DAY – 48 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – GEOGRAPHY, Subject-wise Test 34, and June & July 2023 CA

INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024

#### Quiz-summary

0 of 30 questions completed

Questions:

#### Information

Read about Insights IAS INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Prelims – 2024 [ HERE ] :

DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(GS) [HERE] :

DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(CSAT) [HERE] :

Download MITRA booklet (My Insta Tests Revision and Assessment) – It’s for to track your daily progress while following Insta 75 Days plan. [ CLICK HERE ] :

Wish you Good Luck! 🙂

You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.

Quiz is loading...

You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.

You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:

0 of 30 questions answered correctly

Your time:

Time has elapsed

You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)

Average score |

Your score |

#### Categories

• Not categorized 0%

Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result

Table is loading

No data available

| | | |

• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Cosmic background radiation is a critical piece of evidence supporting the Big Bang Theory. Which of the following best explains the significance of cosmic background radiation in understanding the Big Bang Theory? a) It represents the heat left over from the initial explosion, supporting the theory that the universe began from a highly compressed and hot state. b) It is the radiation emitted by early stars, showing the universe was densely populated with stars at the time of its formation. c) It indicates that the universe is still undergoing rapid expansion, consistent with the Big Bang Theory's prediction of continuous expansion. d) It is caused by cosmic events like supernovae, indicating high-energy events in the early stages of the universe. Correct Answer: a Explanation: Cosmic background radiation, also known as cosmic microwave background (CMB), is a key piece of evidence for the Big Bang Theory. It is believed to be the thermal radiation left over from the initial explosion of the Big Bang, representing a “snapshot” of the early universe when it became cool enough for atoms to form and light to travel freely. Option a correctly explains the significance of CMB, indicating it is the residual heat from the Big Bang, suggesting that the universe started from a highly compressed and hot state. Option b is incorrect because CMB isn’t radiation from early stars; it comes from a time before stars and galaxies formed. Option c misinterprets CMB’s indication of continuous expansion. Although the universe is expanding, CMB is evidence of the universe’s early state, not its current expansion. Option d is incorrect because cosmic background radiation is not related to supernovae or other cosmic events but rather to the conditions shortly after the Big Bang. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Cosmic background radiation, also known as cosmic microwave background (CMB), is a key piece of evidence for the Big Bang Theory. It is believed to be the thermal radiation left over from the initial explosion of the Big Bang, representing a “snapshot” of the early universe when it became cool enough for atoms to form and light to travel freely. Option a correctly explains the significance of CMB, indicating it is the residual heat from the Big Bang, suggesting that the universe started from a highly compressed and hot state. Option b is incorrect because CMB isn’t radiation from early stars; it comes from a time before stars and galaxies formed. Option c misinterprets CMB’s indication of continuous expansion. Although the universe is expanding, CMB is evidence of the universe’s early state, not its current expansion. Option d is incorrect because cosmic background radiation is not related to supernovae or other cosmic events but rather to the conditions shortly after the Big Bang. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 1. Question

Cosmic background radiation is a critical piece of evidence supporting the Big Bang Theory. Which of the following best explains the significance of cosmic background radiation in understanding the Big Bang Theory?

• a) It represents the heat left over from the initial explosion, supporting the theory that the universe began from a highly compressed and hot state.

• b) It is the radiation emitted by early stars, showing the universe was densely populated with stars at the time of its formation.

• c) It indicates that the universe is still undergoing rapid expansion, consistent with the Big Bang Theory's prediction of continuous expansion.

• d) It is caused by cosmic events like supernovae, indicating high-energy events in the early stages of the universe.

Explanation:

• Cosmic background radiation, also known as cosmic microwave background (CMB), is a key piece of evidence for the Big Bang Theory. It is believed to be the thermal radiation left over from the initial explosion of the Big Bang, representing a “snapshot” of the early universe when it became cool enough for atoms to form and light to travel freely.

• Option a correctly explains the significance of CMB, indicating it is the residual heat from the Big Bang, suggesting that the universe started from a highly compressed and hot state.

• Option b is incorrect because CMB isn’t radiation from early stars; it comes from a time before stars and galaxies formed.

• Option c misinterprets CMB’s indication of continuous expansion. Although the universe is expanding, CMB is evidence of the universe’s early state, not its current expansion.

• Option d is incorrect because cosmic background radiation is not related to supernovae or other cosmic events but rather to the conditions shortly after the Big Bang.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• Option a correctly explains the significance of CMB, indicating it is the residual heat from the Big Bang, suggesting that the universe started from a highly compressed and hot state.

• Option b is incorrect because CMB isn’t radiation from early stars; it comes from a time before stars and galaxies formed.

• Option c misinterprets CMB’s indication of continuous expansion. Although the universe is expanding, CMB is evidence of the universe’s early state, not its current expansion.

• Option d is incorrect because cosmic background radiation is not related to supernovae or other cosmic events but rather to the conditions shortly after the Big Bang.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Dark matter is a crucial component in the formation of galaxies. What is the role of dark matter in galaxy formation? a) It provides the gravitational pull necessary to hold galaxies together, despite being invisible and undetectable by conventional means. b) It is responsible for the formation of stars within galaxies by acting as a catalyst for gas clouds to coalesce. c) It causes the observable redshift in distant galaxies, indicating the presence of unseen cosmic structures. d) It forms a visible halo around galaxies, allowing astronomers to measure the mass of galaxies through gravitational lensing. Correct Answer: a Explanation: Dark matter is a mysterious form of matter that does not emit, absorb, or reflect light, making it invisible to telescopes and other instruments that detect electromagnetic radiation. Despite its invisibility, dark matter plays a crucial role in galaxy formation and dynamics. Option a is correct because dark matter’s primary role in galaxy formation is to provide the gravitational pull necessary to hold galaxies together. It creates the unseen mass that stabilizes galaxies and clusters, keeping them from dispersing due to their rotational speed. Option b is incorrect because dark matter is not known to act as a catalyst for star formation. Star formation typically involves gas clouds coalescing due to ordinary matter dynamics and gravitational forces. Option c is incorrect because redshift in distant galaxies is primarily a consequence of the expanding universe, rather than directly caused by dark matter. Redshift indicates that distant galaxies are moving away from us due to the expansion of space. Option d is incorrect because, while dark matter is believed to form a halo around galaxies, it is not visible. Its presence is inferred through gravitational lensing and other indirect methods, but it doesn’t form a visible structure that can be directly observed. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Dark matter is a mysterious form of matter that does not emit, absorb, or reflect light, making it invisible to telescopes and other instruments that detect electromagnetic radiation. Despite its invisibility, dark matter plays a crucial role in galaxy formation and dynamics. Option a is correct because dark matter’s primary role in galaxy formation is to provide the gravitational pull necessary to hold galaxies together. It creates the unseen mass that stabilizes galaxies and clusters, keeping them from dispersing due to their rotational speed. Option b is incorrect because dark matter is not known to act as a catalyst for star formation. Star formation typically involves gas clouds coalescing due to ordinary matter dynamics and gravitational forces. Option c is incorrect because redshift in distant galaxies is primarily a consequence of the expanding universe, rather than directly caused by dark matter. Redshift indicates that distant galaxies are moving away from us due to the expansion of space. Option d is incorrect because, while dark matter is believed to form a halo around galaxies, it is not visible. Its presence is inferred through gravitational lensing and other indirect methods, but it doesn’t form a visible structure that can be directly observed. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 2. Question

Dark matter is a crucial component in the formation of galaxies. What is the role of dark matter in galaxy formation?

• a) It provides the gravitational pull necessary to hold galaxies together, despite being invisible and undetectable by conventional means.

• b) It is responsible for the formation of stars within galaxies by acting as a catalyst for gas clouds to coalesce.

• c) It causes the observable redshift in distant galaxies, indicating the presence of unseen cosmic structures.

• d) It forms a visible halo around galaxies, allowing astronomers to measure the mass of galaxies through gravitational lensing.

Explanation:

• Dark matter is a mysterious form of matter that does not emit, absorb, or reflect light, making it invisible to telescopes and other instruments that detect electromagnetic radiation. Despite its invisibility, dark matter plays a crucial role in galaxy formation and dynamics.

• Option a is correct because dark matter’s primary role in galaxy formation is to provide the gravitational pull necessary to hold galaxies together. It creates the unseen mass that stabilizes galaxies and clusters, keeping them from dispersing due to their rotational speed.

• Option b is incorrect because dark matter is not known to act as a catalyst for star formation. Star formation typically involves gas clouds coalescing due to ordinary matter dynamics and gravitational forces.

• Option c is incorrect because redshift in distant galaxies is primarily a consequence of the expanding universe, rather than directly caused by dark matter. Redshift indicates that distant galaxies are moving away from us due to the expansion of space.

• Option d is incorrect because, while dark matter is believed to form a halo around galaxies, it is not visible. Its presence is inferred through gravitational lensing and other indirect methods, but it doesn’t form a visible structure that can be directly observed.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points In the context of the nebular hypothesis, which of the following sequences correctly represents the stages from star formation to planet formation? a) Star forms from a nebula → Stellar wind disperses gas and dust → Planetary disk forms → Planetesimals form and grow through accretion → Planets develop b) Star forms from a nebula → Planetary disk forms around the star → Planetesimals form from dust and gas → Accretion of planetesimals into larger bodies → Stellar wind disperses the remaining gas and dust c) Star forms from a nebula → Planets form from the core of the nebula → Accretion of planetesimals into larger bodies → Stellar wind disperses gas and dust → Planets are fully developed d) Star forms from a nebula → Planetesimals develop into stars → Accretion leads to planetary bodies → Stellar wind disperses gas and dust → Planets are fully developed Correct Answer: b Explanation: The correct sequence that represents the steps from star formation to planet formation in the context of the nebular hypothesis, which is widely accepted in astronomy for explaining the formation of stars and planetary systems: Star forms from a nebula: Stars are born from dense clouds of gas and dust, also known as nebulae. Planetary disk forms around the star: Once a star forms, a disk of gas and dust, known as a protoplanetary disk, typically forms around it. Planetesimals form from dust and gas: Within the protoplanetary disk, small clumps of matter (planetesimals) start to coalesce. Accretion of planetesimals into larger bodies: These planetesimals grow larger by colliding and sticking together, forming planet-sized objects. Stellar wind disperses the remaining gas and dust: As the star becomes more stable, its stellar wind clears out the remaining gas and dust in the protoplanetary disk, leaving behind the newly formed planets. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: The correct sequence that represents the steps from star formation to planet formation in the context of the nebular hypothesis, which is widely accepted in astronomy for explaining the formation of stars and planetary systems: Star forms from a nebula: Stars are born from dense clouds of gas and dust, also known as nebulae. Planetary disk forms around the star: Once a star forms, a disk of gas and dust, known as a protoplanetary disk, typically forms around it. Planetesimals form from dust and gas: Within the protoplanetary disk, small clumps of matter (planetesimals) start to coalesce. Accretion of planetesimals into larger bodies: These planetesimals grow larger by colliding and sticking together, forming planet-sized objects. Stellar wind disperses the remaining gas and dust: As the star becomes more stable, its stellar wind clears out the remaining gas and dust in the protoplanetary disk, leaving behind the newly formed planets. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 3. Question

In the context of the nebular hypothesis, which of the following sequences correctly represents the stages from star formation to planet formation?

• a) Star forms from a nebula → Stellar wind disperses gas and dust → Planetary disk forms → Planetesimals form and grow through accretion → Planets develop

• b) Star forms from a nebula → Planetary disk forms around the star → Planetesimals form from dust and gas → Accretion of planetesimals into larger bodies → Stellar wind disperses the remaining gas and dust

• c) Star forms from a nebula → Planets form from the core of the nebula → Accretion of planetesimals into larger bodies → Stellar wind disperses gas and dust → Planets are fully developed

• d) Star forms from a nebula → Planetesimals develop into stars → Accretion leads to planetary bodies → Stellar wind disperses gas and dust → Planets are fully developed

Explanation:

• The correct sequence that represents the steps from star formation to planet formation in the context of the nebular hypothesis, which is widely accepted in astronomy for explaining the formation of stars and planetary systems:

• Star forms from a nebula: Stars are born from dense clouds of gas and dust, also known as nebulae.

• Planetary disk forms around the star: Once a star forms, a disk of gas and dust, known as a protoplanetary disk, typically forms around it.

• Planetesimals form from dust and gas: Within the protoplanetary disk, small clumps of matter (planetesimals) start to coalesce.

• Accretion of planetesimals into larger bodies: These planetesimals grow larger by colliding and sticking together, forming planet-sized objects.

• Stellar wind disperses the remaining gas and dust: As the star becomes more stable, its stellar wind clears out the remaining gas and dust in the protoplanetary disk, leaving behind the newly formed planets.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• Star forms from a nebula: Stars are born from dense clouds of gas and dust, also known as nebulae.

• Planetary disk forms around the star: Once a star forms, a disk of gas and dust, known as a protoplanetary disk, typically forms around it.

• Planetesimals form from dust and gas: Within the protoplanetary disk, small clumps of matter (planetesimals) start to coalesce.

• Accretion of planetesimals into larger bodies: These planetesimals grow larger by colliding and sticking together, forming planet-sized objects.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the evolution of the Earth’s structure: The Earth’s interior was initially in a volatile state, which caused the separation of materials based on density. The Earth’s crust formed as the outer surface cooled and solidified over time. During this cooling process, gases and water vapour were released from the Earth’s interior, contributing to the formation of the atmosphere and hydrosphere. The formation of the Earth’s layered structure was influenced by the differentiation of materials due to temperature changes and gravitational forces. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: c Explanation: In the early stages of Earth’s formation, the interior was in a volatile state due to high temperatures. The process of differentiation caused the separation of materials based on density, with heavier materials, like iron, sinking towards the centre, while lighter materials moved towards the surface. Hence, statement 1 is correct. As the outer surface of Earth cooled and solidified, it formed a crust. During this cooling process, gases and water vapor were released from the interior, contributing to the formation of the atmosphere and hydrosphere. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The Earth’s layered structure, which comprises the crust, mantle, outer core, and inner core, formed as a result of the differentiation of materials due to changes in temperature and the influence of gravitational forces. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option(c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: In the early stages of Earth’s formation, the interior was in a volatile state due to high temperatures. The process of differentiation caused the separation of materials based on density, with heavier materials, like iron, sinking towards the centre, while lighter materials moved towards the surface. Hence, statement 1 is correct. As the outer surface of Earth cooled and solidified, it formed a crust. During this cooling process, gases and water vapor were released from the interior, contributing to the formation of the atmosphere and hydrosphere. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The Earth’s layered structure, which comprises the crust, mantle, outer core, and inner core, formed as a result of the differentiation of materials due to changes in temperature and the influence of gravitational forces. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option(c) is correct.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements about the evolution of the Earth’s structure:

• The Earth’s interior was initially in a volatile state, which caused the separation of materials based on density.

• The Earth’s crust formed as the outer surface cooled and solidified over time. During this cooling process, gases and water vapour were released from the Earth’s interior, contributing to the formation of the atmosphere and hydrosphere.

• The formation of the Earth’s layered structure was influenced by the differentiation of materials due to temperature changes and gravitational forces.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Explanation:

• In the early stages of Earth’s formation, the interior was in a volatile state due to high temperatures. The process of differentiation caused the separation of materials based on density, with heavier materials, like iron, sinking towards the centre, while lighter materials moved towards the surface. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• As the outer surface of Earth cooled and solidified, it formed a crust. During this cooling process, gases and water vapor were released from the interior, contributing to the formation of the atmosphere and hydrosphere. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• The Earth’s layered structure, which comprises the crust, mantle, outer core, and inner core, formed as a result of the differentiation of materials due to changes in temperature and the influence of gravitational forces. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Hence, option(c) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option(c) is correct.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Which of the following gases is NOT a primary component of Earth’s current atmosphere? a) Nitrogen b) Oxygen c) Hydrogen d) Argon Correct Answer: c Explanation: Nitrogen is the most abundant gas in Earth’s atmosphere, making up approximately 78% of its composition. Oxygen comprises about 21% of Earth’s atmosphere, making it the second most abundant component. Hydrogen is not a significant component of Earth’s current atmosphere. It may have been a part of the early atmosphere, but it is not prevalent in the current one, primarily due to its lightness and ability to escape Earth’s gravitational pull. Argon, although a minor component, it is still one of the primary constituents of the atmosphere, accounting for about 0.9%. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Nitrogen is the most abundant gas in Earth’s atmosphere, making up approximately 78% of its composition. Oxygen comprises about 21% of Earth’s atmosphere, making it the second most abundant component. Hydrogen is not a significant component of Earth’s current atmosphere. It may have been a part of the early atmosphere, but it is not prevalent in the current one, primarily due to its lightness and ability to escape Earth’s gravitational pull. Argon, although a minor component, it is still one of the primary constituents of the atmosphere, accounting for about 0.9%. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 5. Question

Which of the following gases is NOT a primary component of Earth’s current atmosphere?

• a) Nitrogen

• c) Hydrogen

Explanation:

• Nitrogen is the most abundant gas in Earth’s atmosphere, making up approximately 78% of its composition.

• Oxygen comprises about 21% of Earth’s atmosphere, making it the second most abundant component.

• Hydrogen is not a significant component of Earth’s current atmosphere. It may have been a part of the early atmosphere, but it is not prevalent in the current one, primarily due to its lightness and ability to escape Earth’s gravitational pull.

• Argon, although a minor component, it is still one of the primary constituents of the atmosphere, accounting for about 0.9%.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

• Nitrogen is the most abundant gas in Earth’s atmosphere, making up approximately 78% of its composition.

• Oxygen comprises about 21% of Earth’s atmosphere, making it the second most abundant component.

• Argon, although a minor component, it is still one of the primary constituents of the atmosphere, accounting for about 0.9%.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points What is the difference between the epicenter and the focus of an earthquake? a) The epicenter is the point within the Earth where energy is released, and the focus is the point on the surface directly above it. b) The focus is the point within the Earth where energy is released, and the epicenter is the point on the surface directly above it. c) The epicenter is the point of maximum damage, while the focus is where seismic waves are generated. d) The epicenter is the point at which seismic waves converge, and the focus is where they originate. Correct Answer: b Explanation: The focus (also called the hypocenter) is the point within the Earth where the energy of an earthquake is released. This is typically located along a fault or at a specific depth within the Earth’s crust or mantle. The epicenter is the point on the Earth’s surface that is directly above the focus. This point is typically used to determine the location of an earthquake and is often where the most intense shaking is felt due to the proximity to the energy’s origin. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: The focus (also called the hypocenter) is the point within the Earth where the energy of an earthquake is released. This is typically located along a fault or at a specific depth within the Earth’s crust or mantle. The epicenter is the point on the Earth’s surface that is directly above the focus. This point is typically used to determine the location of an earthquake and is often where the most intense shaking is felt due to the proximity to the energy’s origin. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 6. Question

What is the difference between the epicenter and the focus of an earthquake?

• a) The epicenter is the point within the Earth where energy is released, and the focus is the point on the surface directly above it.

• b) The focus is the point within the Earth where energy is released, and the epicenter is the point on the surface directly above it.

• c) The epicenter is the point of maximum damage, while the focus is where seismic waves are generated.

• d) The epicenter is the point at which seismic waves converge, and the focus is where they originate.

Explanation:

• The focus (also called the hypocenter) is the point within the Earth where the energy of an earthquake is released. This is typically located along a fault or at a specific depth within the Earth’s crust or mantle.

• The epicenter is the point on the Earth’s surface that is directly above the focus. This point is typically used to determine the location of an earthquake and is often where the most intense shaking is felt due to the proximity to the energy’s origin.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about blue holes: They are roughly circular with steep walls. They are usually warm and have high biodiversity. They commonly contain anoxic water below a certain depth. The water inside blue holes is clear due to high transparency and white carbonate sand. How many of the above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: c Explanation: Blue holes are often formed by the collapse of underwater caves or sinkholes, creating a circular or oval shape with steep sides. This characteristic shape is one of the defining features of blue holes. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Blue holes do not typically have high biodiversity because their poor water circulation leads to anoxic (low oxygen) conditions below a certain depth. This anoxic environment is not conducive to supporting a wide range of sea life, though some specialized bacteria can thrive in these conditions. Additionally, blue holes aren’t necessarily warm, as their depth can result in cooler temperatures. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Due to the lack of significant water circulation, blue holes often experience stratification, where the deeper water becomes anoxic or has low oxygen levels. This is a common characteristic of blue holes and impacts the types of life forms that can survive within them. Hence, statement 3 is correct. The high transparency of blue holes is due to the clear water and the bright white carbonate sand that often forms the surrounding shallows. This feature contributes to the striking blue colour that makes blue holes visually distinctive. Hence, statement 4 is correct. Hence, option(c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Blue holes are often formed by the collapse of underwater caves or sinkholes, creating a circular or oval shape with steep sides. This characteristic shape is one of the defining features of blue holes. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Blue holes do not typically have high biodiversity because their poor water circulation leads to anoxic (low oxygen) conditions below a certain depth. This anoxic environment is not conducive to supporting a wide range of sea life, though some specialized bacteria can thrive in these conditions. Additionally, blue holes aren’t necessarily warm, as their depth can result in cooler temperatures. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Due to the lack of significant water circulation, blue holes often experience stratification, where the deeper water becomes anoxic or has low oxygen levels. This is a common characteristic of blue holes and impacts the types of life forms that can survive within them. Hence, statement 3 is correct. The high transparency of blue holes is due to the clear water and the bright white carbonate sand that often forms the surrounding shallows. This feature contributes to the striking blue colour that makes blue holes visually distinctive. Hence, statement 4 is correct. Hence, option(c) is correct.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements about blue holes:

• They are roughly circular with steep walls.

• They are usually warm and have high biodiversity.

• They commonly contain anoxic water below a certain depth.

• The water inside blue holes is clear due to high transparency and white carbonate sand.

How many of the above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

• Blue holes are often formed by the collapse of underwater caves or sinkholes, creating a circular or oval shape with steep sides. This characteristic shape is one of the defining features of blue holes. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Blue holes do not typically have high biodiversity because their poor water circulation leads to anoxic (low oxygen) conditions below a certain depth. This anoxic environment is not conducive to supporting a wide range of sea life, though some specialized bacteria can thrive in these conditions. Additionally, blue holes aren’t necessarily warm, as their depth can result in cooler temperatures. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• Due to the lack of significant water circulation, blue holes often experience stratification, where the deeper water becomes anoxic or has low oxygen levels. This is a common characteristic of blue holes and impacts the types of life forms that can survive within them. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• The high transparency of blue holes is due to the clear water and the bright white carbonate sand that often forms the surrounding shallows. This feature contributes to the striking blue colour that makes blue holes visually distinctive. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

• Hence, option(c) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option(c) is correct.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Which event triggered the recent Glacial Lake Outburst Flood GLOF) in Sikkim, leading to a breach in the Chungthang Hydro-Dam? a) An earthquake in the region. b) A cloudburst c) A landslide into the Teesta River. d) An ice avalanche from the South Lhonak glacier. Correct Answer: b Explanation: The event that triggered the recent Glacial Lake Outburst Flood (GLOF) in Sikkim, leading to a breach in the Chungthang Hydro-Dam, was a cloudburst, which caused the outburst of the South Lhonak glacial lake, resulting in flash floods and cascading effects on downstream infrastructure. This led to the sudden rise in the water level of the Teesta River, eventually breaching the Chungthang Hydro-Dam. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: The event that triggered the recent Glacial Lake Outburst Flood (GLOF) in Sikkim, leading to a breach in the Chungthang Hydro-Dam, was a cloudburst, which caused the outburst of the South Lhonak glacial lake, resulting in flash floods and cascading effects on downstream infrastructure. This led to the sudden rise in the water level of the Teesta River, eventually breaching the Chungthang Hydro-Dam. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 8. Question

Which event triggered the recent Glacial Lake Outburst Flood GLOF) in Sikkim, leading to a breach in the Chungthang Hydro-Dam?

• a) An earthquake in the region.

• b) A cloudburst

• c) A landslide into the Teesta River.

• d) An ice avalanche from the South Lhonak glacier.

Explanation:

• The event that triggered the recent Glacial Lake Outburst Flood (GLOF) in Sikkim, leading to a breach in the Chungthang Hydro-Dam, was a cloudburst, which caused the outburst of the South Lhonak glacial lake, resulting in flash floods and cascading effects on downstream infrastructure. This led to the sudden rise in the water level of the Teesta River, eventually breaching the Chungthang Hydro-Dam.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Which of the following statements are true regarding glacial lakes and their formation? Glacial lakes can form in, beneath, beside, or in front of a glacier as a result of glacier activity or retreat. They are typically surrounded by drumlins, moraines, and eskers, which are remnants of glacial movement. The distribution of sediments in glacial lakes is determined by the drainage basin and chemical composition of the water. They form primarily due to tectonic activity near glaciers. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 and 4 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1,2 and 3 d) 1,2,3 and 4 Correct Answer: c Explanation: Glacial lakes can form in a variety of locations around glaciers, depending on the specific glacier activity and retreat process. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Glacial lakes are often found near various glacial landforms such as drumlins, moraines, and eskers, indicating past glacier movement. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The types and distribution of sediments in glacial lakes can depend on factors like the drainage basin and the chemical composition of the water. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Glacial lakes primarily form due to glacier activity or retreat, not because of tectonic activity. While tectonic activity can influence landforms, it is not the primary reason for glacial lake formation. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. Hence, option(c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Glacial lakes can form in a variety of locations around glaciers, depending on the specific glacier activity and retreat process. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Glacial lakes are often found near various glacial landforms such as drumlins, moraines, and eskers, indicating past glacier movement. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The types and distribution of sediments in glacial lakes can depend on factors like the drainage basin and the chemical composition of the water. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Glacial lakes primarily form due to glacier activity or retreat, not because of tectonic activity. While tectonic activity can influence landforms, it is not the primary reason for glacial lake formation. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. Hence, option(c) is correct.

#### 9. Question

Which of the following statements are true regarding glacial lakes and their formation?

• Glacial lakes can form in, beneath, beside, or in front of a glacier as a result of glacier activity or retreat.

• They are typically surrounded by drumlins, moraines, and eskers, which are remnants of glacial movement.

• The distribution of sediments in glacial lakes is determined by the drainage basin and chemical composition of the water.

• They form primarily due to tectonic activity near glaciers.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• a) 1 and 4 only

• b) 2 and 3 only

• c) 1,2 and 3

• d) 1,2,3 and 4

Explanation:

• Glacial lakes can form in a variety of locations around glaciers, depending on the specific glacier activity and retreat process. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Glacial lakes are often found near various glacial landforms such as drumlins, moraines, and eskers, indicating past glacier movement. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• The types and distribution of sediments in glacial lakes can depend on factors like the drainage basin and the chemical composition of the water. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Glacial lakes primarily form due to glacier activity or retreat, not because of tectonic activity. While tectonic activity can influence landforms, it is not the primary reason for glacial lake formation. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

• Hence, option(c) is correct.

Explanation:

• Glacial lakes can form in a variety of locations around glaciers, depending on the specific glacier activity and retreat process. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Glacial lakes are often found near various glacial landforms such as drumlins, moraines, and eskers, indicating past glacier movement. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• The types and distribution of sediments in glacial lakes can depend on factors like the drainage basin and the chemical composition of the water. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Hence, option(c) is correct.

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Consider the following countries: Turkey Iran Iraq Russia Georgia Armenia How many of the above share boundary with Azerbaijan? a) Only three b) Only four c) Only five d) All six Correct Answer: C Explanation: Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following countries:

How many of the above share boundary with Azerbaijan?

• a) Only three

• b) Only four

• c) Only five

• d) All six

Explanation:

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points The Bardoli Resolution in the Indian historical context led to the- (a) Suspension of the Non-Cooperation Movement. (b) Promulgation of the Non-Cooperation Movement (c) Formulation of the National Economic Programme. (d) Declaration of the Poorna Swaraj as an ultimate goal. Correct Answer: A Explanation: Option (a) is correct: In February, 1922 a Congress procession of 3,000 peasants at Chauri Chaura, a village in the Gorakhpur District of U.P., was fired upon by the police. The angry crowd attacked and burnt the police station causing the death of 22 policemen. Gandhiji took a very serious view of this incident. It convinced him that the nationalist workers had not yet properly understood the concept of non-violence without which, he was convinced, civil disobedience could not be a success. He, therefore, decided to suspend the nationalist campaign. The Congress Working Committee met at Bardoli in Gujarat on 12 February and passed a resolution stopping all activities which would lead to breaking of laws. The Bardoli resolution had a mixed reception among the nationalists while some had implicit faith in Gandhiji, others resented this decision to retreat including Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhash Chandra Bose. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Option (a) is correct: In February, 1922 a Congress procession of 3,000 peasants at Chauri Chaura, a village in the Gorakhpur District of U.P., was fired upon by the police. The angry crowd attacked and burnt the police station causing the death of 22 policemen. Gandhiji took a very serious view of this incident. It convinced him that the nationalist workers had not yet properly understood the concept of non-violence without which, he was convinced, civil disobedience could not be a success. He, therefore, decided to suspend the nationalist campaign. The Congress Working Committee met at Bardoli in Gujarat on 12 February and passed a resolution stopping all activities which would lead to breaking of laws. The Bardoli resolution had a mixed reception among the nationalists while some had implicit faith in Gandhiji, others resented this decision to retreat including Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhash Chandra Bose.

#### 11. Question

The Bardoli Resolution in the Indian historical context led to the-

• (a) Suspension of the Non-Cooperation Movement.

• (b) Promulgation of the Non-Cooperation Movement

• (c) Formulation of the National Economic Programme.

• (d) Declaration of the Poorna Swaraj as an ultimate goal.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Option (a) is correct: In February, 1922 a Congress procession of 3,000 peasants at Chauri Chaura, a village in the Gorakhpur District of U.P., was fired upon by the police.

The angry crowd attacked and burnt the police station causing the death of 22 policemen. Gandhiji took a very serious view of this incident.

• It convinced him that the nationalist workers had not yet properly understood the concept of non-violence without which, he was convinced, civil disobedience could not be a success.

• He, therefore, decided to suspend the nationalist campaign. The Congress Working Committee met at Bardoli in Gujarat on 12 February and passed a resolution stopping all activities which would lead to breaking of laws.

• The Bardoli resolution had a mixed reception among the nationalists while some had implicit faith in Gandhiji, others resented this decision to retreat including Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhash Chandra Bose.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Option (a) is correct: In February, 1922 a Congress procession of 3,000 peasants at Chauri Chaura, a village in the Gorakhpur District of U.P., was fired upon by the police.

The angry crowd attacked and burnt the police station causing the death of 22 policemen. Gandhiji took a very serious view of this incident.

• It convinced him that the nationalist workers had not yet properly understood the concept of non-violence without which, he was convinced, civil disobedience could not be a success.

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points “These forests are found in the western slope of the Western Ghats, hills of the northeastern region and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. There is no definite time for trees to shed their leaves, flowering and fruition. Species found in these forests include rosewood, mahogony, aini, ebony, etc.”. The above description refers to: (a) Swamp forests (b) Tropical Deciduous forests (c) Tropical Thorn forests (d) Tropical Evergreen forests Correct Solution: D Tropical Evergreen forests: These forests are found in the western slope of the Western Ghats, hills of the northeastern region and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. They are found in warm and humid areas with an annual precipitation of over 200 cm and mean annual temperature above 22oC. Tropical evergreen forests are well stratified, with layers closer to the ground and are covered with shrubs and creepers, with short structured trees followed by tall variety of trees. In these forests, trees reach great heights up to 60 m or above. There is no definite time for trees to shed their leaves, flowering and fruition. As such these forests appear green all the year round. Species found in these forests include rosewood, mahogony, aini, ebony, etc. Incorrect Solution: D Tropical Evergreen forests: These forests are found in the western slope of the Western Ghats, hills of the northeastern region and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. They are found in warm and humid areas with an annual precipitation of over 200 cm and mean annual temperature above 22oC. Tropical evergreen forests are well stratified, with layers closer to the ground and are covered with shrubs and creepers, with short structured trees followed by tall variety of trees. In these forests, trees reach great heights up to 60 m or above. There is no definite time for trees to shed their leaves, flowering and fruition. As such these forests appear green all the year round. Species found in these forests include rosewood, mahogony, aini, ebony, etc.

#### 12. Question

“These forests are found in the western slope of the Western Ghats, hills of the northeastern region and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. There is no definite time for trees to shed their leaves, flowering and fruition. Species found in these forests include rosewood, mahogony, aini, ebony, etc.”.

The above description refers to:

• (a) Swamp forests

• (b) Tropical Deciduous forests

• (c) Tropical Thorn forests

• (d) Tropical Evergreen forests

Solution: D

Tropical Evergreen forests:

• These forests are found in the western slope of the Western Ghats, hills of the northeastern region and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

• They are found in warm and humid areas with an annual precipitation of over 200 cm and mean annual temperature above 22oC.

• Tropical evergreen forests are well stratified, with layers closer to the ground and are covered with shrubs and creepers, with short structured trees followed by tall variety of trees.

• In these forests, trees reach great heights up to 60 m or above. There is no definite time for trees to shed their leaves, flowering and fruition. As such these forests appear green all the year round.

• Species found in these forests include rosewood, mahogony, aini, ebony, etc.

Solution: D

Tropical Evergreen forests:

• These forests are found in the western slope of the Western Ghats, hills of the northeastern region and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

• They are found in warm and humid areas with an annual precipitation of over 200 cm and mean annual temperature above 22oC.

• Tropical evergreen forests are well stratified, with layers closer to the ground and are covered with shrubs and creepers, with short structured trees followed by tall variety of trees.

• Species found in these forests include rosewood, mahogony, aini, ebony, etc.

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs: River Origin Mahanadi Odisha Godavari Madhya Pradesh Krishna Maharashtra Kaveri Tamil Nadu How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched? (a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs (c) Only three pairs (d) All four pairs Correct Solution: A The Mahanadi rises near Sihawa in Raipur district of Chhattisgarh and runs through Odisha to discharge its water into the Bay of Bengal. It is 851 km long and its catchment area spreads over 1.42 lakh sq. km. Some navigation is carried on in the lower course of this river. Fifty three per cent of the drainage basin of this river lies in Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh, while 47 per cent lies in Odisha. The Godavari is the largest Peninsular river system. It is also called the Dakshin Ganga. It rises in the Nasik district of Maharashtra and discharges its water into the Bay of Bengal. Its tributaries run through the states of Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Andhra Pradesh. It is 1,465 km long with a catchment area spreading over 3.13 lakh sq. km 49 per cent of this, lies in Maharashtra, 20 per cent in Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh, and the rest in Andhra Pradesh. The Penganga, the Indravati, the Pranhita, and the Manjra are its principal tributaries. The Krishna is the second largest east flowing Peninsular river which rises near Mahabaleshwar in Sahyadri. Its total length is 1,401 km. The Koyna, the Tungbhadra and the Bhima are its major tributaries. Of the total catchment area of the Krishna, 27 per cent lies in Maharashtra, 44 per cent in Karnataka and 29 per cent in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana. The Kaveri rises in Brahmagiri hills (1,341m) of Kogadu district in Karnataka. Its length is 800 km and it drains an area of 81,155 sq. km. Since the upper catchment area receives rainfall during the southwest monsoon season (summer) and the lower part during the northeast monsoon season (winter), the river carries water throughout the year with comparatively less fluctuation than the other Peninsular rivers. About 3 per cent of the Kaveri basin falls in Kerala, 41 per cent in Karnataka and 56 per cent in Tamil Nadu. Its important tributaries are the Kabini, the Bhavani and the Amravati. Incorrect Solution: A The Mahanadi rises near Sihawa in Raipur district of Chhattisgarh and runs through Odisha to discharge its water into the Bay of Bengal. It is 851 km long and its catchment area spreads over 1.42 lakh sq. km. Some navigation is carried on in the lower course of this river. Fifty three per cent of the drainage basin of this river lies in Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh, while 47 per cent lies in Odisha. The Godavari is the largest Peninsular river system. It is also called the Dakshin Ganga. It rises in the Nasik district of Maharashtra and discharges its water into the Bay of Bengal. Its tributaries run through the states of Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Andhra Pradesh. It is 1,465 km long with a catchment area spreading over 3.13 lakh sq. km 49 per cent of this, lies in Maharashtra, 20 per cent in Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh, and the rest in Andhra Pradesh. The Penganga, the Indravati, the Pranhita, and the Manjra are its principal tributaries. The Krishna is the second largest east flowing Peninsular river which rises near Mahabaleshwar in Sahyadri. Its total length is 1,401 km. The Koyna, the Tungbhadra and the Bhima are its major tributaries. Of the total catchment area of the Krishna, 27 per cent lies in Maharashtra, 44 per cent in Karnataka and 29 per cent in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana. The Kaveri rises in Brahmagiri hills (1,341m) of Kogadu district in Karnataka. Its length is 800 km and it drains an area of 81,155 sq. km. Since the upper catchment area receives rainfall during the southwest monsoon season (summer) and the lower part during the northeast monsoon season (winter), the river carries water throughout the year with comparatively less fluctuation than the other Peninsular rivers. About 3 per cent of the Kaveri basin falls in Kerala, 41 per cent in Karnataka and 56 per cent in Tamil Nadu. Its important tributaries are the Kabini, the Bhavani and the Amravati.

#### 13. Question

Consider the following pairs:

River Origin

• Mahanadi Odisha

• Godavari Madhya Pradesh

• Krishna Maharashtra

• Kaveri Tamil Nadu

How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

• (a) Only one pair

• (b) Only two pairs

• (c) Only three pairs

• (d) All four pairs

Solution: A

The Mahanadi rises near Sihawa in Raipur district of Chhattisgarh and runs through Odisha to discharge its water into the Bay of Bengal. It is 851 km long and its catchment area spreads over 1.42 lakh sq. km. Some navigation is carried on in the lower course of this river. Fifty three per cent of the drainage basin of this river lies in Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh, while 47 per cent lies in Odisha.

The Godavari is the largest Peninsular river system. It is also called the Dakshin Ganga. It rises in the Nasik district of Maharashtra and discharges its water into the Bay of Bengal. Its tributaries run through the states of Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Andhra Pradesh. It is 1,465 km long with a catchment area spreading over 3.13 lakh sq. km 49 per cent of this, lies in Maharashtra, 20 per cent in Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh, and the rest in Andhra Pradesh. The Penganga, the Indravati, the Pranhita, and the Manjra are its principal tributaries.

The Krishna is the second largest east flowing Peninsular river which rises near Mahabaleshwar in Sahyadri. Its total length is 1,401 km. The Koyna, the Tungbhadra and the Bhima are its major tributaries. Of the total catchment area of the Krishna, 27 per cent lies in Maharashtra, 44 per cent in Karnataka and 29 per cent in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.

The Kaveri rises in Brahmagiri hills (1,341m) of Kogadu district in Karnataka. Its length is 800 km and it drains an area of 81,155 sq. km. Since the upper catchment area receives rainfall during the southwest monsoon season (summer) and the lower part during the northeast monsoon season (winter), the river carries water throughout the year with comparatively less fluctuation than the other Peninsular rivers. About 3 per cent of the Kaveri basin falls in Kerala, 41 per cent in Karnataka and 56 per cent in Tamil Nadu. Its important tributaries are the Kabini, the Bhavani and the Amravati.

Solution: A

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Consider the following statements Charter Act of 1833 ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body. Government of India Act, 1919 separated for the first time, provincial budgets from the Central budget Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Both the statements are correct. Charter Act of 1833 ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, which became a purely administrative body. It provided that the company’s territories in India were held by it ‘in trust for His Majesty, His heirs and successors’. Government of India Act of 1919 On August 20, 1917, the British Government declared, for the first time, that its objective was the gradual introduction of responsible government in India. The Government of India Act of 1919 was thus enacted, which came into force in 1921. This Act is also known as Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms (Montagu was the Secretary of State for India and Lord Chelmsford was the Viceroy of India). It introduced, for the first time, bicameralism and direct elections in the country. Thus, the Indian Legislative Council was replaced by a bicameral legislature consisting of an Upper House (Council of State) and a Lower House (Legislative Assembly). It separated, for the first time, provincial budgets from the Central budget and authorized the provincial legislatures to enact their budgets. Incorrect Solution: C Both the statements are correct. Charter Act of 1833 ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, which became a purely administrative body. It provided that the company’s territories in India were held by it ‘in trust for His Majesty, His heirs and successors’. Government of India Act of 1919 On August 20, 1917, the British Government declared, for the first time, that its objective was the gradual introduction of responsible government in India. The Government of India Act of 1919 was thus enacted, which came into force in 1921. This Act is also known as Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms (Montagu was the Secretary of State for India and Lord Chelmsford was the Viceroy of India). It introduced, for the first time, bicameralism and direct elections in the country. Thus, the Indian Legislative Council was replaced by a bicameral legislature consisting of an Upper House (Council of State) and a Lower House (Legislative Assembly). It separated, for the first time, provincial budgets from the Central budget and authorized the provincial legislatures to enact their budgets.

#### 14. Question

Consider the following statements

• Charter Act of 1833 ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body.

• Government of India Act, 1919 separated for the first time, provincial budgets from the Central budget

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

Both the statements are correct.

Charter Act of 1833 ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, which became a purely administrative body. It provided that the company’s territories in India were held by it ‘in trust for His Majesty, His heirs and successors’.

Government of India Act of 1919

On August 20, 1917, the British Government declared, for the first time, that its objective was the gradual introduction of responsible government in India.

The Government of India Act of 1919 was thus enacted, which came into force in 1921. This Act is also known as Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms (Montagu was the Secretary of State for India and Lord Chelmsford was the Viceroy of India).

It introduced, for the first time, bicameralism and direct elections in the country. Thus, the Indian Legislative Council was replaced by a bicameral legislature consisting of an Upper House (Council of State) and a Lower House (Legislative Assembly).

It separated, for the first time, provincial budgets from the Central budget and authorized the provincial legislatures to enact their budgets.

Solution: C

Both the statements are correct.

Government of India Act of 1919

On August 20, 1917, the British Government declared, for the first time, that its objective was the gradual introduction of responsible government in India.

It separated, for the first time, provincial budgets from the Central budget and authorized the provincial legislatures to enact their budgets.

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs: Straits Connects Malacca strait Java Sea and Indian Ocean Bab-el-Mandeb Strait Red Sea and Gulf of Aden Sunda strait Andaman Sea and South China Sea How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched? (a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs (c) All three pairs (d) None Correct Solution: A The Strait of Malacca is a narrow stretch of water between the Malay Peninsula to the northeast and the Indonesian island of Sumatra to the southwest, connecting the Andaman Sea and the South China Sea. Bab-el-Mandeb Strait – Connects the Red Sea and the Gulf of Aden, and is located between Yemen on the Arabian Peninsula and Djibouti and Eritrea in the Horn of Africa. The Sunda Strait is the strait between the Indonesian islands of Java and Sumatra. It connects the Java Sea with the Indian Ocean. Incorrect Solution: A The Strait of Malacca is a narrow stretch of water between the Malay Peninsula to the northeast and the Indonesian island of Sumatra to the southwest, connecting the Andaman Sea and the South China Sea. Bab-el-Mandeb Strait – Connects the Red Sea and the Gulf of Aden, and is located between Yemen on the Arabian Peninsula and Djibouti and Eritrea in the Horn of Africa. The Sunda Strait is the strait between the Indonesian islands of Java and Sumatra. It connects the Java Sea with the Indian Ocean.

#### 15. Question

Consider the following pairs:

Straits Connects

• Malacca strait Java Sea and Indian Ocean

• Bab-el-Mandeb Strait Red Sea and Gulf of Aden

• Sunda strait Andaman Sea and South China Sea

How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

• (a) Only one pair

• (b) Only two pairs

• (c) All three pairs

Solution: A

The Strait of Malacca is a narrow stretch of water between the Malay Peninsula to the northeast and the Indonesian island of Sumatra to the southwest, connecting the Andaman Sea and the South China Sea.

Bab-el-Mandeb Strait – Connects the Red Sea and the Gulf of Aden, and is located between Yemen on the Arabian Peninsula and Djibouti and Eritrea in the Horn of Africa.

The Sunda Strait is the strait between the Indonesian islands of Java and Sumatra. It connects the Java Sea with the Indian Ocean.

Solution: A

Bab-el-Mandeb Strait – Connects the Red Sea and the Gulf of Aden, and is located between Yemen on the Arabian Peninsula and Djibouti and Eritrea in the Horn of Africa.

The Sunda Strait is the strait between the Indonesian islands of Java and Sumatra. It connects the Java Sea with the Indian Ocean.

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Tigers: They are solitary animals apart from associations between mother and offspring. They rely primarily on sight and sound rather than smell for hunting. Their population has notably declined in Central India and the Shivalik Hills. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Tigers are mostly solitary, apart from associations between mother and offspring. Individual tigers have a large territory, and the size is determined mostly by the availability of prey. Individuals mark their domain with urine, feces, rakes, scrapes, and vocalizing. There are two recognized subspecies of tiger: the continental (Panthera tigris tigris) and the Sunda (Panthera tigris sondaica). Statement 2 is correct: The largest of all the Asian big cats, tigers rely primarily on sight and sound rather than smell for hunting. They typically hunt alone and stalk prey. Statement 3 is not correct: Central India and the Shivalik Hills and Gangetic Plains witnessed a notable increases in tiger population, particularly in the states of Madhya Pradesh, Uttarakhand, and Maharashtra. The tiger abundance within the Tiger Reserve is highest in Corbett (260), followed by Bandipur (150), Nagarhole (141), Bandhavgarh (135), Dudhwa (135), Mudumalai(114), Kanha (105), Kaziranga (104), Sundarbans (100), Tadoba (97), Sathyamangalam (85), and Pench-MP (77). Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Tigers are mostly solitary, apart from associations between mother and offspring. Individual tigers have a large territory, and the size is determined mostly by the availability of prey. Individuals mark their domain with urine, feces, rakes, scrapes, and vocalizing. There are two recognized subspecies of tiger: the continental (Panthera tigris tigris) and the Sunda (Panthera tigris sondaica). Statement 2 is correct: The largest of all the Asian big cats, tigers rely primarily on sight and sound rather than smell for hunting. They typically hunt alone and stalk prey. Statement 3 is not correct: Central India and the Shivalik Hills and Gangetic Plains witnessed a notable increases in tiger population, particularly in the states of Madhya Pradesh, Uttarakhand, and Maharashtra. The tiger abundance within the Tiger Reserve is highest in Corbett (260), followed by Bandipur (150), Nagarhole (141), Bandhavgarh (135), Dudhwa (135), Mudumalai(114), Kanha (105), Kaziranga (104), Sundarbans (100), Tadoba (97), Sathyamangalam (85), and Pench-MP (77).

#### 16. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Tigers:

• They are solitary animals apart from associations between mother and offspring.

• They rely primarily on sight and sound rather than smell for hunting.

• Their population has notably declined in Central India and the Shivalik Hills.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Tigers are mostly solitary, apart from associations between mother and offspring. Individual tigers have a large territory, and the size is determined mostly by the availability of prey. Individuals mark their domain with urine, feces, rakes, scrapes, and vocalizing.

There are two recognized subspecies of tiger: the continental (Panthera tigris tigris) and the Sunda (Panthera tigris sondaica).

Statement 2 is correct: The largest of all the Asian big cats, tigers rely primarily on sight and sound rather than smell for hunting. They typically hunt alone and stalk prey.

Statement 3 is not correct: Central India and the Shivalik Hills and Gangetic Plains witnessed a notable increases in tiger population, particularly in the states of Madhya Pradesh, Uttarakhand, and Maharashtra.

The tiger abundance within the Tiger Reserve is highest in Corbett (260), followed by Bandipur (150), Nagarhole (141), Bandhavgarh (135), Dudhwa (135), Mudumalai(114), Kanha (105), Kaziranga (104), Sundarbans (100), Tadoba (97), Sathyamangalam (85), and Pench-MP (77).

Answer: B

Explanation:

There are two recognized subspecies of tiger: the continental (Panthera tigris tigris) and the Sunda (Panthera tigris sondaica).

Statement 2 is correct: The largest of all the Asian big cats, tigers rely primarily on sight and sound rather than smell for hunting. They typically hunt alone and stalk prey.

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Necrosis is the premature death of cells caused by an injury. During necrosis, cells exhibit clumping of the nuclear chromatin. The process of necrosis occurs more rapidly than the apoptosis. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Necrosis is the premature death of cells caused by an injury. Noxious stimuli due to external factors, such as infections, toxins, hypoxia, and extreme environmental conditions lead to irreversible injury of the tissue and cell death by necrosis. Statement 2 is correct: When cells die by necrosis, they exhibit nuclear chromatin clumping and nonspecific digestion patterns, organelle and cell swelling, plasma membrane disintegration, and other cellular components release. Statement 3 is correct: The fragments released from necrotic cells are often much larger than apoptotic DNA fragments because, despite necrosis occurs more rapidly than apoptosis, the removal of necrotic cells is slower. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Necrosis is the premature death of cells caused by an injury. Noxious stimuli due to external factors, such as infections, toxins, hypoxia, and extreme environmental conditions lead to irreversible injury of the tissue and cell death by necrosis. Statement 2 is correct: When cells die by necrosis, they exhibit nuclear chromatin clumping and nonspecific digestion patterns, organelle and cell swelling, plasma membrane disintegration, and other cellular components release. Statement 3 is correct: The fragments released from necrotic cells are often much larger than apoptotic DNA fragments because, despite necrosis occurs more rapidly than apoptosis, the removal of necrotic cells is slower.

#### 17. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Necrosis is the premature death of cells caused by an injury.

• During necrosis, cells exhibit clumping of the nuclear chromatin.

• The process of necrosis occurs more rapidly than the apoptosis.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Necrosis is the premature death of cells caused by an injury.

Noxious stimuli due to external factors, such as infections, toxins, hypoxia, and extreme environmental conditions lead to irreversible injury of the tissue and cell death by necrosis.

Statement 2 is correct: When cells die by necrosis, they exhibit nuclear chromatin clumping and nonspecific digestion patterns, organelle and cell swelling, plasma membrane disintegration, and other cellular components release.

Statement 3 is correct: The fragments released from necrotic cells are often much larger than apoptotic DNA fragments because, despite necrosis occurs more rapidly than apoptosis, the removal of necrotic cells is slower.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Necrosis is the premature death of cells caused by an injury.

Noxious stimuli due to external factors, such as infections, toxins, hypoxia, and extreme environmental conditions lead to irreversible injury of the tissue and cell death by necrosis.

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Bhojpatra Tree: It is widely found across the peninsular block in India. Its young leaves and bracts are covered with short soft hairs. It maintains the ecosystem by creating bio-shields for the forests. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: The Himalayan birch popularly known as Bhojpatra in Indian sub-continent, is one of the most important tree species across the high reaches of the Himalaya. It belongs to the family Betulaceae. In the Indian Himalaya, Betula utilis is considered the dominant birch species, it forms the uppermost part of the natural treeline zone. Statement 2 is correct: It is a multi-branched tree with usually irregular bole. Its shoot, young leaves and bracts are covered with short soft hairs. It has ovate and irregularly serrate leaves, which are deciduous and are arranged alternately. Its bracts remain broader than the wings of the nut. Statement 3 is correct: It helps to maintain the fragile ecosystem of the Himalaya by checking soil erosion and creating bio-shield for rest of the forests and sub-alpine meadows immediately below the treeline zone. Beside multiple ecological benefits. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: The Himalayan birch popularly known as Bhojpatra in Indian sub-continent, is one of the most important tree species across the high reaches of the Himalaya. It belongs to the family Betulaceae. In the Indian Himalaya, Betula utilis is considered the dominant birch species, it forms the uppermost part of the natural treeline zone. Statement 2 is correct: It is a multi-branched tree with usually irregular bole. Its shoot, young leaves and bracts are covered with short soft hairs. It has ovate and irregularly serrate leaves, which are deciduous and are arranged alternately. Its bracts remain broader than the wings of the nut. Statement 3 is correct: It helps to maintain the fragile ecosystem of the Himalaya by checking soil erosion and creating bio-shield for rest of the forests and sub-alpine meadows immediately below the treeline zone. Beside multiple ecological benefits.

#### 18. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Bhojpatra Tree:

• It is widely found across the peninsular block in India.

• Its young leaves and bracts are covered with short soft hairs.

• It maintains the ecosystem by creating bio-shields for the forests.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: The Himalayan birch popularly known as Bhojpatra in Indian sub-continent, is one of the most important tree species across the high reaches of the Himalaya. It belongs to the family Betulaceae.

In the Indian Himalaya, Betula utilis is considered the dominant birch species, it forms the uppermost part of the natural treeline zone.

Statement 2 is correct: It is a multi-branched tree with usually irregular bole. Its shoot, young leaves and bracts are covered with short soft hairs. It has ovate and irregularly serrate leaves, which are deciduous and are arranged alternately. Its bracts remain broader than the wings of the nut.

Statement 3 is correct: It helps to maintain the fragile ecosystem of the Himalaya by checking soil erosion and creating bio-shield for rest of the forests and sub-alpine meadows immediately below the treeline zone. Beside multiple ecological benefits.

Answer: B

Explanation:

In the Indian Himalaya, Betula utilis is considered the dominant birch species, it forms the uppermost part of the natural treeline zone.

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs: Geographical locations Associated countries Cocos Islands Australia Pahang River China Parkachik Glacier Bhutan Gissar Range India How many of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: A Explanation: Pair 1 is correctly matched: Cocos Islands is an external territory of Australia in the eastern Indian Ocean. The islands lie 2,290 miles west of Darwin, Northern Territory, on the northern Australian coast. Pair 2 is not correctly matched: Pahang River is one of the tropical river streams that can be considered to represent the tropical river generally in Peninsular Malaysia. Pahang River Basin is also the biggest river basin in Peninsular Malaysia. Pair 3 is not correctly matched: The Parkachik Glacier in Ladakh is likely to have three lakes of different dimensions due to subglacial over-deepening which is a characteristic of basins and valleys eroded by glaciers. Pair 4 is not correctly matched: Ghissar Range is a mountain range in Central Asia, in the western part of the Pamir-Alai mountain system, in the territories of Uzbekistan and Tajikistan, the watershed of the Zeravshan and Amudarya river basins. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Pair 1 is correctly matched: Cocos Islands is an external territory of Australia in the eastern Indian Ocean. The islands lie 2,290 miles west of Darwin, Northern Territory, on the northern Australian coast. Pair 2 is not correctly matched: Pahang River is one of the tropical river streams that can be considered to represent the tropical river generally in Peninsular Malaysia. Pahang River Basin is also the biggest river basin in Peninsular Malaysia. Pair 3 is not correctly matched: The Parkachik Glacier in Ladakh is likely to have three lakes of different dimensions due to subglacial over-deepening which is a characteristic of basins and valleys eroded by glaciers. Pair 4 is not correctly matched: Ghissar Range is a mountain range in Central Asia, in the western part of the Pamir-Alai mountain system, in the territories of Uzbekistan and Tajikistan, the watershed of the Zeravshan and Amudarya river basins.

#### 19. Question

Consider the following pairs:

Geographical locations Associated countries

• Cocos Islands Australia

• Pahang River China

• Parkachik Glacier Bhutan

• Gissar Range India

How many of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: A

Explanation:

Pair 1 is correctly matched: Cocos Islands is an external territory of Australia in the eastern Indian Ocean. The islands lie 2,290 miles west of Darwin, Northern Territory, on the northern Australian coast.

Pair 2 is not correctly matched: Pahang River is one of the tropical river streams that can be considered to represent the tropical river generally in Peninsular Malaysia. Pahang River Basin is also the biggest river basin in Peninsular Malaysia.

Pair 3 is not correctly matched: The Parkachik Glacier in Ladakh is likely to have three lakes of different dimensions due to subglacial over-deepening which is a characteristic of basins and valleys eroded by glaciers.

Pair 4 is not correctly matched: Ghissar Range is a mountain range in Central Asia, in the western part of the Pamir-Alai mountain system, in the territories of Uzbekistan and Tajikistan, the watershed of the Zeravshan and Amudarya river basins.

Answer: A

Explanation:

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Which one of the following organizations publishes the composite Digital Payments Index? (a) The NITI Aayog (b) The World Economic Forum (c) The World Bank Group (d) The Reserve Bank of India Correct Answer: D Explanation: Option (d) is correct: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has been publishing a composite Reserve Bank of India – Digital Payments Index (RBI-DPI) since January 1, 2021 with March 2018 as base to capture the extent of digitisation of payments across the country. The index for March 2023 stands at 395.57 as against 377.46 for September 2022, which was announced on January 31, 2023. The RBI-DPI index has increased across all parameters driven by significant growth in payment infrastructure and payment performance across the country over the period. Incorrect Answer: D Explanation: Option (d) is correct: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has been publishing a composite Reserve Bank of India – Digital Payments Index (RBI-DPI) since January 1, 2021 with March 2018 as base to capture the extent of digitisation of payments across the country. The index for March 2023 stands at 395.57 as against 377.46 for September 2022, which was announced on January 31, 2023. The RBI-DPI index has increased across all parameters driven by significant growth in payment infrastructure and payment performance across the country over the period.

#### 20. Question

Which one of the following organizations publishes the composite Digital Payments Index?

• (a) The NITI Aayog

• (b) The World Economic Forum

• (c) The World Bank Group

• (d) The Reserve Bank of India

Answer: D

Explanation:

Option (d) is correct: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has been publishing a composite Reserve Bank of India – Digital Payments Index (RBI-DPI) since January 1, 2021 with March 2018 as base to capture the extent of digitisation of payments across the country.

The index for March 2023 stands at 395.57 as against 377.46 for September 2022, which was announced on January 31, 2023.

The RBI-DPI index has increased across all parameters driven by significant growth in payment infrastructure and payment performance across the country over the period.

Answer: D

Explanation:

The index for March 2023 stands at 395.57 as against 377.46 for September 2022, which was announced on January 31, 2023.

The RBI-DPI index has increased across all parameters driven by significant growth in payment infrastructure and payment performance across the country over the period.

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points The National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) is responsible for Central Finger Print Bureau Maintaining the statistics of judicial performance CCTNS (Crime and Criminal Tracking Network and Systems) Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 3 only c) 1 and 2 only d) 1 and 3 only Correct Solution: d) Justification: It was established based on the recommendations of the Tandon Committee, MHA Taskforce and National Police Commission (1977). It acts under the Ministry of Home Affairsand functions as a repository of information on crime and criminals so as to assist the investigators in linking crime to the perpetrators. NCRB looks after CCTNS (Crime and Criminal Tracking Network and Systems) and Central Finger Print Bureau It released reports: Crimes in India, Prison Statistics in India and Accidental Deaths and Suicides in India. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/08/30/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-30-august-2022/ Incorrect Solution: d) Justification: It was established based on the recommendations of the Tandon Committee, MHA Taskforce and National Police Commission (1977). It acts under the Ministry of Home Affairsand functions as a repository of information on crime and criminals so as to assist the investigators in linking crime to the perpetrators. NCRB looks after CCTNS (Crime and Criminal Tracking Network and Systems) and Central Finger Print Bureau It released reports: Crimes in India, Prison Statistics in India and Accidental Deaths and Suicides in India. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/08/30/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-30-august-2022/

#### 21. Question

The National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) is responsible for

• Central Finger Print Bureau

• Maintaining the statistics of judicial performance

• CCTNS (Crime and Criminal Tracking Network and Systems)

Which of the above is/are correct?

• a) 1, 2 and 3

• c) 1 and 2 only

• d) 1 and 3 only

Solution: d)

Justification: It was established based on the recommendations of the Tandon Committee, MHA Taskforce and National Police Commission (1977).

It acts under the Ministry of Home Affairsand functions as a repository of information on crime and criminals so as to assist the investigators in linking crime to the perpetrators.

NCRB looks after CCTNS (Crime and Criminal Tracking Network and Systems) and Central Finger Print Bureau

It released reports: Crimes in India, Prison Statistics in India and Accidental Deaths and Suicides in India.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/08/30/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-30-august-2022/

Solution: d)

Justification: It was established based on the recommendations of the Tandon Committee, MHA Taskforce and National Police Commission (1977).

It acts under the Ministry of Home Affairsand functions as a repository of information on crime and criminals so as to assist the investigators in linking crime to the perpetrators.

NCRB looks after CCTNS (Crime and Criminal Tracking Network and Systems) and Central Finger Print Bureau

It released reports: Crimes in India, Prison Statistics in India and Accidental Deaths and Suicides in India.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/08/30/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-30-august-2022/

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points India has formally submitted an updated Intended Nationally Determined Contribution (NDC) target to UNFCCC. What is included in the list? To reduce the emissions intensity of the GDP by 33-35% (from the 2005 level) by 2030 80% of the instaled capacity for electricity to be from non-fossil fuel sources by 2030 An additional carbon sink of 2.5 to 3 billion tonnes of carbon dioxide equivalent through additional forest and tree cover by the year 2030 Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1 and 2 only Correct Solution: c) Justification: India’s INDC (to be achieved primarily by 2030): Original Target: A total of 40% of the installed capacity for electricity will be from non-fossil fuel sources. New Target: 50% by 2030 (with help from international finance (Global climate fund) and transfer of technology Original Target: To reduce the emissions intensity of the GDP by 33-35% (from the 2005 level) New Target: 45% of GDP by 2030 New target added: Propagating a sustainable way of living: mass movement for ‘LIFE- Lifestyle for environment’ using traditions and values of conservation. India also promised an additional carbon sink of 2.5 to 3 billion tonnes of carbon dioxide equivalent through additional forest and tree cover by the year 2030. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/08/29/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-29-august-2022/ Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: India’s INDC (to be achieved primarily by 2030): Original Target: A total of 40% of the installed capacity for electricity will be from non-fossil fuel sources. New Target: 50% by 2030 (with help from international finance (Global climate fund) and transfer of technology Original Target: To reduce the emissions intensity of the GDP by 33-35% (from the 2005 level) New Target: 45% of GDP by 2030 New target added: Propagating a sustainable way of living: mass movement for ‘LIFE- Lifestyle for environment’ using traditions and values of conservation. India also promised an additional carbon sink of 2.5 to 3 billion tonnes of carbon dioxide equivalent through additional forest and tree cover by the year 2030. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/08/29/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-29-august-2022/

#### 22. Question

India has formally submitted an updated Intended Nationally Determined Contribution (NDC) target to UNFCCC. What is included in the list?

• To reduce the emissions intensity of the GDP by 33-35% (from the 2005 level) by 2030

• 80% of the instaled capacity for electricity to be from non-fossil fuel sources by 2030

• An additional carbon sink of 2.5 to 3 billion tonnes of carbon dioxide equivalent through additional forest and tree cover by the year 2030

Which of the above is/are correct?

• a) 1, 2 and 3

• c) 1 and 3 only

• d) 1 and 2 only

Solution: c)

Justification: India’s INDC (to be achieved primarily by 2030):

Original Target: A total of 40% of the installed capacity for electricity will be from non-fossil fuel sources.

New Target: 50% by 2030 (with help from international finance (Global climate fund) and transfer of technology

Original Target: To reduce the emissions intensity of the GDP by 33-35% (from the 2005 level)

New Target: 45% of GDP by 2030

New target added: Propagating a sustainable way of living: mass movement for ‘LIFE- Lifestyle for environment’ using traditions and values of conservation.

India also promised an additional carbon sink of 2.5 to 3 billion tonnes of carbon dioxide equivalent through additional forest and tree cover by the year 2030.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/08/29/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-29-august-2022/

Solution: c)

Justification: India’s INDC (to be achieved primarily by 2030):

Original Target: A total of 40% of the installed capacity for electricity will be from non-fossil fuel sources.

New Target: 50% by 2030 (with help from international finance (Global climate fund) and transfer of technology

Original Target: To reduce the emissions intensity of the GDP by 33-35% (from the 2005 level)

New Target: 45% of GDP by 2030

New target added: Propagating a sustainable way of living: mass movement for ‘LIFE- Lifestyle for environment’ using traditions and values of conservation.

India also promised an additional carbon sink of 2.5 to 3 billion tonnes of carbon dioxide equivalent through additional forest and tree cover by the year 2030.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/08/29/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-29-august-2022/

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points The proposed UN High Seas Treaty, recently seen in news, was mandated to deal with which of these issues? Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction Mineral exploration within the Exclusive Economic Zones of countries Marine trade and related economic cooperation How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Justification: Negotiations involving 168 countries, including the European Union, to agree on a UN treaty for protecting oceans had failed recently. About UN High Seas Treaty Also referred to as the ‘Paris Agreement for the Ocean’, the treaty to deal with Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction has been under discussion for several years. The proposed treaty concerns the ocean existing beyond the Exclusive Economic Zones that lie from the coast of a country to about 200 nautical miles or 370 km into the sea, till where it has special rights for exploration. Waters beyond that are known as open seas or high seas. Background: The treaty was to be negotiated under the UNCLOS of 1982 which governs the rights of countries regarding marine resources. Currently, there is no treaty for conserving the health of vast swathes of the earth’s oceans, a UN resolution in 2017 decided to rectify this while setting 2022 as the deadline. Having no law has resulted in overexploitation of the High seas by countries: using large-scale drilling and trawling operations for catching fish and mining High Ambition Coalition (consisting of more than 100 countries including India, the US, and the UK), came about (because of delay in the high sea treaty) and put the focus on ‘30×30’ goals – protecting 30% of the ocean by 2030. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/08/30/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-30-august-2022/ Incorrect Solution: b) Justification: Negotiations involving 168 countries, including the European Union, to agree on a UN treaty for protecting oceans had failed recently. About UN High Seas Treaty Also referred to as the ‘Paris Agreement for the Ocean’, the treaty to deal with Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction has been under discussion for several years. The proposed treaty concerns the ocean existing beyond the Exclusive Economic Zones that lie from the coast of a country to about 200 nautical miles or 370 km into the sea, till where it has special rights for exploration. Waters beyond that are known as open seas or high seas. Background: The treaty was to be negotiated under the UNCLOS of 1982 which governs the rights of countries regarding marine resources. Currently, there is no treaty for conserving the health of vast swathes of the earth’s oceans, a UN resolution in 2017 decided to rectify this while setting 2022 as the deadline. Having no law has resulted in overexploitation of the High seas by countries: using large-scale drilling and trawling operations for catching fish and mining High Ambition Coalition (consisting of more than 100 countries including India, the US, and the UK), came about (because of delay in the high sea treaty) and put the focus on ‘30×30’ goals – protecting 30% of the ocean by 2030. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/08/30/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-30-august-2022/

#### 23. Question

The proposed UN High Seas Treaty, recently seen in news, was mandated to deal with which of these issues?

• Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction

• Mineral exploration within the Exclusive Economic Zones of countries

• Marine trade and related economic cooperation

How many of the above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: b)

Justification: Negotiations involving 168 countries, including the European Union, to agree on a UN treaty for protecting oceans had failed recently.

About UN High Seas Treaty

Also referred to as the ‘Paris Agreement for the Ocean’, the treaty to deal with Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction has been under discussion for several years.

The proposed treaty concerns the ocean existing beyond the Exclusive Economic Zones that lie from the coast of a country to about 200 nautical miles or 370 km into the sea, till where it has special rights for exploration. Waters beyond that are known as open seas or high seas.

Background:

The treaty was to be negotiated under the UNCLOS of 1982 which governs the rights of countries regarding marine resources.

Currently, there is no treaty for conserving the health of vast swathes of the earth’s oceans, a UN resolution in 2017 decided to rectify this while setting 2022 as the deadline.

Having no law has resulted in overexploitation of the High seas by countries: using large-scale drilling and trawling operations for catching fish and mining

High Ambition Coalition (consisting of more than 100 countries including India, the US, and the UK), came about (because of delay in the high sea treaty) and put the focus on ‘30×30’ goals – protecting 30% of the ocean by 2030.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/08/30/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-30-august-2022/

Solution: b)

Justification: Negotiations involving 168 countries, including the European Union, to agree on a UN treaty for protecting oceans had failed recently.

About UN High Seas Treaty

Also referred to as the ‘Paris Agreement for the Ocean’, the treaty to deal with Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction has been under discussion for several years.

Background:

The treaty was to be negotiated under the UNCLOS of 1982 which governs the rights of countries regarding marine resources.

Currently, there is no treaty for conserving the health of vast swathes of the earth’s oceans, a UN resolution in 2017 decided to rectify this while setting 2022 as the deadline.

Having no law has resulted in overexploitation of the High seas by countries: using large-scale drilling and trawling operations for catching fish and mining

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/08/30/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-30-august-2022/

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points That “the Aadhaar number or the authentication thereof shall not, by itself, confer any right of, or be proof of, citizenship or domicile in respect of an Aadhaar number holder” is a provision that is based on a) executive fiat b) parliamentary act c) convention d) electoral regulation Correct Solution: b) Justification: Section 9 of the Aadhaar Act, 2016: It states that “the Aadhaar number or the authentication thereof shall not, by itself, confer any right of, or be proof of, citizenship or domicile in respect of an Aadhaar number holder. The Aadhaar Act regulations state that an individual’s Aadhaar number may be “omitted” permanently or deactivated temporarily by the Unique Identification Authority of India, the agency responsible for issuing the numbers and managing the database. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/08/29/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-29-august-2022/ Incorrect Solution: b) Justification: Section 9 of the Aadhaar Act, 2016: It states that “the Aadhaar number or the authentication thereof shall not, by itself, confer any right of, or be proof of, citizenship or domicile in respect of an Aadhaar number holder. The Aadhaar Act regulations state that an individual’s Aadhaar number may be “omitted” permanently or deactivated temporarily by the Unique Identification Authority of India, the agency responsible for issuing the numbers and managing the database. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/08/29/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-29-august-2022/

#### 24. Question

That “the Aadhaar number or the authentication thereof shall not, by itself, confer any right of, or be proof of, citizenship or domicile in respect of an Aadhaar number holder” is a provision that is based on

• a) executive fiat

• b) parliamentary act

• c) convention

• d) electoral regulation

Solution: b)

Justification: Section 9 of the Aadhaar Act, 2016: It states that “the Aadhaar number or the authentication thereof shall not, by itself, confer any right of, or be proof of, citizenship or domicile in respect of an Aadhaar number holder.

The Aadhaar Act regulations state that an individual’s Aadhaar number may be “omitted” permanently or deactivated temporarily by the Unique Identification Authority of India, the agency responsible for issuing the numbers and managing the database.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/08/29/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-29-august-2022/

Solution: b)

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/08/29/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-29-august-2022/

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Forest is under the Concurrent list of the constitution. States can define land as forests. An un-demarcated protected forest can be used for non-forest purposes even without the consent of the government, as stated under the Forest Conservation Act 1980 (FCA). Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 3 only c) 1, 2 and 3 d) 1 and 3 only Correct Solution: a) Justification: Recently there was a tussle between MoEFCC and the Chhattisgarh government over the transfer of land from its forest to the Revenue department. Views and counterview Centre contention: An un-demarcated protected forest cannot be used for non-forest purposes without its consent under Forest Conservation Act 1980 (FCA) State’s contention: Transferred land was not a forest land. Legal provisions: States can define land (previously not classified under centre or state records) as forests As per SC (Godavarman case 1996) Forest is under the Concurrent list Jurisdiction over forest: Forest department of state (Reserve Forest (nothing allowed unless specified) and Protected forests (everything allowed unless specified) Revenue department of state (village and Nagarpallika forests) Q Source: August current affairs Incorrect Solution: a) Justification: Recently there was a tussle between MoEFCC and the Chhattisgarh government over the transfer of land from its forest to the Revenue department. Views and counterview Centre contention: An un-demarcated protected forest cannot be used for non-forest purposes without its consent under Forest Conservation Act 1980 (FCA) State’s contention: Transferred land was not a forest land. Legal provisions: States can define land (previously not classified under centre or state records) as forests As per SC (Godavarman case 1996) Forest is under the Concurrent list Jurisdiction over forest: Forest department of state (Reserve Forest (nothing allowed unless specified) and Protected forests (everything allowed unless specified) Revenue department of state (village and Nagarpallika forests) Q Source: August current affairs

#### 25. Question

Consider the following statements.

• Forest is under the Concurrent list of the constitution.

• States can define land as forests.

• An un-demarcated protected forest can be used for non-forest purposes even without the consent of the government, as stated under the Forest Conservation Act 1980 (FCA).

Which of the above is/are correct?

• a) 1 and 2 only

• c) 1, 2 and 3

• d) 1 and 3 only

Solution: a)

Justification: Recently there was a tussle between MoEFCC and the Chhattisgarh government over the transfer of land from its forest to the Revenue department.

Views and counterview

Centre contention: An un-demarcated protected forest cannot be used for non-forest purposes without its consent under Forest Conservation Act 1980 (FCA)

State’s contention: Transferred land was not a forest land.

Legal provisions:

States can define land (previously not classified under centre or state records) as forests

As per SC (Godavarman case 1996)

Forest is under the Concurrent list

Jurisdiction over forest:

Forest department of state (Reserve Forest (nothing allowed unless specified) and Protected forests (everything allowed unless specified)

Revenue department of state (village and Nagarpallika forests)

Q Source: August current affairs

Solution: a)

Justification: Recently there was a tussle between MoEFCC and the Chhattisgarh government over the transfer of land from its forest to the Revenue department.

Views and counterview

Centre contention: An un-demarcated protected forest cannot be used for non-forest purposes without its consent under Forest Conservation Act 1980 (FCA)

State’s contention: Transferred land was not a forest land.

Legal provisions:

States can define land (previously not classified under centre or state records) as forests

As per SC (Godavarman case 1996)

Forest is under the Concurrent list

Jurisdiction over forest:

Forest department of state (Reserve Forest (nothing allowed unless specified) and Protected forests (everything allowed unless specified)

Revenue department of state (village and Nagarpallika forests)

Q Source: August current affairs

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points School safety’ has been defined as the creation of a safe environment for children, starting from their homes to their schools and back. This includes safety from large-scale ‘natural’ hazards of geological/climatic origin, human-made risks, pandemics, violence as well as more frequent and smaller-scale fires, transportation and other related emergencies and threats that can adversely affect the lives of children. The concept of ‘safe school’ has evolved over the last couple of decades as the threat to the physical well-being of children has risen both globally and in India. International attention was drawn to the safety of school children in ‘The Hyogo Framework for Action: Building the Resilience of Nations and Communities to Disasters’, adopted by the United Nations in 2005. Consider the following statements about school safety: School safety concerns itself with safety of children inside school premises School safety as an issue has also been raised at disaster management conferences Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about school safety? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B. School safety includes safety also from school to home. Hence I is wrong. School safety has been talked about at Hyogo Conference, hence II is correct. Hence B Incorrect Solution: B. School safety includes safety also from school to home. Hence I is wrong. School safety has been talked about at Hyogo Conference, hence II is correct. Hence B

#### 26. Question

School safety’ has been defined as the creation of a safe environment for children, starting from their homes to their schools and back. This includes safety from large-scale ‘natural’ hazards of geological/climatic origin, human-made risks, pandemics, violence as well as more frequent and smaller-scale fires, transportation and other related emergencies and threats that can adversely affect the lives of children. The concept of ‘safe school’ has evolved over the last couple of decades as the threat to the physical well-being of children has risen both globally and in India. International attention was drawn to the safety of school children in ‘The Hyogo Framework for Action: Building the Resilience of Nations and Communities to Disasters’, adopted by the United Nations in 2005.

Consider the following statements about school safety:

• School safety concerns itself with safety of children inside school premises

• School safety as an issue has also been raised at disaster management conferences

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about school safety?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B.

School safety includes safety also from school to home. Hence I is wrong. School safety has been talked about at Hyogo Conference, hence II is correct. Hence B

Solution: B.

School safety includes safety also from school to home. Hence I is wrong. School safety has been talked about at Hyogo Conference, hence II is correct. Hence B

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points Naturally, rising demand increases price. But in the case of food choices, it has a much more detrimental impact than to the health of our bank accounts — it increases biodiversity loss. The passage focuses on: a) Impact of rising food demand on natural diversity b) Food inflation on account of rising demand c) Food shortage in the world d) Need for regulating food prices Correct Solution: A. Statement B, C and D are wrong as the focus of the passage is on explaining that with an increase in demand of food, price would increase. More food production would consume more resources impacting biodiversity. Incorrect Solution: A. Statement B, C and D are wrong as the focus of the passage is on explaining that with an increase in demand of food, price would increase. More food production would consume more resources impacting biodiversity.

#### 27. Question

Naturally, rising demand increases price. But in the case of food choices, it has a much more detrimental impact than to the health of our bank accounts — it increases biodiversity loss.

The passage focuses on:

• a) Impact of rising food demand on natural diversity

• b) Food inflation on account of rising demand

• c) Food shortage in the world

• d) Need for regulating food prices

Solution: A.

Statement B, C and D are wrong as the focus of the passage is on explaining that with an increase in demand of food, price would increase. More food production would consume more resources impacting biodiversity.

Solution: A.

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points Choose the box that is similar to the box formed from the given sheet of paper (A). (A) A) Option 1,2 and 3 B) Option 1,3 and 4 C) Option 2 and 3 D) Option 2,3 and 4 Correct Answer: B) Option 1,3 and 4 Explanation: When the sheet in fig. (A) is folded, then one of the faces of the cube formed will be of the form and this face will lie opposite the face bearing a square. Also, one of the blank faces lies opposite another blank face and the third blank face lies opposite the face bearing an ‘=’ sign. Clearly, all the three blank faces cannot appear adjacent to each other. So, the cube shown in fig. (2) which has all the three blank faces adjacent to each other cannot be formed. Hence, only the cubes shown in figures A, C and D can be formed. Incorrect Answer: B) Option 1,3 and 4 Explanation: When the sheet in fig. (A) is folded, then one of the faces of the cube formed will be of the form and this face will lie opposite the face bearing a square. Also, one of the blank faces lies opposite another blank face and the third blank face lies opposite the face bearing an ‘=’ sign. Clearly, all the three blank faces cannot appear adjacent to each other. So, the cube shown in fig. (2) which has all the three blank faces adjacent to each other cannot be formed. Hence, only the cubes shown in figures A, C and D can be formed.

#### 28. Question

Choose the box that is similar to the box formed from the given sheet of paper (A).

• A) Option 1,2 and 3

• B) Option 1,3 and 4

• C) Option 2 and 3

• D) Option 2,3 and 4

Answer: B) Option 1,3 and 4

Explanation:

When the sheet in fig. (A) is folded, then one of the faces of the cube formed will be of the form and this face will lie opposite the face bearing a square. Also, one of the blank faces lies opposite another blank face and the third blank face lies opposite the face bearing an ‘=’ sign. Clearly, all the three blank faces cannot appear adjacent to each other. So, the cube shown in fig. (2) which has all the three blank faces adjacent to each other cannot be formed. Hence, only the cubes shown in figures A, C and D can be formed.

Answer: B) Option 1,3 and 4

Explanation:

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points A cube is painted blue on two adjacent surfaces and black on the surfaces opposite to blue surfaces and green on the remaining faces .Now the cube is cut into 216 smaller cubes of equal size. A) 56 B) 48 C) 32 D) 64 Correct Answer: D) 64 Explanation: We know that Cubes with no surface painted can be find using (x−2)3 , where x is number of cuttings. Here x=6. ∴ (6−2)3 =64 Incorrect Answer: D) 64 Explanation: We know that Cubes with no surface painted can be find using (x−2)3 , where x is number of cuttings. Here x=6. ∴ (6−2)3 =64

#### 29. Question

A cube is painted blue on two adjacent surfaces and black on the surfaces opposite to blue surfaces and green on the remaining faces .Now the cube is cut into 216 smaller cubes of equal size.

Answer: D) 64

Explanation:

We know that Cubes with no surface painted can be find using (x−2)3

, where x is number of cuttings. Here x=6.

∴ (6−2)3 =64

Answer: D) 64

Explanation:

We know that Cubes with no surface painted can be find using (x−2)3

, where x is number of cuttings. Here x=6.

∴ (6−2)3 =64

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points Choose the box that is similar to the box formed from the given sheet of paper (X). a) 1 and 3 only b) 1 and 4 only c) 2 and 4 only d) 3 and 4 only Correct Answer: Option A) 1 and 3 only Explanation: The fig. (X) is similar to Form II. So, when the sheet shown in fig. (X) is folded to form a cube then the two half-shaded faces lie opposite to each other, the face bearing a circle lies opposite to one of the two blank faces and the two remaining blank faces lie opposite to each other. Therefore, the cubes shown in fig. (4) which has the two half-shaded faces adjacent to each other, cannot be formed by folding the sheet shown in fig. (X). Also, the cube shown in fig. (2) has the face bearing a circle adjacent to two blank faces. This is not possible since there is one blank face opposite to the circle and one blank face opposite to the third blank face. Hence, only the cubes in figures (1) and (3) can be formed. Incorrect Answer: Option A) 1 and 3 only Explanation: The fig. (X) is similar to Form II. So, when the sheet shown in fig. (X) is folded to form a cube then the two half-shaded faces lie opposite to each other, the face bearing a circle lies opposite to one of the two blank faces and the two remaining blank faces lie opposite to each other. Therefore, the cubes shown in fig. (4) which has the two half-shaded faces adjacent to each other, cannot be formed by folding the sheet shown in fig. (X). Also, the cube shown in fig. (2) has the face bearing a circle adjacent to two blank faces. This is not possible since there is one blank face opposite to the circle and one blank face opposite to the third blank face. Hence, only the cubes in figures (1) and (3) can be formed.

#### 30. Question

Choose the box that is similar to the box formed from the given sheet of paper (X).

• a) 1 and 3 only

• b) 1 and 4 only

• c) 2 and 4 only

• d) 3 and 4 only

Answer: Option A) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

The fig. (X) is similar to Form II. So, when the sheet shown in fig. (X) is folded to form a cube then the two half-shaded faces lie opposite to each other, the face bearing a circle lies opposite to one of the two blank faces and the two remaining blank faces lie opposite to each other. Therefore, the cubes shown in fig. (4) which has the two half-shaded faces adjacent to each other, cannot be formed by folding the sheet shown in fig. (X). Also, the cube shown in fig. (2) has the face bearing a circle adjacent to two blank faces. This is not possible since there is one blank face opposite to the circle and one blank face opposite to the third blank face. Hence, only the cubes in figures (1) and (3) can be formed.