DAY – 42 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – MODERN INDIA, Subject-wise Test 7,21, Textbook-based Test – 23,24,25 and April 2024 CA

INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Governor-Generals and Viceroys in British India: The East India Act of 1773 changed the position of “Governor of Bengal” to “Governor-General of Bengal”. The Charter Act of 1833 converted the role of “Governor-General of Bengal” to “Governor-General of India”. The Government of India Act 1858 established the post of “Viceroy of India”. How many of the above are NOT correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: d Explanation: The Regulating Act of 1773, also known as the East India Act of 1773, changed the position of “Governor of Bengal” to “Governor-General of Bengal.” This Regulating Act was the first major British legislation for the Indian subcontinent, creating the position of Governor-General of Bengal, with the first person to hold this title being Warren Hastings. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The Charter Act of 1833 converted the role of “Governor-General of Bengal” to “Governor-General of India.” The Charter Act of 1833 extended the jurisdiction of the Governor-General to the entire Indian subcontinent. William Bentinck was the first Governor-General of India under this Act. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The Government of India Act 1858 abolished the East India Company and established the role of “Viceroy of India.” This is true as the 1857 Revolt led to the British crown taking direct control over India, and the Company rule was abolished. The Government of India Act 1858 established the position of Viceroy, with Lord Canning becoming the first Viceroy of India. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: The Regulating Act of 1773, also known as the East India Act of 1773, changed the position of “Governor of Bengal” to “Governor-General of Bengal.” This Regulating Act was the first major British legislation for the Indian subcontinent, creating the position of Governor-General of Bengal, with the first person to hold this title being Warren Hastings. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The Charter Act of 1833 converted the role of “Governor-General of Bengal” to “Governor-General of India.” The Charter Act of 1833 extended the jurisdiction of the Governor-General to the entire Indian subcontinent. William Bentinck was the first Governor-General of India under this Act. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The Government of India Act 1858 abolished the East India Company and established the role of “Viceroy of India.” This is true as the 1857 Revolt led to the British crown taking direct control over India, and the Company rule was abolished. The Government of India Act 1858 established the position of Viceroy, with Lord Canning becoming the first Viceroy of India. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (d) is correct.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements about Governor-Generals and Viceroys in British India:

• The East India Act of 1773 changed the position of “Governor of Bengal” to “Governor-General of Bengal”.

• The Charter Act of 1833 converted the role of “Governor-General of Bengal” to “Governor-General of India”.

• The Government of India Act 1858 established the post of “Viceroy of India”.

How many of the above are NOT correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Explanation:

• The Regulating Act of 1773, also known as the East India Act of 1773, changed the position of “Governor of Bengal” to “Governor-General of Bengal.”

• This Regulating Act was the first major British legislation for the Indian subcontinent, creating the position of Governor-General of Bengal, with the first person to hold this title being Warren Hastings. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The Charter Act of 1833 converted the role of “Governor-General of Bengal” to “Governor-General of India.” The Charter Act of 1833 extended the jurisdiction of the Governor-General to the entire Indian subcontinent. William Bentinck was the first Governor-General of India under this Act. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• The Government of India Act 1858 abolished the East India Company and established the role of “Viceroy of India.” This is true as the 1857 Revolt led to the British crown taking direct control over India, and the Company rule was abolished. The Government of India Act 1858 established the position of Viceroy, with Lord Canning becoming the first Viceroy of India. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

• The Regulating Act of 1773, also known as the East India Act of 1773, changed the position of “Governor of Bengal” to “Governor-General of Bengal.”

Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points After the Revolt of 1857, several changes were made to the British Indian Army. Consider the following statements: The Royal Peel Commission specified the ratio between British and Indian soldiers in different armies. The Bengali army had a ratio of two British soldier for every five Indian soldiers, while the Madras and Bombay armies had one British soldier for every five Indian soldiers. The mobile artillery was completely controlled by the British soldiers. Indians belonging to noble families were permitted to join the officer corps. How many of the above are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: b Explanation: The revolt of 1857necessitated certain amendments in the organization of colonial armed forces. The ratio between the number of British and Indian soldiers in India was specified by the Royal Peel Commission (1859). Hence statement 1 is correct. The ratio for the Bengali army was one British soldier for every two Indian soldiers, and for the Madras and Bombay armies, it was two British soldiers for every five Indian soldiers. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. The mobile artillery was completely controlled by the British, and the Arms Acts were passed to deny the possession of weapons in the hands of ‘unlawful’ elements. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Indians were strictly prohibited from joining the officer corps, as was the previous policy. No Indian could advance past the subedar rank prior to 1914. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: The revolt of 1857necessitated certain amendments in the organization of colonial armed forces. The ratio between the number of British and Indian soldiers in India was specified by the Royal Peel Commission (1859). Hence statement 1 is correct. The ratio for the Bengali army was one British soldier for every two Indian soldiers, and for the Madras and Bombay armies, it was two British soldiers for every five Indian soldiers. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. The mobile artillery was completely controlled by the British, and the Arms Acts were passed to deny the possession of weapons in the hands of ‘unlawful’ elements. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Indians were strictly prohibited from joining the officer corps, as was the previous policy. No Indian could advance past the subedar rank prior to 1914. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 2. Question

After the Revolt of 1857, several changes were made to the British Indian Army. Consider the following statements:

• The Royal Peel Commission specified the ratio between British and Indian soldiers in different armies.

• The Bengali army had a ratio of two British soldier for every five Indian soldiers, while the Madras and Bombay armies had one British soldier for every five Indian soldiers.

• The mobile artillery was completely controlled by the British soldiers.

• Indians belonging to noble families were permitted to join the officer corps.

How many of the above are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

• The revolt of 1857necessitated certain amendments in the organization of colonial armed forces.

• The ratio between the number of British and Indian soldiers in India was specified by the Royal Peel Commission (1859). Hence statement 1 is correct.

• The ratio for the Bengali army was one British soldier for every two Indian soldiers, and for the Madras and Bombay armies, it was two British soldiers for every five Indian soldiers. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• The mobile artillery was completely controlled by the British, and the Arms Acts were passed to deny the possession of weapons in the hands of ‘unlawful’ elements. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Indians were strictly prohibited from joining the officer corps, as was the previous policy. No Indian could advance past the subedar rank prior to 1914. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• The revolt of 1857necessitated certain amendments in the organization of colonial armed forces.

• The ratio between the number of British and Indian soldiers in India was specified by the Royal Peel Commission (1859). Hence statement 1 is correct.

• Indians were strictly prohibited from joining the officer corps, as was the previous policy. No Indian could advance past the subedar rank prior to 1914. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Consider the following: Gurkhas Pathans Awadhis Punjabis How many of the above given group of soldiers was considered non-martial by the British after the Revolt of 1857? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: a Explanation: After 1857 revolt,in order to reduce the likelihood that the Indian army’s section would once again band together in an anti-British uprising, it was organised according to the “divide and rule” policy. A fiction was created that Indians consisted of martial and non-martial classes. Soldiers from Awadh, Bihar and Central India, who helped the British Administration to conquer India but later took part in the Revolt of 1857, were declared to be non-martial. They were not taken into the army on a large scale. On the other hand, those Punjabis, Gurkhas, and Pathans who had helped put down the uprising were declared to be martial and heavily recruited. The British considered the soldiers from Awadh (Awadhis) to be non-martial after the Revolt of 1857. The British declared this group non-martial because they had participated in the Revolt of 1857. On the other hand, the British categorized Gurkhas, Pathans, and Punjabis as martial and heavily recruited them because they had helped suppress the Revolt of 1857. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: After 1857 revolt,in order to reduce the likelihood that the Indian army’s section would once again band together in an anti-British uprising, it was organised according to the “divide and rule” policy. A fiction was created that Indians consisted of martial and non-martial classes. Soldiers from Awadh, Bihar and Central India, who helped the British Administration to conquer India but later took part in the Revolt of 1857, were declared to be non-martial. They were not taken into the army on a large scale. On the other hand, those Punjabis, Gurkhas, and Pathans who had helped put down the uprising were declared to be martial and heavily recruited. The British considered the soldiers from Awadh (Awadhis) to be non-martial after the Revolt of 1857. The British declared this group non-martial because they had participated in the Revolt of 1857. On the other hand, the British categorized Gurkhas, Pathans, and Punjabis as martial and heavily recruited them because they had helped suppress the Revolt of 1857. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following:

How many of the above given group of soldiers was considered non-martial by the British after the Revolt of 1857?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

• After 1857 revolt,in order to reduce the likelihood that the Indian army’s section would once again band together in an anti-British uprising, it was organised according to the “divide and rule” policy.

• A fiction was created that Indians consisted of martial and non-martial classes.

• Soldiers from Awadh, Bihar and Central India, who helped the British Administration to conquer India but later took part in the Revolt of 1857, were declared to be non-martial. They were not taken into the army on a large scale.

• On the other hand, those Punjabis, Gurkhas, and Pathans who had helped put down the uprising were declared to be martial and heavily recruited.

• The British considered the soldiers from Awadh (Awadhis) to be non-martial after the Revolt of 1857. The British declared this group non-martial because they had participated in the Revolt of 1857.

• On the other hand, the British categorized Gurkhas, Pathans, and Punjabis as martial and heavily recruited them because they had helped suppress the Revolt of 1857.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• A fiction was created that Indians consisted of martial and non-martial classes.

• On the other hand, those Punjabis, Gurkhas, and Pathans who had helped put down the uprising were declared to be martial and heavily recruited.

• On the other hand, the British categorized Gurkhas, Pathans, and Punjabis as martial and heavily recruited them because they had helped suppress the Revolt of 1857.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Frazer Police Commission: It recommended creating two service branches, the Imperial Service Branch and the Provincial Service Branch. The Commission suggested Indianization of the police bureaucracy to encourage more native officers. It recommended separation of the roles of Collector and Magistrate, introducing separate District Superintendents of Police. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 1 and 2 only d) 1,2 and 3 Correct Answer: c Explanation: The Frazer Police Commission (1902-03) recommendations: Creating two service branches: The Frazer Police Commission recommended creating two service branches: the Imperial Service Branch, recruited from England, and the Provincial Service Branch, recruited entirely in India. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The Frazer Police Commission suggested Indianisation of the police bureaucracy to encourage more native officers. Hence, statement 2 is correct. In Cornwallis’ administrative system, the role of district Collectors, who served as Magistrates was combined with the responsibilities of revenue collection and law enforcement. These functions were separated briefly at the recommendation of the Bird Committee (1808-12) when separate District Superintendents of Police were appointed. To address the issue of rising property crime, the roles of Collector, Magistrate, and Police were re-combined in 1844. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option(c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: The Frazer Police Commission (1902-03) recommendations: Creating two service branches: The Frazer Police Commission recommended creating two service branches: the Imperial Service Branch, recruited from England, and the Provincial Service Branch, recruited entirely in India. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The Frazer Police Commission suggested Indianisation of the police bureaucracy to encourage more native officers. Hence, statement 2 is correct. In Cornwallis’ administrative system, the role of district Collectors, who served as Magistrates was combined with the responsibilities of revenue collection and law enforcement. These functions were separated briefly at the recommendation of the Bird Committee (1808-12) when separate District Superintendents of Police were appointed. To address the issue of rising property crime, the roles of Collector, Magistrate, and Police were re-combined in 1844. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option(c) is correct.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Frazer Police Commission:

• It recommended creating two service branches, the Imperial Service Branch and the Provincial Service Branch.

• The Commission suggested Indianization of the police bureaucracy to encourage more native officers.

• It recommended separation of the roles of Collector and Magistrate, introducing separate District Superintendents of Police.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• c) 1 and 2 only

• d) 1,2 and 3

Explanation:

• The Frazer Police Commission (1902-03) recommendations:

• Creating two service branches: The Frazer Police Commission recommended creating two service branches: the Imperial Service Branch, recruited from England, and the Provincial Service Branch, recruited entirely in India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The Frazer Police Commission suggested Indianisation of the police bureaucracy to encourage more native officers. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• In Cornwallis’ administrative system, the role of district Collectors, who served as Magistrates was combined with the responsibilities of revenue collection and law enforcement.

• These functions were separated briefly at the recommendation of the Bird Committee (1808-12) when separate District Superintendents of Police were appointed. To address the issue of rising property crime, the roles of Collector, Magistrate, and Police were re-combined in 1844. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Hence, option(c) is correct.

Explanation:

• The Frazer Police Commission (1902-03) recommendations:

• The Frazer Police Commission suggested Indianisation of the police bureaucracy to encourage more native officers. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• In Cornwallis’ administrative system, the role of district Collectors, who served as Magistrates was combined with the responsibilities of revenue collection and law enforcement.

Hence, option(c) is correct.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements with reference to development of local bodies during British rule in India: Lord Mayo‘s Resolution introduced financial decentralisation Lord Ripon‘s Resolution has been hailed as the ‘Magna Carta’ of local self-government. Select the correct answer from the code given below a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: c Explanation: Lord Mayo‘s Resolution of 1870 on financial decentralisation visualised the development of local self-government institutions. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Lord Ripon‘s Resolution of 1882 has been hailed as the ‘Magna Carta’ of local self-government. He is called as the father of local-self-government in India. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Hence, option(c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Lord Mayo‘s Resolution of 1870 on financial decentralisation visualised the development of local self-government institutions. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Lord Ripon‘s Resolution of 1882 has been hailed as the ‘Magna Carta’ of local self-government. He is called as the father of local-self-government in India. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Hence, option(c) is correct.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements with reference to development of local bodies during British rule in India:

• Lord Mayo‘s Resolution introduced financial decentralisation

• Lord Ripon‘s Resolution has been hailed as the ‘Magna Carta’ of local self-government.

Select the correct answer from the code given below

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• Lord Mayo‘s Resolution of 1870 on financial decentralisation visualised the development of local self-government institutions. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Lord Ripon‘s Resolution of 1882 has been hailed as the ‘Magna Carta’ of local self-government. He is called as the father of local-self-government in India. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Hence, option(c) is correct.

Explanation:

• Lord Mayo‘s Resolution of 1870 on financial decentralisation visualised the development of local self-government institutions. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Hence, option(c) is correct.

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Which of the following courts was the highest appellate body for civil cases in British India? a) Sadar Diwani Adalat b) Provincial Court of Civil Appeals c) Faujdari Adalat d) Sadar Nizamat Adalat Correct Answer: a Explanation: Sadar Diwani Adalat was the highest appellate body for civil cases for the British India. It oversaw civil justice and served as the final court of appeal in civil matters. The Provincial Court of Civil Appeals was a lower-level court, subordinate to the Sadar Diwani Adalat, with jurisdiction within specific regions. The Faujdari Adalat was not a court for civil cases; it was a criminal court. The Sadar Nizamat Adalat was the highest appellate body for criminal cases, not civil cases. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Sadar Diwani Adalat was the highest appellate body for civil cases for the British India. It oversaw civil justice and served as the final court of appeal in civil matters. The Provincial Court of Civil Appeals was a lower-level court, subordinate to the Sadar Diwani Adalat, with jurisdiction within specific regions. The Faujdari Adalat was not a court for civil cases; it was a criminal court. The Sadar Nizamat Adalat was the highest appellate body for criminal cases, not civil cases. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 6. Question

Which of the following courts was the highest appellate body for civil cases in British India?

• a) Sadar Diwani Adalat

• b) Provincial Court of Civil Appeals

• c) Faujdari Adalat

• d) Sadar Nizamat Adalat

Explanation:

• Sadar Diwani Adalat was the highest appellate body for civil cases for the British India. It oversaw civil justice and served as the final court of appeal in civil matters.

• The Provincial Court of Civil Appeals was a lower-level court, subordinate to the Sadar Diwani Adalat, with jurisdiction within specific regions.

• The Faujdari Adalat was not a court for civil cases; it was a criminal court.

• The Sadar Nizamat Adalat was the highest appellate body for criminal cases, not civil cases.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• Sadar Diwani Adalat was the highest appellate body for civil cases for the British India. It oversaw civil justice and served as the final court of appeal in civil matters.

• The Provincial Court of Civil Appeals was a lower-level court, subordinate to the Sadar Diwani Adalat, with jurisdiction within specific regions.

• The Faujdari Adalat was not a court for civil cases; it was a criminal court.

• The Sadar Nizamat Adalat was the highest appellate body for criminal cases, not civil cases.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Government of India Act of 1858: It created a new office of Secretary of State with complete control over Indian administration. It ended the system of double government by abolishing the court of directors and the Board of Control It also ended the activities of East India Company as a commercial body. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: b Explanation: Government of India Act of 1858 was enacted in the wake of the Revolt of 1857. The act known as the Act for the Good Government of India abolished the East India Company and transferred the powers of government, territories and revenues to the British Crown. Features of the Act: It provided that India henceforth was to be governed by, and in the name of, Her Majesty. It changed the designation of the Governor-General of India to that of Viceroy of India. He (viceroy) was the direct representative of the British Crown in India. It created a new office, Secretary of State for India, vested with complete authority and control over Indian administration. Hence, statement 1 is correct. It ended the system of double government by abolishing the Board of Control and Court of Directors. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Charter Act of 1833 ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, which became a purely administrative body. It provided that the company’s territories in India were held by it ‘in trust for His Majesty, His heirs and successors’. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Government of India Act of 1858 was enacted in the wake of the Revolt of 1857. The act known as the Act for the Good Government of India abolished the East India Company and transferred the powers of government, territories and revenues to the British Crown. Features of the Act: It provided that India henceforth was to be governed by, and in the name of, Her Majesty. It changed the designation of the Governor-General of India to that of Viceroy of India. He (viceroy) was the direct representative of the British Crown in India. It created a new office, Secretary of State for India, vested with complete authority and control over Indian administration. Hence, statement 1 is correct. It ended the system of double government by abolishing the Board of Control and Court of Directors. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Charter Act of 1833 ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, which became a purely administrative body. It provided that the company’s territories in India were held by it ‘in trust for His Majesty, His heirs and successors’. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Government of India Act of 1858:

• It created a new office of Secretary of State with complete control over Indian administration.

• It ended the system of double government by abolishing the court of directors and the Board of Control

• It also ended the activities of East India Company as a commercial body.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Explanation:

• Government of India Act of 1858 was enacted in the wake of the Revolt of 1857. The act known as the Act for the Good Government of India abolished the East India Company and transferred the powers of government, territories and revenues to the British Crown.

• Features of the Act:

• It provided that India henceforth was to be governed by, and in the name of, Her Majesty. It changed the designation of the Governor-General of India to that of Viceroy of India. He (viceroy) was the direct representative of the British Crown in India.

• It created a new office, Secretary of State for India, vested with complete authority and control over Indian administration. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• It ended the system of double government by abolishing the Board of Control and Court of Directors. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Charter Act of 1833 ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, which became a purely administrative body. It provided that the company’s territories in India were held by it ‘in trust for His Majesty, His heirs and successors’. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• Features of the Act:

• It created a new office, Secretary of State for India, vested with complete authority and control over Indian administration. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• It ended the system of double government by abolishing the Board of Control and Court of Directors. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Which of the following reforms did the Aitchison Committee on Public Services recommend? a) The reclassification of covenanted and uncovenanted civil services. b) The reservation of a certain percentage of high-ranking civil service positions for Indians. c) The creation of the Statutory Civil Service to promote local appointments. d) The establishment of a Public Service Commission to oversee civil service recruitment. Correct Answer: a Explanation: In 1886, a commission headed by Sir Charles Aitchison was established to come up with a strategy for including Indians in all areas of government service. Aitchison Committee on Public Services was established by Lord Dufferin. It was intended to examine the question of Indian employment in both the uncovenanted service that covered lower-level administrative jobs as well as the appointments typically reserved by law for members of the covenanted civil service. The Aitchison Committee, recommended that the existing terms “covenanted” and “uncovenanted” be reclassified into “Imperial” and “Provincial” services. This was part of a broader set of recommendations intended to improve the Indian civil service structure and increase Indian participation in government roles. The committee also proposed that the civil services be divided into three groups: Imperial, Provincial, and Subordinate. These recommendations played a significant role in shaping the structure of the Indian civil service system during the British period. The covenanted civil service became known as the Civil Service of India when Aitchison’s recommendations were accepted. The provincial service was given that province’s name. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: In 1886, a commission headed by Sir Charles Aitchison was established to come up with a strategy for including Indians in all areas of government service. Aitchison Committee on Public Services was established by Lord Dufferin. It was intended to examine the question of Indian employment in both the uncovenanted service that covered lower-level administrative jobs as well as the appointments typically reserved by law for members of the covenanted civil service. The Aitchison Committee, recommended that the existing terms “covenanted” and “uncovenanted” be reclassified into “Imperial” and “Provincial” services. This was part of a broader set of recommendations intended to improve the Indian civil service structure and increase Indian participation in government roles. The committee also proposed that the civil services be divided into three groups: Imperial, Provincial, and Subordinate. These recommendations played a significant role in shaping the structure of the Indian civil service system during the British period. The covenanted civil service became known as the Civil Service of India when Aitchison’s recommendations were accepted. The provincial service was given that province’s name. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 8. Question

Which of the following reforms did the Aitchison Committee on Public Services recommend?

• a) The reclassification of covenanted and uncovenanted civil services.

• b) The reservation of a certain percentage of high-ranking civil service positions for Indians.

• c) The creation of the Statutory Civil Service to promote local appointments.

• d) The establishment of a Public Service Commission to oversee civil service recruitment.

Explanation:

• In 1886, a commission headed by Sir Charles Aitchison was established to come up with a strategy for including Indians in all areas of government service.

• Aitchison Committee on Public Services was established by Lord Dufferin.

• It was intended to examine the question of Indian employment in both the uncovenanted service that covered lower-level administrative jobs as well as the appointments typically reserved by law for members of the covenanted civil service.

• The Aitchison Committee, recommended that the existing terms “covenanted” and “uncovenanted” be reclassified into “Imperial” and “Provincial” services.

• This was part of a broader set of recommendations intended to improve the Indian civil service structure and increase Indian participation in government roles.

• The committee also proposed that the civil services be divided into three groups: Imperial, Provincial, and Subordinate. These recommendations played a significant role in shaping the structure of the Indian civil service system during the British period.

• The covenanted civil service became known as the Civil Service of India when Aitchison’s recommendations were accepted. The provincial service was given that province’s name.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• In 1886, a commission headed by Sir Charles Aitchison was established to come up with a strategy for including Indians in all areas of government service.

• Aitchison Committee on Public Services was established by Lord Dufferin.

• The Aitchison Committee, recommended that the existing terms “covenanted” and “uncovenanted” be reclassified into “Imperial” and “Provincial” services.

• This was part of a broader set of recommendations intended to improve the Indian civil service structure and increase Indian participation in government roles.

• The covenanted civil service became known as the Civil Service of India when Aitchison’s recommendations were accepted. The provincial service was given that province’s name.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Who was responsible for the recommendations that led to the Indian Civil Services Act of 1861? a) Lord Cornwallis b) Lord Macaulay c) Lord Canning d) Lord Dufferin Correct Answer: b Explanation: Lord Macaulay’s recommendations played a key role in the passage of the Indian Civil Services Act of 1861. His report suggested the replacement of the patronage-based system with a merit-based civil service through competitive examinations, which led to significant reforms in the Indian civil service. The Indian Civil Services Act of 1861 formalized these recommendations, allowing Indians to compete in a merit-based recruitment process alongside British citizens. Lord Macaulay’s impact on civil service reforms is highly significant, with his work serving as a cornerstone for the development of a modern civil service system in India. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Lord Macaulay’s recommendations played a key role in the passage of the Indian Civil Services Act of 1861. His report suggested the replacement of the patronage-based system with a merit-based civil service through competitive examinations, which led to significant reforms in the Indian civil service. The Indian Civil Services Act of 1861 formalized these recommendations, allowing Indians to compete in a merit-based recruitment process alongside British citizens. Lord Macaulay’s impact on civil service reforms is highly significant, with his work serving as a cornerstone for the development of a modern civil service system in India. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 9. Question

Who was responsible for the recommendations that led to the Indian Civil Services Act of 1861?

• a) Lord Cornwallis

• b) Lord Macaulay

• c) Lord Canning

• d) Lord Dufferin

Explanation:

• Lord Macaulay’s recommendations played a key role in the passage of the Indian Civil Services Act of 1861.

• His report suggested the replacement of the patronage-based system with a merit-based civil service through competitive examinations, which led to significant reforms in the Indian civil service.

• The Indian Civil Services Act of 1861 formalized these recommendations, allowing Indians to compete in a merit-based recruitment process alongside British citizens.

• Lord Macaulay’s impact on civil service reforms is highly significant, with his work serving as a cornerstone for the development of a modern civil service system in India.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• Lord Macaulay’s recommendations played a key role in the passage of the Indian Civil Services Act of 1861.

• His report suggested the replacement of the patronage-based system with a merit-based civil service through competitive examinations, which led to significant reforms in the Indian civil service.

• The Indian Civil Services Act of 1861 formalized these recommendations, allowing Indians to compete in a merit-based recruitment process alongside British citizens.

• Lord Macaulay’s impact on civil service reforms is highly significant, with his work serving as a cornerstone for the development of a modern civil service system in India.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Consider the following: The Penal Code Lex loci Code of Civil Procedure Law of Limitation Stamp Law How many of the above areas of law were addressed by the First Law Commission appointed under the provisions of the Charter Act of 1833? a) Only two b) Only three c) Only four d) All five Correct Answer: d Explanation: As per the provisions of Section 53 of the Charter Act of 1833, the First Law Commission was appointed in India in 1834 with the fullest powers to inquire and report. It was composed of T.B. Macaulay (as Chairman) and four-members, namely, C.H. Cameron, J.M. Macleod, G.W. Anderson and F. Millett. The last three members represented Madras, Bombay and Calcutta respectively. Following were the areas of work for the commission: The penal code: The state of criminal law prevailing in the country was very chaotic. In the three presidency towns, the Supreme Court administered the English common law, which has been altered as per the needs of the local government. So the law was artificial and complicated that too framed in a foreign country that too without any reference to India. Moreover, in Bengal and madras, mohhamedan law of crime was the law of the land was applied to all, which was way more primitive and unsuitable for a civilized country. The Anglo-Indian regulations dealing with the criminal law enacted by different bodies had no coordination among them. Therefore, criminal law became a patchwork of enactments so confused that it was the first subject that invited codification. Thus, under the guidance of lord Macaulay, the work of drafting the Indian penal code started and the draft was submitted to the government in 1837 however enacted in 1860. Lex loci report: Lex loci in literal sense refers to “the law of the land”. There was a great deal of chaos engulfed with the question of the civil law which determined the rights of Christians, Anglo- Indians, and Armenians residing in mofussil area. There was no lex loci or law of the land for persons other than Hindus and Mohhamedans in the Mofussil. In this regard the main recommendations of the commission were as follows: Such laws of England as were applicable to the conditions of the people of India and not inconsistent with the Regulations and Acts in force in the country were to be extended over the whole of British India outside the Presidency towns and all persons other than Hindus and Muslims were to be subject to them. All questions concerning marriage, divorce and adoption concerning persons other than Christians were to be decided by the rules of the sect to which the parties belonged. There was to be a College of Justice at each of the Presidencies with the Judges of the Supreme Court and Sadar Courts as members. In all appeals filed the decisions of the mofussil courts, the appellate court was to consist of one Judge of the Supreme Court, with or without associates. Code of Civil Procedure: The Commission drafted a Code of Civil Procedure and suggested various reforms in the procedure of civil suits. Law of Limitation: The Law Commission prepared a valuable report on the Law of Limitation and with a draft Bill on it, submitted it to the Government on 26th February, 1842. Stamp Law: Another matter referred to the Commission was Stamp Laws which were in a state of conflict and confusion. The Commission submitted its report on 21st February, 1837. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: As per the provisions of Section 53 of the Charter Act of 1833, the First Law Commission was appointed in India in 1834 with the fullest powers to inquire and report. It was composed of T.B. Macaulay (as Chairman) and four-members, namely, C.H. Cameron, J.M. Macleod, G.W. Anderson and F. Millett. The last three members represented Madras, Bombay and Calcutta respectively. Following were the areas of work for the commission: The penal code: The state of criminal law prevailing in the country was very chaotic. In the three presidency towns, the Supreme Court administered the English common law, which has been altered as per the needs of the local government. So the law was artificial and complicated that too framed in a foreign country that too without any reference to India. Moreover, in Bengal and madras, mohhamedan law of crime was the law of the land was applied to all, which was way more primitive and unsuitable for a civilized country. The Anglo-Indian regulations dealing with the criminal law enacted by different bodies had no coordination among them. Therefore, criminal law became a patchwork of enactments so confused that it was the first subject that invited codification. Thus, under the guidance of lord Macaulay, the work of drafting the Indian penal code started and the draft was submitted to the government in 1837 however enacted in 1860. Lex loci report: Lex loci in literal sense refers to “the law of the land”. There was a great deal of chaos engulfed with the question of the civil law which determined the rights of Christians, Anglo- Indians, and Armenians residing in mofussil area. There was no lex loci or law of the land for persons other than Hindus and Mohhamedans in the Mofussil. In this regard the main recommendations of the commission were as follows: Such laws of England as were applicable to the conditions of the people of India and not inconsistent with the Regulations and Acts in force in the country were to be extended over the whole of British India outside the Presidency towns and all persons other than Hindus and Muslims were to be subject to them. All questions concerning marriage, divorce and adoption concerning persons other than Christians were to be decided by the rules of the sect to which the parties belonged. There was to be a College of Justice at each of the Presidencies with the Judges of the Supreme Court and Sadar Courts as members. In all appeals filed the decisions of the mofussil courts, the appellate court was to consist of one Judge of the Supreme Court, with or without associates. Code of Civil Procedure: The Commission drafted a Code of Civil Procedure and suggested various reforms in the procedure of civil suits. Law of Limitation: The Law Commission prepared a valuable report on the Law of Limitation and with a draft Bill on it, submitted it to the Government on 26th February, 1842. Stamp Law: Another matter referred to the Commission was Stamp Laws which were in a state of conflict and confusion. The Commission submitted its report on 21st February, 1837. Hence, option (d) is correct.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following:

• The Penal Code

• Code of Civil Procedure

• Law of Limitation

How many of the above areas of law were addressed by the First Law Commission appointed under the provisions of the Charter Act of 1833?

• a) Only two

• b) Only three

• c) Only four

• d) All five

Explanation:

• As per the provisions of Section 53 of the Charter Act of 1833, the First Law Commission was appointed in India in 1834 with the fullest powers to inquire and report.

• It was composed of T.B. Macaulay (as Chairman) and four-members, namely, C.H. Cameron, J.M. Macleod, G.W. Anderson and F. Millett. The last three members represented Madras, Bombay and Calcutta respectively.

• Following were the areas of work for the commission:

• The penal code:

• The state of criminal law prevailing in the country was very chaotic. In the three presidency towns, the Supreme Court administered the English common law, which has been altered as per the needs of the local government. So the law was artificial and complicated that too framed in a foreign country that too without any reference to India.

• Moreover, in Bengal and madras, mohhamedan law of crime was the law of the land was applied to all, which was way more primitive and unsuitable for a civilized country. The Anglo-Indian regulations dealing with the criminal law enacted by different bodies had no coordination among them.

• Therefore, criminal law became a patchwork of enactments so confused that it was the first subject that invited codification. Thus, under the guidance of lord Macaulay, the work of drafting the Indian penal code started and the draft was submitted to the government in 1837 however enacted in 1860.

• Lex loci report:

• Lex loci in literal sense refers to “the law of the land”. There was a great deal of chaos engulfed with the question of the civil law which determined the rights of Christians, Anglo- Indians, and Armenians residing in mofussil area.

• There was no lex loci or law of the land for persons other than Hindus and Mohhamedans in the Mofussil. In this regard the main recommendations of the commission were as follows:

• Such laws of England as were applicable to the conditions of the people of India and not inconsistent with the Regulations and Acts in force in the country were to be extended over the whole of British India outside the Presidency towns and all persons other than Hindus and Muslims were to be subject to them.

• All questions concerning marriage, divorce and adoption concerning persons other than Christians were to be decided by the rules of the sect to which the parties belonged.

• There was to be a College of Justice at each of the Presidencies with the Judges of the Supreme Court and Sadar Courts as members. In all appeals filed the decisions of the mofussil courts, the appellate court was to consist of one Judge of the Supreme Court, with or without associates.

• Code of Civil Procedure:

• The Commission drafted a Code of Civil Procedure and suggested various reforms in the procedure of civil suits.

• Law of Limitation:

• The Law Commission prepared a valuable report on the Law of Limitation and with a draft Bill on it, submitted it to the Government on 26th February, 1842.

• Stamp Law:

• Another matter referred to the Commission was Stamp Laws which were in a state of conflict and confusion. The Commission submitted its report on 21st February, 1837.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

• As per the provisions of Section 53 of the Charter Act of 1833, the First Law Commission was appointed in India in 1834 with the fullest powers to inquire and report.

• Following were the areas of work for the commission:

• The penal code:

• Lex loci report:

• There was no lex loci or law of the land for persons other than Hindus and Mohhamedans in the Mofussil. In this regard the main recommendations of the commission were as follows:

• All questions concerning marriage, divorce and adoption concerning persons other than Christians were to be decided by the rules of the sect to which the parties belonged.

• Code of Civil Procedure:

• The Commission drafted a Code of Civil Procedure and suggested various reforms in the procedure of civil suits.

• Law of Limitation:

• The Law Commission prepared a valuable report on the Law of Limitation and with a draft Bill on it, submitted it to the Government on 26th February, 1842.

• Stamp Law:

• Another matter referred to the Commission was Stamp Laws which were in a state of conflict and confusion. The Commission submitted its report on 21st February, 1837.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Which of the following is NOT a typical characteristic of Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs)? (a) Invest in financial assets like stocks, bonds, and mutual funds in a foreign country. (b) Have a passive ownership role in the companies they invest in. (c) Hold their investments long-term, seeking to influence company decisions. (d) Are motivated by diversification and potential short-term profits. Correct Solution: C Context: The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has extended the deadline for Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs) to disclose granular details of entities holding ownership, economic interest, or control in the FPI. FPIs typically pursue investments with relatively shorter time horizons for quicker returns and capital mobility. They are more sensitive to market fluctuations compared to long-term investors seeking control Incorrect Solution: C Context: The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has extended the deadline for Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs) to disclose granular details of entities holding ownership, economic interest, or control in the FPI. FPIs typically pursue investments with relatively shorter time horizons for quicker returns and capital mobility. They are more sensitive to market fluctuations compared to long-term investors seeking control

#### 11. Question

Which of the following is NOT a typical characteristic of Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs)?

• (a) Invest in financial assets like stocks, bonds, and mutual funds in a foreign country.

• (b) Have a passive ownership role in the companies they invest in.

• (c) Hold their investments long-term, seeking to influence company decisions.

• (d) Are motivated by diversification and potential short-term profits.

Solution: C

The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has extended the deadline for Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs) to disclose granular details of entities holding ownership, economic interest, or control in the FPI.

• FPIs typically pursue investments with relatively shorter time horizons for quicker returns and capital mobility.

They are more sensitive to market fluctuations compared to long-term investors seeking control

Solution: C

• FPIs typically pursue investments with relatively shorter time horizons for quicker returns and capital mobility.

They are more sensitive to market fluctuations compared to long-term investors seeking control

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points The 15th Conference of Parties (COP15) to the UN Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), 2022 adopted the (a) Environmental, Social and Sustainability Framework (b) Montreal Protocol (c) Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (d) Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction Correct Solution: C Context: There is growing momentum behind the concept of biodiversity credits or bio-credits, proposed as a financial mechanism to support the targets outlined in the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (KMGBF) adopted in 2022. Incorrect Solution: C Context: There is growing momentum behind the concept of biodiversity credits or bio-credits, proposed as a financial mechanism to support the targets outlined in the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (KMGBF) adopted in 2022.

#### 12. Question

The 15th Conference of Parties (COP15) to the UN Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), 2022 adopted the

• (a) Environmental, Social and Sustainability Framework

• (b) Montreal Protocol

• (c) Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework

• (d) Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction

Solution: C

Context: There is growing momentum behind the concept of biodiversity credits or bio-credits, proposed as a financial mechanism to support the targets outlined in the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (KMGBF) adopted in 2022.

Solution: C

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Consider the following: Oxides of sulphur Oxides of nitrogen Carbon monoxide Carbon dioxide How many of the above are some important pollutants released by the steel industry in India? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: D The pollutants released from steel producing units are: ○ Carbon Monoxide (CO), Carbon Dioxide (CO2), Oxides of Sulphur (SOx), ○ Oxides of Nitrogen (NOx), PM 2.5, Waste Water, Hazardous waste, Solid waste etc Incorrect Solution: D The pollutants released from steel producing units are: ○ Carbon Monoxide (CO), Carbon Dioxide (CO2), Oxides of Sulphur (SOx), ○ Oxides of Nitrogen (NOx), PM 2.5, Waste Water, Hazardous waste, Solid waste etc

#### 13. Question

Consider the following:

• Oxides of sulphur

• Oxides of nitrogen

• Carbon monoxide

• Carbon dioxide

How many of the above are some important pollutants released by the steel industry in India?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: D

The pollutants released from steel producing units are:

○ Carbon Monoxide (CO), Carbon Dioxide (CO2), Oxides of Sulphur (SOx),

○ Oxides of Nitrogen (NOx), PM 2.5, Waste Water, Hazardous waste, Solid waste etc

Solution: D

The pollutants released from steel producing units are:

○ Carbon Monoxide (CO), Carbon Dioxide (CO2), Oxides of Sulphur (SOx),

○ Oxides of Nitrogen (NOx), PM 2.5, Waste Water, Hazardous waste, Solid waste etc

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Which of the following nations has introduced the Green Fuels Alliance India (GFAI) to enhance collaboration with India in the sustainable energy sector? (a) Germany (b) Norway (c) Sweden (d) Denmark Correct Solution: D Context: Denmark has introduced the Green Fuels Alliance India (GFAI) to enhance collaboration with India in the sustainable energy sector, aligning with both nations’ goals of achieving carbon neutrality. Aim: It aims to advance the green fuels sector, including green hydrogen, through innovation and partnerships. GFAI’s objective is to foster an ecosystem promoting sustainable energy growth in India, involving businesses, government entities, and research institutions. Background: ○ The initiative is part of the Green Strategic Partnership signed in 2020 between India and Denmark. The announcement coincides with India’s push for carbon neutrality by 2070 and Denmark’s top ranking in the 2024 Climate Performance Ranking. Other similar partnership initiatives: ○ Global Biofuels Alliance forged by Brazil, India, and the United States ○ India U.S.-India Strategic Clean Energy Partnership ○ Green / Clean Hydrogen India and Saudi Arabia ○ India-Australia Green Hydrogen Taskforce ○ Quad’s Climate Working Group for Clean Energy Incorrect Solution: D Context: Denmark has introduced the Green Fuels Alliance India (GFAI) to enhance collaboration with India in the sustainable energy sector, aligning with both nations’ goals of achieving carbon neutrality. Aim: It aims to advance the green fuels sector, including green hydrogen, through innovation and partnerships. GFAI’s objective is to foster an ecosystem promoting sustainable energy growth in India, involving businesses, government entities, and research institutions. Background: ○ The initiative is part of the Green Strategic Partnership signed in 2020 between India and Denmark. The announcement coincides with India’s push for carbon neutrality by 2070 and Denmark’s top ranking in the 2024 Climate Performance Ranking. Other similar partnership initiatives: ○ Global Biofuels Alliance forged by Brazil, India, and the United States ○ India U.S.-India Strategic Clean Energy Partnership ○ Green / Clean Hydrogen India and Saudi Arabia ○ India-Australia Green Hydrogen Taskforce ○ Quad’s Climate Working Group for Clean Energy

#### 14. Question

Which of the following nations has introduced the Green Fuels Alliance India (GFAI) to enhance collaboration with India in the sustainable energy sector?

• (a) Germany

• (b) Norway

• (c) Sweden

• (d) Denmark

Solution: D

Context: Denmark has introduced the Green Fuels Alliance India (GFAI) to enhance collaboration with India in the sustainable energy sector, aligning with both nations’ goals of achieving carbon neutrality.

It aims to advance the green fuels sector, including green hydrogen, through innovation and partnerships. GFAI’s objective is to foster an ecosystem promoting sustainable energy growth in India, involving businesses, government entities, and research institutions.

• Background:

○ The initiative is part of the Green Strategic Partnership signed in 2020 between India and Denmark. The announcement coincides with India’s push for carbon neutrality by 2070 and Denmark’s top ranking in the 2024 Climate Performance Ranking.

• Other similar partnership initiatives:

○ Global Biofuels Alliance forged by Brazil, India, and the United States

○ India U.S.-India Strategic Clean Energy Partnership

○ Green / Clean Hydrogen India and Saudi Arabia

○ India-Australia Green Hydrogen Taskforce

○ Quad’s Climate Working Group for Clean Energy

Solution: D

• Background:

• Other similar partnership initiatives:

○ Global Biofuels Alliance forged by Brazil, India, and the United States

○ India U.S.-India Strategic Clean Energy Partnership

○ Green / Clean Hydrogen India and Saudi Arabia

○ India-Australia Green Hydrogen Taskforce

○ Quad’s Climate Working Group for Clean Energy

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Consider the following countries: Eritrea Iran Djibouti Oman How many of the above-mentioned nations share a border with the Red Sea? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B The Red Sea is a seawater inlet of the Indian Ocean, lying between Africa and Asia. The connection to the ocean is in the south through the Bab el Mandeb strait and the Gulf of Aden. To the north lie the Sinai Peninsula, the Gulf of Aqaba, and the Gulf of Suez. ● The six countries bordering the Red Sea are: Saudi Arabia, Yemen, Egypt, Sudan, Eritrea and Djibouti. Incorrect Solution: B The Red Sea is a seawater inlet of the Indian Ocean, lying between Africa and Asia. The connection to the ocean is in the south through the Bab el Mandeb strait and the Gulf of Aden. To the north lie the Sinai Peninsula, the Gulf of Aqaba, and the Gulf of Suez. ● The six countries bordering the Red Sea are: Saudi Arabia, Yemen, Egypt, Sudan, Eritrea and Djibouti.

#### 15. Question

Consider the following countries:

How many of the above-mentioned nations share a border with the Red Sea?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

The Red Sea is a seawater inlet of the Indian Ocean, lying between Africa and Asia. The connection to the ocean is in the south through the Bab el Mandeb strait and the Gulf of Aden. To the north lie the Sinai Peninsula, the Gulf of Aqaba, and the Gulf of Suez.

● The six countries bordering the Red Sea are: Saudi Arabia, Yemen, Egypt, Sudan, Eritrea and Djibouti.

Solution: B

● The six countries bordering the Red Sea are: Saudi Arabia, Yemen, Egypt, Sudan, Eritrea and Djibouti.

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Ashwagandha: It is referred to as Indian ginseng and also known as Indian winter cherry. It is naturally native to India but is cultivated in Mediterranean countries. Its root has been used as an aphrodisiac, anthelmintic and stimulant. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Indian ginseng is also known as Indian winter cherry, Ashwagandha, or the herb Vitania sluggard (Withania somnifera). The raw material used in medicine is the root, and the name “Ashwagandha” is derived from the word “ashwa”, meaning horse. Statement 2 is correct: It is naturally native to India, but it is also cultivated in other areas such as the Mediterranean countries, the Himalayan areas, Africa, Canary Islands, Cape of Good Hope and Australia It is believed that after consuming the root, one gains powers similar to that of a horse. Statement 3 is correct: Its root has been used as an aphrodisiac, narcotic, tonic, diuretic, anthelmintic and stimulant. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Indian ginseng is also known as Indian winter cherry, Ashwagandha, or the herb Vitania sluggard (Withania somnifera). The raw material used in medicine is the root, and the name “Ashwagandha” is derived from the word “ashwa”, meaning horse. Statement 2 is correct: It is naturally native to India, but it is also cultivated in other areas such as the Mediterranean countries, the Himalayan areas, Africa, Canary Islands, Cape of Good Hope and Australia It is believed that after consuming the root, one gains powers similar to that of a horse. Statement 3 is correct: Its root has been used as an aphrodisiac, narcotic, tonic, diuretic, anthelmintic and stimulant.

#### 16. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Ashwagandha:

• It is referred to as Indian ginseng and also known as Indian winter cherry.

• It is naturally native to India but is cultivated in Mediterranean countries.

• Its root has been used as an aphrodisiac, anthelmintic and stimulant.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Indian ginseng is also known as Indian winter cherry, Ashwagandha, or the herb Vitania sluggard (Withania somnifera).

The raw material used in medicine is the root, and the name “Ashwagandha” is derived from the word “ashwa”, meaning horse.

Statement 2 is correct: It is naturally native to India, but it is also cultivated in other areas such as the Mediterranean countries, the Himalayan areas, Africa, Canary Islands, Cape of Good Hope and Australia

It is believed that after consuming the root, one gains powers similar to that of a horse.

Statement 3 is correct: Its root has been used as an aphrodisiac, narcotic, tonic, diuretic, anthelmintic and stimulant.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Indian ginseng is also known as Indian winter cherry, Ashwagandha, or the herb Vitania sluggard (Withania somnifera).

The raw material used in medicine is the root, and the name “Ashwagandha” is derived from the word “ashwa”, meaning horse.

It is believed that after consuming the root, one gains powers similar to that of a horse.

Statement 3 is correct: Its root has been used as an aphrodisiac, narcotic, tonic, diuretic, anthelmintic and stimulant.

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Shrinkflation occurs when materials used to make products are more expensive. Shrinkflation leads to deterioration of consumer sentiment towards a product. Shrinkflation makes it easier to accurately measure price changes or inflation. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Shrink inflation is when a product downsizes its quantity while keeping the price the same. Statement 1 is correct: Shrinkflation occurs when materials or ingredients used to make products become more expensive and when there is intense competition in the market. Statement 2 is correct: Shrinkflation can lead to customer frustration and deterioration of consumer sentiment towards a producer’s brand. However, it is quite common nowadays for producers to practise shrinkflation. Statement 3 is not correct: In the event of shrinkflation, it is more difficult to accurately measure price changes or inflation. Price points become misleading when the basket of goods cannot always be measured by considering the product size. Tackling shrinkflation means tackling inflation. In India especially, inflation is a complex phenomenon caused by several factors, such as demand-pull factors, cost-push factors, and structural factors. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Shrink inflation is when a product downsizes its quantity while keeping the price the same. Statement 1 is correct: Shrinkflation occurs when materials or ingredients used to make products become more expensive and when there is intense competition in the market. Statement 2 is correct: Shrinkflation can lead to customer frustration and deterioration of consumer sentiment towards a producer’s brand. However, it is quite common nowadays for producers to practise shrinkflation. Statement 3 is not correct: In the event of shrinkflation, it is more difficult to accurately measure price changes or inflation. Price points become misleading when the basket of goods cannot always be measured by considering the product size. Tackling shrinkflation means tackling inflation. In India especially, inflation is a complex phenomenon caused by several factors, such as demand-pull factors, cost-push factors, and structural factors.

#### 17. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Shrinkflation occurs when materials used to make products are more expensive.

• Shrinkflation leads to deterioration of consumer sentiment towards a product.

• Shrinkflation makes it easier to accurately measure price changes or inflation.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

Shrink inflation is when a product downsizes its quantity while keeping the price the same.

Statement 1 is correct: Shrinkflation occurs when materials or ingredients used to make products become more expensive and when there is intense competition in the market.

Statement 2 is correct: Shrinkflation can lead to customer frustration and deterioration of consumer sentiment towards a producer’s brand. However, it is quite common nowadays for producers to practise shrinkflation.

Statement 3 is not correct: In the event of shrinkflation, it is more difficult to accurately measure price changes or inflation. Price points become misleading when the basket of goods cannot always be measured by considering the product size.

Tackling shrinkflation means tackling inflation. In India especially, inflation is a complex phenomenon caused by several factors, such as demand-pull factors, cost-push factors, and structural factors.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Shrink inflation is when a product downsizes its quantity while keeping the price the same.

Statement 1 is correct: Shrinkflation occurs when materials or ingredients used to make products become more expensive and when there is intense competition in the market.

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: When the gravitational waves pass by the Earth, they do not squeeze or stretch the space. The most powerful gravitational waves are created when objects move at very high speeds. A gravitational wave is created when the two black holes orbiting each other start merging. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: When a gravitational wave passes by Earth, it squeezes and stretches space. LIGO can detect this squeezing and stretching. Statement 2 is correct: The most powerful gravitational waves are created when objects move at very high speeds. Statement 3 is correct: Some examples of events that could cause a gravitational wave are: when a star explodes asymmetrically (called a supernova) when two big stars orbit each other when two black holes orbit each other and merge Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: When a gravitational wave passes by Earth, it squeezes and stretches space. LIGO can detect this squeezing and stretching. Statement 2 is correct: The most powerful gravitational waves are created when objects move at very high speeds. Statement 3 is correct: Some examples of events that could cause a gravitational wave are: when a star explodes asymmetrically (called a supernova) when two big stars orbit each other when two black holes orbit each other and merge

#### 18. Question

Consider the following statements:

• When the gravitational waves pass by the Earth, they do not squeeze or stretch the space.

• The most powerful gravitational waves are created when objects move at very high speeds.

• A gravitational wave is created when the two black holes orbiting each other start merging.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: When a gravitational wave passes by Earth, it squeezes and stretches space. LIGO can detect this squeezing and stretching.

Statement 2 is correct: The most powerful gravitational waves are created when objects move at very high speeds.

Statement 3 is correct: Some examples of events that could cause a gravitational wave are:

• when a star explodes asymmetrically (called a supernova)

• when two big stars orbit each other

• when two black holes orbit each other and merge

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: When a gravitational wave passes by Earth, it squeezes and stretches space. LIGO can detect this squeezing and stretching.

Statement 2 is correct: The most powerful gravitational waves are created when objects move at very high speeds.

Statement 3 is correct: Some examples of events that could cause a gravitational wave are:

• when a star explodes asymmetrically (called a supernova)

• when two big stars orbit each other

• when two black holes orbit each other and merge

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Pertussis: It is a highly contagious respiratory infection caused by a bacteria. It is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected mosquitoes. The best way to prevent pertussis is through immunization. How many of the statements given above is/are *not correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Pertussis, also known as whooping cough, is a highly contagious respiratory infection caused by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis. Pertussis spreads easily from person to person mainly through droplets produced by coughing or sneezing. The disease is most dangerous in infants, and is a significant cause of disease and death in this age group. Statement 2 is not correct: Pertussis spreads easily from person to person mainly through droplets produced by coughing or sneezing. The disease is most dangerous in infants, and is a significant cause of disease and death in this age group. Statement 3 is correct: The best way to prevent pertussis is through immunization. The three-dose primary series diphtheria-tetanus-pertussis (DTP3) (- containing) vaccines decrease the risk of severe pertussis in infancy. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Pertussis, also known as whooping cough, is a highly contagious respiratory infection caused by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis. Pertussis spreads easily from person to person mainly through droplets produced by coughing or sneezing. The disease is most dangerous in infants, and is a significant cause of disease and death in this age group. Statement 2 is not correct: Pertussis spreads easily from person to person mainly through droplets produced by coughing or sneezing. The disease is most dangerous in infants, and is a significant cause of disease and death in this age group. Statement 3 is correct: *The best way to prevent pertussis is through immunization. The three-dose primary series diphtheria-tetanus-pertussis (DTP3) (- containing) vaccines decrease the risk of severe pertussis in infancy.

#### 19. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Pertussis:

• It is a highly contagious respiratory infection caused by a bacteria.

• It is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected mosquitoes.

• The best way to prevent pertussis is through immunization.

How many of the statements given above is/are *not* correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Pertussis, also known as whooping cough, is a highly contagious respiratory infection caused by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis.

Pertussis spreads easily from person to person mainly through droplets produced by coughing or sneezing.

The disease is most dangerous in infants, and is a significant cause of disease and death in this age group.

Statement 2 is not correct: Pertussis spreads easily from person to person mainly through droplets produced by coughing or sneezing. The disease is most dangerous in infants, and is a significant cause of disease and death in this age group.

Statement 3 is correct: The best way to prevent pertussis is through immunization. The three-dose primary series diphtheria-tetanus-pertussis (DTP3) (- containing) vaccines decrease the risk of severe pertussis in infancy.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Pertussis, also known as whooping cough, is a highly contagious respiratory infection caused by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis.

Pertussis spreads easily from person to person mainly through droplets produced by coughing or sneezing.

The disease is most dangerous in infants, and is a significant cause of disease and death in this age group.

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Which one of the following countries does not share its border with ‘Mali’? (a) Algeria (b) Niger (c) Senegal (d) Tanzania Correct Answer: D Explanation: Option (d) is correct: Mali is a landlocked country in West Africa that is surrounded by Senegal, Mauritania, Guinea, Ivory Coast, Niger, Burkina Faso, and Algeria. It occupies an area of about 480,000 sq mi, ranking as the eighth most extensive country in Africa and the twenty-third most extensive in the world. Mali is a sovereign state that is subdivided into 10 regions, and its economy is driven by mining and agriculture. Incorrect Answer: D Explanation: Option (d) is correct: Mali is a landlocked country in West Africa that is surrounded by Senegal, Mauritania, Guinea, Ivory Coast, Niger, Burkina Faso, and Algeria. It occupies an area of about 480,000 sq mi, ranking as the eighth most extensive country in Africa and the twenty-third most extensive in the world. Mali is a sovereign state that is subdivided into 10 regions, and its economy is driven by mining and agriculture.

#### 20. Question

Which one of the following countries does not share its border with ‘Mali’?

• (a) Algeria

• (c) Senegal

• (d) Tanzania

Answer: D

Explanation:

Option (d) is correct: Mali is a landlocked country in West Africa that is surrounded by Senegal, Mauritania, Guinea, Ivory Coast, Niger, Burkina Faso, and Algeria.

It occupies an area of about 480,000 sq mi, ranking as the eighth most extensive country in Africa and the twenty-third most extensive in the world.

Mali is a sovereign state that is subdivided into 10 regions, and its economy is driven by mining and agriculture.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Option (d) is correct: Mali is a landlocked country in West Africa that is surrounded by Senegal, Mauritania, Guinea, Ivory Coast, Niger, Burkina Faso, and Algeria.

It occupies an area of about 480,000 sq mi, ranking as the eighth most extensive country in Africa and the twenty-third most extensive in the world.

Mali is a sovereign state that is subdivided into 10 regions, and its economy is driven by mining and agriculture.

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Defence Acquisition Procedure 2020. The policy reserves several procurement categories for indigenous firms. It promotes greater indigenous content in arms and equipment of the military procures, including equipment manufactured in India under licence. It removes all import embargos present in previous defence acquisition policies. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: a) Justification: The new policy superseded the Defence Procurement Procedure of 2016. The DAP contains policies and procedures for procurement and acquisition from the capital budget of the MoD in order to modernise the Armed Forces including the Coast Guard. Reservations for Indigenous firms: The policy reserves several procurement categories for indigenous firms. DAP 2020 defines an “Indian vendor” as a company that is owned and controlled by resident Indian citizens, with foreign direct investment (FDI) not more than 49 per cent. New Buy (Global–Manufacture in India) category: This stipulates indigenisation of at least 50 per cent of the overall contract value of a foreign purchase bought with the intention of subsequently building it in India with technology transfer. Greater indigenous content: It promotes greater indigenous content in arms and equipment of the military procures, including equipment manufactured in India under licence. In most acquisition categories, DAP-2020 stipulates 10 per cent higher indigenisation than DPP 2016. Import embargo list: The “import embargo list” of 101 items that the government promulgated last month has been specifically incorporated into DAP 2020. (An embargo is a government order that restricts commerce with a specified country or the exchange of specific goods.) Offset liability: The government has decided not to have an offset clause in procurement of defence equipment if the deal is done through inter-government agreement (IGA), government-to-government or an ab initio single vendor. The offset clause requires a foreign vendor to invest a part of the contract value in India. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/04/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-4-april-2024/ Incorrect Solution: a) Justification: The new policy superseded the Defence Procurement Procedure of 2016. The DAP contains policies and procedures for procurement and acquisition from the capital budget of the MoD in order to modernise the Armed Forces including the Coast Guard. Reservations for Indigenous firms: The policy reserves several procurement categories for indigenous firms. DAP 2020 defines an “Indian vendor” as a company that is owned and controlled by resident Indian citizens, with foreign direct investment (FDI) not more than 49 per cent. New Buy (Global–Manufacture in India) category: This stipulates indigenisation of at least 50 per cent of the overall contract value of a foreign purchase bought with the intention of subsequently building it in India with technology transfer. Greater indigenous content: It promotes greater indigenous content in arms and equipment of the military procures, including equipment manufactured in India under licence. In most acquisition categories, DAP-2020 stipulates 10 per cent higher indigenisation than DPP 2016. Import embargo list: The “import embargo list” of 101 items that the government promulgated last month has been specifically incorporated into DAP 2020. (An embargo is a government order that restricts commerce with a specified country or the exchange of specific goods.) Offset liability: The government has decided not to have an offset clause in procurement of defence equipment if the deal is done through inter-government agreement (IGA), government-to-government or an ab initio single vendor. The offset clause requires a foreign vendor to invest a part of the contract value in India. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/04/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-4-april-2024/

#### 21. Question

Consider the following statements about the Defence Acquisition Procedure 2020.

• The policy reserves several procurement categories for indigenous firms.

• It promotes greater indigenous content in arms and equipment of the military procures, including equipment manufactured in India under licence.

• It removes all import embargos present in previous defence acquisition policies.

Which of the above is/are correct?

• a) 1 and 2 only

• b) 2 and 3 only

• c) 1 and 3 only

• d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: a)

Justification: The new policy superseded the Defence Procurement Procedure of 2016.

The DAP contains policies and procedures for procurement and acquisition from the capital budget of the MoD in order to modernise the Armed Forces including the Coast Guard.

Reservations for Indigenous firms:

The policy reserves several procurement categories for indigenous firms.

DAP 2020 defines an “Indian vendor” as a company that is owned and controlled by resident Indian citizens, with foreign direct investment (FDI) not more than 49 per cent.

New Buy (Global–Manufacture in India) category:

This stipulates indigenisation of at least 50 per cent of the overall contract value of a foreign purchase bought with the intention of subsequently building it in India with technology transfer.

Greater indigenous content:

It promotes greater indigenous content in arms and equipment of the military procures, including equipment manufactured in India under licence. In most acquisition categories, DAP-2020 stipulates 10 per cent higher indigenisation than DPP 2016.

Import embargo list:

The “import embargo list” of 101 items that the government promulgated last month has been specifically incorporated into DAP 2020. (An embargo is a government order that restricts commerce with a specified country or the exchange of specific goods.)

Offset liability:

The government has decided not to have an offset clause in procurement of defence equipment if the deal is done through inter-government agreement (IGA), government-to-government or an ab initio single vendor.

The offset clause requires a foreign vendor to invest a part of the contract value in India.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/04/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-4-april-2024/

Solution: a)

Justification: The new policy superseded the Defence Procurement Procedure of 2016.

The DAP contains policies and procedures for procurement and acquisition from the capital budget of the MoD in order to modernise the Armed Forces including the Coast Guard.

Reservations for Indigenous firms:

The policy reserves several procurement categories for indigenous firms.

DAP 2020 defines an “Indian vendor” as a company that is owned and controlled by resident Indian citizens, with foreign direct investment (FDI) not more than 49 per cent.

New Buy (Global–Manufacture in India) category:

This stipulates indigenisation of at least 50 per cent of the overall contract value of a foreign purchase bought with the intention of subsequently building it in India with technology transfer.

Greater indigenous content:

Import embargo list:

Offset liability:

The offset clause requires a foreign vendor to invest a part of the contract value in India.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/04/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-4-april-2024/

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. The Royal Commission on Indian Currency, 1926 (Hilton Young Commission) recommended the establishment of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). RBI was founded in 1935 under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, with an Indian serving as its inaugural Governor. The RBI was nationalized only after India’s economic liberalisation in 1991. How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: a) Justification: Royal Commission on Indian Currency, 1926 (Hilton Young Commission) recommended the establishment of the RBI, a suggestion reiterated by the Indian Central Banking Enquiry Committee in 1931. The RBI was founded in 1935 under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, with Sir Osborne Smith serving as its inaugural Governor. In 1949, the RBI was nationalized, marking a pivotal moment in its institutional history. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/04/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-4-april-2024/ Incorrect Solution: a) Justification: Royal Commission on Indian Currency, 1926 (Hilton Young Commission) recommended the establishment of the RBI, a suggestion reiterated by the Indian Central Banking Enquiry Committee in 1931. The RBI was founded in 1935 under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, with Sir Osborne Smith serving as its inaugural Governor. In 1949, the RBI was nationalized, marking a pivotal moment in its institutional history. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/04/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-4-april-2024/

#### 22. Question

Consider the following statements.

• The Royal Commission on Indian Currency, 1926 (Hilton Young Commission) recommended the establishment of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).

• RBI was founded in 1935 under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, with an Indian serving as its inaugural Governor.

• The RBI was nationalized only after India’s economic liberalisation in 1991.

How many of the above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: a)

Justification: Royal Commission on Indian Currency, 1926 (Hilton Young Commission) recommended the establishment of the RBI, a suggestion reiterated by the Indian Central Banking Enquiry Committee in 1931.

The RBI was founded in 1935 under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, with Sir Osborne Smith serving as its inaugural Governor.

In 1949, the RBI was nationalized, marking a pivotal moment in its institutional history.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/04/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-4-april-2024/

Solution: a)

The RBI was founded in 1935 under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, with Sir Osborne Smith serving as its inaugural Governor.

In 1949, the RBI was nationalized, marking a pivotal moment in its institutional history.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/04/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-4-april-2024/

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. India has the largest geological reserves of coal. India is the largest consumer of coal in the world. Non-coking coal dominates coal imports of India. How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: a) Justification: India possesses the 5th largest geological reserves of coal globally and ranks as the 2nd largest consumer of coal in the world. Production: Coal India Limited (CIL) stands as the largest producer, contributing to over 70% of coal production in India. Import: In the fiscal year 2023-24 (until January 2024), India imported 217.75 million tonnes of coal. Non-coking coal dominates the imports, accounting for approximately 77% of the total imported coal. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/04/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-4-april-2024/ Incorrect Solution: a) Justification: India possesses the 5th largest geological reserves of coal globally and ranks as the 2nd largest consumer of coal in the world. Production: Coal India Limited (CIL) stands as the largest producer, contributing to over 70% of coal production in India. Import: In the fiscal year 2023-24 (until January 2024), India imported 217.75 million tonnes of coal. Non-coking coal dominates the imports, accounting for approximately 77% of the total imported coal. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/04/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-4-april-2024/

#### 23. Question

Consider the following statements.

• India has the largest geological reserves of coal.

• India is the largest consumer of coal in the world.

• Non-coking coal dominates coal imports of India.

How many of the above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: a)

Justification: India possesses the 5th largest geological reserves of coal globally and ranks as the 2nd largest consumer of coal in the world.

Production: Coal India Limited (CIL) stands as the largest producer, contributing to over 70% of coal production in India.

Import: In the fiscal year 2023-24 (until January 2024), India imported 217.75 million tonnes of coal. Non-coking coal dominates the imports, accounting for approximately 77% of the total imported coal.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/04/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-4-april-2024/

Solution: a)

Justification: India possesses the 5th largest geological reserves of coal globally and ranks as the 2nd largest consumer of coal in the world.

Production: Coal India Limited (CIL) stands as the largest producer, contributing to over 70% of coal production in India.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/04/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-4-april-2024/

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Consider the following seaports. Bhavnagar Kakinada Paradip Which of these is NOT an intermediate seaport? a) 3 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 2 only d) None of the above Correct Solution: a) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/04/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-4-april-2024/ Incorrect Solution: a) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/04/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-4-april-2024/

#### 24. Question

Consider the following seaports.

Which of these is NOT an intermediate seaport?

• b) 2 and 3 only

• c) 1 and 2 only

• d) None of the above

Solution: a)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/04/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-4-april-2024/

Solution: a)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/04/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-4-april-2024/

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points In the context of the protection of Intellectual Property Rights (IPRs) in India, which of the following can be recognised as a trademark? Symbol Word Phrase How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None of the above Correct Solution: c) Justification: Here is a table that lists the different kinds of IPRs, including trademarks. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/05/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-5-april-2024/ Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: Here is a table that lists the different kinds of IPRs, including trademarks. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/05/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-5-april-2024/

#### 25. Question

In the context of the protection of Intellectual Property Rights (IPRs) in India, which of the following can be recognised as a trademark?

How many of the above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

• d) None of the above

Solution: c)

Justification: Here is a table that lists the different kinds of IPRs, including trademarks.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/05/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-5-april-2024/

Solution: c)

Justification: Here is a table that lists the different kinds of IPRs, including trademarks.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/05/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-5-april-2024/

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points Agriculture in India needs to become more sustainable even as small and marginal farmers struggle to build resilience against many threats. First, they remain price-takers and economically vulnerable, beholden to traders who set prices, and with limited opportunities to sell at a time of their choice (due to poor storage). Further, decades of intensive agriculture have added to water stress and declining soil health. Farmers rely on groundwater for more than 60% of irrigation needs. Chemical fertilizers, once a boon to boost soil nutrients, have been applied so intensively (particularly urea) that the long-term health of soils is now of deep concern. Which among the following is the most logical, rational and critical inference that can be made from the above passage? (a) Agricultural policies in India have prioritized productivity in place of sustainability (b) Agricultural policies in India have favoured small and marginal farmers over the bigger farmers (c) Agricultural policies in India have favoured large farmers over small and medium farmers (d) Agricultural policies in India leave a lot to be desired Correct Answer. A. The passage focuses on bringing out the lack of sustainable practices in Indian agriculture which are creating several issues. All the examples given above are examples of measures undertaken to boost productivity at the expense of sustainability. Hence A is the correct answer. Incorrect Answer. A. The passage focuses on bringing out the lack of sustainable practices in Indian agriculture which are creating several issues. All the examples given above are examples of measures undertaken to boost productivity at the expense of sustainability. Hence A is the correct answer.

#### 26. Question

Agriculture in India needs to become more sustainable even as small and marginal farmers struggle to build resilience against many threats. First, they remain price-takers and economically vulnerable, beholden to traders who set prices, and with limited opportunities to sell at a time of their choice (due to poor storage). Further, decades of intensive agriculture have added to water stress and declining soil health. Farmers rely on groundwater for more than 60% of irrigation needs. Chemical fertilizers, once a boon to boost soil nutrients, have been applied so intensively (particularly urea) that the long-term health of soils is now of deep concern.

Which among the following is the most logical, rational and critical inference that can be made from the above passage?

• (a) Agricultural policies in India have prioritized productivity in place of sustainability

• (b) Agricultural policies in India have favoured small and marginal farmers over the bigger farmers

• (c) Agricultural policies in India have favoured large farmers over small and medium farmers

• (d) Agricultural policies in India leave a lot to be desired

Answer. A.

The passage focuses on bringing out the lack of sustainable practices in Indian agriculture which are creating several issues. All the examples given above are examples of measures undertaken to boost productivity at the expense of sustainability. Hence A is the correct answer.

Answer. A.

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points Health accessibility and affordability remain a crucial healthcare problem even in the 21st century. Therefore World Health Organisation chose “Universal Health Coverage” as the theme for World Health Day 2019. India started working towards the universal problem of affordability and accessibility with the introduction of Ayushman Bharat. The scheme gave a family cover of Rs. 5 lac to socio-economically weaker section and roped it many private sector hospitals to deliver the services. Sadly, most of the roped in hospitals are situated in the urban localities and last mile accessibility remains a point of concern in the country with diverse cultures and topography. Which is the most critical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage? (a) Ayushman Bharat takes India closer to the goal of Universal health coverage (b) While the objective of Ayushman Bharat is laudable, there are glitches in the scheme that need correction (c) Health insurance for families is the way ahead if we want to achieve the aim of Universal Health coverage (d) None of the above Correct Answer. B. The passage talks about the goal of universal health coverage and goes ahead and talks about the Ayushman Bharat Scheme which aims to take India closer to universal health coverage. The passage however goes on to mention the issues with Ayushman Bharat which highlight that for the objective of universal health coverage to be attained, we need to iron out the glitches in Ayushman Bharat and hence B is the most accurate option. Incorrect Answer. B. The passage talks about the goal of universal health coverage and goes ahead and talks about the Ayushman Bharat Scheme which aims to take India closer to universal health coverage. The passage however goes on to mention the issues with Ayushman Bharat which highlight that for the objective of universal health coverage to be attained, we need to iron out the glitches in Ayushman Bharat and hence B is the most accurate option.

#### 27. Question

Health accessibility and affordability remain a crucial healthcare problem even in the 21st century. Therefore World Health Organisation chose “Universal Health Coverage” as the theme for World Health Day 2019. India started working towards the universal problem of affordability and accessibility with the introduction of Ayushman Bharat. The scheme gave a family cover of Rs. 5 lac to socio-economically weaker section and roped it many private sector hospitals to deliver the services. Sadly, most of the roped in hospitals are situated in the urban localities and last mile accessibility remains a point of concern in the country with diverse cultures and topography.

Which is the most critical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?

• (a) Ayushman Bharat takes India closer to the goal of Universal health coverage

• (b) While the objective of Ayushman Bharat is laudable, there are glitches in the scheme that need correction

• (c) Health insurance for families is the way ahead if we want to achieve the aim of Universal Health coverage

• (d) None of the above

Answer. B.

The passage talks about the goal of universal health coverage and goes ahead and talks about the Ayushman Bharat Scheme which aims to take India closer to universal health coverage. The passage however goes on to mention the issues with Ayushman Bharat which highlight that for the objective of universal health coverage to be attained, we need to iron out the glitches in Ayushman Bharat and hence B is the most accurate option.

Answer. B.

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points The simple interest on a certain sum of money for 2(1/2) years at 12% per annum is Rs. 40 less than the simple interest on the same sum for 3(1/2) years at 10% per annum. Find the sum. (a) Rs. 600 (b) Rs. 666 (c) Rs. 780 (d) Rs. 800 Correct Correct Answer: D) 800rs Let the sum be Rs. x. Then we can write: [{x×10×7}/ {100×2}] – [{x×12×5}/{100×2}] = 40. This can be written as: 7x/20 – 3x / 10 = 40. Therefore we have x = Rs. 800 Incorrect Correct Answer: D) 800rs Let the sum be Rs. x. Then we can write: [{x×10×7}/ {100×2}] – [{x×12×5}/{100×2}] = 40. This can be written as: 7x/20 – 3x / 10 = 40. Therefore we have x = Rs. 800

#### 28. Question

The simple interest on a certain sum of money for 2(1/2) years at 12% per annum is Rs. 40 less than the simple interest on the same sum for 3(1/2) years at 10% per annum. Find the sum.

• (a) Rs. 600

• (b) Rs. 666

• (c) Rs. 780

• (d) Rs. 800

Correct Answer: D) 800rs

Let the sum be Rs. x.

Then we can write: [{x×10×7}/ {100×2}] – [{x×12×5}/{100×2}] = 40.

This can be written as: 7x/20 – 3x / 10 = 40.

Therefore we have x = Rs. 800

Correct Answer: D) 800rs

Let the sum be Rs. x.

Then we can write: [{x×10×7}/ {100×2}] – [{x×12×5}/{100×2}] = 40.

This can be written as: 7x/20 – 3x / 10 = 40.

Therefore we have x = Rs. 800

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points After two years ratio between simple interest to principle is 2 : 5. If difference between CI and SI after two years is 208, then find principle ? A) Rs. 4800 B) Rs. 4750 C) Rs. 4540 D) Rs. 5200 Correct Answer: D) Rs. 5200 Let principle = 5x and SI = 2x rate of interest for two years = 2x/5x 100 = 40% rate of interest for 1 years = 40%/2 = 20% CI – SI = PR^2/100^2 208 = P (20)^2/10000 P = 5200 Incorrect Answer: D) Rs. 5200 Let principle = 5x and SI = 2x rate of interest for two years = 2x/5x 100 = 40% rate of interest for 1 years = 40%/2 = 20% CI – SI = PR^2/100^2 208 = P (20)^2/10000 P = 5200

#### 29. Question

After two years ratio between simple interest to principle is 2 : 5. If difference between CI and SI after two years is 208, then find principle ?

• A) Rs. 4800

• B) Rs. 4750

• C) Rs. 4540

• D) Rs. 5200

Answer: D) Rs. 5200

Let principle = 5x

and SI = 2x

rate of interest for two years = 2x/5x * 100 = 40%

rate of interest for 1 years = 40%/2 = 20%

CI – SI = PR^2/100^2

208 = P (20)^2/10000

Answer: D) Rs. 5200

Let principle = 5x

and SI = 2x

rate of interest for two years = 2x/5x * 100 = 40%

rate of interest for 1 years = 40%/2 = 20%

CI – SI = PR^2/100^2

208 = P (20)^2/10000

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points Two persons P and Q invested Rs. (x + 3400) and (x+ 2200) at the rate of 15% and 20% respectively for two years in simple interest. After two years total SI is rs.7220, then how much amount invested by Q ? a) Rs. 7600 b) Rs.9820 c) Rs.5840 d) Rs.6450 Correct Answer: A) Rs.7600 (x + 3400) 15 /100 2 + (x + 2200) 20/100 2 =7220 (x + 3400) 3/10 + (x+2200)2/5 = 7220 (3x + 102000/10) + (2x + 4400/5) = 7220 (3x + 10200 + 4x + 8800/10) = 7220 7x + 19000 = 72200 x = 7600 Incorrect Answer: A) Rs.7600 (x + 3400) 15 /100 2 + (x + 2200) 20/100 2 =7220 (x + 3400) 3/10 + (x+2200)2/5 = 7220 (3x + 102000/10) + (2x + 4400/5) = 7220 (3x + 10200 + 4x + 8800/10) = 7220 7x + 19000 = 72200 x = 7600

#### 30. Question

Two persons P and Q invested Rs. (x + 3400) and (x+ 2200) at the rate of 15% and 20% respectively for two years in simple interest. After two years total SI is rs.7220, then how much amount invested by Q ?

• a) Rs. 7600

• b) Rs.9820

• c) Rs.5840

• d) Rs.6450

Answer: A) Rs.7600

(x + 3400) 15 /100 2 + (x + 2200) 20/100 2 =7220

(x + 3400) 3/10 + (x+2200)2/5 = 7220

(3x + 102000/10) + (2x + 4400/5) = 7220

(3x + 10200 + 4x + 8800/10) = 7220

7x + 19000 = 72200

Answer: A) Rs.7600

(x + 3400) 15 /100 2 + (x + 2200) 20/100 2 =7220

(x + 3400) 3/10 + (x+2200)2/5 = 7220

(3x + 102000/10) + (2x + 4400/5) = 7220

(3x + 10200 + 4x + 8800/10) = 7220

7x + 19000 = 72200

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