DAY – 5 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan 2.0 -2024: Subject – Science and Technology

INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024

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Read about Insights IAS INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Prelims – 2024 [ HERE ] :

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• Question 1 of 40 1. Question 1 points Which clinical scoring system is used to assist in the diagnosis of DRESS Syndrome? a) SCORTEN score b) RegiSCAR score c) SOFA score d) APACHE II score Correct Answer: b Explanation: Recently, the Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission (IPC) has issued a drug safety alert for doctors and patients about the use of painkiller mefenamic acid can lead to Drug Reactions with Eosinophilia and Systemic Symptoms (DRESS) Syndrome. About the DRESS Syndrome: It is a type of drug allergy that can occur as a reaction to a large variety of medications. It is sometimes referred to as DIHS (Drug Induced Hypersensitivity Syndrome). This syndrome causes a diverse array of clinical symptoms, anywhere from 2 to 8 weeks after initiating the offending drugs Symptoms: Patients typically present with a rash, fever, and eosinophilia but can have a variety of symptoms including liver, lung, or kidney involvement. Also have a visceral involvement (hepatitis, pneumonitis, myocarditis, pericarditis, nephritis, and colitis) which is the major cause of morbidity and mortality in this syndrome. Treatment: The most important step to treat DRESS Syndrome is to stop the medication involved in the reaction, and sometimes, no further treatment is needed. It is largely supportive and symptomatic; corticosteroids are often used and sometimes immunosuppressants like cyclosporine. The RegiSCAR score is specifically developed to diagnose DRESS Syndrome by assessing a combination of clinical features and laboratory findings unique to this condition. Other scoring systems like SCORTEN, SOFA, and APACHE II are designed for other purposes and are not used in the diagnosis of DRESS Syndrome. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Recently, the Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission (IPC) has issued a drug safety alert for doctors and patients about the use of painkiller mefenamic acid can lead to Drug Reactions with Eosinophilia and Systemic Symptoms (DRESS) Syndrome. About the DRESS Syndrome: It is a type of drug allergy that can occur as a reaction to a large variety of medications. It is sometimes referred to as DIHS (Drug Induced Hypersensitivity Syndrome). This syndrome causes a diverse array of clinical symptoms, anywhere from 2 to 8 weeks after initiating the offending drugs Symptoms: Patients typically present with a rash, fever, and eosinophilia but can have a variety of symptoms including liver, lung, or kidney involvement. Also have a visceral involvement (hepatitis, pneumonitis, myocarditis, pericarditis, nephritis, and colitis) which is the major cause of morbidity and mortality in this syndrome. Treatment: The most important step to treat DRESS Syndrome is to stop the medication involved in the reaction, and sometimes, no further treatment is needed. It is largely supportive and symptomatic; corticosteroids are often used and sometimes immunosuppressants like cyclosporine. The RegiSCAR score is specifically developed to diagnose DRESS Syndrome by assessing a combination of clinical features and laboratory findings unique to this condition. Other scoring systems like SCORTEN, SOFA, and APACHE II are designed for other purposes and are not used in the diagnosis of DRESS Syndrome. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 1. Question

Which clinical scoring system is used to assist in the diagnosis of DRESS Syndrome?

• a) SCORTEN score

• b) RegiSCAR score

• c) SOFA score

• d) APACHE II score

Explanation:

• Recently, the Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission (IPC) has issued a drug safety alert for doctors and patients about the use of painkiller mefenamic acid can lead to Drug Reactions with Eosinophilia and Systemic Symptoms (DRESS) Syndrome.

• About the DRESS Syndrome:

• It is a type of drug allergy that can occur as a reaction to a large variety of medications.

• It is sometimes referred to as DIHS (Drug Induced Hypersensitivity Syndrome).

• This syndrome causes a diverse array of clinical symptoms, anywhere from 2 to 8 weeks after initiating the offending drugs

• Patients typically present with a rash, fever, and eosinophilia but can have a variety of symptoms including liver, lung, or kidney involvement.

• Also have a visceral involvement (hepatitis, pneumonitis, myocarditis, pericarditis, nephritis, and colitis) which is the major cause of morbidity and mortality in this syndrome.

• Treatment:

• The most important step to treat DRESS Syndrome is to stop the medication involved in the reaction, and sometimes, no further treatment is needed.

• It is largely supportive and symptomatic; corticosteroids are often used and sometimes immunosuppressants like cyclosporine.

• The RegiSCAR score is specifically developed to diagnose DRESS Syndrome by assessing a combination of clinical features and laboratory findings unique to this condition. Other scoring systems like SCORTEN, SOFA, and APACHE II are designed for other purposes and are not used in the diagnosis of DRESS Syndrome.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• About the DRESS Syndrome:

• It is a type of drug allergy that can occur as a reaction to a large variety of medications.

• It is sometimes referred to as DIHS (Drug Induced Hypersensitivity Syndrome).

• This syndrome causes a diverse array of clinical symptoms, anywhere from 2 to 8 weeks after initiating the offending drugs

• Patients typically present with a rash, fever, and eosinophilia but can have a variety of symptoms including liver, lung, or kidney involvement.

• Also have a visceral involvement (hepatitis, pneumonitis, myocarditis, pericarditis, nephritis, and colitis) which is the major cause of morbidity and mortality in this syndrome.

• Treatment:

• The most important step to treat DRESS Syndrome is to stop the medication involved in the reaction, and sometimes, no further treatment is needed.

• It is largely supportive and symptomatic; corticosteroids are often used and sometimes immunosuppressants like cyclosporine.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 2 of 40 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements with reference to the Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission (IPC): The IPC promotes the rational use of branded medicines by publishing the National Formulary of India. The IPC prescribes standards for the identity, purity, and strength of drugs required for human and veterinary health care. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: b Explanation: Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission is an autonomous Institution of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, of India. It is created to set standards of drugs in the country. Functions: Its basic function is to update regularly the standards of drugs commonly required for treatment of diseases prevailing in this region. It publishes official documents for improving Quality of Medicines by way of adding new and updating existing monographs in the form of Indian Pharmacopoeia (IP). It further promotes rational use of generic medicines by publishing National Formulary of India It prescribes standards for identity, purity and strength of drugs essentially required from the health-care perspective of human beings and animals. It also provides IP Reference Substances (IPRS) which act as a fingerprint for identification of an article under test and its purity as prescribed in IP. The IPC promotes the rational use of generic medicines, not branded medicines, by publishing the National Formulary of India. The focus on generic medicines aims to ensure affordable and accessible medication. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. The IPC indeed prescribes standards for the identity, purity, and strength of drugs required for both human and veterinary health care. These standards are crucial for ensuring the safety and efficacy of medications. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission is an autonomous Institution of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, of India. It is created to set standards of drugs in the country. Functions: Its basic function is to update regularly the standards of drugs commonly required for treatment of diseases prevailing in this region. It publishes official documents for improving Quality of Medicines by way of adding new and updating existing monographs in the form of Indian Pharmacopoeia (IP). It further promotes rational use of generic medicines by publishing National Formulary of India It prescribes standards for identity, purity and strength of drugs essentially required from the health-care perspective of human beings and animals. It also provides IP Reference Substances (IPRS) which act as a fingerprint for identification of an article under test and its purity as prescribed in IP. The IPC promotes the rational use of generic medicines, not branded medicines, by publishing the National Formulary of India. The focus on generic medicines aims to ensure affordable and accessible medication. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. The IPC indeed prescribes standards for the identity, purity, and strength of drugs required for both human and veterinary health care. These standards are crucial for ensuring the safety and efficacy of medications. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements with reference to the Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission (IPC):

• The IPC promotes the rational use of branded medicines by publishing the National Formulary of India.

• The IPC prescribes standards for the identity, purity, and strength of drugs required for human and veterinary health care.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission is an autonomous Institution of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, of India.

• It is created to set standards of drugs in the country.

• Functions:

• Its basic function is to update regularly the standards of drugs commonly required for treatment of diseases prevailing in this region.

• It publishes official documents for improving Quality of Medicines by way of adding new and updating existing monographs in the form of Indian Pharmacopoeia (IP).

• It further promotes rational use of generic medicines by publishing National Formulary of India

• It prescribes standards for identity, purity and strength of drugs essentially required from the health-care perspective of human beings and animals.

• It also provides IP Reference Substances (IPRS) which act as a fingerprint for identification of an article under test and its purity as prescribed in IP.

• The IPC promotes the rational use of generic medicines, not branded medicines, by publishing the National Formulary of India. The focus on generic medicines aims to ensure affordable and accessible medication. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• The IPC indeed prescribes standards for the identity, purity, and strength of drugs required for both human and veterinary health care. These standards are crucial for ensuring the safety and efficacy of medications. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission is an autonomous Institution of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, of India.

• It is created to set standards of drugs in the country.

• Functions:

• Its basic function is to update regularly the standards of drugs commonly required for treatment of diseases prevailing in this region.

• It publishes official documents for improving Quality of Medicines by way of adding new and updating existing monographs in the form of Indian Pharmacopoeia (IP).

• It further promotes rational use of generic medicines by publishing National Formulary of India

• It prescribes standards for identity, purity and strength of drugs essentially required from the health-care perspective of human beings and animals.

• It also provides IP Reference Substances (IPRS) which act as a fingerprint for identification of an article under test and its purity as prescribed in IP.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 3 of 40 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Geospatial Intelligence: Geospatial technology uses tools like GIS, GPS, and Remote Sensing for geographic mapping and analysis. Digital twins are virtual replicas of real systems, used for modeling and predicting outcomes in Geospatial Intelligence. Geospatial Intelligence plays an important role in the development of autonomous vehicles by providing ground-level details. There is a lack of skilled manpower in India, affecting the deployment of geospatial services. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: d Explanation: Geospatial Intelligence uses tools like GIS (Geographic Information System), GPS (Global Positioning System) and Remote Sensing for geographic mapping and analysis. These tools capture spatial information about objects, events and phenomena (indexed to their geographical location on earth, geotag). The location data may be Static or Dynamic. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Digital twins are virtual replicas of real-world systems, processes, or objects. They are used extensively in Geospatial Intelligence for: Modeling: Simulating real-world conditions and scenarios. Predicting Outcomes: Forecasting the impact of various factors on the real system. Applications: Effective in urban planning, disaster management, and environmental monitoring by allowing stakeholders to test and analyze different strategies in a virtual environment. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Geospatial Intelligence is integral to the development of autonomous vehicles: Ground-Level Details: Provides precise and detailed mapping of the terrain, road networks, traffic patterns, and obstacles. Navigation and Safety: Enhances the vehicle’s ability to navigate safely and efficiently by integrating real-time spatial data. Examples: High-resolution maps and real-time data feeds are essential for the functioning of autonomous driving systems in companies like Tesla, Google (Waymo), and others. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Geospatial Intelligence is integral to the development of autonomous vehicles: Ground-Level Details: Provides precise and detailed mapping of the terrain, road networks, traffic patterns, and obstacles. Navigation and Safety: Enhances the vehicle’s ability to navigate safely and efficiently by integrating real-time spatial data. Examples: High-resolution maps and real-time data feeds are essential for the functioning of autonomous driving systems in companies like Tesla, Google (Waymo), and others. Hence, statement 4 is correct. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: Geospatial Intelligence uses tools like GIS (Geographic Information System), GPS (Global Positioning System) and Remote Sensing for geographic mapping and analysis. These tools capture spatial information about objects, events and phenomena (indexed to their geographical location on earth, geotag). The location data may be Static or Dynamic. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Digital twins are virtual replicas of real-world systems, processes, or objects. They are used extensively in Geospatial Intelligence for: Modeling: Simulating real-world conditions and scenarios. Predicting Outcomes: Forecasting the impact of various factors on the real system. Applications: Effective in urban planning, disaster management, and environmental monitoring by allowing stakeholders to test and analyze different strategies in a virtual environment. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Geospatial Intelligence is integral to the development of autonomous vehicles: Ground-Level Details: Provides precise and detailed mapping of the terrain, road networks, traffic patterns, and obstacles. Navigation and Safety: Enhances the vehicle’s ability to navigate safely and efficiently by integrating real-time spatial data. Examples: High-resolution maps and real-time data feeds are essential for the functioning of autonomous driving systems in companies like Tesla, Google (Waymo), and others. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Geospatial Intelligence is integral to the development of autonomous vehicles: Ground-Level Details: Provides precise and detailed mapping of the terrain, road networks, traffic patterns, and obstacles. Navigation and Safety: Enhances the vehicle’s ability to navigate safely and efficiently by integrating real-time spatial data. Examples: High-resolution maps and real-time data feeds are essential for the functioning of autonomous driving systems in companies like Tesla, Google (Waymo), and others. Hence, statement 4 is correct. Hence, option (d) is correct.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements about Geospatial Intelligence:

• Geospatial technology uses tools like GIS, GPS, and Remote Sensing for geographic mapping and analysis.

• Digital twins are virtual replicas of real systems, used for modeling and predicting outcomes in Geospatial Intelligence.

• Geospatial Intelligence plays an important role in the development of autonomous vehicles by providing ground-level details.

• There is a lack of skilled manpower in India, affecting the deployment of geospatial services.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

• Geospatial Intelligence uses tools like GIS (Geographic Information System), GPS (Global Positioning System) and Remote Sensing for geographic mapping and analysis.

• These tools capture spatial information about objects, events and phenomena (indexed to their geographical location on earth, geotag). The location data may be Static or Dynamic. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Digital twins are virtual replicas of real-world systems, processes, or objects. They are used extensively in Geospatial Intelligence for:

• Modeling: Simulating real-world conditions and scenarios.

• Predicting Outcomes: Forecasting the impact of various factors on the real system.

• Applications: Effective in urban planning, disaster management, and environmental monitoring by allowing stakeholders to test and analyze different strategies in a virtual environment.

• Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Geospatial Intelligence is integral to the development of autonomous vehicles:

• Ground-Level Details: Provides precise and detailed mapping of the terrain, road networks, traffic patterns, and obstacles.

• Navigation and Safety: Enhances the vehicle’s ability to navigate safely and efficiently by integrating real-time spatial data.

• Examples: High-resolution maps and real-time data feeds are essential for the functioning of autonomous driving systems in companies like Tesla, Google (Waymo), and others.

• Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Geospatial Intelligence is integral to the development of autonomous vehicles:

• Ground-Level Details: Provides precise and detailed mapping of the terrain, road networks, traffic patterns, and obstacles.

• Navigation and Safety: Enhances the vehicle’s ability to navigate safely and efficiently by integrating real-time spatial data.

• Examples: High-resolution maps and real-time data feeds are essential for the functioning of autonomous driving systems in companies like Tesla, Google (Waymo), and others.

• Hence, statement 4 is correct.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

• Geospatial Intelligence uses tools like GIS (Geographic Information System), GPS (Global Positioning System) and Remote Sensing for geographic mapping and analysis.

• Digital twins are virtual replicas of real-world systems, processes, or objects. They are used extensively in Geospatial Intelligence for:

• Modeling: Simulating real-world conditions and scenarios.

• Predicting Outcomes: Forecasting the impact of various factors on the real system.

• Applications: Effective in urban planning, disaster management, and environmental monitoring by allowing stakeholders to test and analyze different strategies in a virtual environment.

• Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Geospatial Intelligence is integral to the development of autonomous vehicles:

• Ground-Level Details: Provides precise and detailed mapping of the terrain, road networks, traffic patterns, and obstacles.

• Navigation and Safety: Enhances the vehicle’s ability to navigate safely and efficiently by integrating real-time spatial data.

• Examples: High-resolution maps and real-time data feeds are essential for the functioning of autonomous driving systems in companies like Tesla, Google (Waymo), and others.

• Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Geospatial Intelligence is integral to the development of autonomous vehicles:

• Ground-Level Details: Provides precise and detailed mapping of the terrain, road networks, traffic patterns, and obstacles.

• Navigation and Safety: Enhances the vehicle’s ability to navigate safely and efficiently by integrating real-time spatial data.

• Examples: High-resolution maps and real-time data feeds are essential for the functioning of autonomous driving systems in companies like Tesla, Google (Waymo), and others.

• Hence, statement 4 is correct.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Question 4 of 40 4. Question 1 points With reference to ’Metaverse’, consider the following statements: The term Metaverse was coined by Mark Zuckerberg. The Metaverse is nothing but an extension of our real world into the digital realm. In the Metaverse, people can socialize with others, engage in various activities, and even conduct business or trade. How many of the above are *incorrect? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: a Explanation: The term “metaverse” first appeared in author Neal Stephenson’s 1992 science-fiction novel Snowcrash, which describes a future where millions of people use virtual avatars to participate in a cyberspace realm. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Metaverse refers to a virtual or digital universewhere people can interact with each other and digital objects in a shared online space.The metaverse is essentially an interconnected network of virtual worlds, augmented reality, and virtual reality environments accessible through the internet The metaverse is an extension of our real world into the digital realm providing an immersive multi-user experience for anyone accessing it around the globe. The metaverse aims to offer a seamless and immersive experience, blurring the lines between the physical and digital worlds. Hence, statement 2 is correct. In this digital realm, users can create avatars, socialize with others, engage in various activities,*explore virtual landscapes, and even conduct business or trade virtual goods and services. Elements of the metaverse include virtual reality (VR) platforms, augmented reality (AR) experiences, online games, social media, virtual commerce, and virtual art galleries, among others. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: The term “metaverse” first appeared in author Neal Stephenson’s 1992 science-fiction novel Snowcrash, which describes a future where millions of people use virtual avatars to participate in a cyberspace realm. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Metaverse refers to a virtual or digital universewhere people can interact with each other and digital objects in a shared online space.The metaverse is essentially an interconnected network of virtual worlds, augmented reality, and virtual reality environments accessible through the internet The metaverse is an extension of our real world into the digital realm providing an immersive multi-user experience for anyone accessing it around the globe. The metaverse aims to offer a seamless and immersive experience, blurring the lines between the physical and digital worlds. Hence, statement 2 is correct. In this digital realm, users can create avatars, socialize with others, engage in various activities,explore virtual landscapes, and even conduct business or trade virtual goods and services. Elements of the metaverse include virtual reality (VR) platforms, augmented reality (AR) experiences, online games, social media, virtual commerce, and virtual art galleries, among others. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 4. Question

With reference to ’Metaverse’, consider the following statements:

• The term Metaverse was coined by Mark Zuckerberg.

• The Metaverse is nothing but an extension of our real world into the digital realm.

• In the Metaverse, people can socialize with others, engage in various activities, and even conduct business or trade.

How many of the above are *incorrect*?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Explanation:

• The term “metaverse” first appeared in author Neal Stephenson’s 1992 science-fiction novel Snowcrash, which describes a future where millions of people use virtual avatars to participate in a cyberspace realm. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• Metaverse refers to a virtual or digital universewhere people can interact with each other and digital objects in a shared online space.The metaverse is essentially an interconnected network of virtual worlds, augmented reality, and virtual reality environments accessible through the internet The metaverse is an extension of our real world into the digital realm providing an immersive multi-user experience for anyone accessing it around the globe. The metaverse aims to offer a seamless and immersive experience, blurring the lines between the physical and digital worlds. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• In this digital realm, users can create avatars, socialize with others, engage in various activities,explore virtual landscapes, and even conduct business or trade virtual goods and services. Elements of the metaverse include virtual reality (VR) platforms, augmented reality (AR) experiences, online games, social media, virtual commerce, and virtual art galleries, among others. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 5 of 40 5. Question 1 points Three identical vessels A, B and C are filled with water, mercury and kerosene respectively. The three vessels are provided with identical taps at the bottom of the vessels. If the three taps are opened simultaneously, then which vessel is emptied first? a) Vessel A b) Vessel B c) Vessel C d) All the vessels will be emptied simultaneously Correct Answer: c Explanation: Three identical vessels A, B, and C are filled with water, mercury, and kerosene respectively. The three vessels are provided with identical taps at the bottom. Water (Vessel A): Water has a lower density compared to both mercury and kerosene. Mercury (Vessel B): Mercury is denser than water but less dense than kerosene. Kerosene (Vessel C): Kerosene is the least dense among the three liquids. The speed at which a fluid flows out of a vessel through a tap is inversely proportional to the fluid’s density. Therefore, the vessel with the least dense fluid will empty first. Given this, kerosene in Vessel C will flow out the fastest, followed by mercury in Vessel B, and finally, water in Vessel A will flow out the slowest. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Three identical vessels A, B, and C are filled with water, mercury, and kerosene respectively. The three vessels are provided with identical taps at the bottom. Water (Vessel A): Water has a lower density compared to both mercury and kerosene. Mercury (Vessel B): Mercury is denser than water but less dense than kerosene. Kerosene (Vessel C): Kerosene is the least dense among the three liquids. The speed at which a fluid flows out of a vessel through a tap is inversely proportional to the fluid’s density. Therefore, the vessel with the least dense fluid will empty first. Given this, kerosene in Vessel C will flow out the fastest, followed by mercury in Vessel B, and finally, water in Vessel A will flow out the slowest. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 5. Question

Three identical vessels A, B and C are filled with water, mercury and kerosene respectively. The three vessels are provided with identical taps at the bottom of the vessels. If the three taps are opened simultaneously, then which vessel is emptied first?

• a) Vessel A

• b) Vessel B

• c) Vessel C

• d) All the vessels will be emptied simultaneously

Explanation:

• Three identical vessels A, B, and C are filled with water, mercury, and kerosene respectively. The three vessels are provided with identical taps at the bottom.

• Water (Vessel A): Water has a lower density compared to both mercury and kerosene.

• Mercury (Vessel B): Mercury is denser than water but less dense than kerosene.

• Kerosene (Vessel C): Kerosene is the least dense among the three liquids.

• The speed at which a fluid flows out of a vessel through a tap is inversely proportional to the fluid’s density. Therefore, the vessel with the least dense fluid will empty first.

• Given this, kerosene in Vessel C will flow out the fastest, followed by mercury in Vessel B, and finally, water in Vessel A will flow out the slowest.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

• Three identical vessels A, B, and C are filled with water, mercury, and kerosene respectively. The three vessels are provided with identical taps at the bottom.

• Water (Vessel A): Water has a lower density compared to both mercury and kerosene.

• Mercury (Vessel B): Mercury is denser than water but less dense than kerosene.

• Kerosene (Vessel C): Kerosene is the least dense among the three liquids.

• The speed at which a fluid flows out of a vessel through a tap is inversely proportional to the fluid’s density. Therefore, the vessel with the least dense fluid will empty first.

• Given this, kerosene in Vessel C will flow out the fastest, followed by mercury in Vessel B, and finally, water in Vessel A will flow out the slowest.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 6 of 40 6. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes ‘Facultative parthenogenesis’? a) The ability of sexually reproducing species to sometimes produce offspring asexually. b) Transferring the nuclear DNA from one of the woman’s eggs into an enucleated donor egg that contains healthy mitochondria before being fertilized with sperm from a male partner. c) A technology that scientists use to selectively modify the DNA of living organisms. d) None of the above. Correct Answer: a Explanation: Recently, scientists have documented the first-known instance of a “virgin birth” by a crocodile, which had been living in isolation for 16 years at Costa Rican Zoo. Scientists found DNA sequences showing it was a result of facultative parthenogenesis or reproduction without the genetic contribution of males. Facultative parthenogenesis is the term for when a female can produce offspring either sexually or via asexual reproduction. The phenomenon of FP has also been documented in other species of fish, birds, lizards and snakes. The scientists said this is the first-known example of a crocodile. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Recently, scientists have documented the first-known instance of a “virgin birth” by a crocodile, which had been living in isolation for 16 years at Costa Rican Zoo. Scientists found DNA sequences showing it was a result of facultative parthenogenesis or reproduction without the genetic contribution of males. Facultative parthenogenesis is the term for when a female can produce offspring either sexually or via asexual reproduction. The phenomenon of FP has also been documented in other species of fish, birds, lizards and snakes. The scientists said this is the first-known example of a crocodile. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 6. Question

Which of the following best describes ‘Facultative parthenogenesis’?

• a) The ability of sexually reproducing species to sometimes produce offspring asexually.

• b) Transferring the nuclear DNA from one of the woman’s eggs into an enucleated donor egg that contains healthy mitochondria before being fertilized with sperm from a male partner.

• c) A technology that scientists use to selectively modify the DNA of living organisms.

• d) None of the above.

Explanation:

• Recently, scientists have documented the first-known instance of a “virgin birth” by a crocodile, which had been living in isolation for 16 years at Costa Rican Zoo. Scientists found DNA sequences showing it was a result of facultative parthenogenesis or reproduction without the genetic contribution of males.

• Facultative parthenogenesis is the term for when a female can produce offspring either sexually or via asexual reproduction. The phenomenon of FP has also been documented in other species of fish, birds, lizards and snakes. The scientists said this is the first-known example of a crocodile.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 7 of 40 7. Question 1 points What is ‘Scary Barbie’, recently seen in news? a) It is a hacking tool used by hackers to get hold of calls, messages, texts, and contacts of a victim’s mobile phone. b) It is a massive black hole consuming a star. c) It is a neurodegenerative disorder effecting girl babies in the Congo basin. d) It is a hypersonic missile introduced by Israeli army. Correct Answer: b Explanation: Astronomers have detected a supermassive black hole devouring a star – and they’ve nicknamed it “Scary Barbie,” because of its terrifying power. Scientists called it one of the “most luminous, energetic, long-lasting transient objects” found lurking in a forgotten corner of the night sky. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Astronomers have detected a supermassive black hole devouring a star – and they’ve nicknamed it “Scary Barbie,” because of its terrifying power. Scientists called it one of the “most luminous, energetic, long-lasting transient objects” found lurking in a forgotten corner of the night sky. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 7. Question

What is ‘Scary Barbie’, recently seen in news?

• a) It is a hacking tool used by hackers to get hold of calls, messages, texts, and contacts of a victim’s mobile phone.

• b) It is a massive black hole consuming a star.

• c) It is a neurodegenerative disorder effecting girl babies in the Congo basin.

• d) It is a hypersonic missile introduced by Israeli army.

Explanation:

• Astronomers have detected a supermassive black hole devouring a star – and they’ve nicknamed it “Scary Barbie,” because of its terrifying power. Scientists called it one of the “most luminous, energetic, long-lasting transient objects” found lurking in a forgotten corner of the night sky.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 8 of 40 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Project Kusha: Project Kusha aims to provide the Indian Air Force (IAF) with a long-range air defense system. Project Kusha aims to surpass the capabilities of the Iron Dome. Project Kusha and Iron Dome are developed by the same organization. Project Kusha will be operationalized in 2024. How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: b Explanation: In a significant move towards enhancing its air defence capabilities, India is embarking on an ambitious project called ‘Project Kusha.’ ‘Project Kusha’ is set to provide the Indian Air Force (IAF) with a long-range air defence system, with deployment targeted for 2028-29. The long-range surface-to-air defence system (LR-SAM) incorporates advanced long-range surveillance and fire control radars, which empower the IAF to effectively monitor airspace and fend off enemy threats. Interceptor missiles, with ranges of 150 km, 200 km, and 350 km, provide the ability to detect and strike hostile targets at different distances. It will also be effective in providing strategic and tactical cover. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Drawing parallels with Israel’s renowned Iron Dome system, ‘Project Kusha’ is expected to not only match but potentially surpass the capabilities of its Israeli counterpart. It aims to detect and destroy various hostile targets, including cruise missiles, stealth fighter jets, and drones at extended ranges. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Kusha is developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) of India, while the Iron Dome is developed by Rafael Advanced Defense Systems and Israel Aerospace Industries. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Project Kusha is targeted for deployment by 2028-29. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: In a significant move towards enhancing its air defence capabilities, India is embarking on an ambitious project called ‘Project Kusha.’ ‘Project Kusha’ is set to provide the Indian Air Force (IAF) with a long-range air defence system, with deployment targeted for 2028-29. The long-range surface-to-air defence system (LR-SAM) incorporates advanced long-range surveillance and fire control radars, which empower the IAF to effectively monitor airspace and fend off enemy threats. Interceptor missiles, with ranges of 150 km, 200 km, and 350 km, provide the ability to detect and strike hostile targets at different distances. It will also be effective in providing strategic and tactical cover. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Drawing parallels with Israel’s renowned Iron Dome system, ‘Project Kusha’ is expected to not only match but potentially surpass the capabilities of its Israeli counterpart. It aims to detect and destroy various hostile targets, including cruise missiles, stealth fighter jets, and drones at extended ranges. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Kusha is developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) of India, while the Iron Dome is developed by Rafael Advanced Defense Systems and Israel Aerospace Industries. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Project Kusha is targeted for deployment by 2028-29. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements about Project Kusha:

• Project Kusha aims to provide the Indian Air Force (IAF) with a long-range air defense system.

• Project Kusha aims to surpass the capabilities of the Iron Dome.

• Project Kusha and Iron Dome are developed by the same organization.

• Project Kusha will be operationalized in 2024.

How many of the above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

• In a significant move towards enhancing its air defence capabilities, India is embarking on an ambitious project called ‘Project Kusha.’

• ‘Project Kusha’ is set to provide the Indian Air Force (IAF) with a long-range air defence system, with deployment targeted for 2028-29.

• The long-range surface-to-air defence system (LR-SAM) incorporates advanced long-range surveillance and fire control radars, which empower the IAF to effectively monitor airspace and fend off enemy threats.

• Interceptor missiles, with ranges of 150 km, 200 km, and 350 km, provide the ability to detect and strike hostile targets at different distances. It will also be effective in providing strategic and tactical cover. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Drawing parallels with Israel’s renowned Iron Dome system, ‘Project Kusha’ is expected to not only match but potentially surpass the capabilities of its Israeli counterpart. It aims to detect and destroy various hostile targets, including cruise missiles, stealth fighter jets, and drones at extended ranges. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Kusha is developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) of India, while the Iron Dome is developed by Rafael Advanced Defense Systems and Israel Aerospace Industries. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Project Kusha is targeted for deployment by 2028-29. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• In a significant move towards enhancing its air defence capabilities, India is embarking on an ambitious project called ‘Project Kusha.’

• ‘Project Kusha’ is set to provide the Indian Air Force (IAF) with a long-range air defence system, with deployment targeted for 2028-29.

• Project Kusha is targeted for deployment by 2028-29. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 9 of 40 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the direct-to-mobile (D2M) technology: The science behind D2M is similar to that of an FM radio. D2M uses the internet to stream multimedia content. D2M captures territorial digital TV signals using mobile phones. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1,2 and 3 Correct Answer: c Explanation: Indian telecom operators have asked the government to auction the spectrum that will be used for direct-to-mobile (D2M) technology services. The science behind D2M is similar to that of an FM radio, where a receiver within the device can tap into different radio frequencies. Hence, statement 1 is correct. This new-age technology is a combination of broadband and broadcast that uses mobile phones to capture territorial digital TV signals. D2M does not rely on the internet to stream multimedia content; instead, it captures territorial digital TV signals directly on mobile devices. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. D2M technology involves using mobile phones to directly receive digital TV signals broadcast over the air. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Indian telecom operators have asked the government to auction the spectrum that will be used for direct-to-mobile (D2M) technology services. The science behind D2M is similar to that of an FM radio, where a receiver within the device can tap into different radio frequencies. Hence, statement 1 is correct. This new-age technology is a combination of broadband and broadcast that uses mobile phones to capture territorial digital TV signals. D2M does not rely on the internet to stream multimedia content; instead, it captures territorial digital TV signals directly on mobile devices. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. D2M technology involves using mobile phones to directly receive digital TV signals broadcast over the air. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements about the direct-to-mobile (D2M) technology:

• The science behind D2M is similar to that of an FM radio.

• D2M uses the internet to stream multimedia content.

• D2M captures territorial digital TV signals using mobile phones.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• b) 1 and 2 only

• c) 1 and 3 only

• d) 1,2 and 3

Explanation:

• Indian telecom operators have asked the government to auction the spectrum that will be used for direct-to-mobile (D2M) technology services.

• The science behind D2M is similar to that of an FM radio, where a receiver within the device can tap into different radio frequencies. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• This new-age technology is a combination of broadband and broadcast that uses mobile phones to capture territorial digital TV signals. D2M does not rely on the internet to stream multimedia content; instead, it captures territorial digital TV signals directly on mobile devices. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• D2M technology involves using mobile phones to directly receive digital TV signals broadcast over the air. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

• Indian telecom operators have asked the government to auction the spectrum that will be used for direct-to-mobile (D2M) technology services.

• The science behind D2M is similar to that of an FM radio, where a receiver within the device can tap into different radio frequencies. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• D2M technology involves using mobile phones to directly receive digital TV signals broadcast over the air. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 10 of 40 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about multimodal AI: Multimodal AI combines multiple types of data to create more accurate determinations. Multimodal AI systems use video, audio, speech, images, text, and traditional numerical data sets. Which of the above given statements is/are *NOT correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: d Explanation: Multimodal AI refers to artificial intelligence systems that integrate and analyze multiple types or modes of data simultaneously to make determinations, draw conclusions, or make predictions. By leveraging different types of data such as video, audio, speech, images, text, and numerical data sets, multimodal AI systems can capture a richer understanding of the context and content of the information being processed. Combining diverse data modalities allows the AI system to extract complementary information from each data type, leading to more accurate and robust determinations compared to single-modal AI systems. Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: Multimodal AI refers to artificial intelligence systems that integrate and analyze multiple types or modes of data simultaneously to make determinations, draw conclusions, or make predictions. By leveraging different types of data such as video, audio, speech, images, text, and numerical data sets, multimodal AI systems can capture a richer understanding of the context and content of the information being processed. Combining diverse data modalities allows the AI system to extract complementary information from each data type, leading to more accurate and robust determinations compared to single-modal AI systems. Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct. Hence, option (d) is correct. *

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements about multimodal AI:

• Multimodal AI combines multiple types of data to create more accurate determinations.

• Multimodal AI systems use video, audio, speech, images, text, and traditional numerical data sets.

Which of the above given statements is/are *NOT* correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• Multimodal AI refers to artificial intelligence systems that integrate and analyze multiple types or modes of data simultaneously to make determinations, draw conclusions, or make predictions.

• By leveraging different types of data such as video, audio, speech, images, text, and numerical data sets, multimodal AI systems can capture a richer understanding of the context and content of the information being processed.

• Combining diverse data modalities allows the AI system to extract complementary information from each data type, leading to more accurate and robust determinations compared to single-modal AI systems.

• Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

• Multimodal AI refers to artificial intelligence systems that integrate and analyze multiple types or modes of data simultaneously to make determinations, draw conclusions, or make predictions.

• Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Question 11 of 40 11. Question 1 points What significant concept does Foucault pendulum demonstrate? a) Laws of motion b) Law of universal gravitation c) Earth's rotation d) Laws of planetary motion Correct Answer: c Explanation: A Foucault pendulum has been installed inside the new Parliament which is designed by the National Council of Science Museums, Kolkata The Foucault pendulum was invented by Léon Foucault in the mid-19th century and provided the first laboratory demonstration in history to show that the Earth spins on its axis. As the pendulum swings back and forth, its apparent change in direction over time is due to the rotation of the Earth beneath it, a phenomenon known as the Coriolis Effect. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: A Foucault pendulum has been installed inside the new Parliament which is designed by the National Council of Science Museums, Kolkata The Foucault pendulum was invented by Léon Foucault in the mid-19th century and provided the first laboratory demonstration in history to show that the Earth spins on its axis. As the pendulum swings back and forth, its apparent change in direction over time is due to the rotation of the Earth beneath it, a phenomenon known as the Coriolis Effect. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 11. Question

What significant concept does Foucault pendulum demonstrate?

• a) Laws of motion

• b) Law of universal gravitation

• c) Earth's rotation

• d) Laws of planetary motion

Explanation:

• A Foucault pendulum has been installed inside the new Parliament which is designed by the National Council of Science Museums, Kolkata

• The Foucault pendulum was invented by Léon Foucault in the mid-19th century and provided the first laboratory demonstration in history to show that the Earth spins on its axis. As the pendulum swings back and forth, its apparent change in direction over time is due to the rotation of the Earth beneath it, a phenomenon known as the Coriolis Effect.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

• A Foucault pendulum has been installed inside the new Parliament which is designed by the National Council of Science Museums, Kolkata

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 12 of 40 12. Question 1 points What are Xenobots? a) They are large robots used for heavy industrial tasks. b) They are tiny, living robots created from stem cells. c) They are traditional industrial machines with no advanced functionalities. d) They are microscopic robots with potential applications in space travel. Correct Answer: b Explanation: Xenobots are a groundbreaking advancement in the field of robotics and biotechnology. They are tiny, living robots created from stem cells obtained from frog embryos. These stem cells are carefully assembled and manipulated to produce living organisms that exhibit specific behaviors and functionalities. Xenobots can be programmed to perform a wide range of tasks. This programming involves using computer algorithms to guide the behavior and function of the Xenobots. One of the remarkable features of Xenobots is their ability to exhibit complex behaviors and interactions despite their simple biological composition. By harnessing the power of living cells, Xenobots can adapt and respond to their environment, making them ideal candidates for applications in biomedicine, environmental remediation, and even exploration. In biomedicine, Xenobots hold promise for applications such as targeted drug delivery, where they can navigate through the body to deliver medication to specific sites or tissues. They could also be used in regenerative medicine to repair damaged tissues or organs by stimulating cell growth and regeneration. In environmental remediation, Xenobots could be deployed to clean up pollutants or remove harmful substances from water sources or contaminated areas. Their ability to sense and respond to environmental cues makes them valuable tools for tasks such as cleaning up oil spills or removing microplastics from oceans. While Xenobots are indeed microscopic robots, their current applications and research focus are primarily in biotechnology, regenerative medicine, and environmental cleanup. There is ongoing research into potential applications in various fields, including space exploration, but it is not their primary focus. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Xenobots are a groundbreaking advancement in the field of robotics and biotechnology. They are tiny, living robots created from stem cells obtained from frog embryos. These stem cells are carefully assembled and manipulated to produce living organisms that exhibit specific behaviors and functionalities. Xenobots can be programmed to perform a wide range of tasks. This programming involves using computer algorithms to guide the behavior and function of the Xenobots. One of the remarkable features of Xenobots is their ability to exhibit complex behaviors and interactions despite their simple biological composition. By harnessing the power of living cells, Xenobots can adapt and respond to their environment, making them ideal candidates for applications in biomedicine, environmental remediation, and even exploration. In biomedicine, Xenobots hold promise for applications such as targeted drug delivery, where they can navigate through the body to deliver medication to specific sites or tissues. They could also be used in regenerative medicine to repair damaged tissues or organs by stimulating cell growth and regeneration. In environmental remediation, Xenobots could be deployed to clean up pollutants or remove harmful substances from water sources or contaminated areas. Their ability to sense and respond to environmental cues makes them valuable tools for tasks such as cleaning up oil spills or removing microplastics from oceans. While Xenobots are indeed microscopic robots, their current applications and research focus are primarily in biotechnology, regenerative medicine, and environmental cleanup. There is ongoing research into potential applications in various fields, including space exploration, but it is not their primary focus. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 12. Question

What are Xenobots?

• a) They are large robots used for heavy industrial tasks.

• b) They are tiny, living robots created from stem cells.

• c) They are traditional industrial machines with no advanced functionalities.

• d) They are microscopic robots with potential applications in space travel.

Explanation:

• Xenobots are a groundbreaking advancement in the field of robotics and biotechnology. They are tiny, living robots created from stem cells obtained from frog embryos. These stem cells are carefully assembled and manipulated to produce living organisms that exhibit specific behaviors and functionalities.

• Xenobots can be programmed to perform a wide range of tasks. This programming involves using computer algorithms to guide the behavior and function of the Xenobots.

• One of the remarkable features of Xenobots is their ability to exhibit complex behaviors and interactions despite their simple biological composition. By harnessing the power of living cells, Xenobots can adapt and respond to their environment, making them ideal candidates for applications in biomedicine, environmental remediation, and even exploration.

• In biomedicine, Xenobots hold promise for applications such as targeted drug delivery, where they can navigate through the body to deliver medication to specific sites or tissues. They could also be used in regenerative medicine to repair damaged tissues or organs by stimulating cell growth and regeneration.

• In environmental remediation, Xenobots could be deployed to clean up pollutants or remove harmful substances from water sources or contaminated areas. Their ability to sense and respond to environmental cues makes them valuable tools for tasks such as cleaning up oil spills or removing microplastics from oceans.

• While Xenobots are indeed microscopic robots, their current applications and research focus are primarily in biotechnology, regenerative medicine, and environmental cleanup. There is ongoing research into potential applications in various fields, including space exploration, but it is not their primary focus.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• Xenobots can be programmed to perform a wide range of tasks. This programming involves using computer algorithms to guide the behavior and function of the Xenobots.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 13 of 40 13. Question 1 points Where is the World Economic Forum (WEF) establishing its Center for the Fourth Industrial Revolution (C4IR)? a) Mumbai, Maharashtra b) Chennai, Tamil Nadu c) Hyderabad, Telangana d) Bengaluru, Karnataka Correct Answer: c Explanation: Recently, the World Economic Forum (WEF) has chosen Hyderabad, Telangana for establishing its Center for the Fourth Industrial Revolution (C4IR). The C4IR Telangana will be an autonomous, non-profit organization with a thematic focus on healthcare and life sciences. Hence option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Recently, the World Economic Forum (WEF) has chosen Hyderabad, Telangana for establishing its Center for the Fourth Industrial Revolution (C4IR). The C4IR Telangana will be an autonomous, non-profit organization with a thematic focus on healthcare and life sciences. Hence option (c) is correct.

#### 13. Question

Where is the World Economic Forum (WEF) establishing its Center for the Fourth Industrial Revolution (C4IR)?

• a) Mumbai, Maharashtra

• b) Chennai, Tamil Nadu

• c) Hyderabad, Telangana

• d) Bengaluru, Karnataka

Explanation:

• Recently, the World Economic Forum (WEF) has chosen Hyderabad, Telangana for establishing its Center for the Fourth Industrial Revolution (C4IR).

• The C4IR Telangana will be an autonomous, non-profit organization with a thematic focus on healthcare and life sciences.

• Hence option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

• Recently, the World Economic Forum (WEF) has chosen Hyderabad, Telangana for establishing its Center for the Fourth Industrial Revolution (C4IR).

• The C4IR Telangana will be an autonomous, non-profit organization with a thematic focus on healthcare and life sciences.

• Hence option (c) is correct.

• Question 14 of 40 14. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes ‘Biologics’? a) They are a diverse group of medicines derived from human blood and plasma. b) They are a type of biological weapons of mass destruction which uses undetectable and highly infectious microorganisms. c) They are a diverse group of medicines applied to body surfaces such as the skin or mucous membranes to treat ailments. d) A branch of biology that deals with bio-logistics. Correct Answer: a Explanation: A biologic drug (biologics) is a product that is produced from living organisms or contain components of living organisms. Biologic drugs include a wide variety of products derived from human, animal, or microorganisms by using biotechnology. Types of biologic drugs include vaccines, blood, blood components, cells, allergens, genes, tissues, and recombinant proteins. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: A biologic drug (biologics) is a product that is produced from living organisms or contain components of living organisms. Biologic drugs include a wide variety of products derived from human, animal, or microorganisms by using biotechnology. Types of biologic drugs include vaccines, blood, blood components, cells, allergens, genes, tissues, and recombinant proteins. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 14. Question

Which of the following best describes ‘Biologics’?

• a) They are a diverse group of medicines derived from human blood and plasma.

• b) They are a type of biological weapons of mass destruction which uses undetectable and highly infectious microorganisms.

• c) They are a diverse group of medicines applied to body surfaces such as the skin or mucous membranes to treat ailments.

• d) A branch of biology that deals with bio-logistics.

Explanation:

• A biologic drug (biologics) is a product that is produced from living organisms or contain components of living organisms. Biologic drugs include a wide variety of products derived from human, animal, or microorganisms by using biotechnology.

• Types of biologic drugs include vaccines, blood, blood components, cells, allergens, genes, tissues, and recombinant proteins.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• Types of biologic drugs include vaccines, blood, blood components, cells, allergens, genes, tissues, and recombinant proteins.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 15 of 40 15. Question 1 points With reference to Yellow Fever, consider the following statements: The yellow fever virus is transmitted by the same mosquito that spreads the Zika, Chikungunya and Dengue virus. It is endemic to East Asian and South Asian countries. The fatality rate of yellow fever is very low. How many of the above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: a Explanation: Yellow fever is an acute viral haemorrhagic disease transmitted by infected mosquitoes. The yellow fever virus is transmitted by infected mosquitoes, most commonly from the Aedes species – the same mosquito that spreads the Zika, Chikungunya and Dengue virus. Haemogogus mosquitoes also spread it and are mostly found in the jungle. Hence, statement 1 is correct. As per WHO, Yellow fever occurs in 47 endemic countries in Africa in Central and South America. Around 90% of cases reported every year occur in Sub-Saharan Africa. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Symptoms of yellow fever include fever, headache, jaundice, muscle pain, nausea, vomiting, fatigue, jaundice, which gives the skin and whites of the eyes a yellow tinge, kidney failure, liver failure, hemorrhage, bleeding from the nose, mouth, and eyes. Between 20 percent and 50 percent of people who develop toxic stage symptoms die within two weeks. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Yellow fever is an acute viral haemorrhagic disease transmitted by infected mosquitoes. The yellow fever virus is transmitted by infected mosquitoes, most commonly from the Aedes species – the same mosquito that spreads the Zika, Chikungunya and Dengue virus. Haemogogus mosquitoes also spread it and are mostly found in the jungle. Hence, statement 1 is correct. As per WHO, Yellow fever occurs in 47 endemic countries in Africa in Central and South America. Around 90% of cases reported every year occur in Sub-Saharan Africa. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Symptoms of yellow fever include fever, headache, jaundice, muscle pain, nausea, vomiting, fatigue, jaundice, which gives the skin and whites of the eyes a yellow tinge, kidney failure, liver failure, hemorrhage, bleeding from the nose, mouth, and eyes. Between 20 percent and 50 percent of people who develop toxic stage symptoms die within two weeks. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 15. Question

With reference to Yellow Fever, consider the following statements:

• The yellow fever virus is transmitted by the same mosquito that spreads the Zika, Chikungunya and Dengue virus.

• It is endemic to East Asian and South Asian countries.

• The fatality rate of yellow fever is very low.

How many of the above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• c) All three

Explanation:

• Yellow fever is an acute viral haemorrhagic disease transmitted by infected mosquitoes. The yellow fever virus is transmitted by infected mosquitoes, most commonly from the Aedes species – the same mosquito that spreads the Zika, Chikungunya and Dengue virus. Haemogogus mosquitoes also spread it and are mostly found in the jungle. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• As per WHO, Yellow fever occurs in 47 endemic countries in Africa in Central and South America. Around 90% of cases reported every year occur in Sub-Saharan Africa. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• Symptoms of yellow fever include fever, headache, jaundice, muscle pain, nausea, vomiting, fatigue, jaundice, which gives the skin and whites of the eyes a yellow tinge, kidney failure, liver failure, hemorrhage, bleeding from the nose, mouth, and eyes. Between 20 percent and 50 percent of people who develop toxic stage symptoms die within two weeks. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 16 of 40 16. Question 1 points Which one of the following fuels is used in solid propellent chambers of PSLV? (a) Ammonium Perchlorate (b) Unsymmetrical Dimethyl Hydrazine (UDMH) (c) Mono Methyl Hydrazine (MMH) (d) Hydroxyl-terminated polybutadiene (HTPB) Correct Solution: d Hydroxyl-terminated polybutadiene (HTPB) is a translucent, waxy liquid that reacts with isocyanates to form polyurethane polymers. It’s a hard, rubbery material that binds together fuel and oxidizer in solid rocket fuel. It is used in solid propellent chambers of PSLV. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Solution: d Hydroxyl-terminated polybutadiene (HTPB) is a translucent, waxy liquid that reacts with isocyanates to form polyurethane polymers. It’s a hard, rubbery material that binds together fuel and oxidizer in solid rocket fuel. It is used in solid propellent chambers of PSLV. Hence, option (d) is correct.

#### 16. Question

Which one of the following fuels is used in solid propellent chambers of PSLV?

• (a) Ammonium Perchlorate

• (b) Unsymmetrical Dimethyl Hydrazine (UDMH)

• (c) Mono Methyl Hydrazine (MMH)

• (d) Hydroxyl-terminated polybutadiene (HTPB)

Solution: d

Hydroxyl-terminated polybutadiene (HTPB) is a translucent, waxy liquid that reacts with isocyanates to form polyurethane polymers. It’s a hard, rubbery material that binds together fuel and oxidizer in solid rocket fuel. It is used in solid propellent chambers of PSLV.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

Solution: d

Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Question 17 of 40 17. Question 1 points Consider the followings: South Korea Israel India Japan How many of the above countries have operational ICBMs? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: b An intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM) is a ballistic missile with a range greater than 5,500 Kilo-metres (3,400 mi), primarily designed for nuclear weapons delivery (delivering one or more thermonuclear warheads). Most modern designs support multiple independently targetable reentry vehicle (MIRVs), allowing a single missile to carry several warheads, each of which can strike a different target. The United States, Russia, China, France, India, the United Kingdom, Israel, and North Korea are the only countries known to have operational ICBMs. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Solution: b An intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM) is a ballistic missile with a range greater than 5,500 Kilo-metres (3,400 mi), primarily designed for nuclear weapons delivery (delivering one or more thermonuclear warheads). Most modern designs support multiple independently targetable reentry vehicle (MIRVs), allowing a single missile to carry several warheads, each of which can strike a different target. The United States, Russia, China, France, India, the United Kingdom, Israel, and North Korea are the only countries known to have operational ICBMs. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 17. Question

Consider the followings:

• South Korea

How many of the above countries have operational ICBMs?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: b

An intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM) is a ballistic missile with a range greater than 5,500 Kilo-metres (3,400 mi), primarily designed for nuclear weapons delivery (delivering one or more thermonuclear warheads). Most modern designs support multiple independently targetable reentry vehicle (MIRVs), allowing a single missile to carry several warheads, each of which can strike a different target. The United States, Russia, China, France, India, the United Kingdom, Israel, and North Korea are the only countries known to have operational ICBMs.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Solution: b

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 18 of 40 18. Question 1 points Consider the followings: Adding lime Distillation Chelation Adding washing soda How many of the above methods can be used for removing the permanent hardness of water? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: d Hardness of Water is caused due to the presence of soluble bicarbonates, chlorides, and sulfates of calcium and magnesium. Hard water is water that does not lather when soap is added. There might be some small health benefits in drinking hard water. Washing soda is used to remove the water’s permanent hardness. Chlorides and sulphates are converted to insoluble carbonates when washing soda is added. Lime absorbs the carbon dioxide and precipitates the insoluble calcium carbonate. Chelating agents like ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) bind to the non-tolerable ions in hard water. Distillation can be used to eliminate both temporary and permanent hardness. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Solution: d Hardness of Water is caused due to the presence of soluble bicarbonates, chlorides, and sulfates of calcium and magnesium. Hard water is water that does not lather when soap is added. There might be some small health benefits in drinking hard water. Washing soda is used to remove the water’s permanent hardness. Chlorides and sulphates are converted to insoluble carbonates when washing soda is added. Lime absorbs the carbon dioxide and precipitates the insoluble calcium carbonate. Chelating agents like ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) bind to the non-tolerable ions in hard water. Distillation can be used to eliminate both temporary and permanent hardness. Hence, option (d) is correct.

#### 18. Question

Consider the followings:

• Adding lime

• Distillation

• Adding washing soda

How many of the above methods can be used for removing the permanent hardness of water?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: d

Hardness of Water is caused due to the presence of soluble bicarbonates, chlorides, and sulfates of calcium and magnesium. Hard water is water that does not lather when soap is added. There might be some small health benefits in drinking hard water.

Washing soda is used to remove the water’s permanent hardness. Chlorides and sulphates are converted to insoluble carbonates when washing soda is added.

Lime absorbs the carbon dioxide and precipitates the insoluble calcium carbonate.

Chelating agents like ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) bind to the non-tolerable ions in hard water.

Distillation can be used to eliminate both temporary and permanent hardness.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

Solution: d

Washing soda is used to remove the water’s permanent hardness. Chlorides and sulphates are converted to insoluble carbonates when washing soda is added.

Lime absorbs the carbon dioxide and precipitates the insoluble calcium carbonate.

Chelating agents like ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) bind to the non-tolerable ions in hard water.

Distillation can be used to eliminate both temporary and permanent hardness.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Question 19 of 40 19. Question 1 points Consider the followings: Vinegar Human Blood Baking Soda Orange Juice How many of the above substances will turn a red litmus paper into blue? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: b Litmus paper is used to test acidic and basic nature of the solution. On solution being basic, red litmus turns blue in colour. Human Blood and Baking Soda both are basic in nature hence, they turn a red litmus paper into blue. Orange Juice and Vinegar are acidic in nature. Hence, they turn a blue litmus paper into red. Incorrect Solution: b Litmus paper is used to test acidic and basic nature of the solution. On solution being basic, red litmus turns blue in colour. Human Blood and Baking Soda both are basic in nature hence, they turn a red litmus paper into blue. Orange Juice and Vinegar are acidic in nature. Hence, they turn a blue litmus paper into red.

#### 19. Question

Consider the followings:

• Human Blood

• Baking Soda

• Orange Juice

How many of the above substances will turn a red litmus paper into blue?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: b

Litmus paper is used to test acidic and basic nature of the solution. On solution being basic, red litmus turns blue in colour.

Human Blood and Baking Soda both are basic in nature hence, they turn a red litmus paper into blue.

Orange Juice and Vinegar are acidic in nature. Hence, they turn a blue litmus paper into red.

Solution: b

Litmus paper is used to test acidic and basic nature of the solution. On solution being basic, red litmus turns blue in colour.

Human Blood and Baking Soda both are basic in nature hence, they turn a red litmus paper into blue.

Orange Juice and Vinegar are acidic in nature. Hence, they turn a blue litmus paper into red.

• Question 20 of 40 20. Question 1 points Bowman’s capsule and glomerulus are associated with – (a) Kidney (b) Liver (c) Heart (d) Lung Correct Solution: a Bowman’s capsule is a two-walled pouch that covers the glomerulus. The space in between the walls of the capsule is called Bowman’s space. Bowman’s capsule is known by other names, including the glomerular capsule, the Malpighian capsule and the renal corpuscular capsule. The Bowman’s capsule is located in the cortex, the outer part of the kidney. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Solution: a Bowman’s capsule is a two-walled pouch that covers the glomerulus. The space in between the walls of the capsule is called Bowman’s space. Bowman’s capsule is known by other names, including the glomerular capsule, the Malpighian capsule and the renal corpuscular capsule. The Bowman’s capsule is located in the cortex, the outer part of the kidney. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 20. Question

Bowman’s capsule and glomerulus are associated with –

• (a) Kidney

Solution: a

Bowman’s capsule is a two-walled pouch that covers the glomerulus. The space in between the walls of the capsule is called Bowman’s space. Bowman’s capsule is known by other names, including the glomerular capsule, the Malpighian capsule and the renal corpuscular capsule. The Bowman’s capsule is located in the cortex, the outer part of the kidney.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Solution: a

Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 21 of 40 21. Question 1 points Consider the followings: Plutonium-239 Uranium-235 Thorium-232 Uranium-238 Americium How many of the above are the examples of the Fissile Material? (a) Only two (b) Only three (c) Only four (d) All five Correct Solution: b Fissile materials are atomic nuclei that can undergo nuclear fission, or splitting, when hit by low-energy neutrons. This process releases large amounts of energy and is the key component of nuclear weapons and other nuclear explosive devices. The three primary fissile materials are uranium-233, uranium-235, americium and plutonium-239. Hence, option (b) is correct. Thorium-232 and Uranium-238 are fertile materials. Incorrect Solution: b Fissile materials are atomic nuclei that can undergo nuclear fission, or splitting, when hit by low-energy neutrons. This process releases large amounts of energy and is the key component of nuclear weapons and other nuclear explosive devices. The three primary fissile materials are uranium-233, uranium-235, americium and plutonium-239. Hence, option (b) is correct. Thorium-232 and Uranium-238 are fertile materials.

#### 21. Question

Consider the followings:

• Plutonium-239

• Uranium-235

• Thorium-232

• Uranium-238

How many of the above are the examples of the Fissile Material?

• (a) Only two

• (b) Only three

• (c) Only four

• (d) All five

Solution: b

Fissile materials are atomic nuclei that can undergo nuclear fission, or splitting, when hit by low-energy neutrons. This process releases large amounts of energy and is the key component of nuclear weapons and other nuclear explosive devices. The three primary fissile materials are uranium-233, uranium-235, americium and plutonium-239.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Thorium-232 and Uranium-238 are fertile materials.

Solution: b

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Thorium-232 and Uranium-238 are fertile materials.

• Question 22 of 40 22. Question 1 points Consider the following diseases: Lyme Disease Rotavirus Pernicious anaemia HIV Syphilis An ELISA test may be used to diagnose how many of the above diseases? (a) Only two (b) Only three (c) Only four (d) All five Correct Solution: a An enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) is a laboratory test that detects antibodies in the blood. It’s a solid-phase enzyme immunoassay that uses antibodies to detect the presence of a ligand in a liquid sample. It is used to diagnose:- Bacterial infections: Lyme disease, brucellosis and syphilis. Viral infections: HIV, hepatitis A, B, and C. Fungal infections: Yeast infections (candida) Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Solution: a An enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) is a laboratory test that detects antibodies in the blood. It’s a solid-phase enzyme immunoassay that uses antibodies to detect the presence of a ligand in a liquid sample. It is used to diagnose:- Bacterial infections: Lyme disease, brucellosis and syphilis. Viral infections: HIV, hepatitis A, B, and C. Fungal infections: Yeast infections (candida) Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 22. Question

Consider the following diseases:

• Lyme Disease

• Pernicious anaemia

An ELISA test may be used to diagnose how many of the above diseases?

• (a) Only two

• (b) Only three

• (c) Only four

• (d) All five

Solution: a

An enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) is a laboratory test that detects antibodies in the blood. It’s a solid-phase enzyme immunoassay that uses antibodies to detect the presence of a ligand in a liquid sample. It is used to diagnose:-

• Bacterial infections: Lyme disease, brucellosis and syphilis.

• Viral infections: HIV, hepatitis A, B, and C.

• Fungal infections: Yeast infections (candida)

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Solution: a

• Bacterial infections: Lyme disease, brucellosis and syphilis.

• Viral infections: HIV, hepatitis A, B, and C.

• Fungal infections: Yeast infections (candida)

Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 23 of 40 23. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Aqua regia: It is a mixture of concentrated sulfuric acid and nitric acid. Freshly prepared aqua regia is colorless, but it turns yellow, orange or red within seconds from the formation. It can dissolve all metals including gold and platinum. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: a Aqua Regia (Latin for “royal water”) is an acidic, corrosive, and oxidative mixture of three parts concentrated hydrochloric acid (HCl) and one part concentrated nitric acid (HNO3). Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Freshly prepared aqua regia is colorless, but it turns yellow, orange or red within seconds from the formation. Hence, statement 2 is correct. This acid was named by alchemists because it can dissolve the noble metals gold and platinum. Tantalum, iridium and a few other metals are not dissolved by it. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution: a Aqua Regia (Latin for “royal water”) is an acidic, corrosive, and oxidative mixture of three parts concentrated hydrochloric acid (HCl) and one part concentrated nitric acid (HNO3). Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Freshly prepared aqua regia is colorless, but it turns yellow, orange or red within seconds from the formation. Hence, statement 2 is correct. This acid was named by alchemists because it can dissolve the noble metals gold and platinum. Tantalum, iridium and a few other metals are not dissolved by it. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

#### 23. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Aqua regia:

• It is a mixture of concentrated sulfuric acid and nitric acid.

• Freshly prepared aqua regia is colorless, but it turns yellow, orange or red within seconds from the formation.

• It can dissolve all metals including gold and platinum.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: a

Aqua Regia (Latin for “royal water”) is an acidic, corrosive, and oxidative mixture of three parts concentrated hydrochloric acid (HCl) and one part concentrated nitric acid (HNO3).

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Freshly prepared aqua regia is colorless, but it turns yellow, orange or red within seconds from the formation.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

This acid was named by alchemists because it can dissolve the noble metals gold and platinum. Tantalum, iridium and a few other metals are not dissolved by it.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution: a

Aqua Regia (Latin for “royal water”) is an acidic, corrosive, and oxidative mixture of three parts concentrated hydrochloric acid (HCl) and one part concentrated nitric acid (HNO3).

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Freshly prepared aqua regia is colorless, but it turns yellow, orange or red within seconds from the formation.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

This acid was named by alchemists because it can dissolve the noble metals gold and platinum. Tantalum, iridium and a few other metals are not dissolved by it.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Question 24 of 40 24. Question 1 points Consider the followings: Urine Blood Brain cells Feces Saliva In how many of the above, DNA of a human can be found? (a) Only two (b) Only three (c) Only four (d) All five Correct Solution: d DNA is contained in blood, semen, skin cells, tissue, organs, muscle, brain cells, bone, teeth, hair, saliva, mucus, perspiration, fingernails, urine, feces etc. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Solution: d DNA is contained in blood, semen, skin cells, tissue, organs, muscle, brain cells, bone, teeth, hair, saliva, mucus, perspiration, fingernails, urine, feces etc. Hence, option (d) is correct.

#### 24. Question

Consider the followings:

• Brain cells

In how many of the above, DNA of a human can be found?

• (a) Only two

• (b) Only three

• (c) Only four

• (d) All five

Solution: d

DNA is contained in blood, semen, skin cells, tissue, organs, muscle, brain cells, bone, teeth, hair, saliva, mucus, perspiration, fingernails, urine, feces etc.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

Solution: d

DNA is contained in blood, semen, skin cells, tissue, organs, muscle, brain cells, bone, teeth, hair, saliva, mucus, perspiration, fingernails, urine, feces etc.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Question 25 of 40 25. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Nuclear fusion does not involve the release of carbon dioxide. Nuclear fission is the source of energy for the sun. Nuclear Fusion does not create any long-lived radioactive nuclear waste. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: b Nuclear fusion does not release carbon dioxide (CO2) or other harmful atmospheric emissions. This process is similar to the sun’s process, where two hydrogen atoms are combined at a high temperature. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The sun’s energy comes from the process of nuclear fusion, which is the conversion of hydrogen nuclei into helium. This process occurs in the sun’s core, where the temperature and pressure are very high, causing hydrogen atoms to fuse into helium atoms and release energy in the form of gamma rays. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Nuclear fusion reactors don’t produce long-lived radioactive nuclear waste because the activation of components is low enough to recycle or reuse the materials within 100 years. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution: b Nuclear fusion does not release carbon dioxide (CO2) or other harmful atmospheric emissions. This process is similar to the sun’s process, where two hydrogen atoms are combined at a high temperature. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The sun’s energy comes from the process of nuclear fusion, which is the conversion of hydrogen nuclei into helium. This process occurs in the sun’s core, where the temperature and pressure are very high, causing hydrogen atoms to fuse into helium atoms and release energy in the form of gamma rays. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Nuclear fusion reactors don’t produce long-lived radioactive nuclear waste because the activation of components is low enough to recycle or reuse the materials within 100 years. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

#### 25. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Nuclear fusion does not involve the release of carbon dioxide.

• Nuclear fission is the source of energy for the sun.

• Nuclear Fusion does not create any long-lived radioactive nuclear waste.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: b

Nuclear fusion does not release carbon dioxide (CO2) or other harmful atmospheric emissions. This process is similar to the sun’s process, where two hydrogen atoms are combined at a high temperature.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The sun’s energy comes from the process of nuclear fusion, which is the conversion of hydrogen nuclei into helium. This process occurs in the sun’s core, where the temperature and pressure are very high, causing hydrogen atoms to fuse into helium atoms and release energy in the form of gamma rays.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Nuclear fusion reactors don’t produce long-lived radioactive nuclear waste because the activation of components is low enough to recycle or reuse the materials within 100 years.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution: b

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Nuclear fusion reactors don’t produce long-lived radioactive nuclear waste because the activation of components is low enough to recycle or reuse the materials within 100 years.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Question 26 of 40 26. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Smart contracts are digital contracts stored on a blockchain that are automatically executed when predetermined terms and conditions are met. Smart contracts permit trusted transactions and agreements to be carried out among disparate, anonymous parties without the need for a central authority. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: c) Justification: Excerpt from Investopedia: A smart contract is a self-executing program that automates the actions required in an agreement or contract. Once completed, the transactions are trackable and irreversible. The best way to envision a smart contract is to think of a vending machine—when you insert the correct amount of money and push an item’s button, the program (the smart contract) activates the machine to dispense your chosen item. Smart contracts permit trusted transactions and agreements to be carried out among disparate, anonymous parties without the need for a central authority, legal system, or external enforcement mechanism. While blockchain technology has come to be thought of primarily as the foundation for Bitcoin, it has evolved far beyond underpinning a virtual currency. Q Source: Emerging technologies https://www.investopedia.com/terms/s/smart-contracts.asp Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: Excerpt from Investopedia: A smart contract is a self-executing program that automates the actions required in an agreement or contract. Once completed, the transactions are trackable and irreversible. The best way to envision a smart contract is to think of a vending machine—when you insert the correct amount of money and push an item’s button, the program (the smart contract) activates the machine to dispense your chosen item. Smart contracts permit trusted transactions and agreements to be carried out among disparate, anonymous parties without the need for a central authority, legal system, or external enforcement mechanism. While blockchain technology has come to be thought of primarily as the foundation for Bitcoin, it has evolved far beyond underpinning a virtual currency. Q Source: Emerging technologies https://www.investopedia.com/terms/s/smart-contracts.asp

#### 26. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Smart contracts are digital contracts stored on a blockchain that are automatically executed when predetermined terms and conditions are met.

• Smart contracts permit trusted transactions and agreements to be carried out among disparate, anonymous parties without the need for a central authority.

Which of the above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c)

Justification: Excerpt from Investopedia:

A smart contract is a self-executing program that automates the actions required in an agreement or contract. Once completed, the transactions are trackable and irreversible. The best way to envision a smart contract is to think of a vending machine—when you insert the correct amount of money and push an item’s button, the program (the smart contract) activates the machine to dispense your chosen item.

Smart contracts permit trusted transactions and agreements to be carried out among disparate, anonymous parties without the need for a central authority, legal system, or external enforcement mechanism.

While blockchain technology has come to be thought of primarily as the foundation for Bitcoin, it has evolved far beyond underpinning a virtual currency.

Q Source: Emerging technologies

https://www.investopedia.com/terms/s/smart-contracts.asp

Solution: c)

Justification: Excerpt from Investopedia:

While blockchain technology has come to be thought of primarily as the foundation for Bitcoin, it has evolved far beyond underpinning a virtual currency.

Q Source: Emerging technologies

https://www.investopedia.com/terms/s/smart-contracts.asp

• Question 27 of 40 27. Question 1 points Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory (LIGO)- India is designed to measure changes in distance of gravitational waves at the smallest scale of the length of a a) meter scale b) proton c) carbon bond d) radio wave packet Correct Justification: Q Source: Insights modules Incorrect Justification: Q Source: Insights modules

#### 27. Question

Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory (LIGO)- India is designed to measure changes in distance of gravitational waves at the smallest scale of the length of a

• a) meter scale

• c) carbon bond

• d) radio wave packet

Justification:

Q Source: Insights modules

Justification:

Q Source: Insights modules

• Question 28 of 40 28. Question 1 points A maser flare in the atmosphere can be a sign of a) an extraordinary event such as the formation of a star b) gravitational waves emanating from a large body c) the cosmic wave background radiation d) none of the above Correct Solution: a) Justification: A maser is the microwave (radio frequency) equivalent of laser. The word stands for “microwave amplification by stimulated emission of radiation”. Masers are observed using radio telescopes and most of them are observed at centimetre wavelength: they are very compact. A maser flare can be a sign of an extraordinary event such as the formation of a star. Maser Monitoring Organisation (M2O): After the first detection of an accretion burst, in 2016, astronomers from around the world agreed in 2017 to coordinate their efforts to observe more. This led to the formation of the Maser Monitoring Organisation (M2O). The primary goal of M2O is to make the astronomy community aware of the importance of Maser monitoring. It is also to increase the number of sources monitored, the number of transitions monitored at, and increase cadence of observation. Q Source: Insights modules Incorrect Solution: a) Justification: A maser is the microwave (radio frequency) equivalent of laser. The word stands for “microwave amplification by stimulated emission of radiation”. Masers are observed using radio telescopes and most of them are observed at centimetre wavelength: they are very compact. A maser flare can be a sign of an extraordinary event such as the formation of a star. Maser Monitoring Organisation (M2O): After the first detection of an accretion burst, in 2016, astronomers from around the world agreed in 2017 to coordinate their efforts to observe more. This led to the formation of the Maser Monitoring Organisation (M2O). The primary goal of M2O is to make the astronomy community aware of the importance of Maser monitoring. It is also to increase the number of sources monitored, the number of transitions monitored at, and increase cadence of observation. Q Source: Insights modules

#### 28. Question

A maser flare in the atmosphere can be a sign of

• a) an extraordinary event such as the formation of a star

• b) gravitational waves emanating from a large body

• c) the cosmic wave background radiation

• d) none of the above

Solution: a)

Justification: A maser is the microwave (radio frequency) equivalent of laser. The word stands for “microwave amplification by stimulated emission of radiation”. Masers are observed using radio telescopes and most of them are observed at centimetre wavelength: they are very compact. A maser flare can be a sign of an extraordinary event such as the formation of a star.

Maser Monitoring Organisation (M2O): After the first detection of an accretion burst, in 2016, astronomers from around the world agreed in 2017 to coordinate their efforts to observe more. This led to the formation of the Maser Monitoring Organisation (M2O). The primary goal of M2O is to make the astronomy community aware of the importance of Maser monitoring. It is also to increase the number of sources monitored, the number of transitions monitored at, and increase cadence of observation.

Q Source: Insights modules

Solution: a)

Q Source: Insights modules

• Question 29 of 40 29. Question 1 points Methanol is a scalable and sustainable fuel, that can be produced from a variety of feedstocks like Indian High Ash Coal municipal solid waste carbon dioxide Select the correct answer using the codes below. a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: d) Justification: Unlike CNG, using methanol as a transportation fuel would require minimal alteration in the vehicles. Methanol is a clean-burning fuel that produces fewer smog causing emissions — such as sulphur oxides (SOx), nitrogen oxides (NOx) and particulate matter — and can improve air quality and related human health issues. Methanol is most commonly produced on a commercial scale from natural gas. It can also be produced from renewable sources such as biomass and recycled carbon dioxide. As a high-octane vehicle fuel, methanol offers excellent acceleration and power. It also improves vehicle efficiency. Advantages of methanol: Methanol is a clean burning drop in fuel which can replace both petrol & diesel in transportation &LPG, Wood, Kerosene in cooking fuel. It can also replace diesel in Railways, Marine Sector, Gensets, Power Generation and Methanol based reformers could be an ideal complement to Hybrid and Electric Mobility. Methanol is a scalable and sustainable fuel, that can be produced from a variety of feedstocks like Natural Gas, Coal (Indian High Ash Coal), Bio-mass, Municipal Solid waste and most importantly from CO2 Q Source: Insights modules Incorrect Solution: d) Justification: Unlike CNG, using methanol as a transportation fuel would require minimal alteration in the vehicles. Methanol is a clean-burning fuel that produces fewer smog causing emissions — such as sulphur oxides (SOx), nitrogen oxides (NOx) and particulate matter — and can improve air quality and related human health issues. Methanol is most commonly produced on a commercial scale from natural gas. It can also be produced from renewable sources such as biomass and recycled carbon dioxide. As a high-octane vehicle fuel, methanol offers excellent acceleration and power. It also improves vehicle efficiency. Advantages of methanol: Methanol is a clean burning drop in fuel which can replace both petrol & diesel in transportation &LPG, Wood, Kerosene in cooking fuel. It can also replace diesel in Railways, Marine Sector, Gensets, Power Generation and Methanol based reformers could be an ideal complement to Hybrid and Electric Mobility. Methanol is a scalable and sustainable fuel, that can be produced from a variety of feedstocks like Natural Gas, Coal (Indian High Ash Coal), Bio-mass, Municipal Solid waste and most importantly from CO2 Q Source: Insights modules

#### 29. Question

Methanol is a scalable and sustainable fuel, that can be produced from a variety of feedstocks like

• Indian High Ash Coal

• municipal solid waste

• carbon dioxide

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

• b) 2 and 3 only

• d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: d)

Justification: Unlike CNG, using methanol as a transportation fuel would require minimal alteration in the vehicles. Methanol is a clean-burning fuel that produces fewer smog causing emissions — such as sulphur oxides (SOx), nitrogen oxides (NOx) and particulate matter — and can improve air quality and related human health issues. Methanol is most commonly produced on a commercial scale from natural gas. It can also be produced from renewable sources such as biomass and recycled carbon dioxide.

As a high-octane vehicle fuel, methanol offers excellent acceleration and power. It also improves vehicle efficiency.

Advantages of methanol: Methanol is a clean burning drop in fuel which can replace both petrol & diesel in transportation &LPG, Wood, Kerosene in cooking fuel. It can also replace diesel in Railways, Marine Sector, Gensets, Power Generation and Methanol based reformers could be an ideal complement to Hybrid and Electric Mobility. Methanol is a scalable and sustainable fuel, that can be produced from a variety of feedstocks like Natural Gas, Coal (Indian High Ash Coal), Bio-mass, Municipal Solid waste and most importantly from CO2

Q Source: Insights modules

Solution: d)

As a high-octane vehicle fuel, methanol offers excellent acceleration and power. It also improves vehicle efficiency.

Q Source: Insights modules

• Question 30 of 40 30. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. The Euclid telescope, developed by the European Space Agency aims to investigate dark energy and dark matter. The IceCube Neutrino Observatory in Antarctica detects neutrinos emitted by astrophysical sources. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: c) Justification: Euclid telescope mission to investigate dark energy and dark matter: The Euclid telescope, developed by the European Space Agency, aims to investigate dark energy and dark matter. Dark energy and dark matter are believed to constitute 95% of the known universe. It will survey galaxies up to 10 billion light years away and precisely measure their distances. Neutrino Observatory’s view of the Milky Way and its cosmic insights: The IceCube Neutrino Observatory in Antarctica detected neutrinos emitted by astrophysical sources. Neutrinos are “ghost particles” ideal for studying high-energy processes in the universe. Researchers analyzed data from ten years and identified nearly 60,000 neutrino events. The findings offer insights into cosmic rays and pro- vide a basis for future advancements. Q Source: Insights modules Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: Euclid telescope mission to investigate dark energy and dark matter: The Euclid telescope, developed by the European Space Agency, aims to investigate dark energy and dark matter. Dark energy and dark matter are believed to constitute 95% of the known universe. It will survey galaxies up to 10 billion light years away and precisely measure their distances. Neutrino Observatory’s view of the Milky Way and its cosmic insights: The IceCube Neutrino Observatory in Antarctica detected neutrinos emitted by astrophysical sources. Neutrinos are “ghost particles” ideal for studying high-energy processes in the universe. Researchers analyzed data from ten years and identified nearly 60,000 neutrino events. The findings offer insights into cosmic rays and pro- vide a basis for future advancements. Q Source: Insights modules

#### 30. Question

Consider the following statements.

• The Euclid telescope, developed by the European Space Agency aims to investigate dark energy and dark matter.

• The IceCube Neutrino Observatory in Antarctica detects neutrinos emitted by astrophysical sources.

Which of the above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c)

Justification: Euclid telescope mission to investigate dark energy and dark matter:

• The Euclid telescope, developed by the European Space Agency, aims to investigate dark energy and dark matter.

• Dark energy and dark matter are believed to constitute 95% of the known universe.

• It will survey galaxies up to 10 billion light years away and precisely measure their distances.

Neutrino Observatory’s view of the Milky Way and its cosmic insights:

• The IceCube Neutrino Observatory in Antarctica detected neutrinos emitted by astrophysical sources.

• Neutrinos are “ghost particles” ideal for studying high-energy processes in the universe.

• Researchers analyzed data from ten years and identified nearly 60,000 neutrino events.

• The findings offer insights into cosmic rays and pro- vide a basis for future advancements.