DAY – 47 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – ECONOMY, Subject-wise Test 33, and July 2023 CA

INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024

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Read about Insights IAS INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Prelims – 2024 [ HERE ] :

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Golconda Fort: The fort is considered to have been built by the Kakatiyas in the 13th century CE. The fort was protected by Musunuri Nayaks, a warrior clan of South India. The fort was made up of mud which was converted into a structure of granite by Mughals. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: The Golconda Fort, situated in the state of Telangana, encapsulates a veritable treasure of history, art and architectural excellence. It has stood witness to centuries of political events which shaped the history of the region. Statement 1 is correct: The Golconda fort is believed to have been built by the Kakatiyas in the 13th century CE. The structure was reinforced by Pratapa Rudra (r. 1289-1323), one of the most prominent Kakatiya rulers and the last king of the dynasty. Statement 2 is correct: In the 14th century CE, the fort passed into the hands of the Musunuri Nayaks, a warrior clan of South India. The Musunuri Nayaks ceded the fort to the Bahmanis, as a part of a treaty in 1364 CE. Statement 3 is not correct: After the fall of the Bahmanis, the Qutb Shahis of Deccan assumed control of the fort in the 16th century CE. It is under them that the mud fort was converted into a massive structure of granite. The Qutb Shahis made Golconda into an important seat of power. Towards the end of the 17th century CE, the fort was captured by Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb who is said to have ravaged the structure considerably in the course of the invasion. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: The Golconda Fort, situated in the state of Telangana, encapsulates a veritable treasure of history, art and architectural excellence. It has stood witness to centuries of political events which shaped the history of the region. Statement 1 is correct: The Golconda fort is believed to have been built by the Kakatiyas in the 13th century CE. The structure was reinforced by Pratapa Rudra (r. 1289-1323), one of the most prominent Kakatiya rulers and the last king of the dynasty. Statement 2 is correct: In the 14th century CE, the fort passed into the hands of the Musunuri Nayaks, a warrior clan of South India. The Musunuri Nayaks ceded the fort to the Bahmanis, as a part of a treaty in 1364 CE. Statement 3 is not correct: After the fall of the Bahmanis, the Qutb Shahis of Deccan assumed control of the fort in the 16th century CE. It is under them that the mud fort was converted into a massive structure of granite. The Qutb Shahis made Golconda into an important seat of power. Towards the end of the 17th century CE, the fort was captured by Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb who is said to have ravaged the structure considerably in the course of the invasion.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Golconda Fort:

• The fort is considered to have been built by the Kakatiyas in the 13th century CE.

• The fort was protected by Musunuri Nayaks, a warrior clan of South India.

• The fort was made up of mud which was converted into a structure of granite by Mughals.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

The Golconda Fort, situated in the state of Telangana, encapsulates a veritable treasure of history, art and architectural excellence. It has stood witness to centuries of political events which shaped the history of the region.

Statement 1 is correct: The Golconda fort is believed to have been built by the Kakatiyas in the 13th century CE. The structure was reinforced by Pratapa Rudra (r. 1289-1323), one of the most prominent Kakatiya rulers and the last king of the dynasty.

Statement 2 is correct: In the 14th century CE, the fort passed into the hands of the Musunuri Nayaks, a warrior clan of South India. The Musunuri Nayaks ceded the fort to the Bahmanis, as a part of a treaty in 1364 CE.

Statement 3 is not correct: After the fall of the Bahmanis, the Qutb Shahis of Deccan assumed control of the fort in the 16th century CE. It is under them that the mud fort was converted into a massive structure of granite.

The Qutb Shahis made Golconda into an important seat of power. Towards the end of the 17th century CE, the fort was captured by Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb who is said to have ravaged the structure considerably in the course of the invasion.

Answer: B

Explanation:

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the term “KAVACH”: It has been developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation. It is a state-of-the-art electronic system with Safety Integrity Level-4 standards. It prevents the collision between locomotives equipped with Kavach systems. How many of the statements given above is/are *not correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: The KAVACH is an indigenously developed Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system by the Research Design and Standards Organisation (RDSO) in collaboration with the Indian industry. Statement 2 is correct: The trials were facilitated by the South Central Railway to achieve safety in train operations across Indian Railways. It is a state-of-the-art electronic system with Safety Integrity Level-4 (SIL-4) standards. It is meant to provide protection by preventing trains to pass the signal at Red (which marks danger) and avoid collision. It activates the train’s braking system automatically if the driver fails to control the train as per speed restrictions. Statement 3 is correct: It prevents the collision between two locomotives equipped with functional Kavach systems. The system also relays SoS messages during emergency situations. An added feature is the centralised live monitoring of train movements through the Network Monitor System. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: The KAVACH is an indigenously developed Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system by the Research Design and Standards Organisation (RDSO) in collaboration with the Indian industry. Statement 2 is correct: The trials were facilitated by the South Central Railway to achieve safety in train operations across Indian Railways. It is a state-of-the-art electronic system with Safety Integrity Level-4 (SIL-4) standards. It is meant to provide protection by preventing trains to pass the signal at Red (which marks danger) and avoid collision. It activates the train’s braking system automatically if the driver fails to control the train as per speed restrictions. Statement 3 is correct*: It prevents the collision between two locomotives equipped with functional Kavach systems. The system also relays SoS messages during emergency situations. An added feature is the centralised live monitoring of train movements through the Network Monitor System.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the term “KAVACH”:

• It has been developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation.

• It is a state-of-the-art electronic system with Safety Integrity Level-4 standards.

• It prevents the collision between locomotives equipped with Kavach systems.

How many of the statements given above is/are *not* correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: The KAVACH is an indigenously developed Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system by the Research Design and Standards Organisation (RDSO) in collaboration with the Indian industry.

Statement 2 is correct: The trials were facilitated by the South Central Railway to achieve safety in train operations across Indian Railways. It is a state-of-the-art electronic system with Safety Integrity Level-4 (SIL-4) standards.

It is meant to provide protection by preventing trains to pass the signal at Red (which marks danger) and avoid collision.

It activates the train’s braking system automatically if the driver fails to control the train as per speed restrictions.

Statement 3 is correct: It prevents the collision between two locomotives equipped with functional Kavach systems.

The system also relays SoS messages during emergency situations. An added feature is the centralised live monitoring of train movements through the Network Monitor System.

Answer: A

Explanation:

It is meant to provide protection by preventing trains to pass the signal at Red (which marks danger) and avoid collision.

It activates the train’s braking system automatically if the driver fails to control the train as per speed restrictions.

Statement 3 is correct: It prevents the collision between two locomotives equipped with functional Kavach systems.

The system also relays SoS messages during emergency situations. An added feature is the centralised live monitoring of train movements through the Network Monitor System.

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The beginning point of the Northern Sea Route is located in Murmansk called the capital of the Arctic region. The Northern Sea Route is the shortest freight shipping route between Europe and the Asia-Pacific region. The Northern Sea Route begins between the Barents and the Kara Seas and ends in the Bering Strait. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Murmansk, popularly called the capital of the Arctic region and the beginning point of the Northern Sea Route (NSR), is witnessing the rising trend of Indian involvement in cargo traffic. Statement 2 is correct: The Northern Sea Route (NSR), the shortest shipping route for freight transportation between Europe and countries of the Asia-Pacific region, straddles four seas of the Arctic Ocean. Statement 3 is correct: Running to 5,600 km, the Route begins at the boundary between the Barents and the Kara seas (Kara Strait) and ends in the Bering Strait (Provideniya Bay). Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Murmansk, popularly called the capital of the Arctic region and the beginning point of the Northern Sea Route (NSR), is witnessing the rising trend of Indian involvement in cargo traffic. Statement 2 is correct: The Northern Sea Route (NSR), the shortest shipping route for freight transportation between Europe and countries of the Asia-Pacific region, straddles four seas of the Arctic Ocean. Statement 3 is correct: Running to 5,600 km, the Route begins at the boundary between the Barents and the Kara seas (Kara Strait) and ends in the Bering Strait (Provideniya Bay).

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The beginning point of the Northern Sea Route is located in Murmansk called the capital of the Arctic region.

• The Northern Sea Route is the shortest freight shipping route between Europe and the Asia-Pacific region.

• The Northern Sea Route begins between the Barents and the Kara Seas and ends in the Bering Strait.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Murmansk, popularly called the capital of the Arctic region and the beginning point of the Northern Sea Route (NSR), is witnessing the rising trend of Indian involvement in cargo traffic.

Statement 2 is correct: The Northern Sea Route (NSR), the shortest shipping route for freight transportation between Europe and countries of the Asia-Pacific region, straddles four seas of the Arctic Ocean.

Statement 3 is correct: Running to 5,600 km, the Route begins at the boundary between the Barents and the Kara seas (Kara Strait) and ends in the Bering Strait (Provideniya Bay).

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 3 is correct: Running to 5,600 km, the Route begins at the boundary between the Barents and the Kara seas (Kara Strait) and ends in the Bering Strait (Provideniya Bay).

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Which one of the following statements best describes the objective of the MISHTI Scheme? (a) It aims at the conservation of lake ecology and biodiversity by reducing single-use plastics. (b) It is a central Sector scheme to impart formal education about Eco-club activities at school levels. (c) It aims to develop green skilled youths with knowledge about environmental sustainability. (d) It is an Initiative to comprehensively explore the possible area for the development of Mangroves. Correct Answer: D Explanation: Option (d) is correct: Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats & Tangible Incomes (MISHTI)) envisage to comprehensively explore the possible area for development of Mangroves covering approximately 540 Sq. Kms. spreading across 11 States and 2 Union Territories during five years. The sharing of best practices on plantation techniques, conservation measures, management practices and resources mobilization through Public Private Partnership are objectives of the MISHTI scheme. Incorrect Answer: D Explanation: Option (d) is correct: Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats & Tangible Incomes (MISHTI)) envisage to comprehensively explore the possible area for development of Mangroves covering approximately 540 Sq. Kms. spreading across 11 States and 2 Union Territories during five years. The sharing of best practices on plantation techniques, conservation measures, management practices and resources mobilization through Public Private Partnership are objectives of the MISHTI scheme.

#### 4. Question

Which one of the following statements best describes the objective of the MISHTI Scheme?

• (a) It aims at the conservation of lake ecology and biodiversity by reducing single-use plastics.

• (b) It is a central Sector scheme to impart formal education about Eco-club activities at school levels.

• (c) It aims to develop green skilled youths with knowledge about environmental sustainability.

• (d) It is an Initiative to comprehensively explore the possible area for the development of Mangroves.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Option (d) is correct: Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats & Tangible Incomes (MISHTI)) envisage to comprehensively explore the possible area for development of Mangroves covering approximately 540 Sq. Kms. spreading across 11 States and 2 Union Territories during five years.

The sharing of best practices on plantation techniques, conservation measures, management practices and resources mobilization through Public Private Partnership are objectives of the MISHTI scheme.

Answer: D

Explanation:

The sharing of best practices on plantation techniques, conservation measures, management practices and resources mobilization through Public Private Partnership are objectives of the MISHTI scheme.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Pine trees: These species can be found only in the northern temperate regions. They shed their older needles but maintain their foliage year-round. Some of these species require fire to maintain a steady population growth. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: Pine trees (genus Pinus) are evergreen, conifers (they produce cones that encase reproduction seeds) and can be found throughout the world, but they are native to northern temperate regions. There are a large variety of pines that can survive in extreme weather (deserts, rainforests) and it is unlikely you will see pines south of the equator that are native. Although they can survive in these environments, they prefer a mountainous region with fairly steady rainfall and favorable soils. Statement 2 is correct: Pine trees shed their older needles in the fall season but maintain some foliage year-round. Statement 3 is correct: Some pine species require fire to maintain a steady population growth. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: Pine trees (genus Pinus) are evergreen, conifers (they produce cones that encase reproduction seeds) and can be found throughout the world, but they are native to northern temperate regions. There are a large variety of pines that can survive in extreme weather (deserts, rainforests) and it is unlikely you will see pines south of the equator that are native. Although they can survive in these environments, they prefer a mountainous region with fairly steady rainfall and favorable soils. Statement 2 is correct: Pine trees shed their older needles in the fall season but maintain some foliage year-round. Statement 3 is correct: Some pine species require fire to maintain a steady population growth.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Pine trees:

• These species can be found only in the northern temperate regions.

• They shed their older needles but maintain their foliage year-round.

• Some of these species require fire to maintain a steady population growth.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: Pine trees (genus Pinus) are evergreen, conifers (they produce cones that encase reproduction seeds) and can be found throughout the world, but they are native to northern temperate regions.

There are a large variety of pines that can survive in extreme weather (deserts, rainforests) and it is unlikely you will see pines south of the equator that are native.

Although they can survive in these environments, they prefer a mountainous region with fairly steady rainfall and favorable soils.

Statement 2 is correct: Pine trees shed their older needles in the fall season but maintain some foliage year-round.

Statement 3 is correct: Some pine species require fire to maintain a steady population growth.

Answer: B

Explanation:

There are a large variety of pines that can survive in extreme weather (deserts, rainforests) and it is unlikely you will see pines south of the equator that are native.

Although they can survive in these environments, they prefer a mountainous region with fairly steady rainfall and favorable soils.

Statement 2 is correct: Pine trees shed their older needles in the fall season but maintain some foliage year-round.

Statement 3 is correct: Some pine species require fire to maintain a steady population growth.

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Non-sugar sweeteners are essentially the no-calorie alternatives to free sugars which aid in controlling blood glucose in individuals with diabetes. Non-sugar sweeteners categories studied by the World Health Organisation (WHO) include aspartame, cyclamates, and stevia. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: A Explanation: The World Health Organization (WHO) issued new guidelines on May 15 advising against the use of non-sugar sweeteners (NSS) like aspartame, saccharin, stevia and other derivatives as a “healthy” alternative to sugar. In what WHO has called a ‘conditional’ guideline, it has suggested that non-sugar sweeteners should not be used as a means of achieving weight control or reducing risk of diet-related non-communicable diseases. Statement 1 is correct: Non-sugar sweeteners (NSS) are marketed as low or no-calorie alternatives to free sugars which aid in weight loss, and in controlling blood glucose in individuals with diabetes. Statement 2 is correct: NSS categories studied by WHO include acesulfame K, aspartame, advantame, cyclamates, neotame, saccharin, sucralose, stevia, and stevia derivatives. Aspartame is popularly used to sweeten diet colas that claim to have ‘no sugar, no calories.’ Saccharin is used, for instance, to sweeten tea or coffee. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: The World Health Organization (WHO) issued new guidelines on May 15 advising against the use of non-sugar sweeteners (NSS) like aspartame, saccharin, stevia and other derivatives as a “healthy” alternative to sugar. In what WHO has called a ‘conditional’ guideline, it has suggested that non-sugar sweeteners should not be used as a means of achieving weight control or reducing risk of diet-related non-communicable diseases. Statement 1 is correct: Non-sugar sweeteners (NSS) are marketed as low or no-calorie alternatives to free sugars which aid in weight loss, and in controlling blood glucose in individuals with diabetes. Statement 2 is correct: NSS categories studied by WHO include acesulfame K, aspartame, advantame, cyclamates, neotame, saccharin, sucralose, stevia, and stevia derivatives. Aspartame is popularly used to sweeten diet colas that claim to have ‘no sugar, no calories.’ Saccharin is used, for instance, to sweeten tea or coffee.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Non-sugar sweeteners are essentially the no-calorie alternatives to free sugars which aid in controlling blood glucose in individuals with diabetes.

• Non-sugar sweeteners categories studied by the World Health Organisation (WHO) include aspartame, cyclamates, and stevia.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Explanation:

The World Health Organization (WHO) issued new guidelines on May 15 advising against the use of non-sugar sweeteners (NSS) like aspartame, saccharin, stevia and other derivatives as a “healthy” alternative to sugar.

In what WHO has called a ‘conditional’ guideline, it has suggested that non-sugar sweeteners should not be used as a means of achieving weight control or reducing risk of diet-related non-communicable diseases.

Statement 1 is correct: Non-sugar sweeteners (NSS) are marketed as low or no-calorie alternatives to free sugars which aid in weight loss, and in controlling blood glucose in individuals with diabetes.

Statement 2 is correct: NSS categories studied by WHO include acesulfame K, aspartame, advantame, cyclamates, neotame, saccharin, sucralose, stevia, and stevia derivatives.

Aspartame is popularly used to sweeten diet colas that claim to have ‘no sugar, no calories.’ Saccharin is used, for instance, to sweeten tea or coffee.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 2 is correct: NSS categories studied by WHO include acesulfame K, aspartame, advantame, cyclamates, neotame, saccharin, sucralose, stevia, and stevia derivatives.

Aspartame is popularly used to sweeten diet colas that claim to have ‘no sugar, no calories.’ Saccharin is used, for instance, to sweeten tea or coffee.

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: India is the largest producer of steel and steel slag in the world. Steel slag roads have lesser maintenance costs than bitumen roads. The erosive saline marine environment cannot support steel slag roads. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: India is the world’s second largest steel producer. For per ton of steel production around 200 kg Steel slag is generated as solid waste. Statement 2 is correct: Steel slag roads have been found to last ten years as compared to three to four years for bitumen roads, thus bringing down sharply the maintenance costs. Statement 3 is not correct: The steel slag road top has been found to weather the erosive saline marine environment while in the cold, snowy and torrential rain prone toughest Himalayan terrain, the steel slag roads have been found to last longer. Slag is made up of impurities melted out of the ore during the steel-making process in most of the Steel Plants. Steel slag can also be produced by smelting iron ore in a basic oxygen furnace. According to methods for cooling molten steel slag, steel slag is classified into five types: natural air-cooling steel slag, water-spray steel slag, water-quenching steel slag, air-quenching steel slag, and shallow box chilling steel slag. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: India is the world’s second largest steel producer. For per ton of steel production around 200 kg Steel slag is generated as solid waste. Statement 2 is correct: Steel slag roads have been found to last ten years as compared to three to four years for bitumen roads, thus bringing down sharply the maintenance costs. Statement 3 is not correct: The steel slag road top has been found to weather the erosive saline marine environment while in the cold, snowy and torrential rain prone toughest Himalayan terrain, the steel slag roads have been found to last longer. Slag is made up of impurities melted out of the ore during the steel-making process in most of the Steel Plants. Steel slag can also be produced by smelting iron ore in a basic oxygen furnace. According to methods for cooling molten steel slag, steel slag is classified into five types: natural air-cooling steel slag, water-spray steel slag, water-quenching steel slag, air-quenching steel slag, and shallow box chilling steel slag.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements:

• India is the largest producer of steel and steel slag in the world.

• Steel slag roads have lesser maintenance costs than bitumen roads.

• The erosive saline marine environment cannot support steel slag roads.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: India is the world’s second largest steel producer. For per ton of steel production around 200 kg Steel slag is generated as solid waste.

Statement 2 is correct: Steel slag roads have been found to last ten years as compared to three to four years for bitumen roads, thus bringing down sharply the maintenance costs.

Statement 3 is not correct: The steel slag road top has been found to weather the erosive saline marine environment while in the cold, snowy and torrential rain prone toughest Himalayan terrain, the steel slag roads have been found to last longer.

Slag is made up of impurities melted out of the ore during the steel-making process in most of the Steel Plants.

Steel slag can also be produced by smelting iron ore in a basic oxygen furnace. According to methods for cooling molten steel slag, steel slag is classified into five types: natural air-cooling steel slag, water-spray steel slag, water-quenching steel slag, air-quenching steel slag, and shallow box chilling steel slag.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: India is the world’s second largest steel producer. For per ton of steel production around 200 kg Steel slag is generated as solid waste.

Statement 2 is correct: Steel slag roads have been found to last ten years as compared to three to four years for bitumen roads, thus bringing down sharply the maintenance costs.

Slag is made up of impurities melted out of the ore during the steel-making process in most of the Steel Plants.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Mangroves: These trees grow where slow-moving waters allow fine sediments to accumulate. They extract more carbon than forests on land by incorporating it into their leaves. They absorb the impact of waves making them an excellent front line of defence. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: There are about 80 different species of mangrove trees. All of these trees grow in areas with low-oxygen soil, where slow-moving waters allow fine sediments to accumulate. Mangrove forests only grow at tropical and subtropical latitudes near the equator because they cannot withstand freezing temperatures. Mangrove forests stabilize the coastline, reducing erosion from storm surges, currents, waves, and tides. The intricate root system of mangroves also makes these forests attractive to fish and other organisms seeking food and shelter from predators. Statement 2 is correct: They extract up to five times more carbon than forests on land, incorporating it in their leaves, branches, roots and the sediments beneath them. Their tangle of roots allows the trees to handle the daily rise and fall of tides, which means that most mangroves get flooded at least twice per day. The roots also slow the movement of tidal waters, causing sediments to settle out of the water and build up the muddy bottom. Statement 3 is correct: Trunks of mangroves absorb the impact of waves, making them an excellent front line of defence that helps to protect higher ground. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: There are about 80 different species of mangrove trees. All of these trees grow in areas with low-oxygen soil, where slow-moving waters allow fine sediments to accumulate. Mangrove forests only grow at tropical and subtropical latitudes near the equator because they cannot withstand freezing temperatures. Mangrove forests stabilize the coastline, reducing erosion from storm surges, currents, waves, and tides. The intricate root system of mangroves also makes these forests attractive to fish and other organisms seeking food and shelter from predators. Statement 2 is correct: They extract up to five times more carbon than forests on land, incorporating it in their leaves, branches, roots and the sediments beneath them. Their tangle of roots allows the trees to handle the daily rise and fall of tides, which means that most mangroves get flooded at least twice per day. The roots also slow the movement of tidal waters, causing sediments to settle out of the water and build up the muddy bottom. Statement 3 is correct: Trunks of mangroves absorb the impact of waves, making them an excellent front line of defence that helps to protect higher ground.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Mangroves:

• These trees grow where slow-moving waters allow fine sediments to accumulate.

• They extract more carbon than forests on land by incorporating it into their leaves.

• They absorb the impact of waves making them an excellent front line of defence.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: There are about 80 different species of mangrove trees. All of these trees grow in areas with low-oxygen soil, where slow-moving waters allow fine sediments to accumulate. Mangrove forests only grow at tropical and subtropical latitudes near the equator because they cannot withstand freezing temperatures.

Mangrove forests stabilize the coastline, reducing erosion from storm surges, currents, waves, and tides.

The intricate root system of mangroves also makes these forests attractive to fish and other organisms seeking food and shelter from predators.

Statement 2 is correct: They extract up to five times more carbon than forests on land, incorporating it in their leaves, branches, roots and the sediments beneath them.

Their tangle of roots allows the trees to handle the daily rise and fall of tides, which means that most mangroves get flooded at least twice per day.

The roots also slow the movement of tidal waters, causing sediments to settle out of the water and build up the muddy bottom.

Statement 3 is correct: Trunks of mangroves absorb the impact of waves, making them an excellent front line of defence that helps to protect higher ground.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Mangrove forests stabilize the coastline, reducing erosion from storm surges, currents, waves, and tides.

The intricate root system of mangroves also makes these forests attractive to fish and other organisms seeking food and shelter from predators.

Statement 2 is correct: They extract up to five times more carbon than forests on land, incorporating it in their leaves, branches, roots and the sediments beneath them.

Their tangle of roots allows the trees to handle the daily rise and fall of tides, which means that most mangroves get flooded at least twice per day.

The roots also slow the movement of tidal waters, causing sediments to settle out of the water and build up the muddy bottom.

Statement 3 is correct: Trunks of mangroves absorb the impact of waves, making them an excellent front line of defence that helps to protect higher ground.

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Which one of the following countries is *not among the founding members of the Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)? (a) Kuwait (b) Venezuela (c) Saudi Arabia (d) The United Arab Emirates Correct Answer: D Explanation: Option (d) is correct: Founded in 1960, the Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) initially comprised of Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia and Venezuela as its founding members to ‘unify and co-ordinate its member nations’ petroleum policies in order to secure regular supply of petroleum to consumers and a fair return to investors’. Countries like Qatar, Indonesia, Libya, the United Arab Emirates (UAE), Algeria (1969), Nigeria, Ecuador, Gabon, Angola, Equatorial Guinea and Congo later joined the group. However, Ecuador, Indonesia and Qatar suspended their membership in 2020, 2016 and 2019 respectively – reducing the strength to thirteen countries currently. Incorrect Answer: D Explanation: Option (d) is correct:* Founded in 1960, the Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) initially comprised of Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia and Venezuela as its founding members to ‘unify and co-ordinate its member nations’ petroleum policies in order to secure regular supply of petroleum to consumers and a fair return to investors’. Countries like Qatar, Indonesia, Libya, the United Arab Emirates (UAE), Algeria (1969), Nigeria, Ecuador, Gabon, Angola, Equatorial Guinea and Congo later joined the group. However, Ecuador, Indonesia and Qatar suspended their membership in 2020, 2016 and 2019 respectively – reducing the strength to thirteen countries currently.

#### 9. Question

Which one of the following countries is *not* among the founding members of the Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)?

• (a) Kuwait

• (b) Venezuela

• (c) Saudi Arabia

• (d) The United Arab Emirates

Answer: D

Explanation:

Option (d) is correct: Founded in 1960, the Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) initially comprised of Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia and Venezuela as its founding members to ‘unify and co-ordinate its member nations’ petroleum policies in order to secure regular supply of petroleum to consumers and a fair return to investors’.

Countries like Qatar, Indonesia, Libya, the United Arab Emirates (UAE), Algeria (1969), Nigeria, Ecuador, Gabon, Angola, Equatorial Guinea and Congo later joined the group. However, Ecuador, Indonesia and Qatar suspended their membership in 2020, 2016 and 2019 respectively – reducing the strength to thirteen countries currently.

Answer: D

Explanation:

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Magnetite: It is the most abundant magnetic mineral in terrestrial rocks of igneous origin. In sediments, it can be associated with detrital or biogenic origin. It can form the basis of a magnetic-field receptor in migratory animals. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None of the above Correct Answer: C Explanation: Magnetite is the oldest magnetic mineral known to man. Statement 1 is correct: Being the most abundant magnetic mineral in terrestrial rocks of igneous and metamorphic origin, magnetite has helped paleomagnetists to reconstruct the ancient geomagnetic field from rocks, and with it, the past positions of the continents on the globe. As an ore, magnetite is economically valuable, containing 72 wt% of iron. Statement 2 is correct: In sediments, magnetite may be of detrital (inorganic) or biogenic origin. Magnetic bacteria, algae, and some higher organisms such as molluscs have been shown to synthesize magnetite of high chemical purity, although the biochemical pathways of biogenic magnetite formation remain to be elucidated. Statement 3 is correct: Magnetite may form the basis of a magnetic-field receptor in homing pigeons and migratory animals. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Magnetite is the oldest magnetic mineral known to man. Statement 1 is correct: Being the most abundant magnetic mineral in terrestrial rocks of igneous and metamorphic origin, magnetite has helped paleomagnetists to reconstruct the ancient geomagnetic field from rocks, and with it, the past positions of the continents on the globe. As an ore, magnetite is economically valuable, containing 72 wt% of iron. Statement 2 is correct: In sediments, magnetite may be of detrital (inorganic) or biogenic origin. Magnetic bacteria, algae, and some higher organisms such as molluscs have been shown to synthesize magnetite of high chemical purity, although the biochemical pathways of biogenic magnetite formation remain to be elucidated. Statement 3 is correct: Magnetite may form the basis of a magnetic-field receptor in homing pigeons and migratory animals.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Magnetite:

• It is the most abundant magnetic mineral in terrestrial rocks of igneous origin.

• In sediments, it can be associated with detrital or biogenic origin.

• It can form the basis of a magnetic-field receptor in migratory animals.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3

• (d) None of the above

Answer: C

Explanation:

Magnetite is the oldest magnetic mineral known to man.

Statement 1 is correct: Being the most abundant magnetic mineral in terrestrial rocks of igneous and metamorphic origin, magnetite has helped paleomagnetists to reconstruct the ancient geomagnetic field from rocks, and with it, the past positions of the continents on the globe.

As an ore, magnetite is economically valuable, containing 72 wt% of iron.

Statement 2 is correct: In sediments, magnetite may be of detrital (inorganic) or biogenic origin. Magnetic bacteria, algae, and some higher organisms such as molluscs have been shown to synthesize magnetite of high chemical purity, although the biochemical pathways of biogenic magnetite formation remain to be elucidated.

Statement 3 is correct: Magnetite may form the basis of a magnetic-field receptor in homing pigeons and migratory animals.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Magnetite is the oldest magnetic mineral known to man.

As an ore, magnetite is economically valuable, containing 72 wt% of iron.

Statement 3 is correct: Magnetite may form the basis of a magnetic-field receptor in homing pigeons and migratory animals.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Which of the following statements are true regarding the interim budget in India? The interim budget outlines major policy changes and comprehensive fiscal planning. The interim budget is typically presented during an election year, focusing primarily on essential government operations. An interim budget generally avoids major changes in tax structures and policy announcements to prevent influencing voters before elections. The interim budget is valid for the entire fiscal year but becomes obsolete once a full budget is presented by the new government. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 and 4 only b) 2 and 4 only c) 1,2 and 3 only d) 2,3 and 4 only Correct Answer: d Explanation: Interim budget is generally not used to outline major policy changes or comprehensive fiscal planning. Instead, it’s a temporary measure to maintain government operations until a full budget is presented. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. The interim budget is typically presented during an election year and focuses primarily on essential government operations. The interim budget, also known as ‘Vote on Account,’ is presented when elections are approaching, ensuring continuity of government operations until the new government is in place. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The interim budget generally avoids major changes in tax structures and policy announcements to avoid influencing voters before elections. The interim budget is typically a conservative measure, avoiding major policy shifts to maintain stability during the election period. Hence, statement 3 is correct. The interim budget is valid for the entire fiscal year but becomes obsolete once a full budget is presented by the new government. This is true. While technically the interim budget can cover the entire fiscal year, it is usually replaced by the full budget presented by the new government. Hence, statement 4 is correct. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: Interim budget is generally not used to outline major policy changes or comprehensive fiscal planning. Instead, it’s a temporary measure to maintain government operations until a full budget is presented. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. The interim budget is typically presented during an election year and focuses primarily on essential government operations. The interim budget, also known as ‘Vote on Account,’ is presented when elections are approaching, ensuring continuity of government operations until the new government is in place. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The interim budget generally avoids major changes in tax structures and policy announcements to avoid influencing voters before elections. The interim budget is typically a conservative measure, avoiding major policy shifts to maintain stability during the election period. Hence, statement 3 is correct. The interim budget is valid for the entire fiscal year but becomes obsolete once a full budget is presented by the new government. This is true. While technically the interim budget can cover the entire fiscal year, it is usually replaced by the full budget presented by the new government. Hence, statement 4 is correct. Hence, option (d) is correct. Shelf clouds are often associated with squall lines, and many times they are reported as funnel clouds, or rotation. Statement 1 is correct: A shelf cloud will usually be associated with a solid line of storms. The wind will come first with rain following behind it. It may appear to rotate on a horizontal axis. Statement 2 is not correct: Wall clouds rotate on a vertical axis, sometimes strongly. Statement 3 is correct: The wall cloud is much smaller and more compact than a shelf cloud and is usually under a rain free cloud base. Scud clouds are often mistakenly called wall clouds or funnel clouds. In reality, these are just rising clouds due to increased low level relative humidity. They will not rotate and will rise slowly.

#### 11. Question

Which of the following statements are true regarding the interim budget in India?

• The interim budget outlines major policy changes and comprehensive fiscal planning.

• The interim budget is typically presented during an election year, focusing primarily on essential government operations.

• An interim budget generally avoids major changes in tax structures and policy announcements to prevent influencing voters before elections.

• The interim budget is valid for the entire fiscal year but becomes obsolete once a full budget is presented by the new government.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• a) 1 and 4 only

• b) 2 and 4 only

• c) 1,2 and 3 only

• d) 2,3 and 4 only

Explanation:

• Interim budget is generally not used to outline major policy changes or comprehensive fiscal planning. Instead, it’s a temporary measure to maintain government operations until a full budget is presented. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• The interim budget is typically presented during an election year and focuses primarily on essential government operations. The interim budget, also known as ‘Vote on Account,’ is presented when elections are approaching, ensuring continuity of government operations until the new government is in place. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• The interim budget generally avoids major changes in tax structures and policy announcements to avoid influencing voters before elections. The interim budget is typically a conservative measure, avoiding major policy shifts to maintain stability during the election period. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• The interim budget is valid for the entire fiscal year but becomes obsolete once a full budget is presented by the new government. This is true. While technically the interim budget can cover the entire fiscal year, it is usually replaced by the full budget presented by the new government. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Shelf clouds are often associated with squall lines, and many times they are reported as funnel clouds, or rotation.

Statement 1 is correct: A shelf cloud will usually be associated with a solid line of storms. The wind will come first with rain following behind it. It may appear to rotate on a horizontal axis.

Statement 2 is not correct: Wall clouds rotate on a vertical axis, sometimes strongly.

Statement 3 is correct: The wall cloud is much smaller and more compact than a shelf cloud and is usually under a rain free cloud base.

Scud clouds are often mistakenly called wall clouds or funnel clouds. In reality, these are just rising clouds due to increased low level relative humidity. They will not rotate and will rise slowly.

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points The Receipts Budget in India’s budgeting process primarily provides which of the following? a) Trend analysis of revenue receipts and capital receipts, and details of external assistance. b) A summary of receipts and disbursements, including allocations for plan outlays by sectors. c) An analysis of the Finance Bill and its implications on taxation. d) A detailed plan for the financial year, including major policy announcements and new schemes. Correct Answer: a Explanation: The Receipts Budget in India’s budgeting process is a document that provides detailed information about the government’s expected revenues, covering various types of receipts and their analysis. Trend analysis of revenue receipts and capital receipts, and details of external assistance. The Receipts Budget primarily analyzes and explains the various sources of government revenue, including trends over time. A summary of receipts and disbursements, including allocations for plan outlays by sectors. This aligns more with the content of the Budget at a Glance document, which provides a broader summary of receipts and expenditures, but is less focused on the specific analysis of revenue trends. This description doesn’t accurately reflect the primary purpose of the Receipts Budget. An analysis of the Finance Bill and its implications on taxation. This is typically found in the Memorandum explaining the Finance Bill, which accompanies the Finance Bill, detailing taxation changes and their implications. The Receipts Budget doesn’t focus on the Finance Bill’s analysis. A detailed plan for the financial year, including major policy announcements and new schemes. This description suits the Annual Financial Statement or the Union Budget as they provide comprehensive financial planning, but the Receipts Budget does not primarily focus on policy announcements or new schemes. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: The Receipts Budget in India’s budgeting process is a document that provides detailed information about the government’s expected revenues, covering various types of receipts and their analysis. Trend analysis of revenue receipts and capital receipts, and details of external assistance. The Receipts Budget primarily analyzes and explains the various sources of government revenue, including trends over time. A summary of receipts and disbursements, including allocations for plan outlays by sectors. This aligns more with the content of the Budget at a Glance document, which provides a broader summary of receipts and expenditures, but is less focused on the specific analysis of revenue trends. This description doesn’t accurately reflect the primary purpose of the Receipts Budget. An analysis of the Finance Bill and its implications on taxation. This is typically found in the Memorandum explaining the Finance Bill, which accompanies the Finance Bill, detailing taxation changes and their implications. The Receipts Budget doesn’t focus on the Finance Bill’s analysis. A detailed plan for the financial year, including major policy announcements and new schemes. This description suits the Annual Financial Statement or the Union Budget as they provide comprehensive financial planning, but the Receipts Budget does not primarily focus on policy announcements or new schemes. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 12. Question

The Receipts Budget in India’s budgeting process primarily provides which of the following?

• a) Trend analysis of revenue receipts and capital receipts, and details of external assistance.

• b) A summary of receipts and disbursements, including allocations for plan outlays by sectors.

• c) An analysis of the Finance Bill and its implications on taxation.

• d) A detailed plan for the financial year, including major policy announcements and new schemes.

Explanation:

• The Receipts Budget in India’s budgeting process is a document that provides detailed information about the government’s expected revenues, covering various types of receipts and their analysis.

• Trend analysis of revenue receipts and capital receipts, and details of external assistance. The Receipts Budget primarily analyzes and explains the various sources of government revenue, including trends over time.

• A summary of receipts and disbursements, including allocations for plan outlays by sectors. This aligns more with the content of the Budget at a Glance document, which provides a broader summary of receipts and expenditures, but is less focused on the specific analysis of revenue trends. This description doesn’t accurately reflect the primary purpose of the Receipts Budget.

• An analysis of the Finance Bill and its implications on taxation. This is typically found in the Memorandum explaining the Finance Bill, which accompanies the Finance Bill, detailing taxation changes and their implications. The Receipts Budget doesn’t focus on the Finance Bill’s analysis.

• A detailed plan for the financial year, including major policy announcements and new schemes. This description suits the Annual Financial Statement or the Union Budget as they provide comprehensive financial planning, but the Receipts Budget does not primarily focus on policy announcements or new schemes.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points What is the role of the RBI Governor in the preparation of the Union Budget? a) The RBI Governor is responsible for drafting the budget with the Ministry of Finance. b) The RBI Governor provides a report on the fiscal position c) The RBI Governor reviews the budget after it is announced and suggests necessary changes. d) The RBI Governor has no role in the Union Budget preparation. Correct Answer: b Explanation: The RBI Governor provides a report on the fiscal position, assisting the Ministry of Finance in drafting the budget. The RBI Governor plays a supportive role in the budget preparation process by providing a report on the fiscal position. This report helps the Ministry of Finance in drafting the budget by providing insights into the macroeconomic conditions of the country. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: The RBI Governor provides a report on the fiscal position, assisting the Ministry of Finance in drafting the budget. The RBI Governor plays a supportive role in the budget preparation process by providing a report on the fiscal position. This report helps the Ministry of Finance in drafting the budget by providing insights into the macroeconomic conditions of the country. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 13. Question

What is the role of the RBI Governor in the preparation of the Union Budget?

• a) The RBI Governor is responsible for drafting the budget with the Ministry of Finance.

• b) The RBI Governor provides a report on the fiscal position

• c) The RBI Governor reviews the budget after it is announced and suggests necessary changes.

• d) The RBI Governor has no role in the Union Budget preparation.

Explanation:

• The RBI Governor provides a report on the fiscal position, assisting the Ministry of Finance in drafting the budget. The RBI Governor plays a supportive role in the budget preparation process by providing a report on the fiscal position. This report helps the Ministry of Finance in drafting the budget by providing insights into the macroeconomic conditions of the country.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points With reference to zero-based budgeting (ZBB), consider the following statements: ZBB requires justifying every expense from scratch during each budgeting cycle. ZBB is based on incremental adjustments from previous budgets ZBB aims to optimize resource allocation by aligning expenses with strategic objectives. ZBB eliminates the need for historical budgeting data. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: b Explanation: ZBB requires justifying every expense from scratch during each budgeting cycle. In zero-based budgeting, each expense must be justified from a “zero base,” without considering past spending. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Traditional budgeting typically relies on incremental adjustments from previous budgets, while ZBB requires building the budget from scratch, without reliance on historical budgeting. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. ZBB aims to optimize resource allocation by aligning expenses with strategic objectives. Zero-based budgeting seeks to ensure resources are allocated efficiently and in alignment with organizational goals and strategic objectives. Hence, statement 3 is correct. While ZBB requires justifying expenses from scratch, it doesn’t eliminate the value of historical data, which can be useful for comparison and reference during budget planning. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. Hence, option(b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: ZBB requires justifying every expense from scratch during each budgeting cycle. In zero-based budgeting, each expense must be justified from a “zero base,” without considering past spending. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Traditional budgeting typically relies on incremental adjustments from previous budgets, while ZBB requires building the budget from scratch, without reliance on historical budgeting. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. ZBB aims to optimize resource allocation by aligning expenses with strategic objectives. Zero-based budgeting seeks to ensure resources are allocated efficiently and in alignment with organizational goals and strategic objectives. Hence, statement 3 is correct. While ZBB requires justifying expenses from scratch, it doesn’t eliminate the value of historical data, which can be useful for comparison and reference during budget planning. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. Hence, option(b) is correct.

#### 14. Question

With reference to zero-based budgeting (ZBB), consider the following statements:

• ZBB requires justifying every expense from scratch during each budgeting cycle.

• ZBB is based on incremental adjustments from previous budgets

• ZBB aims to optimize resource allocation by aligning expenses with strategic objectives.

• ZBB eliminates the need for historical budgeting data.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

• ZBB requires justifying every expense from scratch during each budgeting cycle.

• In zero-based budgeting, each expense must be justified from a “zero base,” without considering past spending. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Traditional budgeting typically relies on incremental adjustments from previous budgets, while ZBB requires building the budget from scratch, without reliance on historical budgeting. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• ZBB aims to optimize resource allocation by aligning expenses with strategic objectives. Zero-based budgeting seeks to ensure resources are allocated efficiently and in alignment with organizational goals and strategic objectives. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• While ZBB requires justifying expenses from scratch, it doesn’t eliminate the value of historical data, which can be useful for comparison and reference during budget planning. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

• Hence, option(b) is correct.

Explanation:

• ZBB requires justifying every expense from scratch during each budgeting cycle.

• In zero-based budgeting, each expense must be justified from a “zero base,” without considering past spending. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Hence, option(b) is correct.

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points How did the relationship between the Performance Budget and Outcome Budget change in India from 2007-08 onwards? a) The Performance Budget was replaced by the Outcome Budget b) The Performance Budget was merged with the Outcome Budget. c) The Performance Budget became a subset of the Outcome Budget. d) The Outcome Budget became the preliminary stage of the Performance Budget. Correct Answer: b Explanation: In India, outcome budgeting was introduced in 2005 to improve the effectiveness and efficiency of government spending. The procedure typically involves the following steps: Preliminary Outcome Budget: Each ministry presents a preliminary outcome budget to the Finance Ministry, outlining the expected outcomes and objectives for the upcoming budgetary cycle. Compilation and Review: The Finance Ministry compiles these outcome budgets from various ministries and reviews them to ensure alignment with national priorities and strategic goals. Outcome Budget Publication: The final outcome budget is published, serving as a progress card on how various ministries and departments utilized the outlays in the previous annual budget. Monitoring and Evaluation: After the budget is implemented, performance is monitored to determine whether the intended outcomes have been achieved. This ongoing evaluation helps identify areas for improvement and informs future budgeting decisions. From 2007-08 onwards, in India, the Performance Budget was merged with the Outcome Budget. This implies that the information and reporting from the Performance Budget became part of the larger framework of the Outcome Budget, consolidating the performance metrics with the outcome-focused approach. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: In India, outcome budgeting was introduced in 2005 to improve the effectiveness and efficiency of government spending. The procedure typically involves the following steps: Preliminary Outcome Budget: Each ministry presents a preliminary outcome budget to the Finance Ministry, outlining the expected outcomes and objectives for the upcoming budgetary cycle. Compilation and Review: The Finance Ministry compiles these outcome budgets from various ministries and reviews them to ensure alignment with national priorities and strategic goals. Outcome Budget Publication: The final outcome budget is published, serving as a progress card on how various ministries and departments utilized the outlays in the previous annual budget. Monitoring and Evaluation: After the budget is implemented, performance is monitored to determine whether the intended outcomes have been achieved. This ongoing evaluation helps identify areas for improvement and informs future budgeting decisions. From 2007-08 onwards, in India, the Performance Budget was merged with the Outcome Budget. This implies that the information and reporting from the Performance Budget became part of the larger framework of the Outcome Budget, consolidating the performance metrics with the outcome-focused approach. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 15. Question

How did the relationship between the Performance Budget and Outcome Budget change in India from 2007-08 onwards?

• a) The Performance Budget was replaced by the Outcome Budget

• b) The Performance Budget was merged with the Outcome Budget.

• c) The Performance Budget became a subset of the Outcome Budget.

• d) The Outcome Budget became the preliminary stage of the Performance Budget.

Explanation:

• In India, outcome budgeting was introduced in 2005 to improve the effectiveness and efficiency of government spending. The procedure typically involves the following steps:

• Preliminary Outcome Budget: Each ministry presents a preliminary outcome budget to the Finance Ministry, outlining the expected outcomes and objectives for the upcoming budgetary cycle.

• Compilation and Review: The Finance Ministry compiles these outcome budgets from various ministries and reviews them to ensure alignment with national priorities and strategic goals.

• Outcome Budget Publication: The final outcome budget is published, serving as a progress card on how various ministries and departments utilized the outlays in the previous annual budget.

• Monitoring and Evaluation: After the budget is implemented, performance is monitored to determine whether the intended outcomes have been achieved. This ongoing evaluation helps identify areas for improvement and informs future budgeting decisions.

• From 2007-08 onwards, in India, the Performance Budget was merged with the Outcome Budget. This implies that the information and reporting from the Performance Budget became part of the larger framework of the Outcome Budget, consolidating the performance metrics with the outcome-focused approach.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• In India, outcome budgeting was introduced in 2005 to improve the effectiveness and efficiency of government spending. The procedure typically involves the following steps:

• Preliminary Outcome Budget: Each ministry presents a preliminary outcome budget to the Finance Ministry, outlining the expected outcomes and objectives for the upcoming budgetary cycle.

• Compilation and Review: The Finance Ministry compiles these outcome budgets from various ministries and reviews them to ensure alignment with national priorities and strategic goals.

• Outcome Budget Publication: The final outcome budget is published, serving as a progress card on how various ministries and departments utilized the outlays in the previous annual budget.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points What is the percentage increase in the capital expenditure outlay for 2024-25 compared to the previous year? a) 7.5% b) 9.2% c) 11.1% d) 13.4% Correct Answer: c Explanation: Capital Expenditure: An 11.1% increase in the capital expenditure outlay for 2024-2025 was announced. The capital expenditure is set at Rs 11,11,111 crore, constituting 3.4% of the GDP. Hence, option(c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Capital Expenditure: An 11.1% increase in the capital expenditure outlay for 2024-2025 was announced. The capital expenditure is set at Rs 11,11,111 crore, constituting 3.4% of the GDP. Hence, option(c) is correct.

#### 16. Question

What is the percentage increase in the capital expenditure outlay for 2024-25 compared to the previous year?

Explanation:

• Capital Expenditure: An 11.1% increase in the capital expenditure outlay for 2024-2025 was announced.

• The capital expenditure is set at Rs 11,11,111 crore, constituting 3.4% of the GDP.

• Hence, option(c) is correct.

Explanation:

• Capital Expenditure: An 11.1% increase in the capital expenditure outlay for 2024-2025 was announced.

• The capital expenditure is set at Rs 11,11,111 crore, constituting 3.4% of the GDP.

• Hence, option(c) is correct.

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following: Establishment of coal gasification and liquefaction capacity of 100 million tonnes by 2030. Introduction of offshore wind energy projects with an initial capacity of 1 GW. Rooftop solarisation, allowing 1 crore households to obtain up to 300 units of free electricity per month. How many of the above are announced to support clean energy development in the Interim Budget 2024-25? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: c Explanation: The Interim Budget 2024-25 announced the establishment of coal gasification and liquefaction capacity of 100 million tonnes by 2030. This initiative aims to harness coal in a more environmentally friendly manner, reducing carbon emissions. The budget also includes a plan to develop offshore wind energy projects, with an initial capacity of 1 gigawatt. This contributes to the diversification of energy sources and promotes renewable energy. Another initiative mentioned in the Interim Budget 2024-25 is rooftop solarisation. This aims to allow 1 crore households to obtain up to 300 units of free electricity per month, encouraging the use of solar energy at a household level. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: The Interim Budget 2024-25 announced the establishment of coal gasification and liquefaction capacity of 100 million tonnes by 2030. This initiative aims to harness coal in a more environmentally friendly manner, reducing carbon emissions. The budget also includes a plan to develop offshore wind energy projects, with an initial capacity of 1 gigawatt. This contributes to the diversification of energy sources and promotes renewable energy. Another initiative mentioned in the Interim Budget 2024-25 is rooftop solarisation. This aims to allow 1 crore households to obtain up to 300 units of free electricity per month, encouraging the use of solar energy at a household level. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 17. Question

Consider the following:

• Establishment of coal gasification and liquefaction capacity of 100 million tonnes by 2030.

• Introduction of offshore wind energy projects with an initial capacity of 1 GW.

• Rooftop solarisation, allowing 1 crore households to obtain up to 300 units of free electricity per month.

How many of the above are announced to support clean energy development in the Interim Budget 2024-25?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Explanation:

• The Interim Budget 2024-25 announced the establishment of coal gasification and liquefaction capacity of 100 million tonnes by 2030. This initiative aims to harness coal in a more environmentally friendly manner, reducing carbon emissions.

• The budget also includes a plan to develop offshore wind energy projects, with an initial capacity of 1 gigawatt. This contributes to the diversification of energy sources and promotes renewable energy.

• Another initiative mentioned in the Interim Budget 2024-25 is rooftop solarisation. This aims to allow 1 crore households to obtain up to 300 units of free electricity per month, encouraging the use of solar energy at a household level.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points The Interim Budget 2024-25 has extended certain tax benefits until March 2025. Which of the following entities benefit from these extended tax provisions? a) Sovereign wealth funds, pension funds, and select IFSC units. b) Central Public sector enterprises and state Public sector enterprises c) Non-profit organizations and charitable trusts d) Foreign investors and multinational corporations Correct Answer: a Explanation: The Interim Budget 2024-25 extends tax benefits to startups, promoting entrepreneurship and innovation in the economy. These benefits may include reduced corporate tax rates, exemptions, or other incentives designed to encourage startup growth. Sovereign Wealth Funds (SWFs) and Pension Funds: The tax benefits for SWFs and pension funds were extended to continue attracting large-scale investments. These funds often invest in infrastructure, long-term assets, or other government-approved sectors. IFSC Units: Certain International Financial Services Centre (IFSC) units also receive extended tax benefits, which help in maintaining India’s competitiveness in the global financial services sector. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: The Interim Budget 2024-25 extends tax benefits to startups, promoting entrepreneurship and innovation in the economy. These benefits may include reduced corporate tax rates, exemptions, or other incentives designed to encourage startup growth. Sovereign Wealth Funds (SWFs) and Pension Funds: The tax benefits for SWFs and pension funds were extended to continue attracting large-scale investments. These funds often invest in infrastructure, long-term assets, or other government-approved sectors. IFSC Units: Certain International Financial Services Centre (IFSC) units also receive extended tax benefits, which help in maintaining India’s competitiveness in the global financial services sector. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 18. Question

The Interim Budget 2024-25 has extended certain tax benefits until March 2025. Which of the following entities benefit from these extended tax provisions?

• a) Sovereign wealth funds, pension funds, and select IFSC units.

• b) Central Public sector enterprises and state Public sector enterprises

• c) Non-profit organizations and charitable trusts

• d) Foreign investors and multinational corporations

Explanation:

• The Interim Budget 2024-25 extends tax benefits to startups, promoting entrepreneurship and innovation in the economy. These benefits may include reduced corporate tax rates, exemptions, or other incentives designed to encourage startup growth.

• Sovereign Wealth Funds (SWFs) and Pension Funds: The tax benefits for SWFs and pension funds were extended to continue attracting large-scale investments. These funds often invest in infrastructure, long-term assets, or other government-approved sectors.

• IFSC Units: Certain International Financial Services Centre (IFSC) units also receive extended tax benefits, which help in maintaining India’s competitiveness in the global financial services sector.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points How does the Lakhpati Didi scheme support women in starting micro-enterprises? a) By providing training in various skills. b) By offering interest-free loans for women-led micro-enterprises. c) By connecting women with industry mentors and business incubators. d) By granting women subsidies to start new ventures. Correct Answer: a Explanation: Lakhpati Didi is a central government scheme that provides skill development training to 20 million women in villages across the country. The Scheme encourages them to start micro-enterprises and provides training in various skills such as plumbing, tailoring, weaving, etc. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Lakhpati Didi is a central government scheme that provides skill development training to 20 million women in villages across the country. The Scheme encourages them to start micro-enterprises and provides training in various skills such as plumbing, tailoring, weaving, etc. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 19. Question

How does the Lakhpati Didi scheme support women in starting micro-enterprises?

• a) By providing training in various skills.

• b) By offering interest-free loans for women-led micro-enterprises.

• c) By connecting women with industry mentors and business incubators.

• d) By granting women subsidies to start new ventures.

Explanation:

• Lakhpati Didi is a central government scheme that provides skill development training to 20 million women in villages across the country.

• The Scheme encourages them to start micro-enterprises and provides training in various skills such as plumbing, tailoring, weaving, etc.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• Lakhpati Didi is a central government scheme that provides skill development training to 20 million women in villages across the country.

• The Scheme encourages them to start micro-enterprises and provides training in various skills such as plumbing, tailoring, weaving, etc.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points In the context of Budget 2024, who or what is referred to as ‘rozgardata’? a) The Indian youth who aspire to be entrepreneurs and job creators b) A government initiative to generate employment opportunities by establishing centralized data. c) A scheme to promote small businesses and start-ups. d) A collaborative effort to boost rural development. Correct Answer: a Explanation: In the context of Budget 2024, the term “rozgardata” refers to individuals or groups who create employment opportunities, implying entrepreneurial activities that drive job creation. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: In the context of Budget 2024, the term “rozgardata” refers to individuals or groups who create employment opportunities, implying entrepreneurial activities that drive job creation. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 20. Question

In the context of Budget 2024, who or what is referred to as ‘rozgardata’?

• a) The Indian youth who aspire to be entrepreneurs and job creators

• b) A government initiative to generate employment opportunities by establishing centralized data.

• c) A scheme to promote small businesses and start-ups.

• d) A collaborative effort to boost rural development.

Explanation:

• In the context of Budget 2024, the term “rozgardata” refers to individuals or groups who create employment opportunities, implying entrepreneurial activities that drive job creation.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• In the context of Budget 2024, the term “rozgardata” refers to individuals or groups who create employment opportunities, implying entrepreneurial activities that drive job creation.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Consider the following with reference to the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) of India. The CrPC does not define the word bail but only categorizes offences under the Indian Penal Code as ‘bailable’ and ‘non-bailable’. The CrPC empowers magistrates to grant bail for bailable offences as a matter of right. Non-bailable offences are cognisable, which enables the police officer to arrest without a warrant. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 3 only c) 1 and 2 only d) 1 and 3 only Correct Solution: a) Justification: The CrPC does not define the word bail but only categories offences under the Indian Penal Code as ‘bailable’ and ‘non-bailable’. The CrPC empowers magistrates to grant bail for bailable offences as a matter of right. This would involve release on furnishing a bail bond, without or without security. In the case of Non-bailable offences, a magistrate would determine if the accused is fit to be released on bail. Non-bailable offences are cognisable, which enables the police officer to arrest without a warrant. Section 436 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, lays down that a person accused of a bailable offence under I.P.C. can be granted bail. Section 437 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 lays down that the accused does not have the right to bail in non-bailable offences. It is the discretion of the court to grant bail in case of non-bailable offences. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/07/18/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-18-july-2022/ Incorrect Solution: a) Justification: The CrPC does not define the word bail but only categories offences under the Indian Penal Code as ‘bailable’ and ‘non-bailable’. The CrPC empowers magistrates to grant bail for bailable offences as a matter of right. This would involve release on furnishing a bail bond, without or without security. In the case of Non-bailable offences, a magistrate would determine if the accused is fit to be released on bail. Non-bailable offences are cognisable, which enables the police officer to arrest without a warrant. Section 436 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, lays down that a person accused of a bailable offence under I.P.C. can be granted bail. Section 437 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 lays down that the accused does not have the right to bail in non-bailable offences. It is the discretion of the court to grant bail in case of non-bailable offences. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/07/18/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-18-july-2022/

#### 21. Question

Consider the following with reference to the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) of India.

• The CrPC does not define the word bail but only categorizes offences under the Indian Penal Code as ‘bailable’ and ‘non-bailable’.

• The CrPC empowers magistrates to grant bail for bailable offences as a matter of right.

• Non-bailable offences are cognisable, which enables the police officer to arrest without a warrant.

Which of the above is/are correct?

• a) 1, 2 and 3

• c) 1 and 2 only

• d) 1 and 3 only

Solution: a)

Justification: The CrPC does not define the word bail but only categories offences under the Indian Penal Code as ‘bailable’ and ‘non-bailable’.

The CrPC empowers magistrates to grant bail for bailable offences as a matter of right.

This would involve release on furnishing a bail bond, without or without security.

In the case of Non-bailable offences, a magistrate would determine if the accused is fit to be released on bail.

Non-bailable offences are cognisable, which enables the police officer to arrest without a warrant.

Section 436 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, lays down that a person accused of a bailable offence under I.P.C. can be granted bail.

Section 437 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 lays down that the accused does not have the right to bail in non-bailable offences.

It is the discretion of the court to grant bail in case of non-bailable offences.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/07/18/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-18-july-2022/