DAY – 51 : Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2025 : Polity

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the President’s power to grant pardons under Article 72 of the Constitution of India: The power of the President to grant pardon extends to sentences inflicted by Court Martial. The President’s decision on a mercy petition is subject to judicial review on grounds of arbitrariness, irrationality, mala fides or discrimination. The President is bound to act on the advice of the Council of Ministers while deciding on mercy petitions. There is a specific time limit prescribed within which the President must dispose of a mercy petition. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. Article 72(1)(a) explicitly states that the President shall have the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence where the punishment or sentence is by a Court Martial. Statement 2 is correct. While the power under Article 72 is wide, it is not absolute or immune from judicial scrutiny. The Supreme Court in Epuru Sudhakar & Anr vs Govt. Of A.P. & Ors (2006) held that the exercise of pardoning power is subject to judicial review on limited grounds such as the order being passed without application of mind, mala fide, based on extraneous or irrelevant considerations, or suffering from arbitrariness. Statement 3 is correct. The President exercises this power on the advice of the Council of Ministers. This is in line with the general principle of parliamentary government where the President acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers (Article 74(1)). The Supreme Court reaffirmed this in the Maru Ram vs Union of India (1980) case. Statement 4 is incorrect. The Constitution does not prescribe any specific time limit for the President to decide on a mercy petition. This lack of a time limit has sometimes led to significant delays and has been a subject of debate concerning potential denial of justice. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. Article 72(1)(a) explicitly states that the President shall have the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence where the punishment or sentence is by a Court Martial. Statement 2 is correct. While the power under Article 72 is wide, it is not absolute or immune from judicial scrutiny. The Supreme Court in Epuru Sudhakar & Anr vs Govt. Of A.P. & Ors (2006) held that the exercise of pardoning power is subject to judicial review on limited grounds such as the order being passed without application of mind, mala fide, based on extraneous or irrelevant considerations, or suffering from arbitrariness. Statement 3 is correct. The President exercises this power on the advice of the Council of Ministers. This is in line with the general principle of parliamentary government where the President acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers (Article 74(1)). The Supreme Court reaffirmed this in the Maru Ram vs Union of India (1980) case. Statement 4 is incorrect. The Constitution does not prescribe any specific time limit for the President to decide on a mercy petition. This lack of a time limit has sometimes led to significant delays and has been a subject of debate concerning potential denial of justice.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the President’s power to grant pardons under Article 72 of the Constitution of India:

• The power of the President to grant pardon extends to sentences inflicted by Court Martial.

• The President’s decision on a mercy petition is subject to judicial review on grounds of arbitrariness, irrationality, mala fides or discrimination.

• The President is bound to act on the advice of the Council of Ministers while deciding on mercy petitions.

• There is a specific time limit prescribed within which the President must dispose of a mercy petition.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct. Article 72(1)(a) explicitly states that the President shall have the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence where the punishment or sentence is by a Court Martial.

• Statement 2 is correct. While the power under Article 72 is wide, it is not absolute or immune from judicial scrutiny. The Supreme Court in Epuru Sudhakar & Anr vs Govt. Of A.P. & Ors (2006) held that the exercise of pardoning power is subject to judicial review on limited grounds such as the order being passed without application of mind, mala fide, based on extraneous or irrelevant considerations, or suffering from arbitrariness.

• Statement 3 is correct. The President exercises this power on the advice of the Council of Ministers. This is in line with the general principle of parliamentary government where the President acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers (Article 74(1)). The Supreme Court reaffirmed this in the Maru Ram vs Union of India (1980) case.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. The Constitution does not prescribe any specific time limit for the President to decide on a mercy petition. This lack of a time limit has sometimes led to significant delays and has been a subject of debate concerning potential denial of justice.

Solution: C

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement I: The Constitution of India does not explicitly classify ministers into different ranks like Cabinet Minister, Minister of State (Independent Charge), Minister of State, or Deputy Minister. Statement II: The total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Union Council of Ministers cannot exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha, as per a constitutional amendment. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I. (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I. (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect. (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct. Correct Solution: B Statement I is correct. The Constitution, under Article 74 and 75, primarily speaks of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister to aid and advise the President. It does not classify ministers into different ranks. The classification into Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State (Independent Charge), Ministers of State, and Deputy Ministers is based on conventions of parliamentary government and the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, reflecting their political importance, salary, and functions, but not constitutional mandate. Statement II is correct. The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003, inserted Clause (1A) into Article 75. This clause stipulates that the total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed fifteen per cent of the total number of members of the House of the People (Lok Sabha). This was done to check the trend of jumbo cabinets. Relationship Analysis: Both statements are factually correct based on constitutional provisions and conventions/amendments. However, Statement II (the size limit) does not explain Statement I (the lack of explicit constitutional classification of ranks). They are independent facts about the Council of Ministers. Incorrect Solution: B Statement I is correct. The Constitution, under Article 74 and 75, primarily speaks of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister to aid and advise the President. It does not classify ministers into different ranks. The classification into Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State (Independent Charge), Ministers of State, and Deputy Ministers is based on conventions of parliamentary government and the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, reflecting their political importance, salary, and functions, but not constitutional mandate. Statement II is correct. The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003, inserted Clause (1A) into Article 75. This clause stipulates that the total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed fifteen per cent of the total number of members of the House of the People (Lok Sabha). This was done to check the trend of jumbo cabinets. Relationship Analysis: Both statements are factually correct based on constitutional provisions and conventions/amendments. However, Statement II (the size limit) does not explain Statement I (the lack of explicit constitutional classification of ranks). They are independent facts about the Council of Ministers.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The Constitution of India does not explicitly classify ministers into different ranks like Cabinet Minister, Minister of State (Independent Charge), Minister of State, or Deputy Minister. Statement II: The total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Union Council of Ministers cannot exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha, as per a constitutional amendment.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

Solution: B

• Statement I is correct. The Constitution, under Article 74 and 75, primarily speaks of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister to aid and advise the President. It does not classify ministers into different ranks. The classification into Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State (Independent Charge), Ministers of State, and Deputy Ministers is based on conventions of parliamentary government and the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, reflecting their political importance, salary, and functions, but not constitutional mandate.

• Statement II is correct. The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003, inserted Clause (1A) into Article 75. This clause stipulates that the total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed fifteen per cent of the total number of members of the House of the People (Lok Sabha). This was done to check the trend of jumbo cabinets.

• Relationship Analysis: Both statements are factually correct based on constitutional provisions and conventions/amendments. However, Statement II (the size limit) does not explain Statement I (the lack of explicit constitutional classification of ranks). They are independent facts about the Council of Ministers.

Solution: B

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points With reference to the Cabinet Secretariat in the Government of India, consider the following statements: It functions directly under the Prime Minister and its administrative head is the Cabinet Secretary. It is responsible for the administration of the Government of India (Transaction of Business) Rules, 1961 and the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961. It prepares the agenda for Cabinet meetings and keeps a record of the decisions taken. It oversees the implementation of Cabinet decisions by the concerned Ministries/Departments. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is correct. The Cabinet Secretariat is under the direct charge of the Prime Minister. The Cabinet Secretary is the administrative head of the Secretariat and also the ex-officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board. Statement 2 is correct. The Cabinet Secretariat is responsible for the administration of the Government of India (Transaction of Business) Rules, 1961, and the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961, facilitating smooth transaction of business in Ministries/Departments by ensuring adherence to these rules. Statement 3 is correct. A key function of the Cabinet Secretariat is to provide secretarial assistance to the Cabinet and its Committees. This includes preparing and circulating the agenda for Cabinet meetings, providing necessary information and material for deliberations, and preparing a record of the decisions taken. Statement 4 is correct. The Cabinet Secretariat monitors the implementation of decisions taken by the Cabinet and its Committees, ensuring that they are carried out by the concerned Ministries and Departments in a timely manner. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is correct. The Cabinet Secretariat is under the direct charge of the Prime Minister. The Cabinet Secretary is the administrative head of the Secretariat and also the ex-officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board. Statement 2 is correct. The Cabinet Secretariat is responsible for the administration of the Government of India (Transaction of Business) Rules, 1961, and the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961, facilitating smooth transaction of business in Ministries/Departments by ensuring adherence to these rules. Statement 3 is correct. A key function of the Cabinet Secretariat is to provide secretarial assistance to the Cabinet and its Committees. This includes preparing and circulating the agenda for Cabinet meetings, providing necessary information and material for deliberations, and preparing a record of the decisions taken. Statement 4 is correct. The Cabinet Secretariat monitors the implementation of decisions taken by the Cabinet and its Committees, ensuring that they are carried out by the concerned Ministries and Departments in a timely manner.

#### 3. Question

With reference to the Cabinet Secretariat in the Government of India, consider the following statements:

• It functions directly under the Prime Minister and its administrative head is the Cabinet Secretary.

• It is responsible for the administration of the Government of India (Transaction of Business) Rules, 1961 and the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961.

• It prepares the agenda for Cabinet meetings and keeps a record of the decisions taken.

• It oversees the implementation of Cabinet decisions by the concerned Ministries/Departments.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is correct. The Cabinet Secretariat is under the direct charge of the Prime Minister. The Cabinet Secretary is the administrative head of the Secretariat and also the ex-officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.

• Statement 2 is correct. The Cabinet Secretariat is responsible for the administration of the Government of India (Transaction of Business) Rules, 1961, and the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961, facilitating smooth transaction of business in Ministries/Departments by ensuring adherence to these rules.

• Statement 3 is correct. A key function of the Cabinet Secretariat is to provide secretarial assistance to the Cabinet and its Committees. This includes preparing and circulating the agenda for Cabinet meetings, providing necessary information and material for deliberations, and preparing a record of the decisions taken.

• Statement 4 is correct. The Cabinet Secretariat monitors the implementation of decisions taken by the Cabinet and its Committees, ensuring that they are carried out by the concerned Ministries and Departments in a timely manner.

Solution: D

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Governor’s power to reserve a Bill for the consideration of the President under Article 200 of the Constitution: The Governor must reserve any Bill passed by the State Legislature which, in his opinion, would derogate from the powers of the High Court so as to endanger the position which that Court is by the Constitution designed to fill. The question of whether the Governor should reserve a Bill (other than those affecting High Court powers) for the President’s consideration is justiciable. Once the Governor reserves a Bill for the President’s consideration, the Governor has no further role in the Bill’s enactment process. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The second proviso to Article 200 explicitly mandates the Governor to reserve for the consideration of the President any Bill which, in the opinion of the Governor, would, if it became law, so derogate from the powers of the High Court as to endanger the position which that Court is by this Constitution designed to fill. This is a mandatory reservation. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Governor’s decision to reserve a Bill for the President’s consideration (except in the mandatory case concerning High Court powers) is generally considered part of his discretionary powers. The courts have been reluctant to inquire into the reasons or justification for such reservation, treating it as non-justiciable. The exercise of discretion under Article 200 falls outside the scope of judicial review, unless exercised mala fide. Statement 3 is correct. Once the Governor reserves a Bill under Article 200 for the consideration of the President, the subsequent procedure is governed by Article 201. Under Article 201, it is the President who may assent to the Bill, withhold assent, or (if it is not a Money Bill) direct the Governor to return the Bill to the State Legislature for reconsideration. The Governor’s role in the assent process for that specific Bill effectively ends upon reservation. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The second proviso to Article 200 explicitly mandates the Governor to reserve for the consideration of the President any Bill which, in the opinion of the Governor, would, if it became law, so derogate from the powers of the High Court as to endanger the position which that Court is by this Constitution designed to fill. This is a mandatory reservation. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Governor’s decision to reserve a Bill for the President’s consideration (except in the mandatory case concerning High Court powers) is generally considered part of his discretionary powers. The courts have been reluctant to inquire into the reasons or justification for such reservation, treating it as non-justiciable. The exercise of discretion under Article 200 falls outside the scope of judicial review, unless exercised mala fide. Statement 3 is correct. Once the Governor reserves a Bill under Article 200 for the consideration of the President, the subsequent procedure is governed by Article 201. Under Article 201, it is the President who may assent to the Bill, withhold assent, or (if it is not a Money Bill) direct the Governor to return the Bill to the State Legislature for reconsideration. The Governor’s role in the assent process for that specific Bill effectively ends upon reservation.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Governor’s power to reserve a Bill for the consideration of the President under Article 200 of the Constitution:

• The Governor must reserve any Bill passed by the State Legislature which, in his opinion, would derogate from the powers of the High Court so as to endanger the position which that Court is by the Constitution designed to fill.

• The question of whether the Governor should reserve a Bill (other than those affecting High Court powers) for the President’s consideration is justiciable.

• Once the Governor reserves a Bill for the President’s consideration, the Governor has no further role in the Bill’s enactment process.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The second proviso to Article 200 explicitly mandates the Governor to reserve for the consideration of the President any Bill which, in the opinion of the Governor, would, if it became law, so derogate from the powers of the High Court as to endanger the position which that Court is by this Constitution designed to fill. This is a mandatory reservation.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Governor’s decision to reserve a Bill for the President’s consideration (except in the mandatory case concerning High Court powers) is generally considered part of his discretionary powers. The courts have been reluctant to inquire into the reasons or justification for such reservation, treating it as non-justiciable. The exercise of discretion under Article 200 falls outside the scope of judicial review, unless exercised mala fide.

• Statement 3 is correct. Once the Governor reserves a Bill under Article 200 for the consideration of the President, the subsequent procedure is governed by Article 201. Under Article 201, it is the President who may assent to the Bill, withhold assent, or (if it is not a Money Bill) direct the Governor to return the Bill to the State Legislature for reconsideration. The Governor’s role in the assent process for that specific Bill effectively ends upon reservation.

Solution: B

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Which of the following statements accurately reflects the constitutional position regarding the appointment and dismissal of the State Council of Ministers? The Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor, and other Ministers are appointed by the Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister. The Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the Governor. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the State Legislative Assembly. The Constitution requires that a Minister who is not a member of the State Legislature for any period of six consecutive months shall cease to be a Minister. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is correct. Article 164(1) states that the Chief Minister shall be appointed by the Governor and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister. Statement 2 is correct. Article 164(1) also states that the Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the Governor. However, this pleasure is generally exercised on the advice of the Chief Minister, meaning the Governor can dismiss a minister only on the advice of the CM, or dismiss the entire council if it loses confidence of the Assembly or refuses to resign. Statement 3 is correct. Article 164(2) explicitly provides that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly of the State. This is the bedrock principle of parliamentary government at the state level. Statement 4 is correct. Article 164(4) stipulates that a Minister who for any period of six consecutive months is not a member of the Legislature of the State shall at the expiration of that period cease to be a Minister. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is correct. Article 164(1) states that the Chief Minister shall be appointed by the Governor and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister. Statement 2 is correct. Article 164(1) also states that the Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the Governor. However, this pleasure is generally exercised on the advice of the Chief Minister, meaning the Governor can dismiss a minister only on the advice of the CM, or dismiss the entire council if it loses confidence of the Assembly or refuses to resign. Statement 3 is correct. Article 164(2) explicitly provides that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly of the State. This is the bedrock principle of parliamentary government at the state level. Statement 4 is correct. Article 164(4) stipulates that a Minister who for any period of six consecutive months is not a member of the Legislature of the State shall at the expiration of that period cease to be a Minister.

#### 5. Question

Which of the following statements accurately reflects the constitutional position regarding the appointment and dismissal of the State Council of Ministers?

• The Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor, and other Ministers are appointed by the Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister.

• The Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the Governor.

• The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the State Legislative Assembly.

• The Constitution requires that a Minister who is not a member of the State Legislature for any period of six consecutive months shall cease to be a Minister.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1, 3 and 4 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is correct. Article 164(1) states that the Chief Minister shall be appointed by the Governor and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister.

• Statement 2 is correct. Article 164(1) also states that the Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the Governor. However, this pleasure is generally exercised on the advice of the Chief Minister, meaning the Governor can dismiss a minister only on the advice of the CM, or dismiss the entire council if it loses confidence of the Assembly or refuses to resign.

• Statement 3 is correct. Article 164(2) explicitly provides that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly of the State. This is the bedrock principle of parliamentary government at the state level.

• Statement 4 is correct. Article 164(4) stipulates that a Minister who for any period of six consecutive months is not a member of the Legislature of the State shall at the expiration of that period cease to be a Minister.

Solution: D

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding different types of Bills introduced in the Parliament of India: A Bill seeking to amend the Constitution under Article 368 requires the prior recommendation of the President for its introduction. A Money Bill, as defined under Article 110, can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha and not in the Rajya Sabha. The Rajya Sabha has the power to reject or amend a Financial Bill Category A (under Article 117(1)). There is no provision for a joint sitting of both Houses under Article 108 to resolve a deadlock over a Constitution Amendment Bill. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect. A Constitution Amendment Bill under Article 368 can be introduced in either House of Parliament by a minister or a private member and does not require the prior recommendation of the President. Prior recommendation of the President is required for Money Bills (Article 117(1)) and certain Financial Bills (Article 117(3)), and Bills affecting state boundaries (Article 3). Statement 2 is correct. Article 109(1) explicitly states that a Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha). It can only originate in the Lok Sabha. Statement 3 is correct. A Financial Bill Category A (Article 117(1)) contains provisions dealing with matters specified in Article 110 (Money Bill provisions) but also other matters of general legislation. While it can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha on the President’s recommendation, once passed by the Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha has the power to reject or amend it, just like an ordinary bill (subject to the limitations regarding money matters if applicable). Deadlock can be resolved via joint sitting. Statement 4 is correct. Article 368 requires a Constitution Amendment Bill to be passed by each House separately by the prescribed special majority (and ratification by states, if required). There is no provision for holding a joint sitting under Article 108 in case of disagreement between the two Houses regarding such a Bill. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect. A Constitution Amendment Bill under Article 368 can be introduced in either House of Parliament by a minister or a private member and does not require the prior recommendation of the President. Prior recommendation of the President is required for Money Bills (Article 117(1)) and certain Financial Bills (Article 117(3)), and Bills affecting state boundaries (Article 3). Statement 2 is correct. Article 109(1) explicitly states that a Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha). It can only originate in the Lok Sabha. Statement 3 is correct. A Financial Bill Category A (Article 117(1)) contains provisions dealing with matters specified in Article 110 (Money Bill provisions) but also other matters of general legislation. While it can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha on the President’s recommendation, once passed by the Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha has the power to reject or amend it, just like an ordinary bill (subject to the limitations regarding money matters if applicable). Deadlock can be resolved via joint sitting. Statement 4 is correct. Article 368 requires a Constitution Amendment Bill to be passed by each House separately by the prescribed special majority (and ratification by states, if required). There is no provision for holding a joint sitting under Article 108 in case of disagreement between the two Houses regarding such a Bill.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding different types of Bills introduced in the Parliament of India:

• A Bill seeking to amend the Constitution under Article 368 requires the prior recommendation of the President for its introduction.

• A Money Bill, as defined under Article 110, can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha and not in the Rajya Sabha.

• The Rajya Sabha has the power to reject or amend a Financial Bill Category A (under Article 117(1)).

• There is no provision for a joint sitting of both Houses under Article 108 to resolve a deadlock over a Constitution Amendment Bill.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is incorrect. A Constitution Amendment Bill under Article 368 can be introduced in either House of Parliament by a minister or a private member and does not require the prior recommendation of the President. Prior recommendation of the President is required for Money Bills (Article 117(1)) and certain Financial Bills (Article 117(3)), and Bills affecting state boundaries (Article 3).

• Statement 2 is correct. Article 109(1) explicitly states that a Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha). It can only originate in the Lok Sabha.

• Statement 3 is correct. A Financial Bill Category A (Article 117(1)) contains provisions dealing with matters specified in Article 110 (Money Bill provisions) but also other matters of general legislation. While it can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha on the President’s recommendation, once passed by the Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha has the power to reject or amend it, just like an ordinary bill (subject to the limitations regarding money matters if applicable). Deadlock can be resolved via joint sitting.

• Statement 4 is correct. Article 368 requires a Constitution Amendment Bill to be passed by each House separately by the prescribed special majority (and ratification by states, if required). There is no provision for holding a joint sitting under Article 108 in case of disagreement between the two Houses regarding such a Bill.

Solution: C

• Statement 2 is correct. Article 109(1) explicitly states that a Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha). It can only originate in the Lok Sabha.

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs regarding Parliamentary Committees: Estimates Committee : Examines estimates included in the budget and suggests ‘economies’ in public expenditure. Consists only of members from Lok Sabha. Public Accounts Committee (PAC) : Examines appropriation accounts and the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG). Consists of members from both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. Committee on Public Undertakings (CoPU) : Examines the reports and accounts of public undertakings specified in the Rules of Procedure. Consists of members from both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched in terms of their primary function and composition? (a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs (c) All three pairs (d) None of the pairs Correct Solution: C Pair 1 is correctly matched. The Estimates Committee’s primary function is to examine the budget estimates after they are voted by Parliament and suggest economies, improvements in organization, efficiency, or administrative reform consistent with the policy underlying the estimates. It is often called the ‘continuous economy committee’. It consists of 30 members, all exclusively from the Lok Sabha. Pair 2 is correctly matched. The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) examines the appropriation accounts showing the appropriation of sums granted by Parliament for the expenditure of the Government of India, the annual finance accounts, and importantly, the audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) laid before Parliament. It consists of 22 members (15 from Lok Sabha, 7 from Rajya Sabha). Pair 3 is correctly matched. The Committee on Public Undertakings (CoPU) examines the reports and accounts of the public undertakings specified in the Fourth Schedule to the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha (and corresponding rules in Rajya Sabha). It also examines the reports of the CAG on public undertakings. It consists of 22 members (15 from Lok Sabha, 7 from Rajya Sabha). Incorrect Solution: C Pair 1 is correctly matched. The Estimates Committee’s primary function is to examine the budget estimates after they are voted by Parliament and suggest economies, improvements in organization, efficiency, or administrative reform consistent with the policy underlying the estimates. It is often called the ‘continuous economy committee’. It consists of 30 members, all exclusively from the Lok Sabha. Pair 2 is correctly matched. The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) examines the appropriation accounts showing the appropriation of sums granted by Parliament for the expenditure of the Government of India, the annual finance accounts, and importantly, the audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) laid before Parliament. It consists of 22 members (15 from Lok Sabha, 7 from Rajya Sabha). Pair 3 is correctly matched. The Committee on Public Undertakings (CoPU) examines the reports and accounts of the public undertakings specified in the Fourth Schedule to the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha (and corresponding rules in Rajya Sabha). It also examines the reports of the CAG on public undertakings. It consists of 22 members (15 from Lok Sabha, 7 from Rajya Sabha).

#### 7. Question

Consider the following pairs regarding Parliamentary Committees:

• Estimates Committee : Examines estimates included in the budget and suggests ‘economies’ in public expenditure. Consists only of members from Lok Sabha.

• Public Accounts Committee (PAC) : Examines appropriation accounts and the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG). Consists of members from both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.

• Committee on Public Undertakings (CoPU) : Examines the reports and accounts of public undertakings specified in the Rules of Procedure. Consists of members from both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched in terms of their primary function and composition?

• (a) Only one pair

• (b) Only two pairs

• (c) All three pairs

• (d) None of the pairs

Solution: C

• Pair 1 is correctly matched. The Estimates Committee’s primary function is to examine the budget estimates after they are voted by Parliament and suggest economies, improvements in organization, efficiency, or administrative reform consistent with the policy underlying the estimates. It is often called the ‘continuous economy committee’. It consists of 30 members, all exclusively from the Lok Sabha.

• Pair 2 is correctly matched. The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) examines the appropriation accounts showing the appropriation of sums granted by Parliament for the expenditure of the Government of India, the annual finance accounts, and importantly, the audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) laid before Parliament. It consists of 22 members (15 from Lok Sabha, 7 from Rajya Sabha).

• Pair 3 is correctly matched. The Committee on Public Undertakings (CoPU) examines the reports and accounts of the public undertakings specified in the Fourth Schedule to the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha (and corresponding rules in Rajya Sabha). It also examines the reports of the CAG on public undertakings. It consists of 22 members (15 from Lok Sabha, 7 from Rajya Sabha).

Solution: C

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Which of the following statements regarding Parliamentary Privileges in India is/are correct? The powers, privileges, and immunities of each House of Parliament and its members are to be defined by Parliament by law, as per the Constitution. Until defined by Parliament, the privileges shall be those of the House of Commons of the Parliament of the United Kingdom, and of its members and committees, at the commencement of the Constitution. Parliamentary privileges extend to the President of India as he is an integral part of Parliament. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. Article 105(3) explicitly states that “In other respects, the powers, privileges and immunities of each House of Parliament, and of the members and the committees of each House, shall be such as may from time to time be defined by Parliament by law…”. Statement 2 is correct. Article 105(3) continues “…and, until so defined, shall be those of that House and of its members and committees immediately before the coming into force of section 15 of the Constitution (Forty-fourth Amendment) Act, 1978.” The 44th Amendment removed the direct reference to the House of Commons but effectively retained the position as it existed before the amendment, which was based on the privileges of the House of Commons at the commencement of the Constitution (26 January 1950). No comprehensive law has been enacted yet codifying all privileges. Statement 3 is incorrect. Parliamentary privileges under Article 105 are available to the members of both Houses of Parliament, those entitled to speak and take part in proceedings (like the Attorney General), and parliamentary committees. They do not extend to the President of India, even though the President is considered an integral part of Parliament (Article 79). The President enjoys separate immunities and privileges under Article 361 of the Constitution. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. Article 105(3) explicitly states that “In other respects, the powers, privileges and immunities of each House of Parliament, and of the members and the committees of each House, shall be such as may from time to time be defined by Parliament by law…”. Statement 2 is correct. Article 105(3) continues “…and, until so defined, shall be those of that House and of its members and committees immediately before the coming into force of section 15 of the Constitution (Forty-fourth Amendment) Act, 1978.” The 44th Amendment removed the direct reference to the House of Commons but effectively retained the position as it existed before the amendment, which was based on the privileges of the House of Commons at the commencement of the Constitution (26 January 1950). No comprehensive law has been enacted yet codifying all privileges. Statement 3 is incorrect. Parliamentary privileges under Article 105 are available to the members of both Houses of Parliament, those entitled to speak and take part in proceedings (like the Attorney General), and parliamentary committees. They do not extend to the President of India, even though the President is considered an integral part of Parliament (Article 79). The President enjoys separate immunities and privileges under Article 361 of the Constitution.

#### 8. Question

Which of the following statements regarding Parliamentary Privileges in India is/are correct?

• The powers, privileges, and immunities of each House of Parliament and its members are to be defined by Parliament by law, as per the Constitution.

• Until defined by Parliament, the privileges shall be those of the House of Commons of the Parliament of the United Kingdom, and of its members and committees, at the commencement of the Constitution.

• Parliamentary privileges extend to the President of India as he is an integral part of Parliament.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 1 and 2 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. Article 105(3) explicitly states that “In other respects, the powers, privileges and immunities of each House of Parliament, and of the members and the committees of each House, shall be such as may from time to time be defined by Parliament by law…”.

• Statement 2 is correct. Article 105(3) continues “…and, until so defined, shall be those of that House and of its members and committees immediately before the coming into force of section 15 of the Constitution (Forty-fourth Amendment) Act, 1978.” The 44th Amendment removed the direct reference to the House of Commons but effectively retained the position as it existed before the amendment, which was based on the privileges of the House of Commons at the commencement of the Constitution (26 January 1950). No comprehensive law has been enacted yet codifying all privileges.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. Parliamentary privileges under Article 105 are available to the members of both Houses of Parliament, those entitled to speak and take part in proceedings (like the Attorney General), and parliamentary committees. They do not extend to the President of India, even though the President is considered an integral part of Parliament (Article 79). The President enjoys separate immunities and privileges under Article 361 of the Constitution.

Solution: B

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Speaker of the Lok Sabha: Statement I: While a resolution for the removal of the Speaker is under consideration, he/she cannot preside at the sitting of the House but can speak, take part in the proceedings, and vote in the first instance, though not in the case of an equality of votes. Statement II: The Speaker decides whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, and his/her decision on this question is final and cannot be questioned in any court of law or in either House of Parliament. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I. (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I. (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect. (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct. Correct Solution: C Statement I is correct. Article 94(c) deals with the removal of the Speaker or Deputy Speaker. Article 96(1) states that at any sitting of the House of the People, while any resolution for the removal of the Speaker from his office is under consideration, the Speaker shall not preside. Article 96(2) further clarifies that the Speaker shall have the right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of, the House while any resolution for his removal is under consideration and shall be entitled to vote only in the first instance on such resolution or on any other matter during such proceedings but not in the case of an equality of votes. Statement II is incorrect. While Article 110(3) states that if any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the Speaker of the House of the People thereon shall be final, this finality is regarding the proceedings within Parliament. The Supreme Court has held in several cases that the Speaker’s decision regarding the certification of a Bill as a Money Bill is subject to judicial review, although the scope might be limited. For instance, if the decision is found to be grossly unconstitutional or mala fide, it could potentially be challenged. The finality mentioned in Article 110(3) does not completely oust judicial review on grounds of procedural irregularities that violate constitutional mandates. Incorrect Solution: C Statement I is correct. Article 94(c) deals with the removal of the Speaker or Deputy Speaker. Article 96(1) states that at any sitting of the House of the People, while any resolution for the removal of the Speaker from his office is under consideration, the Speaker shall not preside. Article 96(2) further clarifies that the Speaker shall have the right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of, the House while any resolution for his removal is under consideration and shall be entitled to vote only in the first instance on such resolution or on any other matter during such proceedings but not in the case of an equality of votes. Statement II is incorrect. While Article 110(3) states that if any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the Speaker of the House of the People thereon shall be final, this finality is regarding the proceedings within Parliament. The Supreme Court has held in several cases that the Speaker’s decision regarding the certification of a Bill as a Money Bill is subject to judicial review, although the scope might be limited. For instance, if the decision is found to be grossly unconstitutional or mala fide, it could potentially be challenged. The finality mentioned in Article 110(3) does not completely oust judicial review on grounds of procedural irregularities that violate constitutional mandates.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Speaker of the Lok Sabha:

Statement I: While a resolution for the removal of the Speaker is under consideration, he/she cannot preside at the sitting of the House but can speak, take part in the proceedings, and vote in the first instance, though not in the case of an equality of votes.

Statement II: The Speaker decides whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, and his/her decision on this question is final and cannot be questioned in any court of law or in either House of Parliament.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

Solution: C

• Statement I is correct. Article 94(c) deals with the removal of the Speaker or Deputy Speaker. Article 96(1) states that at any sitting of the House of the People, while any resolution for the removal of the Speaker from his office is under consideration, the Speaker shall not preside. Article 96(2) further clarifies that the Speaker shall have the right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of, the House while any resolution for his removal is under consideration and shall be entitled to vote only in the first instance on such resolution or on any other matter during such proceedings but not in the case of an equality of votes.

• Statement II is incorrect. While Article 110(3) states that if any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the Speaker of the House of the People thereon shall be final, this finality is regarding the proceedings within Parliament. The Supreme Court has held in several cases that the Speaker’s decision regarding the certification of a Bill as a Money Bill is subject to judicial review, although the scope might be limited. For instance, if the decision is found to be grossly unconstitutional or mala fide, it could potentially be challenged. The finality mentioned in Article 110(3) does not completely oust judicial review on grounds of procedural irregularities that violate constitutional mandates.

Solution: C

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Which of the following legislative powers is possessed by the Parliament of India but NOT by the Legislature of a State? Power to make laws on matters enumerated in the Union List. Power to make laws on matters enumerated in the Concurrent List. Power to make laws with respect to any matter for any part of the territory of India not included in a State, notwithstanding that such matter is a matter enumerated in the State List. Power to make laws on matters enumerated in the State List under specific circumstances like a resolution by Rajya Sabha or during a National Emergency. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. Parliament has exclusive power to make laws with respect to any of the matters enumerated in List I (Union List) in the Seventh Schedule (Article 246(1)). State Legislatures cannot legislate on Union List subjects. Statement 2 is incorrect. Both Parliament and the Legislature of any State have the power to make laws with respect to any of the matters enumerated in List III (Concurrent List) in the Seventh Schedule (Article 246(2)). In case of conflict, the Union law generally prevails (Article 254). So, this power is possessed by both. Statement 3 is correct. Article 246(4) explicitly grants Parliament the power to make laws with respect to any matter for any part of the territory of India not included in a State (e.g., Union Territories), notwithstanding that such matter is a matter enumerated in the State List. State Legislatures do not have this power. Statement 4 is correct. Under specific circumstances outlined in the Constitution, Parliament can legislate on matters in the State List. These include: When Rajya Sabha passes a resolution to that effect in the national interest (Article 249). During a Proclamation of National Emergency (Article 250). When two or more states request Parliament to legislate (Article 252). To implement international agreements (Article 253). During President’s Rule (Article 356). State Legislatures do not have a corresponding power to legislate on Union List matters under similar circumstances. Therefore, powers mentioned in statements 1, 3, and 4 are possessed by Parliament but not by State Legislatures under normal circumstances or corresponding provisions. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. Parliament has exclusive power to make laws with respect to any of the matters enumerated in List I (Union List) in the Seventh Schedule (Article 246(1)). State Legislatures cannot legislate on Union List subjects. Statement 2 is incorrect. Both Parliament and the Legislature of any State have the power to make laws with respect to any of the matters enumerated in List III (Concurrent List) in the Seventh Schedule (Article 246(2)). In case of conflict, the Union law generally prevails (Article 254). So, this power is possessed by both. Statement 3 is correct. Article 246(4) explicitly grants Parliament the power to make laws with respect to any matter for any part of the territory of India not included in a State (e.g., Union Territories), notwithstanding that such matter is a matter enumerated in the State List. State Legislatures do not have this power. Statement 4 is correct. Under specific circumstances outlined in the Constitution, Parliament can legislate on matters in the State List. These include: When Rajya Sabha passes a resolution to that effect in the national interest (Article 249). During a Proclamation of National Emergency (Article 250). When two or more states request Parliament to legislate (Article 252). To implement international agreements (Article 253). During President’s Rule (Article 356). State Legislatures do not have a corresponding power to legislate on Union List matters under similar circumstances. Therefore, powers mentioned in statements 1, 3, and 4 are possessed by Parliament but not by State Legislatures under normal circumstances or corresponding provisions.

#### 10. Question

Which of the following legislative powers is possessed by the Parliament of India but NOT by the Legislature of a State?

• Power to make laws on matters enumerated in the Union List.

• Power to make laws on matters enumerated in the Concurrent List.

• Power to make laws with respect to any matter for any part of the territory of India not included in a State, notwithstanding that such matter is a matter enumerated in the State List.

• Power to make laws on matters enumerated in the State List under specific circumstances like a resolution by Rajya Sabha or during a National Emergency.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 3 and 4 only

• (c) 1, 3 and 4 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct. Parliament has exclusive power to make laws with respect to any of the matters enumerated in List I (Union List) in the Seventh Schedule (Article 246(1)). State Legislatures cannot legislate on Union List subjects.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. Both Parliament and the Legislature of any State have the power to make laws with respect to any of the matters enumerated in List III (Concurrent List) in the Seventh Schedule (Article 246(2)). In case of conflict, the Union law generally prevails (Article 254). So, this power is possessed by both.

• Statement 3 is correct. Article 246(4) explicitly grants Parliament the power to make laws with respect to any matter for any part of the territory of India not included in a State (e.g., Union Territories), notwithstanding that such matter is a matter enumerated in the State List. State Legislatures do not have this power.

• Statement 4 is correct. Under specific circumstances outlined in the Constitution, Parliament can legislate on matters in the State List. These include: When Rajya Sabha passes a resolution to that effect in the national interest (Article 249). During a Proclamation of National Emergency (Article 250). When two or more states request Parliament to legislate (Article 252). To implement international agreements (Article 253). During President’s Rule (Article 356). State Legislatures do not have a corresponding power to legislate on Union List matters under similar circumstances.

• When Rajya Sabha passes a resolution to that effect in the national interest (Article 249).

• During a Proclamation of National Emergency (Article 250).

• When two or more states request Parliament to legislate (Article 252).

• To implement international agreements (Article 253).

• During President’s Rule (Article 356). State Legislatures do not have a corresponding power to legislate on Union List matters under similar circumstances.

Therefore, powers mentioned in statements 1, 3, and 4 are possessed by Parliament but not by State Legislatures under normal circumstances or corresponding provisions.

Solution: C

• When Rajya Sabha passes a resolution to that effect in the national interest (Article 249).

• During a Proclamation of National Emergency (Article 250).

• When two or more states request Parliament to legislate (Article 252).

• To implement international agreements (Article 253).

• During President’s Rule (Article 356). State Legislatures do not have a corresponding power to legislate on Union List matters under similar circumstances.

Therefore, powers mentioned in statements 1, 3, and 4 are possessed by Parliament but not by State Legislatures under normal circumstances or corresponding provisions.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Autonomous districts can be organised and reorganised by the State Governor only. Autonomous District Councils (ADC) consist of members elected on the basis of adult franchise ADCs, within their territorial jurisdiction, can make laws on village administration. These are empowered to constitute courts for hearing appeals from tribals. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution : B The representatives of states in the Rajya Sabha are elected by elected members of state legislative assemblies The election is held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote. The representatives of each Union territory in the Rajya Sabha are indirectly elected by members of an electoral college specially constituted for purpose the election is held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of Single Transferable Vote only Delhi and Puducherry have representation in the Rajya Sabha. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct Seats are allotted to the states in the Rajya Sabha on the basis of population Hence the number of representatives varies from state to state In case of Lok Sabha, election each state is allotted a number of seats in the Lok Sabha in such a manner that the ratio between that number and its population is same for all states. Hence statement 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution : B The representatives of states in the Rajya Sabha are elected by elected members of state legislative assemblies The election is held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote. The representatives of each Union territory in the Rajya Sabha are indirectly elected by members of an electoral college specially constituted for purpose the election is held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of Single Transferable Vote only Delhi and Puducherry have representation in the Rajya Sabha. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct Seats are allotted to the states in the Rajya Sabha on the basis of population Hence the number of representatives varies from state to state In case of Lok Sabha, election each state is allotted a number of seats in the Lok Sabha in such a manner that the ratio between that number and its population is same for all states. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

#### 11. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Autonomous districts can be organised and reorganised by the State Governor only.

• Autonomous District Councils (ADC) consist of members elected on the basis of adult franchise

• ADCs, within their territorial jurisdiction, can make laws on village administration.

• These are empowered to constitute courts for hearing appeals from tribals.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution : B

• The representatives of states in the Rajya Sabha are elected by elected members of state legislative assemblies

• The election is held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.

• The representatives of each Union territory in the Rajya Sabha are indirectly elected by members of an electoral college specially constituted for purpose

• the election is held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of Single Transferable Vote

• only Delhi and Puducherry have representation in the Rajya Sabha.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

• Seats are allotted to the states in the Rajya Sabha on the basis of population

• Hence the number of representatives varies from state to state

• In case of Lok Sabha, election each state is allotted a number of seats in the Lok Sabha in such a manner that the ratio between that number and its population is same for all states.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution : B

• The representatives of states in the Rajya Sabha are elected by elected members of state legislative assemblies

• The election is held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.

• The representatives of each Union territory in the Rajya Sabha are indirectly elected by members of an electoral college specially constituted for purpose

• the election is held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of Single Transferable Vote

• only Delhi and Puducherry have representation in the Rajya Sabha.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

• Seats are allotted to the states in the Rajya Sabha on the basis of population

• Hence the number of representatives varies from state to state

• In case of Lok Sabha, election each state is allotted a number of seats in the Lok Sabha in such a manner that the ratio between that number and its population is same for all states.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : Statement – I : Under constitutional provisions, Floor Test can be conducted only by the Governor. Statement – II : A Floor Test is a mechanism by which the Chief Minister appointed by the Governor is asked to prove majority on the floor of Legislative Assembly of the state. Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ? (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II correctly explains Statement -I (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct Correct Solution : D A Floor Test is primarily conducted to know whether the executive enjoys confidence of the Legislature by proving his majority This voting process occurs state legislative assembly when the Governor asked the Chief Minister (appointed by him under article 164) to prove his majority on the floor of the Legislative Assembly of the state. In case the majority is questioned, the leader of the party which forms majority, has to move a vote of confidence and prove majority among those present and voting The chief minister has to resign if they fail to prove their majority in the House Following the vote, the person who has the majority will be allowed to form the government When the House is in session, it is the speaker who can call for a floor test but when the Assembly is not in session, the residuary power of the Governor under article 163 allows him to call for a floor test. Hence statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct Incorrect Solution : D A Floor Test is primarily conducted to know whether the executive enjoys confidence of the Legislature by proving his majority This voting process occurs state legislative assembly when the Governor asked the Chief Minister (appointed by him under article 164) to prove his majority on the floor of the Legislative Assembly of the state. In case the majority is questioned, the leader of the party which forms majority, has to move a vote of confidence and prove majority among those present and voting The chief minister has to resign if they fail to prove their majority in the House Following the vote, the person who has the majority will be allowed to form the government When the House is in session, it is the speaker who can call for a floor test but when the Assembly is not in session, the residuary power of the Governor under article 163 allows him to call for a floor test. Hence statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct

#### 12. Question

Consider the following statements :

Statement – I :

Under constitutional provisions, Floor Test can be conducted only by the Governor.

Statement – II :

A Floor Test is a mechanism by which the Chief Minister appointed by the Governor is asked to prove majority on the floor of Legislative Assembly of the state.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?

• (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II correctly explains Statement -I

• (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I

• (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect

• (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct

Solution : D

• A Floor Test is primarily conducted to know whether the executive enjoys confidence of the Legislature by proving his majority

• This voting process occurs state legislative assembly when the Governor asked the Chief Minister (appointed by him under article 164) to prove his majority on the floor of the Legislative Assembly of the state.

• In case the majority is questioned, the leader of the party which forms majority, has to move a vote of confidence and prove majority among those present and voting

• The chief minister has to resign if they fail to prove their majority in the House

• Following the vote, the person who has the majority will be allowed to form the government

• When the House is in session, it is the speaker who can call for a floor test but when the Assembly is not in session, the residuary power of the Governor under article 163 allows him to call for a floor test.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct

Solution : D

• A Floor Test is primarily conducted to know whether the executive enjoys confidence of the Legislature by proving his majority

• In case the majority is questioned, the leader of the party which forms majority, has to move a vote of confidence and prove majority among those present and voting

• The chief minister has to resign if they fail to prove their majority in the House

• Following the vote, the person who has the majority will be allowed to form the government

Hence statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about No-trust motion: A No trust motion deals with removal of the Chairperson of Rajya Sabha. A No trust motion should be submitted with at least 14 days notice. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C A No Trust Motion is a procedural tool to express lack of confidence in the presiding officer of a House. It is aimed at holding leaders accountable and promoting parliamentary integrity Article 67b deals with removal of Vice-president and chairman of Rajya Sabha; Article 90 deals with removal of Deputy chairperson of Rajya Sabha. A No trust motion must be submitted with at least 14 days prior notice ; It requires a majority of votes in the Rajya Sabha to be passed The motion must also be approved by the Lok Sabha for removal. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct Incorrect Solution: C A No Trust Motion is a procedural tool to express lack of confidence in the presiding officer of a House. It is aimed at holding leaders accountable and promoting parliamentary integrity Article 67b deals with removal of Vice-president and chairman of Rajya Sabha; Article 90 deals with removal of Deputy chairperson of Rajya Sabha. A No trust motion must be submitted with at least 14 days prior notice ; It requires a majority of votes in the Rajya Sabha to be passed The motion must also be approved by the Lok Sabha for removal. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

#### 13. Question

Consider the following statements about No-trust motion:

• A No trust motion deals with removal of the Chairperson of Rajya Sabha.

• A No trust motion should be submitted with at least 14 days notice.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

• A No Trust Motion is a procedural tool to express lack of confidence in the presiding officer of a House.

• It is aimed at holding leaders accountable and promoting parliamentary integrity

• Article 67b deals with removal of Vice-president and chairman of Rajya Sabha; Article 90 deals with removal of Deputy chairperson of Rajya Sabha.

• A No trust motion must be submitted with at least 14 days prior notice ;

• It requires a majority of votes in the Rajya Sabha to be passed

• The motion must also be approved by the Lok Sabha for removal.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

Solution: C

• A No Trust Motion is a procedural tool to express lack of confidence in the presiding officer of a House.

• It is aimed at holding leaders accountable and promoting parliamentary integrity

• Article 67b deals with removal of Vice-president and chairman of Rajya Sabha; Article 90 deals with removal of Deputy chairperson of Rajya Sabha.

• A No trust motion must be submitted with at least 14 days prior notice ;

• It requires a majority of votes in the Rajya Sabha to be passed

• The motion must also be approved by the Lok Sabha for removal.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : Statement – I : In the Krishna Kumar Singh v. State of Bihar 2017 case, the Supreme Court held that satisfaction of the president in promulgation of ordinance is beyond judicial review. Statement – II : The president can promulgate an ordinance under Article 123 only on advise of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister. Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ? (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct Correct Solution : D In the Krishna Kumar Singh v. State of Bihar 2017, a 7 judge bench of the supreme court held that satisfaction of the president under article 123 is not immune from judicial scrutiny and not a parallel source of law making or an independent legislative authority It also reiterated that the governor’s power to issue and ordinance is in the true nature of an emergency power; repeated re-promulgations without bringing the ordinance to the legislature would be unconstitutional. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The ordinance making power of the president is not a discretionary power He can promulgate or withdraw an ordinance only on advise of Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister. Hence statement 2 is correct Incorrect Solution : D In the Krishna Kumar Singh v. State of Bihar 2017, a 7 judge bench of the supreme court held that satisfaction of the president under article 123 is not immune from judicial scrutiny and not a parallel source of law making or an independent legislative authority It also reiterated that the governor’s power to issue and ordinance is in the true nature of an emergency power; repeated re-promulgations without bringing the ordinance to the legislature would be unconstitutional. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The ordinance making power of the president is not a discretionary power He can promulgate or withdraw an ordinance only on advise of Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister. Hence statement 2 is correct

#### 14. Question

Consider the following statements :

Statement – I :

In the Krishna Kumar Singh v. State of Bihar 2017 case, the Supreme Court held that satisfaction of the president in promulgation of ordinance is beyond judicial review.

Statement – II :

The president can promulgate an ordinance under Article 123 only on advise of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?

• (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I

• (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I

• (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect

• (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct

Solution : D

• In the Krishna Kumar Singh v. State of Bihar 2017, a 7 judge bench of the supreme court held that satisfaction of the president under article 123 is not immune from judicial scrutiny and not a parallel source of law making or an independent legislative authority

• It also reiterated that the governor’s power to issue and ordinance is in the true nature of an emergency power; repeated re-promulgations without bringing the ordinance to the legislature would be unconstitutional.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The ordinance making power of the president is not a discretionary power

• He can promulgate or withdraw an ordinance only on advise of Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Solution : D

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The ordinance making power of the president is not a discretionary power

• He can promulgate or withdraw an ordinance only on advise of Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Parliamentary Committee on Official Language (PCOL) : It was constituted under Official Languages Act 1963. The members are elected from both Houses of the Parliament by proportional representation by single transferable vote. It is chaired by the Prime Minister of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 3 only Correct Solution: C The Parliamentary Committee on Official Language was constituted in 1976 under Section 4 of the Official Language Act 1963. It comprises 30 members (20 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha) The members are elected by a proportional representation by single transferable vote. The committee reviews the progress of Hindi usage for official purposes and Submits recommendation to the president. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct Recently the Union Home Minister and Minister of Cooperation Amit Shah has been re-elected as chairperson of the Parliamentary Committee on Official Language. Hence statement 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: C The Parliamentary Committee on Official Language was constituted in 1976 under Section 4 of the Official Language Act 1963. It comprises 30 members (20 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha) The members are elected by a proportional representation by single transferable vote. The committee reviews the progress of Hindi usage for official purposes and Submits recommendation to the president. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct Recently the Union Home Minister and Minister of Cooperation Amit Shah has been re-elected as chairperson of the Parliamentary Committee on Official Language. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

#### 15. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Parliamentary Committee on Official Language (PCOL) :

• It was constituted under Official Languages Act 1963.

• The members are elected from both Houses of the Parliament by proportional representation by single transferable vote.

• It is chaired by the Prime Minister of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) 1 and 2 only

• (d) 3 only

Solution: C

• The Parliamentary Committee on Official Language was constituted in 1976 under Section 4 of the Official Language Act 1963.

• It comprises 30 members (20 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha)

• The members are elected by a proportional representation by single transferable vote.

• The committee reviews the progress of Hindi usage for official purposes and Submits recommendation to the president.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

• Recently the Union Home Minister and Minister of Cooperation Amit Shah has been re-elected as chairperson of the Parliamentary Committee on Official Language.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution: C

• The Parliamentary Committee on Official Language was constituted in 1976 under Section 4 of the Official Language Act 1963.

• It comprises 30 members (20 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha)

• The members are elected by a proportional representation by single transferable vote.

• The committee reviews the progress of Hindi usage for official purposes and Submits recommendation to the president.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

• Recently the Union Home Minister and Minister of Cooperation Amit Shah has been re-elected as chairperson of the Parliamentary Committee on Official Language.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following expenses of the Government of India : Expenses related to presidents office Salary of High Court judges Salary of deputy speaker of Lok Sabha Pension of members of UPSC Which of the above are classified as ‘charged expenditure’ upon the Consolidated Fund of India? (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution : A The budget consists of two types of expenditure the expenditure charged upon the consolidated fund of India and the expenditure made from the consolidated fund of India the charged expenditure is non portable by the Parliament and hence it can only be discussed the charged expenditure includes : Emoluments and allowances of president and expenditure related to his office Salaries and allowances of Chairman and Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha and speaker and Deputy speaker of Lok Sabha Salaries and pensions of Supreme Court judges Pensions of judges of High Court Salary, allowances and pension of CAG Salaries, allowances and pension of Chairman and members of UPSC Administrative expenses of Supreme Court CAG UPSC Debt charges for which the government is liable including interest expenditures related to raising of loans and service and redemption of debt Any sum required to satisfy any judgement, decree or award of any Court or Tribunal Hence options 1, 3 and 4 are correct The salaries, allowances of judges and salaries, allowances and pensions of the staff and administrative expenses of High court are charged on the Consolidated Fund of the state. Hence options 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution : A The budget consists of two types of expenditure the expenditure charged upon the consolidated fund of India and the expenditure made from the consolidated fund of India the charged expenditure is non portable by the Parliament and hence it can only be discussed the charged expenditure includes : Emoluments and allowances of president and expenditure related to his office Salaries and allowances of Chairman and Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha and speaker and Deputy speaker of Lok Sabha Salaries and pensions of Supreme Court judges Pensions of judges of High Court Salary, allowances and pension of CAG Salaries, allowances and pension of Chairman and members of UPSC Administrative expenses of Supreme Court CAG UPSC Debt charges for which the government is liable including interest expenditures related to raising of loans and service and redemption of debt Any sum required to satisfy any judgement, decree or award of any Court or Tribunal Hence options 1, 3 and 4 are correct The salaries, allowances of judges and salaries, allowances and pensions of the staff and administrative expenses of High court are charged on the Consolidated Fund of the state. Hence options 2 is incorrect

#### 16. Question

Consider the following expenses of the Government of India :

• Expenses related to presidents office

• Salary of High Court judges

• Salary of deputy speaker of Lok Sabha

• Pension of members of UPSC

Which of the above are classified as ‘charged expenditure’ upon the Consolidated Fund of India?

• (a) 1, 3 and 4

• (b) 2 and 4

• (c) 1, 2 and 3

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution : A

The budget consists of two types of expenditure the expenditure charged upon the consolidated fund of India and the expenditure made from the consolidated fund of India the charged expenditure is non portable by the Parliament and hence it can only be discussed the charged expenditure includes :

• Emoluments and allowances of president and expenditure related to his office

• Salaries and allowances of Chairman and Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha and speaker and Deputy speaker of Lok Sabha

• Salaries and pensions of Supreme Court judges

• Pensions of judges of High Court

• Salary, allowances and pension of CAG

• Salaries, allowances and pension of Chairman and members of UPSC

• Administrative expenses of Supreme Court CAG UPSC

• Debt charges for which the government is liable including interest expenditures related to raising of loans and service and redemption of debt

• Any sum required to satisfy any judgement, decree or award of any Court or Tribunal

Hence options 1, 3 and 4 are correct

• The salaries, allowances of judges and salaries, allowances and pensions of the staff and administrative expenses of High court are charged on the Consolidated Fund of the state.

Hence options 2 is incorrect

Solution : A

• Emoluments and allowances of president and expenditure related to his office

• Salaries and allowances of Chairman and Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha and speaker and Deputy speaker of Lok Sabha

• Salaries and pensions of Supreme Court judges

• Pensions of judges of High Court

• Salary, allowances and pension of CAG

• Salaries, allowances and pension of Chairman and members of UPSC

• Administrative expenses of Supreme Court CAG UPSC

• Debt charges for which the government is liable including interest expenditures related to raising of loans and service and redemption of debt

• Any sum required to satisfy any judgement, decree or award of any Court or Tribunal

Hence options 1, 3 and 4 are correct

• The salaries, allowances of judges and salaries, allowances and pensions of the staff and administrative expenses of High court are charged on the Consolidated Fund of the state.

Hence options 2 is incorrect

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Lok Sabha : Unlike the elected office of Deputy Speaker, the Speaker Pro Tem is selected by the president. Unlike the Deputy Speaker which is a permanent office, the Speaker Pro Tem acts as the Speaker when the latter is absent from sitting of the house. Neither Deputy Speaker nor Speaker Pro Tem is empowered to preside over joint sitting of the Houses of the Parliament in absence of the speaker. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A The Deputy Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members; the election is done after election of the speaker has taken place. The Speaker Pro Tem is a temporary office; he is chosen by the president from the members of the Lok Sabha; usually the seniormost member is selected as the Speaker Pro Tem. Hence statement 1 is correct The Pro Tem speaker is a temporary office; he presides over initial proceedings of the House ;he is appointed by the president before first session of a new Lok Sabha and the office ceases to exist when the new speaker is elected by the house. On the other hand, the Deputy Speaker performs duties of the Speaker’s office when it is vacant and also acts as the speaker when the Speaker is absent from sitting of the House. Hence statement 2 is incorrect The Speaker Pro Tem is a temporary office before election of the speaker; it ceases to exist when the normal sitting of Lok Sabha begins after election. The Deputy Speaker presides over joint sitting of both houses of the Parliament in case the speaker is absent from such a sitting Hence statement 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: A The Deputy Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members; the election is done after election of the speaker has taken place. The Speaker Pro Tem is a temporary office; he is chosen by the president from the members of the Lok Sabha; usually the seniormost member is selected as the Speaker Pro Tem. Hence statement 1 is correct The Pro Tem speaker is a temporary office; he presides over initial proceedings of the House ;he is appointed by the president before first session of a new Lok Sabha and the office ceases to exist when the new speaker is elected by the house. On the other hand, the Deputy Speaker performs duties of the Speaker’s office when it is vacant and also acts as the speaker when the Speaker is absent from sitting of the House. Hence statement 2 is incorrect The Speaker Pro Tem is a temporary office before election of the speaker; it ceases to exist when the normal sitting of Lok Sabha begins after election. The Deputy Speaker presides over joint sitting of both houses of the Parliament in case the speaker is absent from such a sitting Hence statement 3 is incorrect

#### 17. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Lok Sabha :

• Unlike the elected office of Deputy Speaker, the Speaker Pro Tem is selected by the president.

• Unlike the Deputy Speaker which is a permanent office, the Speaker Pro Tem acts as the Speaker when the latter is absent from sitting of the house.

• Neither Deputy Speaker nor Speaker Pro Tem is empowered to preside over joint sitting of the Houses of the Parliament in absence of the speaker.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• The Deputy Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members; the election is done after election of the speaker has taken place.

• The Speaker Pro Tem is a temporary office; he is chosen by the president from the members of the Lok Sabha; usually the seniormost member is selected as the Speaker Pro Tem.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The Pro Tem speaker is a temporary office; he presides over initial proceedings of the House ;he is appointed by the president before first session of a new Lok Sabha and the office ceases to exist when the new speaker is elected by the house.

• On the other hand, the Deputy Speaker performs duties of the Speaker’s office when it is vacant and also acts as the speaker when the Speaker is absent from sitting of the House.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• The Speaker Pro Tem is a temporary office before election of the speaker; it ceases to exist when the normal sitting of Lok Sabha begins after election.

• The Deputy Speaker presides over joint sitting of both houses of the Parliament in case the speaker is absent from such a sitting

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution: A

• The Deputy Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members; the election is done after election of the speaker has taken place.

• The Speaker Pro Tem is a temporary office; he is chosen by the president from the members of the Lok Sabha; usually the seniormost member is selected as the Speaker Pro Tem.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• On the other hand, the Deputy Speaker performs duties of the Speaker’s office when it is vacant and also acts as the speaker when the Speaker is absent from sitting of the House.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• The Speaker Pro Tem is a temporary office before election of the speaker; it ceases to exist when the normal sitting of Lok Sabha begins after election.

• The Deputy Speaker presides over joint sitting of both houses of the Parliament in case the speaker is absent from such a sitting

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : All members of a municipality are directly elected. All members of a municipality shall be above 25 years of age. All provisions with respect to matters relating to elections to the municipalities are made by the state legislature. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The 74th Amendment Act of 1992 added a new part IX-A to the constitution entitled as the Municipalities. It has added the Twelfth schedule to the constitution which contains functional items of municipalities. All the members of a municipality are directly elected by the people of the Municipal area For this purpose each Municipal area is divided into territorial constituencies known as wards. The state legislature provides the manner of election of the chairperson of a municipality. The state legislature can make provision with respect to all matters relating to elections to the municipalities. Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct No person shall be disqualified to be elected as a member of the municipality on the ground that he/she is less than 25 years of age if he/she has attend 21 years. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: B The 74th Amendment Act of 1992 added a new part IX-A to the constitution entitled as the Municipalities. It has added the Twelfth schedule to the constitution which contains functional items of municipalities. All the members of a municipality are directly elected by the people of the Municipal area For this purpose each Municipal area is divided into territorial constituencies known as wards. The state legislature provides the manner of election of the chairperson of a municipality. The state legislature can make provision with respect to all matters relating to elections to the municipalities. Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct No person shall be disqualified to be elected as a member of the municipality on the ground that he/she is less than 25 years of age if he/she has attend 21 years. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

#### 18. Question

Consider the following statements :

• All members of a municipality are directly elected.

• All members of a municipality shall be above 25 years of age.

• All provisions with respect to matters relating to elections to the municipalities are made by the state legislature.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

The 74th Amendment Act of 1992 added a new part IX-A to the constitution entitled as the Municipalities. It has added the Twelfth schedule to the constitution which contains functional items of municipalities.

• All the members of a municipality are directly elected by the people of the Municipal area

• For this purpose each Municipal area is divided into territorial constituencies known as wards.

• The state legislature provides the manner of election of the chairperson of a municipality.

• The state legislature can make provision with respect to all matters relating to elections to the municipalities.

Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct

• No person shall be disqualified to be elected as a member of the municipality on the ground that he/she is less than 25 years of age if he/she has attend 21 years.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Solution: B

• All the members of a municipality are directly elected by the people of the Municipal area

• For this purpose each Municipal area is divided into territorial constituencies known as wards.

• The state legislature provides the manner of election of the chairperson of a municipality.

• The state legislature can make provision with respect to all matters relating to elections to the municipalities.

Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct

• No person shall be disqualified to be elected as a member of the municipality on the ground that he/she is less than 25 years of age if he/she has attend 21 years.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Consider the following : Selection of Chief Minister Consideration of the report of CAG Passage of ordinary bill In how many of the above matters, powers and status of Legislative Council are equal to the Legislative Assembly? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution : B In the following matters, power and status of the Council are broadly equal to that of the assembly : Introduction and passage of ordinary bills; however in case of disagreement between the Houses, the Assembly prevails over the Council. Approval of ordinances issued by the governor Selection of ministers including the chief minister. Under the Constitution, the Chief Minister or other ministers can be member of either House of the state legislature. Consideration of reports of constitutional bodies like state finance commission, state PSC and Comptroller and Auditor General of India. Enlargement of jurisdiction of state PSC. Hence options 1 and 2 are correct Unequal with Assembly : Introduction of money bill; also, the council cannot amend or rejection a money bill. The final power of passing an ordinary bill also lies with the Assembly ; maximum, the council can detain or delay the bill for a period of 4 months. Hence option 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution : B In the following matters, power and status of the Council are broadly equal to that of the assembly : Introduction and passage of ordinary bills; however in case of disagreement between the Houses, the Assembly prevails over the Council. Approval of ordinances issued by the governor Selection of ministers including the chief minister. Under the Constitution, the Chief Minister or other ministers can be member of either House of the state legislature. Consideration of reports of constitutional bodies like state finance commission, state PSC and Comptroller and Auditor General of India. Enlargement of jurisdiction of state PSC. Hence options 1 and 2 are correct Unequal with Assembly : Introduction of money bill; also, the council cannot amend or rejection a money bill. The final power of passing an ordinary bill also lies with the Assembly ; maximum, the council can detain or delay the bill for a period of 4 months. Hence option 3 is incorrect

#### 19. Question

Consider the following :

• Selection of Chief Minister

• Consideration of the report of CAG

• Passage of ordinary bill

In how many of the above matters, powers and status of Legislative Council are equal to the Legislative Assembly?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution : B

In the following matters, power and status of the Council are broadly equal to that of the assembly :

• Introduction and passage of ordinary bills; however in case of disagreement between the Houses, the Assembly prevails over the Council.

• Approval of ordinances issued by the governor

• Selection of ministers including the chief minister. Under the Constitution, the Chief Minister or other ministers can be member of either House of the state legislature.

• Consideration of reports of constitutional bodies like state finance commission, state PSC and Comptroller and Auditor General of India.

• Enlargement of jurisdiction of state PSC.

Hence options 1 and 2 are correct

Unequal with Assembly :

• Introduction of money bill; also, the council cannot amend or rejection a money bill.

• The final power of passing an ordinary bill also lies with the Assembly ; maximum, the council can detain or delay the bill for a period of 4 months.

Hence option 3 is incorrect

Solution : B

In the following matters, power and status of the Council are broadly equal to that of the assembly :

• Introduction and passage of ordinary bills; however in case of disagreement between the Houses, the Assembly prevails over the Council.

• Approval of ordinances issued by the governor

• Selection of ministers including the chief minister. Under the Constitution, the Chief Minister or other ministers can be member of either House of the state legislature.

• Consideration of reports of constitutional bodies like state finance commission, state PSC and Comptroller and Auditor General of India.

• Enlargement of jurisdiction of state PSC.

Hence options 1 and 2 are correct

Unequal with Assembly :

• Introduction of money bill; also, the council cannot amend or rejection a money bill.

• The final power of passing an ordinary bill also lies with the Assembly ; maximum, the council can detain or delay the bill for a period of 4 months.

Hence option 3 is incorrect

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : The Speaker of Lok Sabha determines the sitting arrangement in the House based on proportionate strength of parties. The number of seats in each row for a party is obtained by dividing the Total number of seats in the chamber divided by strength of the party. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A The systematic allocation of seats for members of Parliament in the Lok Sabha chamber reflectz the strength of parties and promotes organised conduct of proceedings. It is governed by Rule 4 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha The Speaker provides the Framework for seat allocation. Seats are allocated based on proportionate strength of parties. Hence statement 1 is correct The following formula is applied to decide allotment of seats for parties that have a strength of 5 or more members in the house : Number of seats in each row for a party or group =(Strength of the party or group x Seats available in that row) ÷ Total seats in the chamber Hence statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: A The systematic allocation of seats for members of Parliament in the Lok Sabha chamber reflectz the strength of parties and promotes organised conduct of proceedings. It is governed by Rule 4 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha The Speaker provides the Framework for seat allocation. Seats are allocated based on proportionate strength of parties. Hence statement 1 is correct The following formula is applied to decide allotment of seats for parties that have a strength of 5 or more members in the house : Number of seats in each row for a party or group =(Strength of the party or group x Seats available in that row) ÷ Total seats in the chamber Hence statement 2 is incorrect

#### 20. Question

Consider the following statements :

• The Speaker of Lok Sabha determines the sitting arrangement in the House based on proportionate strength of parties.

• The number of seats in each row for a party is obtained by dividing the Total number of seats in the chamber divided by strength of the party.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

• The systematic allocation of seats for members of Parliament in the Lok Sabha chamber reflectz the strength of parties and promotes organised conduct of proceedings.

• It is governed by Rule 4 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha

• The Speaker provides the Framework for seat allocation.

• Seats are allocated based on proportionate strength of parties.

Hence statement 1 is correct

The following formula is applied to decide allotment of seats for parties that have a strength of 5 or more members in the house :

Number of seats in each row for a party or group =(Strength of the party or group x Seats available in that row) ÷ Total seats in the chamber

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Solution: A

• The systematic allocation of seats for members of Parliament in the Lok Sabha chamber reflectz the strength of parties and promotes organised conduct of proceedings.

• It is governed by Rule 4 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha

• The Speaker provides the Framework for seat allocation.

• Seats are allocated based on proportionate strength of parties.

Hence statement 1 is correct

The following formula is applied to decide allotment of seats for parties that have a strength of 5 or more members in the house :

Number of seats in each row for a party or group =(Strength of the party or group x Seats available in that row) ÷ Total seats in the chamber

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points With reference to Guillain-Barré Syndrome (GBS), consider the following statements: GBS is an autoimmune condition where the body’s immune system targets the central nervous system. There is no known cure for GBS, but treatments like intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG) can support recovery. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution : B Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. GBS affects the peripheral nervous system (PNS), not the central nervous system (CNS). It is an autoimmune neurological disorder where the immune system mistakenly attacks nerves outside the brain and spinal cord, leading to muscle weakness, tingling, or even paralysis. Bickerstaff’s Brainstem Encephalitis (BBE) is a rare, serious variant of GBS that involves brainstem dysfunction, often presenting with impaired consciousness and ataxia, and may mimic stroke-like symptoms. Statement 3 is correct. There is no definitive cure for GBS, but treatments such as IVIG and plasmapheresis (plasma exchange) can reduce immune system attack and improve recovery chances. Hence, only statements 2 is correct. Incorrect Solution : B Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. GBS affects the peripheral nervous system (PNS), not the central nervous system (CNS). It is an autoimmune neurological disorder where the immune system mistakenly attacks nerves outside the brain and spinal cord, leading to muscle weakness, tingling, or even paralysis. Bickerstaff’s Brainstem Encephalitis (BBE) is a rare, serious variant of GBS that involves brainstem dysfunction, often presenting with impaired consciousness and ataxia, and may mimic stroke-like symptoms. Statement 3 is correct. There is no definitive cure for GBS, but treatments such as IVIG and plasmapheresis (plasma exchange) can reduce immune system attack and improve recovery chances. Hence, only statements 2 is correct.

#### 21. Question

With reference to Guillain-Barré Syndrome (GBS), consider the following statements:

• GBS is an autoimmune condition where the body’s immune system targets the central nervous system.

• There is no known cure for GBS, but treatments like intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG) can support recovery.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : B

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. GBS affects the peripheral nervous system (PNS), not the central nervous system (CNS). It is an autoimmune neurological disorder where the immune system mistakenly attacks nerves outside the brain and spinal cord, leading to muscle weakness, tingling, or even paralysis.

• Bickerstaff’s Brainstem Encephalitis (BBE) is a rare, serious variant of GBS that involves brainstem dysfunction, often presenting with impaired consciousness and ataxia, and may mimic stroke-like symptoms.

Statement 3 is correct. There is no definitive cure for GBS, but treatments such as IVIG and plasmapheresis (plasma exchange) can reduce immune system attack and improve recovery chances. Hence, only statements 2 is correct.

Solution : B

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Under Article 263, which of the following functions may be assigned to the Inter-State Council? Adjudicating inter-state water disputes Inquiring into and advising upon inter-state disputes Recommending coordination of policy and action on matters of common interest Investigating subjects where both Union and States are interested How many of the above functions are correctly assigned under Article 263? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution : C Explanation: Article 263 of the Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of an Inter-State Council if it appears to the President that it would serve the public interest. As per Article 263, the Inter-State Council may be assigned the following functions: Inquiring into and advising upon disputes which may have arisen between States. Investigating and discussing subjects in which some or all of the States or the Union and one or more of the States have a common interest. Making recommendations for better coordination of policy and action on matters of common interest. However, adjudication of inter-state water disputes falls under Article 262, which allows Parliament to provide a separate adjudicatory mechanism and bars the jurisdiction of courts in such disputes. Therefore, only 3 of the 4 listed functions are correctly assigned under Article 263. Incorrect Solution : C Explanation: Article 263 of the Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of an Inter-State Council if it appears to the President that it would serve the public interest. As per Article 263, the Inter-State Council may be assigned the following functions: Inquiring into and advising upon disputes which may have arisen between States. Investigating and discussing subjects in which some or all of the States or the Union and one or more of the States have a common interest. Making recommendations for better coordination of policy and action on matters of common interest. However, adjudication of inter-state water disputes falls under Article 262, which allows Parliament to provide a separate adjudicatory mechanism and bars the jurisdiction of courts in such disputes. Therefore, only 3 of the 4 listed functions are correctly assigned under Article 263.

#### 22. Question

Under Article 263, which of the following functions may be assigned to the Inter-State Council?

• Adjudicating inter-state water disputes

• Inquiring into and advising upon inter-state disputes

• Recommending coordination of policy and action on matters of common interest

• Investigating subjects where both Union and States are interested

How many of the above functions are correctly assigned under Article 263?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution : C

Explanation:

Article 263 of the Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of an Inter-State Council if it appears to the President that it would serve the public interest.

As per Article 263, the Inter-State Council may be assigned the following functions:

• Inquiring into and advising upon disputes which may have arisen between States.

• Investigating and discussing subjects in which some or all of the States or the Union and one or more of the States have a common interest.

• Making recommendations for better coordination of policy and action on matters of common interest.

However, adjudication of inter-state water disputes falls under Article 262, which allows Parliament to provide a separate adjudicatory mechanism and bars the jurisdiction of courts in such disputes.

Therefore, only 3 of the 4 listed functions are correctly assigned under Article 263.

Solution : C

Explanation:

Article 263 of the Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of an Inter-State Council if it appears to the President that it would serve the public interest.

As per Article 263, the Inter-State Council may be assigned the following functions:

• Inquiring into and advising upon disputes which may have arisen between States.

• Investigating and discussing subjects in which some or all of the States or the Union and one or more of the States have a common interest.

• Making recommendations for better coordination of policy and action on matters of common interest.

Therefore, only 3 of the 4 listed functions are correctly assigned under Article 263.

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points The Jeddah Commitments, recently in the news, are most appropriately related to which of the following global concerns? (a) Standardization of e-mobility platforms for green logistics (b) Coordinated response against pandemic threats arising from zoonotic spillovers (c) Strengthening international governance to combat antimicrobial resistance (d) Joint targets for reducing methane emissions from agriculture and livestock Correct Solution : C Explanation: The Jeddah Commitments represent a policy outcome of the Fourth Global High-Level Ministerial Conference on Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR). It signals a growing global consensus on the need for intergovernmental action to address the rising threat of drug-resistant pathogens, especially in the context of One Health—an integrated approach linking human, animal, and environmental health. The commitments focus on improving surveillance, promoting responsible antimicrobial use, and enhancing international collaboration. This initiative builds upon previous WHO-led frameworks but distinguishes itself by being hosted in a West Asian country, reflecting growing regional involvement. Hence, the correct answer is (c). Incorrect Solution : C Explanation: The Jeddah Commitments represent a policy outcome of the Fourth Global High-Level Ministerial Conference on Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR). It signals a growing global consensus on the need for intergovernmental action to address the rising threat of drug-resistant pathogens, especially in the context of One Health—an integrated approach linking human, animal, and environmental health. The commitments focus on improving surveillance, promoting responsible antimicrobial use, and enhancing international collaboration. This initiative builds upon previous WHO-led frameworks but distinguishes itself by being hosted in a West Asian country, reflecting growing regional involvement. Hence, the correct answer is (c).

#### 23. Question

The Jeddah Commitments, recently in the news, are most appropriately related to which of the following global concerns?

• (a) Standardization of e-mobility platforms for green logistics

• (b) Coordinated response against pandemic threats arising from zoonotic spillovers

• (c) Strengthening international governance to combat antimicrobial resistance

• (d) Joint targets for reducing methane emissions from agriculture and livestock

Solution : C

Explanation: The Jeddah Commitments represent a policy outcome of the Fourth Global High-Level Ministerial Conference on Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR). It signals a growing global consensus on the need for intergovernmental action to address the rising threat of drug-resistant pathogens, especially in the context of One Health—an integrated approach linking human, animal, and environmental health. The commitments focus on improving surveillance, promoting responsible antimicrobial use, and enhancing international collaboration. This initiative builds upon previous WHO-led frameworks but distinguishes itself by being hosted in a West Asian country, reflecting growing regional involvement. Hence, the correct answer is (c).

Solution : C

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points With reference to the “One Nation, One Subscription (ONOS)” scheme, consider the following statements: It aims to ensure universal access to high-impact international research journals for institutions across India. The implementation is coordinated by the UGC through its autonomous centre based in Hyderabad. The scheme extends to both centrally funded research institutions and the state government-managed institutions. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution : B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. The ONOS scheme was approved by the Union Cabinet to enable country-wide access to high-impact scholarly journals across all higher education and research institutions managed by the central and state governments. It aims to remove barriers in access to expensive academic literature. Statement 2 is incorrect. The scheme is coordinated by INFLIBNET (Information and Library Network Centre), an autonomous inter-university centre of the UGC, but it is based in Gandhinagar, Gujarat, not Hyderabad. Statement 3 is correct. The scheme is not only restricted to centrally funded institutions. It extends to state government-managed institutions and public universities, making it more inclusive. Hence, only Statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution : B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. The ONOS scheme was approved by the Union Cabinet to enable country-wide access to high-impact scholarly journals across all higher education and research institutions managed by the central and state governments. It aims to remove barriers in access to expensive academic literature. Statement 2 is incorrect. The scheme is coordinated by INFLIBNET (Information and Library Network Centre), an autonomous inter-university centre of the UGC, but it is based in Gandhinagar, Gujarat, not Hyderabad. Statement 3 is correct. The scheme is not only restricted to centrally funded institutions. It extends to state government-managed institutions and public universities, making it more inclusive. Hence, only Statement 3 is correct.

#### 24. Question

With reference to the “One Nation, One Subscription (ONOS)” scheme, consider the following statements:

• It aims to ensure universal access to high-impact international research journals for institutions across India.

• The implementation is coordinated by the UGC through its autonomous centre based in Hyderabad.

• The scheme extends to both centrally funded research institutions and the state government-managed institutions.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution : B

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. The ONOS scheme was approved by the Union Cabinet to enable country-wide access to high-impact scholarly journals across all higher education and research institutions managed by the central and state governments. It aims to remove barriers in access to expensive academic literature.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The scheme is coordinated by INFLIBNET (Information and Library Network Centre), an autonomous inter-university centre of the UGC, but it is based in Gandhinagar, Gujarat, not Hyderabad.

Statement 3 is correct. The scheme is not only restricted to centrally funded institutions. It extends to state government-managed institutions and public universities, making it more inclusive. Hence, only Statement 3 is correct.

Solution : B

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Consider the following statements with reference to In-Vitro Gametogenesis (IVG): Statement–I: In-Vitro Gametogenesis (IVG) is a process that eliminates the need for both fertilization and gestation in reproduction. Statement–II: IVG creates functional gametes (sperm or eggs) from somatic cells such as skin or blood cells, enabling genetically related reproduction even in non-traditional families. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution : D Explanation: Statement-I is incorrect. While IVG is a groundbreaking reproductive technology, it does not eliminate the need for fertilization or gestation. IVG allows scientists to create functional gametes (sperm or egg cells) from induced pluripotent stem cells, derived from somatic cells like skin, blood, or hair. These gametes must still undergo fertilization to form an embryo, and the embryo must then be implanted in a uterus or surrogate for gestation. Statement-II is correct. One of IVG’s most revolutionary implications is its potential to allow same-sex couples, single individuals, or infertile people to have genetically related offspring using their own cells. This could eliminate reliance on donor sperm or eggs in such cases. However, the ethical, legal, and safety implications are still under global debate. Thus, IVG enhances reproductive possibilities but does not replace fundamental biological processes entirely. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Solution : D Explanation: Statement-I is incorrect. While IVG is a groundbreaking reproductive technology, it does not eliminate the need for fertilization or gestation. IVG allows scientists to create functional gametes (sperm or egg cells) from induced pluripotent stem cells, derived from somatic cells like skin, blood, or hair. These gametes must still undergo fertilization to form an embryo, and the embryo must then be implanted in a uterus or surrogate for gestation. Statement-II is correct. One of IVG’s most revolutionary implications is its potential to allow same-sex couples, single individuals, or infertile people to have genetically related offspring using their own cells. This could eliminate reliance on donor sperm or eggs in such cases. However, the ethical, legal, and safety implications are still under global debate. Thus, IVG enhances reproductive possibilities but does not replace fundamental biological processes entirely. Hence, option (d) is correct.

#### 25. Question

Consider the following statements with reference to In-Vitro Gametogenesis (IVG):

Statement–I: In-Vitro Gametogenesis (IVG) is a process that eliminates the need for both fertilization and gestation in reproduction.

Statement–II: IVG creates functional gametes (sperm or eggs) from somatic cells such as skin or blood cells, enabling genetically related reproduction even in non-traditional families.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution : D

Explanation:

Statement-I is incorrect. While IVG is a groundbreaking reproductive technology, it does not eliminate the need for fertilization or gestation. IVG allows scientists to create functional gametes (sperm or egg cells) from induced pluripotent stem cells, derived from somatic cells like skin, blood, or hair. These gametes must still undergo fertilization to form an embryo, and the embryo must then be implanted in a uterus or surrogate for gestation.

Statement-II is correct. One of IVG’s most revolutionary implications is its potential to allow same-sex couples, single individuals, or infertile people to have genetically related offspring using their own cells. This could eliminate reliance on donor sperm or eggs in such cases. However, the ethical, legal, and safety implications are still under global debate. Thus, IVG enhances reproductive possibilities but does not replace fundamental biological processes entirely. Hence, option (d) is correct.

Solution : D

Explanation:

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points Nature is a beautiful creation. Due to the thoughtless and selfish aims of man in terms of industries established in forest areas, effluents released into the atmosphere by traffic pollution and industrial pollution, natural seasonal changes and the ecological balance is adversely affected. At this juncture, if man could remote control nature in the light of the meteorological developments perhaps we may expect utopia to prevail. Natural calamities are unexpected and cause immeasurable damage to public life. Natural calamities such as droughts (famine) floods, earthquakes, tsunamis, lava from volcanoes can be forecasted exactly if man can foresee the atmospheric changes. Resultantly, the devastation of life and property can be avoided by taking precautionary measures. Drought in any area is extremely pathetic. The imbalanced rainfall in various parts of our country can be fine-tuned by diverting the excess rainfall to the common drought hit areas. In view of sufficient rainfall in the famine-affected areas the cultivation and production levels can be reasonably developed. The extreme weather conditions resulting in several unknown health problems can be avoided by working on ideal climatic conditions. With the help of scientific and meteorological progress we can improve the quality of life on this face of earth. Nature which is a wonder of wonders is not in the hands of man. However, in the light of the scientific and meteorological progress, if man could dictate terms to nature, several disasters can be avoided, quality of life can be improved and the agricultural production can be increased. Choose the option that best captures the *essence*of the passage. a. Instead of exploiting nature for personal gain, man should work to restore balance to nature. b. Natural calamities like floods should be brought to drought-ridden areas to improve crop growth. c. Scientists must try to control climatic elements like rain and natural phenomena like earthquakes to general power. d. All of the above. Correct Correct Option : A Justification : The first paragraph of the passage explains how industries have harmed nature and destroyed ecological balance. Instead, efforts should be taken to restore this balance which will improve weather and soil conditions and help create a paradise on earth. This is the proper control of nature rather than exploitation. Thus, this is the best answer. Incorrect Correct Option : A Justification : The first paragraph of the passage explains how industries have harmed nature and destroyed ecological balance. Instead, efforts should be taken to restore this balance which will improve weather and soil conditions and help create a paradise on earth. This is the proper control of nature rather than exploitation. Thus, this is the best answer.

#### 26. Question

Nature is a beautiful creation. Due to the thoughtless and selfish aims of man in terms of industries established in forest areas, effluents released into the atmosphere by traffic pollution and industrial pollution, natural seasonal changes and the ecological balance is adversely affected. At this juncture, if man could remote control nature in the light of the meteorological developments perhaps we may expect utopia to prevail.

Natural calamities are unexpected and cause immeasurable damage to public life. Natural calamities such as droughts (famine) floods, earthquakes, tsunamis, lava from volcanoes can be forecasted exactly if man can foresee the atmospheric changes. Resultantly, the devastation of life and property can be avoided by taking precautionary measures. Drought in any area is extremely pathetic. The imbalanced rainfall in various parts of our country can be fine-tuned by diverting the excess rainfall to the common drought hit areas.

In view of sufficient rainfall in the famine-affected areas the cultivation and production levels can be reasonably developed. The extreme weather conditions resulting in several unknown health problems can be avoided by working on ideal climatic conditions. With the help of scientific and meteorological progress we can improve the quality of life on this face of earth.

Nature which is a wonder of wonders is not in the hands of man. However, in the light of the scientific and meteorological progress, if man could dictate terms to nature, several disasters can be avoided, quality of life can be improved and the agricultural production can be increased.

Choose the option that best captures the *essence*of the passage.

• a. Instead of exploiting nature for personal gain, man should work to restore balance to nature.

• b. Natural calamities like floods should be brought to drought-ridden areas to improve crop growth.

• c. Scientists must try to control climatic elements like rain and natural phenomena like earthquakes to general power.

• d. All of the above.

Correct Option : A

Justification :

The first paragraph of the passage explains how industries have harmed nature and destroyed ecological balance. Instead, efforts should be taken to restore this balance which will improve weather and soil conditions and help create a paradise on earth. This is the proper control of nature rather than exploitation. Thus, this is the best answer.

Correct Option : A

Justification :

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points Study the following statements and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Statement : Only a few Official is Business Some Business is Economy Some Economy is Agency Conclusion I) Some Business is Agency II) No Agency is Business a. Only I follows b. Either I or II follows c. Only II follows d. Both I and II follow Correct Correct Option : B Justification : Incorrect Correct Option : B Justification :

#### 27. Question

Study the following statements and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statement : Only a few Official is Business

Some Business is Economy

Some Economy is Agency

Conclusion

I) Some Business is Agency

II) No Agency is Business

• a. Only I follows

• b. Either I or II follows

• c. Only II follows

• d. Both I and II follow

Correct Option : B

Justification :

Correct Option : B

Justification :

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points Study the following statements and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Statement: Only a few Flea is Grub All Grub is Tick No Tick is Wasp Conclusion: I) All Flea can never be Wasp II) Some Grub can be Wasp a. Only I follows b. Either I or II follows c. Only II follows d. Both I and II follow Correct Correct Option : A Justification : Incorrect Correct Option : A Justification : Justification:

#### 28. Question

Study the following statements and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statement:

Only a few Flea is Grub

All Grub is Tick

No Tick is Wasp

Conclusion:

I) All Flea can never be Wasp

II) Some Grub can be Wasp

• a. Only I follows

• b. Either I or II follows

• c. Only II follows

• d. Both I and II follow

Correct Option : A

Justification :

Correct Option : A

Justification :

Justification:

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points In each question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows/follow from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Statements: All lions are tigers. No tiger is dog. All dogs are cats. Conclusions: All lions are cats. Some cats are tigers. a. Neither I nor II follows b. Only I follows c. Either I or II follows d. Both I and II follow Correct Correct Option : A Justification : Venn Diagram Method: Incorrect Correct Option : A Justification : Venn Diagram Method:

#### 29. Question

In each question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows/follow from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

• Statements:

All lions are tigers.

No tiger is dog.

All dogs are cats.

Conclusions:

• All lions are cats.

• Some cats are tigers.

• a. Neither I nor II follows

• b. Only I follows

• c. Either I or II follows

• d. Both I and II follow

Correct Option : A

Justification :

Venn Diagram Method:

Correct Option : A

Justification :

Venn Diagram Method:

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and on the basis of the information given in the statement, decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing. Statement:A very large number of students have failed in the final high school examination due to faulty questions in one of the subjects. Courses of action: All the students who have failed in the subject should be allowed to take supplementary examination. All those who are responsible for the error should be suspended and an enquiry should be initiated to find out the facts. a. Only I follows b. Only II follows c. Either I or II follows d. Both I and II follow Correct Justification : There being faulty questions in the examination paper is a blunder on the part of school management and students should not be made to suffer on account of this. Thus, a re-test should be organised for the students and those responsible for the error be penalised to prevent reoccurrence of such mistake in the future. Hence, both the courses follow. Incorrect Justification : There being faulty questions in the examination paper is a blunder on the part of school management and students should not be made to suffer on account of this. Thus, a re-test should be organised for the students and those responsible for the error be penalised to prevent reoccurrence of such mistake in the future. Hence, both the courses follow.

#### 30. Question

In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and on the basis of the information given in the statement, decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.

• Statement:A very large number of students have failed in the final high school examination due to faulty questions in one of the subjects.

Courses of action:

• All the students who have failed in the subject should be allowed to take supplementary examination.

• All those who are responsible for the error should be suspended and an enquiry should be initiated to find out the facts.

• a. Only I follows

• b. Only II follows

• c. Either I or II follows

• d. Both I and II follow

Justification :

There being faulty questions in the examination paper is a blunder on the part of school management and students should not be made to suffer on account of this. Thus, a re-test should be organised for the students and those responsible for the error be penalised to prevent reoccurrence of such mistake in the future. Hence, both the courses follow.