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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Consider the following actions associated with Governor-Generals/Viceroys of India: Establishment of the Public Works Department (PWD) – Lord Dalhousie Introduction of the Permanent Settlement in Bengal – Lord Cornwallis Abolition of Sati – Lord William Bentinck Enactment of the Vernacular Press Act – Lord Lytton How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched? (a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs (c) Only three pairs (d) All four pairs Correct Solution: D Pair 1 is correctly matched: Lord Dalhousie (Governor-General 1848-1856) centralized the work of public construction by setting up a separate Public Works Department (PWD), significantly improving infrastructure development like roads, canals, and bridges. Pair 2 is correctly matched: Lord Cornwallis (Governor-General 1786-1793) introduced the Permanent Settlement of land revenue in Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa in 1793. Pair 3 is correctly matched: Lord William Bentinck (Governor-General 1828-1835) enacted Regulation XVII in December 1829, abolishing the practice of Sati. Pair 4 is correctly matched: Lord Lytton (Viceroy 1876-1880) enacted the Vernacular Press Act in 1878 to curtail the freedom of the Indian language press. Incorrect Solution: D Pair 1 is correctly matched: Lord Dalhousie (Governor-General 1848-1856) centralized the work of public construction by setting up a separate Public Works Department (PWD), significantly improving infrastructure development like roads, canals, and bridges. Pair 2 is correctly matched: Lord Cornwallis (Governor-General 1786-1793) introduced the Permanent Settlement of land revenue in Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa in 1793. Pair 3 is correctly matched: Lord William Bentinck (Governor-General 1828-1835) enacted Regulation XVII in December 1829, abolishing the practice of Sati. Pair 4 is correctly matched: Lord Lytton (Viceroy 1876-1880) enacted the Vernacular Press Act in 1878 to curtail the freedom of the Indian language press.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following actions associated with Governor-Generals/Viceroys of India:

• Establishment of the Public Works Department (PWD) – Lord Dalhousie

• Introduction of the Permanent Settlement in Bengal – Lord Cornwallis

• Abolition of Sati – Lord William Bentinck

• Enactment of the Vernacular Press Act – Lord Lytton

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

• (a) Only one pair

• (b) Only two pairs

• (c) Only three pairs

• (d) All four pairs

Solution: D

• Pair 1 is correctly matched: Lord Dalhousie (Governor-General 1848-1856) centralized the work of public construction by setting up a separate Public Works Department (PWD), significantly improving infrastructure development like roads, canals, and bridges.

• Pair 2 is correctly matched: Lord Cornwallis (Governor-General 1786-1793) introduced the Permanent Settlement of land revenue in Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa in 1793.

• Pair 3 is correctly matched: Lord William Bentinck (Governor-General 1828-1835) enacted Regulation XVII in December 1829, abolishing the practice of Sati.

• Pair 4 is correctly matched: Lord Lytton (Viceroy 1876-1880) enacted the Vernacular Press Act in 1878 to curtail the freedom of the Indian language press.

Solution: D

• Pair 2 is correctly matched: Lord Cornwallis (Governor-General 1786-1793) introduced the Permanent Settlement of land revenue in Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa in 1793.

• Pair 3 is correctly matched: Lord William Bentinck (Governor-General 1828-1835) enacted Regulation XVII in December 1829, abolishing the practice of Sati.

• Pair 4 is correctly matched: Lord Lytton (Viceroy 1876-1880) enacted the Vernacular Press Act in 1878 to curtail the freedom of the Indian language press.

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Which one of the following statements best describes the ‘Policy of Masterly Inactivity’ pursued by certain British administrators towards Afghanistan? (a) A policy of direct military intervention to install pro-British rulers in Kabul. (b) A policy of non-intervention in Afghanistan's internal affairs as long as British interests were not threatened and no external power interfered. (c) A policy focused on annexing Afghan territories to create a 'scientific frontier' for British India. (d) A policy aimed at actively promoting Russian influence in Afghanistan to create a stable buffer state. Correct Solution: B The ‘Policy of Masterly Inactivity’ is primarily associated with Sir John Lawrence (Viceroy 1864-1869). It signified a departure from the ‘Forward Policy’ that led to the disastrous First Anglo-Afghan War. It involved avoiding interference in Afghanistan’s internal succession struggles and maintaining friendly relations with the existing ruler, provided they did not align with powers hostile to Britain (like Russia) and maintained peace on the frontier. This policy aimed to respect Afghan independence while safeguarding British India’s security interests without costly interventions. Option (a) describes the Forward Policy, (c) is associated with Lytton’s ‘Policy of Proud Reserve’, and (d) is contrary to British objectives. Incorrect Solution: B The ‘Policy of Masterly Inactivity’ is primarily associated with Sir John Lawrence (Viceroy 1864-1869). It signified a departure from the ‘Forward Policy’ that led to the disastrous First Anglo-Afghan War. It involved avoiding interference in Afghanistan’s internal succession struggles and maintaining friendly relations with the existing ruler, provided they did not align with powers hostile to Britain (like Russia) and maintained peace on the frontier. This policy aimed to respect Afghan independence while safeguarding British India’s security interests without costly interventions. Option (a) describes the Forward Policy, (c) is associated with Lytton’s ‘Policy of Proud Reserve’, and (d) is contrary to British objectives.

#### 2. Question

Which one of the following statements best describes the ‘Policy of Masterly Inactivity’ pursued by certain British administrators towards Afghanistan?

• (a) A policy of direct military intervention to install pro-British rulers in Kabul.

• (b) A policy of non-intervention in Afghanistan's internal affairs as long as British interests were not threatened and no external power interfered.

• (c) A policy focused on annexing Afghan territories to create a 'scientific frontier' for British India.

• (d) A policy aimed at actively promoting Russian influence in Afghanistan to create a stable buffer state.

Solution: B

The ‘Policy of Masterly Inactivity’ is primarily associated with Sir John Lawrence (Viceroy 1864-1869). It signified a departure from the ‘Forward Policy’ that led to the disastrous First Anglo-Afghan War. It involved avoiding interference in Afghanistan’s internal succession struggles and maintaining friendly relations with the existing ruler, provided they did not align with powers hostile to Britain (like Russia) and maintained peace on the frontier. This policy aimed to respect Afghan independence while safeguarding British India’s security interests without costly interventions.

Option (a) describes the Forward Policy,

(d) is contrary to British objectives.

Solution: B

Option (a) describes the Forward Policy,

(d) is contrary to British objectives.

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding land revenue systems implemented by the British in India: The Permanent Settlement vested land ownership rights primarily with the Zamindars. Under the Ryotwari system, revenue was collected directly from the individual cultivators The Mahalwari system involved assessing revenue demand on a village or estate level. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is correct: Introduced by Cornwallis in 1793, the Permanent Settlement recognized Zamindars as proprietors of the land, responsible for collecting revenue from peasants and paying a fixed sum to the government. Statement 2 is correct: Introduced mainly in Madras and Bombay Presidencies (associated with Thomas Munro and Alexander Read), the Ryotwari system established a direct relationship between the state and the ryot (cultivator), who was recognized as the landowner subject to payment of revenue. Statement 3 is correct: Introduced in the North-Western Provinces, Central India, and Punjab (associated with Holt Mackenzie and Robert Merttins Bird), the Mahalwari system assessed revenue demand collectively on a village or group of villages (mahal). Revenue collection was often managed by the village headman or community leaders. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is correct: Introduced by Cornwallis in 1793, the Permanent Settlement recognized Zamindars as proprietors of the land, responsible for collecting revenue from peasants and paying a fixed sum to the government. Statement 2 is correct: Introduced mainly in Madras and Bombay Presidencies (associated with Thomas Munro and Alexander Read), the Ryotwari system established a direct relationship between the state and the ryot (cultivator), who was recognized as the landowner subject to payment of revenue. Statement 3 is correct: Introduced in the North-Western Provinces, Central India, and Punjab (associated with Holt Mackenzie and Robert Merttins Bird), the Mahalwari system assessed revenue demand collectively on a village or group of villages (mahal). Revenue collection was often managed by the village headman or community leaders.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding land revenue systems implemented by the British in India:

• The Permanent Settlement vested land ownership rights primarily with the Zamindars.

• Under the Ryotwari system, revenue was collected directly from the individual cultivators

• The Mahalwari system involved assessing revenue demand on a village or estate level.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is correct: Introduced by Cornwallis in 1793, the Permanent Settlement recognized Zamindars as proprietors of the land, responsible for collecting revenue from peasants and paying a fixed sum to the government.

• Statement 2 is correct: Introduced mainly in Madras and Bombay Presidencies (associated with Thomas Munro and Alexander Read), the Ryotwari system established a direct relationship between the state and the ryot (cultivator), who was recognized as the landowner subject to payment of revenue.

• Statement 3 is correct: Introduced in the North-Western Provinces, Central India, and Punjab (associated with Holt Mackenzie and Robert Merttins Bird), the Mahalwari system assessed revenue demand collectively on a village or group of villages (mahal). Revenue collection was often managed by the village headman or community leaders.

Solution: D

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Dadabhai Naoroji’s ‘Drain of Wealth’ theory primarily argued that: (a) India's poverty was caused by frequent famines and natural calamities. (b) British industrial goods were destroying India's traditional handicrafts. (c) A significant portion of India's national wealth was being transferred to Britain for which India received no adequate economic or material return. (d) High rates of land revenue were the sole reason for rural indebtedness and poverty. Correct Solution: C. The core argument of the ‘Drain of Wealth’ theory, meticulously elaborated by Dadabhai Naoroji in works like “Poverty and Un-British Rule in India“, was that Britain was systematically draining India’s resources. This drain occurred through various channels, including ‘Home Charges’ (expenses incurred in Britain for maintaining the India Office, pensions for retired officials, military expenses, interest on debt, etc.), profits of British capitalists in India, and salaries sent home by British officials, all constituting a unilateral transfer of wealth for which India got no proportionate economic benefit. While points (b) and (d) were consequences or aspects of British economic policy highlighted by nationalists, the central thesis of the ‘Drain Theory’ itself was the unrequited transfer of wealth (c). Point (a) ignores the man-made, policy-driven aspects of poverty emphasized by Naoroji. The Revolutionary Socialist Party was formed in 1940 by Tridib Chaudhuri Its root can be traced back to the Bengal liberation movement and Anushilan Samiti as well as Hindustan Socialist Republican Army. Hence pair 1 is incorrect United Socialist Organisation was formed by Sarat Chandra Bose, elder brother of Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose in 1947. Bose resigned from the Congress and formed his own party and tried to bring all non-communist leftist parties into an all-India coalition called the United Socialist Organisation of India which he hoped would be a leftist alternative to the Congress. Hence pair 2 is incorrect. The Bolshevik Party of India was founded by N. Dutt Mazumdar It was founded in 1939 and played a role in trade union movement in Bengal. Hence pair 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: C. The core argument of the ‘Drain of Wealth’ theory, meticulously elaborated by Dadabhai Naoroji in works like “Poverty and Un-British Rule in India“, was that Britain was systematically draining India’s resources. This drain occurred through various channels, including ‘Home Charges’ (expenses incurred in Britain for maintaining the India Office, pensions for retired officials, military expenses, interest on debt, etc.), profits of British capitalists in India, and salaries sent home by British officials, all constituting a unilateral transfer of wealth for which India got no proportionate economic benefit. While points (b) and (d) were consequences or aspects of British economic policy highlighted by nationalists, the central thesis of the ‘Drain Theory’ itself was the unrequited transfer of wealth (c). Point (a) ignores the man-made, policy-driven aspects of poverty emphasized by Naoroji.

#### 4. Question

Dadabhai Naoroji’s ‘Drain of Wealth’ theory primarily argued that:

• (a) India's poverty was caused by frequent famines and natural calamities.

• (b) British industrial goods were destroying India's traditional handicrafts.

• (c) A significant portion of India's national wealth was being transferred to Britain for which India received no adequate economic or material return.

• (d) High rates of land revenue were the sole reason for rural indebtedness and poverty.

Solution: C.

• The core argument of the ‘Drain of Wealth’ theory, meticulously elaborated by Dadabhai Naoroji in works like “Poverty and Un-British Rule in India“, was that Britain was systematically draining India’s resources. This drain occurred through various channels, including ‘Home Charges’ (expenses incurred in Britain for maintaining the India Office, pensions for retired officials, military expenses, interest on debt, etc.), profits of British capitalists in India, and salaries sent home by British officials, all constituting a unilateral transfer of wealth for which India got no proportionate economic benefit.

While points (b) and (d) were consequences or aspects of British economic policy highlighted by nationalists, the central thesis of the ‘Drain Theory’ itself was the unrequited transfer of wealth (c). Point (a) ignores the man-made, policy-driven aspects of poverty emphasized by Naoroji.

• The Revolutionary Socialist Party was formed in 1940 by Tridib Chaudhuri

• Its root can be traced back to the Bengal liberation movement and Anushilan Samiti as well as Hindustan Socialist Republican Army.

Hence pair 1 is incorrect

• United Socialist Organisation was formed by Sarat Chandra Bose, elder brother of Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose in 1947.

• Bose resigned from the Congress and formed his own party and tried to bring all non-communist leftist parties into an all-India coalition called the United Socialist Organisation of India which he hoped would be a leftist alternative to the Congress.

Hence pair 2 is incorrect.

• The Bolshevik Party of India was founded by N. Dutt Mazumdar

• It was founded in 1939 and played a role in trade union movement in Bengal.

Hence pair 3 is incorrect

Solution: C.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding pre-Congress nationalist organizations: The British Indian Association was formed by merging the Landholders’ Society and the Bengal British India Society. The Poona Sarvajanik Sabha was founded by Mahadev Govind Ranade and Ganesh Vasudeo Joshi. The Indian Association, founded by Surendranath Banerjee and Ananda Mohan Bose, aimed for a wider representation including the middle class. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct: The British Indian Association was formed in Calcutta in 1851 through the amalgamation of the Landholders’ Society (Zamindari Association) and the Bengal British India Society. Key figures associated included Radhakanta Deb and Debendranath Tagore. Statement 2 is correct: The Poona Sarvajanik Sabha was established in 1870 in Poona (Pune) by M.G. Ranade, G.V. Joshi, S.H. Chiplunkar, and others. It aimed to work as a mediating body between the government and the people and took up various public issues. Statement 3 is correct: The Indian Association was founded in Calcutta in 1876 by Surendranath Banerjee and Ananda Mohan Bose. It sought to represent broader interests beyond the landlords, focusing on the educated middle class and promoting political consciousness across India on issues like civil services reform and the Arms Act. It is considered a direct precursor to the Indian National Congress. Tana Bhagat movement (1914-1920) emerged among the Oraon Tribes of Chotanagpur, Jharkhand Tana Bhagat was the major leader, also called Jatra Bhagat the main reasons included economic and cultural exploitation of the tribals which was done by the colonial rule. Hence option 1 is incorrect Bijolia uprising broke out in Rajasthan. It’s first phase was a continuous movement with local leadership launched in 1897 by Dhakad peasants Discontent among the peasants was mainly due to imposition of excessive land and other taxes. Chakra Bisoi was associated with Khond uprising of Odisha during 1837-56. Hence option 2 is incorrect The Chenchu tribal movement broke out in Nallamalai forest of Andhra Pradesh. Kanneganti Hanumanthu led the tribals against the British during 1921-22. The tribals launched forest Satyagraha during the Non cooperation movement. Hence option 3 is correct Patharughat Uprising broke out in 1894 in Assam A large number of peasants protested against the increasing land tax that laid to impoverishment. The peasants raised slogan against the authorities who decided to break up the meeting by force; firing and lathi charge followed and a number of peasants were killed or injured It has came to be known as Jallianwalabagh of Assam, though incident happened decades before the Punjab massacre. Hence option 4 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct: The British Indian Association was formed in Calcutta in 1851 through the amalgamation of the Landholders’ Society (Zamindari Association) and the Bengal British India Society. Key figures associated included Radhakanta Deb and Debendranath Tagore. Statement 2 is correct: The Poona Sarvajanik Sabha was established in 1870 in Poona (Pune) by M.G. Ranade, G.V. Joshi, S.H. Chiplunkar, and others. It aimed to work as a mediating body between the government and the people and took up various public issues. Statement 3 is correct: The Indian Association was founded in Calcutta in 1876 by Surendranath Banerjee and Ananda Mohan Bose. It sought to represent broader interests beyond the landlords, focusing on the educated middle class and promoting political consciousness across India on issues like civil services reform and the Arms Act. It is considered a direct precursor to the Indian National Congress.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding pre-Congress nationalist organizations:

• The British Indian Association was formed by merging the Landholders’ Society and the Bengal British India Society.

• The Poona Sarvajanik Sabha was founded by Mahadev Govind Ranade and Ganesh Vasudeo Joshi.

• The Indian Association, founded by Surendranath Banerjee and Ananda Mohan Bose, aimed for a wider representation including the middle class.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct: The British Indian Association was formed in Calcutta in 1851 through the amalgamation of the Landholders’ Society (Zamindari Association) and the Bengal British India Society. Key figures associated included Radhakanta Deb and Debendranath Tagore.

• Statement 2 is correct: The Poona Sarvajanik Sabha was established in 1870 in Poona (Pune) by M.G. Ranade, G.V. Joshi, S.H. Chiplunkar, and others. It aimed to work as a mediating body between the government and the people and took up various public issues.

Statement 3 is correct: The Indian Association was founded in Calcutta in 1876 by Surendranath Banerjee and Ananda Mohan Bose. It sought to represent broader interests beyond the landlords, focusing on the educated middle class and promoting political consciousness across India on issues like civil services reform and the Arms Act. It is considered a direct precursor to the Indian National Congress.

• Tana Bhagat movement (1914-1920) emerged among the Oraon Tribes of Chotanagpur, Jharkhand

• Tana Bhagat was the major leader, also called Jatra Bhagat

• the main reasons included economic and cultural exploitation of the tribals which was done by the colonial rule.

Hence option 1 is incorrect

• Bijolia uprising broke out in Rajasthan.

• It’s first phase was a continuous movement with local leadership launched in 1897 by Dhakad peasants

• Discontent among the peasants was mainly due to imposition of excessive land and other taxes.

• Chakra Bisoi was associated with Khond uprising of Odisha during 1837-56.

Hence option 2 is incorrect

• The Chenchu tribal movement broke out in Nallamalai forest of Andhra Pradesh.

• Kanneganti Hanumanthu led the tribals against the British during 1921-22.

• The tribals launched forest Satyagraha during the Non cooperation movement.

Hence option 3 is correct

• Patharughat Uprising broke out in 1894 in Assam

• A large number of peasants protested against the increasing land tax that laid to impoverishment.

• The peasants raised slogan against the authorities who decided to break up the meeting by force; firing and lathi charge followed and a number of peasants were killed or injured

• It has came to be known as Jallianwalabagh of Assam, though incident happened decades before the Punjab massacre.

Hence option 4 is incorrect

Solution: C

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points The main objective of the Ilbert Bill controversy during Lord Ripon’s viceroyalty was related to: (a) Increasing the age limit for the Indian Civil Services examination. (b) Granting financial autonomy to local self-governing bodies. (c) Removing racial discrimination in the judicial system regarding the trial of Europeans. (d) Imposing restrictions on the vernacular press to curb nationalist writings. Correct Solution: C The Ilbert Bill (1883) sought to amend the Criminal Procedure Code to allow Indian judges and magistrates in the mofussil (outside presidency towns) to preside over trials involving European British subjects. Previously, only European judges could try Europeans in such cases. The bill aimed to end this judicial disqualification based on race. It triggered a massive protest from the European community in India, forcing the government to modify the bill significantly. The controversy highlighted the deep-seated racial arrogance of the ruling class and further fueled Indian nationalism. Option (d) relates to Lytton’s Vernacular Press Act, (b) to Ripon’s Local Self-Government resolution, and (a) was a demand related to civil services. Incorrect Solution: C The Ilbert Bill (1883) sought to amend the Criminal Procedure Code to allow Indian judges and magistrates in the mofussil (outside presidency towns) to preside over trials involving European British subjects. Previously, only European judges could try Europeans in such cases. The bill aimed to end this judicial disqualification based on race. It triggered a massive protest from the European community in India, forcing the government to modify the bill significantly. The controversy highlighted the deep-seated racial arrogance of the ruling class and further fueled Indian nationalism. Option (d) relates to Lytton’s Vernacular Press Act, (b) to Ripon’s Local Self-Government resolution, and (a) was a demand related to civil services.

#### 6. Question

The main objective of the Ilbert Bill controversy during Lord Ripon’s viceroyalty was related to:

• (a) Increasing the age limit for the Indian Civil Services examination.

• (b) Granting financial autonomy to local self-governing bodies.

• (c) Removing racial discrimination in the judicial system regarding the trial of Europeans.

• (d) Imposing restrictions on the vernacular press to curb nationalist writings.

Solution: C

The Ilbert Bill (1883) sought to amend the Criminal Procedure Code to allow Indian judges and magistrates in the mofussil (outside presidency towns) to preside over trials involving European British subjects. Previously, only European judges could try Europeans in such cases. The bill aimed to end this judicial disqualification based on race. It triggered a massive protest from the European community in India, forcing the government to modify the bill significantly. The controversy highlighted the deep-seated racial arrogance of the ruling class and further fueled Indian nationalism. Option (d) relates to Lytton’s Vernacular Press Act, (b) to Ripon’s Local Self-Government resolution, and (a) was a demand related to civil services.

Solution: C

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs: Journal/Newspaper Founder/Editor 1. Kesari Bal Gangadhar Tilak 2. Indian Mirror Dadabhai Naoroji 3. Amrita Bazar Patrika Sisir Kumar Ghose 4. The Hindu G. Subramania Iyer How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched? (a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs (c) Only three pairs (d) All four pairs Correct Solution: C Pair 1 is correctly matched: Kesari (in Marathi) and Mahratta (in English) were influential newspapers started by Bal Gangadhar Tilak. Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Indian Mirror was started by Debendranath Tagore, with Keshab Chandra Sen and Narendra Nath Sen being prominent figures associated with it later. Dadabhai Naoroji was associated with journals like Rast Goftar. Pair 3 is correctly matched: Amrita Bazar Patrika, initially a Bengali weekly later converted into an English daily (famously overnight to circumvent the Vernacular Press Act), was founded by Sisir Kumar Ghose and Motilal Ghose. Pair 4 is correctly matched: The Hindu was founded in Madras in 1878 by a group often referred to as the ‘Triplicane Six’, consisting of young nationalists including G. Subramania Iyer, M. Veeraraghavachariar, and others. G. Subramania Iyer served as its first editor. Incorrect Solution: C Pair 1 is correctly matched: Kesari (in Marathi) and Mahratta (in English) were influential newspapers started by Bal Gangadhar Tilak. Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Indian Mirror was started by Debendranath Tagore, with Keshab Chandra Sen and Narendra Nath Sen being prominent figures associated with it later. Dadabhai Naoroji was associated with journals like Rast Goftar. Pair 3 is correctly matched: Amrita Bazar Patrika, initially a Bengali weekly later converted into an English daily (famously overnight to circumvent the Vernacular Press Act), was founded by Sisir Kumar Ghose and Motilal Ghose. Pair 4 is correctly matched: The Hindu was founded in Madras in 1878 by a group often referred to as the ‘Triplicane Six’, consisting of young nationalists including G. Subramania Iyer, M. Veeraraghavachariar, and others. G. Subramania Iyer served as its first editor.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following pairs:

Journal/Newspaper | Founder/Editor

1.Kesari | Bal Gangadhar Tilak
2.Indian Mirror | Dadabhai Naoroji
3.Amrita Bazar Patrika | Sisir Kumar Ghose
4.The Hindu | G. Subramania Iyer

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

• (a) Only one pair

• (b) Only two pairs

• (c) Only three pairs

• (d) All four pairs

Solution: C

• Pair 1 is correctly matched: Kesari (in Marathi) and Mahratta (in English) were influential newspapers started by Bal Gangadhar Tilak.

• Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Indian Mirror was started by Debendranath Tagore, with Keshab Chandra Sen and Narendra Nath Sen being prominent figures associated with it later. Dadabhai Naoroji was associated with journals like Rast Goftar.

• Pair 3 is correctly matched: Amrita Bazar Patrika, initially a Bengali weekly later converted into an English daily (famously overnight to circumvent the Vernacular Press Act), was founded by Sisir Kumar Ghose and Motilal Ghose.

• Pair 4 is correctly matched: The Hindu was founded in Madras in 1878 by a group often referred to as the ‘Triplicane Six’, consisting of young nationalists including G. Subramania Iyer, M. Veeraraghavachariar, and others. G. Subramania Iyer served as its first editor.

Solution: C

• Pair 1 is correctly matched: Kesari (in Marathi) and Mahratta (in English) were influential newspapers started by Bal Gangadhar Tilak.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Arrange the following Governor-Generals/Viceroys in the correct chronological order of their tenure: Lord Curzon Lord Ripon Lord Lytton Lord Dufferin Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 3 – 2 – 4 – 1 (b) 2 – 3 – 1 – 4 (c) 3 – 4 – 2 – 1 (d) 2 – 4 – 3 – 1 Correct Solution: A Lord Lytton (3): Viceroy from 1876 to 1880. Lord Ripon (2): Viceroy from 1880 to 1884. Lord Dufferin (4): Viceroy from 1884 to 1888 (Indian National Congress was founded during his tenure). Lord Curzon (1): Viceroy from 1899 to 1905 (Partition of Bengal occurred during his tenure). Incorrect Solution: A Lord Lytton (3): Viceroy from 1876 to 1880. Lord Ripon (2): Viceroy from 1880 to 1884. Lord Dufferin (4): Viceroy from 1884 to 1888 (Indian National Congress was founded during his tenure). Lord Curzon (1): Viceroy from 1899 to 1905 (Partition of Bengal occurred during his tenure).

#### 8. Question

Arrange the following Governor-Generals/Viceroys in the correct chronological order of their tenure:

• Lord Curzon

• Lord Ripon

• Lord Lytton

• Lord Dufferin

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 3 – 2 – 4 – 1

• (b) 2 – 3 – 1 – 4

• (c) 3 – 4 – 2 – 1

• (d) 2 – 4 – 3 – 1

Solution: A

• Lord Lytton (3): Viceroy from 1876 to 1880.

• Lord Ripon (2): Viceroy from 1880 to 1884.

• Lord Dufferin (4): Viceroy from 1884 to 1888 (Indian National Congress was founded during his tenure).

• Lord Curzon (1): Viceroy from 1899 to 1905 (Partition of Bengal occurred during his tenure).

Solution: A

• Lord Lytton (3): Viceroy from 1876 to 1880.

• Lord Ripon (2): Viceroy from 1880 to 1884.

• Lord Dufferin (4): Viceroy from 1884 to 1888 (Indian National Congress was founded during his tenure).

• Lord Curzon (1): Viceroy from 1899 to 1905 (Partition of Bengal occurred during his tenure).

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the evolution of the Civil Services in British India: Statement I: The Charter Act of 1853 introduced an open competitive examination for recruitment into the Covenanted Civil Services. Statement II: The primary aim of introducing competitive exams was to ensure greater participation of Indians in the higher administrative posts. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I. (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I. (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. Correct Solution: C Statement I is correct: The Charter Act of 1853 indeed ended the East India Company’s patronage system and provided for recruitment to the Covenanted Civil Services through open competition, based on the recommendations of the Macaulay Committee. The first such exam was held in London in 1855. Statement II is incorrect: While the Act opened the door theoretically for Indians, the primary motivation behind introducing competition was to improve the quality and efficiency of the administration by selecting candidates based on merit, rather than patronage, and to satisfy demands for reform within Britain. Ensuring greater Indian participation was not the main goal; in fact, various barriers (like holding exams only in London, syllabus favouring British education, low age limits) made it difficult for Indians to compete successfully for many years. The demand for Indianization came from Indian nationalists, not primarily from the British reformers who introduced the exam system initially. Incorrect Solution: C Statement I is correct: The Charter Act of 1853 indeed ended the East India Company’s patronage system and provided for recruitment to the Covenanted Civil Services through open competition, based on the recommendations of the Macaulay Committee. The first such exam was held in London in 1855. Statement II is incorrect: While the Act opened the door theoretically for Indians, the primary motivation behind introducing competition was to improve the quality and efficiency of the administration by selecting candidates based on merit, rather than patronage, and to satisfy demands for reform within Britain. Ensuring greater Indian participation was not the main goal; in fact, various barriers (like holding exams only in London, syllabus favouring British education, low age limits) made it difficult for Indians to compete successfully for many years. The demand for Indianization came from Indian nationalists, not primarily from the British reformers who introduced the exam system initially. Shatrapen was written by Gopal Hari Deshmukh. During 1848-50, Deshmukh, better known by his pen name Lokhitwadi, wrote his famous 100 letters, Shatapatren, in the Prabhakar a Marathi weekly. This formed the magnum opus of the early intellectual work in Maharashtra These letters were all encompassing in dimension and touch upon nearly every aspect of the contemporary society He advocated the restructuring of Indian society along modern humanistic lines. Deshmukh was a social activist and thinker from Maharashtra and an important figure in the social reform Movement in Maharashtra He wrote articles in Prabhakar under the pen name, aimed at social reforms. Hence option C is correct

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements about the evolution of the Civil Services in British India:

Statement I: The Charter Act of 1853 introduced an open competitive examination for recruitment into the Covenanted Civil Services.

Statement II: The primary aim of introducing competitive exams was to ensure greater participation of Indians in the higher administrative posts.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.

• (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I.

• (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

• (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Solution: C

• Statement I is correct: The Charter Act of 1853 indeed ended the East India Company’s patronage system and provided for recruitment to the Covenanted Civil Services through open competition, based on the recommendations of the Macaulay Committee. The first such exam was held in London in 1855.

• Statement II is incorrect: While the Act opened the door theoretically for Indians, the primary motivation behind introducing competition was to improve the quality and efficiency of the administration by selecting candidates based on merit, rather than patronage, and to satisfy demands for reform within Britain. Ensuring greater Indian participation was not the main goal; in fact, various barriers (like holding exams only in London, syllabus favouring British education, low age limits) made it difficult for Indians to compete successfully for many years. The demand for Indianization came from Indian nationalists, not primarily from the British reformers who introduced the exam system initially.

• Ensuring greater Indian participation was not the main goal; in fact, various barriers (like holding exams only in London, syllabus favouring British education, low age limits) made it difficult for Indians to compete successfully for many years.

• The demand for Indianization came from Indian nationalists, not primarily from the British reformers who introduced the exam system initially.

Solution: C

• The demand for Indianization came from Indian nationalists, not primarily from the British reformers who introduced the exam system initially.

• Shatrapen was written by Gopal Hari Deshmukh.

• During 1848-50, Deshmukh, better known by his pen name Lokhitwadi, wrote his famous 100 letters, Shatapatren, in the Prabhakar a Marathi weekly.

• This formed the magnum opus of the early intellectual work in Maharashtra

• These letters were all encompassing in dimension and touch upon nearly every aspect of the contemporary society

• He advocated the restructuring of Indian society along modern humanistic lines.

• Deshmukh was a social activist and thinker from Maharashtra and an important figure in the social reform Movement in Maharashtra

• He wrote articles in Prabhakar under the pen name, aimed at social reforms.

Hence option C is correct

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Which Indian National Congress (INC) session, held in a rural setting for the first time, emphasized agrarian issues and was presided over by Jawaharlal Nehru? (a) Lucknow Session, 1936 (b) Faizpur Session, 1936 (c) Haripura Session, 1938 (d) Ramgarh Session, 1940 Correct Solution: B The Faizpur Session of the INC, held in December 1936 in a village in Maharashtra, was the first session to be held in a rural area. Presided over by Jawaharlal Nehru (his second consecutive term after Lucknow 1936), this session holds significance for its focus on agrarian problems. It adopted a 13-point agrarian programme aimed at addressing peasant demands, such as reduction in land revenue and rent, abolition of feudal dues, and relief from rural indebtedness, reflecting the growing influence of socialist ideas and peasant movements within the Congress. Incorrect Solution: B The Faizpur Session of the INC, held in December 1936 in a village in Maharashtra, was the first session to be held in a rural area. Presided over by Jawaharlal Nehru (his second consecutive term after Lucknow 1936), this session holds significance for its focus on agrarian problems. It adopted a 13-point agrarian programme aimed at addressing peasant demands, such as reduction in land revenue and rent, abolition of feudal dues, and relief from rural indebtedness, reflecting the growing influence of socialist ideas and peasant movements within the Congress.

#### 10. Question

Which Indian National Congress (INC) session, held in a rural setting for the first time, emphasized agrarian issues and was presided over by Jawaharlal Nehru?

• (a) Lucknow Session, 1936

• (b) Faizpur Session, 1936

• (c) Haripura Session, 1938

• (d) Ramgarh Session, 1940

Solution: B

The Faizpur Session of the INC, held in December 1936 in a village in Maharashtra, was the first session to be held in a rural area. Presided over by Jawaharlal Nehru (his second consecutive term after Lucknow 1936), this session holds significance for its focus on agrarian problems.

• It adopted a 13-point agrarian programme aimed at addressing peasant demands, such as reduction in land revenue and rent, abolition of feudal dues, and relief from rural indebtedness, reflecting the growing influence of socialist ideas and peasant movements within the Congress.

Solution: B

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Wood’s Despatch: It advocated for inclusion of private Enterprise in educational system. It proposed English as the medium of instruction in primary schools till university level for promotion of Western education. It stressed on Teachers training in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: A Wood’s Despatch In 1854 Charles Wood prepared a despatch on educational system for India It recommended a system of grants-in-aid to encourage private Enterprise in India. It also advocated for female and vocational education and on Teachers’ training. Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct Wood’s Despatch provided for vernacular primary schools in villages at the bottom, followed by Anglo vernacular high schools and an affiliated college at the district level and affiliating Universities in the presidency towns of Calcutta, Bombay and Madras. It recommended English as the medium of instruction for higher studies and vernacular at school level. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: A Wood’s Despatch In 1854 Charles Wood prepared a despatch on educational system for India It recommended a system of grants-in-aid to encourage private Enterprise in India. It also advocated for female and vocational education and on Teachers’ training. Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct Wood’s Despatch provided for vernacular primary schools in villages at the bottom, followed by Anglo vernacular high schools and an affiliated college at the district level and affiliating Universities in the presidency towns of Calcutta, Bombay and Madras. It recommended English as the medium of instruction for higher studies and vernacular at school level. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

#### 11. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Wood’s Despatch:

• It advocated for inclusion of private Enterprise in educational system.

• It proposed English as the medium of instruction in primary schools till university level for promotion of Western education.

• It stressed on Teachers training in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) 1 and 2 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

Wood’s Despatch

• In 1854 Charles Wood prepared a despatch on educational system for India

• It recommended a system of grants-in-aid to encourage private Enterprise in India.

• It also advocated for female and vocational education and on Teachers’ training.

Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct

• Wood’s Despatch provided for vernacular primary schools in villages at the bottom, followed by Anglo vernacular high schools and an affiliated college at the district level and affiliating Universities in the presidency towns of Calcutta, Bombay and Madras.

• It recommended English as the medium of instruction for higher studies and vernacular at school level.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Solution: A

Wood’s Despatch

• In 1854 Charles Wood prepared a despatch on educational system for India

• It recommended a system of grants-in-aid to encourage private Enterprise in India.

• It also advocated for female and vocational education and on Teachers’ training.

Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct

• It recommended English as the medium of instruction for higher studies and vernacular at school level.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Constitution of a Public Service Commission in India, for the first time was recommended under : (a) Indian Councils Act of 1892 (b) Government of India Act 1919 (c) Government of India Act 1909 (d) Pitts India Act 1784 Correct Solution : B The Government of India Act 1919 for the first time recommended creation of Public Service Commission in India. This act, based on Montagu-Chelmsford Report, recognised the need for a competent and independent civil service; Section 96C of the act provided for establishment of a public service commission to regulate recruitment and control public services in India However, the actual establishment of a Central Public Service Commission occurred in 1926. After independence, in India, Public Service commissions are constitutional bodies established under articles 315 of the constitution Along with a Union Public Service Commission at the centre, States have their own state Public Service Commissions. State Public Service commissions conduct examination for recruitment to state services and advise the Governor on disciplinary matters. Hence option B is correct Incorrect Solution : B The Government of India Act 1919 for the first time recommended creation of Public Service Commission in India. This act, based on Montagu-Chelmsford Report, recognised the need for a competent and independent civil service; Section 96C of the act provided for establishment of a public service commission to regulate recruitment and control public services in India However, the actual establishment of a Central Public Service Commission occurred in 1926. After independence, in India, Public Service commissions are constitutional bodies established under articles 315 of the constitution Along with a Union Public Service Commission at the centre, States have their own state Public Service Commissions. State Public Service commissions conduct examination for recruitment to state services and advise the Governor on disciplinary matters. Hence option B is correct

#### 12. Question

Constitution of a Public Service Commission in India, for the first time was recommended under :

• (a) Indian Councils Act of 1892

• (b) Government of India Act 1919

• (c) Government of India Act 1909

• (d) Pitts India Act 1784

Solution : B

• The Government of India Act 1919 for the first time recommended creation of Public Service Commission in India.

• This act, based on Montagu-Chelmsford Report, recognised the need for a competent and independent civil service; Section 96C of the act provided for establishment of a public service commission to regulate recruitment and control public services in India

• However, the actual establishment of a Central Public Service Commission occurred in 1926.

• After independence, in India, Public Service commissions are constitutional bodies established under articles 315 of the constitution

• Along with a Union Public Service Commission at the centre, States have their own state Public Service Commissions.

• State Public Service commissions conduct examination for recruitment to state services and advise the Governor on disciplinary matters.

Hence option B is correct

Solution : B

• The Government of India Act 1919 for the first time recommended creation of Public Service Commission in India.

• However, the actual establishment of a Central Public Service Commission occurred in 1926.

• After independence, in India, Public Service commissions are constitutional bodies established under articles 315 of the constitution

• Along with a Union Public Service Commission at the centre, States have their own state Public Service Commissions.

• State Public Service commissions conduct examination for recruitment to state services and advise the Governor on disciplinary matters.

Hence option B is correct

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Consider the following literary works : The Story of My Experiments with Truth The Discovery of India The Indian Struggle Glimpses of World History How many of the above were authored by Jawaharlal Nehru ? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 2 only Correct Solution : C The Story of My Experiments with Truth is the autobiography of Mahatma Gandhi that covered his life from early childhood till 1921 It was written in weekly installments and published in his journal Navjivan from 1925 to 1929. Hence option 1 is incorrect The Discovery of India was written by Jawaharlal Nehru during 1942-1945 at Ahmednagar fort in Maharashtra ; the book was published in 1946. Glimpses of World History was written by Jawaharlal Nehru in 1934 Hence options 2 and 4 are correct The Indian Struggle is a two part book written by Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose that covers the period from 1920 to 1942. Hence option 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution : C The Story of My Experiments with Truth is the autobiography of Mahatma Gandhi that covered his life from early childhood till 1921 It was written in weekly installments and published in his journal Navjivan from 1925 to 1929. Hence option 1 is incorrect The Discovery of India was written by Jawaharlal Nehru during 1942-1945 at Ahmednagar fort in Maharashtra ; the book was published in 1946. Glimpses of World History was written by Jawaharlal Nehru in 1934 Hence options 2 and 4 are correct The Indian Struggle is a two part book written by Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose that covers the period from 1920 to 1942. Hence option 3 is incorrect

#### 13. Question

Consider the following literary works :

• The Story of My Experiments with Truth

• The Discovery of India

• The Indian Struggle

• Glimpses of World History

How many of the above were authored by Jawaharlal Nehru ?

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 1 and 4 only

• (c) 2 and 4 only

• (d) 1 and 2 only

Solution : C

• The Story of My Experiments with Truth is the autobiography of Mahatma Gandhi that covered his life from early childhood till 1921

• It was written in weekly installments and published in his journal Navjivan from 1925 to 1929.

Hence option 1 is incorrect

• The Discovery of India was written by Jawaharlal Nehru during 1942-1945 at Ahmednagar fort in Maharashtra ; the book was published in 1946.

• Glimpses of World History was written by Jawaharlal Nehru in 1934

Hence options 2 and 4 are correct

• The Indian Struggle is a two part book written by Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose that covers the period from 1920 to 1942.

Hence option 3 is incorrect

Solution : C

• The Story of My Experiments with Truth is the autobiography of Mahatma Gandhi that covered his life from early childhood till 1921

• It was written in weekly installments and published in his journal Navjivan from 1925 to 1929.

Hence option 1 is incorrect

• The Discovery of India was written by Jawaharlal Nehru during 1942-1945 at Ahmednagar fort in Maharashtra ; the book was published in 1946.

• Glimpses of World History was written by Jawaharlal Nehru in 1934

Hence options 2 and 4 are correct

• The Indian Struggle is a two part book written by Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose that covers the period from 1920 to 1942.

Hence option 3 is incorrect

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Indian Councils Act of 1861 : The Governor General was empowered to appoint Lieutenant governors. Under it, Bombay and Madras presidencies could no longer introduce legislations. It recognised the portfolio system. The viceroy was empowered to pass ordinance during emergency without permission from the Council. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C Indian Councils Act of 1861 The Indian Councils Act of 1861 provided the Governor General with the power to create new provinces for legislative purposes. He could also appoint lieutenant governors. Hence statement 1 is correct The Act of 1861 returned legislative power of the Madras and Bombay presidencies; but they had to obtain permission from the governor general to pass an act. After the Regulating Act of 1773, it became a tendency of the government to centralise the power in the hands of governor general of Bengal; in pursuance of that, the Charter Act of 1833 took away the legislative powers from Bombay and Madras presidencies. Hence statement 2 is incorrect The Councils Act of 1861 gave recognition to the portfolio system that was introduced by Lord Canning in 1859 Under this a member of Viceroy’s Council was made in-charge of one or more departments of the Government and was authorised to issue final orders on behalf of the Council on matters related to his department(s). It also empowered the viceroy to issue ordinance during an emergency without concurrence of the Legislative Council. Hence statement 3 and 4 are correct Incorrect Solution: C Indian Councils Act of 1861 The Indian Councils Act of 1861 provided the Governor General with the power to create new provinces for legislative purposes. He could also appoint lieutenant governors. Hence statement 1 is correct The Act of 1861 returned legislative power of the Madras and Bombay presidencies; but they had to obtain permission from the governor general to pass an act. After the Regulating Act of 1773, it became a tendency of the government to centralise the power in the hands of governor general of Bengal; in pursuance of that, the Charter Act of 1833 took away the legislative powers from Bombay and Madras presidencies. Hence statement 2 is incorrect The Councils Act of 1861 gave recognition to the portfolio system that was introduced by Lord Canning in 1859 Under this a member of Viceroy’s Council was made in-charge of one or more departments of the Government and was authorised to issue final orders on behalf of the Council on matters related to his department(s). It also empowered the viceroy to issue ordinance during an emergency without concurrence of the Legislative Council. Hence statement 3 and 4 are correct

#### 14. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Indian Councils Act of 1861 :

• The Governor General was empowered to appoint Lieutenant governors.

• Under it, Bombay and Madras presidencies could no longer introduce legislations.

• It recognised the portfolio system.

• The viceroy was empowered to pass ordinance during emergency without permission from the Council.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

Indian Councils Act of 1861

• The Indian Councils Act of 1861 provided the Governor General with the power to create new provinces for legislative purposes.

• He could also appoint lieutenant governors.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The Act of 1861 returned legislative power of the Madras and Bombay presidencies; but they had to obtain permission from the governor general to pass an act.

• After the Regulating Act of 1773, it became a tendency of the government to centralise the power in the hands of governor general of Bengal; in pursuance of that, the Charter Act of 1833 took away the legislative powers from Bombay and Madras presidencies.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• The Councils Act of 1861 gave recognition to the portfolio system that was introduced by Lord Canning in 1859

• Under this a member of Viceroy’s Council was made in-charge of one or more departments of the Government and was authorised to issue final orders on behalf of the Council on matters related to his department(s).

• It also empowered the viceroy to issue ordinance during an emergency without concurrence of the Legislative Council.

Hence statement 3 and 4 are correct

Solution: C

Indian Councils Act of 1861

• The Indian Councils Act of 1861 provided the Governor General with the power to create new provinces for legislative purposes.

• He could also appoint lieutenant governors.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The Act of 1861 returned legislative power of the Madras and Bombay presidencies; but they had to obtain permission from the governor general to pass an act.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• The Councils Act of 1861 gave recognition to the portfolio system that was introduced by Lord Canning in 1859

• It also empowered the viceroy to issue ordinance during an emergency without concurrence of the Legislative Council.

Hence statement 3 and 4 are correct

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Which of the following is/are correctly matched in terms of publisher and place of publication of important journals during British India? Jounal/Newspaper Publisher Year 1.Talvar Virendranath Chattopadhyay Berlin 2. Bengal Gazette Rammohan Roy Dhaka 3. Indian Sociologist Shyamji Krishna Verma London 4. Indian Mirror Robert Knight Mumbai Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 4 Correct Solution : A Talvar was a 20th century periodical published from Berlin by Virendranath Chattopadhyay. It was originally named after Madan Lal Dhingra who had been executed for assassination of Curzon Wyllie. It was published in 1909 in Paris by Bhikaji Cama with editorial responsibilities on Virendranath Chattopadhyay in Berlin. Hence pair 1 is correct. Bengal Gazette was the first Bengali language newspaper that was published from Calcutta. It was founded by Harish Chandra Ray. Hence pair 2 is incorrect Indian Sociologist was an Indian nationalist journal that was published in the 20th century by Shyamji Krishna Verma from London. It was edited by Verma from 1905 to 1914 and then between 1920 and 1922. Hence pair 3 is correct Indian Mirror was published from Calcutta in 1862. It was founded by Debendranath Tagore. Hence pair 4 is incorrect Incorrect Solution : A Talvar was a 20th century periodical published from Berlin by Virendranath Chattopadhyay. It was originally named after Madan Lal Dhingra who had been executed for assassination of Curzon Wyllie. It was published in 1909 in Paris by Bhikaji Cama with editorial responsibilities on Virendranath Chattopadhyay in Berlin. Hence pair 1 is correct. Bengal Gazette was the first Bengali language newspaper that was published from Calcutta. It was founded by Harish Chandra Ray. Hence pair 2 is incorrect Indian Sociologist was an Indian nationalist journal that was published in the 20th century by Shyamji Krishna Verma from London. It was edited by Verma from 1905 to 1914 and then between 1920 and 1922. Hence pair 3 is correct Indian Mirror was published from Calcutta in 1862. It was founded by Debendranath Tagore. Hence pair 4 is incorrect

#### 15. Question

Which of the following is/are correctly matched in terms of publisher and place of publication of important journals during British India?

Jounal/Newspaper | Publisher | Year

1.Talvar | Virendranath Chattopadhyay | Berlin

1.Bengal Gazette | Rammohan Roy | Dhaka
2.Indian Sociologist | Shyamji Krishna Verma | London
3.Indian Mirror | Robert Knight | Mumbai

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 and 3

• (b) 2 and 4

• (c) 1 and 2

• (d) 1 and 4

Solution : A

• Talvar was a 20th century periodical published from Berlin by Virendranath Chattopadhyay.

• It was originally named after Madan Lal Dhingra who had been executed for assassination of Curzon Wyllie.

• It was published in 1909 in Paris by Bhikaji Cama with editorial responsibilities on Virendranath Chattopadhyay in Berlin.

Hence pair 1 is correct.

• Bengal Gazette was the first Bengali language newspaper that was published from Calcutta.

• It was founded by Harish Chandra Ray.

Hence pair 2 is incorrect

• Indian Sociologist was an Indian nationalist journal that was published in the 20th century by Shyamji Krishna Verma from London.

• It was edited by Verma from 1905 to 1914 and then between 1920 and 1922.

Hence pair 3 is correct

• Indian Mirror was published from Calcutta in 1862.

• It was founded by Debendranath Tagore.

Hence pair 4 is incorrect

Solution : A

• Talvar was a 20th century periodical published from Berlin by Virendranath Chattopadhyay.

• It was originally named after Madan Lal Dhingra who had been executed for assassination of Curzon Wyllie.

• It was published in 1909 in Paris by Bhikaji Cama with editorial responsibilities on Virendranath Chattopadhyay in Berlin.

Hence pair 1 is correct.

• Bengal Gazette was the first Bengali language newspaper that was published from Calcutta.

• It was founded by Harish Chandra Ray.

Hence pair 2 is incorrect

• Indian Sociologist was an Indian nationalist journal that was published in the 20th century by Shyamji Krishna Verma from London.

• It was edited by Verma from 1905 to 1914 and then between 1920 and 1922.

Hence pair 3 is correct

• Indian Mirror was published from Calcutta in 1862.

• It was founded by Debendranath Tagore.

Hence pair 4 is incorrect

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points The literary works‘ Lectures from Colombo to Almora’ and ‘Inspired Talks’ are associated with: (a) Sri Aurobindo (b) Jawaharlal Nehru (c) Swami Vivekananda (d) Subhash Chandra Bose Correct Solution : C The book ‘Lectures from Colombo to Almora’ was written by Swami Vivekananda in 1897. It was based on the lectures he delivered in Sri Lanka and India after his return from the West. He reached Colombo in 1897 and delivered lectures there, after which he arrived at Pamban in South India. He traveled extensively and visited many Indian states, delivering lectures on several topics. Finally, in June 1897, he reached Almora ( in present day Uttarakhand). The lectures he delivered during this period of his journey were compiled in this book. Inspired Talks is a book compiled from a series of lectures of Swami Vivekananda. It was first published in 1909. From mid June to early August 1895, he conducted a series of lectures to a group of selected followers at Thousand Island Park in America; a number of lectures were recorded and later published as a book. Hence option C is correct Incorrect Solution : C The book ‘Lectures from Colombo to Almora’ was written by Swami Vivekananda in 1897. It was based on the lectures he delivered in Sri Lanka and India after his return from the West. He reached Colombo in 1897 and delivered lectures there, after which he arrived at Pamban in South India. He traveled extensively and visited many Indian states, delivering lectures on several topics. Finally, in June 1897, he reached Almora ( in present day Uttarakhand). The lectures he delivered during this period of his journey were compiled in this book. Inspired Talks is a book compiled from a series of lectures of Swami Vivekananda. It was first published in 1909. From mid June to early August 1895, he conducted a series of lectures to a group of selected followers at Thousand Island Park in America; a number of lectures were recorded and later published as a book. Hence option C is correct

#### 16. Question

The literary works‘ Lectures from Colombo to Almora’ and ‘Inspired Talks’ are associated with:

• (a) Sri Aurobindo

• (b) Jawaharlal Nehru

• (c) Swami Vivekananda

• (d) Subhash Chandra Bose

Solution : C

The book ‘Lectures from Colombo to Almora’ was written by Swami Vivekananda in 1897. It was based on the lectures he delivered in Sri Lanka and India after his return from the West. He reached Colombo in 1897 and delivered lectures there, after which he arrived at Pamban in South India. He traveled extensively and visited many Indian states, delivering lectures on several topics. Finally, in June 1897, he reached Almora ( in present day Uttarakhand). The lectures he delivered during this period of his journey were compiled in this book.

• Inspired Talks is a book compiled from a series of lectures of Swami Vivekananda. It was first published in 1909. From mid June to early August 1895, he conducted a series of lectures to a group of selected followers at Thousand Island Park in America; a number of lectures were recorded and later published as a book.

Hence option C is correct

Solution : C

Hence option C is correct

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs: Event : Associated Governor General Third Round Table Conference: Lord Linlithgow Appointment of Simon Commission: Lord Reading INA Trials : Lord Mountbatten How many of the pairs given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: D The Third Round Table Conference was held in 1932 under Lord Willingdon (1931-36). The Conference was held between November 17, 1932 and December 24, 1932 The Indian National Congress and Gandhi did not attend the conference. The recommendations of the conference were published in a White Paper in March 1933 The conference witnessed Limited achievements and ultimately led to the Government of India Act 1935. Hence pair 1 is incorrect The Simon Commission was appointed in 1927 and it arrived in India in 1928, both during the period of Lord Irwin (1926-31) as the Governor General of India. Hence pair 2 is incorrect INA Trials were held during the tenure of Lord Wavell (1944-47). The Indian National Army trials was the British Indian trial by court martial of a number of officers of the Indian National Army that was held between 1945 and 1946 on various charges of treason , torture and murder during the World War II Hence pair 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: D The Third Round Table Conference was held in 1932 under Lord Willingdon (1931-36). The Conference was held between November 17, 1932 and December 24, 1932 The Indian National Congress and Gandhi did not attend the conference. The recommendations of the conference were published in a White Paper in March 1933 The conference witnessed Limited achievements and ultimately led to the Government of India Act 1935. Hence pair 1 is incorrect The Simon Commission was appointed in 1927 and it arrived in India in 1928, both during the period of Lord Irwin (1926-31) as the Governor General of India. Hence pair 2 is incorrect INA Trials were held during the tenure of Lord Wavell (1944-47). The Indian National Army trials was the British Indian trial by court martial of a number of officers of the Indian National Army that was held between 1945 and 1946 on various charges of treason , torture and murder during the World War II Hence pair 3 is incorrect

#### 17. Question

Consider the following pairs:

Event : Associated Governor General

• Third Round Table Conference: Lord Linlithgow

• Appointment of Simon Commission: Lord Reading

• INA Trials : Lord Mountbatten

How many of the pairs given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: D

• The Third Round Table Conference was held in 1932 under Lord Willingdon (1931-36).

• The Conference was held between November 17, 1932 and December 24, 1932

• The Indian National Congress and Gandhi did not attend the conference.

• The recommendations of the conference were published in a White Paper in March 1933

• The conference witnessed Limited achievements and ultimately led to the Government of India Act 1935.

Hence pair 1 is incorrect

• The Simon Commission was appointed in 1927 and it arrived in India in 1928, both during the period of Lord Irwin (1926-31) as the Governor General of India.

Hence pair 2 is incorrect

• INA Trials were held during the tenure of Lord Wavell (1944-47).

• The Indian National Army trials was the British Indian trial by court martial of a number of officers of the Indian National Army that was held between 1945 and 1946 on various charges of treason , torture and murder during the World War II

Hence pair 3 is incorrect

Solution: D

• The Third Round Table Conference was held in 1932 under Lord Willingdon (1931-36).

• The Conference was held between November 17, 1932 and December 24, 1932

• The Indian National Congress and Gandhi did not attend the conference.

• The recommendations of the conference were published in a White Paper in March 1933

• The conference witnessed Limited achievements and ultimately led to the Government of India Act 1935.

Hence pair 1 is incorrect

• The Simon Commission was appointed in 1927 and it arrived in India in 1928, both during the period of Lord Irwin (1926-31) as the Governor General of India.

Hence pair 2 is incorrect

• INA Trials were held during the tenure of Lord Wavell (1944-47).

Hence pair 3 is incorrect

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : Pandita Ramabai was the only woman to attend the inaugural session of the Indian National Congress in 1885. Sarojini Naidu was the first woman president of the Congress. The All India Khaddar Board was set up at the INC session presided over by Mahatma Gandhi. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: D The first session of the Congress was held in Bombay in December 1885 and was presided by Womesh Chandra Bonerji. Pandita Ramabai was one of the ten women delegates of the congress session of 1889 that was held in Bombay; it was the fifth congress session. Hence statement 1 is incorrect Sarojini Naidu was the first Indian woman president of the Congress she presided over the 1925 Kanpur session of INC. Annie Besant was the first woman to preside an INC session; she presided over the 1917 Calcutta session. Hence statement 2 is incorrect The All India Khaddar Board was formed in 1923 Kakinada session of the Congress under presidentship of Maulana Muhammad Ali. Mahatma Gandhi presided over the 1924 Belgaum session; it was the only session presided over by Gandhi. Hence statement 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: D The first session of the Congress was held in Bombay in December 1885 and was presided by Womesh Chandra Bonerji. Pandita Ramabai was one of the ten women delegates of the congress session of 1889 that was held in Bombay; it was the fifth congress session. Hence statement 1 is incorrect Sarojini Naidu was the first Indian woman president of the Congress she presided over the 1925 Kanpur session of INC. Annie Besant was the first woman to preside an INC session; she presided over the 1917 Calcutta session. Hence statement 2 is incorrect The All India Khaddar Board was formed in 1923 Kakinada session of the Congress under presidentship of Maulana Muhammad Ali. Mahatma Gandhi presided over the 1924 Belgaum session; it was the only session presided over by Gandhi. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

#### 18. Question

Consider the following statements :

• Pandita Ramabai was the only woman to attend the inaugural session of the Indian National Congress in 1885.

• Sarojini Naidu was the first woman president of the Congress.

• The All India Khaddar Board was set up at the INC session presided over by Mahatma Gandhi.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: D

The first session of the Congress was held in Bombay in December 1885 and was presided by Womesh Chandra Bonerji.

• Pandita Ramabai was one of the ten women delegates of the congress session of 1889 that was held in Bombay; it was the fifth congress session.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• Sarojini Naidu was the first Indian woman president of the Congress she presided over the 1925 Kanpur session of INC.

• Annie Besant was the first woman to preside an INC session; she presided over the 1917 Calcutta session.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• The All India Khaddar Board was formed in 1923 Kakinada session of the Congress under presidentship of Maulana Muhammad Ali.

• Mahatma Gandhi presided over the 1924 Belgaum session; it was the only session presided over by Gandhi.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution: D

The first session of the Congress was held in Bombay in December 1885 and was presided by Womesh Chandra Bonerji.

• Pandita Ramabai was one of the ten women delegates of the congress session of 1889 that was held in Bombay; it was the fifth congress session.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• Sarojini Naidu was the first Indian woman president of the Congress she presided over the 1925 Kanpur session of INC.

• Annie Besant was the first woman to preside an INC session; she presided over the 1917 Calcutta session.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• The All India Khaddar Board was formed in 1923 Kakinada session of the Congress under presidentship of Maulana Muhammad Ali.

• Mahatma Gandhi presided over the 1924 Belgaum session; it was the only session presided over by Gandhi.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : The Lee Committee recommended Viceroy as the nodal authority for recruitment to the civil services and forest services. The Aitchison Commission, for the first time uphold the importance of rainwater harvesting, particularly in the Deccan region. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: D The Lee Commission recommended that : The Secretary of State should continue to recruit the ICS, the Indian Forest Services, etc. The recruitments for the transferred fields such as education and civil medical service be made by provincial governments It recommended that 40% of future entrants to the All India Civil Services be British, 40% be Indian directly recruited and 20% be Indian promoted from provincial service . Hence statement 1 is incorrect The Aitchison Committee on Public Services 1886 was set up by Lord Dufferin. It recommended for dropping of the terms covenated and uncovenated. It also provided for classification of civil service into Imperial Civil Service (examination in England), Provincial Civil Service (examination in India) and Subordinate Civil Service (examination in India) It also provided that the age limit should be raised to 23. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: D The Lee Commission recommended that : The Secretary of State should continue to recruit the ICS, the Indian Forest Services, etc. The recruitments for the transferred fields such as education and civil medical service be made by provincial governments It recommended that 40% of future entrants to the All India Civil Services be British, 40% be Indian directly recruited and 20% be Indian promoted from provincial service . Hence statement 1 is incorrect The Aitchison Committee on Public Services 1886 was set up by Lord Dufferin. It recommended for dropping of the terms covenated and uncovenated. It also provided for classification of civil service into Imperial Civil Service (examination in England), Provincial Civil Service (examination in India) and Subordinate Civil Service (examination in India) It also provided that the age limit should be raised to 23. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

#### 19. Question

Consider the following statements :

• The Lee Committee recommended Viceroy as the nodal authority for recruitment to the civil services and forest services.

• The Aitchison Commission, for the first time uphold the importance of rainwater harvesting, particularly in the Deccan region.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: D

The Lee Commission recommended that :

• The Secretary of State should continue to recruit the ICS, the Indian Forest Services, etc.

• The recruitments for the transferred fields such as education and civil medical service be made by provincial governments

• It recommended that 40% of future entrants to the All India Civil Services be British, 40% be Indian directly recruited and 20% be Indian promoted from provincial service .

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The Aitchison Committee on Public Services 1886 was set up by Lord Dufferin.

• It recommended for dropping of the terms covenated and uncovenated.

• It also provided for classification of civil service into Imperial Civil Service (examination in England), Provincial Civil Service (examination in India) and Subordinate Civil Service (examination in India)

• It also provided that the age limit should be raised to 23.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Solution: D

The Lee Commission recommended that :

• The Secretary of State should continue to recruit the ICS, the Indian Forest Services, etc.

• The recruitments for the transferred fields such as education and civil medical service be made by provincial governments

• It recommended that 40% of future entrants to the All India Civil Services be British, 40% be Indian directly recruited and 20% be Indian promoted from provincial service .

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The Aitchison Committee on Public Services 1886 was set up by Lord Dufferin.

• It recommended for dropping of the terms covenated and uncovenated.

• It also provided that the age limit should be raised to 23.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points The Karachi session of INC adopted a declaration on Fundamental Rights in 1931; which of the following were included within the declaration? Universal adult franchise Secular state Freedom of association Free and compulsory primary education Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution : D A special session of the Congress was called at Karachi to ratify the Gandhi-Irwin pact 1931; the Congress adopted two significant resolutions- one on Fundamental Rights and the other on National Economic Programme, for which the session is particularly notable. The Karachi declaration on Fundamental Rights included : Basic civil rights of free speech Free press Free assembly and freedom of association Equality before law irrespective of caste Neutrality of the State in regard to all religions Elections on the basis of Universal adult franchise Free and compulsory primary education Hence option D is correct Incorrect Solution : D A special session of the Congress was called at Karachi to ratify the Gandhi-Irwin pact 1931; the Congress adopted two significant resolutions- one on Fundamental Rights and the other on National Economic Programme, for which the session is particularly notable. The Karachi declaration on Fundamental Rights included : Basic civil rights of free speech Free press Free assembly and freedom of association Equality before law irrespective of caste Neutrality of the State in regard to all religions Elections on the basis of Universal adult franchise Free and compulsory primary education Hence option D is correct

#### 20. Question

The Karachi session of INC adopted a declaration on Fundamental Rights in 1931; which of the following were included within the declaration?

• Universal adult franchise

• Secular state

• Freedom of association

• Free and compulsory primary education

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution : D

A special session of the Congress was called at Karachi to ratify the Gandhi-Irwin pact 1931; the Congress adopted two significant resolutions- one on Fundamental Rights and the other on National Economic Programme, for which the session is particularly notable. The Karachi declaration on Fundamental Rights included :

• Basic civil rights of free speech

• Free press

• Free assembly and freedom of association

• Equality before law irrespective of caste

• Neutrality of the State in regard to all religions

• Elections on the basis of Universal adult franchise

• Free and compulsory primary education

Hence option D is correct

Solution : D

• Basic civil rights of free speech

• Free press

• Free assembly and freedom of association

• Equality before law irrespective of caste

• Neutrality of the State in regard to all religions

• Elections on the basis of Universal adult franchise

• Free and compulsory primary education

Hence option D is correct

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the PM-VidyaLaxmi Scheme: Any student who secures admission in a Quality Higher Education Institution (QHEI) is eligible to apply. The scheme features a unified digital portal for loan application, tracking, and disbursement of interest subvention. The scheme includes components like 3% interest subvention during moratorium and 75% credit guarantee by the Government of India. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: D Explanation: The Union Cabinet, led by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, has approved the PM Vidyalaxmi Scheme, aimed at providing financial support to meritorious students, ensuring that financial challenges do not hinder anyone in India from pursuing quality higher education. Statement 1 is correct: The eligibility for the PM-VidyaLaxmi Scheme is admission into a Quality Higher Education Institution (QHEI), selected based on NIRF rankings. Statement 2 is correct: The scheme is entirely digital, featuring a unified portal for students to apply for education loans and request interest subvention. Statement 3 is correct: its two key components are: 75% government credit guarantee on loans up to ₹7.5 lakh. 3% interest subvention on loans up to ₹10 lakh during the moratorium period. Full interest subvention is available to students with family incomes up to ₹4.5 lakhs under the PM-USP scheme. Incorrect Solution: D Explanation: The Union Cabinet, led by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, has approved the PM Vidyalaxmi Scheme, aimed at providing financial support to meritorious students, ensuring that financial challenges do not hinder anyone in India from pursuing quality higher education. Statement 1 is correct: The eligibility for the PM-VidyaLaxmi Scheme is admission into a Quality Higher Education Institution (QHEI), selected based on NIRF rankings. Statement 2 is correct: The scheme is entirely digital, featuring a unified portal for students to apply for education loans and request interest subvention. Statement 3 is correct: its two key components are: 75% government credit guarantee on loans up to ₹7.5 lakh. 3% interest subvention on loans up to ₹10 lakh during the moratorium period. Full interest subvention is available to students with family incomes up to ₹4.5 lakhs under the PM-USP scheme.

#### 21. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the PM-VidyaLaxmi Scheme:

• Any student who secures admission in a Quality Higher Education Institution (QHEI) is eligible to apply.

• The scheme features a unified digital portal for loan application, tracking, and disbursement of interest subvention.

• The scheme includes components like 3% interest subvention during moratorium and 75% credit guarantee by the Government of India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

Explanation:

The Union Cabinet, led by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, has approved the PM Vidyalaxmi Scheme, aimed at providing financial support to meritorious students, ensuring that financial challenges do not hinder anyone in India from pursuing quality higher education.

• Statement 1 is correct: The eligibility for the PM-VidyaLaxmi Scheme is admission into a Quality Higher Education Institution (QHEI), selected based on NIRF rankings.

• Statement 2 is correct: The scheme is entirely digital, featuring a unified portal for students to apply for education loans and request interest subvention.

• Statement 3 is correct: its two key components are: 75% government credit guarantee on loans up to ₹7.5 lakh. 3% interest subvention on loans up to ₹10 lakh during the moratorium period. Full interest subvention is available to students with family incomes up to ₹4.5 lakhs under the PM-USP scheme.

• 75% government credit guarantee on loans up to ₹7.5 lakh.

• 3% interest subvention on loans up to ₹10 lakh during the moratorium period. Full interest subvention is available to students with family incomes up to ₹4.5 lakhs under the PM-USP scheme.

• Full interest subvention is available to students with family incomes up to ₹4.5 lakhs under the PM-USP scheme.

Solution: D

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct: The eligibility for the PM-VidyaLaxmi Scheme is admission into a Quality Higher Education Institution (QHEI), selected based on NIRF rankings.

• Statement 2 is correct: The scheme is entirely digital, featuring a unified portal for students to apply for education loans and request interest subvention.

• 75% government credit guarantee on loans up to ₹7.5 lakh.

• Full interest subvention is available to students with family incomes up to ₹4.5 lakhs under the PM-USP scheme.

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement I: Natural Farming avoids external inputs such as vermicompost and mineral fertilizers, relying only on local, farm-based resources. Statement II: This is because Natural Farming treats soil as a living entity and emphasizes enhancing soil biology over chemical nutrient application. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Explanation: Natural Farming is a chemical-free, low-cost farming method that rejects external inputs, including vermicompost, natural mined minerals, and synthetic fertilizers. Instead, it encourages the use of farm-based resources like Jivamrit, Beejamrit, and Desi cow dung and urine. The key philosophical foundation of Natural Farming is that soil is a living entity, and healthy microbial activity is central to plant nutrition. By avoiding even organic off-farm inputs, the method ensures resilience, low cost, and improved soil biology, distinguishing it from organic farming, which allows external organic inputs. Thus, Statement-I is correct in describing the practice, and Statement-II is not only correct but also provides the rationale behind Statement-I, making option (a) the best choice. Incorrect Solution: A Explanation: Natural Farming is a chemical-free, low-cost farming method that rejects external inputs, including vermicompost, natural mined minerals, and synthetic fertilizers. Instead, it encourages the use of farm-based resources like Jivamrit, Beejamrit, and Desi cow dung and urine. The key philosophical foundation of Natural Farming is that soil is a living entity, and healthy microbial activity is central to plant nutrition. By avoiding even organic off-farm inputs, the method ensures resilience, low cost, and improved soil biology, distinguishing it from organic farming, which allows external organic inputs. Thus, Statement-I is correct in describing the practice, and Statement-II is not only correct but also provides the rationale behind Statement-I, making option (a) the best choice.

#### 22. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Natural Farming avoids external inputs such as vermicompost and mineral fertilizers, relying only on local, farm-based resources.

Statement II: This is because Natural Farming treats soil as a living entity and emphasizes enhancing soil biology over chemical nutrient application.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

Explanation:

Natural Farming is a chemical-free, low-cost farming method that rejects external inputs, including vermicompost, natural mined minerals, and synthetic fertilizers. Instead, it encourages the use of farm-based resources like Jivamrit, Beejamrit, and Desi cow dung and urine. The key philosophical foundation of Natural Farming is that soil is a living entity, and healthy microbial activity is central to plant nutrition.

• By avoiding even organic off-farm inputs, the method ensures resilience, low cost, and improved soil biology, distinguishing it from organic farming, which allows external organic inputs.

• Thus, Statement-I is correct in describing the practice, and Statement-II is not only correct but also provides the rationale behind Statement-I, making option (a) the best choice.

Solution: A

Explanation:

• By avoiding even organic off-farm inputs, the method ensures resilience, low cost, and improved soil biology, distinguishing it from organic farming, which allows external organic inputs.

• Thus, Statement-I is correct in describing the practice, and Statement-II is not only correct but also provides the rationale behind Statement-I, making option (a) the best choice.

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding methanol and its environmental significance: Methanol is a carbon-neutral fuel that emits no greenhouse gases when burned. It can be synthesized by combining carbon dioxide with hydrogen under appropriate catalytic conditions. Methanol is fully miscible with water and can be used in fuel blending and industrial processes. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: C Explanation: World’s First CO₂ to Methanol Plant launched by NTPC at Vindhyachal. Statement 1 is incorrect – Methanol combustion does release CO₂, although less than fossil fuels. It is not entirely carbon-neutral unless produced using captured CO₂ and green hydrogen. Statement 2 is correct – Methanol can be synthesized by combining CO₂ and hydrogen using a catalyst—a step toward circular carbon economy. Statement 3 is correct – Methanol mixes completely with water, and is widely used in blending, fuel cells, and as a chemical feedstock. Incorrect Solution: C Explanation: World’s First CO₂ to Methanol Plant launched by NTPC at Vindhyachal. Statement 1 is incorrect – Methanol combustion does release CO₂, although less than fossil fuels. It is not entirely carbon-neutral unless produced using captured CO₂ and green hydrogen. Statement 2 is correct – Methanol can be synthesized by combining CO₂ and hydrogen using a catalyst—a step toward circular carbon economy. Statement 3 is correct – Methanol mixes completely with water, and is widely used in blending, fuel cells, and as a chemical feedstock.

#### 23. Question

Consider the following statements regarding methanol and its environmental significance:

• Methanol is a carbon-neutral fuel that emits no greenhouse gases when burned.

• It can be synthesized by combining carbon dioxide with hydrogen under appropriate catalytic conditions.

• Methanol is fully miscible with water and can be used in fuel blending and industrial processes.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: C

Explanation:

World’s First CO₂ to Methanol Plant launched by NTPC at Vindhyachal.

• Statement 1 is incorrect – Methanol combustion does release CO₂, although less than fossil fuels. It is not entirely carbon-neutral unless produced using captured CO₂ and green hydrogen.

• Statement 2 is correct – Methanol can be synthesized by combining CO₂ and hydrogen using a catalyst—a step toward circular carbon economy.

• Statement 3 is correct – Methanol mixes completely with water, and is widely used in blending, fuel cells, and as a chemical feedstock.

Solution: C

Explanation:

World’s First CO₂ to Methanol Plant launched by NTPC at Vindhyachal.

• Statement 2 is correct – Methanol can be synthesized by combining CO₂ and hydrogen using a catalyst—a step toward circular carbon economy.

• Statement 3 is correct – Methanol mixes completely with water, and is widely used in blending, fuel cells, and as a chemical feedstock.

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Which of the following countries form part of the Coral Triangle, as identified in the report “Coral Triangle at Risk” released at COP16 of the CBD? Indonesia Philippines Papua New Guinea Malaysia Timor-Leste Select the correct answer using the code below: (a) 1, 2, 4, and 5 only (b) 1, 2, 3, and 4 only (c) 2, 3 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Correct Solution: D Explanation: The Coral Triangle is a marine biodiversity hotspot located in Southeast Asia and Melanesia, spanning six countries: Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Timor-Leste, Papua New Guinea, and Solomon Islands. The recent report “Coral Triangle at Risk”, released at COP16 to the CBD by Earth Insight and SkyTruth, highlights this region as home to 76% of the world’s coral species, over 2,000 reef fish species, and six of the world’s seven marine turtle species. It supports the livelihoods of over 120 million people, earning the nickname “Amazon of the seas.” The report calls for moratoriums on fossil fuel operations, and recommends designating the area as a Particularly Sensitive Sea Area under international maritime protection norms. Incorrect Solution: D Explanation: The Coral Triangle is a marine biodiversity hotspot located in Southeast Asia and Melanesia, spanning six countries: Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Timor-Leste, Papua New Guinea, and Solomon Islands. The recent report “Coral Triangle at Risk”, released at COP16 to the CBD by Earth Insight and SkyTruth, highlights this region as home to 76% of the world’s coral species, over 2,000 reef fish species, and six of the world’s seven marine turtle species. It supports the livelihoods of over 120 million people, earning the nickname “Amazon of the seas.” The report calls for moratoriums on fossil fuel operations, and recommends designating the area as a Particularly Sensitive Sea Area under international maritime protection norms.

#### 24. Question

Which of the following countries form part of the Coral Triangle, as identified in the report “Coral Triangle at Risk” released at COP16 of the CBD?

• Philippines

• Papua New Guinea

• Timor-Leste

Select the correct answer using the code below:

• (a) 1, 2, 4, and 5 only

• (b) 1, 2, 3, and 4 only

• (c) 2, 3 and 5 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Solution: D

Explanation:

The Coral Triangle is a marine biodiversity hotspot located in Southeast Asia and Melanesia, spanning six countries:

• Indonesia,

• Malaysia,

• Philippines,

• Timor-Leste,

• Papua New Guinea, and

• Solomon Islands.

The recent report “Coral Triangle at Risk”, released at COP16 to the CBD by Earth Insight and SkyTruth, highlights this region as home to 76% of the world’s coral species, over 2,000 reef fish species, and six of the world’s seven marine turtle species. It supports the livelihoods of over 120 million people, earning the nickname “Amazon of the seas.” The report calls for moratoriums on fossil fuel operations, and recommends designating the area as a Particularly Sensitive Sea Area under international maritime protection norms.

Solution: D

Explanation:

The Coral Triangle is a marine biodiversity hotspot located in Southeast Asia and Melanesia, spanning six countries:

• Indonesia,

• Malaysia,

• Philippines,

• Timor-Leste,

• Papua New Guinea, and

• Solomon Islands.

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points With reference to the Widal Test, consider the following statements: (a) It is a serological test used for diagnosing typhoid fever by detecting antibodies against Salmonella bacteria. (b) It is a skin-sensitivity test used to detect tuberculosis infection through delayed hypersensitivity. (c) It is a molecular diagnostic tool used for detecting genetic mutations in cancer patients. (d) It is an imaging technique used for detecting intestinal obstructions and perforations. Correct Solution: A Explanation: The Widal Test, developed by Georges Ferdinand Widal, detects O and H agglutinins (antibodies) in the serum of a patient suspected to have typhoid or enteric fever, caused by Salmonella typhi and paratyphi. It is a blood-based agglutination test and is commonly used in endemic regions, though its accuracy can vary. Incorrect Solution: A Explanation: The Widal Test, developed by Georges Ferdinand Widal, detects O and H agglutinins (antibodies) in the serum of a patient suspected to have typhoid or enteric fever, caused by Salmonella typhi and paratyphi. It is a blood-based agglutination test and is commonly used in endemic regions, though its accuracy can vary.

#### 25. Question

With reference to the Widal Test, consider the following statements:

• (a) It is a serological test used for diagnosing typhoid fever by detecting antibodies against Salmonella bacteria.

• (b) It is a skin-sensitivity test used to detect tuberculosis infection through delayed hypersensitivity.

• (c) It is a molecular diagnostic tool used for detecting genetic mutations in cancer patients.

• (d) It is an imaging technique used for detecting intestinal obstructions and perforations.

Solution: A

Explanation:

• The Widal Test, developed by Georges Ferdinand Widal, detects O and H agglutinins (antibodies) in the serum of a patient suspected to have typhoid or enteric fever, caused by Salmonella typhi and paratyphi.

• It is a blood-based agglutination test and is commonly used in endemic regions, though its accuracy can vary.

Solution: A

Explanation:

• It is a blood-based agglutination test and is commonly used in endemic regions, though its accuracy can vary.

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points More or less, policies are usually focussed on reducing greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions from the electricity sector, transport and industry. There has, however, been a renewed interest in understanding how soils can serve as a sink for carbon dioxide since atmospheric concentrations of carbon dioxide have crossed 410 parts per million and oceans are already turning acidic. Besides, increasing soil carbon offers a range of co-benefits and this would buy us time before other technologies can help us transition to a zero-carbon lifestyle. Significant carbon pools on earth are found in the earth’s crust, oceans, atmosphere and land-based ecosystems. Soils contain roughly 2,344 Gt (1 gigatonne = 1 billion tonnes) of organic carbon, making this the largest terrestrial pool. Moreover, carbon sequestration in soils has the potential to offset GHG emissions from fossil fuels by up to 15% annually. In contrast, it has been estimated that SOC in India has reduced from 30% to 60% in cultivated soils compared with soils that are not disturbed. With reference to the above passage, which of the following are the corollaries? Green revolution states should move to low-fertilizer production Promotion of organic fertilizers is need of the hour Traditional knowledge for soil-friendliness of farmers attains special place in soil conservation Select the correct answer using the code given below: a. 1 only b. 3 only c. 1 & 3 only d. 2 & 3 only Correct Correct Option : D Justification : The passage discuss how chemical fertillzers are harmful in the context of its discussion on bad agriculture practices so 2 is correct. The passage also discusses, promoting measures and techniques for conservation of SOM. So 3 is correct. 1 is misleading since no state specific measure is recommended by the passage. Thus 1 is wrong, 2 & 3 is correct. Incorrect Correct Option : D Justification : The passage discuss how chemical fertillzers are harmful in the context of its discussion on bad agriculture practices so 2 is correct. The passage also discusses, promoting measures and techniques for conservation of SOM. So 3 is correct. 1 is misleading since no state specific measure is recommended by the passage. Thus 1 is wrong, 2 & 3 is correct.

#### 26. Question

More or less, policies are usually focussed on reducing greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions from the electricity sector, transport and industry. There has, however, been a renewed interest in understanding how soils can serve as a sink for carbon dioxide since atmospheric concentrations of carbon dioxide have crossed 410 parts per million and oceans are already turning acidic. Besides, increasing soil carbon offers a range of co-benefits and this would buy us time before other technologies can help us transition to a zero-carbon lifestyle. Significant carbon pools on earth are found in the earth’s crust, oceans, atmosphere and land-based ecosystems. Soils contain roughly 2,344 Gt (1 gigatonne = 1 billion tonnes) of organic carbon, making this the largest terrestrial pool. Moreover, carbon sequestration in soils has the potential to offset GHG emissions from fossil fuels by up to 15% annually. In contrast, it has been estimated that SOC in India has reduced from 30% to 60% in cultivated soils compared with soils that are not disturbed.

With reference to the above passage, which of the following are the corollaries?

• Green revolution states should move to low-fertilizer production

• Promotion of organic fertilizers is need of the hour

• Traditional knowledge for soil-friendliness of farmers attains special place in soil conservation

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• c. 1 & 3 only

• d. 2 & 3 only

Correct Option : D

Justification :

The passage discuss how chemical fertillzers are harmful in the context of its discussion on bad agriculture practices so 2 is correct. The passage also discusses, promoting measures and techniques for conservation of SOM. So 3 is correct.

1 is misleading since no state specific measure is recommended by the passage. Thus 1 is wrong, 2 & 3 is correct.

Correct Option : D

Justification :

1 is misleading since no state specific measure is recommended by the passage. Thus 1 is wrong, 2 & 3 is correct.

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points Which grid replace the question mark ? a. A b. B c. C d. D Correct Solution : D Justification : Explanation : In each row, the left hand grid is symmetrical around a vertical axis, the central grid is symmetrical about a horizontal axis, and the right hand grid is symmetrical about a diagonal axis, running bottom left to top right. Incorrect Solution : D Justification : Explanation : In each row, the left hand grid is symmetrical around a vertical axis, the central grid is symmetrical about a horizontal axis, and the right hand grid is symmetrical about a diagonal axis, running bottom left to top right.

#### 27. Question

Which grid replace the question mark ?

Solution : D

Justification :

Explanation : In each row, the left hand grid is symmetrical around a vertical axis, the central grid is symmetrical about a horizontal axis, and the right hand grid is symmetrical about a diagonal axis, running bottom left to top right.

Solution : D

Justification :

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points Find the missing symbol. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 Correct Solution : D Justification : Look for opposites in this series of figures. The first and second segments are opposites of each other. The same is true for the third and fourth segments. Incorrect Solution : D Justification : Look for opposites in this series of figures. The first and second segments are opposites of each other. The same is true for the third and fourth segments.

#### 28. Question

Find the missing symbol.

Solution : D

Justification :

Look for opposites in this series of figures. The first and second segments are opposites of each other. The same is true for the third and fourth segments.

Solution : D

Justification :

Look for opposites in this series of figures. The first and second segments are opposites of each other. The same is true for the third and fourth segments.

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points In the following question, various terms of an alphanumerical series are given with one or more terms missing as shown by (?). Choose the missing terms out of the given alternatives. 2Z5, 7Y7, 14X9, 23W11, 34V13, ? a. 47U15 b. 47V14 c. 45U15 d. 27U24 Correct Solution : A Justification : The first numbers increase by 5, 7, 9, 11…. The letters move one step backward. The last numbers are consecutive odd numbers. Incorrect Solution : A Justification : The first numbers increase by 5, 7, 9, 11…. The letters move one step backward. The last numbers are consecutive odd numbers.

#### 29. Question

In the following question, various terms of an alphanumerical series are given with one or more terms missing as shown by (?). Choose the missing terms out of the given alternatives. 2Z5, 7Y7, 14X9, 23W11, 34V13, ?

Solution : A

Justification :

The first numbers increase by 5, 7, 9, 11….

The letters move one step backward.

The last numbers are consecutive odd numbers.

Solution : A

Justification :

The first numbers increase by 5, 7, 9, 11….

The letters move one step backward.

The last numbers are consecutive odd numbers.

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points Look at this series: F2, __, D8, C16, B32, … What number should fill the blank? a. A16 b. G4 c. E4 d. E3 Correct Solution : C Justification : The letters decrease by 1; the numbers are multiplied by 2. Incorrect Solution : C Justification : The letters decrease by 1; the numbers are multiplied by 2.

#### 30. Question

Look at this series: F2, __, D8, C16, B32, … What number should fill the blank?

Solution : C

Justification :

The letters decrease by 1; the numbers are multiplied by 2.

Solution : C

Justification :

The letters decrease by 1; the numbers are multiplied by 2.

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