression in some cases. This connection is highlighted by option D.
Option A is something we cannot conclude. We are not sure whether not consuming tryptophan causes depression.
Option B is again ruled out as the paragraph does not state that producing enough serotonin precludes depression.
Option C is incorrect as serotonin is not directly metabolized in the body and this means that having foods containing serotonin cannot be synthesized by the body directly.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
In the given case, option D is the only valid inference. We know tryptophan helps produce serotonin, which in turn helps cure depression in some cases. This connection is highlighted by option D.
Option A is something we cannot conclude. We are not sure whether not consuming tryptophan causes depression.
Option B is again ruled out as the paragraph does not state that producing enough serotonin precludes depression.
Option C is incorrect as serotonin is not directly metabolized in the body and this means that having foods containing serotonin cannot be synthesized by the body directly.
• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points We live in digital times. The digital is not just something we use strategically and specifically to do a few tasks. Our very perception of who we are, how we connect to the world around us, and the ways in which we define our domains of life, labor and language are hugely structured by the digital technologies. The digital is everywhere and; like air, invisible. We live within digital systems, we live with intimate gadgets, we interact through digital media, and the very presence and imagination of the digital has dramatically restructured our lives. The digital, far from being a tool, is a condition and context that defines the shapes and boundaries of our understanding of the self, the society, and the structure of governance. Which among the following is the most logical and essential message conveyed by the above passage? (a) All problems of governance can be solved by using digital technologies. (b) Speaking of digital technologies is speaking of our life and living. (c) Our creativity and imagination cannot be expressed without digital media. (d) Use of digital systems is imperative for the existence of mankind in future. Correct Correct Answer: D Explanation: A is the extreme statement and all the problems cannot be solved by using digital technologies. Digital technologies are just part of our life and living and there are other ways to express our creativity and imagination without digital media. Incorrect Correct Answer: D Explanation: A is the extreme statement and all the problems cannot be solved by using digital technologies. Digital technologies are just part of our life and living and there are other ways to express our creativity and imagination without digital media.
#### 27. Question
We live in digital times. The digital is not just something we use strategically and specifically to do a few tasks. Our very perception of who we are, how we connect to the world around us, and the ways in which we define our domains of life, labor and language are hugely structured by the digital technologies. The digital is everywhere and; like air, invisible. We live within digital systems, we live with intimate gadgets, we interact through digital media, and the very presence and imagination of the digital has dramatically restructured our lives. The digital, far from being a tool, is a condition and context that defines the shapes and boundaries of our understanding of the self, the society, and the structure of governance.
Which among the following is the most logical and essential message conveyed by the above passage?
• (a) All problems of governance can be solved by using digital technologies.
• (b) Speaking of digital technologies is speaking of our life and living.
• (c) Our creativity and imagination cannot be expressed without digital media.
• (d) Use of digital systems is imperative for the existence of mankind in future.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
A is the extreme statement and all the problems cannot be solved by using digital technologies.
Digital technologies are just part of our life and living and there are other ways to express our creativity and imagination without digital media.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
A is the extreme statement and all the problems cannot be solved by using digital technologies.
Digital technologies are just part of our life and living and there are other ways to express our creativity and imagination without digital media.
• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points What was the day of the week on 17th June, 1998? a) Monday b) Thursday c) Wednesday d) Tuesday Correct Answer C) Wednesday 17th June, 1998 = (1997 years + Period from 1.1.1998 to 17.6.1998) Odd days in 1600 years = 0 Odd days in 300 years = 1 97 years has 24 leap years + 73 ordinary years. Number of odd days in 97 years ( 24 x 2 + 73) = 121 = 2 odd days. Jan. Feb. March April May June (31 + 28 + 31 + 30 + 31 + 17) = 168 days 168 days = 24 weeks = 0 odd day. Total number of odd days = (0 + 1 + 2 + 0) = 3. Given day is Wednesday. Incorrect Solution: D) 125 Let the number be x. Then, as per the operation undertook by the student, we have (x+14)/6 = 114 . Therefore x= 670. Hence, correct answer should have been (670/6)+14 =125.
#### 28. Question
What was the day of the week on 17th June, 1998?
• b) Thursday
• c) Wednesday
• d) Tuesday
Answer C) Wednesday
17th June, 1998 = (1997 years + Period from 1.1.1998 to 17.6.1998)
Odd days in 1600 years = 0
Odd days in 300 years = 1
97 years has 24 leap years + 73 ordinary years.
Number of odd days in 97 years ( 24 x 2 + 73) = 121 = 2 odd days.
Jan. Feb. March April May June
(31 + 28 + 31 + 30 + 31 + 17) = 168 days
168 days = 24 weeks = 0 odd day.
Total number of odd days = (0 + 1 + 2 + 0) = 3.
Given day is Wednesday.
Solution: D) 125
Let the number be x. Then, as per the operation undertook by the student, we have (x+14)/6 = 114 .
Therefore x= 670.
Hence, correct answer should have been (670/6)+14 =125.
• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points An accurate clock shows 2 o’clock in the morning. Through how may degrees will the hour hand rotate when the clock shows 9 o’clock in the evening? a) 144º b) 210º c) 168º d) 570º Correct answer D) 570 º We know that the angle traced by the hour hand in one hour is 30º. The total angle traced by the hour hand in 19 hours (2 a.m to 9 p.m) is 30 x 19 = 570º. Incorrect answer D) 570 º We know that the angle traced by the hour hand in one hour is 30º. The total angle traced by the hour hand in 19 hours (2 a.m to 9 p.m) is 30 x 19 = 570º.
#### 29. Question
An accurate clock shows 2 o’clock in the morning. Through how may degrees will the hour hand rotate when the clock shows 9 o’clock in the evening?
answer D) 570 º
We know that the angle traced by the hour hand in one hour is 30º.
The total angle traced by the hour hand in 19 hours (2 a.m to 9 p.m) is 30 x 19 = 570º.
answer D) 570 º
We know that the angle traced by the hour hand in one hour is 30º.
The total angle traced by the hour hand in 19 hours (2 a.m to 9 p.m) is 30 x 19 = 570º.
• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points Answer the question based on the information given below. Seven persons, P, Q, R, S, T, U and V have different ages. Each of them has different weight (in kg). V is older than only R, who is the 2nd heaviest person. Q is heavier than U, who is heavier than the 2nd oldest person. U is older than P and S. T is older than U but not the oldest person. The oldest and the heaviest persons are different. T is not the 2nd lightest person. S is lighter than T. V is heavier than S but not the heaviest person. If the weight of 3rd youngest person is 56kg, then, what can be the possible weight of U? a. 59kg b. 45kg c. 60kg d. Cannot be determined Correct Answer: d) Cannot be determined Solution: V is older than only R, who is the 2nd heaviest person, i.e. R is the youngest person. Q is heavier than U, who is heavier than the 2nd oldest person. U is older than P and S. T is older than U but not the oldest person, i.e. Q is the oldest person. The oldest and the heaviest persons are different. T is not the 2nd lightest person. S is lighter than T, i.e. T must be the 3rd lightest person. V is heavier than S but not the heaviest person, i.e. P is the heaviest person. The final ranking arrangement on the basis of ages is as follows: Q > T > U > P/S > S/P > V > R The final ranking arrangement on the basis of weight is as follows: P > R > Q > U > T > V > S Either S or P is the 3rd youngest person. Hence, option d. Incorrect Answer: d) Cannot be determined Solution: V is older than only R, who is the 2nd heaviest person, i.e. R is the youngest person. Q is heavier than U, who is heavier than the 2nd oldest person. U is older than P and S. T is older than U but not the oldest person, i.e. Q is the oldest person. The oldest and the heaviest persons are different. T is not the 2nd lightest person. S is lighter than T, i.e. T must be the 3rd lightest person. V is heavier than S but not the heaviest person, i.e. P is the heaviest person. The final ranking arrangement on the basis of ages is as follows: Q > T > U > P/S > S/P > V > R The final ranking arrangement on the basis of weight is as follows: P > R > Q > U > T > V > S Either S or P is the 3rd youngest person. Hence, option d.
#### 30. Question
• Answer the question based on the information given below.
Seven persons, P, Q, R, S, T, U and V have different ages. Each of them has different weight (in kg). V is older than only R, who is the 2nd heaviest person. Q is heavier than U, who is heavier than the 2nd oldest person. U is older than P and S. T is older than U but not the oldest person. The oldest and the heaviest persons are different. T is not the 2nd lightest person. S is lighter than T. V is heavier than S but not the heaviest person.
If the weight of 3rd youngest person is 56kg, then, what can be the possible weight of U?
• d. Cannot be determined
Answer: d) Cannot be determined
V is older than only R, who is the 2nd heaviest person, i.e. R is the youngest person. Q is heavier than U, who is heavier than the 2nd oldest person. U is older than P and S. T is older than U but not the oldest person, i.e. Q is the oldest person. The oldest and the heaviest persons are different. T is not the 2nd lightest person. S is lighter than T, i.e. T must be the 3rd lightest person. V is heavier than S but not the heaviest person, i.e. P is the heaviest person. The final ranking arrangement on the basis of ages is as follows:
Q > T > U > P/S > S/P > V > R
The final ranking arrangement on the basis of weight is as follows:
P > R > Q > U > T > V > S
Either S or P is the 3rd youngest person. Hence, option d.
Answer: d) Cannot be determined
V is older than only R, who is the 2nd heaviest person, i.e. R is the youngest person. Q is heavier than U, who is heavier than the 2nd oldest person. U is older than P and S. T is older than U but not the oldest person, i.e. Q is the oldest person. The oldest and the heaviest persons are different. T is not the 2nd lightest person. S is lighter than T, i.e. T must be the 3rd lightest person. V is heavier than S but not the heaviest person, i.e. P is the heaviest person. The final ranking arrangement on the basis of ages is as follows:
Q > T > U > P/S > S/P > V > R
The final ranking arrangement on the basis of weight is as follows:
P > R > Q > U > T > V > S
Either S or P is the 3rd youngest person. Hence, option d.
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