DAY – 44 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – ECONOMY, Subject-wise Test 31, and June 2023 CA

INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Which of the following determines the economic wealth of a nation? a) The abundance of natural resources and their efficient use in production b) The effectiveness of production processes and their ability to create value c) The capacity of a nation to transform inputs into high-value outputs through innovation d) The synthesis of various societal elements with intricate economic structures and evolving technological paradigms. Correct Answers: d Explanation: What determines the economic wealth of a nation is complex, and there are multiple factors that can contribute to a nation’s wealth. The abundance of natural resources and their efficient use in production: While the possession of natural resources can contribute to economic wealth, history shows that it’s not always a guarantee of prosperity. Many resource-rich nations remain underdeveloped due to mismanagement, corruption, or a lack of infrastructure and technology. Efficient use of resources is more important than merely having them. The effectiveness of production processes and their ability to create value: This option emphasizes the importance of converting resources into valuable products and services. Effective production processes that create value are a key determinant of economic wealth. Nations with efficient and innovative industries tend to be wealthier, regardless of their natural resource endowments. The capacity of a nation to transform inputs into high-value outputs through innovation: Innovation is a critical driver of economic growth and wealth creation. Nations that can transform basic inputs into high-value outputs often achieve greater economic success. However, innovation alone doesn’t cover all aspects of economic wealth. The synthesis of various societal elements with intricate economic structures and evolving technological paradigms: This option encompasses a broader view of the determinants of economic wealth. Societal Elements: This refers to the cultural, social, and institutional aspects of a society. These could encompass factors like education, government policies, social norms, and community values. Intricate Economic Structures: This suggests that the economy is composed of complex relationships and systems. It implies a network of industries, businesses, financial systems, and labor markets that interact with each other in a detailed manner. Evolving Technological Paradigms: This indicates the ongoing changes and innovations in technology. It encompasses advancements in machinery, software, artificial intelligence, automation, and other technological developments that impact production, communication, and other aspects of the economy. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answers: d Explanation: What determines the economic wealth of a nation is complex, and there are multiple factors that can contribute to a nation’s wealth. The abundance of natural resources and their efficient use in production: While the possession of natural resources can contribute to economic wealth, history shows that it’s not always a guarantee of prosperity. Many resource-rich nations remain underdeveloped due to mismanagement, corruption, or a lack of infrastructure and technology. Efficient use of resources is more important than merely having them. The effectiveness of production processes and their ability to create value: This option emphasizes the importance of converting resources into valuable products and services. Effective production processes that create value are a key determinant of economic wealth. Nations with efficient and innovative industries tend to be wealthier, regardless of their natural resource endowments. The capacity of a nation to transform inputs into high-value outputs through innovation: Innovation is a critical driver of economic growth and wealth creation. Nations that can transform basic inputs into high-value outputs often achieve greater economic success. However, innovation alone doesn’t cover all aspects of economic wealth. The synthesis of various societal elements with intricate economic structures and evolving technological paradigms: This option encompasses a broader view of the determinants of economic wealth. Societal Elements: This refers to the cultural, social, and institutional aspects of a society. These could encompass factors like education, government policies, social norms, and community values. Intricate Economic Structures: This suggests that the economy is composed of complex relationships and systems. It implies a network of industries, businesses, financial systems, and labor markets that interact with each other in a detailed manner. Evolving Technological Paradigms: This indicates the ongoing changes and innovations in technology. It encompasses advancements in machinery, software, artificial intelligence, automation, and other technological developments that impact production, communication, and other aspects of the economy. Hence, option (d) is correct.

#### 1. Question

Which of the following determines the economic wealth of a nation?

• a) The abundance of natural resources and their efficient use in production

• b) The effectiveness of production processes and their ability to create value

• c) The capacity of a nation to transform inputs into high-value outputs through innovation

• d) The synthesis of various societal elements with intricate economic structures and evolving technological paradigms.

Answers: d

Explanation:

What determines the economic wealth of a nation is complex, and there are multiple factors that can contribute to a nation’s wealth.

• The abundance of natural resources and their efficient use in production: While the possession of natural resources can contribute to economic wealth, history shows that it’s not always a guarantee of prosperity. Many resource-rich nations remain underdeveloped due to mismanagement, corruption, or a lack of infrastructure and technology. Efficient use of resources is more important than merely having them.

• The effectiveness of production processes and their ability to create value: This option emphasizes the importance of converting resources into valuable products and services. Effective production processes that create value are a key determinant of economic wealth. Nations with efficient and innovative industries tend to be wealthier, regardless of their natural resource endowments.

• The capacity of a nation to transform inputs into high-value outputs through innovation: Innovation is a critical driver of economic growth and wealth creation. Nations that can transform basic inputs into high-value outputs often achieve greater economic success. However, innovation alone doesn’t cover all aspects of economic wealth.

• The synthesis of various societal elements with intricate economic structures and evolving technological paradigms: This option encompasses a broader view of the determinants of economic wealth.

• Societal Elements: This refers to the cultural, social, and institutional aspects of a society. These could encompass factors like education, government policies, social norms, and community values.

• Intricate Economic Structures: This suggests that the economy is composed of complex relationships and systems. It implies a network of industries, businesses, financial systems, and labor markets that interact with each other in a detailed manner.

• Evolving Technological Paradigms: This indicates the ongoing changes and innovations in technology. It encompasses advancements in machinery, software, artificial intelligence, automation, and other technological developments that impact production, communication, and other aspects of the economy.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Answers: d

Explanation:

What determines the economic wealth of a nation is complex, and there are multiple factors that can contribute to a nation’s wealth.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Consider the ffollowing statements about capital goods: Capital goods are typically consumed in a single production cycle. They can be intangible, like software and patents. Capital goods are a form of current assets for a business. They are subject to depreciation over time. How many of the above are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: C Explanation: Capital goods, also known as capital assets (tangible or intangible) are resources used in the production of goods and services over multiple cycles. They are essential for producing other products or providing services, and generally last for extended periods, unlike consumer goods, which are used and consumed quickly. Capital goods are durable and used over multiple production cycles. Capital goods, such as machinery, equipment, or buildings, are used repeatedly over many cycles. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Capital goods can be intangible, such as software and patents. Capital goods can include software, patents, trademarks, and other intellectual property, which are used in production or operations. Computer software is the most widely owned type of intangible capital asset. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Capital goods are long-term assets, not current assets. Current assets are typically consumed or converted to cash within a year. In contrast, capital goods are long-term assets used in production over many years. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Capital goods are subject to depreciation due to wear and tear. Capital goods, due to wear and tear or obsolescence, lose value over time. Hence, statement 4 is correct. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Capital goods, also known as capital assets (tangible or intangible) are resources used in the production of goods and services over multiple cycles. They are essential for producing other products or providing services, and generally last for extended periods, unlike consumer goods, which are used and consumed quickly. Capital goods are durable and used over multiple production cycles. Capital goods, such as machinery, equipment, or buildings, are used repeatedly over many cycles. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Capital goods can be intangible, such as software and patents. Capital goods can include software, patents, trademarks, and other intellectual property, which are used in production or operations. Computer software is the most widely owned type of intangible capital asset. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Capital goods are long-term assets, not current assets. Current assets are typically consumed or converted to cash within a year. In contrast, capital goods are long-term assets used in production over many years. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Capital goods are subject to depreciation due to wear and tear. Capital goods, due to wear and tear or obsolescence, lose value over time. Hence, statement 4 is correct. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 2. Question

Consider the ffollowing statements about capital goods:

• Capital goods are typically consumed in a single production cycle.

• They can be intangible, like software and patents.

• Capital goods are a form of current assets for a business.

• They are subject to depreciation over time.

How many of the above are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

• Capital goods, also known as capital assets (tangible or intangible) are resources used in the production of goods and services over multiple cycles. They are essential for producing other products or providing services, and generally last for extended periods, unlike consumer goods, which are used and consumed quickly.

• Capital goods are durable and used over multiple production cycles. Capital goods, such as machinery, equipment, or buildings, are used repeatedly over many cycles. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Capital goods can be intangible, such as software and patents. Capital goods can include software, patents, trademarks, and other intellectual property, which are used in production or operations. Computer software is the most widely owned type of intangible capital asset. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Capital goods are long-term assets, not current assets. Current assets are typically consumed or converted to cash within a year. In contrast, capital goods are long-term assets used in production over many years. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Capital goods are subject to depreciation due to wear and tear. Capital goods, due to wear and tear or obsolescence, lose value over time. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

• Capital goods are subject to depreciation due to wear and tear. Capital goods, due to wear and tear or obsolescence, lose value over time. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points What is the method used to account for the loss of value in intangible assets over time? a) Depreciation b) Amortization c) Devaluation d) Obsolescence Correct Answer: b Explanation: The typical method used to account for the loss of value in intangible assets over time is amortization. This method is similar to depreciation, but while depreciation is applied to tangible assets like equipment and buildings, amortization is applied to intangible assets like patents, copyrights, and trademarks. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: The typical method used to account for the loss of value in intangible assets over time is amortization. This method is similar to depreciation, but while depreciation is applied to tangible assets like equipment and buildings, amortization is applied to intangible assets like patents, copyrights, and trademarks. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 3. Question

What is the method used to account for the loss of value in intangible assets over time?

• a) Depreciation

• b) Amortization

• c) Devaluation

• d) Obsolescence

Explanation:

• The typical method used to account for the loss of value in intangible assets over time is amortization. This method is similar to depreciation, but while depreciation is applied to tangible assets like equipment and buildings, amortization is applied to intangible assets like patents, copyrights, and trademarks.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points In a circular flow of income model which of the following sectors are involved? Financial Markets Foreign trade Households Government Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: d Explanation: The circular flow of income is a fundamental concept in economics that describes the movement of money, goods, and services within an economy. It shows how different sectors in the economy interact and depend on each other. In a complex circular flow of income model, the economy’s interactions among different sectors create a dynamic system of income generation, spending, and resource allocation. Households: Households are typically the primary providers of labor and capital to firms in exchange for wages, rent, interest, and profits. They use this income to purchase goods and services from firms, driving the consumer side of the economy. Firms: Firms employ the factors of production (labor, capital, land, and entrepreneurship) provided by households to create goods and services. They then sell these to households, governments, or other firms, generating revenue. Firms’ expenditures on wages, rent, interest, and profits create income for households and other sectors. Government: Governments play a role by taxing households and firms and using these funds to provide public goods and services. They also redistribute income through transfer payments like social security and unemployment benefits. Government spending on infrastructure, education, and public services contributes to the circular flow. Financial Markets: These facilitate the flow of funds between savers (households) and borrowers (firms and governments). Financial markets enable investment in productive assets, driving economic growth, and they play a crucial role in capital formation and risk management. Foreign Trade: This represents interactions with other economies through exports and imports. Exports bring revenue into the economy, while imports represent expenditure on foreign goods and services. The balance between these two can affect the overall circular flow. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: The circular flow of income is a fundamental concept in economics that describes the movement of money, goods, and services within an economy. It shows how different sectors in the economy interact and depend on each other. In a complex circular flow of income model, the economy’s interactions among different sectors create a dynamic system of income generation, spending, and resource allocation. Households: Households are typically the primary providers of labor and capital to firms in exchange for wages, rent, interest, and profits. They use this income to purchase goods and services from firms, driving the consumer side of the economy. Firms: Firms employ the factors of production (labor, capital, land, and entrepreneurship) provided by households to create goods and services. They then sell these to households, governments, or other firms, generating revenue. Firms’ expenditures on wages, rent, interest, and profits create income for households and other sectors. Government: Governments play a role by taxing households and firms and using these funds to provide public goods and services. They also redistribute income through transfer payments like social security and unemployment benefits. Government spending on infrastructure, education, and public services contributes to the circular flow. Financial Markets: These facilitate the flow of funds between savers (households) and borrowers (firms and governments). Financial markets enable investment in productive assets, driving economic growth, and they play a crucial role in capital formation and risk management. Foreign Trade: This represents interactions with other economies through exports and imports. Exports bring revenue into the economy, while imports represent expenditure on foreign goods and services. The balance between these two can affect the overall circular flow. Hence, option (d) is correct.

#### 4. Question

In a circular flow of income model which of the following sectors are involved?

• Financial Markets

• Foreign trade

• Households

• Government

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

• The circular flow of income is a fundamental concept in economics that describes the movement of money, goods, and services within an economy. It shows how different sectors in the economy interact and depend on each other.

• In a complex circular flow of income model, the economy’s interactions among different sectors create a dynamic system of income generation, spending, and resource allocation.

• Households: Households are typically the primary providers of labor and capital to firms in exchange for wages, rent, interest, and profits. They use this income to purchase goods and services from firms, driving the consumer side of the economy.

• Firms: Firms employ the factors of production (labor, capital, land, and entrepreneurship) provided by households to create goods and services. They then sell these to households, governments, or other firms, generating revenue. Firms’ expenditures on wages, rent, interest, and profits create income for households and other sectors.

• Government: Governments play a role by taxing households and firms and using these funds to provide public goods and services. They also redistribute income through transfer payments like social security and unemployment benefits. Government spending on infrastructure, education, and public services contributes to the circular flow.

• Financial Markets: These facilitate the flow of funds between savers (households) and borrowers (firms and governments). Financial markets enable investment in productive assets, driving economic growth, and they play a crucial role in capital formation and risk management.

• Foreign Trade: This represents interactions with other economies through exports and imports. Exports bring revenue into the economy, while imports represent expenditure on foreign goods and services. The balance between these two can affect the overall circular flow.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

• In a complex circular flow of income model, the economy’s interactions among different sectors create a dynamic system of income generation, spending, and resource allocation.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Which of the following sectors did NOT experience significant reforms during the liberalisation period in 1991? a) Financial sector b) Manufacturing sector c) Agricultural sector d) Service sector Correct Answer: c Explanation: During India’s economic liberalisation in 1991, there were extensive reforms in the financial, manufacturing, and service sectors. These reforms included deregulation, privatisation, reduced government control, and the opening of these sectors to foreign investment and trade. However, the agricultural sector largely remained under government control, with policies that continued to involve heavy regulation, subsidies, and support mechanisms. As a result, significant reforms in agriculture were delayed compared to other sectors, which were transformed by the liberalisation process. Hence, option(c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: During India’s economic liberalisation in 1991, there were extensive reforms in the financial, manufacturing, and service sectors. These reforms included deregulation, privatisation, reduced government control, and the opening of these sectors to foreign investment and trade. However, the agricultural sector largely remained under government control, with policies that continued to involve heavy regulation, subsidies, and support mechanisms. As a result, significant reforms in agriculture were delayed compared to other sectors, which were transformed by the liberalisation process. Hence, option(c) is correct.

#### 5. Question

Which of the following sectors did NOT experience significant reforms during the liberalisation period in 1991?

• a) Financial sector

• b) Manufacturing sector

• c) Agricultural sector

• d) Service sector

Explanation:

• During India’s economic liberalisation in 1991, there were extensive reforms in the financial, manufacturing, and service sectors. These reforms included deregulation, privatisation, reduced government control, and the opening of these sectors to foreign investment and trade.

• However, the agricultural sector largely remained under government control, with policies that continued to involve heavy regulation, subsidies, and support mechanisms. As a result, significant reforms in agriculture were delayed compared to other sectors, which were transformed by the liberalisation process.

• Hence, option(c) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option(c) is correct.

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements with reference to human capital: Human capital refers to people’s skills, knowledge and experience. Human capital is inseparable from its owner. Physical capital typically has a greater impact on a nation’s economy than human capital. Human capital undergoes depreciation over time. How many of the above are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: c Explanation: Human capital consists of the knowledge, skills, and health that people invest in and accumulate throughout their lives, enabling them to realize their potential as productive members of society. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Human capital is intangible and inseparable from its owner. Unlike physical capital, which can be transferred or separated from its owner, human capital is inherently tied to the individual. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The statement that physical capital has a greater impact on a nation’s economy than human capital might not be entirely accurate. While physical capital is crucial for industrial and infrastructural development, human capital is often viewed as equally important—if not more so—in driving innovation, productivity, and overall economic growth. Societies with highly educated and skilled workforces typically exhibit higher levels of innovation and economic output. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Human capital, like physical capital, can depreciate over time. This depreciation could result from a variety of factors such as aging, lack of continuous education, or skill obsolescence due to technological changes. However, unlike physical capital, human capital depreciation can be mitigated through ongoing investment in education and health, as well as continuous skill development and retraining programs. Hence, statement 4 is correct. Hence, option(c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Human capital consists of the knowledge, skills, and health that people invest in and accumulate throughout their lives, enabling them to realize their potential as productive members of society. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Human capital is intangible and inseparable from its owner. Unlike physical capital, which can be transferred or separated from its owner, human capital is inherently tied to the individual. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The statement that physical capital has a greater impact on a nation’s economy than human capital might not be entirely accurate. While physical capital is crucial for industrial and infrastructural development, human capital is often viewed as equally important—if not more so—in driving innovation, productivity, and overall economic growth. Societies with highly educated and skilled workforces typically exhibit higher levels of innovation and economic output. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Human capital, like physical capital, can depreciate over time. This depreciation could result from a variety of factors such as aging, lack of continuous education, or skill obsolescence due to technological changes. However, unlike physical capital, human capital depreciation can be mitigated through ongoing investment in education and health, as well as continuous skill development and retraining programs. Hence, statement 4 is correct. Hence, option(c) is correct.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements with reference to human capital:

• Human capital refers to people’s skills, knowledge and experience.

• Human capital is inseparable from its owner.

• Physical capital typically has a greater impact on a nation’s economy than human capital.

• Human capital undergoes depreciation over time.

How many of the above are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

• Human capital consists of the knowledge, skills, and health that people invest in and accumulate throughout their lives, enabling them to realize their potential as productive members of society. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Human capital is intangible and inseparable from its owner. Unlike physical capital, which can be transferred or separated from its owner, human capital is inherently tied to the individual. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• The statement that physical capital has a greater impact on a nation’s economy than human capital might not be entirely accurate. While physical capital is crucial for industrial and infrastructural development, human capital is often viewed as equally important—if not more so—in driving innovation, productivity, and overall economic growth. Societies with highly educated and skilled workforces typically exhibit higher levels of innovation and economic output. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Human capital, like physical capital, can depreciate over time. This depreciation could result from a variety of factors such as aging, lack of continuous education, or skill obsolescence due to technological changes. However, unlike physical capital, human capital depreciation can be mitigated through ongoing investment in education and health, as well as continuous skill development and retraining programs. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Hence, option(c) is correct.

Explanation:

Hence, option(c) is correct.

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes’ Worker-Population Ratio’? a) The ratio of the employed population to the working-age population b) The ratio of individuals seeking employment to the total population c) The percentage of the total population engaged in economic activities d) The proportion of wage-employed individuals to the total working-age population Correct Answer: c Explanation: The ratio of the employed population to the working-age population: This description more closely aligns with the labor force participation rate, which considers the working-age population, generally defined as those between 15 and 64 years of age. Labor Force Participation Rate: Focuses on the ratio of those in the labor force to the total working-age population. The ratio of individuals seeking employment to the total population: This describes the unemployment rate or the labor force’s subset actively seeking work. The Worker-Population Ratio (WPR) is a measure used to determine the proportion of a population actively involved in economic activities, regardless of the type of employment (self-employed, wage-employed, etc.). The WPR is calculated by dividing the total number of workers by the total population and multiplying by 100. It provides insights into the workforce’s engagement in the economy. The proportion of wage-employed individuals to the total working-age population: This option suggests a focus on wage employment among the working-age group, a different concept from the Worker-Population Ratio. Hence, option(c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: The ratio of the employed population to the working-age population: This description more closely aligns with the labor force participation rate, which considers the working-age population, generally defined as those between 15 and 64 years of age. Labor Force Participation Rate: Focuses on the ratio of those in the labor force to the total working-age population. The ratio of individuals seeking employment to the total population: This describes the unemployment rate or the labor force’s subset actively seeking work. The Worker-Population Ratio (WPR) is a measure used to determine the proportion of a population actively involved in economic activities, regardless of the type of employment (self-employed, wage-employed, etc.). The WPR is calculated by dividing the total number of workers by the total population and multiplying by 100. It provides insights into the workforce’s engagement in the economy. The proportion of wage-employed individuals to the total working-age population: This option suggests a focus on wage employment among the working-age group, a different concept from the Worker-Population Ratio. Hence, option(c) is correct.

#### 7. Question

Which of the following best describes’ Worker-Population Ratio’?

• a) The ratio of the employed population to the working-age population

• b) The ratio of individuals seeking employment to the total population

• c) The percentage of the total population engaged in economic activities

• d) The proportion of wage-employed individuals to the total working-age population

Explanation:

• The ratio of the employed population to the working-age population: This description more closely aligns with the labor force participation rate, which considers the working-age population, generally defined as those between 15 and 64 years of age.

• Labor Force Participation Rate: Focuses on the ratio of those in the labor force to the total working-age population.

• The ratio of individuals seeking employment to the total population: This describes the unemployment rate or the labor force’s subset actively seeking work.

• The Worker-Population Ratio (WPR) is a measure used to determine the proportion of a population actively involved in economic activities, regardless of the type of employment (self-employed, wage-employed, etc.). The WPR is calculated by dividing the total number of workers by the total population and multiplying by 100. It provides insights into the workforce’s engagement in the economy.

• The proportion of wage-employed individuals to the total working-age population: This option suggests a focus on wage employment among the working-age group, a different concept from the Worker-Population Ratio.

• Hence, option(c) is correct.

Explanation:

• Labor Force Participation Rate: Focuses on the ratio of those in the labor force to the total working-age population.

• The ratio of individuals seeking employment to the total population: This describes the unemployment rate or the labor force’s subset actively seeking work.

• Hence, option(c) is correct.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Which of the following statements are correct regarding employment elasticity: Employment elasticity is a measure of the percentage change in employment associated with change in GDP. A negative employment elasticity implies that as the economy grows, the employment rate decreases. An employment elasticity of 0 means that employment grows at the same rate as GDP growth. A low employment elasticity could indicate jobless growth. The construction and utilities sector in India has shown negative employment elasticity. Which of the above given statements is/are correct? a) 1,2 and 4 only b) 2,4 and 5 only c) 3,4 and 5 only d) 1,2,3 and 4 only Correct Answer: a Explanation: Employment elasticity measures how employment changes with a 1 percentage point increase in GDP. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Negative employment elasticity indicates that employment decreases as the economy grows. Hence, statement 2 is correct. An employment elasticity of 0 indicates no employment growth despite GDP growth. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Jobless growth can be a result of low employment elasticity. Hence, statement 4 is correct. The construction and utilities sector in India has shown high employment elasticity. Hence, statement 5 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Employment elasticity measures how employment changes with a 1 percentage point increase in GDP. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Negative employment elasticity indicates that employment decreases as the economy grows. Hence, statement 2 is correct. An employment elasticity of 0 indicates no employment growth despite GDP growth. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Jobless growth can be a result of low employment elasticity. Hence, statement 4 is correct. The construction and utilities sector in India has shown high employment elasticity. Hence, statement 5 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 8. Question

Which of the following statements are correct regarding employment elasticity:

• Employment elasticity is a measure of the percentage change in employment associated with change in GDP.

• A negative employment elasticity implies that as the economy grows, the employment rate decreases.

• An employment elasticity of 0 means that employment grows at the same rate as GDP growth.

• A low employment elasticity could indicate jobless growth.

• The construction and utilities sector in India has shown negative employment elasticity.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

• a) 1,2 and 4 only

• b) 2,4 and 5 only

• c) 3,4 and 5 only

• d) 1,2,3 and 4 only

Explanation:

• Employment elasticity measures how employment changes with a 1 percentage point increase in GDP. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Negative employment elasticity indicates that employment decreases as the economy grows. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• An employment elasticity of 0 indicates no employment growth despite GDP growth. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Jobless growth can be a result of low employment elasticity. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

• The construction and utilities sector in India has shown high employment elasticity. Hence, statement 5 is incorrect.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• Employment elasticity measures how employment changes with a 1 percentage point increase in GDP. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Negative employment elasticity indicates that employment decreases as the economy grows. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• An employment elasticity of 0 indicates no employment growth despite GDP growth. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Jobless growth can be a result of low employment elasticity. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

• The construction and utilities sector in India has shown high employment elasticity. Hence, statement 5 is incorrect.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Consider the following: Higher job security and benefit Greater flexibility in work schedules Increased vulnerability due to unstable employment Higher wages and better working conditions How many of the above could be the impact of “casualisation of workforce” on Indian workers? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: b Explanation: Casualisation of work is a significant trend observed in many economies, reflecting a shift from stable, long-term employment to more temporary and flexible arrangements. It is characterized by an increase in casual, part-time, or contract-based employment, often with reduced job security and benefits. This phenomenon has several implications for workers, businesses, and the economy as a whole. Higher job security and benefits is not typically associated with casualisation. Casual employment tends to lack the job security and benefits found in regular salaried employment. Greater flexibility in work schedules is often associated with casualisation, where workers may have more flexibility but less job security. Increased vulnerability due to unstable employment is a known impact of casualisation, as casual work tends to be less stable and lacks the protections of regular employment. Casualisation generally doesn’t lead to higher wages or better working conditions; instead, it may result in lower wages and poorer working conditions due to a lack of employment protections. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Casualisation of work is a significant trend observed in many economies, reflecting a shift from stable, long-term employment to more temporary and flexible arrangements. It is characterized by an increase in casual, part-time, or contract-based employment, often with reduced job security and benefits. This phenomenon has several implications for workers, businesses, and the economy as a whole. Higher job security and benefits is not typically associated with casualisation. Casual employment tends to lack the job security and benefits found in regular salaried employment. Greater flexibility in work schedules is often associated with casualisation, where workers may have more flexibility but less job security. Increased vulnerability due to unstable employment is a known impact of casualisation, as casual work tends to be less stable and lacks the protections of regular employment. Casualisation generally doesn’t lead to higher wages or better working conditions; instead, it may result in lower wages and poorer working conditions due to a lack of employment protections. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following:

• Higher job security and benefit

• Greater flexibility in work schedules

• Increased vulnerability due to unstable employment

• Higher wages and better working conditions

How many of the above could be the impact of “casualisation of workforce” on Indian workers?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

• Casualisation of work is a significant trend observed in many economies, reflecting a shift from stable, long-term employment to more temporary and flexible arrangements.

• It is characterized by an increase in casual, part-time, or contract-based employment, often with reduced job security and benefits. This phenomenon has several implications for workers, businesses, and the economy as a whole.

• Higher job security and benefits is not typically associated with casualisation. Casual employment tends to lack the job security and benefits found in regular salaried employment.

• Greater flexibility in work schedules is often associated with casualisation, where workers may have more flexibility but less job security.

• Increased vulnerability due to unstable employment is a known impact of casualisation, as casual work tends to be less stable and lacks the protections of regular employment.

• Casualisation generally doesn’t lead to higher wages or better working conditions; instead, it may result in lower wages and poorer working conditions due to a lack of employment protections.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• Casualisation of work is a significant trend observed in many economies, reflecting a shift from stable, long-term employment to more temporary and flexible arrangements.

• Higher job security and benefits is not typically associated with casualisation. Casual employment tends to lack the job security and benefits found in regular salaried employment.

• Greater flexibility in work schedules is often associated with casualisation, where workers may have more flexibility but less job security.

• Increased vulnerability due to unstable employment is a known impact of casualisation, as casual work tends to be less stable and lacks the protections of regular employment.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points In the context of demand for money, the “liquidity preference theory” suggests that: a) People prefer to hold money even when interest rates are high. b) People prefer to hold money only when interest rates are low. c) The preference for liquidity is inversely related to income. d) The preference for liquidity is proportional to the money supply. Correct Answer: a Explanation: Liquidity Preference Theory: This theory, formulated by John Maynard Keynes, is a core component of Keynesian economics. It explains why people hold money instead of investing it in other assets. The theory outlines three motives for holding money: Transaction Motive: To facilitate day-to-day transactions. Precautionary Motive: To have liquidity in case of unexpected needs or emergencies. Speculative Motive: To hold money with an expectation that other investments might fall in value. People prefer to hold money for its liquidity, even when interest rates are high because people often value the flexibility and safety of holding money, regardless of the potential returns from interest-bearing assets. Even in high-interest rate environments, some individuals might prioritize liquidity due to their specific needs or risk aversion. Hence, option(a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Liquidity Preference Theory: This theory, formulated by John Maynard Keynes, is a core component of Keynesian economics. It explains why people hold money instead of investing it in other assets. The theory outlines three motives for holding money: Transaction Motive: To facilitate day-to-day transactions. Precautionary Motive: To have liquidity in case of unexpected needs or emergencies. Speculative Motive: To hold money with an expectation that other investments might fall in value. People prefer to hold money for its liquidity, even when interest rates are high because people often value the flexibility and safety of holding money, regardless of the potential returns from interest-bearing assets. Even in high-interest rate environments, some individuals might prioritize liquidity due to their specific needs or risk aversion. Hence, option(a) is correct.

#### 10. Question

In the context of demand for money, the “liquidity preference theory” suggests that:

• a) People prefer to hold money even when interest rates are high.

• b) People prefer to hold money only when interest rates are low.

• c) The preference for liquidity is inversely related to income.

• d) The preference for liquidity is proportional to the money supply.

Explanation:

• Liquidity Preference Theory: This theory, formulated by John Maynard Keynes, is a core component of Keynesian economics. It explains why people hold money instead of investing it in other assets. The theory outlines three motives for holding money:

• Transaction Motive: To facilitate day-to-day transactions.

• Precautionary Motive: To have liquidity in case of unexpected needs or emergencies.

• Speculative Motive: To hold money with an expectation that other investments might fall in value.

• People prefer to hold money for its liquidity, even when interest rates are high because people often value the flexibility and safety of holding money, regardless of the potential returns from interest-bearing assets. Even in high-interest rate environments, some individuals might prioritize liquidity due to their specific needs or risk aversion.

• Hence, option(a) is correct.

Explanation:

• Transaction Motive: To facilitate day-to-day transactions.

• Precautionary Motive: To have liquidity in case of unexpected needs or emergencies.

• Speculative Motive: To hold money with an expectation that other investments might fall in value.

• Hence, option(a) is correct.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following regarding the election expenses of star campaigners: If a star campaigner’s rally displays only the posters of candidates, the entire expense of the rally is added to the election expenses of those candidates. The government bears the entire cost of the security arrangements for the Prime Minister when they are a star campaigner. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A As per the guidelines laid out under the Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951, the expense of a rally where only the posters or photographs of the candidates are displayed, and which a star campaigner addresses, is to be accounted for in the election expenses of the candidate(s) contesting from that constituency. This is because the display of posters or banners is seen as a direct campaigning effort for the candidate, hence the expenses are to be included in the candidate’s electoral expenditure. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Regarding the Prime Minister, or any other individual who is under the Special Protection Group (SPG) cover, the government indeed bears the expenses for their security arrangements. This is irrespective of whether the individual is campaigning as a star campaigner or not. The cost includes the security detail provided to them, including bullet-proof vehicles and personnel. However, it should be noted that other campaign-related expenses, such as logistics, venue, and publicity costs that are specific to the campaign event, would typically not be borne by the government but by the party or the candidates if they are sharing the stage. If another campaigner travels with the Prime Minister, 50% of the expenditure incurred on the security arrangements must be borne by the individual candidate, unless the campaigner is also under similar SPG protection. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution: A As per the guidelines laid out under the Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951, the expense of a rally where only the posters or photographs of the candidates are displayed, and which a star campaigner addresses, is to be accounted for in the election expenses of the candidate(s) contesting from that constituency. This is because the display of posters or banners is seen as a direct campaigning effort for the candidate, hence the expenses are to be included in the candidate’s electoral expenditure. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Regarding the Prime Minister, or any other individual who is under the Special Protection Group (SPG) cover, the government indeed bears the expenses for their security arrangements. This is irrespective of whether the individual is campaigning as a star campaigner or not. The cost includes the security detail provided to them, including bullet-proof vehicles and personnel. However, it should be noted that other campaign-related expenses, such as logistics, venue, and publicity costs that are specific to the campaign event, would typically not be borne by the government but by the party or the candidates if they are sharing the stage. If another campaigner travels with the Prime Minister, 50% of the expenditure incurred on the security arrangements must be borne by the individual candidate, unless the campaigner is also under similar SPG protection. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

#### 11. Question

Consider the following regarding the election expenses of star campaigners:

• If a star campaigner’s rally displays only the posters of candidates, the entire expense of the rally is added to the election expenses of those candidates.

• The government bears the entire cost of the security arrangements for the Prime Minister when they are a star campaigner.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

• As per the guidelines laid out under the Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951, the expense of a rally where only the posters or photographs of the candidates are displayed, and which a star campaigner addresses, is to be accounted for in the election expenses of the candidate(s) contesting from that constituency. This is because the display of posters or banners is seen as a direct campaigning effort for the candidate, hence the expenses are to be included in the candidate’s electoral expenditure.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Regarding the Prime Minister, or any other individual who is under the Special Protection Group (SPG) cover, the government indeed bears the expenses for their security arrangements. This is irrespective of whether the individual is campaigning as a star campaigner or not. The cost includes the security detail provided to them, including bullet-proof vehicles and personnel. However, it should be noted that other campaign-related expenses, such as logistics, venue, and publicity costs that are specific to the campaign event, would typically not be borne by the government but by the party or the candidates if they are sharing the stage. If another campaigner travels with the Prime Minister, 50% of the expenditure incurred on the security arrangements must be borne by the individual candidate, unless the campaigner is also under similar SPG protection.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Solution: A

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points The Sela Tunnel is being constructed in which Indian state, known for its challenging terrain and strategic importance? (a) Sikkim (b) Himachal Pradesh (c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) Manipur Correct Solution: C The Sela Tunnel is located in Arunachal Pradesh. The state shares international borders with Bhutan, China, and Myanmar, which makes it of paramount strategic interest to India. The challenging terrain includes rugged mountains and harsh weather conditions. The tunnel cuts through the Sela Pass, which is situated at an altitude of over 13,000 feet, and significantly reduces the travel time to Tawang, a town of both strategic military importance and significant religious significance for Buddhism Incorrect Solution: C The Sela Tunnel is located in Arunachal Pradesh. The state shares international borders with Bhutan, China, and Myanmar, which makes it of paramount strategic interest to India. The challenging terrain includes rugged mountains and harsh weather conditions. The tunnel cuts through the Sela Pass, which is situated at an altitude of over 13,000 feet, and significantly reduces the travel time to Tawang, a town of both strategic military importance and significant religious significance for Buddhism

#### 12. Question

The Sela Tunnel is being constructed in which Indian state, known for its challenging terrain and strategic importance?

• (a) Sikkim

• (b) Himachal Pradesh

• (c) Arunachal Pradesh

• (d) Manipur

Solution: C

The Sela Tunnel is located in Arunachal Pradesh. The state shares international borders with Bhutan, China, and Myanmar, which makes it of paramount strategic interest to India. The challenging terrain includes rugged mountains and harsh weather conditions. The tunnel cuts through the Sela Pass, which is situated at an altitude of over 13,000 feet, and significantly reduces the travel time to Tawang, a town of both strategic military importance and significant religious significance for Buddhism

Solution: C

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points The Hindu Kush Himalaya extends over several Asian countries. Which among the following are the correct group of countries that encompass the HKH region: (a) India, Nepal, Bhutan, and China only. (b) Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, China, India, Myanmar, Nepal, and Pakistan. (c) India, Nepal, Bhutan, China, Mongolia, and Russia. (d) India, Nepal, Bhutan, China, Kazakhstan, and Kyrgyzstan. Correct Solution: B Stretching over 3500 kilometres and across eight countries – Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, China, India, Nepal, Myanmar and Pakistan – the Hindu Kush Himalaya are arguably the world’s most important ‘water tower’, being the source of ten of Asia’s largest rivers as well as the largest volume of ice and snow outside of the Arctic and Antarctica. Together these rivers support the drinking water, irrigation, energy, industry and sanitation needs of 1.3 billion people living in the mountains and downstream. Incorrect Solution: B Stretching over 3500 kilometres and across eight countries – Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, China, India, Nepal, Myanmar and Pakistan – the Hindu Kush Himalaya are arguably the world’s most important ‘water tower’, being the source of ten of Asia’s largest rivers as well as the largest volume of ice and snow outside of the Arctic and Antarctica. Together these rivers support the drinking water, irrigation, energy, industry and sanitation needs of 1.3 billion people living in the mountains and downstream.

#### 13. Question

The Hindu Kush Himalaya extends over several Asian countries. Which among the following are the correct group of countries that encompass the HKH region:

• (a) India, Nepal, Bhutan, and China only.

• (b) Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, China, India, Myanmar, Nepal, and Pakistan.

• (c) India, Nepal, Bhutan, China, Mongolia, and Russia.

• (d) India, Nepal, Bhutan, China, Kazakhstan, and Kyrgyzstan.

Solution: B

Stretching over 3500 kilometres and across eight countries – Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, China, India, Nepal, Myanmar and Pakistan – the Hindu Kush Himalaya are arguably the world’s most important ‘water tower’, being the source of ten of Asia’s largest rivers as well as the largest volume of ice and snow outside of the Arctic and Antarctica. Together these rivers support the drinking water, irrigation, energy, industry and sanitation needs of 1.3 billion people living in the mountains and downstream.

Solution: B

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points The Liability Convention applies to damage caused by which of the following? (a) Only manned spacecraft returning from space missions. (b) Any space object, including fragments and components, that causes damage on the surface of the Earth or to aircraft in flight. (c) Space objects causing damage exclusively on the Moon and other celestial bodies. (d) Only satellites and debris that are part of active space missions. Correct Solution: B The Liability Convention, formally known as the Convention on International Liability for Damage Caused by Space Objects, was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly in 1972. It is a critical component of international space law. This convention specifically addresses the issues of liability for damage caused by space objects, which can include operational satellites, parts of rockets, or any other debris generated during or after space missions. Scope of Applicability: The convention applies to all space objects, not limited to operational or manned missions. According to Article I of the convention, a space object includes component parts of a space object as well as its launch vehicle and parts thereof. This broad definition ensures that any type of debris, whether from active or inactive missions, falls under the convention’s purview. Types of Damage Covered: The Liability Convention deals with two types of damages: damage caused on the surface of the Earth and to aircraft in flight. This is specified in Article II, which states that a launching State is absolutely liable to pay compensation for damage caused by its space object on the surface of the Earth or to aircraft in flight. The liability is “absolute” in these circumstances, meaning the injured party does not need to prove fault; it only needs to show that the damage was caused by a space object from the liable state. Damage in Outer Space: Article III of the convention covers damages caused in outer space (including damages to spacecraft themselves). In such cases, the liability requires a finding of fault. The convention specifies that if the damage is caused elsewhere than on the surface of the Earth to a space object of one launching State or to persons or property on board such a space object by a space object of another launching State, the latter shall be liable only if the damage is due to its fault or the fault of persons for whom it is responsible. Incorrect Solution: B The Liability Convention, formally known as the Convention on International Liability for Damage Caused by Space Objects, was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly in 1972. It is a critical component of international space law. This convention specifically addresses the issues of liability for damage caused by space objects, which can include operational satellites, parts of rockets, or any other debris generated during or after space missions. Scope of Applicability: The convention applies to all space objects, not limited to operational or manned missions. According to Article I of the convention, a space object includes component parts of a space object as well as its launch vehicle and parts thereof. This broad definition ensures that any type of debris, whether from active or inactive missions, falls under the convention’s purview. Types of Damage Covered: The Liability Convention deals with two types of damages: damage caused on the surface of the Earth and to aircraft in flight. This is specified in Article II, which states that a launching State is absolutely liable to pay compensation for damage caused by its space object on the surface of the Earth or to aircraft in flight. The liability is “absolute” in these circumstances, meaning the injured party does not need to prove fault; it only needs to show that the damage was caused by a space object from the liable state. Damage in Outer Space: Article III of the convention covers damages caused in outer space (including damages to spacecraft themselves). In such cases, the liability requires a finding of fault. The convention specifies that if the damage is caused elsewhere than on the surface of the Earth to a space object of one launching State or to persons or property on board such a space object by a space object of another launching State, the latter shall be liable only if the damage is due to its fault or the fault of persons for whom it is responsible.

#### 14. Question

The Liability Convention applies to damage caused by which of the following?

• (a) Only manned spacecraft returning from space missions.

• (b) Any space object, including fragments and components, that causes damage on the surface of the Earth or to aircraft in flight.

• (c) Space objects causing damage exclusively on the Moon and other celestial bodies.

• (d) Only satellites and debris that are part of active space missions.

Solution: B

The Liability Convention, formally known as the Convention on International Liability for Damage Caused by Space Objects, was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly in 1972. It is a critical component of international space law. This convention specifically addresses the issues of liability for damage caused by space objects, which can include operational satellites, parts of rockets, or any other debris generated during or after space missions.

• Scope of Applicability: The convention applies to all space objects, not limited to operational or manned missions. According to Article I of the convention, a space object includes component parts of a space object as well as its launch vehicle and parts thereof. This broad definition ensures that any type of debris, whether from active or inactive missions, falls under the convention’s purview.

• The convention applies to all space objects, not limited to operational or manned missions. According to Article I of the convention, a space object includes component parts of a space object as well as its launch vehicle and parts thereof. This broad definition ensures that any type of debris, whether from active or inactive missions, falls under the convention’s purview.

• Types of Damage Covered: The Liability Convention deals with two types of damages: damage caused on the surface of the Earth and to aircraft in flight. This is specified in Article II, which states that a launching State is absolutely liable to pay compensation for damage caused by its space object on the surface of the Earth or to aircraft in flight. The liability is “absolute” in these circumstances, meaning the injured party does not need to prove fault; it only needs to show that the damage was caused by a space object from the liable state.

• The Liability Convention deals with two types of damages: damage caused on the surface of the Earth and to aircraft in flight. This is specified in Article II, which states that a launching State is absolutely liable to pay compensation for damage caused by its space object on the surface of the Earth or to aircraft in flight.

• The liability is “absolute” in these circumstances, meaning the injured party does not need to prove fault; it only needs to show that the damage was caused by a space object from the liable state.

• Damage in Outer Space: Article III of the convention covers damages caused in outer space (including damages to spacecraft themselves). In such cases, the liability requires a finding of fault. The convention specifies that if the damage is caused elsewhere than on the surface of the Earth to a space object of one launching State or to persons or property on board such a space object by a space object of another launching State, the latter shall be liable only if the damage is due to its fault or the fault of persons for whom it is responsible.

• Article III of the convention covers damages caused in outer space (including damages to spacecraft themselves). In such cases, the liability requires a finding of fault. The convention specifies that if the damage is caused elsewhere than on the surface of the Earth to a space object of one launching State or to persons or property on board such a space object by a space object of another launching State, the latter shall be liable only if the damage is due to its fault or the fault of persons for whom it is responsible.

Solution: B

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Red SPRITEs (Stratospheric/Mesospheric Perturbations Resulting from Intense Thunderstorm Electrification): Red SPRITEs are visible to the naked eye and can typically be seen below the storm cloud. They are best observed at night from a distance where the observer is not under the cloud base. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B Red SPRITEs are visible to the naked eye but they do not appear below the storm clouds. Instead, they occur above the thunderstorm clouds in the Earth’s atmosphere, typically observed at altitudes ranging from 50 to 90 kilometers. They manifest as transient luminous events, often appearing as reddish-orange or sometimes greenish structures extending upwards from the tops of thunderstorms. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect Red SPRITEs are best observed at night as their faint visibility becomes more discernible against a dark sky. They should be viewed from a distance and ideally, the observer should not be underneath the thunderstorm cloud base. This positioning allows a clear and unobstructed view of the upper atmosphere where SPRITEs occur. Observers usually need to be located at a distance of tens to hundreds of kilometers away from the thunderstorm to have a clear line of sight to the high altitude where SPRITEs appear. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Incorrect Solution: B Red SPRITEs are visible to the naked eye but they do not appear below the storm clouds. Instead, they occur above the thunderstorm clouds in the Earth’s atmosphere, typically observed at altitudes ranging from 50 to 90 kilometers. They manifest as transient luminous events, often appearing as reddish-orange or sometimes greenish structures extending upwards from the tops of thunderstorms. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect Red SPRITEs are best observed at night as their faint visibility becomes more discernible against a dark sky. They should be viewed from a distance and ideally, the observer should not be underneath the thunderstorm cloud base. This positioning allows a clear and unobstructed view of the upper atmosphere where SPRITEs occur. Observers usually need to be located at a distance of tens to hundreds of kilometers away from the thunderstorm to have a clear line of sight to the high altitude where SPRITEs appear. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

#### 15. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Red SPRITEs (Stratospheric/Mesospheric Perturbations Resulting from Intense Thunderstorm Electrification):

• Red SPRITEs are visible to the naked eye and can typically be seen below the storm cloud.

• They are best observed at night from a distance where the observer is not under the cloud base.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

Red SPRITEs are visible to the naked eye but they do not appear below the storm clouds. Instead, they occur above the thunderstorm clouds in the Earth’s atmosphere, typically observed at altitudes ranging from 50 to 90 kilometers. They manifest as transient luminous events, often appearing as reddish-orange or sometimes greenish structures extending upwards from the tops of thunderstorms.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect

Red SPRITEs are best observed at night as their faint visibility becomes more discernible against a dark sky. They should be viewed from a distance and ideally, the observer should not be underneath the thunderstorm cloud base. This positioning allows a clear and unobstructed view of the upper atmosphere where SPRITEs occur. Observers usually need to be located at a distance of tens to hundreds of kilometers away from the thunderstorm to have a clear line of sight to the high altitude where SPRITEs appear.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Solution: B

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding a Flash Drought: It is a rapid onset of drought which are caused by the local climate. It is independent of the effects of climatic patterns like La Niña or El Nino. It is caused by evapotranspiration which leads to a decrease in soil moisture. It has a short span and does not create irreversible changes in the ecosystems. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Answer: B Explanation: Droughts are periods of continuous water deficit, often caused by a lack of precipitation in a given area. Statement 1 is correct: They have a significant adverse impact on the regional environment and economy. A flash drought is a rapid onset or intensification of drought. Low rates of precipitation, along with abnormally high temperatures, winds, and solar radiation are factors that can rapidly alter local climate, leading to flash drought. Statement 2 is not correct: It can also be linked to climatic patterns like La Niña. Statement 3 is correct: In early warning sign of flash droughts is evapotranspiration, which leads to a decrease in soil moisture. Evapotranspiration is the process of water transfer from land to atmosphere by evaporation from soil and transpiration from plants. Statement 4 is not correct: Flash droughts may lead to irreversible changes in terrestrial ecosystems. In such conditions, ecosystems may not have enough time to adapt to a large water deficit and extreme heat, leading to lower productivity. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Droughts are periods of continuous water deficit, often caused by a lack of precipitation in a given area. Statement 1 is correct: They have a significant adverse impact on the regional environment and economy. A flash drought is a rapid onset or intensification of drought. Low rates of precipitation, along with abnormally high temperatures, winds, and solar radiation are factors that can rapidly alter local climate, leading to flash drought. Statement 2 is not correct: It can also be linked to climatic patterns like La Niña. Statement 3 is correct: In early warning sign of flash droughts is evapotranspiration, which leads to a decrease in soil moisture. Evapotranspiration is the process of water transfer from land to atmosphere by evaporation from soil and transpiration from plants. Statement 4 is not correct: Flash droughts may lead to irreversible changes in terrestrial ecosystems. In such conditions, ecosystems may not have enough time to adapt to a large water deficit and extreme heat, leading to lower productivity.

#### 16. Question

Consider the following statements regarding a Flash Drought:

• It is a rapid onset of drought which are caused by the local climate.

• It is independent of the effects of climatic patterns like La Niña or El Nino.

• It is caused by evapotranspiration which leads to a decrease in soil moisture.

• It has a short span and does not create irreversible changes in the ecosystems.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Answer: B

Explanation:

Droughts are periods of continuous water deficit, often caused by a lack of precipitation in a given area.

Statement 1 is correct: They have a significant adverse impact on the regional environment and economy. A flash drought is a rapid onset or intensification of drought.

Low rates of precipitation, along with abnormally high temperatures, winds, and solar radiation are factors that can rapidly alter local climate, leading to flash drought.

Statement 2 is not correct: It can also be linked to climatic patterns like La Niña.

Statement 3 is correct: In early warning sign of flash droughts is evapotranspiration, which leads to a decrease in soil moisture. Evapotranspiration is the process of water transfer from land to atmosphere by evaporation from soil and transpiration from plants.

Statement 4 is not correct: Flash droughts may lead to irreversible changes in terrestrial ecosystems. In such conditions, ecosystems may not have enough time to adapt to a large water deficit and extreme heat, leading to lower productivity.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Droughts are periods of continuous water deficit, often caused by a lack of precipitation in a given area.

Statement 1 is correct: They have a significant adverse impact on the regional environment and economy. A flash drought is a rapid onset or intensification of drought.

Low rates of precipitation, along with abnormally high temperatures, winds, and solar radiation are factors that can rapidly alter local climate, leading to flash drought.

Statement 2 is not correct: It can also be linked to climatic patterns like La Niña.

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Nebulae: The Nebulae exist in the space between the stars known as interstellar space. The closest known nebula to the Earth is called the Helix Nebula. The supernova has the unique feature called the “star nurseries.” How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: A nebula is a giant cloud of dust and gas in space. Nebulae are made of dust and gases—mostly hydrogen and helium. The dust and gases in a nebula are very spread out, but gravity can slowly begin to pull together clumps of dust and gas. Statement 1 is correct: Nebulae exist in the space between the stars—also known as interstellar space. Statement 2 is correct: The closest known nebula to Earth is called the Helix Nebula. It is the remnant of a dying star—possibly one like the Sun Statement 3 is not correct: Some nebulae (more than one nebula) come from the gas and dust thrown out by the explosion of a dying star, such as a supernova. Other nebulae are regions where new stars are beginning to form. For this reason, some nebulae are called “star nurseries.” Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: A nebula is a giant cloud of dust and gas in space. Nebulae are made of dust and gases—mostly hydrogen and helium. The dust and gases in a nebula are very spread out, but gravity can slowly begin to pull together clumps of dust and gas. Statement 1 is correct: Nebulae exist in the space between the stars—also known as interstellar space. Statement 2 is correct: The closest known nebula to Earth is called the Helix Nebula. It is the remnant of a dying star—possibly one like the Sun Statement 3 is not correct: Some nebulae (more than one nebula) come from the gas and dust thrown out by the explosion of a dying star, such as a supernova. Other nebulae are regions where new stars are beginning to form. For this reason, some nebulae are called “star nurseries.”

#### 17. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Nebulae:

• The Nebulae exist in the space between the stars known as interstellar space.

• The closest known nebula to the Earth is called the Helix Nebula.

• The supernova has the unique feature called the “star nurseries.”

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

A nebula is a giant cloud of dust and gas in space.

Nebulae are made of dust and gases—mostly hydrogen and helium. The dust and gases in a nebula are very spread out, but gravity can slowly begin to pull together clumps of dust and gas.

Statement 1 is correct: Nebulae exist in the space between the stars—also known as interstellar space.

Statement 2 is correct: The closest known nebula to Earth is called the Helix Nebula. It is the remnant of a dying star—possibly one like the Sun

Statement 3 is not correct: Some nebulae (more than one nebula) come from the gas and dust thrown out by the explosion of a dying star, such as a supernova. Other nebulae are regions where new stars are beginning to form. For this reason, some nebulae are called “star nurseries.”

Answer: B

Explanation:

A nebula is a giant cloud of dust and gas in space.

Nebulae are made of dust and gases—mostly hydrogen and helium. The dust and gases in a nebula are very spread out, but gravity can slowly begin to pull together clumps of dust and gas.

Statement 1 is correct: Nebulae exist in the space between the stars—also known as interstellar space.

Statement 2 is correct: The closest known nebula to Earth is called the Helix Nebula. It is the remnant of a dying star—possibly one like the Sun

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Great Himalayan National Park: It is a protected area located across two states in the Western Himalayas. It includes the area of the Sainj and the Tirthan Wildlife Sanctuaries. It has been awarded the UNESCO World Heritage Site status. How many of the statements given above is/are *not correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: Statement 2 is correct: Included within the property is the Sainj Wildlife Sanctuary with 120 inhabitants and the Tirthan Wildlife Sanctuary, which is uninhabited but currently subject to traditional grazing. Statement 3 is correct: GHNP was awarded UNESCO World Heritage Site status in 2014, in recognition of its outstanding significance for biodiversity conservation. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: Statement 2 is correct: Included within the property is the Sainj Wildlife Sanctuary with 120 inhabitants and the Tirthan Wildlife Sanctuary, which is uninhabited but currently subject to traditional grazing. Statement 3 is correct:* GHNP was awarded UNESCO World Heritage Site status in 2014, in recognition of its outstanding significance for biodiversity conservation.

#### 18. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Great Himalayan National Park:

• It is a protected area located across two states in the Western Himalayas.

• It includes the area of the Sainj and the Tirthan Wildlife Sanctuaries.

• It has been awarded the UNESCO World Heritage Site status.

How many of the statements given above is/are *not* correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct:

Statement 2 is correct: Included within the property is the Sainj Wildlife Sanctuary with 120 inhabitants and the Tirthan Wildlife Sanctuary, which is uninhabited but currently subject to traditional grazing.

Statement 3 is correct: GHNP was awarded UNESCO World Heritage Site status in 2014, in recognition of its outstanding significance for biodiversity conservation.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct:

Statement 3 is correct: GHNP was awarded UNESCO World Heritage Site status in 2014, in recognition of its outstanding significance for biodiversity conservation.

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the impeachment notice of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India: Only the sitting Members of the Lok Sabha can be the signatories to issue such notice. The notice regarding this impeachment can be submitted to the President or the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: D Explanation: Just like all other constitutional positions, the Chief Justice of India can also be impeached provided the necessary steps as laid out in the Constitution are taken. Article 124(4) of the Constitution of India states: “A Judge of the Supreme Court shall not be removed from his office except by an order of the President passed after an address by each House of Parliament supported by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting has been presented to the President in the same session for such removal on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.” Statement 1 is not correct: 100 Lok Sabha MPs or 50 Rajya Sabha MPs is the minimum number of signatories required to issue the notice. Statement 2 is not correct: The notice has to be handed over either to the Speaker if it is from Lok Sabha MPs or to the Chairman if it is Rajya Sabha MPs. The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is the Vice President of India. If and when the motion is admitted, the Speaker or the Chairman will have to constitute a three-member committee to investigate the charges levelled against the Supreme Court judge. Incorrect Answer: D Explanation: Just like all other constitutional positions, the Chief Justice of India can also be impeached provided the necessary steps as laid out in the Constitution are taken. Article 124(4) of the Constitution of India states: “A Judge of the Supreme Court shall not be removed from his office except by an order of the President passed after an address by each House of Parliament supported by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting has been presented to the President in the same session for such removal on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.” Statement 1 is not correct: 100 Lok Sabha MPs or 50 Rajya Sabha MPs is the minimum number of signatories required to issue the notice. Statement 2 is not correct: The notice has to be handed over either to the Speaker if it is from Lok Sabha MPs or to the Chairman if it is Rajya Sabha MPs. The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is the Vice President of India. If and when the motion is admitted, the Speaker or the Chairman will have to constitute a three-member committee to investigate the charges levelled against the Supreme Court judge.

#### 19. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the impeachment notice of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India:

• Only the sitting Members of the Lok Sabha can be the signatories to issue such notice.

• The notice regarding this impeachment can be submitted to the President or the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Explanation:

Just like all other constitutional positions, the Chief Justice of India can also be impeached provided the necessary steps as laid out in the Constitution are taken.

Article 124(4) of the Constitution of India states: “A Judge of the Supreme Court shall not be removed from his office except by an order of the President passed after an address by each House of Parliament supported by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting has been presented to the President in the same session for such removal on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.”

Statement 1 is not correct: 100 Lok Sabha MPs or 50 Rajya Sabha MPs is the minimum number of signatories required to issue the notice.

Statement 2 is not correct: The notice has to be handed over either to the Speaker if it is from Lok Sabha MPs or to the Chairman if it is Rajya Sabha MPs. The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is the Vice President of India.

If and when the motion is admitted, the Speaker or the Chairman will have to constitute a three-member committee to investigate the charges levelled against the Supreme Court judge.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Just like all other constitutional positions, the Chief Justice of India can also be impeached provided the necessary steps as laid out in the Constitution are taken.

Statement 1 is not correct: 100 Lok Sabha MPs or 50 Rajya Sabha MPs is the minimum number of signatories required to issue the notice.

If and when the motion is admitted, the Speaker or the Chairman will have to constitute a three-member committee to investigate the charges levelled against the Supreme Court judge.

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The X-rays have lesser energy than the ultraviolet light. The Corona of the Sun radiates ultraviolet light instead of X-rays. The X-rays have shorter wavelengths than ultraviolet light. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: A Explanation: Option (a) is correct: X-rays have much higher energy and much shorter wavelengths than ultraviolet light, and scientists usually refer to x-rays in terms of their energy rather than their wavelength. This is partially because x-rays have very small wavelengths, between 0.03 and 3 nanometers, so small that some x-rays are no bigger than a single atom of many elements. Our Sun’s radiation peaks in the visual range, but the Sun’s corona is much hotter and radiates mostly x-rays. To study the corona, scientists use data collected by x-ray detectors on satellites in orbit around the Earth. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Option (a) is correct: X-rays have much higher energy and much shorter wavelengths than ultraviolet light, and scientists usually refer to x-rays in terms of their energy rather than their wavelength. This is partially because x-rays have very small wavelengths, between 0.03 and 3 nanometers, so small that some x-rays are no bigger than a single atom of many elements. Our Sun’s radiation peaks in the visual range, but the Sun’s corona is much hotter and radiates mostly x-rays. To study the corona, scientists use data collected by x-ray detectors on satellites in orbit around the Earth.

#### 20. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The X-rays have lesser energy than the ultraviolet light.

• The Corona of the Sun radiates ultraviolet light instead of X-rays.

• The X-rays have shorter wavelengths than ultraviolet light.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: A

Explanation:

Option (a) is correct: X-rays have much higher energy and much shorter wavelengths than ultraviolet light, and scientists usually refer to x-rays in terms of their energy rather than their wavelength.

This is partially because x-rays have very small wavelengths, between 0.03 and 3 nanometers, so small that some x-rays are no bigger than a single atom of many elements.

Our Sun’s radiation peaks in the visual range, but the Sun’s corona is much hotter and radiates mostly x-rays.

To study the corona, scientists use data collected by x-ray detectors on satellites in orbit around the Earth.

Answer: A

Explanation:

This is partially because x-rays have very small wavelengths, between 0.03 and 3 nanometers, so small that some x-rays are no bigger than a single atom of many elements.

Our Sun’s radiation peaks in the visual range, but the Sun’s corona is much hotter and radiates mostly x-rays.

To study the corona, scientists use data collected by x-ray detectors on satellites in orbit around the Earth.

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Environmental DNA (eDNA) is organismal DNA that can be found in the environment. Consider the following about it. Only non-mitochondrial DNA can be traced in the environment. The use of eDNA is important for the early detection of invasive species as well as the detection of rare and cryptic species. eDNA can be detected in both cellular or extracellular (dissolved DNA) form. How many of the above is/are correct a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Justification: Environmental DNA (eDNA) is nuclear or mitochondrial DNA that is released from an organism into the environment. Sources of eDNA include secreted feces, mucous, and gametes; shed skin and hair; and carcasses. eDNA can be detected in cellular or extracellular (dissolved DNA) form. In aquatic environments, eDNA is diluted and distributed by currents and other hydrological processes (fig. 1), but it only lasts about 7–21 days, depending on environmental conditions (Dejean and others, 2011). Exposure to UVB radiation, acidity, heat, and endo- and exonucleases can degrade eDNA. Protocols using eDNA may allow for rapid, cost-effective, and standardized collection of data about species distribution and relative abundance. For small, rare, secretive, and other species that are difficult to detect, eDNA provides an attractive alternative for aquatic inventory and monitoring programs. Increasing evidence demonstrates improved species detection and catch-per-unit effort compared with electrofishing, snorkeling, and other current field methods. Thus, detection of species using eDNA may improve biodiversity assessments and provide information about status, distribution, and habitat requirements for lesser-known species. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/06/27/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-27-june-2022/ https://www.usgs.gov/special-topics/water-science-school/science/environmental-dna-edna Incorrect Solution: b) Justification: Environmental DNA (eDNA) is nuclear or mitochondrial DNA that is released from an organism into the environment. Sources of eDNA include secreted feces, mucous, and gametes; shed skin and hair; and carcasses. eDNA can be detected in cellular or extracellular (dissolved DNA) form. In aquatic environments, eDNA is diluted and distributed by currents and other hydrological processes (fig. 1), but it only lasts about 7–21 days, depending on environmental conditions (Dejean and others, 2011). Exposure to UVB radiation, acidity, heat, and endo- and exonucleases can degrade eDNA. Protocols using eDNA may allow for rapid, cost-effective, and standardized collection of data about species distribution and relative abundance. For small, rare, secretive, and other species that are difficult to detect, eDNA provides an attractive alternative for aquatic inventory and monitoring programs. Increasing evidence demonstrates improved species detection and catch-per-unit effort compared with electrofishing, snorkeling, and other current field methods. Thus, detection of species using eDNA may improve biodiversity assessments and provide information about status, distribution, and habitat requirements for lesser-known species. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/06/27/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-27-june-2022/ https://www.usgs.gov/special-topics/water-science-school/science/environmental-dna-edna

#### 21. Question

Environmental DNA (eDNA) is organismal DNA that can be found in the environment. Consider the following about it.

• Only non-mitochondrial DNA can be traced in the environment.

• The use of eDNA is important for the early detection of invasive species as well as the detection of rare and cryptic species.

• eDNA can be detected in both cellular or extracellular (dissolved DNA) form.

How many of the above is/are correct

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: b)

Justification: Environmental DNA (eDNA) is nuclear or mitochondrial DNA that is released from an organism into the environment. Sources of eDNA include secreted feces, mucous, and gametes; shed skin and hair; and carcasses. eDNA can be detected in cellular or extracellular (dissolved DNA) form.

In aquatic environments, eDNA is diluted and distributed by currents and other hydrological processes (fig. 1), but it only lasts about 7–21 days, depending on environmental conditions (Dejean and others, 2011). Exposure to UVB radiation, acidity, heat, and endo- and exonucleases can degrade eDNA.

Protocols using eDNA may allow for rapid, cost-effective, and standardized collection of data about species distribution and relative abundance. For small, rare, secretive, and other species that are difficult to detect, eDNA provides an attractive alternative for aquatic inventory and monitoring programs. Increasing evidence demonstrates improved species detection and catch-per-unit effort compared with electrofishing, snorkeling, and other current field methods. Thus, detection of species using eDNA may improve biodiversity assessments and provide information about status, distribution, and habitat requirements for lesser-known species.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/06/27/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-27-june-2022/

https://www.usgs.gov/special-topics/water-science-school/science/environmental-dna-edna

Solution: b)

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/06/27/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-27-june-2022/

https://www.usgs.gov/special-topics/water-science-school/science/environmental-dna-edna

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Which of the following can moderate India’s current account deficit? Moderation of trade deficit An increase in Indian merchandise exports Higher remittances from abroad How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None of the above Correct Solution: c) Justification: The current account deficit is a measurement of a country’s trade where the value of the goods and services it imports exceeds the value of the products it exports. The current account represents a country’s foreign transactions and, like the capital account, is a component of a country’s balance of payments (BOP) What does CAD include? CAD includes a nation’s net trade-in products and services, its net earnings on cross-border investments including interest and dividends, and its net transfer payments such as remittances and foreign aid. A current account deficit (CAD) means the value of goods and services imported exceeds the value of exports. Reasons for lowering India’s CAD? Robust performance by computer and business services, net service receipts rose. Remittances by Indians abroad also rose. Moderation of India’s trade deficit in the quarter mentioned. Merchandise export overcame higher import bills: Geopolitical tensions and supply chain disruptions led to crude oil and commodity prices soaring. A rise in prices of coal, natural gas, fertilizers, and edible oils has added to the pressure on the trade deficit. However, with global demand picking up, merchandise exports have also been rising. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/06/28/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-28-june-2022/ Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: The current account deficit is a measurement of a country’s trade where the value of the goods and services it imports exceeds the value of the products it exports. The current account represents a country’s foreign transactions and, like the capital account, is a component of a country’s balance of payments (BOP) What does CAD include? CAD includes a nation’s net trade-in products and services, its net earnings on cross-border investments including interest and dividends, and its net transfer payments such as remittances and foreign aid. A current account deficit (CAD) means the value of goods and services imported exceeds the value of exports. Reasons for lowering India’s CAD? Robust performance by computer and business services, net service receipts rose. Remittances by Indians abroad also rose. Moderation of India’s trade deficit in the quarter mentioned. Merchandise export overcame higher import bills: Geopolitical tensions and supply chain disruptions led to crude oil and commodity prices soaring. A rise in prices of coal, natural gas, fertilizers, and edible oils has added to the pressure on the trade deficit. However, with global demand picking up, merchandise exports have also been rising. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/06/28/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-28-june-2022/

#### 22. Question

Which of the following can moderate India’s current account deficit?

• Moderation of trade deficit

• An increase in Indian merchandise exports

• Higher remittances from abroad

How many of the above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

• d) None of the above

Solution: c)

Justification: The current account deficit is a measurement of a country’s trade where the value of the goods and services it imports exceeds the value of the products it exports. The current account represents a country’s foreign transactions and, like the capital account, is a component of a country’s balance of payments (BOP)

What does CAD include?

CAD includes a nation’s net trade-in products and services, its net earnings on cross-border investments including interest and dividends, and its net transfer payments such as remittances and foreign aid. A current account deficit (CAD) means the value of goods and services imported exceeds the value of exports.

Reasons for lowering India’s CAD?

Robust performance by computer and business services, net service receipts rose.

Remittances by Indians abroad also rose.

Moderation of India’s trade deficit in the quarter mentioned.

Merchandise export overcame higher import bills: Geopolitical tensions and supply chain disruptions led to crude oil and commodity prices soaring. A rise in prices of coal, natural gas, fertilizers, and edible oils has added to the pressure on the trade deficit.

However, with global demand picking up, merchandise exports have also been rising.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/06/28/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-28-june-2022/

Solution: c)

What does CAD include?

Reasons for lowering India’s CAD?

Robust performance by computer and business services, net service receipts rose.

Remittances by Indians abroad also rose.

Moderation of India’s trade deficit in the quarter mentioned.

However, with global demand picking up, merchandise exports have also been rising.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/06/28/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-28-june-2022/

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Which of the following bird species found in Kerala is/are critically endangered? Red-headed vulture Steppe Eagle Nilgiri Chilappan How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None of the above Correct Solution: a) Justification: Kerala will soon have its own red list of birds. The Kerala Bird Monitoring Collective led by Kerala Agricultural University and the Bird Count India will conduct the regional red list assessment. Once it gets ready, Kerala will be the first State to have a region-specific red list of birds. Issues with the IUCN List: There are limitations to the global assessment as it is a process prepared in a global context. A species seen common at the global level may be a threatened species at the regional level. According to the global IUCN red list, Kerala has 64 threatened species of birds. In that, the Red-headed vulture and White-rumped vulture are critically endangered. Steppe Eagle, Banasura Chilappan and Nilgiri Chilappan are endangered and 11 species are vulnerable. The International Union for Conservation of Nature Red List of Threatened Species, founded in 1964, is the world’s most comprehensive inventory of the global conservation status of biological species. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/06/27/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-27-june-2022/ Incorrect Solution: a) Justification: Kerala will soon have its own red list of birds. The Kerala Bird Monitoring Collective led by Kerala Agricultural University and the Bird Count India will conduct the regional red list assessment. Once it gets ready, Kerala will be the first State to have a region-specific red list of birds. Issues with the IUCN List: There are limitations to the global assessment as it is a process prepared in a global context. A species seen common at the global level may be a threatened species at the regional level. According to the global IUCN red list, Kerala has 64 threatened species of birds. In that, the Red-headed vulture and White-rumped vulture are critically endangered. Steppe Eagle, Banasura Chilappan and Nilgiri Chilappan are endangered and 11 species are vulnerable. The International Union for Conservation of Nature Red List of Threatened Species, founded in 1964, is the world’s most comprehensive inventory of the global conservation status of biological species. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/06/27/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-27-june-2022/

#### 23. Question

Which of the following bird species found in Kerala is/are critically endangered?

• Red-headed vulture

• Steppe Eagle

• Nilgiri Chilappan

How many of the above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

• d) None of the above

Solution: a)

Justification: Kerala will soon have its own red list of birds. The Kerala Bird Monitoring Collective led by Kerala Agricultural University and the Bird Count India will conduct the regional red list assessment. Once it gets ready, Kerala will be the first State to have a region-specific red list of birds.

Issues with the IUCN List: There are limitations to the global assessment as it is a process prepared in a global context. A species seen common at the global level may be a threatened species at the regional level.

According to the global IUCN red list, Kerala has 64 threatened species of birds. In that, the Red-headed vulture and White-rumped vulture are critically endangered. Steppe Eagle, Banasura Chilappan and Nilgiri Chilappan are endangered and 11 species are vulnerable.

The International Union for Conservation of Nature Red List of Threatened Species, founded in 1964, is the world’s most comprehensive inventory of the global conservation status of biological species.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/06/27/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-27-june-2022/

Solution: a)

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/06/27/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-27-june-2022/

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points The government has recently extended the concession period for the multi-modal logistics parks (MMLPs) scheme from 30 to 45 years, to attract more long-term investment into India’s infrastructure. What is/are the key functions of MMLPs? Freight aggregation and distribution Integrated storage and warehousing Information technology support for freight movement How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None of the above Correct Solution: c) Justification: The government has planned to build 35 such mega freight-and-transport hubs under its flagship Bharatmala scheme, aiming to smoothen freight mobility, improve efficiency and reduce logistics costs. The logistics sector in India has been accorded “infrastructure” status in 2017, facilitating the availability of debt on easier terms and access to external commercial borrowings. India’s logistics costs are at 14% (world average 7-8%). India ranks 44 in the World Bank Logistics Performance Index MMLPs have five key functions: freight aggregation and distribution, multimodal freight transport, integrated storage and warehousing, information technology support, and value-added services. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/06/22/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-18-june-2022-2/ Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: The government has planned to build 35 such mega freight-and-transport hubs under its flagship Bharatmala scheme, aiming to smoothen freight mobility, improve efficiency and reduce logistics costs. The logistics sector in India has been accorded “infrastructure” status in 2017, facilitating the availability of debt on easier terms and access to external commercial borrowings. India’s logistics costs are at 14% (world average 7-8%). India ranks 44 in the World Bank Logistics Performance Index MMLPs have five key functions: freight aggregation and distribution, multimodal freight transport, integrated storage and warehousing, information technology support, and value-added services. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/06/22/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-18-june-2022-2/

#### 24. Question

The government has recently extended the concession period for the multi-modal logistics parks (MMLPs) scheme from 30 to 45 years, to attract more long-term investment into India’s infrastructure. What is/are the key functions of MMLPs?

• Freight aggregation and distribution

• Integrated storage and warehousing

• Information technology support for freight movement

How many of the above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

• d) None of the above

Solution: c)

Justification: The government has planned to build 35 such mega freight-and-transport hubs under its flagship Bharatmala scheme, aiming to smoothen freight mobility, improve efficiency and reduce logistics costs.

The logistics sector in India has been accorded “infrastructure” status in 2017, facilitating the availability of debt on easier terms and access to external commercial borrowings. India’s logistics costs are at 14% (world average 7-8%). India ranks 44 in the World Bank Logistics Performance Index

MMLPs have five key functions: freight aggregation and distribution, multimodal freight transport, integrated storage and warehousing, information technology support, and value-added services.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/06/22/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-18-june-2022-2/

Solution: c)

MMLPs have five key functions: freight aggregation and distribution, multimodal freight transport, integrated storage and warehousing, information technology support, and value-added services.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/06/22/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-18-june-2022-2/

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Solar flares are a sudden explosion of energy caused by tangling, crossing or reorganizing of magnetic field lines near sunspots. Sunspots appear dark because they are cooler than other parts of the Sun’s surface. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: c) Justification: A huge sunspot that is directly facing earth has grown to be twice the size of Earth and its width has doubled in just 24 hours. Sunspots are areas that appear dark on the surface of the Sun. They appear dark because they are cooler than other parts of the Sun’s surface. Solar flares are a sudden explosion of energy caused by tangling, crossing or reorganizing of magnetic field lines near sunspots. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/06/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-5-april-2024-2/ Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: A huge sunspot that is directly facing earth has grown to be twice the size of Earth and its width has doubled in just 24 hours. Sunspots are areas that appear dark on the surface of the Sun. They appear dark because they are cooler than other parts of the Sun’s surface. Solar flares are a sudden explosion of energy caused by tangling, crossing or reorganizing of magnetic field lines near sunspots. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/06/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-5-april-2024-2/

#### 25. Question

Consider the following statements.

• Solar flares are a sudden explosion of energy caused by tangling, crossing or reorganizing of magnetic field lines near sunspots.

• Sunspots appear dark because they are cooler than other parts of the Sun’s surface.

Which of the above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c)

Justification: A huge sunspot that is directly facing earth has grown to be twice the size of Earth and its width has doubled in just 24 hours.

Sunspots are areas that appear dark on the surface of the Sun. They appear dark because they are cooler than other parts of the Sun’s surface. Solar flares are a sudden explosion of energy caused by tangling, crossing or reorganizing of magnetic field lines near sunspots.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/06/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-5-april-2024-2/

Solution: c)

Justification: A huge sunspot that is directly facing earth has grown to be twice the size of Earth and its width has doubled in just 24 hours.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/06/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-5-april-2024-2/

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points Ecological -research over the last quarter of the century has established the deleterious effects of habitat fragmentation due to mining, highways and such other intrusions on forests. When a large block of forests gets fragmented into smaller bits, the edges of all these bits come into contact with human activities resulting in the degradation of the entire forests. Continuity of forested landscapes and corridors gets disrupted ‘affecting several extinction-prone species of wildlife. Habitat fragmentation is therefore considered as the most serious threat to biodiversity conservation. Ad hoc grants of forest lands to mining companies coupled with rampant, illegal mining is aggravating this threat. What is the central focus of this passage? (a) Illegal mining in forests (b) Extinction of wildlife (c) Conservation of nature (d) Disruption of habitat Correct Correct Answer: D Explanation: The central focus of passage is on how the anthropogenic factors are causing the habitat disruption. Passage list out the various factors related to it. Incorrect Correct Answer: D Explanation: The central focus of passage is on how the anthropogenic factors are causing the habitat disruption. Passage list out the various factors related to it.

#### 26. Question

Ecological -research over the last quarter of the century has established the deleterious effects of habitat fragmentation due to mining, highways and such other intrusions on forests. When a large block of forests gets fragmented into smaller bits, the edges of all these bits come into contact with human activities resulting in the degradation of the entire forests. Continuity of forested landscapes and corridors gets disrupted ‘affecting several extinction-prone species of wildlife. Habitat fragmentation is therefore considered as the most serious threat to biodiversity conservation. Ad hoc grants of forest lands to mining companies coupled with rampant, illegal mining is aggravating this threat.

What is the central focus of this passage?

• (a) Illegal mining in forests

• (b) Extinction of wildlife

• (c) Conservation of nature

• (d) Disruption of habitat

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

The central focus of passage is on how the anthropogenic factors are causing the habitat disruption. Passage list out the various factors related to it.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

The central focus of passage is on how the anthropogenic factors are causing the habitat disruption. Passage list out the various factors related to it.

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points What is the purpose of maintaining the continuity of forested landscapes and corridors? Preservation of biodiversity. 2. Management of mineral resources. 3. Grant of forest lands for human activities. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Correct Answer: A Explanation: Management of mineral resources and grant of forest lands for human activities do don’t necessarily need the continuity of forested landscapes and corridors. Instead, they want fragmentation of land and that’s disrupting the habitat destruction and loss in biodiversity. Incorrect Correct Answer: A Explanation: Management of mineral resources and grant of forest lands for human activities do don’t necessarily need the continuity of forested landscapes and corridors. Instead, they want fragmentation of land and that’s disrupting the habitat destruction and loss in biodiversity.

#### 27. Question

What is the purpose of maintaining the continuity of forested landscapes and corridors? Preservation of biodiversity. 2. Management of mineral resources. 3. Grant of forest lands for human activities.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 1 and 2

• (c) 2 and 3

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Management of mineral resources and grant of forest lands for human activities do don’t necessarily need the continuity of forested landscapes and corridors. Instead, they want fragmentation of land and that’s disrupting the habitat destruction and loss in biodiversity.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points Directions: (28-30Q) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given beside. In a certain code language, ‘Reach Is For Stars’ is written as ‘su rd mo lp’ ‘Nothing Is Out Of Reach’ is written as ‘ka su hu lk lp’ ‘For Love Of Life’ is written as ‘lk mo go ma’ ‘Nothing Like Life Is’ is written as ‘lp go hu ne’ Which of the following is the code for ‘Love Like Stars’ in the given code language? A. ma go lp B. lk rd ne C. ne su mo D. rd ne ma Correct Answer D) rd ne ma Explanation: Reach Is For Stars → su rd mo lp …….(i) Nothing Is Out Of Reach → ka su hu lk lp …….(ii) For Love Of Life → lk mo go ma …….(iii) Nothing Like Life Is → lp go hu ne …….(iv) From the equations (i) and (iii), we get: For → mo …….(v) From the equations (i), (ii) and (iv), we get: Is → lp …….(vi) From the equations (i), (ii) and (vi), we get: Reach → su …….(vii) From the equations (i), (v), (vi) and (vii), we get: Stars → rd …….(viii) From the equations (ii) and (iii), we get: Of → lk …….(ix) From the equations (ii), (iv) and (vi), we get: Nothing → hu …….(x) From the equations (ii), (vi), (vii) and (ix), we get: Out → ka …….(xi) From the equations (iii) and (iv), we get: Life → go …….(xii) From the equations (iii), (v), (ix) and (xii), we get: Love → ma …….(xiii) From the equations (iv), (vi), (x) and (xii), we get: Like → ne …….(xiv) Following the common explanation, we can say that ‘rd ne ma’ is the code for ‘Love Like Stars’ in the given code language. Hence, the correct answer is option D. Incorrect Answer D) rd ne ma Explanation: Reach Is For Stars → su rd mo lp …….(i) Nothing Is Out Of Reach → ka su hu lk lp …….(ii) For Love Of Life → lk mo go ma …….(iii) Nothing Like Life Is → lp go hu ne …….(iv) From the equations (i) and (iii), we get: For → mo …….(v) From the equations (i), (ii) and (iv), we get: Is → lp …….(vi) From the equations (i), (ii) and (vi), we get: Reach → su …….(vii) From the equations (i), (v), (vi) and (vii), we get: Stars → rd …….(viii) From the equations (ii) and (iii), we get: Of → lk …….(ix) From the equations (ii), (iv) and (vi), we get: Nothing → hu …….(x) From the equations (ii), (vi), (vii) and (ix), we get: Out → ka …….(xi) From the equations (iii) and (iv), we get: Life → go …….(xii) From the equations (iii), (v), (ix) and (xii), we get: Love → ma …….(xiii) From the equations (iv), (vi), (x) and (xii), we get: Like → ne …….(xiv) Following the common explanation, we can say that ‘rd ne ma’ is the code for ‘Love Like Stars’ in the given code language. Hence, the correct answer is option D.

#### 28. Question

Directions: (28-30Q) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given

beside.

In a certain code language,

‘Reach Is For Stars’ is written as ‘su rd mo lp’

‘Nothing Is Out Of Reach’ is written as ‘ka su hu lk lp’

‘For Love Of Life’ is written as ‘lk mo go ma’

‘Nothing Like Life Is’ is written as ‘lp go hu ne’

Which of the following is the code for ‘Love Like Stars’ in the given code language?

• A. ma go lp

• B. lk rd ne

• C. ne su mo

• D. rd ne ma

Answer D) rd ne ma

Explanation:

Reach Is For Stars → su rd mo lp …….(i)

Nothing Is Out Of Reach → ka su hu lk lp …….(ii)

For Love Of Life → lk mo go ma …….(iii)

Nothing Like Life Is → lp go hu ne …….(iv)

From the equations (i) and (iii), we get:

For → mo …….(v)

From the equations (i), (ii) and (iv), we get:

Is → lp …….(vi)

From the equations (i), (ii) and (vi), we get:

Reach → su …….(vii)

From the equations (i), (v), (vi) and (vii), we get:

Stars → rd …….(viii)

From the equations (ii) and (iii), we get:

Of → lk …….(ix)

From the equations (ii), (iv) and (vi), we get:

Nothing → hu …….(x)

From the equations (ii), (vi), (vii) and (ix), we get:

Out → ka …….(xi)

From the equations (iii) and (iv), we get:

Life → go …….(xii)

From the equations (iii), (v), (ix) and (xii), we get:

Love → ma …….(xiii)

From the equations (iv), (vi), (x) and (xii), we get:

Like → ne …….(xiv)

Following the common explanation, we can say that

‘rd ne ma’ is the code for ‘Love Like Stars’ in the given code language.

Hence, the correct answer is option D.

Answer D) rd ne ma

Explanation:

Reach Is For Stars → su rd mo lp …….(i)

Nothing Is Out Of Reach → ka su hu lk lp …….(ii)

For Love Of Life → lk mo go ma …….(iii)

Nothing Like Life Is → lp go hu ne …….(iv)

From the equations (i) and (iii), we get:

For → mo …….(v)

From the equations (i), (ii) and (iv), we get:

Is → lp …….(vi)

From the equations (i), (ii) and (vi), we get:

Reach → su …….(vii)

From the equations (i), (v), (vi) and (vii), we get:

Stars → rd …….(viii)

From the equations (ii) and (iii), we get:

Of → lk …….(ix)

From the equations (ii), (iv) and (vi), we get:

Nothing → hu …….(x)

From the equations (ii), (vi), (vii) and (ix), we get:

Out → ka …….(xi)

From the equations (iii) and (iv), we get:

Life → go …….(xii)

From the equations (iii), (v), (ix) and (xii), we get:

Love → ma …….(xiii)

From the equations (iv), (vi), (x) and (xii), we get:

Like → ne …….(xiv)

Following the common explanation, we can say that

‘rd ne ma’ is the code for ‘Love Like Stars’ in the given code language.

Hence, the correct answer is option D.

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points Which of the following is the code for ‘Love Nothing’ in the given code language? A. lp go B. mo ne C. ma hu D. lk go Correct Answer C) ma hu Explanation: Reach Is For Stars → su rd mo lp …….(i) Nothing Is Out Of Reach → ka su hu lk lp …….(ii) For Love Of Life → lk mo go ma …….(iii) Nothing Like Life Is → lp go hu ne …….(iv) From the equations (i) and (iii), we get: For → mo …….(v) From the equations (i), (ii) and (iv), we get: Is → lp …….(vi) From the equations (i), (ii) and (vi), we get: Reach → su …….(vii) From the equations (i), (v), (vi) and (vii), we get: Stars → rd …….(viii) From the equations (ii) and (iii), we get: Of → lk …….(ix) From the equations (ii), (iv) and (vi), we get: Nothing → hu …….(x) From the equations (ii), (vi), (vii) and (ix), we get: Out → ka …….(xi) From the equations (iii) and (iv), we get: Life → go …….(xii) From the equations (iii), (v), (ix) and (xii), we get: Love → ma …….(xiii) From the equations (iv), (vi), (x) and (xii), we get: Like → ne …….(xiv) Following the common explanation, we can say that ‘ma hu’ is the code for ‘Love Nothing’ in the given code language. Hence, the correct answer is option C. Incorrect Answer C) ma hu Explanation: Reach Is For Stars → su rd mo lp …….(i) Nothing Is Out Of Reach → ka su hu lk lp …….(ii) For Love Of Life → lk mo go ma …….(iii) Nothing Like Life Is → lp go hu ne …….(iv) From the equations (i) and (iii), we get: For → mo …….(v) From the equations (i), (ii) and (iv), we get: Is → lp …….(vi) From the equations (i), (ii) and (vi), we get: Reach → su …….(vii) From the equations (i), (v), (vi) and (vii), we get: Stars → rd …….(viii) From the equations (ii) and (iii), we get: Of → lk …….(ix) From the equations (ii), (iv) and (vi), we get: Nothing → hu …….(x) From the equations (ii), (vi), (vii) and (ix), we get: Out → ka …….(xi) From the equations (iii) and (iv), we get: Life → go …….(xii) From the equations (iii), (v), (ix) and (xii), we get: Love → ma …….(xiii) From the equations (iv), (vi), (x) and (xii), we get: Like → ne …….(xiv) Following the common explanation, we can say that ‘ma hu’ is the code for ‘Love Nothing’ in the given code language. Hence, the correct answer is option C.

#### 29. Question

Which of the following is the code for ‘Love Nothing’ in the given code language?

Answer C) ma hu

Explanation:

Reach Is For Stars → su rd mo lp …….(i)

Nothing Is Out Of Reach → ka su hu lk lp …….(ii)

For Love Of Life → lk mo go ma …….(iii)

Nothing Like Life Is → lp go hu ne …….(iv)

From the equations (i) and (iii), we get:

For → mo …….(v)

From the equations (i), (ii) and (iv), we get:

Is → lp …….(vi)

From the equations (i), (ii) and (vi), we get:

Reach → su …….(vii)

From the equations (i), (v), (vi) and (vii), we get:

Stars → rd …….(viii)

From the equations (ii) and (iii), we get:

Of → lk …….(ix)

From the equations (ii), (iv) and (vi), we get:

Nothing → hu …….(x)

From the equations (ii), (vi), (vii) and (ix), we get:

Out → ka …….(xi)

From the equations (iii) and (iv), we get:

Life → go …….(xii)

From the equations (iii), (v), (ix) and (xii), we get:

Love → ma …….(xiii)

From the equations (iv), (vi), (x) and (xii), we get:

Like → ne …….(xiv)

Following the common explanation, we can say that

‘ma hu’ is the code for ‘Love Nothing’ in the given code language.

Hence, the correct answer is option C.

Answer C) ma hu

Explanation:

Reach Is For Stars → su rd mo lp …….(i)

Nothing Is Out Of Reach → ka su hu lk lp …….(ii)

For Love Of Life → lk mo go ma …….(iii)

Nothing Like Life Is → lp go hu ne …….(iv)

From the equations (i) and (iii), we get:

For → mo …….(v)

From the equations (i), (ii) and (iv), we get:

Is → lp …….(vi)

From the equations (i), (ii) and (vi), we get:

Reach → su …….(vii)

From the equations (i), (v), (vi) and (vii), we get:

Stars → rd …….(viii)

From the equations (ii) and (iii), we get:

Of → lk …….(ix)

From the equations (ii), (iv) and (vi), we get:

Nothing → hu …….(x)

From the equations (ii), (vi), (vii) and (ix), we get:

Out → ka …….(xi)

From the equations (iii) and (iv), we get:

Life → go …….(xii)

From the equations (iii), (v), (ix) and (xii), we get:

Love → ma …….(xiii)

From the equations (iv), (vi), (x) and (xii), we get:

Like → ne …….(xiv)

Following the common explanation, we can say that

‘ma hu’ is the code for ‘Love Nothing’ in the given code language.

Hence, the correct answer is option C.

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points Which of the following is the code for ‘Love’ in the given code language? A. lk B. ma C. mo D. go Correct Answer B) ma Explanation: Reach Is For Stars → su rd mo lp …….(i) Nothing Is Out Of Reach → ka su hu lk lp …….(ii) For Love Of Life → lk mo go ma …….(iii) Nothing Like Life Is → lp go hu ne …….(iv) From the equations (i) and (iii), we get: For → mo …….(v) From the equations (i), (ii) and (iv), we get: Is → lp …….(vi) From the equations (i), (ii) and (vi), we get: Reach → su …….(vii) From the equations (i), (v), (vi) and (vii), we get: Stars → rd …….(viii) From the equations (ii) and (iii), we get: Of → lk …….(ix) From the equations (ii), (iv) and (vi), we get: Nothing → hu …….(x) From the equations (ii), (vi), (vii) and (ix), we get: Out → ka …….(xi) From the equations (iii) and (iv), we get: Life → go …….(xii) From the equations (iii), (v), (ix) and (xii), we get: Love → ma …….(xiii) From the equations (iv), (vi), (x) and (xii), we get: Like → ne …….(xiv) Following the common explanation, we can say that ‘ma’ is the code for ‘Love’ in the given code language. Hence, the correct answer is option B. Incorrect Answer B) ma Explanation: Reach Is For Stars → su rd mo lp …….(i) Nothing Is Out Of Reach → ka su hu lk lp …….(ii) For Love Of Life → lk mo go ma …….(iii) Nothing Like Life Is → lp go hu ne …….(iv) From the equations (i) and (iii), we get: For → mo …….(v) From the equations (i), (ii) and (iv), we get: Is → lp …….(vi) From the equations (i), (ii) and (vi), we get: Reach → su …….(vii) From the equations (i), (v), (vi) and (vii), we get: Stars → rd …….(viii) From the equations (ii) and (iii), we get: Of → lk …….(ix) From the equations (ii), (iv) and (vi), we get: Nothing → hu …….(x) From the equations (ii), (vi), (vii) and (ix), we get: Out → ka …….(xi) From the equations (iii) and (iv), we get: Life → go …….(xii) From the equations (iii), (v), (ix) and (xii), we get: Love → ma …….(xiii) From the equations (iv), (vi), (x) and (xii), we get: Like → ne …….(xiv) Following the common explanation, we can say that ‘ma’ is the code for ‘Love’ in the given code language. Hence, the correct answer is option B.

#### 30. Question

Which of the following is the code for ‘Love’ in the given code language?

Answer B) ma

Explanation:

Reach Is For Stars → su rd mo lp …….(i)

Nothing Is Out Of Reach → ka su hu lk lp …….(ii)

For Love Of Life → lk mo go ma …….(iii)

Nothing Like Life Is → lp go hu ne …….(iv)

From the equations (i) and (iii), we get:

For → mo …….(v)

From the equations (i), (ii) and (iv), we get:

Is → lp …….(vi)

From the equations (i), (ii) and (vi), we get:

Reach → su …….(vii)

From the equations (i), (v), (vi) and (vii), we get:

Stars → rd …….(viii)

From the equations (ii) and (iii), we get:

Of → lk …….(ix)

From the equations (ii), (iv) and (vi), we get:

Nothing → hu …….(x)

From the equations (ii), (vi), (vii) and (ix), we get:

Out → ka …….(xi)

From the equations (iii) and (iv), we get:

Life → go …….(xii)

From the equations (iii), (v), (ix) and (xii), we get:

Love → ma …….(xiii)

From the equations (iv), (vi), (x) and (xii), we get:

Like → ne …….(xiv)

Following the common explanation, we can say that

‘ma’ is the code for ‘Love’ in the given code language.

Hence, the correct answer is option B.

Answer B) ma

Explanation:

Reach Is For Stars → su rd mo lp …….(i)

Nothing Is Out Of Reach → ka su hu lk lp …….(ii)

For Love Of Life → lk mo go ma …….(iii)

Nothing Like Life Is → lp go hu ne …….(iv)

From the equations (i) and (iii), we get:

For → mo …….(v)

From the equations (i), (ii) and (iv), we get:

Is → lp …….(vi)

From the equations (i), (ii) and (vi), we get:

Reach → su …….(vii)

From the equations (i), (v), (vi) and (vii), we get:

Stars → rd …….(viii)

From the equations (ii) and (iii), we get:

Of → lk …….(ix)

From the equations (ii), (iv) and (vi), we get:

Nothing → hu …….(x)

From the equations (ii), (vi), (vii) and (ix), we get:

Out → ka …….(xi)

From the equations (iii) and (iv), we get:

Life → go …….(xii)

From the equations (iii), (v), (ix) and (xii), we get:

Love → ma …….(xiii)

From the equations (iv), (vi), (x) and (xii), we get:

Like → ne …….(xiv)

Following the common explanation, we can say that

‘ma’ is the code for ‘Love’ in the given code language.

Hence, the correct answer is option B.

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