DAY – 49 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – GEOGRAPHY, Subject-wise Test 33, 34, and August 2023 CA

INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Which of the following statement is true with reference to the seafloor spreading hypothesis proposed by Hess in 1961? a) The oceanic crust spreads due to volcanic eruptions at mid-oceanic ridges, with new lava pushing the older crust outwards. b) The oceanic crust sinks into the deep-oceanic trenches, leading to a reduction in the size of oceans. c) The continental crust is broken into plates that drift apart, creating new seafloor. d) The oceanic crust rises at the mid-oceanic ridges due to high pressure from underlying magma. Correct Answer: a Explanation: The basic principle of the seafloor spreading hypothesis, proposed by Hess in 1961, is that the oceanic crust is created and spreads outward from the mid-oceanic ridges due to volcanic activity. This process involves constant eruptions along these ridges, which bring new lava to the surface, thereby forming new oceanic crust. The pressure of this new crust formation pushes the older oceanic crust outwards, causing the seafloor to spread. As the seafloor spreads, the older crust eventually sinks into deep-oceanic trenches, which are part of the subduction process. However, the primary mechanism for seafloor spreading centres around volcanic eruptions and the creation of new oceanic crust at mid-oceanic ridges. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: The basic principle of the seafloor spreading hypothesis, proposed by Hess in 1961, is that the oceanic crust is created and spreads outward from the mid-oceanic ridges due to volcanic activity. This process involves constant eruptions along these ridges, which bring new lava to the surface, thereby forming new oceanic crust. The pressure of this new crust formation pushes the older oceanic crust outwards, causing the seafloor to spread. As the seafloor spreads, the older crust eventually sinks into deep-oceanic trenches, which are part of the subduction process. However, the primary mechanism for seafloor spreading centres around volcanic eruptions and the creation of new oceanic crust at mid-oceanic ridges. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 1. Question

Which of the following statement is true with reference to the seafloor spreading hypothesis proposed by Hess in 1961?

• a) The oceanic crust spreads due to volcanic eruptions at mid-oceanic ridges, with new lava pushing the older crust outwards.

• b) The oceanic crust sinks into the deep-oceanic trenches, leading to a reduction in the size of oceans.

• c) The continental crust is broken into plates that drift apart, creating new seafloor.

• d) The oceanic crust rises at the mid-oceanic ridges due to high pressure from underlying magma.

Explanation:

• The basic principle of the seafloor spreading hypothesis, proposed by Hess in 1961, is that the oceanic crust is created and spreads outward from the mid-oceanic ridges due to volcanic activity.

• This process involves constant eruptions along these ridges, which bring new lava to the surface, thereby forming new oceanic crust. The pressure of this new crust formation pushes the older oceanic crust outwards, causing the seafloor to spread.

• As the seafloor spreads, the older crust eventually sinks into deep-oceanic trenches, which are part of the subduction process. However, the primary mechanism for seafloor spreading centres around volcanic eruptions and the creation of new oceanic crust at mid-oceanic ridges.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• The basic principle of the seafloor spreading hypothesis, proposed by Hess in 1961, is that the oceanic crust is created and spreads outward from the mid-oceanic ridges due to volcanic activity.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The rocks in the oceanic crust are typically older than those in the continental crust. Earthquakes are common in deep-oceanic trenches but rare in mid-oceanic ridge areas. Which of the above given statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: d Explanation: Rocks in the oceanic crust are typically younger than those in the continental crust. Oceanic crust is formed at mid-oceanic ridges and generally doesn’t exceed 200 million years in age, while continental rocks can be much older, with some as old as 3,200 million years. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. While earthquakes are common in deep-oceanic trenches, they also frequently occur in mid-oceanic ridge areas. However, the depth of these earthquakes differs: those in the mid-oceanic ridge tend to be shallow, while those in deep-oceanic trenches are deep-seated due to subduction processes. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: Rocks in the oceanic crust are typically younger than those in the continental crust. Oceanic crust is formed at mid-oceanic ridges and generally doesn’t exceed 200 million years in age, while continental rocks can be much older, with some as old as 3,200 million years. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. While earthquakes are common in deep-oceanic trenches, they also frequently occur in mid-oceanic ridge areas. However, the depth of these earthquakes differs: those in the mid-oceanic ridge tend to be shallow, while those in deep-oceanic trenches are deep-seated due to subduction processes. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option (d) is correct.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The rocks in the oceanic crust are typically older than those in the continental crust.

• Earthquakes are common in deep-oceanic trenches but rare in mid-oceanic ridge areas.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• Rocks in the oceanic crust are typically younger than those in the continental crust. Oceanic crust is formed at mid-oceanic ridges and generally doesn’t exceed 200 million years in age, while continental rocks can be much older, with some as old as 3,200 million years. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• While earthquakes are common in deep-oceanic trenches, they also frequently occur in mid-oceanic ridge areas. However, the depth of these earthquakes differs: those in the mid-oceanic ridge tend to be shallow, while those in deep-oceanic trenches are deep-seated due to subduction processes. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points With reference to plate tectonics, consider the following statements: Divergent boundaries are where the crust is destroyed as one plate dives under another. Convergent boundaries involve plates moving away from each other, creating new crust. Transform boundaries are where the crust is neither produced nor destroyed, as plates slide horizontally past each other. The Arctic Ridge has the fastest rate of plate movement, while the East Pacific Rise has the slowest rate. How many of the above are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: a Explanation: Divergent boundaries are where plates move apart, creating new crust (like at mid-oceanic ridges). Crust is destroyed in convergent boundaries where one plate dives under another (subduction). Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Convergent boundaries are where plates collide, often resulting in one plate subducting beneath another, destroying crust. Divergent boundaries involve plates moving away from each other, creating new crust. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. At transform boundaries, plates slide horizontally past each other, and there is no creation or destruction of crust. Hence, statement 3 is correct. The Arctic Ridge has the slowest rate of plate movement (less than 2.5 cm/year), while the East Pacific Rise has the fastest rate (more than 15 cm/year). Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Divergent boundaries are where plates move apart, creating new crust (like at mid-oceanic ridges). Crust is destroyed in convergent boundaries where one plate dives under another (subduction). Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Convergent boundaries are where plates collide, often resulting in one plate subducting beneath another, destroying crust. Divergent boundaries involve plates moving away from each other, creating new crust. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. At transform boundaries, plates slide horizontally past each other, and there is no creation or destruction of crust. Hence, statement 3 is correct. The Arctic Ridge has the slowest rate of plate movement (less than 2.5 cm/year), while the East Pacific Rise has the fastest rate (more than 15 cm/year). Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 3. Question

With reference to plate tectonics, consider the following statements:

• Divergent boundaries are where the crust is destroyed as one plate dives under another.

• Convergent boundaries involve plates moving away from each other, creating new crust.

• Transform boundaries are where the crust is neither produced nor destroyed, as plates slide horizontally past each other.

• The Arctic Ridge has the fastest rate of plate movement, while the East Pacific Rise has the slowest rate.

How many of the above are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

• Divergent boundaries are where plates move apart, creating new crust (like at mid-oceanic ridges). Crust is destroyed in convergent boundaries where one plate dives under another (subduction). Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• Convergent boundaries are where plates collide, often resulting in one plate subducting beneath another, destroying crust. Divergent boundaries involve plates moving away from each other, creating new crust. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• At transform boundaries, plates slide horizontally past each other, and there is no creation or destruction of crust. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• The Arctic Ridge has the slowest rate of plate movement (less than 2.5 cm/year), while the East Pacific Rise has the fastest rate (more than 15 cm/year). Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• At transform boundaries, plates slide horizontally past each other, and there is no creation or destruction of crust. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• The Arctic Ridge has the slowest rate of plate movement (less than 2.5 cm/year), while the East Pacific Rise has the fastest rate (more than 15 cm/year). Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Consider the following: Weathering Mass wasting Volcanism Erosion How many of the above are considered as endogenic geomorphic processes? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: a Explanation: Endogenic geomorphic processes refer to those processes that originate from within the Earth, usually due to geothermal energy and internal forces. They include phenomena like volcanic activity, diastrophism, and tectonic movements. Weathering: This is an exogenic process, typically caused by external factors like wind, water, or temperature changes. Mass wasting: This is also an exogenic process involving the downslope movement of earth materials due to gravity. Volcanism: This is an endogenic process involving the movement of magma from within the Earth to the surface or near it. Erosion: Like weathering, erosion is an exogenic process caused by wind, water, or ice removing earth materials from the surface. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Endogenic geomorphic processes refer to those processes that originate from within the Earth, usually due to geothermal energy and internal forces. They include phenomena like volcanic activity, diastrophism, and tectonic movements. Weathering: This is an exogenic process, typically caused by external factors like wind, water, or temperature changes. Mass wasting: This is also an exogenic process involving the downslope movement of earth materials due to gravity. Volcanism: This is an endogenic process involving the movement of magma from within the Earth to the surface or near it. Erosion: Like weathering, erosion is an exogenic process caused by wind, water, or ice removing earth materials from the surface. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following:

• Weathering

• Mass wasting

How many of the above are considered as endogenic geomorphic processes?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

• Endogenic geomorphic processes refer to those processes that originate from within the Earth, usually due to geothermal energy and internal forces. They include phenomena like volcanic activity, diastrophism, and tectonic movements.

• Weathering: This is an exogenic process, typically caused by external factors like wind, water, or temperature changes.

• Mass wasting: This is also an exogenic process involving the downslope movement of earth materials due to gravity.

• Volcanism: This is an endogenic process involving the movement of magma from within the Earth to the surface or near it.

• Erosion: Like weathering, erosion is an exogenic process caused by wind, water, or ice removing earth materials from the surface.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• Weathering: This is an exogenic process, typically caused by external factors like wind, water, or temperature changes.

• Mass wasting: This is also an exogenic process involving the downslope movement of earth materials due to gravity.

• Volcanism: This is an endogenic process involving the movement of magma from within the Earth to the surface or near it.

• Erosion: Like weathering, erosion is an exogenic process caused by wind, water, or ice removing earth materials from the surface.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Consider the following: Orogeny Epeirogeny Plate tectonics Which of the above types of processes fall under diastrophism? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 1 and 2 only d) 1,2 and 3 Correct Answer: d Explanation: Diastrophism refers to the large-scale deformation of the Earth’s crust resulting in the formation of mountains, continents, and other significant features. It encompasses processes that build, elevate, or deform the Earth’s crust. Orogeny: This process involves the formation of mountains through severe folding and deformation. It is a key component of diastrophism. Epeirogeny: This involves the uplift or warping of large parts of the Earth’s crust, leading to the formation of continents or plateaus. It also falls under diastrophism. Plate tectonics: This theory describes the horizontal movement of the Earth’s lithospheric plates. Plate tectonics can lead to diastrophic events such as earthquakes, mountain building, and other crustal deformations. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: Diastrophism refers to the large-scale deformation of the Earth’s crust resulting in the formation of mountains, continents, and other significant features. It encompasses processes that build, elevate, or deform the Earth’s crust. Orogeny: This process involves the formation of mountains through severe folding and deformation. It is a key component of diastrophism. Epeirogeny: This involves the uplift or warping of large parts of the Earth’s crust, leading to the formation of continents or plateaus. It also falls under diastrophism. Plate tectonics: This theory describes the horizontal movement of the Earth’s lithospheric plates. Plate tectonics can lead to diastrophic events such as earthquakes, mountain building, and other crustal deformations. Hence, option (d) is correct.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following:

• Epeirogeny

• Plate tectonics

Which of the above types of processes fall under diastrophism?

• c) 1 and 2 only

• d) 1,2 and 3

Explanation:

• Diastrophism refers to the large-scale deformation of the Earth’s crust resulting in the formation of mountains, continents, and other significant features. It encompasses processes that build, elevate, or deform the Earth’s crust.

• Orogeny: This process involves the formation of mountains through severe folding and deformation. It is a key component of diastrophism.

• Epeirogeny: This involves the uplift or warping of large parts of the Earth’s crust, leading to the formation of continents or plateaus. It also falls under diastrophism.

• Plate tectonics: This theory describes the horizontal movement of the Earth’s lithospheric plates. Plate tectonics can lead to diastrophic events such as earthquakes, mountain building, and other crustal deformations.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

• Orogeny: This process involves the formation of mountains through severe folding and deformation. It is a key component of diastrophism.

• Epeirogeny: This involves the uplift or warping of large parts of the Earth’s crust, leading to the formation of continents or plateaus. It also falls under diastrophism.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes a slump? a) The rapid rolling or sliding of earth debris without backward rotation. b) The sliding of individual rock masses down bedding or fault surfaces c) Slipping of rock debris with a backward rotation with respect to the slope. d) The free-fall of rock blocks from a steep slope, keeping themselves away from the slope. Correct Answer: c Explanation: A slump is a type of landslide characterized by a mass of earth or rock debris moving down a slope with a backward rotation. This backward rotation means that as the mass slides down, it tilts or rotates in such a way that the top of the moving mass leans backward relative to the direction of movement. The movement occurs along a curved or concave surface, often called a “failure surface” or “slip plane.” This curvature gives the slump its distinct backward rotation, resembling a spoon or bowl-like shape in cross-section. The slope over which the slump occurs can vary in steepness, but typically, slumps are found on slopes where the underlying material has become unstable due to various factors, such as weathering, water saturation, or human activity. This type of landslide can result in significant changes to the landscape, creating stepped or terraced formations as the material slides downward. It is often associated with rotational movements and can lead to the formation of scarps, or steep, cliff-like edges, at the top of the slump. Overall, slumps are unique among landslide types because of this rotational movement, distinguishing them from other forms of landslides like debris slides, rockslides, or rock falls. Hence, option(c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: A slump is a type of landslide characterized by a mass of earth or rock debris moving down a slope with a backward rotation. This backward rotation means that as the mass slides down, it tilts or rotates in such a way that the top of the moving mass leans backward relative to the direction of movement. The movement occurs along a curved or concave surface, often called a “failure surface” or “slip plane.” This curvature gives the slump its distinct backward rotation, resembling a spoon or bowl-like shape in cross-section. The slope over which the slump occurs can vary in steepness, but typically, slumps are found on slopes where the underlying material has become unstable due to various factors, such as weathering, water saturation, or human activity. This type of landslide can result in significant changes to the landscape, creating stepped or terraced formations as the material slides downward. It is often associated with rotational movements and can lead to the formation of scarps, or steep, cliff-like edges, at the top of the slump. Overall, slumps are unique among landslide types because of this rotational movement, distinguishing them from other forms of landslides like debris slides, rockslides, or rock falls. Hence, option(c) is correct.

#### 6. Question

Which of the following best describes a slump?

• a) The rapid rolling or sliding of earth debris without backward rotation.

• b) The sliding of individual rock masses down bedding or fault surfaces

• c) Slipping of rock debris with a backward rotation with respect to the slope.

• d) The free-fall of rock blocks from a steep slope, keeping themselves away from the slope.

Explanation:

• A slump is a type of landslide characterized by a mass of earth or rock debris moving down a slope with a backward rotation. This backward rotation means that as the mass slides down, it tilts or rotates in such a way that the top of the moving mass leans backward relative to the direction of movement.

• The movement occurs along a curved or concave surface, often called a “failure surface” or “slip plane.” This curvature gives the slump its distinct backward rotation, resembling a spoon or bowl-like shape in cross-section. The slope over which the slump occurs can vary in steepness, but typically, slumps are found on slopes where the underlying material has become unstable due to various factors, such as weathering, water saturation, or human activity.

• This type of landslide can result in significant changes to the landscape, creating stepped or terraced formations as the material slides downward. It is often associated with rotational movements and can lead to the formation of scarps, or steep, cliff-like edges, at the top of the slump.

• Overall, slumps are unique among landslide types because of this rotational movement, distinguishing them from other forms of landslides like debris slides, rockslides, or rock falls.

• Hence, option(c) is correct.

Explanation:

• Overall, slumps are unique among landslide types because of this rotational movement, distinguishing them from other forms of landslides like debris slides, rockslides, or rock falls.

• Hence, option(c) is correct.

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points When do iridescent clouds typically form? a) During intense thunderstorms b) When warm air mixes with cold air c) During sunrise and sun set d) During periods of high humidity in coastal areas Correct Answer: c Explanation: Iridescent clouds, known for their rainbow-like colors, often occur when sunlight interacts with small water droplets or ice crystals in the atmosphere. This phenomenon is most frequently observed during specific times when light conditions are optimal for diffraction, typically around sunrise or sunset. These clouds, resemble mother of pearl, are known for their pastel light reflections. Hence, option(c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Iridescent clouds, known for their rainbow-like colors, often occur when sunlight interacts with small water droplets or ice crystals in the atmosphere. This phenomenon is most frequently observed during specific times when light conditions are optimal for diffraction, typically around sunrise or sunset. These clouds, resemble mother of pearl, are known for their pastel light reflections. Hence, option(c) is correct.

#### 7. Question

When do iridescent clouds typically form?

• a) During intense thunderstorms

• b) When warm air mixes with cold air

• c) During sunrise and sun set

• d) During periods of high humidity in coastal areas

Explanation:

• Iridescent clouds, known for their rainbow-like colors, often occur when sunlight interacts with small water droplets or ice crystals in the atmosphere.

• This phenomenon is most frequently observed during specific times when light conditions are optimal for diffraction, typically around sunrise or sunset.

• These clouds, resemble mother of pearl, are known for their pastel light reflections.

• Hence, option(c) is correct.

Explanation:

• Iridescent clouds, known for their rainbow-like colors, often occur when sunlight interacts with small water droplets or ice crystals in the atmosphere.

• This phenomenon is most frequently observed during specific times when light conditions are optimal for diffraction, typically around sunrise or sunset.

• These clouds, resemble mother of pearl, are known for their pastel light reflections.

• Hence, option(c) is correct.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points What is the definition of a heatwave in India for plains and hilly regions? a) When the maximum temperature reaches at least 40°C for plains and 30°C for hilly regions b) When the maximum temperature reaches at least 45°C for plains and 37°C for hilly region c) When the maximum temperature reaches at least 45°C for plains and 47°C for hilly regions d) When the temperature stays above normal for two or more consecutive days Correct Answer: a Explanation: Heatwaves are prolonged periods of excessively hot weather that can cause adverse impacts on human health, the environment, and the economy. Criteria for Declaring Heat Wave in India: Plains and Hilly Regions: Heat wave is considered if the maximum temperature of a station reaches at least 40°C or more for Plains and at least 30°C or more for Hilly regions. Based on Departure from Normal Heat Wave: Departure from normal is 4.50°C to 6.40°C. Coastal Areas: When maximum temperature departure is 4.50°C or more from normal, a heat wave may be described provided the actual maximum temperature is 37°C or more. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Heatwaves are prolonged periods of excessively hot weather that can cause adverse impacts on human health, the environment, and the economy. Criteria for Declaring Heat Wave in India: Plains and Hilly Regions: Heat wave is considered if the maximum temperature of a station reaches at least 40°C or more for Plains and at least 30°C or more for Hilly regions. Based on Departure from Normal Heat Wave: Departure from normal is 4.50°C to 6.40°C. Coastal Areas: When maximum temperature departure is 4.50°C or more from normal, a heat wave may be described provided the actual maximum temperature is 37°C or more. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 8. Question

What is the definition of a heatwave in India for plains and hilly regions?

• a) When the maximum temperature reaches at least 40°C for plains and 30°C for hilly regions

• b) When the maximum temperature reaches at least 45°C for plains and 37°C for hilly region

• c) When the maximum temperature reaches at least 45°C for plains and 47°C for hilly regions

• d) When the temperature stays above normal for two or more consecutive days

Explanation:

• Heatwaves are prolonged periods of excessively hot weather that can cause adverse impacts on human health, the environment, and the economy.

• Criteria for Declaring Heat Wave in India:

• Plains and Hilly Regions: Heat wave is considered if the maximum temperature of a station reaches at least 40°C or more for Plains and at least 30°C or more for Hilly regions.

• Based on Departure from Normal Heat Wave: Departure from normal is 4.50°C to 6.40°C.

• Coastal Areas: When maximum temperature departure is 4.50°C or more from normal, a heat wave may be described provided the actual maximum temperature is 37°C or more.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• Heatwaves are prolonged periods of excessively hot weather that can cause adverse impacts on human health, the environment, and the economy.

• Criteria for Declaring Heat Wave in India:

• Plains and Hilly Regions: Heat wave is considered if the maximum temperature of a station reaches at least 40°C or more for Plains and at least 30°C or more for Hilly regions.

• Based on Departure from Normal Heat Wave: Departure from normal is 4.50°C to 6.40°C.

• Coastal Areas: When maximum temperature departure is 4.50°C or more from normal, a heat wave may be described provided the actual maximum temperature is 37°C or more.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Which of the following statements about Wet Bulb Temperature (WBT) is correct? a) It is always higher than the Dry Bulb Temperature. b) It is always lower than the Dry Bulb Temperature c) It is always the same as the Dew Point Temperature. d) It is lower than the Dry Bulb Temperature and higher than the Dew Point Temperature. Correct Answer: b Explanation: Wet Bulb Temperature (WBT) is a key concept in meteorology, climatology, and human health studies. It is defined as the lowest temperature to which air can be cooled through the process of evaporation at a constant pressure. WBT represents the temperature at which water vapor begins to saturate the air, creating a cooling effect as it evaporates. It is measured using a thermometer with the bulb wrapped in wet muslin, with the evaporation causing a cooling effect. The WBT is influenced by humidity; it is always lower than the Dry Bulb Temperature (DBT), which is essentially the regular air temperature, but can be identical to DBT when relative humidity is at 100%. WBT has important implications for human health, especially in hot and humid conditions. The body relies on the evaporation of sweat to cool down; when the WBT is high, this cooling mechanism becomes less effective, leading to a potentially dangerous rise in body temperature. A WBT of 31°C is hazardous to human health, while a WBT of 35°C is typically un-survivable for extended periods, as the body cannot cool down through natural means. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Wet Bulb Temperature (WBT) is a key concept in meteorology, climatology, and human health studies. It is defined as the lowest temperature to which air can be cooled through the process of evaporation at a constant pressure. WBT represents the temperature at which water vapor begins to saturate the air, creating a cooling effect as it evaporates. It is measured using a thermometer with the bulb wrapped in wet muslin, with the evaporation causing a cooling effect. The WBT is influenced by humidity; it is always lower than the Dry Bulb Temperature (DBT), which is essentially the regular air temperature, but can be identical to DBT when relative humidity is at 100%. WBT has important implications for human health, especially in hot and humid conditions. The body relies on the evaporation of sweat to cool down; when the WBT is high, this cooling mechanism becomes less effective, leading to a potentially dangerous rise in body temperature. A WBT of 31°C is hazardous to human health, while a WBT of 35°C is typically un-survivable for extended periods, as the body cannot cool down through natural means. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 9. Question

Which of the following statements about Wet Bulb Temperature (WBT) is correct?

• a) It is always higher than the Dry Bulb Temperature.

• b) It is always lower than the Dry Bulb Temperature

• c) It is always the same as the Dew Point Temperature.

• d) It is lower than the Dry Bulb Temperature and higher than the Dew Point Temperature.

Explanation:

• Wet Bulb Temperature (WBT) is a key concept in meteorology, climatology, and human health studies.

• It is defined as the lowest temperature to which air can be cooled through the process of evaporation at a constant pressure. WBT represents the temperature at which water vapor begins to saturate the air, creating a cooling effect as it evaporates.

• It is measured using a thermometer with the bulb wrapped in wet muslin, with the evaporation causing a cooling effect.

• The WBT is influenced by humidity; it is always lower than the Dry Bulb Temperature (DBT), which is essentially the regular air temperature, but can be identical to DBT when relative humidity is at 100%.

• WBT has important implications for human health, especially in hot and humid conditions. The body relies on the evaporation of sweat to cool down; when the WBT is high, this cooling mechanism becomes less effective, leading to a potentially dangerous rise in body temperature. A WBT of 31°C is hazardous to human health, while a WBT of 35°C is typically un-survivable for extended periods, as the body cannot cool down through natural means.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• Wet Bulb Temperature (WBT) is a key concept in meteorology, climatology, and human health studies.

• It is measured using a thermometer with the bulb wrapped in wet muslin, with the evaporation causing a cooling effect.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Why is Katchatheevu island considered unsuitable for permanent habitation? a) It is located too far from the mainland. b) It lacks fresh water sources c) It has harsh weather conditions throughout the year. d) It is frequently flooded during the monsoon season. Correct Answer: b Explanation: Katchatheevu is a small, uninhabited island situated in the Palk Strait, a narrow stretch of water separating the southeastern coast of India from the northern coast of Sri Lanka. The island is positioned northeast of Rameswaram (India) and southwest of Jaffna (Sri Lanka), making it an area of strategic and cultural significance for both countries. Katchatheevu spans an area of about 285 acres, with a length of approximately 1.6 kilometers and a width of over 300 meters at its widest point. Despite its relatively small size, the island has a unique history and significance. It is located about 33 kilometers from the Indian coast and 24 kilometers from Delft Island, Sri Lanka. The island lacks fresh water sources, making it unsuitable for permanent habitation. Its remote location and limited resources have kept it largely uninhabited, except for occasional visits by fishermen and pilgrims. The main landmark on Katchatheevu is Anthony’s Church, which dates back to the early 20th century. This church attracts pilgrims from both India and Sri Lanka during annual religious festivals. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Katchatheevu is a small, uninhabited island situated in the Palk Strait, a narrow stretch of water separating the southeastern coast of India from the northern coast of Sri Lanka. The island is positioned northeast of Rameswaram (India) and southwest of Jaffna (Sri Lanka), making it an area of strategic and cultural significance for both countries. Katchatheevu spans an area of about 285 acres, with a length of approximately 1.6 kilometers and a width of over 300 meters at its widest point. Despite its relatively small size, the island has a unique history and significance. It is located about 33 kilometers from the Indian coast and 24 kilometers from Delft Island, Sri Lanka. The island lacks fresh water sources, making it unsuitable for permanent habitation. Its remote location and limited resources have kept it largely uninhabited, except for occasional visits by fishermen and pilgrims. The main landmark on Katchatheevu is Anthony’s Church, which dates back to the early 20th century. This church attracts pilgrims from both India and Sri Lanka during annual religious festivals. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 10. Question

Why is Katchatheevu island considered unsuitable for permanent habitation?

• a) It is located too far from the mainland.

• b) It lacks fresh water sources

• c) It has harsh weather conditions throughout the year.

• d) It is frequently flooded during the monsoon season.

Explanation:

• Katchatheevu is a small, uninhabited island situated in the Palk Strait, a narrow stretch of water separating the southeastern coast of India from the northern coast of Sri Lanka.

• The island is positioned northeast of Rameswaram (India) and southwest of Jaffna (Sri Lanka), making it an area of strategic and cultural significance for both countries.

• Katchatheevu spans an area of about 285 acres, with a length of approximately 1.6 kilometers and a width of over 300 meters at its widest point.

• Despite its relatively small size, the island has a unique history and significance. It is located about 33 kilometers from the Indian coast and 24 kilometers from Delft Island, Sri Lanka.

• The island lacks fresh water sources, making it unsuitable for permanent habitation. Its remote location and limited resources have kept it largely uninhabited, except for occasional visits by fishermen and pilgrims.

• The main landmark on Katchatheevu is Anthony’s Church, which dates back to the early 20th century. This church attracts pilgrims from both India and Sri Lanka during annual religious festivals.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• Katchatheevu is a small, uninhabited island situated in the Palk Strait, a narrow stretch of water separating the southeastern coast of India from the northern coast of Sri Lanka.

• The island is positioned northeast of Rameswaram (India) and southwest of Jaffna (Sri Lanka), making it an area of strategic and cultural significance for both countries.

• Katchatheevu spans an area of about 285 acres, with a length of approximately 1.6 kilometers and a width of over 300 meters at its widest point.

• Despite its relatively small size, the island has a unique history and significance. It is located about 33 kilometers from the Indian coast and 24 kilometers from Delft Island, Sri Lanka.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points It was founded by Margaret Cousins. Its first conference was held at Ferguson College, Pune. Its founding members included Maharani Chimnabai Gaekwad, Rani Sahiba of Sangli, Sarojini Naidu and Kamla Devi Chattopadhyaya. Its objectives were to work for a society based on principles of social justice, integrity, equal rights and opportunities. Which one of the following organizations is described in the passage given above? (a) The Ladies Social Conference (b) The Arya Mahila Samaj (c) The All India Women’s Conference (d) The Bharat Stree Mahamandal Correct Answer: C Explanation: Option (c) is correct: The All India Women’s Conference (AIWC), founded by Margaret Cousins in 1927, was perhaps the first women’s organisation with an egalitarian approach. Its first conference was held at Ferguson College, Pune. Important founding members included Maharani Chimnabai Gaekwad, Rani Sahiba of Sangli, Sarojini Naidu, Kamla Devi Chattopadhyaya and Lady Dorab Tata. Its objectives were to work for a society based on principles of social justice, integrity, equal rights and opportunities; and to secure for every human being, the essentials of life, not determined by accident of birth or sex but by planned social distribution. For this purpose, the AIWC worked towards various legislative reforms before and after India’s independence, some examples being Sarda Act (1929), Hindu Women’s Right to Property Act (1937), Factory Act (1947), Hindu Marriage and Divorce Act (1954). Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Option (c) is correct: The All India Women’s Conference (AIWC), founded by Margaret Cousins in 1927, was perhaps the first women’s organisation with an egalitarian approach. Its first conference was held at Ferguson College, Pune. Important founding members included Maharani Chimnabai Gaekwad, Rani Sahiba of Sangli, Sarojini Naidu, Kamla Devi Chattopadhyaya and Lady Dorab Tata. Its objectives were to work for a society based on principles of social justice, integrity, equal rights and opportunities; and to secure for every human being, the essentials of life, not determined by accident of birth or sex but by planned social distribution. For this purpose, the AIWC worked towards various legislative reforms before and after India’s independence, some examples being Sarda Act (1929), Hindu Women’s Right to Property Act (1937), Factory Act (1947), Hindu Marriage and Divorce Act (1954).

#### 11. Question

It was founded by Margaret Cousins. Its first conference was held at Ferguson College, Pune. Its founding members included Maharani Chimnabai Gaekwad, Rani Sahiba of Sangli, Sarojini Naidu and Kamla Devi Chattopadhyaya. Its objectives were to work for a society based on principles of social justice, integrity, equal rights and opportunities.

Which one of the following organizations is described in the passage given above?

• (a) The Ladies Social Conference

• (b) The Arya Mahila Samaj

• (c) The All India Women’s Conference

• (d) The Bharat Stree Mahamandal

Answer: C

Explanation:

Option (c) is correct: The All India Women’s Conference (AIWC), founded by Margaret Cousins in 1927, was perhaps the first women’s organisation with an egalitarian approach.

Its first conference was held at Ferguson College, Pune. Important founding members included Maharani Chimnabai Gaekwad, Rani Sahiba of Sangli, Sarojini Naidu, Kamla Devi Chattopadhyaya and Lady Dorab Tata.

Its objectives were to work for a society based on principles of social justice, integrity, equal rights and opportunities; and to secure for every human being, the essentials of life, not determined by accident of birth or sex but by planned social distribution.

For this purpose, the AIWC worked towards various legislative reforms before and after India’s independence, some examples being Sarda Act (1929), Hindu Women’s Right to Property Act (1937), Factory Act (1947), Hindu Marriage and Divorce Act (1954).

Answer: C

Explanation:

Option (c) is correct: The All India Women’s Conference (AIWC), founded by Margaret Cousins in 1927, was perhaps the first women’s organisation with an egalitarian approach.

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The gravitation force is same at different latitudes on the surface of Earth. The shadow zone of P-wave is much larger than that of the S-waves. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: D The gravitation force (g) is not the same at different latitudes on the surface. It is greater near the poles and less at the equator. This is because of the distance from the centre at the equator being greater than that at the poles. The gravity values also differ according to the mass of material. Earthquake waves get recorded in seismographs located at far off locations. However, there exist some specific areas where the waves are not reported. Such a zone is called the ‘shadow zone’. The study of different events reveals that for each earthquake, there exists an altogether different shadow zone. It was observed that seismographs located at any distance within 105° from the epicentre, recorded the arrival of both P and S-waves. However, the seismographs located beyond 145° from epicentre, record the arrival of P-waves, but not that of S-waves. Thus, a zone between 105° and 145° from epicentre was identified as the shadow zone for both the types of waves. The entire zone beyond 105° does not receive S-waves. The shadow zone of S-wave is much larger than that of the P-waves. The shadow zone of P-waves appears as a band around the earth between 105° and 145° away from the epicentre. The shadow zone of S-waves is not only larger in extent but it is also a little over 40 per cent of the earth surface. Incorrect Solution: D The gravitation force (g) is not the same at different latitudes on the surface. It is greater near the poles and less at the equator. This is because of the distance from the centre at the equator being greater than that at the poles. The gravity values also differ according to the mass of material. Earthquake waves get recorded in seismographs located at far off locations. However, there exist some specific areas where the waves are not reported. Such a zone is called the ‘shadow zone’. The study of different events reveals that for each earthquake, there exists an altogether different shadow zone. It was observed that seismographs located at any distance within 105° from the epicentre, recorded the arrival of both P and S-waves. However, the seismographs located beyond 145° from epicentre, record the arrival of P-waves, but not that of S-waves. Thus, a zone between 105° and 145° from epicentre was identified as the shadow zone for both the types of waves. The entire zone beyond 105° does not receive S-waves. The shadow zone of S-wave is much larger than that of the P-waves. The shadow zone of P-waves appears as a band around the earth between 105° and 145° away from the epicentre. The shadow zone of S-waves is not only larger in extent but it is also a little over 40 per cent of the earth surface.

#### 12. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The gravitation force is same at different latitudes on the surface of Earth.

• The shadow zone of P-wave is much larger than that of the S-waves.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: D

The gravitation force (g) is not the same at different latitudes on the surface. It is greater near the poles and less at the equator. This is because of the distance from the centre at the equator being greater than that at the poles. The gravity values also differ according to the mass of material.

Earthquake waves get recorded in seismographs located at far off locations. However, there exist some specific areas where the waves are not reported. Such a zone is called the ‘shadow zone’. The study of different events reveals that for each earthquake, there exists an altogether different shadow zone. It was observed that seismographs located at any distance within 105° from the epicentre, recorded the arrival of both P and S-waves. However, the seismographs located beyond 145° from epicentre, record the arrival of P-waves, but not that of S-waves. Thus, a zone between 105° and 145° from epicentre was identified as the shadow zone for both the types of waves. The entire zone beyond 105° does not receive S-waves. The shadow zone of S-wave is much larger than that of the P-waves. The shadow zone of P-waves appears as a band around the earth between 105° and 145° away from the epicentre. The shadow zone of S-waves is not only larger in extent but it is also a little over 40 per cent of the earth surface.

Solution: D

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points In ancient India, the term Vanijgramo referred to- (a) Customary head of the Royal Priests (b) Head of the corporation of merchants (c) Earliest land grants given to the Brahmanas (d) Agricultural labourers other than shudras Correct Answer: B Explanation: Option (b) is correct: The Buddhist texts mention the sresthi, who was the chief merchant of the nigama, and the sarthavaha, the caravan leader who was the head of the corporation of merchants (vanijgramo). It also speaks of nearly half a dozen petty merchants called vanija. They dealt in fruits, roots, cooked food, sugar, bark cloth, sheaves of corn or grass, and bamboo. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Option (b) is correct: The Buddhist texts mention the sresthi, who was the chief merchant of the nigama, and the sarthavaha, the caravan leader who was the head of the corporation of merchants (vanijgramo). It also speaks of nearly half a dozen petty merchants called vanija. They dealt in fruits, roots, cooked food, sugar, bark cloth, sheaves of corn or grass, and bamboo.

#### 13. Question

In ancient India, the term Vanijgramo referred to-

• (a) Customary head of the Royal Priests

• (b) Head of the corporation of merchants

• (c) Earliest land grants given to the Brahmanas

• (d) Agricultural labourers other than shudras

Answer: B

Explanation:

Option (b) is correct: The Buddhist texts mention the sresthi, who was the chief merchant of the nigama, and the sarthavaha, the caravan leader who was the head of the corporation of merchants (vanijgramo).

It also speaks of nearly half a dozen petty merchants called vanija. They dealt in fruits, roots, cooked food, sugar, bark cloth, sheaves of corn or grass, and bamboo.

Answer: B

Explanation:

It also speaks of nearly half a dozen petty merchants called vanija. They dealt in fruits, roots, cooked food, sugar, bark cloth, sheaves of corn or grass, and bamboo.

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points With reference to the Red Sea, consider the following statements: It is connected to the Arabian Sea and the Indian Ocean to the south through the Gulf of Aden. It is bordered by Sudan, Eritrea, and Djibouti to the west and Egypt to the north. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: C Explanation: The Red Sea is a semi-enclosed, inlet (or extension) of the Indian Ocean between the continents of Africa from Asia. Statement 1 is correct: It is connected to the Arabian Sea and the Indian Ocean to the south through the Gulf of Aden and the narrow strait of Bab el Mandeb. The northern portion of the Red Sea is bifurcated by the Sinai Peninsula into the Gulf of Aqaba and the Gulf of Suez, where it is connected to the Mediterranean Sea via the famous Suez Canal. A total of 6 countries of Asia and Africa, border the Red Sea. The countries of Yemen and Saudi Arabia border the Red Sea to the east. Statement 2 is correct: The Red Sea is bordered by Egypt to the north and west, and by Sudan, Eritrea, and Djibouti to the west. The Gulf of Aqaba is bordered by Egypt along with Israel, Jordan, and Saudi Arabia. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: The Red Sea is a semi-enclosed, inlet (or extension) of the Indian Ocean between the continents of Africa from Asia. Statement 1 is correct: It is connected to the Arabian Sea and the Indian Ocean to the south through the Gulf of Aden and the narrow strait of Bab el Mandeb. The northern portion of the Red Sea is bifurcated by the Sinai Peninsula into the Gulf of Aqaba and the Gulf of Suez, where it is connected to the Mediterranean Sea via the famous Suez Canal. A total of 6 countries of Asia and Africa, border the Red Sea. The countries of Yemen and Saudi Arabia border the Red Sea to the east. Statement 2 is correct: The Red Sea is bordered by Egypt to the north and west, and by Sudan, Eritrea, and Djibouti to the west. The Gulf of Aqaba is bordered by Egypt along with Israel, Jordan, and Saudi Arabia.

#### 14. Question

With reference to the Red Sea, consider the following statements:

• It is connected to the Arabian Sea and the Indian Ocean to the south through the Gulf of Aden.

• It is bordered by Sudan, Eritrea, and Djibouti to the west and Egypt to the north.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation:

The Red Sea is a semi-enclosed, inlet (or extension) of the Indian Ocean between the continents of Africa from Asia.

Statement 1 is correct: It is connected to the Arabian Sea and the Indian Ocean to the south through the Gulf of Aden and the narrow strait of Bab el Mandeb.

The northern portion of the Red Sea is bifurcated by the Sinai Peninsula into the Gulf of Aqaba and the Gulf of Suez, where it is connected to the Mediterranean Sea via the famous Suez Canal.

A total of 6 countries of Asia and Africa, border the Red Sea. The countries of Yemen and Saudi Arabia border the Red Sea to the east.

Statement 2 is correct: The Red Sea is bordered by Egypt to the north and west, and by Sudan, Eritrea, and Djibouti to the west. The Gulf of Aqaba is bordered by Egypt along with Israel, Jordan, and Saudi Arabia.

Answer: C

Explanation:

The Red Sea is a semi-enclosed, inlet (or extension) of the Indian Ocean between the continents of Africa from Asia.

Statement 1 is correct: It is connected to the Arabian Sea and the Indian Ocean to the south through the Gulf of Aden and the narrow strait of Bab el Mandeb.

The northern portion of the Red Sea is bifurcated by the Sinai Peninsula into the Gulf of Aqaba and the Gulf of Suez, where it is connected to the Mediterranean Sea via the famous Suez Canal.

A total of 6 countries of Asia and Africa, border the Red Sea. The countries of Yemen and Saudi Arabia border the Red Sea to the east.

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan formed a clan of non-violent revolutionaries, the Khudai Khidmatgars known as Red Shirts who played an active role during the- (a) Swadeshi Movement (b) Non-Cooperation Movement (c) Civil Disobedience Movement (d) Quit India Movement Correct Answer: C Explanation: Option (c) is correct: In Peshawar, Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan’s educational and social reform work among the Pathans had politicised them. Gaffar Khan, also called Badshah Khan and Frontier Gandhi, had started the first Pushto political monthly Pukhtoon and had organised a volunteer brigade ‘Khudai Khidmatgars’, popularly known as the ‘Red-Shirts’, who were pledged to the freedom struggle and non-violence. Khudai Khidmatgars participated in the Civil Disobedience Movement Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Option (c) is correct: In Peshawar, Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan’s educational and social reform work among the Pathans had politicised them. Gaffar Khan, also called Badshah Khan and Frontier Gandhi, had started the first Pushto political monthly Pukhtoon and had organised a volunteer brigade ‘Khudai Khidmatgars’, popularly known as the ‘Red-Shirts’, who were pledged to the freedom struggle and non-violence. Khudai Khidmatgars participated in the Civil Disobedience Movement

#### 15. Question

Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan formed a clan of non-violent revolutionaries, the Khudai Khidmatgars known as Red Shirts who played an active role during the-

• (a) Swadeshi Movement

• (b) Non-Cooperation Movement

• (c) Civil Disobedience Movement

• (d) Quit India Movement

Answer: C

Explanation:

Option (c) is correct: In Peshawar, Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan’s educational and social reform work among the Pathans had politicised them.

Gaffar Khan, also called Badshah Khan and Frontier Gandhi, had started the first Pushto political monthly Pukhtoon and had organised a volunteer brigade ‘Khudai Khidmatgars’, popularly known as the ‘Red-Shirts’, who were pledged to the freedom struggle and non-violence.

Khudai Khidmatgars participated in the Civil Disobedience Movement

Answer: C

Explanation:

Option (c) is correct: In Peshawar, Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan’s educational and social reform work among the Pathans had politicised them.

Khudai Khidmatgars participated in the Civil Disobedience Movement

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Corals. The corals share a symbiotic relationship with single-celled algae called zooxanthellae. The coral reefs support maximum marine biodiversity as they cover the maximum space of the seafloor. The Hard corals extract calcium carbonate from seawater to build hard, white coral exoskeletons. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Corals are marine invertebrates or animals which do not possess a spin Statement 1 is correct: Corals share a symbiotic relationship with single-celled algae called zooxanthellae. The algae prepares food for corals through photosynthesis and also gives them their vibrant colouration Statement 2 is not correct: Coral reefs support over 25% of marine biodiversity even as they take up only 1% of the seafloor. Statement 3 is correct: Corals are of two types — hard corals and soft corals. Hard corals extract calcium carbonate from seawater to build hard, white coral exoskeletons. Hard corals are in a way the engineers of reef ecosystems and measuring the extent of hard coral is a widely-accepted metric for measuring the condition of coral reefs. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Corals are marine invertebrates or animals which do not possess a spin Statement 1 is correct: Corals share a symbiotic relationship with single-celled algae called zooxanthellae. The algae prepares food for corals through photosynthesis and also gives them their vibrant colouration Statement 2 is not correct: Coral reefs support over 25% of marine biodiversity even as they take up only 1% of the seafloor. Statement 3 is correct: Corals are of two types — hard corals and soft corals. Hard corals extract calcium carbonate from seawater to build hard, white coral exoskeletons. Hard corals are in a way the engineers of reef ecosystems and measuring the extent of hard coral is a widely-accepted metric for measuring the condition of coral reefs.

#### 16. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Corals.

• The corals share a symbiotic relationship with single-celled algae called zooxanthellae.

• The coral reefs support maximum marine biodiversity as they cover the maximum space of the seafloor.

• The Hard corals extract calcium carbonate from seawater to build hard, white coral exoskeletons.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

Corals are marine invertebrates or animals which do not possess a spin

Statement 1 is correct: Corals share a symbiotic relationship with single-celled algae called zooxanthellae. The algae prepares food for corals through photosynthesis and also gives them their vibrant colouration

Statement 2 is not correct: Coral reefs support over 25% of marine biodiversity even as they take up only 1% of the seafloor.

Statement 3 is correct: Corals are of two types — hard corals and soft corals. Hard corals extract calcium carbonate from seawater to build hard, white coral exoskeletons.

Hard corals are in a way the engineers of reef ecosystems and measuring the extent of hard coral is a widely-accepted metric for measuring the condition of coral reefs.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Corals are marine invertebrates or animals which do not possess a spin

Statement 2 is not correct: Coral reefs support over 25% of marine biodiversity even as they take up only 1% of the seafloor.

Statement 3 is correct: Corals are of two types — hard corals and soft corals. Hard corals extract calcium carbonate from seawater to build hard, white coral exoskeletons.

Hard corals are in a way the engineers of reef ecosystems and measuring the extent of hard coral is a widely-accepted metric for measuring the condition of coral reefs.

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Bureau of Indian Standards serves as the National Standard Body of India having its certification independent of the International Organisation of Standards. The Quality Control Orders are implemented by the Bureau of Indian Standards through a Grant of License or a Certificate of Conformity. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) which serves as the National Standard Body of India, is harmonized to a great extent with the relevant International Standards as laid down by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO)/International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC). It is involved in standardization, marking and quality certification of goods and conformity assessment with the underlying objective of providing safe, reliable, and quality goods. Statement 2 is correct: The Quality Control Orders/QCOs are implemented by BIS through Grant of License and/or Certificate of Conformity. With the notification of QCO, manufacturing, storing and sale of non-BIS certified products are prohibited. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) which serves as the National Standard Body of India, is harmonized to a great extent with the relevant International Standards as laid down by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO)/International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC). It is involved in standardization, marking and quality certification of goods and conformity assessment with the underlying objective of providing safe, reliable, and quality goods. Statement 2 is correct: The Quality Control Orders/QCOs are implemented by BIS through Grant of License and/or Certificate of Conformity. With the notification of QCO, manufacturing, storing and sale of non-BIS certified products are prohibited.

#### 17. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Bureau of Indian Standards serves as the National Standard Body of India having its certification independent of the International Organisation of Standards.

• The Quality Control Orders are implemented by the Bureau of Indian Standards through a Grant of License or a Certificate of Conformity.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) which serves as the National Standard Body of India, is harmonized to a great extent with the relevant International Standards as laid down by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO)/International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC).

It is involved in standardization, marking and quality certification of goods and conformity assessment with the underlying objective of providing safe, reliable, and quality goods.

Statement 2 is correct: The Quality Control Orders/QCOs are implemented by BIS through Grant of License and/or Certificate of Conformity. With the notification of QCO, manufacturing, storing and sale of non-BIS certified products are prohibited.

Answer: B

Explanation:

It is involved in standardization, marking and quality certification of goods and conformity assessment with the underlying objective of providing safe, reliable, and quality goods.

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Sahel Region of Africa stretches from the Atlantic coast of Mauritania to the Red Sea coast of Eritrea. The Sahel acts like a transition zone between the Sahara Desert to the north and the savannahs to the south. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Sahel region is a large swathe of territory in the northern part of Africa that stretches from the Atlantic coast of the continent to the Red Sea coast. Indeed, the region represents a physical and cultural border between the Sahara Desert to its north and the more fertile savannah region to its south. Statement 2 is correct: Since the region is very long and wide, it also acts as a buffer or a zone of transition between the Sahara and the southern savannahs. The Sahel is generally rocky, semi-arid, and barren, though the geographic conditions can vary. The region passes through several countries. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Sahel region is a large swathe of territory in the northern part of Africa that stretches from the Atlantic coast of the continent to the Red Sea coast. Indeed, the region represents a physical and cultural border between the Sahara Desert to its north and the more fertile savannah region to its south. Statement 2 is correct: Since the region is very long and wide, it also acts as a buffer or a zone of transition between the Sahara and the southern savannahs. The Sahel is generally rocky, semi-arid, and barren, though the geographic conditions can vary. The region passes through several countries.

#### 18. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Sahel Region of Africa stretches from the Atlantic coast of Mauritania to the Red Sea coast of Eritrea.

• The Sahel acts like a transition zone between the Sahara Desert to the north and the savannahs to the south.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Sahel region is a large swathe of territory in the northern part of Africa that stretches from the Atlantic coast of the continent to the Red Sea coast.

Indeed, the region represents a physical and cultural border between the Sahara Desert to its north and the more fertile savannah region to its south.

Statement 2 is correct: Since the region is very long and wide, it also acts as a buffer or a zone of transition between the Sahara and the southern savannahs.

The Sahel is generally rocky, semi-arid, and barren, though the geographic conditions can vary. The region passes through several countries.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Sahel region is a large swathe of territory in the northern part of Africa that stretches from the Atlantic coast of the continent to the Red Sea coast.

Indeed, the region represents a physical and cultural border between the Sahara Desert to its north and the more fertile savannah region to its south.

Statement 2 is correct: Since the region is very long and wide, it also acts as a buffer or a zone of transition between the Sahara and the southern savannahs.

The Sahel is generally rocky, semi-arid, and barren, though the geographic conditions can vary. The region passes through several countries.

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points The Rohini Commission sometimes talked about in the news was constituted to- (a) To set up a Welfare Board for De-notified, Nomadic and Semi-Nomadic Tribes. (b) Examine conflicts between the Meitei Group of Manipur and other tribal groups. (c) Safeguard the Rights of states included in the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution. (d) Examine the sub-categorisation of Other Backward Classes (OBCs). Correct Answer: D Explanation: Option (d) is correct: The Rohini Commission was constituted to examine the sub-categorisation of Other Backward Classes (OBCs). Justice G Rohini, a retired chief justice of the Delhi High Court is its chairperson. The Commission had been entrusted with the task to study the various entries in the Central List of OBCs. It was tasked with recommending correction of any repetitions, ambiguities, inconsistencies and errors of spelling or transcription, examining the extent of inequitable distribution of benefits of reservation among the OBCs, and working out the mechanism, criteria, norms and parameters in a scientific approach, for sub-categorization within such OBCs. Incorrect Answer: D Explanation: Option (d) is correct: The Rohini Commission was constituted to examine the sub-categorisation of Other Backward Classes (OBCs). Justice G Rohini, a retired chief justice of the Delhi High Court is its chairperson. The Commission had been entrusted with the task to study the various entries in the Central List of OBCs. It was tasked with recommending correction of any repetitions, ambiguities, inconsistencies and errors of spelling or transcription, examining the extent of inequitable distribution of benefits of reservation among the OBCs, and working out the mechanism, criteria, norms and parameters in a scientific approach, for sub-categorization within such OBCs.

#### 19. Question

The Rohini Commission sometimes talked about in the news was constituted to-

• (a) To set up a Welfare Board for De-notified, Nomadic and Semi-Nomadic Tribes.

• (b) Examine conflicts between the Meitei Group of Manipur and other tribal groups.

• (c) Safeguard the Rights of states included in the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution.

• (d) Examine the sub-categorisation of Other Backward Classes (OBCs).

Answer: D

Explanation:

Option (d) is correct: The Rohini Commission was constituted to examine the sub-categorisation of Other Backward Classes (OBCs).

Justice G Rohini, a retired chief justice of the Delhi High Court is its chairperson. The Commission had been entrusted with the task to study the various entries in the Central List of OBCs.

It was tasked with recommending correction of any repetitions, ambiguities, inconsistencies and errors of spelling or transcription, examining the extent of inequitable distribution of benefits of reservation among the OBCs, and working out the mechanism, criteria, norms and parameters in a scientific approach, for sub-categorization within such OBCs.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Option (d) is correct: The Rohini Commission was constituted to examine the sub-categorisation of Other Backward Classes (OBCs).

Justice G Rohini, a retired chief justice of the Delhi High Court is its chairperson. The Commission had been entrusted with the task to study the various entries in the Central List of OBCs.

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points With reference to the Similiipal Tiger Reserve, consider the following statements: It is located on the Chotanagpur Plateau. It is home to Northern Tropical Moist Deciduous Forests. It includes the Bandhavgarh National Park and Panpatha Wildlife Sanctuary. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Similiipal Tiger Reserve is located on the Chhotanagpur Plateau, in the centre of the former Mayurbhanj State. It is named after the wonderful and fascinating Simul (Silk Cotton Tree). Statement 2 is correct: The Government of India established the Similipal Biosphere Reserve in 1994. The reserve is home to Northern Tropical Semi evergreen Forests and Northern Tropical Moist Deciduous Forests. Statement 3 is not correct: Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve of Madhya Pradesh includes the Bandhavgarh National Park and Panpatha Wildlife Sanctuary. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Similiipal Tiger Reserve is located on the Chhotanagpur Plateau, in the centre of the former Mayurbhanj State. It is named after the wonderful and fascinating Simul (Silk Cotton Tree). Statement 2 is correct: The Government of India established the Similipal Biosphere Reserve in 1994. The reserve is home to Northern Tropical Semi evergreen Forests and Northern Tropical Moist Deciduous Forests. Statement 3 is not correct: Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve of Madhya Pradesh includes the Bandhavgarh National Park and Panpatha Wildlife Sanctuary.

#### 20. Question

With reference to the Similiipal Tiger Reserve, consider the following statements:

• It is located on the Chotanagpur Plateau.

• It is home to Northern Tropical Moist Deciduous Forests.

• It includes the Bandhavgarh National Park and Panpatha Wildlife Sanctuary.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Similiipal Tiger Reserve is located on the Chhotanagpur Plateau, in the centre of the former Mayurbhanj State. It is named after the wonderful and fascinating Simul (Silk Cotton Tree).

Statement 2 is correct: The Government of India established the Similipal Biosphere Reserve in 1994. The reserve is home to Northern Tropical Semi evergreen Forests and Northern Tropical Moist Deciduous Forests.

Statement 3 is not correct: Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve of Madhya Pradesh includes the Bandhavgarh National Park and Panpatha Wildlife Sanctuary.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 3 is not correct: Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve of Madhya Pradesh includes the Bandhavgarh National Park and Panpatha Wildlife Sanctuary.

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. The International Organization of Securities Commission (IOSCO) is an international body for securities regulators, of which no Indian body is a member as of date. An Alternative investment fund (AIF) in India can be a privately pooled investment vehicle which collects funds from both Indian or foreign investors. Venture Capital Fund is a type of AIF which invests in Startups or Small and Medium Entreprises (SMEs). How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None of the above Correct Solution: b) Justification: IOSCO (International Organization of Securities Commission): It is an international body for securities regulators ( e.g. SEBI in India) and set standards for them. Currently from India, SEBI is an ordinary member, the International Financial Services centre authority (IFSCA) is an associate member and NSE, BSE, and Multi-commodity exchange of India are affiliate members. AIFs (Alternative investment fund): It is a privately pooled investment vehicle which collects funds from sophisticated investors, whether Indian or foreign for investment purposes. It must be incorporated or established in India. VCFs (Venture Capital Fund): It is a type of AIF but here major investment is in Startups or SMEs (which have greater growth potential, but more risks) Securities are fungible (interchangeable) and tradable financial instruments used to raise capital in public and private markets. Types: Equity—which provides ownership rights to holders Debt—essentially loans repaid with periodic payments Hybrids—combine aspects of debt and equity. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/08/20/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-20-august-2022/ Incorrect Solution: b) Justification: IOSCO (International Organization of Securities Commission): It is an international body for securities regulators ( e.g. SEBI in India) and set standards for them. Currently from India, SEBI is an ordinary member, the International Financial Services centre authority (IFSCA) is an associate member and NSE, BSE, and Multi-commodity exchange of India are affiliate members. AIFs (Alternative investment fund): It is a privately pooled investment vehicle which collects funds from sophisticated investors, whether Indian or foreign for investment purposes. It must be incorporated or established in India. VCFs (Venture Capital Fund): It is a type of AIF but here major investment is in Startups or SMEs (which have greater growth potential, but more risks) Securities are fungible (interchangeable) and tradable financial instruments used to raise capital in public and private markets. Types: Equity—which provides ownership rights to holders Debt—essentially loans repaid with periodic payments Hybrids—combine aspects of debt and equity. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/08/20/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-20-august-2022/

#### 21. Question

Consider the following statements.

• The International Organization of Securities Commission (IOSCO) is an international body for securities regulators, of which no Indian body is a member as of date.

• An Alternative investment fund (AIF) in India can be a privately pooled investment vehicle which collects funds from both Indian or foreign investors.

• Venture Capital Fund is a type of AIF which invests in Startups or Small and Medium Entreprises (SMEs).

How many of the above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

• d) None of the above

Solution: b)

Justification: IOSCO (International Organization of Securities Commission): It is an international body for securities regulators ( e.g. SEBI in India) and set standards for them. Currently from India, SEBI is an ordinary member, the International Financial Services centre authority (IFSCA) is an associate member and NSE, BSE, and Multi-commodity exchange of India are affiliate members.

AIFs (Alternative investment fund): It is a privately pooled investment vehicle which collects funds from sophisticated investors, whether Indian or foreign for investment purposes. It must be incorporated or established in India.

VCFs (Venture Capital Fund): It is a type of AIF but here major investment is in Startups or SMEs (which have greater growth potential, but more risks)

Securities are fungible (interchangeable) and tradable financial instruments used to raise capital in public and private markets. Types:

• Equity—which provides ownership rights to holders

• Debt—essentially loans repaid with periodic payments

• Hybrids—combine aspects of debt and equity.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/08/20/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-20-august-2022/

Solution: b)

VCFs (Venture Capital Fund): It is a type of AIF but here major investment is in Startups or SMEs (which have greater growth potential, but more risks)

Securities are fungible (interchangeable) and tradable financial instruments used to raise capital in public and private markets. Types:

• Equity—which provides ownership rights to holders

• Debt—essentially loans repaid with periodic payments

• Hybrids—combine aspects of debt and equity.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/08/20/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-20-august-2022/

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Gold Bonds are issued as Government of India Stock under the Government Securities (GS) Act, 2006. Currently, there is no minimum and maximum investment limit in gold bonds. Charitable institutions in India cannot buy gold bonds. How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None of the above Correct Solution: a) Justification: Sovereign Gold Bonds(SGB) 2022-23 (Series II) will be opened for subscription during the period August 22-26, 2022 with a Settlement date of August 30, 2022. SGB scheme: It was launched in November 2015 with an objective to reduce the demand for physical gold and shift a part of the domestic savings – used for the purchase of gold – into financial savings. Issuance: The Gold Bonds are issued as Government of India Stock under the Government Securities (GS) Act, 2006. These are issued by the RBI (Reserve Bank of India) on behalf of the Government of India. Minimum and Maximum limit: The minimum permissible investment limit will be 1 gram of gold, while the maximum limit will be 4 kg for individuals, 4 kg for Hindu Undivided families and 20 kg for trusts and similar entities per fiscal (April-March) notified by the government from time to time. Stock exchange: Bonds are sold through Commercial banks, Stock Holding Corporation of India Limited (SHCIL), designated post offices and recognised stock exchanges vizNational Stock Exchange of India Limited and Bombay Stock Exchange, either directly or through agents. Eligibility: The bonds are restricted for sale to resident individuals, Hindu Undivided Families (HUFs), trusts, universities and charitable institutions. Term: The gold bonds come with a maturity period of eight years, with an option to exit the investment after the first five years Collateral: Bonds can be used as collateral for loans. The loan-to-value (LTV) ratio is to be set equal to ordinary gold loans mandated by the Reserve Bank from time to time. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/08/20/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-20-august-2022/ Incorrect Solution: a) Justification: Sovereign Gold Bonds(SGB) 2022-23 (Series II) will be opened for subscription during the period August 22-26, 2022 with a Settlement date of August 30, 2022. SGB scheme: It was launched in November 2015 with an objective to reduce the demand for physical gold and shift a part of the domestic savings – used for the purchase of gold – into financial savings. Issuance: The Gold Bonds are issued as Government of India Stock under the Government Securities (GS) Act, 2006. These are issued by the RBI (Reserve Bank of India) on behalf of the Government of India. Minimum and Maximum limit: The minimum permissible investment limit will be 1 gram of gold, while the maximum limit will be 4 kg for individuals, 4 kg for Hindu Undivided families and 20 kg for trusts and similar entities per fiscal (April-March) notified by the government from time to time. Stock exchange: Bonds are sold through Commercial banks, Stock Holding Corporation of India Limited (SHCIL), designated post offices and recognised stock exchanges vizNational Stock Exchange of India Limited and Bombay Stock Exchange, either directly or through agents. Eligibility: The bonds are restricted for sale to resident individuals, Hindu Undivided Families (HUFs), trusts, universities and charitable institutions. Term: The gold bonds come with a maturity period of eight years, with an option to exit the investment after the first five years Collateral: Bonds can be used as collateral for loans. The loan-to-value (LTV) ratio is to be set equal to ordinary gold loans mandated by the Reserve Bank from time to time. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/08/20/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-20-august-2022/

#### 22. Question

Consider the following statements.

• Gold Bonds are issued as Government of India Stock under the Government Securities (GS) Act, 2006.

• Currently, there is no minimum and maximum investment limit in gold bonds.

• Charitable institutions in India cannot buy gold bonds.

How many of the above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

• d) None of the above

Solution: a)

Justification: Sovereign Gold Bonds(SGB) 2022-23 (Series II) will be opened for subscription during the period August 22-26, 2022 with a Settlement date of August 30, 2022.

SGB scheme:

It was launched in November 2015 with an objective to reduce the demand for physical gold and shift a part of the domestic savings – used for the purchase of gold – into financial savings.

Issuance: The Gold Bonds are issued as Government of India Stock under the Government Securities (GS) Act, 2006.

These are issued by the RBI (Reserve Bank of India) on behalf of the Government of India.

Minimum and Maximum limit: The minimum permissible investment limit will be 1 gram of gold, while the maximum limit will be 4 kg for individuals, 4 kg for Hindu Undivided families and 20 kg for trusts and similar entities per fiscal (April-March) notified by the government from time to time.

Stock exchange: Bonds are sold through Commercial banks, Stock Holding Corporation of India Limited (SHCIL), designated post offices and recognised stock exchanges vizNational Stock Exchange of India Limited and Bombay Stock Exchange, either directly or through agents.

Eligibility: The bonds are restricted for sale to resident individuals, Hindu Undivided Families (HUFs), trusts, universities and charitable institutions.

Term: The gold bonds come with a maturity period of eight years, with an option to exit the investment after the first five years

Collateral: Bonds can be used as collateral for loans. The loan-to-value (LTV) ratio is to be set equal to ordinary gold loans mandated by the Reserve Bank from time to time.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/08/20/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-20-august-2022/

Solution: a)

Justification: Sovereign Gold Bonds(SGB) 2022-23 (Series II) will be opened for subscription during the period August 22-26, 2022 with a Settlement date of August 30, 2022.

SGB scheme:

It was launched in November 2015 with an objective to reduce the demand for physical gold and shift a part of the domestic savings – used for the purchase of gold – into financial savings.

Issuance: The Gold Bonds are issued as Government of India Stock under the Government Securities (GS) Act, 2006.

These are issued by the RBI (Reserve Bank of India) on behalf of the Government of India.

Eligibility: The bonds are restricted for sale to resident individuals, Hindu Undivided Families (HUFs), trusts, universities and charitable institutions.

Term: The gold bonds come with a maturity period of eight years, with an option to exit the investment after the first five years

Collateral: Bonds can be used as collateral for loans. The loan-to-value (LTV) ratio is to be set equal to ordinary gold loans mandated by the Reserve Bank from time to time.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/08/20/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-20-august-2022/

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Which of the following countries is called the blockchain capital of the world and uses blockchain infrastructure to verify and process all e-governance services offered to the public? a) Japan b) Estonia c) Finland d) Singapore Correct Solution: b) Justification: Estonia is the blockchain capital of the world and uses blockchain infrastructure to verify and process all e-governance services offered to the public. China launched a program in 2020 called BSN (Blockchain-based Service Network) to deploy blockchain applications in the cloud at a streamlined rate. The Brazilian government recently launched the Brazilian Blockchain Network to bring participating institutions into governance. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/08/19/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-19-august-2022/ Incorrect Solution: b) Justification: Estonia is the blockchain capital of the world and uses blockchain infrastructure to verify and process all e-governance services offered to the public. China launched a program in 2020 called BSN (Blockchain-based Service Network) to deploy blockchain applications in the cloud at a streamlined rate. The Brazilian government recently launched the Brazilian Blockchain Network to bring participating institutions into governance. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/08/19/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-19-august-2022/

#### 23. Question

Which of the following countries is called the blockchain capital of the world and uses blockchain infrastructure to verify and process all e-governance services offered to the public?

• b) Estonia

• c) Finland

• d) Singapore

Solution: b)

Justification: Estonia is the blockchain capital of the world and uses blockchain infrastructure to verify and process all e-governance services offered to the public.

China launched a program in 2020 called BSN (Blockchain-based Service Network) to deploy blockchain applications in the cloud at a streamlined rate.

The Brazilian government recently launched the Brazilian Blockchain Network to bring participating institutions into governance.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/08/19/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-19-august-2022/

Solution: b)

Justification: Estonia is the blockchain capital of the world and uses blockchain infrastructure to verify and process all e-governance services offered to the public.

China launched a program in 2020 called BSN (Blockchain-based Service Network) to deploy blockchain applications in the cloud at a streamlined rate.

The Brazilian government recently launched the Brazilian Blockchain Network to bring participating institutions into governance.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/08/19/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-19-august-2022/

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. The Ganges is the longest river in India and it is the third largest river in the world in terms of total discharge. Ganges covers the states of Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Odisha, Jharkhand and West Bengal. The mouth of River Ganga forms the world’s largest delta. Namami Gange Programme is a centrally-funded programme that has a non-lapsable corpus. How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution: c) Justification: The Ganges is the longest river (2525 Km) and also the largest river in India followed by Godavari (1465 km). Ganga is the third largest river in the world by discharge.2 States covered: Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal. The mouth of River Ganga forms the world’s largest delta, known as Sunderbans, and was declared a World Heritage Site by UNESCO in 1997. The Namami Gange Programme was launched in 2014 with twin objectives of effective abatement of pollution, conservation and rejuvenation of the National River Ganga. (It is under the Ministry of Jal Shakti and supported by the World Bank.) Implementation: National Ganga Council (headed by the PM) is a decision-making body. Implementation is done by the National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG), and its state counterpart organizations i.e., State Program Management Groups (SPMGs). Funding: centrally-funded, non-lapsable corpus. Main Pillars of NGP: Sewerage Treatment Infrastructure, River-Surface Cleaning, Afforestation, Industrial Effluent Monitoring, River-Front Development, Bio-Diversity, Public Awareness, Ganga Gram Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/08/18/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-18-august-2022/ Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: The Ganges is the longest river (2525 Km) and also the largest river in India followed by Godavari (1465 km). Ganga is the third largest river in the world by discharge.2 States covered: Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal. The mouth of River Ganga forms the world’s largest delta, known as Sunderbans, and was declared a World Heritage Site by UNESCO in 1997. The Namami Gange Programme was launched in 2014 with twin objectives of effective abatement of pollution, conservation and rejuvenation of the National River Ganga. (It is under the Ministry of Jal Shakti and supported by the World Bank.) Implementation: National Ganga Council (headed by the PM) is a decision-making body. Implementation is done by the National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG), and its state counterpart organizations i.e., State Program Management Groups (SPMGs). Funding: centrally-funded, non-lapsable corpus. Main Pillars of NGP: Sewerage Treatment Infrastructure, River-Surface Cleaning, Afforestation, Industrial Effluent Monitoring, River-Front Development, Bio-Diversity, Public Awareness, Ganga Gram Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/08/18/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-18-august-2022/

#### 24. Question

Consider the following statements.

• The Ganges is the longest river in India and it is the third largest river in the world in terms of total discharge.

• Ganges covers the states of Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Odisha, Jharkhand and West Bengal.

• The mouth of River Ganga forms the world’s largest delta.

• Namami Gange Programme is a centrally-funded programme that has a non-lapsable corpus.

How many of the above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Solution: c)

Justification: The Ganges is the longest river (2525 Km) and also the largest river in India followed by Godavari (1465 km). Ganga is the third largest river in the world by discharge.2

States covered: Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal.

The mouth of River Ganga forms the world’s largest delta, known as Sunderbans, and was declared a World Heritage Site by UNESCO in 1997.

The Namami Gange Programme was launched in 2014 with twin objectives of effective abatement of pollution, conservation and rejuvenation of the National River Ganga. (It is under the Ministry of Jal Shakti and supported by the World Bank.)

Implementation: National Ganga Council (headed by the PM) is a decision-making body. Implementation is done by the National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG), and its state counterpart organizations i.e., State Program Management Groups (SPMGs).

Funding: centrally-funded, non-lapsable corpus.

Main Pillars of NGP: Sewerage Treatment Infrastructure, River-Surface Cleaning, Afforestation, Industrial Effluent Monitoring, River-Front Development, Bio-Diversity, Public Awareness, Ganga Gram

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/08/18/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-18-august-2022/

Solution: c)

Justification: The Ganges is the longest river (2525 Km) and also the largest river in India followed by Godavari (1465 km). Ganga is the third largest river in the world by discharge.2

States covered: Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal.

The mouth of River Ganga forms the world’s largest delta, known as Sunderbans, and was declared a World Heritage Site by UNESCO in 1997.

Funding: centrally-funded, non-lapsable corpus.

Main Pillars of NGP: Sewerage Treatment Infrastructure, River-Surface Cleaning, Afforestation, Industrial Effluent Monitoring, River-Front Development, Bio-Diversity, Public Awareness, Ganga Gram

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/08/18/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-18-august-2022/

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Equalization Levy in India. It is a form of digital service tax. Non-resident establishments are exempted from this tax. It has no statutory basis. How many of the statements above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None of the above Correct Solution: a) Justification: Equalization Levy is a direct tax (of 6%), introduced in India in 2016 to tax foreign firms (such as Google, and Facebook) with now permanent establishments in India but profits from it. It was reaffirmed in Finance Act 2020 and expanded to include non-resident e-commerce operators (such as Amazon), by a new levy of 2% (digital service tax) Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/08/19/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-19-august-2022/ Incorrect Solution: a) Justification: Equalization Levy is a direct tax (of 6%), introduced in India in 2016 to tax foreign firms (such as Google, and Facebook) with now permanent establishments in India but profits from it. It was reaffirmed in Finance Act 2020 and expanded to include non-resident e-commerce operators (such as Amazon), by a new levy of 2% (digital service tax) Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/08/19/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-19-august-2022/

#### 25. Question

Consider the following statements about Equalization Levy in India.

• It is a form of digital service tax.

• Non-resident establishments are exempted from this tax.

• It has no statutory basis.

How many of the statements above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

• d) None of the above

Solution: a)

Justification: Equalization Levy is a direct tax (of 6%), introduced in India in 2016 to tax foreign firms (such as Google, and Facebook) with now permanent establishments in India but profits from it.

It was reaffirmed in Finance Act 2020 and expanded to include non-resident e-commerce operators (such as Amazon), by a new levy of 2% (digital service tax)

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/08/19/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-19-august-2022/

Solution: a)

It was reaffirmed in Finance Act 2020 and expanded to include non-resident e-commerce operators (such as Amazon), by a new levy of 2% (digital service tax)

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/08/19/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-19-august-2022/

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points Rabindranath Tagore once said, “Let me not pray to be sheltered from dangers but to be fearless in facing them.” Our life in recent decades has been quite contrary to the thought expressed above. We have not faced many wars nor have we faced great plagues that have taken away lives, like previous generations did. Most of us are living the post-economic liberalisation dream where there is much money at our disposal. The education system and the subsequent changes in our society is always striving to make life simpler, easier and more manageable by breaking things into “easy to digest” bites. The smaller, nuclear family, too, does not expect any major adjustment from our end. Our interpersonal skills, too, are limited, with high dependency on technology, which is making our life lonelier. Our emotional health is not at its peak, and many of us are battling anger issues which we aren’t even aware of. We are also not taught intra-personal skills, and hence we are yet to learn to manage our emotions better. Unfortunately, like the utility theory expounded in Economics, we have fewer reasons to be satisfied with our lives, despite having more reasons to be happier. What does the above passage imply? a) Economic progress is harmful for interpersonal skills and emotional health b) Over time, the avenues for enjoyment have enhanced c) Points out the irony where despite there being more reasons to be happy, people feel dissatisfied d) Over time, the quality of life has deteriorated Correct Solution: C. Statement A is substantiation to describe the main idea of the passage. The main idea of the passage is described in statement c where the irony is pointed out. Statement B and D are not in sync with the views expressed in the passage. Incorrect Solution: C. Statement A is substantiation to describe the main idea of the passage. The main idea of the passage is described in statement c where the irony is pointed out. Statement B and D are not in sync with the views expressed in the passage.

#### 26. Question

Rabindranath Tagore once said, “Let me not pray to be sheltered from dangers but to be fearless in facing them.” Our life in recent decades has been quite contrary to the thought expressed above. We have not faced many wars nor have we faced great plagues that have taken away lives, like previous generations did. Most of us are living the post-economic liberalisation dream where there is much money at our disposal. The education system and the subsequent changes in our society is always striving to make life simpler, easier and more manageable by breaking things into “easy to digest” bites. The smaller, nuclear family, too, does not expect any major adjustment from our end. Our interpersonal skills, too, are limited, with high dependency on technology, which is making our life lonelier. Our emotional health is not at its peak, and many of us are battling anger issues which we aren’t even aware of. We are also not taught intra-personal skills, and hence we are yet to learn to manage our emotions better. Unfortunately, like the utility theory expounded in Economics, we have fewer reasons to be satisfied with our lives, despite having more reasons to be happier.

What does the above passage imply?

• a) Economic progress is harmful for interpersonal skills and emotional health

• b) Over time, the avenues for enjoyment have enhanced

• c) Points out the irony where despite there being more reasons to be happy, people feel dissatisfied

• d) Over time, the quality of life has deteriorated

Solution: C.

Statement A is substantiation to describe the main idea of the passage. The main idea of the passage is described in statement c where the irony is pointed out. Statement B and D are not in sync with the views expressed in the passage.

Solution: C.

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points In light of the above passage, Education system has started spoon feeding us Nuclear families have become complicated Social media has affected our interpersonal skills Which of the following views is/are expressed by the author? a) 1 and 2 only b) 1, 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 2 and 3 only Correct Solution: C. Statement ii is wrong as the passage states that nuclear families have become easier to manage because of lower expectations. Statement I and III are correct. In statement iii, social media is also a part of technology. Incorrect Solution: C. Statement ii is wrong as the passage states that nuclear families have become easier to manage because of lower expectations. Statement I and III are correct. In statement iii, social media is also a part of technology.

#### 27. Question

In light of the above passage,

• Education system has started spoon feeding us

• Nuclear families have become complicated

• Social media has affected our interpersonal skills

Which of the following views is/are expressed by the author?

• a) 1 and 2 only

• b) 1, 2 and 3 only

• c) 1 and 3 only

• d) 2 and 3 only

Solution: C.

Statement ii is wrong as the passage states that nuclear families have become easier to manage because of lower expectations. Statement I and III are correct. In statement iii, social media is also a part of technology.

Solution: C.

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points Three different positions of a dice are shown below. How many dots lie opposite 2 dots? A) 1 B) 3 C) 5 D) 6 Correct Answer: Option C) 5 Explanation: From figures (ii) and (iii), we conclude that 1, 6, 3 and 4 dots lie adjacent to 5 dots. Therefore, 2 dots must lie opposite 5 dots. Conversely, 5 dots must lie opposite 2 dots. Incorrect Answer: Option C) 5 Explanation: From figures (ii) and (iii), we conclude that 1, 6, 3 and 4 dots lie adjacent to 5 dots. Therefore, 2 dots must lie opposite 5 dots. Conversely, 5 dots must lie opposite 2 dots.

#### 28. Question

Three different positions of a dice are shown below. How many dots lie opposite 2 dots?

Answer: Option C) 5

Explanation:

From figures (ii) and (iii), we conclude that 1, 6, 3 and 4 dots lie adjacent to 5 dots. Therefore, 2 dots must lie opposite 5 dots. Conversely, 5 dots must lie opposite 2 dots.

Answer: Option C) 5

Explanation:

From figures (ii) and (iii), we conclude that 1, 6, 3 and 4 dots lie adjacent to 5 dots. Therefore, 2 dots must lie opposite 5 dots. Conversely, 5 dots must lie opposite 2 dots.

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points A dice is numbered from 1 to 6 in different ways. If 1 is adjacent to 2, 3 and 5, then which of the following statements is necessarily true? A) 4 is adjacent to 6 B) 2 is adjacent to 5 C) 1 is adjacent to 6 D) 1 is adjacent to 4 Correct Answer: Option A) 4 is adjacent to 6 Explanation: If 1 is adjacent to 2, 3 and 5, then either 4 or 6 lies opposite to 1. So, the numbers 4 and 6 cannot lie opposite to each other. Hence, 4 necessarily lies adjacent to 6. Incorrect Answer: Option A) 4 is adjacent to 6 Explanation: If 1 is adjacent to 2, 3 and 5, then either 4 or 6 lies opposite to 1. So, the numbers 4 and 6 cannot lie opposite to each other. Hence, 4 necessarily lies adjacent to 6.

#### 29. Question

A dice is numbered from 1 to 6 in different ways.

If 1 is adjacent to 2, 3 and 5, then which of the following statements is necessarily true?

• A) 4 is adjacent to 6

• B) 2 is adjacent to 5

• C) 1 is adjacent to 6

• D) 1 is adjacent to 4

Answer: Option A) 4 is adjacent to 6

Explanation:

If 1 is adjacent to 2, 3 and 5, then either 4 or 6 lies opposite to 1. So, the numbers 4 and 6 cannot lie opposite to each other. Hence, 4 necessarily lies adjacent to 6.

Answer: Option A) 4 is adjacent to 6

Explanation:

If 1 is adjacent to 2, 3 and 5, then either 4 or 6 lies opposite to 1. So, the numbers 4 and 6 cannot lie opposite to each other. Hence, 4 necessarily lies adjacent to 6.

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points If the total number of dots on opposite faces of a cubical block is always 7, find the figure which is correct. a) Fig 1 b) Fig 2 c) Fig 3 d) Fig 4 Correct Answer: Option B) Fig 2 Explanation: Since the total number of dots on opposite faces is always 7, therefore, 1 dot appears opposite 6 dots, 2 dots appear opposite 5 dots and 3 dots appear opposite 4 dots. Incorrect Answer: Option B) Fig 2 Explanation: Since the total number of dots on opposite faces is always 7, therefore, 1 dot appears opposite 6 dots, 2 dots appear opposite 5 dots and 3 dots appear opposite 4 dots.

#### 30. Question

If the total number of dots on opposite faces of a cubical block is always 7, find the figure which is correct.

Answer: Option B) Fig 2

Explanation:

Since the total number of dots on opposite faces is always 7, therefore, 1 dot appears opposite 6 dots, 2 dots appear opposite 5 dots and 3 dots appear opposite 4 dots.

Answer: Option B) Fig 2

Explanation:

Since the total number of dots on opposite faces is always 7, therefore, 1 dot appears opposite 6 dots, 2 dots appear opposite 5 dots and 3 dots appear opposite 4 dots.

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