DAY – 46 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – ECONOMY, Subject-wise Test 31, 32, and July 2023 CA

INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024

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• Question 1 of 25 1. Question 1 points What impact do leakages and injections have on aggregate demand in an open economy? a) They decrease aggregate demand b) They increase aggregate demand c) They have no effect on aggregate demand d) It depends on the specific circumstances Correct Answer: d Explanation: Understanding Leakages and Injections Leakages refer to flows that remove money from the circular flow of income within an economy. Common examples of leakages include savings, taxes, and imports. When consumers buy foreign goods, this spending exits the domestic economy, leading to a decrease in aggregate demand. Injections refer to flows that add money into the circular flow of income within an economy. Examples include investment, government spending, and exports. When a country’s exports increase, it represents an injection of foreign money into the domestic economy, thus increasing aggregate demand. Impact on Aggregate Demand Leakages Decrease Aggregate Demand: When there is an increase in leakages (such as higher imports), money leaves the domestic economy, resulting in a reduction in aggregate demand. This could lead to lower production, reduced income, and ultimately a slower economic growth rate. Injections Increase Aggregate Demand: Conversely, when there is an increase in injections (like a surge in exports), it adds money into the domestic economy, leading to an increase in aggregate demand. This can drive economic growth and encourage more production and employment. Leakages generally decrease aggregate demand, while injections increase it. However, the overall effect on aggregate demand depends on the balance between leakages and injections. If leakages are greater than injections, aggregate demand will decrease, while if injections exceed leakages, aggregate demand will increase. Thus, it depends on the specific situation and the dynamics of a given economy. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: Understanding Leakages and Injections Leakages refer to flows that remove money from the circular flow of income within an economy. Common examples of leakages include savings, taxes, and imports. When consumers buy foreign goods, this spending exits the domestic economy, leading to a decrease in aggregate demand. Injections refer to flows that add money into the circular flow of income within an economy. Examples include investment, government spending, and exports. When a country’s exports increase, it represents an injection of foreign money into the domestic economy, thus increasing aggregate demand. Impact on Aggregate Demand Leakages Decrease Aggregate Demand: When there is an increase in leakages (such as higher imports), money leaves the domestic economy, resulting in a reduction in aggregate demand. This could lead to lower production, reduced income, and ultimately a slower economic growth rate. Injections Increase Aggregate Demand: Conversely, when there is an increase in injections (like a surge in exports), it adds money into the domestic economy, leading to an increase in aggregate demand. This can drive economic growth and encourage more production and employment. Leakages generally decrease aggregate demand, while injections increase it. However, the overall effect on aggregate demand depends on the balance between leakages and injections. If leakages are greater than injections, aggregate demand will decrease, while if injections exceed leakages, aggregate demand will increase. Thus, it depends on the specific situation and the dynamics of a given economy. Hence, option (d) is correct.

#### 1. Question

What impact do leakages and injections have on aggregate demand in an open economy?

• a) They decrease aggregate demand

• b) They increase aggregate demand

• c) They have no effect on aggregate demand

• d) It depends on the specific circumstances

Explanation:

Understanding Leakages and Injections

• Leakages refer to flows that remove money from the circular flow of income within an economy. Common examples of leakages include savings, taxes, and imports. When consumers buy foreign goods, this spending exits the domestic economy, leading to a decrease in aggregate demand.

• Injections refer to flows that add money into the circular flow of income within an economy. Examples include investment, government spending, and exports. When a country’s exports increase, it represents an injection of foreign money into the domestic economy, thus increasing aggregate demand.

Impact on Aggregate Demand

• Leakages Decrease Aggregate Demand: When there is an increase in leakages (such as higher imports), money leaves the domestic economy, resulting in a reduction in aggregate demand. This could lead to lower production, reduced income, and ultimately a slower economic growth rate.

• Injections Increase Aggregate Demand: Conversely, when there is an increase in injections (like a surge in exports), it adds money into the domestic economy, leading to an increase in aggregate demand. This can drive economic growth and encourage more production and employment.

• Leakages generally decrease aggregate demand, while injections increase it. However, the overall effect on aggregate demand depends on the balance between leakages and injections. If leakages are greater than injections, aggregate demand will decrease, while if injections exceed leakages, aggregate demand will increase. Thus, it depends on the specific situation and the dynamics of a given economy.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

Understanding Leakages and Injections

Impact on Aggregate Demand

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Question 2 of 25 2. Question 1 points Why PPP (Purchasing Power Parity) might not always hold true in real-world scenarios? a) Market frictions, differing product quality, and government policies b) Consistent transportation costs, free trade agreements, and stable markets c) Perfect market conditions, standardized products, and minimal regulations d) Complete harmonization of trade laws, equal income levels, and unrestricted currency exchange Correct Answer: a Explanation: Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) is a theory that suggests exchange rates should adjust so that identical goods have the same price in different countries when priced in a common currency. However, PPP doesn’t always hold true in real-world scenarios due to several factors. Let’s analyse the options to understand why PPP might not always align with reality. Analysing the Reasons for PPP Deviations: Market Frictions: These are imperfections in the market, such as transaction costs, regulatory barriers, or information asymmetry, which can prevent prices from equalizing across different countries. They can disrupt the smooth functioning of the markets. Differing Product Quality: Even if goods are ostensibly the same, they can vary in quality, which affects their prices. Higher quality products command a premium, making direct comparisons challenging. Government Policies: Policies such as tariffs, quotas, taxes, or subsidies can impact the cost of goods and services, leading to deviations from PPP. Restrictions on trade or government interventions can alter price levels, affecting the expected outcomes of PPP. These factors collectively contribute to deviations from PPP in the real world. They introduce variables that can disrupt the expected equilibrium and cause exchange rates not to align with price level differences as predicted by PPP theory. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) is a theory that suggests exchange rates should adjust so that identical goods have the same price in different countries when priced in a common currency. However, PPP doesn’t always hold true in real-world scenarios due to several factors. Let’s analyse the options to understand why PPP might not always align with reality. Analysing the Reasons for PPP Deviations: Market Frictions: These are imperfections in the market, such as transaction costs, regulatory barriers, or information asymmetry, which can prevent prices from equalizing across different countries. They can disrupt the smooth functioning of the markets. Differing Product Quality: Even if goods are ostensibly the same, they can vary in quality, which affects their prices. Higher quality products command a premium, making direct comparisons challenging. Government Policies: Policies such as tariffs, quotas, taxes, or subsidies can impact the cost of goods and services, leading to deviations from PPP. Restrictions on trade or government interventions can alter price levels, affecting the expected outcomes of PPP. These factors collectively contribute to deviations from PPP in the real world. They introduce variables that can disrupt the expected equilibrium and cause exchange rates not to align with price level differences as predicted by PPP theory. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 2. Question

Why PPP (Purchasing Power Parity) might not always hold true in real-world scenarios?

• a) Market frictions, differing product quality, and government policies

• b) Consistent transportation costs, free trade agreements, and stable markets

• c) Perfect market conditions, standardized products, and minimal regulations

• d) Complete harmonization of trade laws, equal income levels, and unrestricted currency exchange

Explanation:

• Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) is a theory that suggests exchange rates should adjust so that identical goods have the same price in different countries when priced in a common currency. However, PPP doesn’t always hold true in real-world scenarios due to several factors. Let’s analyse the options to understand why PPP might not always align with reality.

Analysing the Reasons for PPP Deviations:

• Market Frictions: These are imperfections in the market, such as transaction costs, regulatory barriers, or information asymmetry, which can prevent prices from equalizing across different countries. They can disrupt the smooth functioning of the markets.

• Differing Product Quality: Even if goods are ostensibly the same, they can vary in quality, which affects their prices. Higher quality products command a premium, making direct comparisons challenging.

• Government Policies: Policies such as tariffs, quotas, taxes, or subsidies can impact the cost of goods and services, leading to deviations from PPP. Restrictions on trade or government interventions can alter price levels, affecting the expected outcomes of PPP.

• These factors collectively contribute to deviations from PPP in the real world. They introduce variables that can disrupt the expected equilibrium and cause exchange rates not to align with price level differences as predicted by PPP theory.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

Analysing the Reasons for PPP Deviations:

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 3 of 25 3. Question 1 points What is the potential consequence of setting a fixed exchange rate too high? a) It can lead to an excess supply of foreign currency and an accumulation of reserves b) It can result in an excess demand for foreign currency and depletion of reserves c) It can cause black markets to emerge and loss of control over the official rate d) It has no significant impact on the foreign exchange market Correct Answer: a Explanation: Setting a fixed exchange rate too high refers to setting an exchange rate that makes the domestic currency cheaper compared to its true market value. This can have various consequences depending on how much the set rate differs from the market rate and how sustainable the fixed rate is. When the fixed rate is set higher than the market rate, it encourages people to convert foreign currency to the domestic currency. This leads to an oversupply of foreign currency in the market. To maintain the fixed rate, the central bank must buy the excess foreign currency, which can result in an accumulation of reserves. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Setting a fixed exchange rate too high refers to setting an exchange rate that makes the domestic currency cheaper compared to its true market value. This can have various consequences depending on how much the set rate differs from the market rate and how sustainable the fixed rate is. When the fixed rate is set higher than the market rate, it encourages people to convert foreign currency to the domestic currency. This leads to an oversupply of foreign currency in the market. To maintain the fixed rate, the central bank must buy the excess foreign currency, which can result in an accumulation of reserves. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 3. Question

What is the potential consequence of setting a fixed exchange rate too high?

• a) It can lead to an excess supply of foreign currency and an accumulation of reserves

• b) It can result in an excess demand for foreign currency and depletion of reserves

• c) It can cause black markets to emerge and loss of control over the official rate

• d) It has no significant impact on the foreign exchange market

Explanation:

• Setting a fixed exchange rate too high refers to setting an exchange rate that makes the domestic currency cheaper compared to its true market value. This can have various consequences depending on how much the set rate differs from the market rate and how sustainable the fixed rate is.

• When the fixed rate is set higher than the market rate, it encourages people to convert foreign currency to the domestic currency. This leads to an oversupply of foreign currency in the market. To maintain the fixed rate, the central bank must buy the excess foreign currency, which can result in an accumulation of reserves.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 4 of 25 4. Question 1 points Consider the following currencies: Hong Kong Dollar The Canadian Dollar The Swiss Franc The Australian Dollar How many of the above are included in currency Basket used for the NEER calculation by the Reserve Bank of India? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: a Explanation: The currency basket used by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for the NEER calculation includes six major currencies: the US Dollar, the Euro, the British Pound, the Japanese Yen, the Chinese Yuan (Renminbi), and the Hong Kong Dollar (Special Administrative Region). Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: The currency basket used by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for the NEER calculation includes six major currencies: the US Dollar, the Euro, the British Pound, the Japanese Yen, the Chinese Yuan (Renminbi), and the Hong Kong Dollar (Special Administrative Region). Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following currencies:

• Hong Kong Dollar

• The Canadian Dollar

• The Swiss Franc

• The Australian Dollar

How many of the above are included in currency Basket used for the NEER calculation by the Reserve Bank of India?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

• The currency basket used by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for the NEER calculation includes six major currencies: the US Dollar, the Euro, the British Pound, the Japanese Yen, the Chinese Yuan (Renminbi), and the Hong Kong Dollar (Special Administrative Region).

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 5 of 25 5. Question 1 points What is the maximum amount of investment allowed per year for individuals in foreign assets, shares, and securities? a) $100,000 b) $200,000 c) $250,000 d) $500,000 Correct Answer: c Explanation: Overseas investment by Indian residents is regulated by the Indian exchange control regulations. On Aug. 22, 2022, the Government and the Reserve Bank of India issued a new framework that provides more clarity, covers wider economic activity and the revised reporting requirements. An overseas investment by an Indian resident individual can either be in the form of overseas direct investment (ODI) or overseas portfolio investments (OPI). The overseas investment by an Indian resident must be within the overall ceiling of the Liberalized Remittance Scheme (“LRS’”. Under LRS, an Indian resident can utilize up to $250,000 per financial year (April to March) cumulatively towards permissible investments (OPI and ODI route) and other purposes such as private visits outside India, gift or donations, maintenance of relatives abroad, medical treatment abroad, education abroad, etc. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Overseas investment by Indian residents is regulated by the Indian exchange control regulations. On Aug. 22, 2022, the Government and the Reserve Bank of India issued a new framework that provides more clarity, covers wider economic activity and the revised reporting requirements. An overseas investment by an Indian resident individual can either be in the form of overseas direct investment (ODI) or overseas portfolio investments (OPI). The overseas investment by an Indian resident must be within the overall ceiling of the Liberalized Remittance Scheme (“LRS’”. Under LRS, an Indian resident can utilize up to $250,000 per financial year (April to March) cumulatively towards permissible investments (OPI and ODI route) and other purposes such as private visits outside India, gift or donations, maintenance of relatives abroad, medical treatment abroad, education abroad, etc. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 5. Question

What is the maximum amount of investment allowed per year for individuals in foreign assets, shares, and securities?

• a) $100,000

• b) $200,000

• c) $250,000

• d) $500,000

Explanation:

• Overseas investment by Indian residents is regulated by the Indian exchange control regulations. On Aug. 22, 2022, the Government and the Reserve Bank of India issued a new framework that provides more clarity, covers wider economic activity and the revised reporting requirements.

• An overseas investment by an Indian resident individual can either be in the form of overseas direct investment (ODI) or overseas portfolio investments (OPI).

• The overseas investment by an Indian resident must be within the overall ceiling of the Liberalized Remittance Scheme (“LRS’”. Under LRS, an Indian resident can utilize up to $250,000 per financial year (April to March) cumulatively towards permissible investments (OPI and ODI route) and other purposes such as private visits outside India, gift or donations, maintenance of relatives abroad, medical treatment abroad, education abroad, etc.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

• An overseas investment by an Indian resident individual can either be in the form of overseas direct investment (ODI) or overseas portfolio investments (OPI).

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 6 of 25 6. Question 1 points What term is used to describe the current stage of the de-dollarization process? a) Culmination b) Inception c) Peak d) Plateau Correct Answer: b Explanation: The term used to describe the current stage of the de-dollarization process, given that the US dollar still remains the dominant currency with 58% of the global market share, while the closest competitor, the Euro, has only 20%, would be: Inception. This term indicates that the de-dollarization process is in its early stages and has not yet reached a mature or conclusive phase. The word “inception” suggests that while some movements and shifts toward reducing dependence on the US dollar are underway, the dollar still holds a significant and dominant position in the global financial system. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: The term used to describe the current stage of the de-dollarization process, given that the US dollar still remains the dominant currency with 58% of the global market share, while the closest competitor, the Euro, has only 20%, would be: Inception. This term indicates that the de-dollarization process is in its early stages and has not yet reached a mature or conclusive phase. The word “inception” suggests that while some movements and shifts toward reducing dependence on the US dollar are underway, the dollar still holds a significant and dominant position in the global financial system. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 6. Question

What term is used to describe the current stage of the de-dollarization process?

• a) Culmination

• b) Inception

• d) Plateau

Explanation:

• The term used to describe the current stage of the de-dollarization process, given that the US dollar still remains the dominant currency with 58% of the global market share, while the closest competitor, the Euro, has only 20%, would be: Inception.

• This term indicates that the de-dollarization process is in its early stages and has not yet reached a mature or conclusive phase. The word “inception” suggests that while some movements and shifts toward reducing dependence on the US dollar are underway, the dollar still holds a significant and dominant position in the global financial system.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 7 of 25 7. Question 1 points Who are considered preferential creditors under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016? a) Secured creditors b) Unsecured creditors c) Employees d) Shareholders Correct Answer: c Explanation: Under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, preferential creditors are those creditors who have a priority in receiving payment over other unsecured creditors during the liquidation or insolvency process. The order of money disbursed during the liquidation or insolvency process is : Secured creditor The liquidation’s expenses Preferential creditor Creditors of ordinary credit Interest on preferred debts and ordinary debts Members of the company(shareholders) Preferential creditors generally include employees with claims for outstanding salaries, wages, and other employment-related payments such as accrued holiday pay. In the order of priority, preferential creditors are ranked higher than ordinary unsecured creditors but lower than secured creditors and liquidation expenses. The treatment of preferential creditors is designed to ensure that employees and other prioritized claims are addressed during the insolvency resolution or liquidation process. Hence, option(c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, preferential creditors are those creditors who have a priority in receiving payment over other unsecured creditors during the liquidation or insolvency process. The order of money disbursed during the liquidation or insolvency process is : Secured creditor The liquidation’s expenses Preferential creditor Creditors of ordinary credit Interest on preferred debts and ordinary debts Members of the company(shareholders) Preferential creditors generally include employees with claims for outstanding salaries, wages, and other employment-related payments such as accrued holiday pay. In the order of priority, preferential creditors are ranked higher than ordinary unsecured creditors but lower than secured creditors and liquidation expenses. The treatment of preferential creditors is designed to ensure that employees and other prioritized claims are addressed during the insolvency resolution or liquidation process. Hence, option(c) is correct.

#### 7. Question

Who are considered preferential creditors under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016?

• a) Secured creditors

• b) Unsecured creditors

• c) Employees

• d) Shareholders

Explanation:

• Under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, preferential creditors are those creditors who have a priority in receiving payment over other unsecured creditors during the liquidation or insolvency process.

• The order of money disbursed during the liquidation or insolvency process is :

• Secured creditor

• The liquidation’s expenses

• Preferential creditor

• Creditors of ordinary credit

• Interest on preferred debts and ordinary debts

• Members of the company(shareholders)

• Preferential creditors generally include employees with claims for outstanding salaries, wages, and other employment-related payments such as accrued holiday pay. In the order of priority, preferential creditors are ranked higher than ordinary unsecured creditors but lower than secured creditors and liquidation expenses. The treatment of preferential creditors is designed to ensure that employees and other prioritized claims are addressed during the insolvency resolution or liquidation process.

• Hence, option(c) is correct.

Explanation:

• The order of money disbursed during the liquidation or insolvency process is :

• Secured creditor

• The liquidation’s expenses

• Preferential creditor

• Creditors of ordinary credit

• Interest on preferred debts and ordinary debts

• Members of the company(shareholders)

• Hence, option(c) is correct.

• Question 8 of 25 8. Question 1 points With reference to Basel Norms, consider the following statements: Tier 1 capital is the bank’s core capital, while Tier 2 capital includes supplementary capital Tier 1 capital includes disclosed reserves, while Tier 2 capital includes undisclosed reserves and hybrid instruments Tier 1 capital absorbs losses first, while Tier 2 capital absorbs losses after Tier 1 How many of the above statements accurately distinguishes between Tier 1 and Tier 2 capital? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: c Explanation: Tier 1 Capital is the bank’s core capital. It includes disclosed reserves and equity capital, which appear on the bank’s financial statements. Tier 1 capital is considered the most reliable because it is the capital that supports the bank’s operations and absorbs losses first. Tier 2 Capital is supplementary capital. It can include undisclosed reserves, subordinated debts, hybrid instruments, and other items. Tier 2 capital is considered less reliable than Tier 1 because it is not as easily accessible or as straightforward to calculate. Tier 2 capital absorbs losses after Tier 1 capital. Hence, option(c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Tier 1 Capital is the bank’s core capital. It includes disclosed reserves and equity capital, which appear on the bank’s financial statements. Tier 1 capital is considered the most reliable because it is the capital that supports the bank’s operations and absorbs losses first. Tier 2 Capital is supplementary capital. It can include undisclosed reserves, subordinated debts, hybrid instruments, and other items. Tier 2 capital is considered less reliable than Tier 1 because it is not as easily accessible or as straightforward to calculate. Tier 2 capital absorbs losses after Tier 1 capital. Hence, option(c) is correct.

#### 8. Question

With reference to Basel Norms, consider the following statements:

• Tier 1 capital is the bank’s core capital, while Tier 2 capital includes supplementary capital

• Tier 1 capital includes disclosed reserves, while Tier 2 capital includes undisclosed reserves and hybrid instruments

• Tier 1 capital absorbs losses first, while Tier 2 capital absorbs losses after Tier 1

How many of the above statements accurately distinguishes between Tier 1 and Tier 2 capital?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Explanation:

• Tier 1 Capital is the bank’s core capital. It includes disclosed reserves and equity capital, which appear on the bank’s financial statements. Tier 1 capital is considered the most reliable because it is the capital that supports the bank’s operations and absorbs losses first.

• Tier 2 Capital is supplementary capital. It can include undisclosed reserves, subordinated debts, hybrid instruments, and other items. Tier 2 capital is considered less reliable than Tier 1 because it is not as easily accessible or as straightforward to calculate. Tier 2 capital absorbs losses after Tier 1 capital.

• Hence, option(c) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option(c) is correct.

• Question 9 of 25 9. Question 1 points What does a digital wallet for cryptocurrency primarily store? a) Public and private keys b) Cryptocurrency assets c) Transaction records d) Government IDs Correct Answer: a Explanation: A digital wallet for cryptocurrency is a software program that allows users to store and manage their cryptocurrency. It plays a crucial role in the use and management of cryptocurrencies by storing critical information. Public keys are used to receive cryptocurrency, like an address that others can use to send funds to the wallet. Private keys are used to sign and authorize transactions, providing the security and control needed for managing cryptocurrency holdings. While a digital wallet can contain other data like transaction records or even the cryptocurrency itself in some cases, its primary function is to securely store the public and private keys, which are necessary for interacting with the block chain. This setup allows users to send and receive cryptocurrency while maintaining control and security over their digital assets. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: A digital wallet for cryptocurrency is a software program that allows users to store and manage their cryptocurrency. It plays a crucial role in the use and management of cryptocurrencies by storing critical information. Public keys are used to receive cryptocurrency, like an address that others can use to send funds to the wallet. Private keys are used to sign and authorize transactions, providing the security and control needed for managing cryptocurrency holdings. While a digital wallet can contain other data like transaction records or even the cryptocurrency itself in some cases, its primary function is to securely store the public and private keys, which are necessary for interacting with the block chain. This setup allows users to send and receive cryptocurrency while maintaining control and security over their digital assets. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 9. Question

What does a digital wallet for cryptocurrency primarily store?

• a) Public and private keys

• b) Cryptocurrency assets

• c) Transaction records

• d) Government IDs

Explanation:

• A digital wallet for cryptocurrency is a software program that allows users to store and manage their cryptocurrency. It plays a crucial role in the use and management of cryptocurrencies by storing critical information.

• Public keys are used to receive cryptocurrency, like an address that others can use to send funds to the wallet.

• Private keys are used to sign and authorize transactions, providing the security and control needed for managing cryptocurrency holdings.

• While a digital wallet can contain other data like transaction records or even the cryptocurrency itself in some cases, its primary function is to securely store the public and private keys, which are necessary for interacting with the block chain. This setup allows users to send and receive cryptocurrency while maintaining control and security over their digital assets.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• Public keys are used to receive cryptocurrency, like an address that others can use to send funds to the wallet.

• Private keys are used to sign and authorize transactions, providing the security and control needed for managing cryptocurrency holdings.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 10 of 25 10. Question 1 points Fiduciary money is distinct from fiat money in which of the following ways? a) Fiduciary money is not declared legal tender b) Fiduciary money is backed by commodities c) Fiduciary money is used primarily for international trade d) Fiduciary money has intrinsic value Correct Answer: a Explanation: Fiduciary money and fiat money are both types of money that play important roles in economic systems, but they have distinct characteristics. Fiat money is a currency issued by a government and has value because the government declares it to be legal tender. It is not backed by any physical commodity such as gold or silver. Fiduciary money is money accepted as a medium of exchange because of the trust that exists between the payer and the payee. It is not declared legal tender by the government, which means people are not legally required to accept it as payment. Examples include cheques and bank drafts. Fiduciary money relies on trust rather than a government declaration, while fiat money derives its legitimacy from being declared legal tender by a government. Fiduciary money is accepted as a medium of exchange because the issuer promises to honor its value, typically by exchanging it for fiat money or a commodity upon request. The other options do not accurately reflect the main distinction between fiduciary and fiat money. Fiduciary money is not necessarily backed by commodities, used primarily for international trade, or inherently valuable (intrinsic value). Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Fiduciary money and fiat money are both types of money that play important roles in economic systems, but they have distinct characteristics. Fiat money is a currency issued by a government and has value because the government declares it to be legal tender. It is not backed by any physical commodity such as gold or silver. Fiduciary money is money accepted as a medium of exchange because of the trust that exists between the payer and the payee. It is not declared legal tender by the government, which means people are not legally required to accept it as payment. Examples include cheques and bank drafts. Fiduciary money relies on trust rather than a government declaration, while fiat money derives its legitimacy from being declared legal tender by a government. Fiduciary money is accepted as a medium of exchange because the issuer promises to honor its value, typically by exchanging it for fiat money or a commodity upon request. The other options do not accurately reflect the main distinction between fiduciary and fiat money. Fiduciary money is not necessarily backed by commodities, used primarily for international trade, or inherently valuable (intrinsic value). Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 10. Question

Fiduciary money is distinct from fiat money in which of the following ways?

• a) Fiduciary money is not declared legal tender

• b) Fiduciary money is backed by commodities

• c) Fiduciary money is used primarily for international trade

• d) Fiduciary money has intrinsic value

Explanation:

• Fiduciary money and fiat money are both types of money that play important roles in economic systems, but they have distinct characteristics.

• Fiat money is a currency issued by a government and has value because the government declares it to be legal tender. It is not backed by any physical commodity such as gold or silver.

• Fiduciary money is money accepted as a medium of exchange because of the trust that exists between the payer and the payee. It is not declared legal tender by the government, which means people are not legally required to accept it as payment. Examples include cheques and bank drafts.

• Fiduciary money relies on trust rather than a government declaration, while fiat money derives its legitimacy from being declared legal tender by a government.

• Fiduciary money is accepted as a medium of exchange because the issuer promises to honor its value, typically by exchanging it for fiat money or a commodity upon request.

• The other options do not accurately reflect the main distinction between fiduciary and fiat money. Fiduciary money is not necessarily backed by commodities, used primarily for international trade, or inherently valuable (intrinsic value).

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• Fiduciary money and fiat money are both types of money that play important roles in economic systems, but they have distinct characteristics.

• Fiat money is a currency issued by a government and has value because the government declares it to be legal tender. It is not backed by any physical commodity such as gold or silver.

• Fiduciary money relies on trust rather than a government declaration, while fiat money derives its legitimacy from being declared legal tender by a government.

• Fiduciary money is accepted as a medium of exchange because the issuer promises to honor its value, typically by exchanging it for fiat money or a commodity upon request.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 11 of 25 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: A shelf cloud is associated with a solid line of storms. A wall cloud strongly appears to rotate on a horizontal axis. A wall cloud is much smaller and more compact than a shelf cloud. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Shelf clouds are often associated with squall lines, and many times they are reported as funnel clouds, or rotation. Statement 1 is correct: A shelf cloud will usually be associated with a solid line of storms. The wind will come first with rain following behind it. It may appear to rotate on a horizontal axis. Statement 2 is not correct: Wall clouds rotate on a vertical axis, sometimes strongly. Statement 3 is correct: The wall cloud is much smaller and more compact than a shelf cloud and is usually under a rain free cloud base. Scud clouds are often mistakenly called wall clouds or funnel clouds. In reality, these are just rising clouds due to increased low level relative humidity. They will not rotate and will rise slowly. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Shelf clouds are often associated with squall lines, and many times they are reported as funnel clouds, or rotation. Statement 1 is correct: A shelf cloud will usually be associated with a solid line of storms. The wind will come first with rain following behind it. It may appear to rotate on a horizontal axis. Statement 2 is not correct: Wall clouds rotate on a vertical axis, sometimes strongly. Statement 3 is correct: The wall cloud is much smaller and more compact than a shelf cloud and is usually under a rain free cloud base. Scud clouds are often mistakenly called wall clouds or funnel clouds. In reality, these are just rising clouds due to increased low level relative humidity. They will not rotate and will rise slowly.

#### 11. Question

Consider the following statements:

• A shelf cloud is associated with a solid line of storms.

• A wall cloud strongly appears to rotate on a horizontal axis.

• A wall cloud is much smaller and more compact than a shelf cloud.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

Shelf clouds are often associated with squall lines, and many times they are reported as funnel clouds, or rotation.

Statement 1 is correct: A shelf cloud will usually be associated with a solid line of storms. The wind will come first with rain following behind it. It may appear to rotate on a horizontal axis.

Statement 2 is not correct: Wall clouds rotate on a vertical axis, sometimes strongly.

Statement 3 is correct: The wall cloud is much smaller and more compact than a shelf cloud and is usually under a rain free cloud base.

Scud clouds are often mistakenly called wall clouds or funnel clouds. In reality, these are just rising clouds due to increased low level relative humidity. They will not rotate and will rise slowly.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Shelf clouds are often associated with squall lines, and many times they are reported as funnel clouds, or rotation.

Statement 1 is correct: A shelf cloud will usually be associated with a solid line of storms. The wind will come first with rain following behind it. It may appear to rotate on a horizontal axis.

Statement 2 is not correct: Wall clouds rotate on a vertical axis, sometimes strongly.

Statement 3 is correct: The wall cloud is much smaller and more compact than a shelf cloud and is usually under a rain free cloud base.

Scud clouds are often mistakenly called wall clouds or funnel clouds. In reality, these are just rising clouds due to increased low level relative humidity. They will not rotate and will rise slowly.

• Question 12 of 25 12. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Hydrazine Hydrate- Is a colourless and fuming liquid used as a reducing agent. Is used as an oxygen scavenger in the treatment of boiler water. Is a favoured rocket fuel and is used to manufacture pesticides. Is used in the manufacture of active ingredients for anti-cancer drugs. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Answer: D Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Hydrazine hydrate (HH) is a colourless, fuming, and oily liquid used as a reducing agent, Statement 2 is correct: It is used as an oxygen scavenger in the treatment of boiler water, and raw material for polymer industry as foaming agents. Statement 3 is correct: In its purest form, HH is the most favoured rocket fuel and as a chemical used to manufacture pesticides. Statement 4 is correct: The chemical and its derivatives are also used in the manufacture of active ingredients for anti-cancer drugs, antidepressants, antifungal drugs, diuretics, anti-allergic, anti-Parkinson, anti-haemorrhagic, anti-tuberculosis, antiviral, and anti-migraine drugs. HH is also widely used in waste-water treatment industry and finds an increasing application as fuel in eco-friendly fuel cells. Incorrect Answer: D Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Hydrazine hydrate (HH) is a colourless, fuming, and oily liquid used as a reducing agent, Statement 2 is correct: It is used as an oxygen scavenger in the treatment of boiler water, and raw material for polymer industry as foaming agents. Statement 3 is correct: In its purest form, HH is the most favoured rocket fuel and as a chemical used to manufacture pesticides. Statement 4 is correct: The chemical and its derivatives are also used in the manufacture of active ingredients for anti-cancer drugs, antidepressants, antifungal drugs, diuretics, anti-allergic, anti-Parkinson, anti-haemorrhagic, anti-tuberculosis, antiviral, and anti-migraine drugs. HH is also widely used in waste-water treatment industry and finds an increasing application as fuel in eco-friendly fuel cells.

#### 12. Question

Consider the following statements:

The Hydrazine Hydrate-

• Is a colourless and fuming liquid used as a reducing agent.

• Is used as an oxygen scavenger in the treatment of boiler water.

• Is a favoured rocket fuel and is used to manufacture pesticides.

• Is used in the manufacture of active ingredients for anti-cancer drugs.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Answer: D

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Hydrazine hydrate (HH) is a colourless, fuming, and oily liquid used as a reducing agent,

Statement 2 is correct: It is used as an oxygen scavenger in the treatment of boiler water, and raw material for polymer industry as foaming agents.

Statement 3 is correct: In its purest form, HH is the most favoured rocket fuel and as a chemical used to manufacture pesticides.

Statement 4 is correct: The chemical and its derivatives are also used in the manufacture of active ingredients for anti-cancer drugs, antidepressants, antifungal drugs, diuretics, anti-allergic, anti-Parkinson, anti-haemorrhagic, anti-tuberculosis, antiviral, and anti-migraine drugs.

HH is also widely used in waste-water treatment industry and finds an increasing application as fuel in eco-friendly fuel cells.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Hydrazine hydrate (HH) is a colourless, fuming, and oily liquid used as a reducing agent,

Statement 2 is correct: It is used as an oxygen scavenger in the treatment of boiler water, and raw material for polymer industry as foaming agents.

Statement 3 is correct: In its purest form, HH is the most favoured rocket fuel and as a chemical used to manufacture pesticides.

HH is also widely used in waste-water treatment industry and finds an increasing application as fuel in eco-friendly fuel cells.

• Question 13 of 25 13. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Brihadisvara Temple, Thanjavur: It is known in the inscriptions as the Dakshina Meru and was inaugurated by the Chola King, Rajaraja I. Karanas posed in Bharatanatyam are carved on the walls of the second bhumi around its garbhagriha. It is much smaller in size as compared to the Airavatesvara temple of Tanjavur built by Rajaraja I. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Brihadisvara temple at Tanjavur marks the greatest achievement of the Chola architects. Known in the inscriptions as Dakshina Meru, the construction of this temple was inaugurated by the Chola King, Rajaraja I (985-1012 CE) possibly in the 19th regal year (1003-1004 CE) and consecrated by his own hands in the 25th regal year (1009-1010 CE). Statement 2 is correct: Eighty-one of the one hundred and eight karanas, posed in Baharatanatya, are carved on the walls of second bhumi around the garbhagriha. There is a shrine dedicated to Amman dating to c.13th century. Statement 3 is not correct: The Airavatesvara temple at Tanjavur was built by the Chola king Rajaraja II (1143-1173 CE.): it is much smaller in size as compared to the Brihadisvara temple at Tanjavur and Gangaikondacholapuram. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Brihadisvara temple at Tanjavur marks the greatest achievement of the Chola architects. Known in the inscriptions as Dakshina Meru, the construction of this temple was inaugurated by the Chola King, Rajaraja I (985-1012 CE) possibly in the 19th regal year (1003-1004 CE) and consecrated by his own hands in the 25th regal year (1009-1010 CE). Statement 2 is correct: Eighty-one of the one hundred and eight karanas, posed in Baharatanatya, are carved on the walls of second bhumi around the garbhagriha. There is a shrine dedicated to Amman dating to c.13th century. Statement 3 is not correct: The Airavatesvara temple at Tanjavur was built by the Chola king Rajaraja II (1143-1173 CE.): it is much smaller in size as compared to the Brihadisvara temple at Tanjavur and Gangaikondacholapuram.

#### 13. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Brihadisvara Temple, Thanjavur:

• It is known in the inscriptions as the Dakshina Meru and was inaugurated by the Chola King, Rajaraja I.

• Karanas posed in Bharatanatyam are carved on the walls of the second bhumi around its garbhagriha.

• It is much smaller in size as compared to the Airavatesvara temple of Tanjavur built by Rajaraja I.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Brihadisvara temple at Tanjavur marks the greatest achievement of the Chola architects. Known in the inscriptions as Dakshina Meru, the construction of this temple was inaugurated by the Chola King, Rajaraja I (985-1012 CE) possibly in the 19th regal year (1003-1004 CE) and consecrated by his own hands in the 25th regal year (1009-1010 CE).

Statement 2 is correct: Eighty-one of the one hundred and eight karanas, posed in Baharatanatya, are carved on the walls of second bhumi around the garbhagriha. There is a shrine dedicated to Amman dating to c.13th century.

Statement 3 is not correct: The Airavatesvara temple at Tanjavur was built by the Chola king Rajaraja II (1143-1173 CE.): it is much smaller in size as compared to the Brihadisvara temple at Tanjavur and Gangaikondacholapuram.

Answer: B

Explanation:

• Question 14 of 25 14. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Ker puja is observed fourteen days after the end of Kharchi Puja. The ‘Ker’ in Ker Pooja refers to a ‘boundary’ in the Kokborok language. The Kodava tribe of the Western Ghats celebrates the Ker Pooja. How many of the statements given above is/are *not correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Ker puja is usually observed fourteen days after the end of Kharchi Puja (the worship of the fourteen dynasty deities) by the Tripuri people. Although there is no documented evidence of the origins of this puja, it is widely believed that the erstwhile Manikya kings of Tripura initiated the Ker puja in the province in the 15th century. Statement 2 is correct: ‘Ker’ literally means a ‘specified area’ or ‘boundary’ in the local Kokborok language. A large piece of bamboo is bent to symbolise the image of the Ker Deity, which is central to the ceremonial proceedings. The Tripura rajas conducted this puja for the welfare of the common people. In those days, the celebrations of this puja among the Tripuri people commenced only after the royal family had organized it within the precincts of the royal palace. Statement 3 is not correct: Other than the Tripuri people, the Halam tribe, originally of Kuki lineage who later on merged with the Tripuris, also began observing this festival. Today, Ker puja is celebrated by the Tripuris across the state, where they worship Ker Devata, the guardian deity of Vastu, according to their tribal beliefs and practices. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Ker puja is usually observed fourteen days after the end of Kharchi Puja (the worship of the fourteen dynasty deities) by the Tripuri people. Although there is no documented evidence of the origins of this puja, it is widely believed that the erstwhile Manikya kings of Tripura initiated the Ker puja in the province in the 15th century. Statement 2 is correct: ‘Ker’ literally means a ‘specified area’ or ‘boundary’ in the local Kokborok language. A large piece of bamboo is bent to symbolise the image of the Ker Deity, which is central to the ceremonial proceedings. The Tripura rajas conducted this puja for the welfare of the common people. In those days, the celebrations of this puja among the Tripuri people commenced only after the royal family had organized it within the precincts of the royal palace. Statement 3 is not correct:* Other than the Tripuri people, the Halam tribe, originally of Kuki lineage who later on merged with the Tripuris, also began observing this festival. Today, Ker puja is celebrated by the Tripuris across the state, where they worship Ker Devata, the guardian deity of Vastu, according to their tribal beliefs and practices.

#### 14. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Ker puja is observed fourteen days after the end of Kharchi Puja.

• The ‘Ker’ in Ker Pooja refers to a ‘boundary’ in the Kokborok language.

• The Kodava tribe of the Western Ghats celebrates the Ker Pooja.

How many of the statements given above is/are *not* correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Ker puja is usually observed fourteen days after the end of Kharchi Puja (the worship of the fourteen dynasty deities) by the Tripuri people.

Although there is no documented evidence of the origins of this puja, it is widely believed that the erstwhile Manikya kings of Tripura initiated the Ker puja in the province in the 15th century.

Statement 2 is correct: ‘Ker’ literally means a ‘specified area’ or ‘boundary’ in the local Kokborok language. A large piece of bamboo is bent to symbolise the image of the Ker Deity, which is central to the ceremonial proceedings.

The Tripura rajas conducted this puja for the welfare of the common people. In those days, the celebrations of this puja among the Tripuri people commenced only after the royal family had organized it within the precincts of the royal palace.

Statement 3 is not correct: Other than the Tripuri people, the Halam tribe, originally of Kuki lineage who later on merged with the Tripuris, also began observing this festival. Today, Ker puja is celebrated by the Tripuris across the state, where they worship Ker Devata, the guardian deity of Vastu, according to their tribal beliefs and practices.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Ker puja is usually observed fourteen days after the end of Kharchi Puja (the worship of the fourteen dynasty deities) by the Tripuri people.

Although there is no documented evidence of the origins of this puja, it is widely believed that the erstwhile Manikya kings of Tripura initiated the Ker puja in the province in the 15th century.

• Question 15 of 25 15. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Mozambique: It is located in Southern Africa in the Eastern Hemisphere of the Earth. It is bordered by two countries namely Tanzania and Algeria. It has a coastline on the Indian Ocean to the east. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Mozambique is a country in Southern Africa and is located in the Southern and Eastern Hemispheres of the Earth. Statement 2 is not correct: It is bordered by six countries. These are Tanzania to the north, Zambia and Malawi to the northwest, and Zimbabwe to the west. Statement 3 is correct: South Africa and Eswatini border Mozambique to the southwest. The country also has a coastline on the Indian Ocean to the east. The island countries and territories of Madagascar, Comoros, and Mayotte are separated from Mozambique by the Mozambique Channel. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Mozambique is a country in Southern Africa and is located in the Southern and Eastern Hemispheres of the Earth. Statement 2 is not correct: It is bordered by six countries. These are Tanzania to the north, Zambia and Malawi to the northwest, and Zimbabwe to the west. Statement 3 is correct: South Africa and Eswatini border Mozambique to the southwest. The country also has a coastline on the Indian Ocean to the east. The island countries and territories of Madagascar, Comoros, and Mayotte are separated from Mozambique by the Mozambique Channel.

#### 15. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Mozambique:

• It is located in Southern Africa in the Eastern Hemisphere of the Earth.

• It is bordered by two countries namely Tanzania and Algeria.

• It has a coastline on the Indian Ocean to the east.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Mozambique is a country in Southern Africa and is located in the Southern and Eastern Hemispheres of the Earth.

Statement 2 is not correct: It is bordered by six countries. These are Tanzania to the north, Zambia and Malawi to the northwest, and Zimbabwe to the west.

Statement 3 is correct: South Africa and Eswatini border Mozambique to the southwest. The country also has a coastline on the Indian Ocean to the east.

The island countries and territories of Madagascar, Comoros, and Mayotte are separated from Mozambique by the Mozambique Channel.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Mozambique is a country in Southern Africa and is located in the Southern and Eastern Hemispheres of the Earth.

Statement 2 is not correct: It is bordered by six countries. These are Tanzania to the north, Zambia and Malawi to the northwest, and Zimbabwe to the west.

Statement 3 is correct: South Africa and Eswatini border Mozambique to the southwest. The country also has a coastline on the Indian Ocean to the east.

The island countries and territories of Madagascar, Comoros, and Mayotte are separated from Mozambique by the Mozambique Channel.

• Question 16 of 25 16. Question 1 points Which statement accurately describes the Mpemba Effect? (a) It is the tendency of hot water to freeze faster than cold water. (b) The Mpemba Effect occurs due to differences in water density at different temperatures. (c) Named after a Tanzanian student, it refers to the observation that certain substances evaporate faster when heated. (d) This phenomenon is exclusively observed in liquids with high thermal conductivity. Correct Solution: A Context: The Mpemba effect, named after Tanzanian student Erasto Mpemba, describes the counterintuitive phenomenon where hot water can freeze faster than cold water in similar conditions. Although noticed by historical figures like Aristotle, Francis Bacon, and René Descartes, the effect gained attention after Mpemba highlighted it in 1969. Despite various experiments, scientists have not reached a consensus on the exact causes of the Mpemba effect. ○ Several factors are considered, such as microbubbles promoting convection and heat transfer in heated water, increased evaporation in warmer water, and the insulating effect of frost in cold water. ○ Compounds like calcium carbonate in water may also play a role. Incorrect Solution: A Context: The Mpemba effect, named after Tanzanian student Erasto Mpemba, describes the counterintuitive phenomenon where hot water can freeze faster than cold water in similar conditions. Although noticed by historical figures like Aristotle, Francis Bacon, and René Descartes, the effect gained attention after Mpemba highlighted it in 1969. Despite various experiments, scientists have not reached a consensus on the exact causes of the Mpemba effect. ○ Several factors are considered, such as microbubbles promoting convection and heat transfer in heated water, increased evaporation in warmer water, and the insulating effect of frost in cold water. ○ Compounds like calcium carbonate in water may also play a role.

#### 16. Question

Which statement accurately describes the Mpemba Effect?

• (a) It is the tendency of hot water to freeze faster than cold water.

• (b) The Mpemba Effect occurs due to differences in water density at different temperatures.

• (c) Named after a Tanzanian student, it refers to the observation that certain substances evaporate faster when heated.

• (d) This phenomenon is exclusively observed in liquids with high thermal conductivity.

Solution: A

Context: The Mpemba effect, named after Tanzanian student Erasto Mpemba, describes the counterintuitive phenomenon where hot water can freeze faster than cold water in similar conditions.

• Although noticed by historical figures like Aristotle, Francis Bacon, and René Descartes, the effect gained attention after Mpemba highlighted it in 1969.

• Despite various experiments, scientists have not reached a consensus on the exact causes of the Mpemba effect.

○ Several factors are considered, such as microbubbles promoting convection and heat transfer in heated water, increased evaporation in warmer water, and the insulating effect of frost in cold water.

○ Compounds like calcium carbonate in water may also play a role.

Solution: A

Context: The Mpemba effect, named after Tanzanian student Erasto Mpemba, describes the counterintuitive phenomenon where hot water can freeze faster than cold water in similar conditions.

• Although noticed by historical figures like Aristotle, Francis Bacon, and René Descartes, the effect gained attention after Mpemba highlighted it in 1969.

• Despite various experiments, scientists have not reached a consensus on the exact causes of the Mpemba effect.

○ Compounds like calcium carbonate in water may also play a role.

• Question 17 of 25 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Big Bang Theory suggests the universe began from an infinitely hot and dense point, rapidly expanding and cooling ever since. Galaxies formed billions of years after the Big Bang, condensing from smaller clumps of matter due to gravity. Stars within galaxies are constantly burning hydrogen into helium, releasing vast amounts of energy in the process. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C Statement 1: The Big Bang Theory is the prevailing cosmological model for the universe’s origin and evolution. It posits that the universe began from an incredibly small, hot, and dense point and has been expanding and cooling ever since. This aligns with current scientific observations and measurements. Statement 2: Galaxies, consisting of billions or even trillions of stars, gas, and dust, did not exist in the early universe. Gravity played a crucial role in pulling together clumps of matter after the Big Bang, eventually leading to the formation of galaxies over billions of years. Statement 3: Stars are celestial bodies fuelled by nuclear fusion, primarily converting hydrogen into helium. This process releases tremendous amounts of energy in the form of light and heat, powering stars and influencing the surrounding environment. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1: The Big Bang Theory is the prevailing cosmological model for the universe’s origin and evolution. It posits that the universe began from an incredibly small, hot, and dense point and has been expanding and cooling ever since. This aligns with current scientific observations and measurements. Statement 2: Galaxies, consisting of billions or even trillions of stars, gas, and dust, did not exist in the early universe. Gravity played a crucial role in pulling together clumps of matter after the Big Bang, eventually leading to the formation of galaxies over billions of years. Statement 3: Stars are celestial bodies fuelled by nuclear fusion, primarily converting hydrogen into helium. This process releases tremendous amounts of energy in the form of light and heat, powering stars and influencing the surrounding environment.

#### 17. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Big Bang Theory suggests the universe began from an infinitely hot and dense point, rapidly expanding and cooling ever since.

• Galaxies formed billions of years after the Big Bang, condensing from smaller clumps of matter due to gravity.

• Stars within galaxies are constantly burning hydrogen into helium, releasing vast amounts of energy in the process.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

Statement 1: The Big Bang Theory is the prevailing cosmological model for the universe’s origin and evolution. It posits that the universe began from an incredibly small, hot, and dense point and has been expanding and cooling ever since. This aligns with current scientific observations and measurements.

Statement 2: Galaxies, consisting of billions or even trillions of stars, gas, and dust, did not exist in the early universe. Gravity played a crucial role in pulling together clumps of matter after the Big Bang, eventually leading to the formation of galaxies over billions of years.

Statement 3: Stars are celestial bodies fuelled by nuclear fusion, primarily converting hydrogen into helium. This process releases tremendous amounts of energy in the form of light and heat, powering stars and influencing the surrounding environment.

Solution: C

• Question 18 of 25 18. Question 1 points Which statement accurately describes E Ink displays? (a) E Ink displays use a backlight to emit light directly from the screen. (b) E Ink displays are known for their vibrant and colourful images. (c) E Ink technology relies on electrophoretic particles to display content. (d) E Ink displays have a fast refresh rate comparable to traditional LCD screens. Correct Solution: C Context: A new crowdfunded phone, called the Minimal Phone, has featured a white E Ink display. E Ink displays, used in devices like the Kindle, are based on technology developed in the 1990s at MIT and owned by E Ink Corporation. E Ink technology uses microcapsules filled with positively charged white particles and negatively charged black particles. When an electric field is applied, these particles move to the top of the microcapsules, creating a visible pattern. This electrophoretic process allows E Ink displays to show text and images. Incorrect Solution: C Context: A new crowdfunded phone, called the Minimal Phone, has featured a white E Ink display. E Ink displays, used in devices like the Kindle, are based on technology developed in the 1990s at MIT and owned by E Ink Corporation. E Ink technology uses microcapsules filled with positively charged white particles and negatively charged black particles. When an electric field is applied, these particles move to the top of the microcapsules, creating a visible pattern. This electrophoretic process allows E Ink displays to show text and images.

#### 18. Question

Which statement accurately describes E Ink displays?

• (a) E Ink displays use a backlight to emit light directly from the screen.

• (b) E Ink displays are known for their vibrant and colourful images.

• (c) E Ink technology relies on electrophoretic particles to display content.

• (d) E Ink displays have a fast refresh rate comparable to traditional LCD screens.

Solution: C

Context: A new crowdfunded phone, called the Minimal Phone, has featured a white E Ink display. E Ink displays, used in devices like the Kindle, are based on technology developed in the 1990s at MIT and owned by E Ink Corporation.

• E Ink technology uses microcapsules filled with positively charged white particles and negatively charged black particles.

• When an electric field is applied, these particles move to the top of the microcapsules, creating a visible pattern. This electrophoretic process allows E Ink displays to show text and images.

Solution: C

• E Ink technology uses microcapsules filled with positively charged white particles and negatively charged black particles.

• When an electric field is applied, these particles move to the top of the microcapsules, creating a visible pattern. This electrophoretic process allows E Ink displays to show text and images.

• Question 19 of 25 19. Question 1 points The famous Modhera Sun temple is an example of the (a) Chandela Temple Architecture (b) Dravida Temple Architecture (c) Solanki Temple Architecture (d) Vesara Temple Architecture Correct Solution: C Context: Gujarat set a Guinness World Record with over 50,000 people performing ‘Surya Namaskar’ simultaneously at 108 venues. The main event took place at Modhera Sun Temple in Mehsana In the north-western parts of India including Gujarat and Rajasthan, Solanki school or Maru-Gurjara style developed under the patronage of the Solanki rulers. The temple walls were devoid of any carvings. A unique feature of this school is the presence of a step-tank, known as surya-kund in the proximity of the temple. Example: Modhera Sun temple, Gujarat Incorrect Solution: C Context: Gujarat set a Guinness World Record with over 50,000 people performing ‘Surya Namaskar’ simultaneously at 108 venues. The main event took place at Modhera Sun Temple in Mehsana In the north-western parts of India including Gujarat and Rajasthan, Solanki school or Maru-Gurjara style developed under the patronage of the Solanki rulers. The temple walls were devoid of any carvings. A unique feature of this school is the presence of a step-tank, known as surya-kund in the proximity of the temple. Example: Modhera Sun temple, Gujarat

#### 19. Question

The famous Modhera Sun temple is an example of the

• (a) Chandela Temple Architecture

• (b) Dravida Temple Architecture

• (c) Solanki Temple Architecture

• (d) Vesara Temple Architecture

Solution: C

Context: Gujarat set a Guinness World Record with over 50,000 people performing ‘Surya Namaskar’ simultaneously at 108 venues.

• The main event took place at Modhera Sun Temple in Mehsana

• In the north-western parts of India including Gujarat and Rajasthan, Solanki school or Maru-Gurjara style developed under the patronage of the Solanki rulers.

• The temple walls were devoid of any carvings. A unique feature of this school is the presence of a step-tank, known as surya-kund in the proximity of the temple. Example: Modhera Sun temple, Gujarat

Solution: C

Context: Gujarat set a Guinness World Record with over 50,000 people performing ‘Surya Namaskar’ simultaneously at 108 venues.

• The main event took place at Modhera Sun Temple in Mehsana

• In the north-western parts of India including Gujarat and Rajasthan, Solanki school or Maru-Gurjara style developed under the patronage of the Solanki rulers.

• Question 20 of 25 20. Question 1 points ‘Shekhari and Bhumija’ are the terms associated with (a) donation to temple (b) rocks used in temple construction (c) modes of temple architecture (d) temple management board Correct Solution: C Depending on the period and geography, there is a large variation when it comes to what a shikhara looks like, or how it is used in a temple’s design. On this basis, Hardy identifies five modes of Nagara temple architecture — Valabhi, Phamsana, Latina, Shekhari, and Bhumija. Incorrect Solution: C Depending on the period and geography, there is a large variation when it comes to what a shikhara looks like, or how it is used in a temple’s design. On this basis, Hardy identifies five modes of Nagara temple architecture — Valabhi, Phamsana, Latina, Shekhari, and Bhumija.

#### 20. Question

‘Shekhari and Bhumija’ are the terms associated with

• (a) donation to temple

• (b) rocks used in temple construction

• (c) modes of temple architecture

• (d) temple management board

Solution: C

Depending on the period and geography, there is a large variation when it comes to what a shikhara looks like, or how it is used in a temple’s design. On this basis, Hardy identifies five modes of Nagara temple architecture — Valabhi, Phamsana, Latina, Shekhari, and Bhumija.

Solution: C

• Question 21 of 25 21. Question 1 points Recently, there was a claim made in India that the Darwinian theory of evolution is incorrect and should not be taught in schools. In the field of science, the sole criterion for the survival of a theory is that it must explain all observed phenomena in its domain. For the present, Darwin’s theory is the best such theory but it is not perfect and leaves many questions unanswered. This is because the origin of life on earth is still unexplained by science. Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the passage? a) Till such time that a theory better than Darwin’s comes along, Science will continue to believe in it b) Darwin’s theory of evolution fails to hold its ground in light of scientific evidence c) Darwin’s theory of evolution fails to explain origin of life d) None of the above Correct Solution: A. Statement B is wrong as per the passage. The passage states that theory of evolution does not answer certain questions but continues to remain the best explanation for evolution of life. Hence A. Statement C is correct per se but is not the inference of the passage. Moreover, the focus of Darwin’s theory was not to explain the origin of life but the evolution of life. Incorrect Solution: A. Statement B is wrong as per the passage. The passage states that theory of evolution does not answer certain questions but continues to remain the best explanation for evolution of life. Hence A. Statement C is correct per se but is not the inference of the passage. Moreover, the focus of Darwin’s theory was not to explain the origin of life but the evolution of life.

#### 21. Question

Recently, there was a claim made in India that the Darwinian theory of evolution is incorrect and should not be taught in schools. In the field of science, the sole criterion for the survival of a theory is that it must explain all observed phenomena in its domain. For the present, Darwin’s theory is the best such theory but it is not perfect and leaves many questions unanswered. This is because the origin of life on earth is still unexplained by science.

Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the passage?

• a) Till such time that a theory better than Darwin’s comes along, Science will continue to believe in it

• b) Darwin’s theory of evolution fails to hold its ground in light of scientific evidence

• c) Darwin’s theory of evolution fails to explain origin of life

• d) None of the above

Solution: A.

Statement B is wrong as per the passage. The passage states that theory of evolution does not answer certain questions but continues to remain the best explanation for evolution of life. Hence A. Statement C is correct per se but is not the inference of the passage. Moreover, the focus of Darwin’s theory was not to explain the origin of life but the evolution of life.

Solution: A.

• Question 22 of 25 22. Question 1 points The impact of science and the modern world have brought a greater appreciation of facts, a more critical faculty, a weighing of evidence, a refusal to accept tradition just because it is tradition. Which of the following views corroborate the above statement? a) Scientific temper is overrated b) Scientific temper is the requirement of modern times c) Scientific temper is an outcome of good education d) None of the above Correct Solution: B. The passage is describing scientific temper. The passage says that with the advent of science and modernity scientific temper and critical faculty has become very important. Hence B Incorrect Solution: B. The passage is describing scientific temper. The passage says that with the advent of science and modernity scientific temper and critical faculty has become very important. Hence B

#### 22. Question

The impact of science and the modern world have brought a greater appreciation of facts, a more critical faculty, a weighing of evidence, a refusal to accept tradition just because it is tradition.

Which of the following views corroborate the above statement?

• a) Scientific temper is overrated

• b) Scientific temper is the requirement of modern times

• c) Scientific temper is an outcome of good education

• d) None of the above

Solution: B.

The passage is describing scientific temper. The passage says that with the advent of science and modernity scientific temper and critical faculty has become very important. Hence B

Solution: B.

The passage is describing scientific temper. The passage says that with the advent of science and modernity scientific temper and critical faculty has become very important. Hence B

• Question 23 of 25 23. Question 1 points In a certain code ‘TERMINAL’ is written as ‘SDQLJOBM’. How is CREDIBLE written in that code? A. BQDCJCMF B. BQDCHAKD C. DSFEJCMF D. DSFEHAKD Correct Answer A) BQDCJCMF T E R M I N A L ↓↓↓↓↓↓↓↓ –1–1–1–1+1+1+1+1 ↓↓↓↓↓↓↓↓ S D Q L J O B M Similarly; C R E D I B L E ↓↓↓↓↓↓↓↓ –1–1–1–1+1+1+1+1 ↓↓↓↓↓↓↓↓ B Q D C J C M F Hence, option A is correct. Incorrect Answer A) BQDCJCMF T E R M I N A L ↓↓↓↓↓↓↓↓ –1–1–1–1+1+1+1+1 ↓↓↓↓↓↓↓↓ S D Q L J O B M Similarly; C R E D I B L E ↓↓↓↓↓↓↓↓ –1–1–1–1+1+1+1+1 ↓↓↓↓↓↓↓↓ B Q D C J C M F Hence, option A is correct.

#### 23. Question

In a certain code ‘TERMINAL’ is written as ‘SDQLJOBM’. How is CREDIBLE written in that code?

• A. BQDCJCMF

• B. BQDCHAKD

• C. DSFEJCMF

• D. DSFEHAKD

Answer A) BQDCJCMF

T E R M I N A L

–1–1–1–1+1+1+1+1

S D Q L J O B M

Similarly;

C R E D I B L E

–1–1–1–1+1+1+1+1

B Q D C J C M F

Hence, option A is correct.

Answer A) BQDCJCMF

T E R M I N A L

–1–1–1–1+1+1+1+1

S D Q L J O B M

Similarly;

C R E D I B L E

–1–1–1–1+1+1+1+1

B Q D C J C M F

Hence, option A is correct.

• Question 24 of 25 24. Question 1 points If in a code language ‘PUTREFY’ is written as ‘XPQSTRL’ and ‘NAVIGATE’ is written as ‘GYMOWYQT’ how is ‘AVIARY’ written in that language? A. YOMYLS B. YMOYLS C. YMOYSL D. YOMYSL Correct Answer C) YMOYSL P U T R E F Y ↓↓↓↓↓↓↓ X P Q S T R L And N A V I G A T E ↓↓↓↓↓↓↓↓ G Y M OW Y Q T Therefore, A V I A R Y ↓↓↓↓↓↓ Y MO Y S L Hence, option C is correct. Incorrect Answer C) YMOYSL P U T R E F Y ↓↓↓↓↓↓↓ X P Q S T R L And N A V I G A T E ↓↓↓↓↓↓↓↓ G Y M OW Y Q T Therefore, A V I A R Y ↓↓↓↓↓↓ Y MO Y S L Hence, option C is correct.

#### 24. Question

If in a code language ‘PUTREFY’ is written as ‘XPQSTRL’ and ‘NAVIGATE’ is written as ‘GYMOWYQT’ how is ‘AVIARY’ written in that language?

Answer C) YMOYSL

P U T R E F Y

X P Q S T R L

N A V I G A T E

G Y M OW Y Q T

Therefore,

A V I A R Y

Y MO Y S L

Hence, option C is correct.

Answer C) YMOYSL

P U T R E F Y

X P Q S T R L

N A V I G A T E

G Y M OW Y Q T

Therefore,

A V I A R Y

Y MO Y S L

Hence, option C is correct.

• Question 25 of 25 25. Question 1 points In a certain code RAIN is written as TCKP. How is CLOUD written in that code? A. ENQWF B. EMQWF C. FNQWE D. ENRWF Correct Answer A) ENQWF R A I N ↓↓↓↓ +2+2+2+2 ↓↓↓↓ T C K P Therefore, C L O U D ↓↓↓↓↓ +2+2+2+2+2 ↓↓↓↓↓ E N Q W F Hence, option A is correct. Incorrect Answer A) ENQWF R A I N ↓↓↓↓ +2+2+2+2 ↓↓↓↓ T C K P Therefore, C L O U D ↓↓↓↓↓ +2+2+2+2+2 ↓↓↓↓↓ E N Q W F Hence, option A is correct.

#### 25. Question

In a certain code RAIN is written as TCKP. How is CLOUD written in

that code?

Answer A) ENQWF

Therefore,

+2+2+2+2+2

Hence, option A is correct.

Answer A) ENQWF

Therefore,

+2+2+2+2+2

Hence, option A is correct.

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