DAY – 49 : Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2025 : Geography

Read about Insights IAS INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Prelims – 2025 [ HERE ] :

DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(GS) [HERE] :

DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(CSAT) [HERE] :

Download MITRA booklet (My Insta Tests Revision and Assessment) – It’s for to track your daily progress while following Insta 75 Days plan. [ CLICK HERE ] :

#### Quiz-summary

0 of 30 questions completed

Questions:

#### Information

Wish you Good Luck! 🙂

You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.

Quiz is loading...

You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.

You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:

0 of 30 questions answered correctly

Your time:

Time has elapsed

You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)

Average score |

Your score |

#### Categories

• Not categorized 0%

Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result

Table is loading

No data available

| | | |

• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the recently emphasized India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC): The Eastern Corridor of IMEC primarily relies on enhancing existing maritime routes connecting ports like Mumbai and Jebel Ali. The Northern Corridor aims to establish a new, continuous railway line directly linking Haifa port in Israel to Piraeus port in Greece, bypassing Saudi Arabia and Jordan. The project explicitly includes provisions for laying hydrogen pipelines alongside the railway and shipping routes to facilitate green energy trade. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The Eastern Corridor of IMEC connects India to the Arabian Gulf, primarily utilizing sea lanes. Key ports mentioned include Mumbai (India) and Jebel Ali (UAE). It focuses on leveraging and enhancing existing maritime infrastructure. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Northern Corridor connects the Arabian Gulf to Europe. While it involves rail connectivity and links Middle Eastern countries (including Saudi Arabia, Jordan, Israel) towards Europe (ports like Haifa connecting onwards), it does not bypass Saudi Arabia and Jordan; they are integral parts of the proposed land route. Furthermore, the connection from Haifa to Europe primarily involves maritime routes to ports like Piraeus (Greece), not a direct continuous railway line between them as part of the core IMEC structure described. Statement 3 is correct. The IMEC proposal explicitly includes components beyond just transport, such as an electricity cable and a hydrogen pipeline, aiming to facilitate energy trade and connectivity. Therefore, statements 1 and 3 are correct, while statement 2 is incorrect. Only two statements are correct. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The Eastern Corridor of IMEC connects India to the Arabian Gulf, primarily utilizing sea lanes. Key ports mentioned include Mumbai (India) and Jebel Ali (UAE). It focuses on leveraging and enhancing existing maritime infrastructure. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Northern Corridor connects the Arabian Gulf to Europe. While it involves rail connectivity and links Middle Eastern countries (including Saudi Arabia, Jordan, Israel) towards Europe (ports like Haifa connecting onwards), it does not bypass Saudi Arabia and Jordan; they are integral parts of the proposed land route. Furthermore, the connection from Haifa to Europe primarily involves maritime routes to ports like Piraeus (Greece), not a direct continuous railway line between them as part of the core IMEC structure described. Statement 3 is correct. The IMEC proposal explicitly includes components beyond just transport, such as an electricity cable and a hydrogen pipeline, aiming to facilitate energy trade and connectivity. Therefore, statements 1 and 3 are correct, while statement 2 is incorrect. Only two statements are correct.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the recently emphasized India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC):

• The Eastern Corridor of IMEC primarily relies on enhancing existing maritime routes connecting ports like Mumbai and Jebel Ali.

• The Northern Corridor aims to establish a new, continuous railway line directly linking Haifa port in Israel to Piraeus port in Greece, bypassing Saudi Arabia and Jordan.

• The project explicitly includes provisions for laying hydrogen pipelines alongside the railway and shipping routes to facilitate green energy trade.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Statement 1 is correct. The Eastern Corridor of IMEC connects India to the Arabian Gulf, primarily utilizing sea lanes. Key ports mentioned include Mumbai (India) and Jebel Ali (UAE). It focuses on leveraging and enhancing existing maritime infrastructure.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The Northern Corridor connects the Arabian Gulf to Europe. While it involves rail connectivity and links Middle Eastern countries (including Saudi Arabia, Jordan, Israel) towards Europe (ports like Haifa connecting onwards), it does not bypass Saudi Arabia and Jordan; they are integral parts of the proposed land route. Furthermore, the connection from Haifa to Europe primarily involves maritime routes to ports like Piraeus (Greece), not a direct continuous railway line between them as part of the core IMEC structure described.

Statement 3 is correct. The IMEC proposal explicitly includes components beyond just transport, such as an electricity cable and a hydrogen pipeline, aiming to facilitate energy trade and connectivity.

Therefore, statements 1 and 3 are correct, while statement 2 is incorrect. Only two statements are correct.

Solution: B

Therefore, statements 1 and 3 are correct, while statement 2 is incorrect. Only two statements are correct.

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points With reference to the physiography and climate of the Western Ghats, consider the following statements: The average elevation of the Western Ghats progressively increases from north to south. The leeward side of the Western Ghats receives significantly less rainfall due to the Orographic effect, leading to the formation of rain shadow regions like Vidarbha in Maharashtra. The Palghat Gap represents a major geological discontinuity formed primarily by fluvial erosion by the Bharathappuzha river. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The height of the Western Ghats generally increases from north to south. Peaks like Anamudi (Kerala) in the southern part are higher than peaks like Kalsubai (Maharashtra) in the northern part. Statement 2 is correct. The Western Ghats force the moisture-laden southwest monsoon winds to rise, causing heavy rainfall on the windward (western) side and significantly less rainfall on the leeward (eastern) side, creating rain shadow zones. Parts of central Maharashtra, including regions of Vidarbha and Marathwada, lie in this rain shadow zone. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Palghat Gap is a major break in the Western Ghats, but it is considered a geological formation resulting from tectonic activity (possibly a rift valley or graben structure) rather than primarily fluvial erosion by a single river. While rivers like Bharathappuzha flow through it, they utilize the pre-existing gap rather than being its primary cause. Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The height of the Western Ghats generally increases from north to south. Peaks like Anamudi (Kerala) in the southern part are higher than peaks like Kalsubai (Maharashtra) in the northern part. Statement 2 is correct. The Western Ghats force the moisture-laden southwest monsoon winds to rise, causing heavy rainfall on the windward (western) side and significantly less rainfall on the leeward (eastern) side, creating rain shadow zones. Parts of central Maharashtra, including regions of Vidarbha and Marathwada, lie in this rain shadow zone. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Palghat Gap is a major break in the Western Ghats, but it is considered a geological formation resulting from tectonic activity (possibly a rift valley or graben structure) rather than primarily fluvial erosion by a single river. While rivers like Bharathappuzha flow through it, they utilize the pre-existing gap rather than being its primary cause. Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

#### 2. Question

With reference to the physiography and climate of the Western Ghats, consider the following statements:

• The average elevation of the Western Ghats progressively increases from north to south.

• The leeward side of the Western Ghats receives significantly less rainfall due to the Orographic effect, leading to the formation of rain shadow regions like Vidarbha in Maharashtra.

• The Palghat Gap represents a major geological discontinuity formed primarily by fluvial erosion by the Bharathappuzha river.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 1 and 2 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The height of the Western Ghats generally increases from north to south. Peaks like Anamudi (Kerala) in the southern part are higher than peaks like Kalsubai (Maharashtra) in the northern part.

• Statement 2 is correct. The Western Ghats force the moisture-laden southwest monsoon winds to rise, causing heavy rainfall on the windward (western) side and significantly less rainfall on the leeward (eastern) side, creating rain shadow zones. Parts of central Maharashtra, including regions of Vidarbha and Marathwada, lie in this rain shadow zone.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The Palghat Gap is a major break in the Western Ghats, but it is considered a geological formation resulting from tectonic activity (possibly a rift valley or graben structure) rather than primarily fluvial erosion by a single river. While rivers like Bharathappuzha flow through it, they utilize the pre-existing gap rather than being its primary cause.

Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Solution: B

Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Arrange the following National Parks/Wildlife Sanctuaries from North to South based on their approximate geographical location: Dibru-Saikhowa National Park Simlipal Tiger Reserve Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary Brahmagiri Wildlife Sanctuary Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1-2-3-4 (b) 1-3-2-4 (c) 2-1-4-3 (d) 2-1-3-4 Correct Solution: A 1. Dibru-Saikhowa National Park: Located in the Tinsukia district of Assam, in Northeast India. This is the northernmost among the given options. 2. Simlipal Tiger Reserve: Located in the Mayurbhanj district of Odisha, in Eastern India. This is south of Assam. 3. Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary: Located in the Belagavi district of Karnataka, near the Goa border, in the Western Ghats. This is south of Odisha. 4. Brahmagiri Wildlife Sanctuary: Located in the Kodagu district of Karnataka, also in the Western Ghats, but generally south of the Belagavi region. Therefore, the correct North to South sequence is Dibru-Saikhowa (Assam) -> Simlipal (Odisha) -> Bhimgad (North Karnataka) -> Brahmagiri (South Karnataka). The sequence is 1-2-3-4. Incorrect Solution: A 1. Dibru-Saikhowa National Park: Located in the Tinsukia district of Assam, in Northeast India. This is the northernmost among the given options. 2. Simlipal Tiger Reserve: Located in the Mayurbhanj district of Odisha, in Eastern India. This is south of Assam. 3. Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary: Located in the Belagavi district of Karnataka, near the Goa border, in the Western Ghats. This is south of Odisha. 4. Brahmagiri Wildlife Sanctuary: Located in the Kodagu district of Karnataka, also in the Western Ghats, but generally south of the Belagavi region. Therefore, the correct North to South sequence is Dibru-Saikhowa (Assam) -> Simlipal (Odisha) -> Bhimgad (North Karnataka) -> Brahmagiri (South Karnataka). The sequence is 1-2-3-4.

#### 3. Question

Arrange the following National Parks/Wildlife Sanctuaries from North to South based on their approximate geographical location:

• Dibru-Saikhowa National Park

• Simlipal Tiger Reserve

• Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary

• Brahmagiri Wildlife Sanctuary

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1-2-3-4

• (b) 1-3-2-4

• (c) 2-1-4-3

• (d) 2-1-3-4

Solution: A

• 1. Dibru-Saikhowa National Park: Located in the Tinsukia district of Assam, in Northeast India. This is the northernmost among the given options.

• 2. Simlipal Tiger Reserve: Located in the Mayurbhanj district of Odisha, in Eastern India. This is south of Assam.

• 3. Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary: Located in the Belagavi district of Karnataka, near the Goa border, in the Western Ghats. This is south of Odisha.

• 4. Brahmagiri Wildlife Sanctuary: Located in the Kodagu district of Karnataka, also in the Western Ghats, but generally south of the Belagavi region.

Therefore, the correct North to South sequence is Dibru-Saikhowa (Assam) -> Simlipal (Odisha) -> Bhimgad (North Karnataka) -> Brahmagiri (South Karnataka). The sequence is 1-2-3-4.

Solution: A

• 1. Dibru-Saikhowa National Park: Located in the Tinsukia district of Assam, in Northeast India. This is the northernmost among the given options.

• 2. Simlipal Tiger Reserve: Located in the Mayurbhanj district of Odisha, in Eastern India. This is south of Assam.

• 3. Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary: Located in the Belagavi district of Karnataka, near the Goa border, in the Western Ghats. This is south of Odisha.

• 4. Brahmagiri Wildlife Sanctuary: Located in the Kodagu district of Karnataka, also in the Western Ghats, but generally south of the Belagavi region.

Therefore, the correct North to South sequence is Dibru-Saikhowa (Assam) -> Simlipal (Odisha) -> Bhimgad (North Karnataka) -> Brahmagiri (South Karnataka). The sequence is 1-2-3-4.

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding agricultural geography in India: India possesses more arable land area than China, but China’s average agricultural productivity per hectare is significantly higher than India’s. The cultivation of Red Sanders (Pterocarpus santalinus) is geographically restricted primarily to the Seshachalam hill ranges in the Eastern Ghats of Andhra Pradesh. Groundnut, Horse-gram, and Soybean, all significant crops in India, belong to the Leguminosae (pea) family and contribute to nitrogen fixation in the soil. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Correct Answer: D Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. India has a larger area of arable land compared to China. However, due to various factors including farm size, mechanization levels, irrigation efficiency, and use of inputs, China generally achieves higher average productivity per hectare for many major crops compared to India. Statement 2 is correct. Red Sanders is an endemic species with a highly restricted distribution, found mainly in the Seshachalam hills and adjoining areas in Andhra Pradesh, part of the Eastern Ghats. Its specific habitat requirements limit its natural range. Statement 3 is correct. Groundnut (Arachis hypogaea), Horse-gram (Macrotyloma uniflorum), and Soybean (Glycine max) are all legumes, belonging to the family Fabaceae (also known as Leguminosae). Leguminous plants are known for their ability to fix atmospheric nitrogen through symbiotic bacteria in their root nodules, thereby enriching the soil. Therefore, all three statements are correct. Incorrect Correct Answer: D Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. India has a larger area of arable land compared to China. However, due to various factors including farm size, mechanization levels, irrigation efficiency, and use of inputs, China generally achieves higher average productivity per hectare for many major crops compared to India. Statement 2 is correct. Red Sanders is an endemic species with a highly restricted distribution, found mainly in the Seshachalam hills and adjoining areas in Andhra Pradesh, part of the Eastern Ghats. Its specific habitat requirements limit its natural range. Statement 3 is correct. Groundnut (Arachis hypogaea), Horse-gram (Macrotyloma uniflorum), and Soybean (Glycine max) are all legumes, belonging to the family Fabaceae (also known as Leguminosae). Leguminous plants are known for their ability to fix atmospheric nitrogen through symbiotic bacteria in their root nodules, thereby enriching the soil. Therefore, all three statements are correct.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding agricultural geography in India:

• India possesses more arable land area than China, but China’s average agricultural productivity per hectare is significantly higher than India’s.

• The cultivation of Red Sanders (Pterocarpus santalinus) is geographically restricted primarily to the Seshachalam hill ranges in the Eastern Ghats of Andhra Pradesh.

• Groundnut, Horse-gram, and Soybean, all significant crops in India, belong to the Leguminosae (pea) family and contribute to nitrogen fixation in the soil.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct. India has a larger area of arable land compared to China. However, due to various factors including farm size, mechanization levels, irrigation efficiency, and use of inputs, China generally achieves higher average productivity per hectare for many major crops compared to India.

• Statement 2 is correct. Red Sanders is an endemic species with a highly restricted distribution, found mainly in the Seshachalam hills and adjoining areas in Andhra Pradesh, part of the Eastern Ghats. Its specific habitat requirements limit its natural range.

• Statement 3 is correct. Groundnut (Arachis hypogaea), Horse-gram (Macrotyloma uniflorum), and Soybean (Glycine max) are all legumes, belonging to the family Fabaceae (also known as Leguminosae). Leguminous plants are known for their ability to fix atmospheric nitrogen through symbiotic bacteria in their root nodules, thereby enriching the soil.

Therefore, all three statements are correct.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Therefore, all three statements are correct.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points With reference to the impact of climate change on India’s water resources, consider the following statements: Accelerated melting of Himalayan glaciers is projected to initially increase river flows in the Ganges and Brahmaputra basins but eventually threaten their long-term stability and reliability. Changing monsoon patterns, characterized by increased frequency of heavy rainfall events and longer dry spells, exacerbate both flood risks in some regions and groundwater depletion in others. Rising sea levels primarily threaten coastal agriculture through submergence, with minimal impact on groundwater quality due to the natural freshwater lens effect. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. Climate change is causing Himalayan glaciers to melt at an accelerated rate. Initially, this increased meltwater can boost river flows. However, continued melting and loss of snow cover will eventually reduce the glacial contribution, potentially leading to decreased flows, especially during dry seasons, thus threatening the long-term stability and reliability of glacier-fed rivers like the Ganges and Brahmaputra. Statement 2 is correct. Climate change is altering monsoon patterns in India. Observations show a decline in overall monsoon rainfall since the 1950s but an increase in the frequency of heavy rainfall events. This leads to a paradoxical situation: more intense rainfall causes floods, while longer dry spells between rainy periods increase reliance on groundwater, leading to its depletion, especially when surface water availability is reduced. Statement 3 is incorrect. Rising sea levels pose multiple threats to coastal areas. Besides submergence, a major impact is saltwater intrusion into coastal aquifers, degrading groundwater quality and contaminating drinking water sources. This directly impacts coastal agriculture and freshwater availability, overriding any localized freshwater lens effect in many vulnerable areas. Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. Climate change is causing Himalayan glaciers to melt at an accelerated rate. Initially, this increased meltwater can boost river flows. However, continued melting and loss of snow cover will eventually reduce the glacial contribution, potentially leading to decreased flows, especially during dry seasons, thus threatening the long-term stability and reliability of glacier-fed rivers like the Ganges and Brahmaputra. Statement 2 is correct. Climate change is altering monsoon patterns in India. Observations show a decline in overall monsoon rainfall since the 1950s but an increase in the frequency of heavy rainfall events. This leads to a paradoxical situation: more intense rainfall causes floods, while longer dry spells between rainy periods increase reliance on groundwater, leading to its depletion, especially when surface water availability is reduced. Statement 3 is incorrect. Rising sea levels pose multiple threats to coastal areas. Besides submergence, a major impact is saltwater intrusion into coastal aquifers, degrading groundwater quality and contaminating drinking water sources. This directly impacts coastal agriculture and freshwater availability, overriding any localized freshwater lens effect in many vulnerable areas. Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

#### 5. Question

With reference to the impact of climate change on India’s water resources, consider the following statements:

• Accelerated melting of Himalayan glaciers is projected to initially increase river flows in the Ganges and Brahmaputra basins but eventually threaten their long-term stability and reliability.

• Changing monsoon patterns, characterized by increased frequency of heavy rainfall events and longer dry spells, exacerbate both flood risks in some regions and groundwater depletion in others.

• Rising sea levels primarily threaten coastal agriculture through submergence, with minimal impact on groundwater quality due to the natural freshwater lens effect.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct. Climate change is causing Himalayan glaciers to melt at an accelerated rate. Initially, this increased meltwater can boost river flows. However, continued melting and loss of snow cover will eventually reduce the glacial contribution, potentially leading to decreased flows, especially during dry seasons, thus threatening the long-term stability and reliability of glacier-fed rivers like the Ganges and Brahmaputra.

• Statement 2 is correct. Climate change is altering monsoon patterns in India. Observations show a decline in overall monsoon rainfall since the 1950s but an increase in the frequency of heavy rainfall events. This leads to a paradoxical situation: more intense rainfall causes floods, while longer dry spells between rainy periods increase reliance on groundwater, leading to its depletion, especially when surface water availability is reduced.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. Rising sea levels pose multiple threats to coastal areas. Besides submergence, a major impact is saltwater intrusion into coastal aquifers, degrading groundwater quality and contaminating drinking water sources. This directly impacts coastal agriculture and freshwater availability, overriding any localized freshwater lens effect in many vulnerable areas.

Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Solution: A

Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs: Kamarajar Port (Ennore) : India’s first major port registered as a public company. Mundra Port : Largest privately owned port in India, located in the Gulf of Kutch. Vizhinjam Port : Deepwater multipurpose seaport being developed under the Sagarmala Programme in Tamil Nadu. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Correct Answer: B Explanation: Pair 1 is correctly matched. Kamarajar Port Limited, formerly Ennore Port, was the first major port in India to be corporatized and registered as a company. Pair 2 is correctly matched. Mundra Port, located in the Gulf of Kutch, Gujarat, is operated by Adani Ports and SEZ (APSEZ) and is the largest private port in India. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. Vizhinjam International Seaport is a deepwater multipurpose port being developed in Kerala (not Tamil Nadu). While port development aligns with the broad objectives of the Sagarmala Programme, the location mentioned is incorrect. Therefore, pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched. Incorrect Correct Answer: B Explanation: Pair 1 is correctly matched. Kamarajar Port Limited, formerly Ennore Port, was the first major port in India to be corporatized and registered as a company. Pair 2 is correctly matched. Mundra Port, located in the Gulf of Kutch, Gujarat, is operated by Adani Ports and SEZ (APSEZ) and is the largest private port in India. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. Vizhinjam International Seaport is a deepwater multipurpose port being developed in Kerala (not Tamil Nadu). While port development aligns with the broad objectives of the Sagarmala Programme, the location mentioned is incorrect. Therefore, pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following pairs:

• Kamarajar Port (Ennore) : India’s first major port registered as a public company.

• Mundra Port : Largest privately owned port in India, located in the Gulf of Kutch.

• Vizhinjam Port : Deepwater multipurpose seaport being developed under the Sagarmala Programme in Tamil Nadu.

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

• Pair 1 is correctly matched. Kamarajar Port Limited, formerly Ennore Port, was the first major port in India to be corporatized and registered as a company.

• Pair 2 is correctly matched. Mundra Port, located in the Gulf of Kutch, Gujarat, is operated by Adani Ports and SEZ (APSEZ) and is the largest private port in India.

• Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. Vizhinjam International Seaport is a deepwater multipurpose port being developed in Kerala (not Tamil Nadu). While port development aligns with the broad objectives of the Sagarmala Programme, the location mentioned is incorrect.

Therefore, pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

• Pair 1 is correctly matched. Kamarajar Port Limited, formerly Ennore Port, was the first major port in India to be corporatized and registered as a company.

• Pair 2 is correctly matched. Mundra Port, located in the Gulf of Kutch, Gujarat, is operated by Adani Ports and SEZ (APSEZ) and is the largest private port in India.

Therefore, pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched.

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Which one of the following best explains the typical winter weather conditions experienced in Northwest India, characterized by cold waves and occasional rainfall? (a) Retreating Northeast Monsoon winds bringing cold, dry air from Central Asia. (b) Orographic precipitation caused by the Aravalli Range obstructing easterly winds. (c) Influence of Western Disturbances originating over the Mediterranean Sea. (d) Anticyclonic conditions developing over the Tibetan Plateau leading to subsidence of cold air. Correct Solution: C The primary driver of winter rainfall and cold waves in Northwest India (including Punjab, Haryana, Delhi, Western UP, Rajasthan) is the influx of Western Disturbances. These are extratropical storms originating over the Mediterranean Sea and moving eastwards. They bring moisture, leading to precipitation (rain in plains, snow in mountains) and are followed by cold, dense air masses from the northwest, causing cold waves. (a) The Northeast Monsoon primarily affects the Coromandel Coast (Tamil Nadu) during winter and brings rainfall there; it brings dry conditions to Northwest India. (b) The Aravalli Range runs southwest to northeast and primarily influences the Southwest Monsoon, not winter rainfall from easterly winds (which are generally weak in winter over this region). (d) While high pressure (anticyclonic conditions) does develop over Central Asia/Tibetan Plateau in winter, leading to cold air outflow, the precipitation aspect in Northwest India is mainly due to the moisture brought by Western Disturbances, not just subsidence. Therefore, Western Disturbances are the most accurate explanation for the combination of cold waves and winter rainfall in Northwest India. Incorrect Solution: C The primary driver of winter rainfall and cold waves in Northwest India (including Punjab, Haryana, Delhi, Western UP, Rajasthan) is the influx of Western Disturbances. These are extratropical storms originating over the Mediterranean Sea and moving eastwards. They bring moisture, leading to precipitation (rain in plains, snow in mountains) and are followed by cold, dense air masses from the northwest, causing cold waves. (a) The Northeast Monsoon primarily affects the Coromandel Coast (Tamil Nadu) during winter and brings rainfall there; it brings dry conditions to Northwest India. (b) The Aravalli Range runs southwest to northeast and primarily influences the Southwest Monsoon, not winter rainfall from easterly winds (which are generally weak in winter over this region). (d) While high pressure (anticyclonic conditions) does develop over Central Asia/Tibetan Plateau in winter, leading to cold air outflow, the precipitation aspect in Northwest India is mainly due to the moisture brought by Western Disturbances, not just subsidence. Therefore, Western Disturbances are the most accurate explanation for the combination of cold waves and winter rainfall in Northwest India.

#### 7. Question

Which one of the following best explains the typical winter weather conditions experienced in Northwest India, characterized by cold waves and occasional rainfall?

• (a) Retreating Northeast Monsoon winds bringing cold, dry air from Central Asia.

• (b) Orographic precipitation caused by the Aravalli Range obstructing easterly winds.

• (c) Influence of Western Disturbances originating over the Mediterranean Sea.

• (d) Anticyclonic conditions developing over the Tibetan Plateau leading to subsidence of cold air.

Solution: C

• The primary driver of winter rainfall and cold waves in Northwest India (including Punjab, Haryana, Delhi, Western UP, Rajasthan) is the influx of Western Disturbances. These are extratropical storms originating over the Mediterranean Sea and moving eastwards. They bring moisture, leading to precipitation (rain in plains, snow in mountains) and are followed by cold, dense air masses from the northwest, causing cold waves.

• (a) The Northeast Monsoon primarily affects the Coromandel Coast (Tamil Nadu) during winter and brings rainfall there; it brings dry conditions to Northwest India.

• (b) The Aravalli Range runs southwest to northeast and primarily influences the Southwest Monsoon, not winter rainfall from easterly winds (which are generally weak in winter over this region).

• (d) While high pressure (anticyclonic conditions) does develop over Central Asia/Tibetan Plateau in winter, leading to cold air outflow, the precipitation aspect in Northwest India is mainly due to the moisture brought by Western Disturbances, not just subsidence.

Therefore, Western Disturbances are the most accurate explanation for the combination of cold waves and winter rainfall in Northwest India.

Solution: C

• (a) The Northeast Monsoon primarily affects the Coromandel Coast (Tamil Nadu) during winter and brings rainfall there; it brings dry conditions to Northwest India.

• (b) The Aravalli Range runs southwest to northeast and primarily influences the Southwest Monsoon, not winter rainfall from easterly winds (which are generally weak in winter over this region).

Therefore, Western Disturbances are the most accurate explanation for the combination of cold waves and winter rainfall in Northwest India.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points With reference to India’s mineral resources, consider the following statements: Monazite sands found along India’s coasts are a significant source of Thorium, but contain negligible amounts of Rare Earth Elements (REEs). India has substantial reserves of Uranium, primarily in Jharkhand and Andhra Pradesh, making it largely self-sufficient in nuclear fuel for its power plants. The coastal tracts of Kerala and Tamil Nadu are particularly rich in Ilmenite and Rutile, which are primary ores of Titanium. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Correct Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Monazite sands are indeed a major source of Thorium in India. However, they are also a significant source of Rare Earth Elements (REEs). The statement incorrectly claims they contain negligible REEs. Statement 2 is incorrect. While India possesses Uranium reserves (notably in Jharkhand, Andhra Pradesh, Meghalaya, Rajasthan), these are generally considered low-grade and insufficient to meet the fuel requirements of its ambitious nuclear power program. India relies heavily on imported Uranium for its Pressurized Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs) operating under IAEA safeguards. It is not largely self-sufficient. Statement 3 is correct. The beach sands along the coasts of Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Odisha, and Andhra Pradesh are rich sources of heavy minerals, including Ilmenite and Rutile, which are the principal ores of Titanium. Kerala and Tamil Nadu coasts are particularly well-known for these deposits. Therefore, only statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Correct Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Monazite sands are indeed a major source of Thorium in India. However, they are also a significant source of Rare Earth Elements (REEs). The statement incorrectly claims they contain negligible REEs. Statement 2 is incorrect. While India possesses Uranium reserves (notably in Jharkhand, Andhra Pradesh, Meghalaya, Rajasthan), these are generally considered low-grade and insufficient to meet the fuel requirements of its ambitious nuclear power program. India relies heavily on imported Uranium for its Pressurized Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs) operating under IAEA safeguards. It is not largely self-sufficient. Statement 3 is correct. The beach sands along the coasts of Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Odisha, and Andhra Pradesh are rich sources of heavy minerals, including Ilmenite and Rutile, which are the principal ores of Titanium. Kerala and Tamil Nadu coasts are particularly well-known for these deposits. Therefore, only statement 3 is correct.

#### 8. Question

With reference to India’s mineral resources, consider the following statements:

• Monazite sands found along India’s coasts are a significant source of Thorium, but contain negligible amounts of Rare Earth Elements (REEs).

• India has substantial reserves of Uranium, primarily in Jharkhand and Andhra Pradesh, making it largely self-sufficient in nuclear fuel for its power plants.

• The coastal tracts of Kerala and Tamil Nadu are particularly rich in Ilmenite and Rutile, which are primary ores of Titanium.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 3 only

• (b) 1 and 2 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Monazite sands are indeed a major source of Thorium in India. However, they are also a significant source of Rare Earth Elements (REEs). The statement incorrectly claims they contain negligible REEs.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. While India possesses Uranium reserves (notably in Jharkhand, Andhra Pradesh, Meghalaya, Rajasthan), these are generally considered low-grade and insufficient to meet the fuel requirements of its ambitious nuclear power program. India relies heavily on imported Uranium for its Pressurized Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs) operating under IAEA safeguards. It is not largely self-sufficient.

• Statement 3 is correct. The beach sands along the coasts of Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Odisha, and Andhra Pradesh are rich sources of heavy minerals, including Ilmenite and Rutile, which are the principal ores of Titanium. Kerala and Tamil Nadu coasts are particularly well-known for these deposits.

Therefore, only statement 3 is correct.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Therefore, only statement 3 is correct.

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Consider the following: List I (Gulfs) List II (Descriptions) A. Gulf of Carpentaria 1. Connects Australia and New Guinea B. Gulf of Oman 2. Connects Arabian Sea with Strait of Hormuz C. Gulf of Aden 3. Connects Arabian Sea to Red Sea How many of the given pairs are correctly matched? a) One pair only b) Two pair only c) All three pairs d) None of the above Correct Solution: C Justification: Gulf of Carpentaria: Lies between northern Australia and New Guinea region. Gulf of Oman: Links Arabian Sea with the Strait of Hormuz. Gulf of Aden: Connects Arabian Sea with Red Sea through Bab-el-Mandeb Strait. Incorrect Solution: C Justification: Gulf of Carpentaria: Lies between northern Australia and New Guinea region. Gulf of Oman: Links Arabian Sea with the Strait of Hormuz. Gulf of Aden: Connects Arabian Sea with Red Sea through Bab-el-Mandeb Strait.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following:

List I (Gulfs) | List II (Descriptions)

A. Gulf of Carpentaria | 1. Connects Australia and New Guinea

B. Gulf of Oman | 2. Connects Arabian Sea with Strait of Hormuz

C. Gulf of Aden | 3. Connects Arabian Sea to Red Sea

How many of the given pairs are correctly matched?

• a) One pair only

• b) Two pair only

• c) All three pairs

• d) None of the above

Solution: C

Justification:

• Gulf of Carpentaria: Lies between northern Australia and New Guinea region.

• Gulf of Oman: Links Arabian Sea with the Strait of Hormuz.

• Gulf of Aden: Connects Arabian Sea with Red Sea through Bab-el-Mandeb Strait.

Solution: C

Justification:

• Gulf of Carpentaria: Lies between northern Australia and New Guinea region.

• Gulf of Oman: Links Arabian Sea with the Strait of Hormuz.

• Gulf of Aden: Connects Arabian Sea with Red Sea through Bab-el-Mandeb Strait.

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Coriolis Effect and its influence on atmospheric circulation: The Coriolis effect is strongest at the poles and diminishes to zero at the equator. It causes moving air (wind) to deflect to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere, relative to the direction of motion. The formation of tropical cyclones is heavily dependent on the Coriolis effect, which is why they rarely form within 5 degrees latitude of the equator. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is correct. The magnitude of the Coriolis effect is proportional to the sine of the latitude. Sine is 0 at the equator (0 degrees) and maximum (1) at the poles (90 degrees). Therefore, the effect is zero at the equator and strongest at the poles. Statement 2 is correct. Due to the Earth’s rotation, any object moving freely over the surface (like air or water) appears to be deflected. This deflection is to the right of the direction of motion in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere. Statement 3 is correct. Tropical cyclones require a significant Coriolis force to initiate and maintain their rotation (spin). Near the equator (within about 5 degrees latitude North or South), the Coriolis effect is too weak to provide the necessary vorticity for cyclone formation, even if other conditions (like warm sea surface temperatures) are met. Therefore, all three statements are correct. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is correct. The magnitude of the Coriolis effect is proportional to the sine of the latitude. Sine is 0 at the equator (0 degrees) and maximum (1) at the poles (90 degrees). Therefore, the effect is zero at the equator and strongest at the poles. Statement 2 is correct. Due to the Earth’s rotation, any object moving freely over the surface (like air or water) appears to be deflected. This deflection is to the right of the direction of motion in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere. Statement 3 is correct. Tropical cyclones require a significant Coriolis force to initiate and maintain their rotation (spin). Near the equator (within about 5 degrees latitude North or South), the Coriolis effect is too weak to provide the necessary vorticity for cyclone formation, even if other conditions (like warm sea surface temperatures) are met. Therefore, all three statements are correct.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements about the Coriolis Effect and its influence on atmospheric circulation:

• The Coriolis effect is strongest at the poles and diminishes to zero at the equator.

• It causes moving air (wind) to deflect to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere, relative to the direction of motion.

• The formation of tropical cyclones is heavily dependent on the Coriolis effect, which is why they rarely form within 5 degrees latitude of the equator.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is correct. The magnitude of the Coriolis effect is proportional to the sine of the latitude. Sine is 0 at the equator (0 degrees) and maximum (1) at the poles (90 degrees). Therefore, the effect is zero at the equator and strongest at the poles.

• Statement 2 is correct. Due to the Earth’s rotation, any object moving freely over the surface (like air or water) appears to be deflected. This deflection is to the right of the direction of motion in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere.

• Statement 3 is correct. Tropical cyclones require a significant Coriolis force to initiate and maintain their rotation (spin). Near the equator (within about 5 degrees latitude North or South), the Coriolis effect is too weak to provide the necessary vorticity for cyclone formation, even if other conditions (like warm sea surface temperatures) are met.

Therefore, all three statements are correct.

Solution: D

Therefore, all three statements are correct.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh receive rainfall from northeast monsoon during winter months. Punjab and Haryana receive rainfall in winter from temperate cyclones from the Mediterranean Sea. Arunachal Pradesh and Assam receive winter rainfall from western disturbances. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C Winter monsoons do not cause rainfall as they move from land to sea; they have little humidity and due to anti cyclonic circulation on land the possibility of rainfall from them reduces However, during October and November, Northeast monsoon, while crossing over the Bay of Bengal, gathers moisture and causes torrential rainfall over Tamil Nadu coast, southern Andhra Pradesh Southeast Karnataka and Southeast Kerala. Hence statement 1 is correct In north western India, some weak temperate cyclones from the Mediterranean sea cause rainfall in Punjab, Haryana, Delhi and western Uttar Pradesh. Although the amount is meagre, this winter rainfall is highly beneficial for the Rabi crops. Hence statement 2 is correct Arunachal Pradesh and Assam receive rainfall in winter primarily from Western disturbances and to a little extent from the Northeast monsoon. Western disturbances are extra tropical cyclones originating in the Mediterranean region that bring sudden winter rain to the northern parts of the Indian subcontinent including the North Eastern states. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: C Winter monsoons do not cause rainfall as they move from land to sea; they have little humidity and due to anti cyclonic circulation on land the possibility of rainfall from them reduces However, during October and November, Northeast monsoon, while crossing over the Bay of Bengal, gathers moisture and causes torrential rainfall over Tamil Nadu coast, southern Andhra Pradesh Southeast Karnataka and Southeast Kerala. Hence statement 1 is correct In north western India, some weak temperate cyclones from the Mediterranean sea cause rainfall in Punjab, Haryana, Delhi and western Uttar Pradesh. Although the amount is meagre, this winter rainfall is highly beneficial for the Rabi crops. Hence statement 2 is correct Arunachal Pradesh and Assam receive rainfall in winter primarily from Western disturbances and to a little extent from the Northeast monsoon. Western disturbances are extra tropical cyclones originating in the Mediterranean region that bring sudden winter rain to the northern parts of the Indian subcontinent including the North Eastern states. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 11. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh receive rainfall from northeast monsoon during winter months.

• Punjab and Haryana receive rainfall in winter from temperate cyclones from the Mediterranean Sea.

• Arunachal Pradesh and Assam receive winter rainfall from western disturbances.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

• Winter monsoons do not cause rainfall as they move from land to sea; they have little humidity and due to anti cyclonic circulation on land the possibility of rainfall from them reduces

• However, during October and November, Northeast monsoon, while crossing over the Bay of Bengal, gathers moisture and causes torrential rainfall over Tamil Nadu coast, southern Andhra Pradesh Southeast Karnataka and Southeast Kerala.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• In north western India, some weak temperate cyclones from the Mediterranean sea cause rainfall in Punjab, Haryana, Delhi and western Uttar Pradesh.

• Although the amount is meagre, this winter rainfall is highly beneficial for the Rabi crops.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Arunachal Pradesh and Assam receive rainfall in winter primarily from Western disturbances and to a little extent from the Northeast monsoon.

• Western disturbances are extra tropical cyclones originating in the Mediterranean region that bring sudden winter rain to the northern parts of the Indian subcontinent including the North Eastern states.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: C

• Winter monsoons do not cause rainfall as they move from land to sea; they have little humidity and due to anti cyclonic circulation on land the possibility of rainfall from them reduces

Hence statement 1 is correct

• In north western India, some weak temperate cyclones from the Mediterranean sea cause rainfall in Punjab, Haryana, Delhi and western Uttar Pradesh.

• Although the amount is meagre, this winter rainfall is highly beneficial for the Rabi crops.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Arunachal Pradesh and Assam receive rainfall in winter primarily from Western disturbances and to a little extent from the Northeast monsoon.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Gomti river rises from Fulnaar Jheel and flows entirely within Uttar Pradesh. Both Lucknow and Jaunpur lies on the banks of Gomti river. The Ganga Task Force comprising ex-servicemen has been constituted to monitor pollution of the Gomti river. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: D The Gomti river originates from the Fulnaar Jheel or Gomat Taal in Philbit district of Uttar Pradesh. It flows entirely within Uttar Pradesh and entirely drains into the Ganga in Ghazipur district. The major tributaries of the Gomti are Sai, Sarayu and Chowka rivers. Major cities located on the bank include Lucknow, Lakhimpur, Kheri, Jaunpur and Sultanpur. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct Recently the Territorial army established a new task force dedicated to rejuvenation and protection of the Gomti river named Ganga Task Force. It primarily comprises ex-servicemen reflecting the territorial army’s tradition of utilising experienced personnel for National missions. The force will ensure environmental preservation and sustainable development including pollution monitoring, river bank patrolling, public awareness campaigns and similar activities related to the Gomti river. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: D The Gomti river originates from the Fulnaar Jheel or Gomat Taal in Philbit district of Uttar Pradesh. It flows entirely within Uttar Pradesh and entirely drains into the Ganga in Ghazipur district. The major tributaries of the Gomti are Sai, Sarayu and Chowka rivers. Major cities located on the bank include Lucknow, Lakhimpur, Kheri, Jaunpur and Sultanpur. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct Recently the Territorial army established a new task force dedicated to rejuvenation and protection of the Gomti river named Ganga Task Force. It primarily comprises ex-servicemen reflecting the territorial army’s tradition of utilising experienced personnel for National missions. The force will ensure environmental preservation and sustainable development including pollution monitoring, river bank patrolling, public awareness campaigns and similar activities related to the Gomti river. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 12. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Gomti river rises from Fulnaar Jheel and flows entirely within Uttar Pradesh.

• Both Lucknow and Jaunpur lies on the banks of Gomti river.

• The Ganga Task Force comprising ex-servicemen has been constituted to monitor pollution of the Gomti river.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) 1 and 2 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

• The Gomti river originates from the Fulnaar Jheel or Gomat Taal in Philbit district of Uttar Pradesh.

• It flows entirely within Uttar Pradesh and entirely drains into the Ganga in Ghazipur district.

• The major tributaries of the Gomti are Sai, Sarayu and Chowka rivers.

• Major cities located on the bank include Lucknow, Lakhimpur, Kheri, Jaunpur and Sultanpur.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

• Recently the Territorial army established a new task force dedicated to rejuvenation and protection of the Gomti river named Ganga Task Force.

• It primarily comprises ex-servicemen reflecting the territorial army’s tradition of utilising experienced personnel for National missions.

• The force will ensure environmental preservation and sustainable development including pollution monitoring, river bank patrolling, public awareness campaigns and similar activities related to the Gomti river.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: D

• The Gomti river originates from the Fulnaar Jheel or Gomat Taal in Philbit district of Uttar Pradesh.

• It flows entirely within Uttar Pradesh and entirely drains into the Ganga in Ghazipur district.

• The major tributaries of the Gomti are Sai, Sarayu and Chowka rivers.

• Major cities located on the bank include Lucknow, Lakhimpur, Kheri, Jaunpur and Sultanpur.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

• Recently the Territorial army established a new task force dedicated to rejuvenation and protection of the Gomti river named Ganga Task Force.

• It primarily comprises ex-servicemen reflecting the territorial army’s tradition of utilising experienced personnel for National missions.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Recently recalculation of coastline in India has been conducted; with reference to that, consider the following statements: The highest increase in percentage terms has been observed in West Bengal. A decline in coastline length has been observed only for Puducherry. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Recently India’s coastline expanded by almost half in just over 5 decades from 7516 km in 1970 to 11098 km in 2023-24 according to Ministry of Home Affairs The recalculation was conducted under the Ministry of Home Affairs guided by National Maritime Security Coordinator. The recalculated coastline of Gujarat contributed the most to the growth of coastline which double from 1214 km in 1970 to 2340 km at present. However West Bengal has observed the highest increase in percentage terms during this period up to 357% – from 157 km to 721 km. Hence statement 1 is correct Puducherry has witnessed a decrease of 10.4% in coastline. It is the only state or union territory to experience a decline in coastline length which reduced by 4.9 km (10.4%) Hence statement 2 is correct Incorrect Solution: C Recently India’s coastline expanded by almost half in just over 5 decades from 7516 km in 1970 to 11098 km in 2023-24 according to Ministry of Home Affairs The recalculation was conducted under the Ministry of Home Affairs guided by National Maritime Security Coordinator. The recalculated coastline of Gujarat contributed the most to the growth of coastline which double from 1214 km in 1970 to 2340 km at present. However West Bengal has observed the highest increase in percentage terms during this period up to 357% – from 157 km to 721 km. Hence statement 1 is correct Puducherry has witnessed a decrease of 10.4% in coastline. It is the only state or union territory to experience a decline in coastline length which reduced by 4.9 km (10.4%) Hence statement 2 is correct

#### 13. Question

Recently recalculation of coastline in India has been conducted; with reference to that, consider the following statements:

• The highest increase in percentage terms has been observed in West Bengal.

• A decline in coastline length has been observed only for Puducherry.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

• Recently India’s coastline expanded by almost half in just over 5 decades from 7516 km in 1970 to 11098 km in 2023-24 according to Ministry of Home Affairs

• The recalculation was conducted under the Ministry of Home Affairs guided by National Maritime Security Coordinator.

• The recalculated coastline of Gujarat contributed the most to the growth of coastline which double from 1214 km in 1970 to 2340 km at present.

• However West Bengal has observed the highest increase in percentage terms during this period up to 357% – from 157 km to 721 km.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Puducherry has witnessed a decrease of 10.4% in coastline.

• It is the only state or union territory to experience a decline in coastline length which reduced by 4.9 km (10.4%)

Hence statement 2 is correct

Solution: C

• Recently India’s coastline expanded by almost half in just over 5 decades from 7516 km in 1970 to 11098 km in 2023-24 according to Ministry of Home Affairs

• The recalculation was conducted under the Ministry of Home Affairs guided by National Maritime Security Coordinator.

• The recalculated coastline of Gujarat contributed the most to the growth of coastline which double from 1214 km in 1970 to 2340 km at present.

• However West Bengal has observed the highest increase in percentage terms during this period up to 357% – from 157 km to 721 km.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Puducherry has witnessed a decrease of 10.4% in coastline.

• It is the only state or union territory to experience a decline in coastline length which reduced by 4.9 km (10.4%)

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Consider the following minerals: Bauxite Feldspar Mica Pyrophyllite Iron ore How many of the above are classified as Major Minerals in India? (a) Only two (b) Only three (c) Only four (d) All five Correct Solution: C Recently the Ministry of Mines reclassified Barytes, Feldspar, Mica and Quartz as major minerals (these were earlier classified as minor minerals). The major minerals are those that are regulated by the central government under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act 1957. These minerals have high economic and strategic significance and include iron core, coal, bauxite, gold along with the newly added minerals. It is effective from February 2025 and was driven by National Critical Mineral Mission The reclassification initiative aims to boost exploration and scientific mining of these resources to facilitate the extraction of critical minerals associated with these materials that are crucial for various Industries including energy, Aerospace and healthcare. Common minor minerals include laterite, Pyrophyllite, marble, ordinary clay, ordinary sand etc. Hence options 1, 2, 3 and 5 are correct Incorrect Solution: C Recently the Ministry of Mines reclassified Barytes, Feldspar, Mica and Quartz as major minerals (these were earlier classified as minor minerals). The major minerals are those that are regulated by the central government under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act 1957. These minerals have high economic and strategic significance and include iron core, coal, bauxite, gold along with the newly added minerals. It is effective from February 2025 and was driven by National Critical Mineral Mission The reclassification initiative aims to boost exploration and scientific mining of these resources to facilitate the extraction of critical minerals associated with these materials that are crucial for various Industries including energy, Aerospace and healthcare. Common minor minerals include laterite, Pyrophyllite, marble, ordinary clay, ordinary sand etc. Hence options 1, 2, 3 and 5 are correct

#### 14. Question

Consider the following minerals:

• Pyrophyllite

How many of the above are classified as Major Minerals in India?

• (a) Only two

• (b) Only three

• (c) Only four

• (d) All five

Solution: C

• Recently the Ministry of Mines reclassified Barytes, Feldspar, Mica and Quartz as major minerals (these were earlier classified as minor minerals).

• The major minerals are those that are regulated by the central government under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act 1957.

• These minerals have high economic and strategic significance and include iron core, coal, bauxite, gold along with the newly added minerals.

• It is effective from February 2025 and was driven by National Critical Mineral Mission

• The reclassification initiative aims to boost exploration and scientific mining of these resources to facilitate the extraction of critical minerals associated with these materials that are crucial for various Industries including energy, Aerospace and healthcare.

• Common minor minerals include laterite, Pyrophyllite, marble, ordinary clay, ordinary sand etc.

Hence options 1, 2, 3 and 5 are correct

Solution: C

• Recently the Ministry of Mines reclassified Barytes, Feldspar, Mica and Quartz as major minerals (these were earlier classified as minor minerals).

• The major minerals are those that are regulated by the central government under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act 1957.

• These minerals have high economic and strategic significance and include iron core, coal, bauxite, gold along with the newly added minerals.

• It is effective from February 2025 and was driven by National Critical Mineral Mission

• Common minor minerals include laterite, Pyrophyllite, marble, ordinary clay, ordinary sand etc.

Hence options 1, 2, 3 and 5 are correct

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Meroe and Menchal Islands, recently in news, are located on the: (a) Arafura Sea (b) Bay of Bengal (c) Timor Sea (d) Carribbean Sea Correct Solution: B Meroe and Menchal Islands are part of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands in the Bay of Bengal. Meroe Island is revered by the Nicobarese as Piruii; it holds spiritual significance and is believed to be a legendary abode Menchal Islands known as Pingaeyak, spiritually protected and managed sustainable by community elders. Recently the proposed establishment of three Wildlife sanctuaries in Southern Nicobar has sparked concerns over deprivation of indigenous tribes from their ancestral land. The proposed Wildlife sanctuaries are : Coral sanctuary in Meroe Island Megapode Sanctuary in Menchal Island Leatherback turtle sanctuary in Little Nicobar Island Hence option B is correct Incorrect Solution: B Meroe and Menchal Islands are part of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands in the Bay of Bengal. Meroe Island is revered by the Nicobarese as Piruii; it holds spiritual significance and is believed to be a legendary abode Menchal Islands known as Pingaeyak, spiritually protected and managed sustainable by community elders. Recently the proposed establishment of three Wildlife sanctuaries in Southern Nicobar has sparked concerns over deprivation of indigenous tribes from their ancestral land. The proposed Wildlife sanctuaries are : Coral sanctuary in Meroe Island Megapode Sanctuary in Menchal Island Leatherback turtle sanctuary in Little Nicobar Island Hence option B is correct

#### 15. Question

Meroe and Menchal Islands, recently in news, are located on the:

• (a) Arafura Sea

• (b) Bay of Bengal

• (c) Timor Sea

• (d) Carribbean Sea

Solution: B

• Meroe and Menchal Islands are part of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands in the Bay of Bengal.

• Meroe Island is revered by the Nicobarese as Piruii; it holds spiritual significance and is believed to be a legendary abode

• Menchal Islands known as Pingaeyak, spiritually protected and managed sustainable by community elders.

• Recently the proposed establishment of three Wildlife sanctuaries in Southern Nicobar has sparked concerns over deprivation of indigenous tribes from their ancestral land.

The proposed Wildlife sanctuaries are :

• Coral sanctuary in Meroe Island

• Megapode Sanctuary in Menchal Island

• Leatherback turtle sanctuary in Little Nicobar Island

Hence option B is correct

Solution: B

• Meroe and Menchal Islands are part of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands in the Bay of Bengal.

• Meroe Island is revered by the Nicobarese as Piruii; it holds spiritual significance and is believed to be a legendary abode

• Menchal Islands known as Pingaeyak, spiritually protected and managed sustainable by community elders.

• Recently the proposed establishment of three Wildlife sanctuaries in Southern Nicobar has sparked concerns over deprivation of indigenous tribes from their ancestral land.

The proposed Wildlife sanctuaries are :

• Coral sanctuary in Meroe Island

• Megapode Sanctuary in Menchal Island

• Leatherback turtle sanctuary in Little Nicobar Island

Hence option B is correct

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement – I: Exposing red soil to prolonged periods of moisture results in formation of yellow soil. Statement – II: Red soils are formed by weathering of metamorphic rocks in high rainfall areas. Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct Correct Solution: C Red soil develops on crystalline igneous rock in areas of low rainfall in the eastern and southern part of the Deccan plateau Yellow soil and red soil are also found in parts of Odisha, Chhattisgarh and Southern parts of middle Ganga plain The soil develops a reddish colour due to wide diffusion of iron in crystalline and metamorphic rock It looks yellow when it occurs in a hydrated form. When red soils are exposed to prolonged periods of moisture or undergo hydration, the iron oxide compounds can change their form and appearance, resulting in a yellowish colour. Hence statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: C Red soil develops on crystalline igneous rock in areas of low rainfall in the eastern and southern part of the Deccan plateau Yellow soil and red soil are also found in parts of Odisha, Chhattisgarh and Southern parts of middle Ganga plain The soil develops a reddish colour due to wide diffusion of iron in crystalline and metamorphic rock It looks yellow when it occurs in a hydrated form. When red soils are exposed to prolonged periods of moisture or undergo hydration, the iron oxide compounds can change their form and appearance, resulting in a yellowish colour. Hence statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect

#### 16. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement – I: Exposing red soil to prolonged periods of moisture results in formation of yellow soil.

Statement – II: Red soils are formed by weathering of metamorphic rocks in high rainfall areas.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I

• (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I

• (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect

• (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct

Solution: C

• Red soil develops on crystalline igneous rock in areas of low rainfall in the eastern and southern part of the Deccan plateau

• Yellow soil and red soil are also found in parts of Odisha, Chhattisgarh and Southern parts of middle Ganga plain

• The soil develops a reddish colour due to wide diffusion of iron in crystalline and metamorphic rock

• It looks yellow when it occurs in a hydrated form.

• When red soils are exposed to prolonged periods of moisture or undergo hydration, the iron oxide compounds can change their form and appearance, resulting in a yellowish colour.

Hence statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect

Solution: C

• Red soil develops on crystalline igneous rock in areas of low rainfall in the eastern and southern part of the Deccan plateau

• Yellow soil and red soil are also found in parts of Odisha, Chhattisgarh and Southern parts of middle Ganga plain

• The soil develops a reddish colour due to wide diffusion of iron in crystalline and metamorphic rock

• It looks yellow when it occurs in a hydrated form.

• When red soils are exposed to prolonged periods of moisture or undergo hydration, the iron oxide compounds can change their form and appearance, resulting in a yellowish colour.

Hence statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: All islands in the Lakshadweep Archipelago are exclusively coral in origin. The Eight Degree channel separates Minicoy from Lakshadweep Islands. Andaman and Nicobar Islands are entirely volcanic in origin. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A The islands of the Arabian Sea include Lakshadweep and Minicoy These are located at a distance of 280-480km off the Kerala coast. The entire Island group is built of coral deposits There are approximately 36 islands; Minicoy is the largest with an area of 453 square kilometre. Hence statement 1 is correct The Nine Degree Channel separates Minicoy Islands from the rest of Lakshadweep Islands in the Indian Ocean. The Eight Degree Channel separates the islands of Minicoy (India) and the northernmost atoll of Maldives. Hence statement 2 is incorrect The Islands of the Bay of Bengal include Andaman in the north and Nicobar in the south separated by the Ten Degree channel. It is believed that these are elevated portion of submarine mountains However, some smaller islands are volcanic in origin The Barren Island, the only active volcano in India, is situated in the Nicobar Islands The coast line in Andaman group has some coral deposits too. Hence statement 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: A The islands of the Arabian Sea include Lakshadweep and Minicoy These are located at a distance of 280-480km off the Kerala coast. The entire Island group is built of coral deposits There are approximately 36 islands; Minicoy is the largest with an area of 453 square kilometre. Hence statement 1 is correct The Nine Degree Channel separates Minicoy Islands from the rest of Lakshadweep Islands in the Indian Ocean. The Eight Degree Channel separates the islands of Minicoy (India) and the northernmost atoll of Maldives. Hence statement 2 is incorrect The Islands of the Bay of Bengal include Andaman in the north and Nicobar in the south separated by the Ten Degree channel. It is believed that these are elevated portion of submarine mountains However, some smaller islands are volcanic in origin The Barren Island, the only active volcano in India, is situated in the Nicobar Islands The coast line in Andaman group has some coral deposits too. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

#### 17. Question

Consider the following statements:

• All islands in the Lakshadweep Archipelago are exclusively coral in origin.

• The Eight Degree channel separates Minicoy from Lakshadweep Islands.

• Andaman and Nicobar Islands are entirely volcanic in origin.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• The islands of the Arabian Sea include Lakshadweep and Minicoy

• These are located at a distance of 280-480km off the Kerala coast.

• The entire Island group is built of coral deposits

• There are approximately 36 islands; Minicoy is the largest with an area of 453 square kilometre.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The Nine Degree Channel separates Minicoy Islands from the rest of Lakshadweep Islands in the Indian Ocean.

• The Eight Degree Channel separates the islands of Minicoy (India) and the northernmost atoll of Maldives.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• The Islands of the Bay of Bengal include Andaman in the north and Nicobar in the south separated by the Ten Degree channel.

• It is believed that these are elevated portion of submarine mountains

• However, some smaller islands are volcanic in origin

• The Barren Island, the only active volcano in India, is situated in the Nicobar Islands

• The coast line in Andaman group has some coral deposits too.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution: A

• The islands of the Arabian Sea include Lakshadweep and Minicoy

• These are located at a distance of 280-480km off the Kerala coast.

• The entire Island group is built of coral deposits

• There are approximately 36 islands; Minicoy is the largest with an area of 453 square kilometre.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The Nine Degree Channel separates Minicoy Islands from the rest of Lakshadweep Islands in the Indian Ocean.

• The Eight Degree Channel separates the islands of Minicoy (India) and the northernmost atoll of Maldives.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• The Islands of the Bay of Bengal include Andaman in the north and Nicobar in the south separated by the Ten Degree channel.

• It is believed that these are elevated portion of submarine mountains

• However, some smaller islands are volcanic in origin

• The Barren Island, the only active volcano in India, is situated in the Nicobar Islands

• The coast line in Andaman group has some coral deposits too.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following rivers: Gautami Sabari Manjra Vamsdhara How many of the above are Major tributaries of Godavari River? (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4 Correct Solution: B Gautami is not a tributary of Godavari; Gautami and Vashishtha are two main branches of Godavari into which the Godavari splits before entering into the Bay of Bengal The Godavari-Gautami forms the Coringa mangroves. Hence option 1 is incorrect The Godavari is the largest peninsular river system that rises in the Nashik and flows into Bay of Bengal The major tributaries include Penganga, Wainganga, Wardha, Sabari, Indravati, and Manjra. The Pranhita is a combined flow of Wardha, Penganga and Wainganga Hence options 2 and 3 are correct Vamsdhara is not a tributary of Godavari. It is an east flowing river between Godavari and Mahanadi rivers that originates in Odisha and flow through parts of Andhra Pradesh. Hence option 4 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: B Gautami is not a tributary of Godavari; Gautami and Vashishtha are two main branches of Godavari into which the Godavari splits before entering into the Bay of Bengal The Godavari-Gautami forms the Coringa mangroves. Hence option 1 is incorrect The Godavari is the largest peninsular river system that rises in the Nashik and flows into Bay of Bengal The major tributaries include Penganga, Wainganga, Wardha, Sabari, Indravati, and Manjra. The Pranhita is a combined flow of Wardha, Penganga and Wainganga Hence options 2 and 3 are correct Vamsdhara is not a tributary of Godavari. It is an east flowing river between Godavari and Mahanadi rivers that originates in Odisha and flow through parts of Andhra Pradesh. Hence option 4 is incorrect

#### 18. Question

Consider the following rivers:

How many of the above are Major tributaries of Godavari River?

• (a) 1, 3 and 4

• (b) 2 and 3

• (c) 1, 2 and 3

• (d) 3 and 4

Solution: B

• Gautami is not a tributary of Godavari;

• Gautami and Vashishtha are two main branches of Godavari into which the Godavari splits before entering into the Bay of Bengal

• The Godavari-Gautami forms the Coringa mangroves.

Hence option 1 is incorrect

• The Godavari is the largest peninsular river system that rises in the Nashik and flows into Bay of Bengal

• The major tributaries include Penganga, Wainganga, Wardha, Sabari, Indravati, and Manjra.

• The Pranhita is a combined flow of Wardha, Penganga and Wainganga

Hence options 2 and 3 are correct

• Vamsdhara is not a tributary of Godavari.

• It is an east flowing river between Godavari and Mahanadi rivers that originates in Odisha and flow through parts of Andhra Pradesh.

Hence option 4 is incorrect

Solution: B

• Gautami is not a tributary of Godavari;

• Gautami and Vashishtha are two main branches of Godavari into which the Godavari splits before entering into the Bay of Bengal

• The Godavari-Gautami forms the Coringa mangroves.

Hence option 1 is incorrect

• The Godavari is the largest peninsular river system that rises in the Nashik and flows into Bay of Bengal

• The major tributaries include Penganga, Wainganga, Wardha, Sabari, Indravati, and Manjra.

• The Pranhita is a combined flow of Wardha, Penganga and Wainganga

Hence options 2 and 3 are correct

• Vamsdhara is not a tributary of Godavari.

• It is an east flowing river between Godavari and Mahanadi rivers that originates in Odisha and flow through parts of Andhra Pradesh.

Hence option 4 is incorrect

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs: Waterfall River State 1.Athirappilly Falls Chalakudy Kerala 2. Barkana Falls Bhima Karnataka 3. Lodh Falls Yamuna Uttarakhand 4. Thalaiyar Falls Manjalar Tamil Nadu How many of the pairs given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Athirappilly falls is situated in Thrissur district of Kerala on the Chalakudy river. The river originates from the upper reaches of the Western Ghats at the entrance to Sholayar Ranges. It is the largest waterfall in Kerala which stands at 80 feet. Hence pair 1 is correct Barkana Falls is located near Shimoga district of Karnataka and is one of the 10 highest waterfalls in India. It is formed by the Seetha River; it is a west flowing river in Karnataka that flow mainly through the Udupi district. Hence pair 2 is incorrect Lodh falls is located on Burha river in the forest of Palamau Tiger Reserve in Jharkhand. It is the highest waterfall in Jharkhand. Hence pair 3 is incorrect Thalaiyar Falls is located on the Manjalar river (one of the tributaries of Vaigai river), which flows in the south of Tamil Nadu It is the highest waterfall in the state and the Eighth highest waterfall in India. Hence pair 4 is correct Incorrect Solution: B Athirappilly falls is situated in Thrissur district of Kerala on the Chalakudy river. The river originates from the upper reaches of the Western Ghats at the entrance to Sholayar Ranges. It is the largest waterfall in Kerala which stands at 80 feet. Hence pair 1 is correct Barkana Falls is located near Shimoga district of Karnataka and is one of the 10 highest waterfalls in India. It is formed by the Seetha River; it is a west flowing river in Karnataka that flow mainly through the Udupi district. Hence pair 2 is incorrect Lodh falls is located on Burha river in the forest of Palamau Tiger Reserve in Jharkhand. It is the highest waterfall in Jharkhand. Hence pair 3 is incorrect Thalaiyar Falls is located on the Manjalar river (one of the tributaries of Vaigai river), which flows in the south of Tamil Nadu It is the highest waterfall in the state and the Eighth highest waterfall in India. Hence pair 4 is correct

#### 19. Question

Consider the following pairs:

Waterfall | River | State

1.Athirappilly Falls | Chalakudy | Kerala

1.Barkana Falls | Bhima | Karnataka
2.Lodh Falls | Yamuna | Uttarakhand
3.Thalaiyar Falls | Manjalar | Tamil Nadu

How many of the pairs given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

• Athirappilly falls is situated in Thrissur district of Kerala on the Chalakudy river.

• The river originates from the upper reaches of the Western Ghats at the entrance to Sholayar Ranges.

• It is the largest waterfall in Kerala which stands at 80 feet.

Hence pair 1 is correct

• Barkana Falls is located near Shimoga district of Karnataka and is one of the 10 highest waterfalls in India.

• It is formed by the Seetha River; it is a west flowing river in Karnataka that flow mainly through the Udupi district.

Hence pair 2 is incorrect

• Lodh falls is located on Burha river in the forest of Palamau Tiger Reserve in Jharkhand.

• It is the highest waterfall in Jharkhand.

Hence pair 3 is incorrect

• Thalaiyar Falls is located on the Manjalar river (one of the tributaries of Vaigai river), which flows in the south of Tamil Nadu

• It is the highest waterfall in the state and the Eighth highest waterfall in India.

Hence pair 4 is correct

Solution: B

• Athirappilly falls is situated in Thrissur district of Kerala on the Chalakudy river.

• The river originates from the upper reaches of the Western Ghats at the entrance to Sholayar Ranges.

• It is the largest waterfall in Kerala which stands at 80 feet.

Hence pair 1 is correct

• Barkana Falls is located near Shimoga district of Karnataka and is one of the 10 highest waterfalls in India.

• It is formed by the Seetha River; it is a west flowing river in Karnataka that flow mainly through the Udupi district.

Hence pair 2 is incorrect

• Lodh falls is located on Burha river in the forest of Palamau Tiger Reserve in Jharkhand.

• It is the highest waterfall in Jharkhand.

Hence pair 3 is incorrect

• Thalaiyar Falls is located on the Manjalar river (one of the tributaries of Vaigai river), which flows in the south of Tamil Nadu

• It is the highest waterfall in the state and the Eighth highest waterfall in India.

Hence pair 4 is correct

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Gulf of Mannar: It is a part of Laccadive Sea, bordered by Rameshwaram. The Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve is the first and only Marine sanctuary in Southeast Asia. It has been selected for hydrocarbon exploration by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: C The Gulf of Mannar is part of the Laccadive Sea in the Indian Ocean containing 21 Islands It is located between the Northwest coast of Sri Lanka and the southeast coast of India It is bordered by Rameshwaram (the Ram Setu bridge) and the Mannar Island of Sri Lanka It receives rivers like Thamirabarani of India and Aruvi of Sri Lanka. Hence statement 1 is correct The Gulf of Mannar is the first and most well-known Marine Biosphere Reserve of India. However, it is not the only Marine Sanctuary; other prominent Marine Reserves are the Gulf of Kutch, Mahatma Gandhi Marine National Park in Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Rani Jhansi Marine National Park in Andaman and Nicobar Islands. The Gulf of Kutch National Park is the largest Marine sanctuary in India. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Recently an area of 9990.96 km in the southern Tamil Nadu deep sea region of the Gulf of Mannar has been included in the recent tender for hydrocarbon exploration issued by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: C The Gulf of Mannar is part of the Laccadive Sea in the Indian Ocean containing 21 Islands It is located between the Northwest coast of Sri Lanka and the southeast coast of India It is bordered by Rameshwaram (the Ram Setu bridge) and the Mannar Island of Sri Lanka It receives rivers like Thamirabarani of India and Aruvi of Sri Lanka. Hence statement 1 is correct The Gulf of Mannar is the first and most well-known Marine Biosphere Reserve of India. However, it is not the only Marine Sanctuary; other prominent Marine Reserves are the Gulf of Kutch, Mahatma Gandhi Marine National Park in Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Rani Jhansi Marine National Park in Andaman and Nicobar Islands. The Gulf of Kutch National Park is the largest Marine sanctuary in India. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Recently an area of 9990.96 km in the southern Tamil Nadu deep sea region of the Gulf of Mannar has been included in the recent tender for hydrocarbon exploration issued by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 20. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Gulf of Mannar:

• It is a part of Laccadive Sea, bordered by Rameshwaram.

• The Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve is the first and only Marine sanctuary in Southeast Asia.

• It has been selected for hydrocarbon exploration by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 2 and 3 only

• (b) 1 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: C

• The Gulf of Mannar is part of the Laccadive Sea in the Indian Ocean containing 21 Islands

• It is located between the Northwest coast of Sri Lanka and the southeast coast of India

• It is bordered by Rameshwaram (the Ram Setu bridge) and the Mannar Island of Sri Lanka

• It receives rivers like Thamirabarani of India and Aruvi of Sri Lanka.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The Gulf of Mannar is the first and most well-known Marine Biosphere Reserve of India.

• However, it is not the only Marine Sanctuary; other prominent Marine Reserves are the Gulf of Kutch, Mahatma Gandhi Marine National Park in Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Rani Jhansi Marine National Park in Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

• The Gulf of Kutch National Park is the largest Marine sanctuary in India.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Recently an area of 9990.96 km in the southern Tamil Nadu deep sea region of the Gulf of Mannar has been included in the recent tender for hydrocarbon exploration issued by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: C

• The Gulf of Mannar is part of the Laccadive Sea in the Indian Ocean containing 21 Islands

• It is located between the Northwest coast of Sri Lanka and the southeast coast of India

• It is bordered by Rameshwaram (the Ram Setu bridge) and the Mannar Island of Sri Lanka

• It receives rivers like Thamirabarani of India and Aruvi of Sri Lanka.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The Gulf of Mannar is the first and most well-known Marine Biosphere Reserve of India.

• The Gulf of Kutch National Park is the largest Marine sanctuary in India.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Which of the following could be possible consequences of reciprocal tariffs? Increase in India’s imports of defence equipment and consumer goods from the United States. Depreciation of the Indian Rupee due to higher dollar demand. Boost to India’s GDP through enhanced consumption of domestically produced goods. Potential weakening of the Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative due to rising US imports. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: India may import more US goods, including defence and consumer products. Statement 2 is correct: Higher imports mean more demand for dollars, causing rupee depreciation. Statement 3 is incorrect: Higher spending on US goods reduces the boost to India’s GDP as the money flows out, not into domestic products. Statement 4 is correct: Rising US imports could hurt domestic industries and weaken the Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative. Incorrect Solution: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: India may import more US goods, including defence and consumer products. Statement 2 is correct: Higher imports mean more demand for dollars, causing rupee depreciation. Statement 3 is incorrect: Higher spending on US goods reduces the boost to India’s GDP as the money flows out, not into domestic products. Statement 4 is correct: Rising US imports could hurt domestic industries and weaken the Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative.

#### 21. Question

Which of the following could be possible consequences of reciprocal tariffs?

• Increase in India’s imports of defence equipment and consumer goods from the United States.

• Depreciation of the Indian Rupee due to higher dollar demand.

• Boost to India’s GDP through enhanced consumption of domestically produced goods.

• Potential weakening of the Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative due to rising US imports.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (b) 1, 2 and 4 only

• (c) 2, 3 and 4 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: B

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct: India may import more US goods, including defence and consumer products.

• Statement 2 is correct: Higher imports mean more demand for dollars, causing rupee depreciation.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: Higher spending on US goods reduces the boost to India’s GDP as the money flows out, not into domestic products.

• Statement 4 is correct: Rising US imports could hurt domestic industries and weaken the Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative.

Solution: B

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct: India may import more US goods, including defence and consumer products.

• Statement 2 is correct: Higher imports mean more demand for dollars, causing rupee depreciation.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: Higher spending on US goods reduces the boost to India’s GDP as the money flows out, not into domestic products.

• Statement 4 is correct: Rising US imports could hurt domestic industries and weaken the Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative.

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about artesian conditions: An artesian aquifer is characterized by an unconfined aquifer where water seeps freely through permeable layers. Water in artesian conditions may flow to the surface without pumping due to pressure exerted by overlying impermeable layers. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B Explanation: In December, 2025, artesian water flow in Taranagar, Jaisalmer, Rajasthan, revealed unique geological features, dispelling myths like the Saraswati River. Statement 1 is incorrect. An artesian aquifer is a *confined* aquifer, not unconfined. It is sandwiched between two impermeable layers, which trap water and build hydrostatic pressure. In contrast, an unconfined aquifer allows water to seep directly from the surface, and lacks the pressure system needed for artesian flow. Statement 2 is correct. The internal pressure within a confined aquifer—due to overlying rock layers and gravitational gradient—can be sufficient to push water to the surface without pumping, especially when the top confining layer is breached (e.g., via drilling). Incorrect Solution: B Explanation: In December, 2025, artesian water flow in Taranagar, Jaisalmer, Rajasthan, revealed unique geological features, dispelling myths like the Saraswati River. Statement 1 is incorrect. An artesian aquifer is a *confined* aquifer, not unconfined. It is sandwiched between two impermeable layers, which trap water and build hydrostatic pressure. In contrast, an unconfined aquifer allows water to seep directly from the surface, and lacks the pressure system needed for artesian flow. Statement 2 is correct. The internal pressure within a confined aquifer—due to overlying rock layers and gravitational gradient—can be sufficient to push water to the surface without pumping, especially when the top confining layer is breached (e.g., via drilling).

#### 22. Question

Consider the following statements about artesian conditions:

• An artesian aquifer is characterized by an unconfined aquifer where water seeps freely through permeable layers.

• Water in artesian conditions may flow to the surface without pumping due to pressure exerted by overlying impermeable layers.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

Explanation:

In December, 2025, artesian water flow in Taranagar, Jaisalmer, Rajasthan, revealed unique geological features, dispelling myths like the Saraswati River. Statement 1 is incorrect. An artesian aquifer is a *confined* aquifer, not unconfined. It is sandwiched between two impermeable layers, which trap water and build hydrostatic pressure. In contrast, an unconfined aquifer allows water to seep directly from the surface, and lacks the pressure system needed for artesian flow. Statement 2 is correct. The internal pressure within a confined aquifer—due to overlying rock layers and gravitational gradient—can be sufficient to push water to the surface without pumping, especially when the top confining layer is breached (e.g., via drilling).

Solution: B

Explanation:

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Which Indian state is globally renowned for cultivating the seeds of Euryale ferox—an aquatic plant known for its high protein, low glycemic index, and anti-aging flavonoid content—and has been chosen as the base for a newly announced Central Government Makhana Board aimed at enhancing its production, processing, and export potential? (a) West Bengal (b) Assam (c) Bihar (d) Odisha Correct Solution: C Explanation: Euryale ferox, commonly known as Makhana or fox nut, is primarily cultivated in the lowland ponds of Bihar, which accounts for 90% of global production. Recognizing its economic and nutritional significance, Central government has has recently announced the formation of a dedicated Makhana Board to enhance production, processing, value addition, and marketing efforts. Makhana is rich in protein, fiber, and flavonoids, has a low glycemic index, and is known for its anti-aging and heart-health properties. Incorrect Solution: C Explanation: Euryale ferox, commonly known as Makhana or fox nut, is primarily cultivated in the lowland ponds of Bihar, which accounts for 90% of global production. Recognizing its economic and nutritional significance, Central government has has recently announced the formation of a dedicated Makhana Board to enhance production, processing, value addition, and marketing efforts. Makhana is rich in protein, fiber, and flavonoids, has a low glycemic index, and is known for its anti-aging and heart-health properties.

#### 23. Question

Which Indian state is globally renowned for cultivating the seeds of Euryale ferox—an aquatic plant known for its high protein, low glycemic index, and anti-aging flavonoid content—and has been chosen as the base for a newly announced Central Government Makhana Board aimed at enhancing its production, processing, and export potential?

• (a) West Bengal

• (d) Odisha

Solution: C

Explanation:

• Euryale ferox, commonly known as Makhana or fox nut, is primarily cultivated in the lowland ponds of Bihar, which accounts for 90% of global production.

• Recognizing its economic and nutritional significance, Central government has has recently announced the formation of a dedicated Makhana Board to enhance production, processing, value addition, and marketing efforts.

• Makhana is rich in protein, fiber, and flavonoids, has a low glycemic index, and is known for its anti-aging and heart-health properties.

Solution: C

Explanation:

• Euryale ferox, commonly known as Makhana or fox nut, is primarily cultivated in the lowland ponds of Bihar, which accounts for 90% of global production.

• Makhana is rich in protein, fiber, and flavonoids, has a low glycemic index, and is known for its anti-aging and heart-health properties.

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Consider the following features: Collision avoidance and automatic emergency braking Lane departure warning and lane keeping assist Traffic sign recognition and blind spot detection Guaranteed performance under all weather and road conditions How many of the above features are associated with Advanced Driver Assistance Systems (ADAS)? (a) Only two (b) Only three (c) All four (d) Only one Correct Solution: B Explanation: Advanced Driver Assistance Systems (ADAS) are a suite of electronic technologies integrated into vehicles to enhance safety and assist drivers. Among the listed features, Statements 1, 2, and 3 correctly reflect key capabilities of ADAS. These include automatic emergency braking, collision alerts, lane departure warning and correction, traffic sign recognition, and blind spot detection, all aimed at minimizing human error and improving real-time decision-making. However, Statement 4 is incorrect. ADAS does not guarantee flawless performance under all weather and road conditions—its effectiveness is compromised by poor road infrastructure, faint lane markings, unpredictable traffic behavior, fog, rain, and low light, especially in countries like India. Thus, environmental and infrastructural challenges significantly limit its reliability. Therefore, only three out of the four features listed are actually associated with ADAS. Incorrect Solution: B Explanation: Advanced Driver Assistance Systems (ADAS) are a suite of electronic technologies integrated into vehicles to enhance safety and assist drivers. Among the listed features, Statements 1, 2, and 3 correctly reflect key capabilities of ADAS. These include automatic emergency braking, collision alerts, lane departure warning and correction, traffic sign recognition, and blind spot detection, all aimed at minimizing human error and improving real-time decision-making. However, Statement 4 is incorrect. ADAS does not guarantee flawless performance under all weather and road conditions—its effectiveness is compromised by poor road infrastructure, faint lane markings, unpredictable traffic behavior, fog, rain, and low light, especially in countries like India. Thus, environmental and infrastructural challenges significantly limit its reliability. Therefore, only three out of the four features listed are actually associated with ADAS.

#### 24. Question

Consider the following features:

• Collision avoidance and automatic emergency braking

• Lane departure warning and lane keeping assist

• Traffic sign recognition and blind spot detection

• Guaranteed performance under all weather and road conditions

How many of the above features are associated with Advanced Driver Assistance Systems (ADAS)?

• (a) Only two

• (b) Only three

• (c) All four

• (d) Only one

Solution: B

Explanation:

Advanced Driver Assistance Systems (ADAS) are a suite of electronic technologies integrated into vehicles to enhance safety and assist drivers. Among the listed features, Statements 1, 2, and 3 correctly reflect key capabilities of ADAS. These include automatic emergency braking, collision alerts, lane departure warning and correction, traffic sign recognition, and blind spot detection, all aimed at minimizing human error and improving real-time decision-making.

However, Statement 4 is incorrect. ADAS does not guarantee flawless performance under all weather and road conditions—its effectiveness is compromised by poor road infrastructure, faint lane markings, unpredictable traffic behavior, fog, rain, and low light, especially in countries like India.

Thus, environmental and infrastructural challenges significantly limit its reliability. Therefore, only three out of the four features listed are actually associated with ADAS.

Solution: B

Explanation:

Thus, environmental and infrastructural challenges significantly limit its reliability. Therefore, only three out of the four features listed are actually associated with ADAS.

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Consider the following countries: Vietnam China Laos Philippines How many of the above countries border the Gulf of Tonkin? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Recently, Vietnam’s foreign ministry released a map defining its baseline claim in the Gulf of Tonkin, reinforcing its sovereign rights and maritime jurisdiction. Gulf of Tonkin: Location: Situated in the northwestern South China Sea. Borders: Vietnam (West & Northwest) and China (North & East). Rivers Inflow: Red River (Vietnam) – The largest river flowing into the gulf. Other Rivers: Ka Long, Bach Dang, and other tributaries from Vietnam and China. Laos is landlocked; the Philippines lies east of the South China Sea. Incorrect Solution: B Recently, Vietnam’s foreign ministry released a map defining its baseline claim in the Gulf of Tonkin, reinforcing its sovereign rights and maritime jurisdiction. Gulf of Tonkin: Location: Situated in the northwestern South China Sea. Borders: Vietnam (West & Northwest) and China (North & East). Rivers Inflow: Red River (Vietnam) – The largest river flowing into the gulf. Other Rivers: Ka Long, Bach Dang, and other tributaries from Vietnam and China. Laos is landlocked; the Philippines lies east of the South China Sea.

#### 25. Question

Consider the following countries:

• Philippines

How many of the above countries border the Gulf of Tonkin?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

Recently, Vietnam’s foreign ministry released a map defining its baseline claim in the Gulf of Tonkin, reinforcing its sovereign rights and maritime jurisdiction.

Gulf of Tonkin:

• Location: Situated in the northwestern South China Sea.

• Borders: Vietnam (West & Northwest) and China (North & East).

• Rivers Inflow:

• Red River (Vietnam) – The largest river flowing into the gulf. Other Rivers: Ka Long, Bach Dang, and other tributaries from Vietnam and China.

• Red River (Vietnam) – The largest river flowing into the gulf.

• Other Rivers: Ka Long, Bach Dang, and other tributaries from Vietnam and China.

Laos is landlocked; the Philippines lies east of the South China Sea.

Solution: B

Recently, Vietnam’s foreign ministry released a map defining its baseline claim in the Gulf of Tonkin, reinforcing its sovereign rights and maritime jurisdiction.

Gulf of Tonkin:

• Location: Situated in the northwestern South China Sea.

• Borders: Vietnam (West & Northwest) and China (North & East).

• Rivers Inflow:

• Red River (Vietnam) – The largest river flowing into the gulf. Other Rivers: Ka Long, Bach Dang, and other tributaries from Vietnam and China.

• Red River (Vietnam) – The largest river flowing into the gulf.

• Other Rivers: Ka Long, Bach Dang, and other tributaries from Vietnam and China.

Laos is landlocked; the Philippines lies east of the South China Sea.

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points The advent of telemedicine has revolutionized the healthcare industry. It offers remote consultations, diagnoses, and even treatment options, making healthcare more accessible, especially in rural and underserved areas. Telemedicine helps bridge the gap between patients and healthcare providers, reducing the need for physical visits and long travel times. Despite its advantages, telemedicine faces several challenges, including ensuring data privacy and security, dealing with varying levels of internet connectivity, and overcoming regulatory hurdles. Moreover, some medical professionals and patients are hesitant to adopt telemedicine due to concerns about the quality of care and the lack of personal interaction. Efforts are being made to address these issues through improved cybersecurity measures, expanding internet infrastructure, and updating regulations to support telemedicine practices. As these efforts progress, telemedicine holds the potential to become an integral part of the healthcare system, providing convenient and efficient medical care to a broader population. Which one of the following statements best reflects the corollary to the passage given above? a. The healthcare industry should revert to traditional methods due to the challenges of telemedicine. b. Efforts to improve internet infrastructure and cybersecurity are crucial for the widespread adoption of telemedicine. c. Patients should avoid telemedicine due to concerns about data privacy and quality of care. d. Telemedicine will never be fully accepted due to the lack of personal interaction. Correct Correct Option: B Justification: The passage mentions the need to address challenges like data privacy and internet connectivity for telemedicine to become more prevalent. (a) is incorrect because it suggests abandoning telemedicine, which contradicts the passage’s optimistic outlook. (c) is incorrect because it discourages the use of telemedicine without considering potential solutions. (d) is incorrect because it takes a pessimistic view, ignoring the progress and efforts mentioned in the passage to overcome telemedicine’s challenges. Incorrect Correct Option: B Justification: The passage mentions the need to address challenges like data privacy and internet connectivity for telemedicine to become more prevalent. (a) is incorrect because it suggests abandoning telemedicine, which contradicts the passage’s optimistic outlook. (c) is incorrect because it discourages the use of telemedicine without considering potential solutions. (d) is incorrect because it takes a pessimistic view, ignoring the progress and efforts mentioned in the passage to overcome telemedicine’s challenges.

#### 26. Question

The advent of telemedicine has revolutionized the healthcare industry. It offers remote consultations, diagnoses, and even treatment options, making healthcare more accessible, especially in rural and underserved areas. Telemedicine helps bridge the gap between patients and healthcare providers, reducing the need for physical visits and long travel times.

Despite its advantages, telemedicine faces several challenges, including ensuring data privacy and security, dealing with varying levels of internet connectivity, and overcoming regulatory hurdles. Moreover, some medical professionals and patients are hesitant to adopt telemedicine due to concerns about the quality of care and the lack of personal interaction.

Efforts are being made to address these issues through improved cybersecurity measures, expanding internet infrastructure, and updating regulations to support telemedicine practices. As these efforts progress, telemedicine holds the potential to become an integral part of the healthcare system, providing convenient and efficient medical care to a broader population.

Which one of the following statements best reflects the corollary to the passage given above?

• a. The healthcare industry should revert to traditional methods due to the challenges of telemedicine.

• b. Efforts to improve internet infrastructure and cybersecurity are crucial for the widespread adoption of telemedicine.

• c. Patients should avoid telemedicine due to concerns about data privacy and quality of care.

• d. Telemedicine will never be fully accepted due to the lack of personal interaction.

Correct Option: B

Justification:

The passage mentions the need to address challenges like data privacy and internet connectivity for telemedicine to become more prevalent.

(a) is incorrect because it suggests abandoning telemedicine, which contradicts the passage’s optimistic outlook.

(c) is incorrect because it discourages the use of telemedicine without considering potential solutions.

(d) is incorrect because it takes a pessimistic view, ignoring the progress and efforts mentioned in the passage to overcome telemedicine’s challenges.

Correct Option: B

Justification:

The passage mentions the need to address challenges like data privacy and internet connectivity for telemedicine to become more prevalent.

(a) is incorrect because it suggests abandoning telemedicine, which contradicts the passage’s optimistic outlook.

(c) is incorrect because it discourages the use of telemedicine without considering potential solutions.

(d) is incorrect because it takes a pessimistic view, ignoring the progress and efforts mentioned in the passage to overcome telemedicine’s challenges.

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the given assumptions is implicit in the statement. Statement: Nobody can predict as to how long our country would take to contain the unfortunate and disastrous terrorist activities. Assumptions: It is impossible to put an end to terrorist activities Efforts to control the terrorist activities are on. a. If only assumption I is implicit. b. If only assumption II is implicit. c. If neither I nor II is implicit. d. If both I and II are implicit. Correct Correct Option: B Justification: The statement expresses concern over the issue as to when our country would be able to curb terrorism completely. This means that efforts are on and it is quite possible to put an end to terrorist activities although it could take longer. So, only II is implicit. Incorrect Correct Option: B Justification: The statement expresses concern over the issue as to when our country would be able to curb terrorism completely. This means that efforts are on and it is quite possible to put an end to terrorist activities although it could take longer. So, only II is implicit.

#### 27. Question

In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the given assumptions is implicit in the statement.

Statement: Nobody can predict as to how long our country would take to contain the unfortunate and disastrous terrorist activities.

Assumptions:

• It is impossible to put an end to terrorist activities

• Efforts to control the terrorist activities are on.

• a. If only assumption I is implicit.

• b. If only assumption II is implicit.

• c. If neither I nor II is implicit.

• d. If both I and II are implicit.

Correct Option: B

Justification:

The statement expresses concern over the issue as to when our country would be able to curb terrorism completely. This means that efforts are on and it is quite possible to put an end to terrorist activities although it could take longer. So, only II is implicit.

Correct Option: B

Justification:

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the given assumptions is implicit in the statement. Statement: Traffic jams on most of the roads in the city have become a regular feature during monsoon. Assumption: Material used for road construction cannot withstand the fury of monsoon resulting into innumerable pot holes on the roads. Number of vehicles coming on the roads is much more in monsoon as compared to other seasons. a. If only assumption I is implicit. b. If only assumption II is implicit. c. If neither I nor II is implicit. d. If both I and II are implicit. Correct Correct Option: A Justification: Clearly, the problem of traffic jams arises during monsoons not because of increased number of vehicles but due to slow movement of traffic on account of bad roads. So, only I is implicit. Incorrect Correct Option: A Justification: Clearly, the problem of traffic jams arises during monsoons not because of increased number of vehicles but due to slow movement of traffic on account of bad roads. So, only I is implicit.

#### 28. Question

Statement: Traffic jams on most of the roads in the city have become a regular feature during monsoon.

Assumption:

• Material used for road construction cannot withstand the fury of monsoon resulting into innumerable pot holes on the roads.

• Number of vehicles coming on the roads is much more in monsoon as compared to other seasons.

• a. If only assumption I is implicit.

• b. If only assumption II is implicit.

• c. If neither I nor II is implicit.

• d. If both I and II are implicit.

Correct Option: A

Justification:

Clearly, the problem of traffic jams arises during monsoons not because of increased number of vehicles but due to slow movement of traffic on account of bad roads. So, only I is implicit.

Correct Option: A

Justification:

Clearly, the problem of traffic jams arises during monsoons not because of increased number of vehicles but due to slow movement of traffic on account of bad roads. So, only I is implicit.

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points In each of the following questions, three statements 1, 2 and 3 are followed by four conclusions I, II, III, IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they appear to be at variance with commonly known facts, and then decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the given statements. For each question, mark the answer choice that you think is correct Statements: All bibs are red. All red are flowers. No flowers are tablets. Conclusions: I. Some flowers are bibs. II’ No tablets are bibs. III. Some red are bibs. iV Some tablets are red. a. I, II and III follow b. II, III and IV follow c. Only I and II follow d. Only I and III follow Correct Correct Option: A Justification: Hence, option (A) is the correct answer. Incorrect Correct Option: A Justification: Hence, option (A) is the correct answer.

#### 29. Question

In each of the following questions, three statements 1, 2 and 3 are followed by four conclusions I, II, III, IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they appear to be at variance with commonly known facts, and then decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the given statements. For each question, mark the answer choice that you think is correct

Statements:

• All bibs are red.

• All red are flowers.

• No flowers are tablets.

Conclusions: I. Some flowers are bibs.

II’ No tablets are bibs.

III. Some red are bibs.

iV Some tablets are red.

• a. I, II and III follow

• b. II, III and IV follow

• c. Only I and II follow

• d. Only I and III follow

Correct Option: A

Justification:

Hence, option (A) is the correct answer.

Correct Option: A

Justification:

Hence, option (A) is the correct answer.

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points What is the probability of getting a sum 9 from two throws of a dice? a. 1/6 b. 1/8 c. 1/9 d. 1/12 Correct Correct Option: C Justification: In two throws of a dice, n(S) = (6 x 6) = 36. Let E = event of getting a sum ={(3, 6), (4, 5), (5, 4), (6, 3)}. P(E) = n(E)/ n(S) = 4/36 = 1/9 . Incorrect Correct Option: C Justification: In two throws of a dice, n(S) = (6 x 6) = 36. Let E = event of getting a sum ={(3, 6), (4, 5), (5, 4), (6, 3)}. P(E) = n(E)/ n(S) = 4/36 = 1/9 .

#### 30. Question

What is the probability of getting a sum 9 from two throws of a dice?

Correct Option: C

Justification:

In two throws of a dice, n(S) = (6 x 6) = 36.

Let E = event of getting a sum ={(3, 6), (4, 5), (5, 4), (6, 3)}.

P(E) = n(E)/ n(S) = 4/36 = 1/9 .

Correct Option: C

Justification:

In two throws of a dice, n(S) = (6 x 6) = 36.

Let E = event of getting a sum ={(3, 6), (4, 5), (5, 4), (6, 3)}.

P(E) = n(E)/ n(S) = 4/36 = 1/9 .

Join our Official Telegram Channel HERE

Please subscribe to Our podcast channel HERE

Follow our Twitter Account HERE

Follow our Instagram ID HERE