DAY – 50 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – ENVIRONMENT & ECOLOGY and AGRICULTURE, Subject-wise Test 35, and August 2023 CA

INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Consider the following: The variety of amphibian species in the Western Ghats The different types of apple growing in the Himalayan ranges The ratio of plant and animal species described around the world How many of the above are an example of genetic diversity? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: a Explanation: Genetic diversity refers to the variation in genetic makeup within a single species. This encompasses the differences in genes, alleles, and genetic expressions among individuals of the same species. The variety of amphibian species in the Western Ghats indicates species diversity—it’s about different species within a broader taxonomic group. The different types of apple growing in the Himalayan ranges indicates genetic diversity (variation within a species, like different apple cultivars or varieties). All apples are one species. Different alleles of the genes that control their colour cause the apples to be green, yellow, red, or almost purple. Differences in the alleles that control flavour make each type taste different. The ratio of plant and animal species described around the world addresses the overall count and distribution of species, indicating species diversity. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Genetic diversity refers to the variation in genetic makeup within a single species. This encompasses the differences in genes, alleles, and genetic expressions among individuals of the same species. The variety of amphibian species in the Western Ghats indicates species diversity—it’s about different species within a broader taxonomic group. The different types of apple growing in the Himalayan ranges indicates genetic diversity (variation within a species, like different apple cultivars or varieties). All apples are one species. Different alleles of the genes that control their colour cause the apples to be green, yellow, red, or almost purple. Differences in the alleles that control flavour make each type taste different. The ratio of plant and animal species described around the world addresses the overall count and distribution of species, indicating species diversity. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following:

• The variety of amphibian species in the Western Ghats

• The different types of apple growing in the Himalayan ranges

• The ratio of plant and animal species described around the world

How many of the above are an example of genetic diversity?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Explanation:

• Genetic diversity refers to the variation in genetic makeup within a single species. This encompasses the differences in genes, alleles, and genetic expressions among individuals of the same species.

• The variety of amphibian species in the Western Ghats indicates species diversity—it’s about different species within a broader taxonomic group.

• The different types of apple growing in the Himalayan ranges indicates genetic diversity (variation within a species, like different apple cultivars or varieties). All apples are one species. Different alleles of the genes that control their colour cause the apples to be green, yellow, red, or almost purple. Differences in the alleles that control flavour make each type taste different.

• The ratio of plant and animal species described around the world addresses the overall count and distribution of species, indicating species diversity.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• The variety of amphibian species in the Western Ghats indicates species diversity—it’s about different species within a broader taxonomic group.

• The ratio of plant and animal species described around the world addresses the overall count and distribution of species, indicating species diversity.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Species diversity generally decreases as one moves away from the equator towards the poles. Statement-II: The Amazon rainforest, located in a tropical region, is home to the greatest biodiversity on Earth. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Answer: b Explanation: Statement-I is correct. It refers to the concept of latitudinal gradients in species diversity, indicating that the biodiversity tends to be higher in tropical regions (closer to the equator) and decreases as one moves towards temperate and Polar Regions. The reason for the general pattern of decreasing species diversity away from the equator toward the poles involves various factors, such as evolutionary time, climate stability, and solar energy. Statement-II is also correct. The Amazon rainforest, part of the tropical ecosystem, is known for its exceptionally high species diversity, often regarded as the most biodiverse region on Earth. Although both statements are correct, Statement-II does not serve as an explanation for Statement-I. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Statement-I is correct. It refers to the concept of latitudinal gradients in species diversity, indicating that the biodiversity tends to be higher in tropical regions (closer to the equator) and decreases as one moves towards temperate and Polar Regions. The reason for the general pattern of decreasing species diversity away from the equator toward the poles involves various factors, such as evolutionary time, climate stability, and solar energy. Statement-II is also correct. The Amazon rainforest, part of the tropical ecosystem, is known for its exceptionally high species diversity, often regarded as the most biodiverse region on Earth. Although both statements are correct, Statement-II does not serve as an explanation for Statement-I. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:

Species diversity generally decreases as one moves away from the equator towards the poles.

Statement-II:

The Amazon rainforest, located in a tropical region, is home to the greatest biodiversity on Earth.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Explanation:

• Statement-I is correct. It refers to the concept of latitudinal gradients in species diversity, indicating that the biodiversity tends to be higher in tropical regions (closer to the equator) and decreases as one moves towards temperate and Polar Regions.

• The reason for the general pattern of decreasing species diversity away from the equator toward the poles involves various factors, such as evolutionary time, climate stability, and solar energy.

• Statement-II is also correct. The Amazon rainforest, part of the tropical ecosystem, is known for its exceptionally high species diversity, often regarded as the most biodiverse region on Earth.

• Although both statements are correct, Statement-II does not serve as an explanation for Statement-I.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• The reason for the general pattern of decreasing species diversity away from the equator toward the poles involves various factors, such as evolutionary time, climate stability, and solar energy.

• Although both statements are correct, Statement-II does not serve as an explanation for Statement-I.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding productivity in ecosystems: Gross primary productivity (GPP) is the rate at which autotrophs produce organic matter during photosynthesis. Secondary productivity is the rate at which new organic matter is produced by autotrophs. Which of the above given statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: a Explanation: GPP refers to the total amount of organic matter produced by autotrophs (like plants and algae) through photosynthesis. It reflects the gross energy input into an ecosystem through primary producers. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Net primary productivity (NPP) is derived by subtracting the energy consumed by autotrophs during respiration from GPP. It represents the amount of energy available for growth, reproduction, and consumption by other organisms in the ecosystem. Secondary productivity is the rate at which new organic matter is produced by heterotrophs, primarily consumers (like animals). It involves the consumption and conversion of organic matter by these organisms, resulting in new tissue growth, reproduction, etc. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: GPP refers to the total amount of organic matter produced by autotrophs (like plants and algae) through photosynthesis. It reflects the gross energy input into an ecosystem through primary producers. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Net primary productivity (NPP) is derived by subtracting the energy consumed by autotrophs during respiration from GPP. It represents the amount of energy available for growth, reproduction, and consumption by other organisms in the ecosystem. Secondary productivity is the rate at which new organic matter is produced by heterotrophs, primarily consumers (like animals). It involves the consumption and conversion of organic matter by these organisms, resulting in new tissue growth, reproduction, etc. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding productivity in ecosystems:

• Gross primary productivity (GPP) is the rate at which autotrophs produce organic matter during photosynthesis.

• Secondary productivity is the rate at which new organic matter is produced by autotrophs.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• GPP refers to the total amount of organic matter produced by autotrophs (like plants and algae) through photosynthesis. It reflects the gross energy input into an ecosystem through primary producers. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Net primary productivity (NPP) is derived by subtracting the energy consumed by autotrophs during respiration from GPP. It represents the amount of energy available for growth, reproduction, and consumption by other organisms in the ecosystem.

• Secondary productivity is the rate at which new organic matter is produced by heterotrophs, primarily consumers (like animals). It involves the consumption and conversion of organic matter by these organisms, resulting in new tissue growth, reproduction, etc. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding decomposition in ecosystems: Decomposition involves fragmentation, leaching, catabolism, humification, and mineralization. Decomposition is generally slower in warm and moist environments due to reduced oxygen levels. Which of the above given statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: a Explanation: Decomposition is the process through which complex organic matter breaks down into simpler inorganic substances. It typically involves several steps, including fragmentation (breaking down of large organic matter into smaller pieces), leaching (removal of water-soluble substances), catabolism (breakdown of complex molecules by microbial enzymes), humification (formation of humus, a resistant organic substance), and mineralisation (conversion of organic matter into inorganic forms). Hence, statement 1 is correct. In general, warm and moist environments tend to promote decomposition because they create favorable conditions for microbial activity, which is a key driver of decomposition. Decomposition tends to be slower in cooler or anaerobic (oxygen-poor) environments. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Decomposition is the process through which complex organic matter breaks down into simpler inorganic substances. It typically involves several steps, including fragmentation (breaking down of large organic matter into smaller pieces), leaching (removal of water-soluble substances), catabolism (breakdown of complex molecules by microbial enzymes), humification (formation of humus, a resistant organic substance), and mineralisation (conversion of organic matter into inorganic forms). Hence, statement 1 is correct. In general, warm and moist environments tend to promote decomposition because they create favorable conditions for microbial activity, which is a key driver of decomposition. Decomposition tends to be slower in cooler or anaerobic (oxygen-poor) environments. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding decomposition in ecosystems:

• Decomposition involves fragmentation, leaching, catabolism, humification, and mineralization.

• Decomposition is generally slower in warm and moist environments due to reduced oxygen levels.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• Decomposition is the process through which complex organic matter breaks down into simpler inorganic substances. It typically involves several steps, including fragmentation (breaking down of large organic matter into smaller pieces), leaching (removal of water-soluble substances), catabolism (breakdown of complex molecules by microbial enzymes), humification (formation of humus, a resistant organic substance), and mineralisation (conversion of organic matter into inorganic forms). Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• In general, warm and moist environments tend to promote decomposition because they create favorable conditions for microbial activity, which is a key driver of decomposition. Decomposition tends to be slower in cooler or anaerobic (oxygen-poor) environments. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points What percentage of incident solar radiation is photosynthetically active radiation (PAR) that is usable by plants for photosynthesis? a) Less than 50% b) Between 50% and 75% c) Between 75% and 90% d) More than 90% Correct Answer: a Explanation: Photosynthetically active radiation (PAR) is the portion of the solar spectrum that is usable by plants for photosynthesis. It generally encompasses wavelengths in the range of 400 to 700 nanometers. Although the sun emits a wide range of wavelengths, not all of them are effective for photosynthesis. Typically, PAR comprises less than 50% of the total incident solar radiation. This percentage can vary depending on location, time of day, and atmospheric conditions. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Photosynthetically active radiation (PAR) is the portion of the solar spectrum that is usable by plants for photosynthesis. It generally encompasses wavelengths in the range of 400 to 700 nanometers. Although the sun emits a wide range of wavelengths, not all of them are effective for photosynthesis. Typically, PAR comprises less than 50% of the total incident solar radiation. This percentage can vary depending on location, time of day, and atmospheric conditions. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 5. Question

What percentage of incident solar radiation is photosynthetically active radiation (PAR) that is usable by plants for photosynthesis?

• a) Less than 50%

• b) Between 50% and 75%

• c) Between 75% and 90%

• d) More than 90%

Explanation:

• Photosynthetically active radiation (PAR) is the portion of the solar spectrum that is usable by plants for photosynthesis. It generally encompasses wavelengths in the range of 400 to 700 nanometers. Although the sun emits a wide range of wavelengths, not all of them are effective for photosynthesis.

• Typically, PAR comprises less than 50% of the total incident solar radiation. This percentage can vary depending on location, time of day, and atmospheric conditions.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• Typically, PAR comprises less than 50% of the total incident solar radiation. This percentage can vary depending on location, time of day, and atmospheric conditions.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points What is the primary goal of Marine Cloud Brightening (MCB)? a) To reduce coral bleaching by decreasing ocean temperature b) To enhance cloud reflectivity and potentially counteract global warming c) To increase rainfall in arid regions by creating more clouds d) To prevent hurricanes by disrupting cloud formation Correct Answer: b Explanation: The concept of Marine Cloud Brightening (MCB) involves using fine sea water droplets to increase cloud reflectivity, also known as albedo. This process aims to increase the whiteness and brightness of clouds, thereby reflecting more sunlight back into space. By doing so, it can potentially reduce the amount of solar energy absorbed by the Earth’s surface, which can help mitigate global warming. Option a: Although this could be an indirect benefit of MCB, it’s not the primary goal. Coral bleaching is linked to high sea temperatures, but MCB’s main purpose is broader. Option b is the correct answer: MCB aims to increase cloud reflectivity, which can counteract global warming by reflecting more solar energy away from the Earth’s surface. Option c: This isn’t the primary focus of MCB. Although it involves creating more cloud condensation nuclei, its goal isn’t specifically to increase rainfall in arid regions. Option d: This isn’t related to MCB. The process does not intend to disrupt cloud formation or prevent hurricanes. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: The concept of Marine Cloud Brightening (MCB) involves using fine sea water droplets to increase cloud reflectivity, also known as albedo. This process aims to increase the whiteness and brightness of clouds, thereby reflecting more sunlight back into space. By doing so, it can potentially reduce the amount of solar energy absorbed by the Earth’s surface, which can help mitigate global warming. Option a: Although this could be an indirect benefit of MCB, it’s not the primary goal. Coral bleaching is linked to high sea temperatures, but MCB’s main purpose is broader. Option b is the correct answer: MCB aims to increase cloud reflectivity, which can counteract global warming by reflecting more solar energy away from the Earth’s surface. Option c: This isn’t the primary focus of MCB. Although it involves creating more cloud condensation nuclei, its goal isn’t specifically to increase rainfall in arid regions. Option d: This isn’t related to MCB. The process does not intend to disrupt cloud formation or prevent hurricanes. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 6. Question

What is the primary goal of Marine Cloud Brightening (MCB)?

• a) To reduce coral bleaching by decreasing ocean temperature

• b) To enhance cloud reflectivity and potentially counteract global warming

• c) To increase rainfall in arid regions by creating more clouds

• d) To prevent hurricanes by disrupting cloud formation

Explanation:

• The concept of Marine Cloud Brightening (MCB) involves using fine sea water droplets to increase cloud reflectivity, also known as albedo. This process aims to increase the whiteness and brightness of clouds, thereby reflecting more sunlight back into space. By doing so, it can potentially reduce the amount of solar energy absorbed by the Earth’s surface, which can help mitigate global warming.

• Option a: Although this could be an indirect benefit of MCB, it’s not the primary goal. Coral bleaching is linked to high sea temperatures, but MCB’s main purpose is broader.

• Option b is the correct answer: MCB aims to increase cloud reflectivity, which can counteract global warming by reflecting more solar energy away from the Earth’s surface.

• Option c: This isn’t the primary focus of MCB. Although it involves creating more cloud condensation nuclei, its goal isn’t specifically to increase rainfall in arid regions.

• Option d: This isn’t related to MCB. The process does not intend to disrupt cloud formation or prevent hurricanes.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• Option a: Although this could be an indirect benefit of MCB, it’s not the primary goal. Coral bleaching is linked to high sea temperatures, but MCB’s main purpose is broader.

• Option b is the correct answer: MCB aims to increase cloud reflectivity, which can counteract global warming by reflecting more solar energy away from the Earth’s surface.

• Option c: This isn’t the primary focus of MCB. Although it involves creating more cloud condensation nuclei, its goal isn’t specifically to increase rainfall in arid regions.

• Option d: This isn’t related to MCB. The process does not intend to disrupt cloud formation or prevent hurricanes.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points What is watermeal, recently seen in news? a) A type of aquatic insect used for consumption by humans b) The smallest flowering plant on Earth c) A species of freshwater fish commonly used in aquaculture d) A type of algae found in marine environments Correct Answer: b Explanation: Watermeal is a unique aquatic organism notable for being the smallest flowering plant on Earth. It is often found floating on the surface of freshwater bodies. Watermeal, scientifically known as Wolffia, has a simple structure without roots, stems, or leaves, and is essentially just a small, floating sphere. Scientists are conducting research on watermeal, the world’s smallest flowering plant, to explore its potential as a source of nutrition and oxygen for astronauts. Watermeal, known for its tiny size and floating habit on water bodies, offers a unique subject for this research due to its simplicity and rapid growth rate. It lacks roots, stems, or leaves, making it an ideal candidate for studying the effects of altered gravity on plant development. Watermeal is not only scientifically intriguing but also has practical benefits. It is a prolific producer of oxygen through photosynthesis and a rich source of protein. In Thailand, it has been part of the local diet for generations. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Watermeal is a unique aquatic organism notable for being the smallest flowering plant on Earth. It is often found floating on the surface of freshwater bodies. Watermeal, scientifically known as Wolffia, has a simple structure without roots, stems, or leaves, and is essentially just a small, floating sphere. Scientists are conducting research on watermeal, the world’s smallest flowering plant, to explore its potential as a source of nutrition and oxygen for astronauts. Watermeal, known for its tiny size and floating habit on water bodies, offers a unique subject for this research due to its simplicity and rapid growth rate. It lacks roots, stems, or leaves, making it an ideal candidate for studying the effects of altered gravity on plant development. Watermeal is not only scientifically intriguing but also has practical benefits. It is a prolific producer of oxygen through photosynthesis and a rich source of protein. In Thailand, it has been part of the local diet for generations. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 7. Question

What is watermeal, recently seen in news?

• a) A type of aquatic insect used for consumption by humans

• b) The smallest flowering plant on Earth

• c) A species of freshwater fish commonly used in aquaculture

• d) A type of algae found in marine environments

Explanation:

• Watermeal is a unique aquatic organism notable for being the smallest flowering plant on Earth. It is often found floating on the surface of freshwater bodies. Watermeal, scientifically known as Wolffia, has a simple structure without roots, stems, or leaves, and is essentially just a small, floating sphere.

• Scientists are conducting research on watermeal, the world’s smallest flowering plant, to explore its potential as a source of nutrition and oxygen for astronauts. Watermeal, known for its tiny size and floating habit on water bodies, offers a unique subject for this research due to its simplicity and rapid growth rate.

• It lacks roots, stems, or leaves, making it an ideal candidate for studying the effects of altered gravity on plant development.

• Watermeal is not only scientifically intriguing but also has practical benefits. It is a prolific producer of oxygen through photosynthesis and a rich source of protein. In Thailand, it has been part of the local diet for generations.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• It lacks roots, stems, or leaves, making it an ideal candidate for studying the effects of altered gravity on plant development.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points What does CORSIA and LTAG, often seen in news, deal with? a) Reduction of carbon emissions b) Geo tagging of endangered animals c) Increasing carbon sequestration d) Protection of marine species Correct Answer: a Explanation: The Ministry of Civil Aviation (MoCA) has announced that India will start participating in the International Civil Aviation Organisation’s (ICAO) Carbon Offsetting and Reduction Scheme for International Aviation (CORSIA) and the Long-Term Aspirational Goals (LTAG) from 2027. CORSIA is a global scheme established by the ICAO to address the growth in CO2 emissions from international aviation. CORSIA aims to stabilize net CO2 emissions at 2020 levels through a combination of measures, including carbon offsetting, carbon credits, and sustainable aviation fuel. The 41st ICAO Assembly adopted a long-term global aspirational goal (LTAG) for international aviation of net-zero carbon emissions by 2050 in support of the UNFCCC Paris Agreement’s temperature goal. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: The Ministry of Civil Aviation (MoCA) has announced that India will start participating in the International Civil Aviation Organisation’s (ICAO) Carbon Offsetting and Reduction Scheme for International Aviation (CORSIA) and the Long-Term Aspirational Goals (LTAG) from 2027. CORSIA is a global scheme established by the ICAO to address the growth in CO2 emissions from international aviation. CORSIA aims to stabilize net CO2 emissions at 2020 levels through a combination of measures, including carbon offsetting, carbon credits, and sustainable aviation fuel. The 41st ICAO Assembly adopted a long-term global aspirational goal (LTAG) for international aviation of net-zero carbon emissions by 2050 in support of the UNFCCC Paris Agreement’s temperature goal. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 8. Question

What does CORSIA and LTAG, often seen in news, deal with?

• a) Reduction of carbon emissions

• b) Geo tagging of endangered animals

• c) Increasing carbon sequestration

• d) Protection of marine species

Explanation:

• The Ministry of Civil Aviation (MoCA) has announced that India will start participating in the International Civil Aviation Organisation’s (ICAO) Carbon Offsetting and Reduction Scheme for International Aviation (CORSIA) and the Long-Term Aspirational Goals (LTAG) from 2027.

• CORSIA is a global scheme established by the ICAO to address the growth in CO2 emissions from international aviation.

• CORSIA aims to stabilize net CO2 emissions at 2020 levels through a combination of measures, including carbon offsetting, carbon credits, and sustainable aviation fuel.

• The 41st ICAO Assembly adopted a long-term global aspirational goal (LTAG) for international aviation of net-zero carbon emissions by 2050 in support of the UNFCCC Paris Agreement’s temperature goal.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• CORSIA is a global scheme established by the ICAO to address the growth in CO2 emissions from international aviation.

• CORSIA aims to stabilize net CO2 emissions at 2020 levels through a combination of measures, including carbon offsetting, carbon credits, and sustainable aviation fuel.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Consider the following countries: Sri Lanka Pakistan Bangladesh Nepal How many of the above are Tiger Range countries? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: b Explanation: The Tiger Range Countries (TRC) are those countries where tigers still roam free in the wild. There are 13 Tiger Range Countries (TRC): India, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Cambodia, Lao PDR (People’s Democratic Republic), Malaysia, Myanmar, Nepal, Russia, Thailand, Viet Nam, China and Indonesia. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: The Tiger Range Countries (TRC) are those countries where tigers still roam free in the wild. There are 13 Tiger Range Countries (TRC): India, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Cambodia, Lao PDR (People’s Democratic Republic), Malaysia, Myanmar, Nepal, Russia, Thailand, Viet Nam, China and Indonesia. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following countries:

• Bangladesh

How many of the above are Tiger Range countries?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

• The Tiger Range Countries (TRC) are those countries where tigers still roam free in the wild.

• There are 13 Tiger Range Countries (TRC): India, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Cambodia, Lao PDR (People’s Democratic Republic), Malaysia, Myanmar, Nepal, Russia, Thailand, Viet Nam, China and Indonesia.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• The Tiger Range Countries (TRC) are those countries where tigers still roam free in the wild.

• There are 13 Tiger Range Countries (TRC): India, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Cambodia, Lao PDR (People’s Democratic Republic), Malaysia, Myanmar, Nepal, Russia, Thailand, Viet Nam, China and Indonesia.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points BSE-GREENEX measures: a) Total market value of carbon-intensive products in the economy b) Performance of the companies in terms of Carbon Emissions c) International trade balance in green products d) Movement in sovereign debt of green economies Correct Answer: b Explanation: The BSE-GREENEX on the Bombay Stock Exchange is a first of its kind benchmark index, which assess the ‘carbon performance’ of stocks based on purely quantitative performance based criteria. Unlike existing global indices that measure environmental performance through various scaled quantitative criteria, the BSE-GREENEX applies sector specific proprietary algorithms, developed in cutting edge research facilities, to assess energy efficiency performance of various companies based on publicly disclosed energy and financial data. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: The BSE-GREENEX on the Bombay Stock Exchange is a first of its kind benchmark index, which assess the ‘carbon performance’ of stocks based on purely quantitative performance based criteria. Unlike existing global indices that measure environmental performance through various scaled quantitative criteria, the BSE-GREENEX applies sector specific proprietary algorithms, developed in cutting edge research facilities, to assess energy efficiency performance of various companies based on publicly disclosed energy and financial data. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 10. Question

BSE-GREENEX measures:

• a) Total market value of carbon-intensive products in the economy

• b) Performance of the companies in terms of Carbon Emissions

• c) International trade balance in green products

• d) Movement in sovereign debt of green economies

Explanation:

• The BSE-GREENEX on the Bombay Stock Exchange is a first of its kind benchmark index, which assess the ‘carbon performance’ of stocks based on purely quantitative performance based criteria.

• Unlike existing global indices that measure environmental performance through various scaled quantitative criteria, the BSE-GREENEX applies sector specific proprietary algorithms, developed in cutting edge research facilities, to assess energy efficiency performance of various companies based on publicly disclosed energy and financial data.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Surety Bonds Insurance: It acts as a security arrangement for infrastructure projects to insulate the principal. Unlike a bank guarantee, this Insurance does not require large collateral from the contractor. It aims to reduce contractor’s debts to an extent thus addressing their financial worries. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Surety Bond Insurance will act as a security arrangement for infrastructure projects and will insulate the contractor as well as the principal. The Surety Bond Insurance is a risk transfer tool for the Principal and shields the Principal from the losses that may arise in case the contractor fails to perform their contractual obligation. The product gives the principal a contract of guarantee that contractual terms and other business deals will be concluded by the mutually agreed terms. In case the contractor doesn’t fulfil the contractual terms, the Principal can raise a claim on the surety bond and recover the losses they have incurred. Statement 2 is correct: Unlike a bank guarantee, the Surety Bond Insurance does not require large collateral from the contractor thus freeing up significant funds for the contractor, which they can utilize for the growth of the business. Statement 3 is correct: The product will also help in reducing the contractors’ debts to a large extent thus addressing their financial worries. The product will facilitate the growth of upcoming infrastructure projects in the country. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Surety Bond Insurance will act as a security arrangement for infrastructure projects and will insulate the contractor as well as the principal. The Surety Bond Insurance is a risk transfer tool for the Principal and shields the Principal from the losses that may arise in case the contractor fails to perform their contractual obligation. The product gives the principal a contract of guarantee that contractual terms and other business deals will be concluded by the mutually agreed terms. In case the contractor doesn’t fulfil the contractual terms, the Principal can raise a claim on the surety bond and recover the losses they have incurred. Statement 2 is correct: Unlike a bank guarantee, the Surety Bond Insurance does not require large collateral from the contractor thus freeing up significant funds for the contractor, which they can utilize for the growth of the business. Statement 3 is correct: The product will also help in reducing the contractors’ debts to a large extent thus addressing their financial worries. The product will facilitate the growth of upcoming infrastructure projects in the country.

#### 11. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Surety Bonds Insurance:

• It acts as a security arrangement for infrastructure projects to insulate the principal.

• Unlike a bank guarantee, this Insurance does not require large collateral from the contractor.

• It aims to reduce contractor’s debts to an extent thus addressing their financial worries.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Surety Bond Insurance will act as a security arrangement for infrastructure projects and will insulate the contractor as well as the principal.

The Surety Bond Insurance is a risk transfer tool for the Principal and shields the Principal from the losses that may arise in case the contractor fails to perform their contractual obligation.

The product gives the principal a contract of guarantee that contractual terms and other business deals will be concluded by the mutually agreed terms.

In case the contractor doesn’t fulfil the contractual terms, the Principal can raise a claim on the surety bond and recover the losses they have incurred.

Statement 2 is correct: Unlike a bank guarantee, the Surety Bond Insurance does not require large collateral from the contractor thus freeing up significant funds for the contractor, which they can utilize for the growth of the business.

Statement 3 is correct: The product will also help in reducing the contractors’ debts to a large extent thus addressing their financial worries.

The product will facilitate the growth of upcoming infrastructure projects in the country.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Surety Bond Insurance will act as a security arrangement for infrastructure projects and will insulate the contractor as well as the principal.

The Surety Bond Insurance is a risk transfer tool for the Principal and shields the Principal from the losses that may arise in case the contractor fails to perform their contractual obligation.

The product gives the principal a contract of guarantee that contractual terms and other business deals will be concluded by the mutually agreed terms.

In case the contractor doesn’t fulfil the contractual terms, the Principal can raise a claim on the surety bond and recover the losses they have incurred.

Statement 3 is correct: The product will also help in reducing the contractors’ debts to a large extent thus addressing their financial worries.

The product will facilitate the growth of upcoming infrastructure projects in the country.

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Money Markets: It includes instruments that provide short-term funds with maturity ranging from overnight to one year. It includes unsecured interbank loans, and collateralized loans but does not deal with the treasury bills. Its rates serve as operational targets of central banks and plays a key role in the transmission of monetary policy. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Money market is an integral part of the financial system and includes instruments that provide short-term funds with maturity ranging from overnight to one year. Money market has emerged as the router for the transmission of policy impulses across the financial system and is essential for extracting important information related to the expectations of future movements in interest rates. Statement 2 is not correct: Money market generally includes short-term unsecured (uncollateralised) interbank loans, secured (collateralised) loans (including repurchase agreements), treasury bills (T-bills), commercial papers (CPs) and certificates of deposit (CDs). Participants in these markets typically include, banks, investment funds and non-financial corporations. A well-functioning interbank market (where banks borrow from and lend to each other) can ensure efficient liquidity transfer between surplus and needy banks. Statement 3 is correct: As the short-term money market rates often serve as operational targets of central banks, the money market plays a key role in the transmission of monetary policy. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Money market is an integral part of the financial system and includes instruments that provide short-term funds with maturity ranging from overnight to one year. Money market has emerged as the router for the transmission of policy impulses across the financial system and is essential for extracting important information related to the expectations of future movements in interest rates. Statement 2 is not correct: Money market generally includes short-term unsecured (uncollateralised) interbank loans, secured (collateralised) loans (including repurchase agreements), treasury bills (T-bills), commercial papers (CPs) and certificates of deposit (CDs). Participants in these markets typically include, banks, investment funds and non-financial corporations. A well-functioning interbank market (where banks borrow from and lend to each other) can ensure efficient liquidity transfer between surplus and needy banks. Statement 3 is correct: As the short-term money market rates often serve as operational targets of central banks, the money market plays a key role in the transmission of monetary policy.

#### 12. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Money Markets:

• It includes instruments that provide short-term funds with maturity ranging from overnight to one year.

• It includes unsecured interbank loans, and collateralized loans but does not deal with the treasury bills.

• Its rates serve as operational targets of central banks and plays a key role in the transmission of monetary policy.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Money market is an integral part of the financial system and includes instruments that provide short-term funds with maturity ranging from overnight to one year.

Money market has emerged as the router for the transmission of policy impulses across the financial system and is essential for extracting important information related to the expectations of future movements in interest rates.

Statement 2 is not correct: Money market generally includes short-term unsecured (uncollateralised) interbank loans, secured (collateralised) loans (including repurchase agreements), treasury bills (T-bills), commercial papers (CPs) and certificates of deposit (CDs).

Participants in these markets typically include, banks, investment funds and non-financial corporations.

A well-functioning interbank market (where banks borrow from and lend to each other) can ensure efficient liquidity transfer between surplus and needy banks.

Statement 3 is correct: As the short-term money market rates often serve as operational targets of central banks, the money market plays a key role in the transmission of monetary policy.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Money market is an integral part of the financial system and includes instruments that provide short-term funds with maturity ranging from overnight to one year.

Participants in these markets typically include, banks, investment funds and non-financial corporations.

A well-functioning interbank market (where banks borrow from and lend to each other) can ensure efficient liquidity transfer between surplus and needy banks.

Statement 3 is correct: As the short-term money market rates often serve as operational targets of central banks, the money market plays a key role in the transmission of monetary policy.

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: PM-Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission was formulated to develop capacities exclusively for primary care health systems in India. PM-Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme for the implementation of the Aatmanirbhar Bharat Package for health sector. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: B Explanation: Indian Government has launched four mission mode projects, namely PM-Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission (PM-ABHIM), Ayushman Bharat Health & Wellness Centres (ABHWCs), Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY) and National Digital Health Mission (NDHM). Statement 1 is not correct: PM-ABHIM was launched as a mission to develop the capacities of primary, secondary, and tertiary care health systems, strengthen existing national institutions, and create new institutions, to cater to detection and cure of new and emerging diseases. Statement 2 is correct: The PM-ABHIM is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme with some Central Sector Components, for implementation of the Atmanirbhar Bharat Package for health sector with an outlay of Rs 64,180 crore. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Indian Government has launched four mission mode projects, namely PM-Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission (PM-ABHIM), Ayushman Bharat Health & Wellness Centres (ABHWCs), Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY) and National Digital Health Mission (NDHM). Statement 1 is not correct: PM-ABHIM was launched as a mission to develop the capacities of primary, secondary, and tertiary care health systems, strengthen existing national institutions, and create new institutions, to cater to detection and cure of new and emerging diseases. Statement 2 is correct: The PM-ABHIM is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme with some Central Sector Components, for implementation of the Atmanirbhar Bharat Package for health sector with an outlay of Rs 64,180 crore.

#### 13. Question

Consider the following statements:

• PM-Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission was formulated to develop capacities exclusively for primary care health systems in India.

• PM-Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme for the implementation of the Aatmanirbhar Bharat Package for health sector.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Explanation:

Indian Government has launched four mission mode projects, namely PM-Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission (PM-ABHIM), Ayushman Bharat Health & Wellness Centres (ABHWCs), Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY) and National Digital Health Mission (NDHM).

Statement 1 is not correct: PM-ABHIM was launched as a mission to develop the capacities of primary, secondary, and tertiary care health systems, strengthen existing national institutions, and create new institutions, to cater to detection and cure of new and emerging diseases.

Statement 2 is correct: The PM-ABHIM is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme with some Central Sector Components, for implementation of the Atmanirbhar Bharat Package for health sector with an outlay of Rs 64,180 crore.

Answer: B

Explanation:

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the PM-SVANidhi Scheme: It has been launched by the Ministry of Finance in collaboration with the Reserve Bank of India. It aims to facilitate collateral-free working capital loans to street vendors impacted by the COVID-19 pandemic. Which of the statements given above is/are *not correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: A Explanation: Option (a) is correct: Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs launched Prime Minister Street Vendor’s Atma Nirbhar Nidhi (PM SVANidhi) Scheme with the aim to facilitate collateral free working capital loan to street vendors to restart their businesses, which were adversely impacted by the COVID-19 pandemic. The scheme has the following objectives; Facilitate collateral free working capital loan upto ₹10,000, of 1 year tenure, with enhanced loan of ₹20,000 and ₹50,000 in the second and third tranches respectively, on repayments of earlier loans. Incentivize regular repayment, through interest subsidy @ 7% per annum; and Reward digital transactions, by way of cash back upto ₹1,200 per year. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Option (a) is correct:* Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs launched Prime Minister Street Vendor’s Atma Nirbhar Nidhi (PM SVANidhi) Scheme with the aim to facilitate collateral free working capital loan to street vendors to restart their businesses, which were adversely impacted by the COVID-19 pandemic. The scheme has the following objectives; Facilitate collateral free working capital loan upto ₹10,000, of 1 year tenure, with enhanced loan of ₹20,000 and ₹50,000 in the second and third tranches respectively, on repayments of earlier loans. Incentivize regular repayment, through interest subsidy @ 7% per annum; and Reward digital transactions, by way of cash back upto ₹1,200 per year.

#### 14. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the PM-SVANidhi Scheme:

• It has been launched by the Ministry of Finance in collaboration with the Reserve Bank of India.

• It aims to facilitate collateral-free working capital loans to street vendors impacted by the COVID-19 pandemic.

Which of the statements given above is/are *not* correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Explanation:

Option (a) is correct: Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs launched Prime Minister Street Vendor’s Atma Nirbhar Nidhi (PM SVANidhi) Scheme with the aim to facilitate collateral free working capital loan to street vendors to restart their businesses, which were adversely impacted by the COVID-19 pandemic.

The scheme has the following objectives;

• Facilitate collateral free working capital loan upto ₹10,000, of 1 year tenure, with enhanced loan of ₹20,000 and ₹50,000 in the second and third tranches respectively, on repayments of earlier loans.

• Incentivize regular repayment, through interest subsidy @ 7% per annum; and

• Reward digital transactions, by way of cash back upto ₹1,200 per year.

Answer: A

Explanation:

The scheme has the following objectives;

• Incentivize regular repayment, through interest subsidy @ 7% per annum; and

• Reward digital transactions, by way of cash back upto ₹1,200 per year.

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Which one of the following countries is *not a founding member of the Gulf Cooperation Council? (a) Kuwait (b) Bahrain (c) Yemen (d) Saudi Arabia Correct Answer: C Explanation: Option (c) is correct: The Gulf Cooperation Council is a union of six countries in the Gulf region — Saudi Arabia, the UAE, Qatar, Kuwait, Oman and Bahrain. India’s exports to the GCC member countries grew by 58.26% to about $44 billion in 2021-22, as against $27.8 billion in 2020-21, according to data from the Commerce Ministry. The share of GCC members in India’s total imports rose to 18% in 2021-22, from 15.5% in 2020-21. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Option (c) is correct: *The Gulf Cooperation Council is a union of six countries in the Gulf region — Saudi Arabia, the UAE, Qatar, Kuwait, Oman and Bahrain. India’s exports to the GCC member countries grew by 58.26% to about $44 billion in 2021-22, as against $27.8 billion in 2020-21, according to data from the Commerce Ministry. The share of GCC members in India’s total imports rose to 18% in 2021-22, from 15.5% in 2020-21.

#### 15. Question

Which one of the following countries is *not* a founding member of the Gulf Cooperation Council?

• (a) Kuwait

• (b) Bahrain

• (d) Saudi Arabia

Answer: C

Explanation:

Option (c) is correct: The Gulf Cooperation Council is a union of six countries in the Gulf region — Saudi Arabia, the UAE, Qatar, Kuwait, Oman and Bahrain.

India’s exports to the GCC member countries grew by 58.26% to about $44 billion in 2021-22, as against $27.8 billion in 2020-21, according to data from the Commerce Ministry.

The share of GCC members in India’s total imports rose to 18% in 2021-22, from 15.5% in 2020-21.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Option (c) is correct: The Gulf Cooperation Council is a union of six countries in the Gulf region — Saudi Arabia, the UAE, Qatar, Kuwait, Oman and Bahrain.

India’s exports to the GCC member countries grew by 58.26% to about $44 billion in 2021-22, as against $27.8 billion in 2020-21, according to data from the Commerce Ministry.

The share of GCC members in India’s total imports rose to 18% in 2021-22, from 15.5% in 2020-21.

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes the purpose of a performance bond in construction contracts? (a) It ensures the investment in construction bonds is profitable. (b) It provides insurance against damage to the construction site by natural events. (c) It guarantees compensation for financial losses due to poor stock market performance. (d) It assures the project owner that the contractor will fulfil the terms of the contract. Correct Solution: D A performance bond is a type of surety bond used in construction contracts to guarantee that the contractor completes the project according to the contractual terms, safeguarding the project owner against losses from an underperforming or defaulting contractor. Incorrect Solution: D A performance bond is a type of surety bond used in construction contracts to guarantee that the contractor completes the project according to the contractual terms, safeguarding the project owner against losses from an underperforming or defaulting contractor.

#### 16. Question

Which of the following best describes the purpose of a performance bond in construction contracts?

• (a) It ensures the investment in construction bonds is profitable.

• (b) It provides insurance against damage to the construction site by natural events.

• (c) It guarantees compensation for financial losses due to poor stock market performance.

• (d) It assures the project owner that the contractor will fulfil the terms of the contract.

Solution: D

A performance bond is a type of surety bond used in construction contracts to guarantee that the contractor completes the project according to the contractual terms, safeguarding the project owner against losses from an underperforming or defaulting contractor.

Solution: D

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Annual Survey of Industries (ASI): It is conducted by the National Statistical Office (NSO) The survey collects data on various aspects of industrial sectors of the Indian economy. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C The Annual Survey of Industries (ASI) is conducted by the National Statistical Office (NSO), which was formerly known as the Central Statistical Organisation (CSO). The NSO is under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI). The change from CSO to NSO reflects a reorganization intended to streamline statistical operations in India. The Annual Survey of Industries is the principal source of industrial statistics in India and covers a comprehensive range of data related to various aspects of the industrial sector. It collects information on items like the number of factories, the number of workers, wages paid, investment in plant and machinery, production, energy consumption, and financial details for industrial sectors. This data is crucial for policy formulation, planning, and decision-making processes related to industrial development. Incorrect Solution: C The Annual Survey of Industries (ASI) is conducted by the National Statistical Office (NSO), which was formerly known as the Central Statistical Organisation (CSO). The NSO is under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI). The change from CSO to NSO reflects a reorganization intended to streamline statistical operations in India. The Annual Survey of Industries is the principal source of industrial statistics in India and covers a comprehensive range of data related to various aspects of the industrial sector. It collects information on items like the number of factories, the number of workers, wages paid, investment in plant and machinery, production, energy consumption, and financial details for industrial sectors. This data is crucial for policy formulation, planning, and decision-making processes related to industrial development.

#### 17. Question

Consider the following statements about the Annual Survey of Industries (ASI):

• It is conducted by the National Statistical Office (NSO)

• The survey collects data on various aspects of industrial sectors of the Indian economy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

The Annual Survey of Industries (ASI) is conducted by the National Statistical Office (NSO), which was formerly known as the Central Statistical Organisation (CSO). The NSO is under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI). The change from CSO to NSO reflects a reorganization intended to streamline statistical operations in India.

The Annual Survey of Industries is the principal source of industrial statistics in India and covers a comprehensive range of data related to various aspects of the industrial sector. It collects information on items like the number of factories, the number of workers, wages paid, investment in plant and machinery, production, energy consumption, and financial details for industrial sectors. This data is crucial for policy formulation, planning, and decision-making processes related to industrial development.

Solution: C

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following World Heritage Sites in India: Agra Fort Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminus Konark Sun Temple Nalanda Mahavihara Khajuraho Group of Monuments How many of the above are recognized as UNESCO World Heritage Sites? (a) Only two (b) Only three (c) Only four (d) All five Correct Solution: D Each of the listed sites — Agra Fort, Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminus, Sun Temple at Konark, Nalanda Mahavihara, and the Khajuraho Group of Monuments — is recognized by UNESCO as a World Heritage Site. These sites are deemed of significant cultural and historical importance, warranting protection and recognition worldwide. Incorrect Solution: D Each of the listed sites — Agra Fort, Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminus, Sun Temple at Konark, Nalanda Mahavihara, and the Khajuraho Group of Monuments — is recognized by UNESCO as a World Heritage Site. These sites are deemed of significant cultural and historical importance, warranting protection and recognition worldwide.

#### 18. Question

Consider the following World Heritage Sites in India:

• Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminus

• Konark Sun Temple

• Nalanda Mahavihara

• Khajuraho Group of Monuments

How many of the above are recognized as UNESCO World Heritage Sites?

• (a) Only two

• (b) Only three

• (c) Only four

• (d) All five

Solution: D

Each of the listed sites — Agra Fort, Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminus, Sun Temple at Konark, Nalanda Mahavihara, and the Khajuraho Group of Monuments — is recognized by UNESCO as a World Heritage Site. These sites are deemed of significant cultural and historical importance, warranting protection and recognition worldwide.

Solution: D

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points The Chambal River is a tributary of the: (a) Yamuna River (b) Ganges River (c) Narmada River (d) Sutlej River Correct Solution: A The Chambal River is known for its less-polluted waters and is a significant tributary of the Yamuna River. It arises in the Vindhya Range of Madhya Pradesh and flows north-northeast through Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan, before turning southeast to join the Yamuna in Uttar Pradesh. This river is also notable for the Chambal Sanctuary, which is a protected area for the critically endangered gharial, the red-crowned roof turtle, and the endangered Ganges river dolphin. Incorrect Solution: A The Chambal River is known for its less-polluted waters and is a significant tributary of the Yamuna River. It arises in the Vindhya Range of Madhya Pradesh and flows north-northeast through Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan, before turning southeast to join the Yamuna in Uttar Pradesh. This river is also notable for the Chambal Sanctuary, which is a protected area for the critically endangered gharial, the red-crowned roof turtle, and the endangered Ganges river dolphin.

#### 19. Question

The Chambal River is a tributary of the:

• (a) Yamuna River

• (b) Ganges River

• (c) Narmada River

• (d) Sutlej River

Solution: A

The Chambal River is known for its less-polluted waters and is a significant tributary of the Yamuna River. It arises in the Vindhya Range of Madhya Pradesh and flows north-northeast through Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan, before turning southeast to join the Yamuna in Uttar Pradesh. This river is also notable for the Chambal Sanctuary, which is a protected area for the critically endangered gharial, the red-crowned roof turtle, and the endangered Ganges river dolphin.

Solution: A

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points What are carbon Nano florets? (a) Tiny, flower-like structures made of carbon nanotubes. (b) A type of carbon allotrope with a diamond-like structure (c) Nanoscale materials used for water purification. (d) Carbon particles used in rocket fuel. Correct Solution: A Carbon nanoflorets are formed by graphene sheets, which are structured in a way that resembles small flowers. These are a type of carbon nanotube, known for their unique structural properties, which could potentially be used in various applications ranging from electronic devices to materials engineering due to their high surface area and distinct physical properties. Incorrect Solution: A Carbon nanoflorets are formed by graphene sheets, which are structured in a way that resembles small flowers. These are a type of carbon nanotube, known for their unique structural properties, which could potentially be used in various applications ranging from electronic devices to materials engineering due to their high surface area and distinct physical properties.

#### 20. Question

What are carbon Nano florets?

• (a) Tiny, flower-like structures made of carbon nanotubes.

• (b) A type of carbon allotrope with a diamond-like structure

• (c) Nanoscale materials used for water purification.

• (d) Carbon particles used in rocket fuel.

Solution: A

Carbon nanoflorets are formed by graphene sheets, which are structured in a way that resembles small flowers. These are a type of carbon nanotube, known for their unique structural properties, which could potentially be used in various applications ranging from electronic devices to materials engineering due to their high surface area and distinct physical properties.

Solution: A

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the United Nations Convention on International Settlement Agreements Resulting from Mediation. The convention will apply to international settlement agreements that are concluded in the course of judicial or arbitral proceedings and which are enforceable as a court judgment or arbitral award. India is a signatory to the United Nations Convention on International Settlement Agreements Resulting from Mediation. The convention does not apply to settlement agreements concluded for personal, family or household purposes by one of the parties. How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None of the above Correct Solution: b) Justification: The United Nations General Assembly adopted the Convention on 20th December 2018 and it was opened for signature on 7th August 2019 in Singapore. It is also known as the Singapore Convention on Mediation and also the first UN treaty to be named after Singapore. Key Features of the Convention: Applicability: The Convention will apply to international commercial settlement agreements resulting from mediation. Non- applicability: It will not apply to international settlement agreements that are concluded in the course of judicial or arbitral proceedings and which are enforceable as a court judgment or arbitral award. It will also not apply to settlement agreements concluded for personal, family or household purposes by one of the parties (a consumer), as well as settlement agreements relating to family, inheritance or employment law. The courts of a contracting party will be expected to handle applications either to enforce an international settlement agreement which falls within the scope of the Convention or to allow a party to invoke the settlement agreement in order to prove that the matter has already been resolved, in accordance with its rules of procedure, and under the conditions laid down in the Convention. Signatories: The Convention has 53 signatories, including India, China and the U.S. India approved the signing of the Convention in July 2019. Benefits for India: Signing of the Convention will boost the confidence of the investors and shall provide a positive signal to foreign investors about India’s commitment to adhere to international practice on Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR). Businesses in India and around the world will now have greater certainty in resolving cross-border disputes through mediation, as the Convention provides a more effective means for mediated outcomes to be enforced. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/08/22/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-22-august-2023/ Incorrect Solution: b) Justification: The United Nations General Assembly adopted the Convention on 20th December 2018 and it was opened for signature on 7th August 2019 in Singapore. It is also known as the Singapore Convention on Mediation and also the first UN treaty to be named after Singapore. Key Features of the Convention: Applicability: The Convention will apply to international commercial settlement agreements resulting from mediation. Non- applicability: It will not apply to international settlement agreements that are concluded in the course of judicial or arbitral proceedings and which are enforceable as a court judgment or arbitral award. It will also not apply to settlement agreements concluded for personal, family or household purposes by one of the parties (a consumer), as well as settlement agreements relating to family, inheritance or employment law. The courts of a contracting party will be expected to handle applications either to enforce an international settlement agreement which falls within the scope of the Convention or to allow a party to invoke the settlement agreement in order to prove that the matter has already been resolved, in accordance with its rules of procedure, and under the conditions laid down in the Convention. Signatories: The Convention has 53 signatories, including India, China and the U.S. India approved the signing of the Convention in July 2019. Benefits for India: Signing of the Convention will boost the confidence of the investors and shall provide a positive signal to foreign investors about India’s commitment to adhere to international practice on Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR). Businesses in India and around the world will now have greater certainty in resolving cross-border disputes through mediation, as the Convention provides a more effective means for mediated outcomes to be enforced. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/08/22/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-22-august-2023/

#### 21. Question

Consider the following statements about the United Nations Convention on International Settlement Agreements Resulting from Mediation.

• The convention will apply to international settlement agreements that are concluded in the course of judicial or arbitral proceedings and which are enforceable as a court judgment or arbitral award.

• India is a signatory to the United Nations Convention on International Settlement Agreements Resulting from Mediation.

• The convention does not apply to settlement agreements concluded for personal, family or household purposes by one of the parties.

How many of the above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

• d) None of the above

Solution: b)

Justification: The United Nations General Assembly adopted the Convention on 20th December 2018 and it was opened for signature on 7th August 2019 in Singapore.

It is also known as the Singapore Convention on Mediation and also the first UN treaty to be named after Singapore.

Key Features of the Convention:

Applicability: The Convention will apply to international commercial settlement agreements resulting from mediation.

Non- applicability: It will not apply to international settlement agreements that are concluded in the course of judicial or arbitral proceedings and which are enforceable as a court judgment or arbitral award. It will also not apply to settlement agreements concluded for personal, family or household purposes by one of the parties (a consumer), as well as settlement agreements relating to family, inheritance or employment law.

The courts of a contracting party will be expected to handle applications either to enforce an international settlement agreement which falls within the scope of the Convention or to allow a party to invoke the settlement agreement in order to prove that the matter has already been resolved, in accordance with its rules of procedure, and under the conditions laid down in the Convention.

Signatories:

The Convention has 53 signatories, including India, China and the U.S.

India approved the signing of the Convention in July 2019.

Benefits for India:

Signing of the Convention will boost the confidence of the investors and shall provide a positive signal to foreign investors about India’s commitment to adhere to international practice on Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR).

Businesses in India and around the world will now have greater certainty in resolving cross-border disputes through mediation, as the Convention provides a more effective means for mediated outcomes to be enforced.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/08/22/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-22-august-2023/

Solution: b)

Justification: The United Nations General Assembly adopted the Convention on 20th December 2018 and it was opened for signature on 7th August 2019 in Singapore.

It is also known as the Singapore Convention on Mediation and also the first UN treaty to be named after Singapore.

Key Features of the Convention:

Applicability: The Convention will apply to international commercial settlement agreements resulting from mediation.

Signatories:

The Convention has 53 signatories, including India, China and the U.S.

India approved the signing of the Convention in July 2019.

Benefits for India:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/08/22/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-22-august-2023/

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. India has three power exchanges: Indian Energy Exchange (IEX), Power Exchange of India (PXIL) and Hindustan Power Exchange (HPX), of which HPX owns the largest market share. The CERC (Central Electricity Regulatory Commission) has introduced provisions for market coupling among power exchanges in the country under its CERC Power Market Regulations (PRC) 2021. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 Only b) 2 Only c) Both 1 and 2 d) None of the above Correct Solution: b) Justification: Market coupling is a process in the energy sector where bids from various power exchanges are matched to determine a uniform market clearing price for electricity trading. It aims to optimize transmission infrastructure use, maximize economic surplus, and create simultaneous benefits for both buyers and sellers. This process helps in efficient price discovery and integration of different electricity markets or geographies, promoting transparency and competition in the energy trading sector. The CERC (Central Electricity Regulatory Commission) has introduced provisions for market coupling among power exchanges in the country under its CERC Power Market Regulations (PRC) 2021. However, these provisions are yet to be officially implemented. The benefits of market coupling include: Optimal utilization of transmission infrastructure. Maximization of economic surplus by considering all bid types leads to the creation of simultaneous benefits for both buyers and sellers. India has three power exchanges: Indian Energy Exchange (IEX): 90% market share Power Exchange of India (PXIL) Hindustan Power Exchange (HPX) Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/08/23/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-23-august-2023/ Incorrect Solution: b) Justification: Market coupling is a process in the energy sector where bids from various power exchanges are matched to determine a uniform market clearing price for electricity trading. It aims to optimize transmission infrastructure use, maximize economic surplus, and create simultaneous benefits for both buyers and sellers. This process helps in efficient price discovery and integration of different electricity markets or geographies, promoting transparency and competition in the energy trading sector. The CERC (Central Electricity Regulatory Commission) has introduced provisions for market coupling among power exchanges in the country under its CERC Power Market Regulations (PRC) 2021. However, these provisions are yet to be officially implemented. The benefits of market coupling include: Optimal utilization of transmission infrastructure. Maximization of economic surplus by considering all bid types leads to the creation of simultaneous benefits for both buyers and sellers. India has three power exchanges: Indian Energy Exchange (IEX): 90% market share Power Exchange of India (PXIL) Hindustan Power Exchange (HPX) Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/08/23/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-23-august-2023/

#### 22. Question

Consider the following statements.

• India has three power exchanges: Indian Energy Exchange (IEX), Power Exchange of India (PXIL) and Hindustan Power Exchange (HPX), of which HPX owns the largest market share.

• The CERC (Central Electricity Regulatory Commission) has introduced provisions for market coupling among power exchanges in the country under its CERC Power Market Regulations (PRC) 2021.

Which of the above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) None of the above

Solution: b)

Justification: Market coupling is a process in the energy sector where bids from various power exchanges are matched to determine a uniform market clearing price for electricity trading.

It aims to optimize transmission infrastructure use, maximize economic surplus, and create simultaneous benefits for both buyers and sellers.

This process helps in efficient price discovery and integration of different electricity markets or geographies, promoting transparency and competition in the energy trading sector.

The CERC (Central Electricity Regulatory Commission) has introduced provisions for market coupling among power exchanges in the country under its CERC Power Market Regulations (PRC) 2021. However, these provisions are yet to be officially implemented.

The benefits of market coupling include:

Optimal utilization of transmission infrastructure.

Maximization of economic surplus by considering all bid types leads to the creation of simultaneous benefits for both buyers and sellers.

India has three power exchanges:

• Indian Energy Exchange (IEX): 90% market share

• Power Exchange of India (PXIL)

• Hindustan Power Exchange (HPX)

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/08/23/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-23-august-2023/

Solution: b)

Justification: Market coupling is a process in the energy sector where bids from various power exchanges are matched to determine a uniform market clearing price for electricity trading.

It aims to optimize transmission infrastructure use, maximize economic surplus, and create simultaneous benefits for both buyers and sellers.

This process helps in efficient price discovery and integration of different electricity markets or geographies, promoting transparency and competition in the energy trading sector.

The benefits of market coupling include:

Optimal utilization of transmission infrastructure.

Maximization of economic surplus by considering all bid types leads to the creation of simultaneous benefits for both buyers and sellers.

India has three power exchanges:

• Indian Energy Exchange (IEX): 90% market share

• Power Exchange of India (PXIL)

• Hindustan Power Exchange (HPX)

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/08/23/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-23-august-2023/

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points The G20 Pandemic Fund has approved a $25 million proposal from India’s Department of Animal Husbandry & Dairying, Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry & Dairying (DAHD) focussing on “Animal Health Security Strengthening in India for Pandemic Preparedness and Response.” It is a joint initiative of Asian Development Bank (ADB) UNESCO Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None of the above Correct Solution: b) Justification: The proposal focuses on “Animal Health Security Strengthening in India for Pandemic Preparedness and Response.” The G20 Pandemic Fund, established during Indonesia’s G20 Presidency, finances crucial investments to enhance pandemic prevention, preparedness, and response capacities at national, regional, and global levels, with a specific emphasis on low- and middle-income countries. The key components of the approved proposal include strengthening disease surveillance and early warning systems, expanding the laboratory network, improving interoperable data systems, enhancing capacity for data analytics and risk communication, fortifying health security for transboundary animal diseases, and facilitating regional cooperation through cross-border collaboration. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/08/23/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-23-august-2023/ Incorrect Solution: b) Justification: The proposal focuses on “Animal Health Security Strengthening in India for Pandemic Preparedness and Response.” The G20 Pandemic Fund, established during Indonesia’s G20 Presidency, finances crucial investments to enhance pandemic prevention, preparedness, and response capacities at national, regional, and global levels, with a specific emphasis on low- and middle-income countries. The key components of the approved proposal include strengthening disease surveillance and early warning systems, expanding the laboratory network, improving interoperable data systems, enhancing capacity for data analytics and risk communication, fortifying health security for transboundary animal diseases, and facilitating regional cooperation through cross-border collaboration. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/08/23/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-23-august-2023/

#### 23. Question

The G20 Pandemic Fund has approved a $25 million proposal from India’s Department of Animal Husbandry & Dairying, Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry & Dairying (DAHD) focussing on “Animal Health Security Strengthening in India for Pandemic Preparedness and Response.” It is a joint initiative of

• Asian Development Bank (ADB)

• Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)

How many of the above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

• d) None of the above

Solution: b)

Justification: The proposal focuses on “Animal Health Security Strengthening in India for Pandemic Preparedness and Response.”

The G20 Pandemic Fund, established during Indonesia’s G20 Presidency, finances crucial investments to enhance pandemic prevention, preparedness, and response capacities at national, regional, and global levels, with a specific emphasis on low- and middle-income countries.

The key components of the approved proposal include strengthening disease surveillance and early warning systems, expanding the laboratory network, improving interoperable data systems, enhancing capacity for data analytics and risk communication, fortifying health security for transboundary animal diseases, and facilitating regional cooperation through cross-border collaboration.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/08/23/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-23-august-2023/

Solution: b)

Justification: The proposal focuses on “Animal Health Security Strengthening in India for Pandemic Preparedness and Response.”

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/08/23/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-23-august-2023/

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points In the context of India’s struggle for independence, who among the following national leaders valued an Indian-controlled education system that values the country’s ethos? C Rajagopalachari Annie Besant Bal Gangadhar Tilak Gopal Krishna Gokhale How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution: d) Justification: Mahatma Gandhi believed that English as a primary medium created a divide between elites and the masses, hindering knowledge dissemination. Leaders like C Rajagopalachari, Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Gopal Krishna Gokhale, and Annie Besant stressed an Indian-controlled education system that values the country’s ethos. The Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) issued a directive, emphasizing the use of the mother tongue for instruction and displaying its commitment to native language education. The National Education Policy supports the promotion of mother tongue instruction. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/08/14/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-14-august-2023/ Incorrect Solution: d) Justification: Mahatma Gandhi believed that English as a primary medium created a divide between elites and the masses, hindering knowledge dissemination. Leaders like C Rajagopalachari, Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Gopal Krishna Gokhale, and Annie Besant stressed an Indian-controlled education system that values the country’s ethos. The Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) issued a directive, emphasizing the use of the mother tongue for instruction and displaying its commitment to native language education. The National Education Policy supports the promotion of mother tongue instruction. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/08/14/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-14-august-2023/

#### 24. Question

In the context of India’s struggle for independence, who among the following national leaders valued an Indian-controlled education system that values the country’s ethos?

• C Rajagopalachari

• Annie Besant

• Bal Gangadhar Tilak

• Gopal Krishna Gokhale

How many of the above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Solution: d)

Justification: Mahatma Gandhi believed that English as a primary medium created a divide between elites and the masses, hindering knowledge dissemination.

Leaders like C Rajagopalachari, Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Gopal Krishna Gokhale, and Annie Besant stressed an Indian-controlled education system that values the country’s ethos.

The Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) issued a directive, emphasizing the use of the mother tongue for instruction and displaying its commitment to native language education.

The National Education Policy supports the promotion of mother tongue instruction.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/08/14/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-14-august-2023/

Solution: d)

Justification: Mahatma Gandhi believed that English as a primary medium created a divide between elites and the masses, hindering knowledge dissemination.

Leaders like C Rajagopalachari, Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Gopal Krishna Gokhale, and Annie Besant stressed an Indian-controlled education system that values the country’s ethos.

The Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) issued a directive, emphasizing the use of the mother tongue for instruction and displaying its commitment to native language education.

The National Education Policy supports the promotion of mother tongue instruction.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/08/14/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-14-august-2023/

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Which of the following steps have been taken by the Indian government for the conservation of elephants? Monitoring the Illegal Killing of Elephants (MIKE) program Genetic Database for Captive Elephants Gaj Yatra How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None of the above Correct Solution: c) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/08/19/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-19-august-2022/ Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/08/19/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-19-august-2022/

#### 25. Question

Which of the following steps have been taken by the Indian government for the conservation of elephants?

• Monitoring the Illegal Killing of Elephants (MIKE) program

• Genetic Database for Captive Elephants

How many of the above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

• d) None of the above

Solution: c)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/08/19/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-19-august-2022/

Solution: c)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/08/19/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-19-august-2022/

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points It is interesting to note that the First Law Commission, set up in 1834 under Thomas Macaulay to draft the IPC, did not include adultery as a criminal offence, and instead relegated it to the realm of a civil offence or, in other words, a matrimonial offence. However, the Second Law Commission, headed by John Romilly, dissented with the views of Macaulay and prescribed criminal punishment. But given the then prevailing condition of women, where most of them lacked agency, recommended they should be spared from criminal prosecution. So she was viewed merely as a victim of male lust. Much water has flown under the bridge since then. Women have made great strides in education, political participation and economic empowerment, and the gender gap in these fields has reduced considerably. In addition, in 1950, we gave ourselves a Constitution that guaranteed equality, prohibited gender discrimination and ensured human dignity. What is the most logical and critical inference that can be drawn from the passage? a) Law commissions of the past differed on various issues which led to inconsistencies in law b) Women are at par with men in most fields today c) Law criminalizing adultery goes against the basic tenets of our constitution d) The pre independence era laws such as on adultery need to be brought in sync with contemporary times Correct Solution: D. Statement A is wrong as the passage never talks about inconsistencies in law. Statement B is true per se but is not the focus of the passage. The passage focusses on the need and constitutionality of law criminalizing adultery. Statement C is wrong as the decision rests upon the Court. Statement D is most closely linked to the central idea of the passage. Incorrect Solution: D. Statement A is wrong as the passage never talks about inconsistencies in law. Statement B is true per se but is not the focus of the passage. The passage focusses on the need and constitutionality of law criminalizing adultery. Statement C is wrong as the decision rests upon the Court. Statement D is most closely linked to the central idea of the passage.

#### 26. Question

It is interesting to note that the First Law Commission, set up in 1834 under Thomas Macaulay to draft the IPC, did not include adultery as a criminal offence, and instead relegated it to the realm of a civil offence or, in other words, a matrimonial offence. However, the Second Law Commission, headed by John Romilly, dissented with the views of Macaulay and prescribed criminal punishment. But given the then prevailing condition of women, where most of them lacked agency, recommended they should be spared from criminal prosecution. So she was viewed merely as a victim of male lust. Much water has flown under the bridge since then. Women have made great strides in education, political participation and economic empowerment, and the gender gap in these fields has reduced considerably. In addition, in 1950, we gave ourselves a Constitution that guaranteed equality, prohibited gender discrimination and ensured human dignity.

What is the most logical and critical inference that can be drawn from the passage?

• a) Law commissions of the past differed on various issues which led to inconsistencies in law

• b) Women are at par with men in most fields today

• c) Law criminalizing adultery goes against the basic tenets of our constitution

• d) The pre independence era laws such as on adultery need to be brought in sync with contemporary times

Solution: D.

Statement A is wrong as the passage never talks about inconsistencies in law. Statement B is true per se but is not the focus of the passage. The passage focusses on the need and constitutionality of law criminalizing adultery. Statement C is wrong as the decision rests upon the Court. Statement D is most closely linked to the central idea of the passage.

Solution: D.

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points The formless divine being has taken all possible forms in this universe. Hence, there is nothing that is good/ bad, right/ wrong because for anything to be good/bad or right/ wrong, they have to be different from each other, which in reality is not so, as everything is sourced from one origin only. Which of the following view corroborates the above statement? a) One should hate the evil not the evil doer b) Life is about accepting the sad part and enjoying the good moments c) Everything is transient in the physical world d) Hope is the best medicine Correct Solution: A. The line signifies that we should not have preconceived notions about anything, and that we must focus on eradicating the evil and not the agent through which evil is caused. The statement that best corroborates the passage is A as it mentions that evil doer must not be hated. Instead we should try and reform the agent while eradicating the evil. Incorrect Solution: A. The line signifies that we should not have preconceived notions about anything, and that we must focus on eradicating the evil and not the agent through which evil is caused. The statement that best corroborates the passage is A as it mentions that evil doer must not be hated. Instead we should try and reform the agent while eradicating the evil.

#### 27. Question

The formless divine being has taken all possible forms in this universe. Hence, there is nothing that is good/ bad, right/ wrong because for anything to be good/bad or right/ wrong, they have to be different from each other, which in reality is not so, as everything is sourced from one origin only.

Which of the following view corroborates the above statement?

• a) One should hate the evil not the evil doer

• b) Life is about accepting the sad part and enjoying the good moments

• c) Everything is transient in the physical world

• d) Hope is the best medicine

Solution: A.

The line signifies that we should not have preconceived notions about anything, and that we must focus on eradicating the evil and not the agent through which evil is caused. The statement that best corroborates the passage is A as it mentions that evil doer must not be hated. Instead we should try and reform the agent while eradicating the evil.

Solution: A.

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points Two positions of a block are shown below: When six is at the bottom, what number will be at the top? A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 5 Correct Answer: D Explanation: From figures (i) and (ii) we conclude that the number 1, 2, 3 and 4 appear adjacent to 6. Thus, the number 5 will appear opposite 6. Therefore, when six is at the bottom, then 5 will be at the top. Incorrect Answer: D Explanation: From figures (i) and (ii) we conclude that the number 1, 2, 3 and 4 appear adjacent to 6. Thus, the number 5 will appear opposite 6. Therefore, when six is at the bottom, then 5 will be at the top.

#### 28. Question

Two positions of a block are shown below: When six is at the bottom, what number will be at the top?

Explanation:

From figures (i) and (ii) we conclude that the number 1, 2, 3 and 4 appear adjacent to 6. Thus, the number 5 will appear opposite 6. Therefore, when six is at the bottom, then 5 will be at the top.

Explanation:

From figures (i) and (ii) we conclude that the number 1, 2, 3 and 4 appear adjacent to 6. Thus, the number 5 will appear opposite 6. Therefore, when six is at the bottom, then 5 will be at the top.

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points Directions for (Q. 29- 30 ): A cube is divided into 343 identical cube lets. Each cut is made parallel to some surface of the cube. But before doing that the cube is coloured with green colour on one set of adjacent faces, red on the second and blue on the third set. How many minimum cuts you have made? (a)15 (b)18 (c)21 (d)9 Correct Answer B) 18 Solution: n3 = 343 = 73 ==> n = 7 Minimum number of cuts = 3(n -1) = 3(7 – 1) = 3 X 6 = 18 Incorrect Answer B) 18 Solution: n3 = 343 = 73 ==> n = 7 Minimum number of cuts = 3(n -1) = 3(7 – 1) = 3 X 6 = 18

#### 29. Question

Directions for (Q. 29- 30 ): A cube is divided into 343 identical cube lets. Each cut is made parallel to some surface of the cube. But before doing that the cube is coloured with green colour on one set of adjacent faces, red on the second and blue on the third set.

How many minimum cuts you have made?

Answer B) 18

n3 = 343 = 73

Minimum number of cuts = 3(n -1)

= 3(7 – 1)

Answer B) 18

n3 = 343 = 73

Minimum number of cuts = 3(n -1)

= 3(7 – 1)

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points How many cube lets are coloured with exactly two colours? (a)59 (b)63 (c)51 (d)54 Correct Answer c) 51 Solution – n3 = 343 = 73 ==> n = 7 Number of cube let with no face painted will = (n – 2) 3 = (7 – 2) 3 = 125 No. of cube let with 2 colour = Total no. of cube let – [cube lets with one colour + cube lets with no colour + cube lets with three colour] = 343 – [125 + 2 + 165] = 51 Incorrect Answer c) 51 Solution – n3 = 343 = 73 ==> n = 7 Number of cube let with no face painted will = (n – 2) 3 = (7 – 2) 3 = 125 No. of cube let with 2 colour = Total no. of cube let – [cube lets with one colour + cube lets with no colour + cube lets with three colour] = 343 – [125 + 2 + 165] = 51

#### 30. Question

How many cube lets are coloured with exactly two colours?

Answer c) 51

Solution –

n3 = 343 = 73

Number of cube let with no face painted will

= (n – 2) 3

= (7 – 2) 3

No. of cube let with 2 colour = Total no. of cube let – [cube lets with one colour + cube lets with no colour + cube lets with three colour]

= 343 – [125 + 2 + 165]

Answer c) 51

Solution –

n3 = 343 = 73

Number of cube let with no face painted will

= (n – 2) 3

= (7 – 2) 3

No. of cube let with 2 colour = Total no. of cube let – [cube lets with one colour + cube lets with no colour + cube lets with three colour]