KartavyaDesk
news

DAY – 40 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – MODERN INDIA, Subject-wise Test 19, Textbook-based Test – 24 and April 2024 CA

Kartavya Desk Staff

INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024

#### Quiz-summary

0 of 30 questions completed

Questions:

#### Information

Read about Insights IAS INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Prelims – 2024 [ HERE ] :

DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(GS) [HERE] :

DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(CSAT) [HERE] :

Download MITRA booklet (My Insta Tests Revision and Assessment) – It’s for to track your daily progress while following Insta 75 Days plan. [ CLICK HERE ] :

Wish you Good Luck! 🙂

You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.

Quiz is loading...

You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.

You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:

0 of 30 questions answered correctly

Your time:

Time has elapsed

You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)

Average score |

Your score |

#### Categories

• Not categorized 0%

Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result

Table is loading

No data available

| | | |

• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: During Quit India movement, Kanaklata Barua led a large procession of protesters, advocating for the takeover of a police station, in West Bengal and was shot and killed by British authorities. Matangini Hazra led the Mrityu Bahini, a suicide squad, in an attempt to hoist the Tricolour at a police station in Assam during quit India movement. Which of the above given statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: d Explanation: President Droupadi Murmu, during her address on the eve of Independence Day, paid tribute to women freedom fighters. She mentioned two notable figures: Matangini Hazra: Born in 1869 in a village near Tamluk, West Bengal, she was married at a young age and became widowed by 18. After her husband’s death, she dedicated herself to social causes and became deeply involved in the Nationalist movement, supporting Mahatma Gandhi’s ideals. Hazra participated in various protests, including the Civil Disobedience Movement and the Salt March. During the Quit India Movement in 1942, at the age of 73, she led a large procession of around 6,000 protesters, advocating for the takeover of the Tamluk police station. In the ensuing clash with British authorities, she was shot and killed, becoming a martyr for the cause of Indian independence. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Kanaklata Barua was a young martyr of the Quit India Movement and a symbol of courage and determination. At just 17 years old, she led the Mrityu Bahini, a suicide squad, in an attempt to hoist the Tricolour at the Gohpur police station in Assam on September 20, 1942. During the confrontation with the police, she was shot and killed while holding onto the flag. Her sacrifice inspired many during a time when women’s involvement in the freedom struggle was gaining momentum. In 2020, a Coast Guard vessel was named after her as a tribute to her bravery. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: President Droupadi Murmu, during her address on the eve of Independence Day, paid tribute to women freedom fighters. She mentioned two notable figures: Matangini Hazra: Born in 1869 in a village near Tamluk, West Bengal, she was married at a young age and became widowed by 18. After her husband’s death, she dedicated herself to social causes and became deeply involved in the Nationalist movement, supporting Mahatma Gandhi’s ideals. Hazra participated in various protests, including the Civil Disobedience Movement and the Salt March. During the Quit India Movement in 1942, at the age of 73, she led a large procession of around 6,000 protesters, advocating for the takeover of the Tamluk police station. In the ensuing clash with British authorities, she was shot and killed, becoming a martyr for the cause of Indian independence. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Kanaklata Barua was a young martyr of the Quit India Movement and a symbol of courage and determination. At just 17 years old, she led the Mrityu Bahini, a suicide squad, in an attempt to hoist the Tricolour at the Gohpur police station in Assam on September 20, 1942. During the confrontation with the police, she was shot and killed while holding onto the flag. Her sacrifice inspired many during a time when women’s involvement in the freedom struggle was gaining momentum. In 2020, a Coast Guard vessel was named after her as a tribute to her bravery. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option (d) is correct.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements:

• During Quit India movement, Kanaklata Barua led a large procession of protesters, advocating for the takeover of a police station, in West Bengal and was shot and killed by British authorities.

• Matangini Hazra led the Mrityu Bahini, a suicide squad, in an attempt to hoist the Tricolour at a police station in Assam during quit India movement.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• President Droupadi Murmu, during her address on the eve of Independence Day, paid tribute to women freedom fighters. She mentioned two notable figures:

Matangini Hazra: Born in 1869 in a village near Tamluk, West Bengal, she was married at a young age and became widowed by 18. After her husband’s death, she dedicated herself to social causes and became deeply involved in the Nationalist movement, supporting Mahatma Gandhi’s ideals. Hazra participated in various protests, including the Civil Disobedience Movement and the Salt March.

During the Quit India Movement in 1942, at the age of 73, she led a large procession of around 6,000 protesters, advocating for the takeover of the Tamluk police station. In the ensuing clash with British authorities, she was shot and killed, becoming a martyr for the cause of Indian independence. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Kanaklata Barua was a young martyr of the Quit India Movement and a symbol of courage and determination. At just 17 years old, she led the Mrityu Bahini, a suicide squad, in an attempt to hoist the Tricolour at the Gohpur police station in Assam on September 20, 1942. During the confrontation with the police, she was shot and killed while holding onto the flag. Her sacrifice inspired many during a time when women’s involvement in the freedom struggle was gaining momentum. In 2020, a Coast Guard vessel was named after her as a tribute to her bravery. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

• President Droupadi Murmu, during her address on the eve of Independence Day, paid tribute to women freedom fighters. She mentioned two notable figures:

Matangini Hazra: Born in 1869 in a village near Tamluk, West Bengal, she was married at a young age and became widowed by 18. After her husband’s death, she dedicated herself to social causes and became deeply involved in the Nationalist movement, supporting Mahatma Gandhi’s ideals. Hazra participated in various protests, including the Civil Disobedience Movement and the Salt March.

During the Quit India Movement in 1942, at the age of 73, she led a large procession of around 6,000 protesters, advocating for the takeover of the Tamluk police station. In the ensuing clash with British authorities, she was shot and killed, becoming a martyr for the cause of Indian independence. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Kanaklata Barua was a young martyr of the Quit India Movement and a symbol of courage and determination. At just 17 years old, she led the Mrityu Bahini, a suicide squad, in an attempt to hoist the Tricolour at the Gohpur police station in Assam on September 20, 1942. During the confrontation with the police, she was shot and killed while holding onto the flag. Her sacrifice inspired many during a time when women’s involvement in the freedom struggle was gaining momentum. In 2020, a Coast Guard vessel was named after her as a tribute to her bravery. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points With reference to Bhagavati Charan Vohra, consider the following statements: He was a pamphleteer and propagandist of the revolutionary movement. He authored “The Philosophy of the Bomb”, which features a debate between revolutionaries and Mahatma Gandhi. He was one of the founders of Naujawan Bharat Sabha. He died during the Kakori train robbery. Which of the above given statements are correct? a) 1 and 4 only b) 3 and 4 only c) 1,2 and 3 only d) 1,3 and 4 only Correct Answer: c Explanation: Bhagwati Charan Vohra is among the lesser-known personages from the Bhagat Singh era of the Indian revolutionary movement. He was a chief pamphleteer and propagandist and among the most important ideologues of the movement. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Though not as popular as Singh and Chandrashekhar Azad, he co-wrote three significant ideological/organisational documents—the manifestos of the Naujawan Bharat Sabha and Hindustan Socialist Republican Association and the most famous document of the HSRA, “The Philosophy of the Bomb”, which features a debate between revolutionaries and Mahatma Gandhi. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Vohra, Bhagat Singh and Sukhdev formed the Naujawan Bharat Sabha in 1926, was elected its propaganda secretary. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Vohra often used to say: “I want to die in such a place and manner that no one may know of it and shed tears”. In a cruel tragedy, fate heeded his desire. He died on 28 May 1930 while testing a bomb near the Ravi River. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Bhagwati Charan Vohra is among the lesser-known personages from the Bhagat Singh era of the Indian revolutionary movement. He was a chief pamphleteer and propagandist and among the most important ideologues of the movement. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Though not as popular as Singh and Chandrashekhar Azad, he co-wrote three significant ideological/organisational documents—the manifestos of the Naujawan Bharat Sabha and Hindustan Socialist Republican Association and the most famous document of the HSRA, “The Philosophy of the Bomb”, which features a debate between revolutionaries and Mahatma Gandhi. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Vohra, Bhagat Singh and Sukhdev formed the Naujawan Bharat Sabha in 1926, was elected its propaganda secretary. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Vohra often used to say: “I want to die in such a place and manner that no one may know of it and shed tears”. In a cruel tragedy, fate heeded his desire. He died on 28 May 1930 while testing a bomb near the Ravi River. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

#### 2. Question

With reference to Bhagavati Charan Vohra, consider the following statements:

• He was a pamphleteer and propagandist of the revolutionary movement.

• He authored “The Philosophy of the Bomb”, which features a debate between revolutionaries and Mahatma Gandhi.

• He was one of the founders of Naujawan Bharat Sabha.

• He died during the Kakori train robbery.

Which of the above given statements are correct?

• a) 1 and 4 only

• b) 3 and 4 only

• c) 1,2 and 3 only

• d) 1,3 and 4 only

Explanation:

• Bhagwati Charan Vohra is among the lesser-known personages from the Bhagat Singh era of the Indian revolutionary movement. He was a chief pamphleteer and propagandist and among the most important ideologues of the movement. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Though not as popular as Singh and Chandrashekhar Azad, he co-wrote three significant ideological/organisational documents—the manifestos of the Naujawan Bharat Sabha and Hindustan Socialist Republican Association and the most famous document of the HSRA, “The Philosophy of the Bomb”, which features a debate between revolutionaries and Mahatma Gandhi. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Vohra, Bhagat Singh and Sukhdev formed the Naujawan Bharat Sabha in 1926, was elected its propaganda secretary. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Vohra often used to say: “I want to die in such a place and manner that no one may know of it and shed tears”. In a cruel tragedy, fate heeded his desire. He died on 28 May 1930 while testing a bomb near the Ravi River. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Explanation:

• Bhagwati Charan Vohra is among the lesser-known personages from the Bhagat Singh era of the Indian revolutionary movement. He was a chief pamphleteer and propagandist and among the most important ideologues of the movement. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Though not as popular as Singh and Chandrashekhar Azad, he co-wrote three significant ideological/organisational documents—the manifestos of the Naujawan Bharat Sabha and Hindustan Socialist Republican Association and the most famous document of the HSRA, “The Philosophy of the Bomb”, which features a debate between revolutionaries and Mahatma Gandhi. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Vohra, Bhagat Singh and Sukhdev formed the Naujawan Bharat Sabha in 1926, was elected its propaganda secretary. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Vohra often used to say: “I want to die in such a place and manner that no one may know of it and shed tears”. In a cruel tragedy, fate heeded his desire. He died on 28 May 1930 while testing a bomb near the Ravi River. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Why did Mahatma Gandhi call the proposals of Cripps mission “Post-dated Cheque drawn on a failing bank?”? a) The Cripps Mission proposed to create a new Indian Union with Dominion status after the Second World War. b) It proposed setting up a Constitution-making body for India after the War, whose members would be elected by the Provincial Assemblies. c) There were provisions for any British Indian Province unwilling to accept India’s Constitution to either maintain its current constitutional status or frame its own constitution. d) Churchill was against providing any leverage to Indians. He was against Roosevelt's administration, which had wanted to abandon imperialism through the Atlantic Charter. Correct Answer: a Explanation: Sir Stafford Cripps, a left-wing Labourite, was in charge of the Cripps mission. He was a member of the British war cabinet and the leader of the House of Commons. The major goal of the Cripps mission in 1942 was to enlist Indian support for British war activities. Gandhi called Cripps Mission proposals a “Post-dated Cheque drawn on a failing bank”. This was due to the promise of granting dominion status after the end of the Second World War. Congress wanted immediate independence .The offer of the “Dominion Status” was dead at that moment. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Sir Stafford Cripps, a left-wing Labourite, was in charge of the Cripps mission. He was a member of the British war cabinet and the leader of the House of Commons. The major goal of the Cripps mission in 1942 was to enlist Indian support for British war activities. Gandhi called Cripps Mission proposals a “Post-dated Cheque drawn on a failing bank”. This was due to the promise of granting dominion status after the end of the Second World War. Congress wanted immediate independence .The offer of the “Dominion Status” was dead at that moment. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 3. Question

Why did Mahatma Gandhi call the proposals of Cripps mission “Post-dated Cheque drawn on a failing bank?”?

• a) The Cripps Mission proposed to create a new Indian Union with Dominion status after the Second World War.

• b) It proposed setting up a Constitution-making body for India after the War, whose members would be elected by the Provincial Assemblies.

• c) There were provisions for any British Indian Province unwilling to accept India’s Constitution to either maintain its current constitutional status or frame its own constitution.

• d) Churchill was against providing any leverage to Indians. He was against Roosevelt's administration, which had wanted to abandon imperialism through the Atlantic Charter.

Explanation:

• Sir Stafford Cripps, a left-wing Labourite, was in charge of the Cripps mission. He was a member of the British war cabinet and the leader of the House of Commons. The major goal of the Cripps mission in 1942 was to enlist Indian support for British war activities.

• Gandhi called Cripps Mission proposals a “Post-dated Cheque drawn on a failing bank”. This was due to the promise of granting dominion status after the end of the Second World War. Congress wanted immediate independence .The offer of the “Dominion Status” was dead at that moment.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• Sir Stafford Cripps, a left-wing Labourite, was in charge of the Cripps mission. He was a member of the British war cabinet and the leader of the House of Commons. The major goal of the Cripps mission in 1942 was to enlist Indian support for British war activities.

• Gandhi called Cripps Mission proposals a “Post-dated Cheque drawn on a failing bank”. This was due to the promise of granting dominion status after the end of the Second World War. Congress wanted immediate independence .The offer of the “Dominion Status” was dead at that moment.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points What was the name of the revolutionary organization formed by Ram Prasad Bismil? a) Bharat Mata Sena b) Matrivedi c) Swaraj Samiti d) Hind Fauj Correct Answer: b Explanation: Ram Prasad Bismil was a revolutionary freedom fighter with a poet’s heart. Bismil was born on 11 June 1897, in a village in Uttar Pradesh’s Shahjahanpur district. British authorities hanged him for his involvement in the Kakori Train Action. He was hanged in the Gorakhpur jail in 1927 and cremated on the banks of the Rapti River. He is a revered symbol of patriotism and Hindu-Muslim unity. He attended the 1921 session of the Indian National Congress at Ahmedabad. Ram Prasad Bismil became known in the annals of history because of his participation in the Mainpuri Conspiracy of 1918 and the Kakori Conspiracy of 1925. Bismil formed a revolutionary organisation named ‘Matrivedi’ (Altar of Mother), and sought help from Genda Lal Dixit, a school teacher from Auraiya, who had established the first independent secret society in UP named ‘Shivaji Samiti’. Bismil and Dixit got involved in the Mainpuri Conspiracy in which they distributed prohibited literature. On 28 January, 1918, Bismil distributed two of his writings to people- a pamphlet titled Deshwasiyon ke Naam Sandesh (A Message to Countrymen) and Mainpuri ki Pratigya (Vow of Mainpuri). To collect funds for their parties they looted government coffers on three occasions in 1918. When Bismil was planning another looting between Delhi and Agra, a police team arrived and firing started from both the sides. Bismil jumped into the river Yamuna to escape and was presumed dead. Dixit and others were arrested and put on trial in the Mainpuri Conspiracy Case. Dixit escaped from the Agra jail and remained hidden in Delhi. On 1st November, 1919 a judgement was passed declaring Bismil and Dixit absconders in the case. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Ram Prasad Bismil was a revolutionary freedom fighter with a poet’s heart. Bismil was born on 11 June 1897, in a village in Uttar Pradesh’s Shahjahanpur district. British authorities hanged him for his involvement in the Kakori Train Action. He was hanged in the Gorakhpur jail in 1927 and cremated on the banks of the Rapti River. He is a revered symbol of patriotism and Hindu-Muslim unity. He attended the 1921 session of the Indian National Congress at Ahmedabad. Ram Prasad Bismil became known in the annals of history because of his participation in the Mainpuri Conspiracy of 1918 and the Kakori Conspiracy of 1925. Bismil formed a revolutionary organisation named ‘Matrivedi’ (Altar of Mother), and sought help from Genda Lal Dixit, a school teacher from Auraiya, who had established the first independent secret society in UP named ‘Shivaji Samiti’. Bismil and Dixit got involved in the Mainpuri Conspiracy in which they distributed prohibited literature. On 28 January, 1918, Bismil distributed two of his writings to people- a pamphlet titled Deshwasiyon ke Naam Sandesh (A Message to Countrymen) and Mainpuri ki Pratigya (Vow of Mainpuri). To collect funds for their parties they looted government coffers on three occasions in 1918. When Bismil was planning another looting between Delhi and Agra, a police team arrived and firing started from both the sides. Bismil jumped into the river Yamuna to escape and was presumed dead. Dixit and others were arrested and put on trial in the Mainpuri Conspiracy Case. Dixit escaped from the Agra jail and remained hidden in Delhi. On 1st November, 1919 a judgement was passed declaring Bismil and Dixit absconders in the case. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 4. Question

What was the name of the revolutionary organization formed by Ram Prasad Bismil?

• a) Bharat Mata Sena

• b) Matrivedi

• c) Swaraj Samiti

• d) Hind Fauj

Explanation:

• Ram Prasad Bismil was a revolutionary freedom fighter with a poet’s heart.

• Bismil was born on 11 June 1897, in a village in Uttar Pradesh’s Shahjahanpur district.

• British authorities hanged him for his involvement in the Kakori Train Action. He was hanged in the Gorakhpur jail in 1927 and cremated on the banks of the Rapti River.

• He is a revered symbol of patriotism and Hindu-Muslim unity. He attended the 1921 session of the Indian National Congress at Ahmedabad.

• Ram Prasad Bismil became known in the annals of history because of his participation in the Mainpuri Conspiracy of 1918 and the Kakori Conspiracy of 1925.

Bismil formed a revolutionary organisation named ‘Matrivedi’ (Altar of Mother), and sought help from Genda Lal Dixit, a school teacher from Auraiya, who had established the first independent secret society in UP named ‘Shivaji Samiti’.

• Bismil and Dixit got involved in the Mainpuri Conspiracy in which they distributed prohibited literature.

• On 28 January, 1918, Bismil distributed two of his writings to people- a pamphlet titled Deshwasiyon ke Naam Sandesh (A Message to Countrymen) and Mainpuri ki Pratigya (Vow of Mainpuri).

• To collect funds for their parties they looted government coffers on three occasions in 1918. When Bismil was planning another looting between Delhi and Agra, a police team arrived and firing started from both the sides.

• Bismil jumped into the river Yamuna to escape and was presumed dead. Dixit and others were arrested and put on trial in the Mainpuri Conspiracy Case. Dixit escaped from the Agra jail and remained hidden in Delhi. On 1st November, 1919 a judgement was passed declaring Bismil and Dixit absconders in the case.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• Ram Prasad Bismil was a revolutionary freedom fighter with a poet’s heart.

• Bismil was born on 11 June 1897, in a village in Uttar Pradesh’s Shahjahanpur district.

• British authorities hanged him for his involvement in the Kakori Train Action. He was hanged in the Gorakhpur jail in 1927 and cremated on the banks of the Rapti River.

• He is a revered symbol of patriotism and Hindu-Muslim unity. He attended the 1921 session of the Indian National Congress at Ahmedabad.

• Ram Prasad Bismil became known in the annals of history because of his participation in the Mainpuri Conspiracy of 1918 and the Kakori Conspiracy of 1925.

Bismil formed a revolutionary organisation named ‘Matrivedi’ (Altar of Mother), and sought help from Genda Lal Dixit, a school teacher from Auraiya, who had established the first independent secret society in UP named ‘Shivaji Samiti’.

• Bismil and Dixit got involved in the Mainpuri Conspiracy in which they distributed prohibited literature.

• On 28 January, 1918, Bismil distributed two of his writings to people- a pamphlet titled Deshwasiyon ke Naam Sandesh (A Message to Countrymen) and Mainpuri ki Pratigya (Vow of Mainpuri).

• To collect funds for their parties they looted government coffers on three occasions in 1918. When Bismil was planning another looting between Delhi and Agra, a police team arrived and firing started from both the sides.

• Bismil jumped into the river Yamuna to escape and was presumed dead. Dixit and others were arrested and put on trial in the Mainpuri Conspiracy Case. Dixit escaped from the Agra jail and remained hidden in Delhi. On 1st November, 1919 a judgement was passed declaring Bismil and Dixit absconders in the case.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Who was the main target of the Alipore Bomb Conspiracy Case, and who were the young rebels involved? a) The target was Viceroy Lord Hardinge, and the rebels were Rash Behari Bose and Sachin Saniyal. b) The target was Douglas Kingford, and the rebels were Khudiram Bose and Prafulla Chaki. c) The target was Lord Chelmsford, and the rebels were Vinayak Savarkar and Ganesh Damodar Savarkar. d) The target was Curzon Wyllie, and the rebels were Aurobindo Ghosh and Barindra Kumar Ghosh. Correct Answer: b Explanation: The Alipore Bomb Conspiracy Case was centred around a plot to assassinate Douglas Kingsford, a British magistrate known for his harsh treatment of Indian nationalists. Khudiram Bose and Prafulla Chaki, two young revolutionaries, were assigned the task of carrying out the assassination. However, they detonated a bomb on a carriage on April 30, 1908, killing two English ladies instead of Kingsford. Khudiram Bose was detained and later executed for his involvement in the bombing, while Prafulla Chaki committed suicide. The case also involved other prominent figures like Aurobindo Ghosh and Barindra Kumar Ghosh Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: The Alipore Bomb Conspiracy Case was centred around a plot to assassinate Douglas Kingsford, a British magistrate known for his harsh treatment of Indian nationalists. Khudiram Bose and Prafulla Chaki, two young revolutionaries, were assigned the task of carrying out the assassination. However, they detonated a bomb on a carriage on April 30, 1908, killing two English ladies instead of Kingsford. Khudiram Bose was detained and later executed for his involvement in the bombing, while Prafulla Chaki committed suicide. The case also involved other prominent figures like Aurobindo Ghosh and Barindra Kumar Ghosh Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 5. Question

Who was the main target of the Alipore Bomb Conspiracy Case, and who were the young rebels involved?

• a) The target was Viceroy Lord Hardinge, and the rebels were Rash Behari Bose and Sachin Saniyal.

• b) The target was Douglas Kingford, and the rebels were Khudiram Bose and Prafulla Chaki.

• c) The target was Lord Chelmsford, and the rebels were Vinayak Savarkar and Ganesh Damodar Savarkar.

• d) The target was Curzon Wyllie, and the rebels were Aurobindo Ghosh and Barindra Kumar Ghosh.

Explanation:

• The Alipore Bomb Conspiracy Case was centred around a plot to assassinate Douglas Kingsford, a British magistrate known for his harsh treatment of Indian nationalists.

Khudiram Bose and Prafulla Chaki, two young revolutionaries, were assigned the task of carrying out the assassination. However, they detonated a bomb on a carriage on April 30, 1908, killing two English ladies instead of Kingsford.

• Khudiram Bose was detained and later executed for his involvement in the bombing, while Prafulla Chaki committed suicide.

• The case also involved other prominent figures like Aurobindo Ghosh and Barindra Kumar Ghosh

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• The Alipore Bomb Conspiracy Case was centred around a plot to assassinate Douglas Kingsford, a British magistrate known for his harsh treatment of Indian nationalists.

Khudiram Bose and Prafulla Chaki, two young revolutionaries, were assigned the task of carrying out the assassination. However, they detonated a bomb on a carriage on April 30, 1908, killing two English ladies instead of Kingsford.

• Khudiram Bose was detained and later executed for his involvement in the bombing, while Prafulla Chaki committed suicide.

• The case also involved other prominent figures like Aurobindo Ghosh and Barindra Kumar Ghosh

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Consider the following: Lack of organized leadership hiearachy Underestimation of the preparation required Resistance from Indian nationalist figures Komagatha Maru incident How many of the above are the reasons for failure of the Ghadar movement? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: c Explanation: The Ghadar Party was a revolutionary organisation with its main office in San Francisco and was centred around the weekly journal “The Ghadar.” The majority of these revolutionaries were ex-soldiers and peasants who had moved to the USA and Canada from Punjab in pursuit of better job possibilities. The Ghadar programme was designed to plan official assassinations, disseminate anti-imperialist and revolutionary literature, coordinate with Indian troops stationed abroad, get weapons, and spark a synchronised uprising across all British colonies. Lala Hardayal, Ramchandra, Bhagwan Singh, Kartar Singh Saraba, Barkatullah, and Bhai Parmanand were the driving forces behind the Ghadr Party. They wanted to incite a rebellion in India. Lala Har Dayal, Sant Baba Wasakha Singh Dadehar, Baba Jawala Singh, Santokh Singh, and Sohan Singh Bakra created the Ghadar Party, formerly known as the Pacific Coast Hindustan Association, on July 15, 1913, in the United States. Among the Indian diaspora in the United States, Canada, East Africa, and Asia, the Ghadar party attracted a substantial following. Reasons for failure of Ghadar Movement: Lack of organized and sustained leadership: The Ghadar Party lacked cohesive and sustained leadership necessary for effectively coordinating revolutionary activities. While it had influential figures like Lala Hardayal and Bhagwan Singh, the absence of a well-structured leadership hierarchy led to disorganization and inefficiency within the party. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Underestimation of the preparation required at every level: The Ghadar Party underestimated the magnitude of preparation required for executing its revolutionary plans. This included logistical, ideological, financial, and tactical preparation. The party failed to anticipate the challenges and complexities involved in orchestrating a synchronized uprising across British colonies. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Resistance from Indian nationalist figures and organizations: The Ghadar Party faced opposition and resistance from various quarters within the Indian nationalist movement. Established nationalist figures and organizations, such as the Indian National Congress, viewed the Ghadar Party’s methods as too radical and disruptive. This resistance hindered the party’s efforts to garner broader support and participation. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Komagatha Maru incident (1914): The Komagatha Maru incident was a significant event that provided motivation and support for the Ghadar movement, it was not a direct reason for the movement’s failure. Instead, it served as a rallying point and highlighted the injustices faced by Indians under British colonial rule, but it did not directly contribute to the movement’s downfall. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: The Ghadar Party was a revolutionary organisation with its main office in San Francisco and was centred around the weekly journal “The Ghadar.” The majority of these revolutionaries were ex-soldiers and peasants who had moved to the USA and Canada from Punjab in pursuit of better job possibilities. The Ghadar programme was designed to plan official assassinations, disseminate anti-imperialist and revolutionary literature, coordinate with Indian troops stationed abroad, get weapons, and spark a synchronised uprising across all British colonies. Lala Hardayal, Ramchandra, Bhagwan Singh, Kartar Singh Saraba, Barkatullah, and Bhai Parmanand were the driving forces behind the Ghadr Party. They wanted to incite a rebellion in India. Lala Har Dayal, Sant Baba Wasakha Singh Dadehar, Baba Jawala Singh, Santokh Singh, and Sohan Singh Bakra created the Ghadar Party, formerly known as the Pacific Coast Hindustan Association, on July 15, 1913, in the United States. Among the Indian diaspora in the United States, Canada, East Africa, and Asia, the Ghadar party attracted a substantial following. Reasons for failure of Ghadar Movement: Lack of organized and sustained leadership: The Ghadar Party lacked cohesive and sustained leadership necessary for effectively coordinating revolutionary activities. While it had influential figures like Lala Hardayal and Bhagwan Singh, the absence of a well-structured leadership hierarchy led to disorganization and inefficiency within the party. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Underestimation of the preparation required at every level: The Ghadar Party underestimated the magnitude of preparation required for executing its revolutionary plans. This included logistical, ideological, financial, and tactical preparation. The party failed to anticipate the challenges and complexities involved in orchestrating a synchronized uprising across British colonies. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Resistance from Indian nationalist figures and organizations: The Ghadar Party faced opposition and resistance from various quarters within the Indian nationalist movement. Established nationalist figures and organizations, such as the Indian National Congress, viewed the Ghadar Party’s methods as too radical and disruptive. This resistance hindered the party’s efforts to garner broader support and participation. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Komagatha Maru incident (1914): The Komagatha Maru incident was a significant event that provided motivation and support for the Ghadar movement, it was not a direct reason for the movement’s failure. Instead, it served as a rallying point and highlighted the injustices faced by Indians under British colonial rule, but it did not directly contribute to the movement’s downfall. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following:

• Lack of organized leadership hiearachy

• Underestimation of the preparation required

• Resistance from Indian nationalist figures

• Komagatha Maru incident

How many of the above are the reasons for failure of the Ghadar movement?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

• The Ghadar Party was a revolutionary organisation with its main office in San Francisco and was centred around the weekly journal “The Ghadar.”

• The majority of these revolutionaries were ex-soldiers and peasants who had moved to the USA and Canada from Punjab in pursuit of better job possibilities.

• The Ghadar programme was designed to plan official assassinations, disseminate anti-imperialist and revolutionary literature, coordinate with Indian troops stationed abroad, get weapons, and spark a synchronised uprising across all British colonies.

• Lala Hardayal, Ramchandra, Bhagwan Singh, Kartar Singh Saraba, Barkatullah, and Bhai Parmanand were the driving forces behind the Ghadr Party. They wanted to incite a rebellion in India.

• Lala Har Dayal, Sant Baba Wasakha Singh Dadehar, Baba Jawala Singh, Santokh Singh, and Sohan Singh Bakra created the Ghadar Party, formerly known as the Pacific Coast Hindustan Association, on July 15, 1913, in the United States.

• Among the Indian diaspora in the United States, Canada, East Africa, and Asia, the Ghadar party attracted a substantial following.

Reasons for failure of Ghadar Movement:

Lack of organized and sustained leadership: The Ghadar Party lacked cohesive and sustained leadership necessary for effectively coordinating revolutionary activities. While it had influential figures like Lala Hardayal and Bhagwan Singh, the absence of a well-structured leadership hierarchy led to disorganization and inefficiency within the party. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Underestimation of the preparation required at every level: The Ghadar Party underestimated the magnitude of preparation required for executing its revolutionary plans. This included logistical, ideological, financial, and tactical preparation. The party failed to anticipate the challenges and complexities involved in orchestrating a synchronized uprising across British colonies. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Resistance from Indian nationalist figures and organizations: The Ghadar Party faced opposition and resistance from various quarters within the Indian nationalist movement. Established nationalist figures and organizations, such as the Indian National Congress, viewed the Ghadar Party’s methods as too radical and disruptive. This resistance hindered the party’s efforts to garner broader support and participation. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Komagatha Maru incident (1914): The Komagatha Maru incident was a significant event that provided motivation and support for the Ghadar movement, it was not a direct reason for the movement’s failure. Instead, it served as a rallying point and highlighted the injustices faced by Indians under British colonial rule, but it did not directly contribute to the movement’s downfall. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

• The Ghadar Party was a revolutionary organisation with its main office in San Francisco and was centred around the weekly journal “The Ghadar.”

• The majority of these revolutionaries were ex-soldiers and peasants who had moved to the USA and Canada from Punjab in pursuit of better job possibilities.

• The Ghadar programme was designed to plan official assassinations, disseminate anti-imperialist and revolutionary literature, coordinate with Indian troops stationed abroad, get weapons, and spark a synchronised uprising across all British colonies.

• Lala Hardayal, Ramchandra, Bhagwan Singh, Kartar Singh Saraba, Barkatullah, and Bhai Parmanand were the driving forces behind the Ghadr Party. They wanted to incite a rebellion in India.

• Lala Har Dayal, Sant Baba Wasakha Singh Dadehar, Baba Jawala Singh, Santokh Singh, and Sohan Singh Bakra created the Ghadar Party, formerly known as the Pacific Coast Hindustan Association, on July 15, 1913, in the United States.

• Among the Indian diaspora in the United States, Canada, East Africa, and Asia, the Ghadar party attracted a substantial following.

Reasons for failure of Ghadar Movement:

Lack of organized and sustained leadership: The Ghadar Party lacked cohesive and sustained leadership necessary for effectively coordinating revolutionary activities. While it had influential figures like Lala Hardayal and Bhagwan Singh, the absence of a well-structured leadership hierarchy led to disorganization and inefficiency within the party. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Underestimation of the preparation required at every level: The Ghadar Party underestimated the magnitude of preparation required for executing its revolutionary plans. This included logistical, ideological, financial, and tactical preparation. The party failed to anticipate the challenges and complexities involved in orchestrating a synchronized uprising across British colonies. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Resistance from Indian nationalist figures and organizations: The Ghadar Party faced opposition and resistance from various quarters within the Indian nationalist movement. Established nationalist figures and organizations, such as the Indian National Congress, viewed the Ghadar Party’s methods as too radical and disruptive. This resistance hindered the party’s efforts to garner broader support and participation. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Komagatha Maru incident (1914): The Komagatha Maru incident was a significant event that provided motivation and support for the Ghadar movement, it was not a direct reason for the movement’s failure. Instead, it served as a rallying point and highlighted the injustices faced by Indians under British colonial rule, but it did not directly contribute to the movement’s downfall. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points With reference to Rabindranath Tagore, consider the following statements: He is the first non-European to receive the Nobel Prize for Literature. He expressed concerns about the emergence of aggressive forms of nationalism. The Bard of Bengal was the pen name of Tagore. Gitanjali, Gitimalya and the King of the Dark Chamber were among some of the greatest poems written by Tagore. How many of the above given statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: b Explanation: Rabindranath Tagore, born on May 7, 1861, in Kolkata, India. He was born into a distinguished family in Kolkata (formerly Calcutta), West Bengal, India. He was the youngest of thirteen children born to Debendranath Tagore and Sarada Devi. Debendranath Tagore was a prominent philosopher, religious leader, and reformer, while Sarada Devi was deeply engaged in cultural and social activities. Rabindranath Tagore was called Gurudev, Kabiguru, and Biswakabi affectionately and his songs are popularly known as Rabindranath Tagore penned down the national anthems of India and Bangladesh – the Jana Gana Mana and the Amar Shonar Bangla respectively are from the Rabindrasangeet. Rabindranath Tagore was a poet, novelist, artist, painter and educationalist. Tagore won the Nobel Prize for Literature in 1913 for his collection Gitanjali. He is the first Indian and first non-European to receive the Nobel Prize for Literature. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Rabindranath Tagore expressed concerns about the emergence of aggressive and narrow forms of nationalism, both in India and globally, fearing that such ideologies could lead to conflicts and a suppression of individual freedom. In his famous work “Nationalism,” Tagore criticized the negative aspects of narrow nationalism while advocating for a more inclusive and universalistic approach to nationalism that promotes mutual understanding and cultural diversity. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Rabindranath Tagore also known by his pen name Bhanu Singha Thakur (Bhonita). The Bard of Bengal was the title given to him. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. He received the British Knighthood in 1915. However, he renounced it in protest against the Jallianwalla Bagh massacre in 1919. He is credited for giving the Mahatma title to Mahatma Gandhi. In 1901, he started a model school after the ancient hermitage schools of India named Santiniketan (the abode of peace). Santiniketan engaged many scholars from across the world, including his English friends, Oxford professor E J Thompson, missionary C F Andrews and Lord Elmhirst. In 1921, a ‘world university’ was established at Santiniketan, later recognised as ‘Visva Bharati’. Important Literary Contributions:- Poems: Manasi (The Ideal One,1890) Sonar Tari (The Golden Boat,1894) Gitanjali (Song Offerings,1910) Gitimalya (Wreath of Songs,1914) Balaka (The Flight of Cranes,1916) Plays: Raja (1910) [The King of the Dark Chamber]. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. Dakghar (The Post Office,1912) Achalayatan (The Immovable,1912) Muktadhara (The Waterfall,1922) Raktakaravi (Red Oleanders,1926) Short stories and Novels: Gora (1910), Ghare-Baire (The Home and the World, 1916) and Yogayog (Crosscurrents, 1929) Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Rabindranath Tagore, born on May 7, 1861, in Kolkata, India. He was born into a distinguished family in Kolkata (formerly Calcutta), West Bengal, India. He was the youngest of thirteen children born to Debendranath Tagore and Sarada Devi. Debendranath Tagore was a prominent philosopher, religious leader, and reformer, while Sarada Devi was deeply engaged in cultural and social activities. Rabindranath Tagore was called Gurudev, Kabiguru, and Biswakabi affectionately and his songs are popularly known as Rabindranath Tagore penned down the national anthems of India and Bangladesh – the Jana Gana Mana and the Amar Shonar Bangla respectively are from the Rabindrasangeet. Rabindranath Tagore was a poet, novelist, artist, painter and educationalist. Tagore won the Nobel Prize for Literature in 1913 for his collection Gitanjali. He is the first Indian and first non-European to receive the Nobel Prize for Literature. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Rabindranath Tagore expressed concerns about the emergence of aggressive and narrow forms of nationalism, both in India and globally, fearing that such ideologies could lead to conflicts and a suppression of individual freedom. In his famous work “Nationalism,” Tagore criticized the negative aspects of narrow nationalism while advocating for a more inclusive and universalistic approach to nationalism that promotes mutual understanding and cultural diversity. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Rabindranath Tagore also known by his pen name Bhanu Singha Thakur (Bhonita). The Bard of Bengal was the title given to him. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. He received the British Knighthood in 1915. However, he renounced it in protest against the Jallianwalla Bagh massacre in 1919. He is credited for giving the Mahatma title to Mahatma Gandhi. In 1901, he started a model school after the ancient hermitage schools of India named Santiniketan (the abode of peace). Santiniketan engaged many scholars from across the world, including his English friends, Oxford professor E J Thompson, missionary C F Andrews and Lord Elmhirst. In 1921, a ‘world university’ was established at Santiniketan, later recognised as ‘Visva Bharati’. Important Literary Contributions:- Poems: Manasi (The Ideal One,1890) Sonar Tari (The Golden Boat,1894) Gitanjali (Song Offerings,1910) Gitimalya (Wreath of Songs,1914) Balaka (The Flight of Cranes,1916) Plays: Raja (1910) [The King of the Dark Chamber]. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. Dakghar (The Post Office,1912) Achalayatan (The Immovable,1912) Muktadhara (The Waterfall,1922) Raktakaravi (Red Oleanders,1926) Short stories and Novels: Gora (1910), Ghare-Baire (The Home and the World, 1916) and Yogayog (Crosscurrents, 1929) Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 7. Question

With reference to Rabindranath Tagore, consider the following statements:

• He is the first non-European to receive the Nobel Prize for Literature.

• He expressed concerns about the emergence of aggressive forms of nationalism.

• The Bard of Bengal was the pen name of Tagore.

• Gitanjali, Gitimalya and the King of the Dark Chamber were among some of the greatest poems written by Tagore.

How many of the above given statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Explanation:

• Rabindranath Tagore, born on May 7, 1861, in Kolkata, India. He was born into a distinguished family in Kolkata (formerly Calcutta), West Bengal, India.

• He was the youngest of thirteen children born to Debendranath Tagore and Sarada Devi. Debendranath Tagore was a prominent philosopher, religious leader, and reformer, while Sarada Devi was deeply engaged in cultural and social activities.

• Rabindranath Tagore was called Gurudev, Kabiguru, and Biswakabi affectionately and his songs are popularly known as Rabindranath Tagore penned down the national anthems of India and Bangladesh – the Jana Gana Mana and the Amar Shonar Bangla respectively are from the Rabindrasangeet.

• Rabindranath Tagore was a poet, novelist, artist, painter and educationalist.

• Tagore won the Nobel Prize for Literature in 1913 for his collection Gitanjali. He is the first Indian and first non-European to receive the Nobel Prize for Literature. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Rabindranath Tagore expressed concerns about the emergence of aggressive and narrow forms of nationalism, both in India and globally, fearing that such ideologies could lead to conflicts and a suppression of individual freedom.

• In his famous work “Nationalism,” Tagore criticized the negative aspects of narrow nationalism while advocating for a more inclusive and universalistic approach to nationalism that promotes mutual understanding and cultural diversity. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Rabindranath Tagore also known by his pen name Bhanu Singha Thakur (Bhonita). The Bard of Bengal was the title given to him. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• He received the British Knighthood in 1915. However, he renounced it in protest against the Jallianwalla Bagh massacre in 1919.

• He is credited for giving the Mahatma title to Mahatma Gandhi.

• In 1901, he started a model school after the ancient hermitage schools of India named Santiniketan (the abode of peace).

• Santiniketan engaged many scholars from across the world, including his English friends, Oxford professor E J Thompson, missionary C F Andrews and Lord Elmhirst.

• In 1921, a ‘world university’ was established at Santiniketan, later recognised as ‘Visva Bharati’.

Important Literary Contributions:-

Poems:

• Manasi (The Ideal One,1890)

• Sonar Tari (The Golden Boat,1894)

Gitanjali (Song Offerings,1910)

Gitimalya (Wreath of Songs,1914)

• Balaka (The Flight of Cranes,1916)

Plays:

Raja (1910) [The King of the Dark Chamber]. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

• Dakghar (The Post Office,1912)

• Achalayatan (The Immovable,1912)

• Muktadhara (The Waterfall,1922)

• Raktakaravi (Red Oleanders,1926)

Short stories and Novels:

• Gora (1910),

• Ghare-Baire (The Home and the World, 1916) and

• Yogayog (Crosscurrents, 1929)

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• Rabindranath Tagore, born on May 7, 1861, in Kolkata, India. He was born into a distinguished family in Kolkata (formerly Calcutta), West Bengal, India.

• He was the youngest of thirteen children born to Debendranath Tagore and Sarada Devi. Debendranath Tagore was a prominent philosopher, religious leader, and reformer, while Sarada Devi was deeply engaged in cultural and social activities.

• Rabindranath Tagore was called Gurudev, Kabiguru, and Biswakabi affectionately and his songs are popularly known as Rabindranath Tagore penned down the national anthems of India and Bangladesh – the Jana Gana Mana and the Amar Shonar Bangla respectively are from the Rabindrasangeet.

• Rabindranath Tagore was a poet, novelist, artist, painter and educationalist.

• Tagore won the Nobel Prize for Literature in 1913 for his collection Gitanjali. He is the first Indian and first non-European to receive the Nobel Prize for Literature. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Rabindranath Tagore expressed concerns about the emergence of aggressive and narrow forms of nationalism, both in India and globally, fearing that such ideologies could lead to conflicts and a suppression of individual freedom.

• In his famous work “Nationalism,” Tagore criticized the negative aspects of narrow nationalism while advocating for a more inclusive and universalistic approach to nationalism that promotes mutual understanding and cultural diversity. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Rabindranath Tagore also known by his pen name Bhanu Singha Thakur (Bhonita). The Bard of Bengal was the title given to him. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• He received the British Knighthood in 1915. However, he renounced it in protest against the Jallianwalla Bagh massacre in 1919.

• He is credited for giving the Mahatma title to Mahatma Gandhi.

• In 1901, he started a model school after the ancient hermitage schools of India named Santiniketan (the abode of peace).

• Santiniketan engaged many scholars from across the world, including his English friends, Oxford professor E J Thompson, missionary C F Andrews and Lord Elmhirst.

• In 1921, a ‘world university’ was established at Santiniketan, later recognised as ‘Visva Bharati’.

Important Literary Contributions:-

Poems:

• Manasi (The Ideal One,1890)

• Sonar Tari (The Golden Boat,1894)

Gitanjali (Song Offerings,1910)

Gitimalya (Wreath of Songs,1914)

• Balaka (The Flight of Cranes,1916)

Plays:

Raja (1910) [The King of the Dark Chamber]. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

• Dakghar (The Post Office,1912)

• Achalayatan (The Immovable,1912)

• Muktadhara (The Waterfall,1922)

• Raktakaravi (Red Oleanders,1926)

Short stories and Novels:

• Gora (1910),

• Ghare-Baire (The Home and the World, 1916) and

• Yogayog (Crosscurrents, 1929)

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Which organization did Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya establish to oppose the damming of the Ganga? a) Ganga Mahasabha b) Ganga Bachao Samiti c) Ganga Seva Samiti d) Ganga Raksha Committee Correct Answer: a Explanation: Malaviya was born in Prayagraj, India on 25 December 1861, to Pandit Brijnath and Moona Devi. Since they originally hailed from Malwa (Ujjain) in the present-day state of Madhya Pradesh, they came to be known as ‘Malaviya’. He was also called He played a key role in the Indian independence struggle against British rule and founded the Banaras Hindu University (BHU). Gandhi ji gave him the title of “Mahamana”, meaning the great soul. In 1916, he established the Banaras Hindu University (BHU). He was also one of the founders of Scout and Guide in India. He was conferred with the Bharat Ratna, the nation’s highest civilian honor, posthumously in 2014. Malaviya helped establish the Hindu Mahasabha in 1906, which brought diverse local Hindu nationalist movements together. Malaviya became the President of the Indian National Congress in 1909, a position he held until 1918. He was a moderate leader and opposed separate electorates for Muslims under the Lucknow Pact of 1916. Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya established the Ganga Mahasabha to oppose the damming of the Ganga. This organization was dedicated to preserving the natural flow of the river and preventing any actions that would disrupt its ecological balance. The establishment of the Ganga Mahasabha reflects Malaviya’s deep reverence for the Ganga River and his commitment to environmental conservation. Through this organization, Malaviya aimed to raise awareness about the importance of protecting the Ganga and mobilize support for its preservation among the masses. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Malaviya was born in Prayagraj, India on 25 December 1861, to Pandit Brijnath and Moona Devi. Since they originally hailed from Malwa (Ujjain) in the present-day state of Madhya Pradesh, they came to be known as ‘Malaviya’. He was also called He played a key role in the Indian independence struggle against British rule and founded the Banaras Hindu University (BHU). Gandhi ji gave him the title of “Mahamana”, meaning the great soul. In 1916, he established the Banaras Hindu University (BHU). He was also one of the founders of Scout and Guide in India. He was conferred with the Bharat Ratna, the nation’s highest civilian honor, posthumously in 2014. Malaviya helped establish the Hindu Mahasabha in 1906, which brought diverse local Hindu nationalist movements together. Malaviya became the President of the Indian National Congress in 1909, a position he held until 1918. He was a moderate leader and opposed separate electorates for Muslims under the Lucknow Pact of 1916. Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya established the Ganga Mahasabha to oppose the damming of the Ganga. This organization was dedicated to preserving the natural flow of the river and preventing any actions that would disrupt its ecological balance. The establishment of the Ganga Mahasabha reflects Malaviya’s deep reverence for the Ganga River and his commitment to environmental conservation. Through this organization, Malaviya aimed to raise awareness about the importance of protecting the Ganga and mobilize support for its preservation among the masses. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 8. Question

Which organization did Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya establish to oppose the damming of the Ganga?

• a) Ganga Mahasabha

• b) Ganga Bachao Samiti

• c) Ganga Seva Samiti

• d) Ganga Raksha Committee

Explanation:

• Malaviya was born in Prayagraj, India on 25 December 1861, to Pandit Brijnath and Moona Devi. Since they originally hailed from Malwa (Ujjain) in the present-day state of Madhya Pradesh, they came to be known as ‘Malaviya’.

• He was also called He played a key role in the Indian independence struggle against British rule and founded the Banaras Hindu University (BHU).

• Gandhi ji gave him the title of “Mahamana”, meaning the great soul.

• In 1916, he established the Banaras Hindu University (BHU). He was also one of the founders of Scout and Guide in India.

• He was conferred with the Bharat Ratna, the nation’s highest civilian honor, posthumously in 2014.

• Malaviya helped establish the Hindu Mahasabha in 1906, which brought diverse local Hindu nationalist movements together.

• Malaviya became the President of the Indian National Congress in 1909, a position he held until 1918. He was a moderate leader and opposed separate electorates for Muslims under the Lucknow Pact of 1916.

• Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya established the Ganga Mahasabha to oppose the damming of the Ganga. This organization was dedicated to preserving the natural flow of the river and preventing any actions that would disrupt its ecological balance. The establishment of the Ganga Mahasabha reflects Malaviya’s deep reverence for the Ganga River and his commitment to environmental conservation. Through this organization, Malaviya aimed to raise awareness about the importance of protecting the Ganga and mobilize support for its preservation among the masses.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• Malaviya was born in Prayagraj, India on 25 December 1861, to Pandit Brijnath and Moona Devi. Since they originally hailed from Malwa (Ujjain) in the present-day state of Madhya Pradesh, they came to be known as ‘Malaviya’.

• He was also called He played a key role in the Indian independence struggle against British rule and founded the Banaras Hindu University (BHU).

• Gandhi ji gave him the title of “Mahamana”, meaning the great soul.

• In 1916, he established the Banaras Hindu University (BHU). He was also one of the founders of Scout and Guide in India.

• He was conferred with the Bharat Ratna, the nation’s highest civilian honor, posthumously in 2014.

• Malaviya helped establish the Hindu Mahasabha in 1906, which brought diverse local Hindu nationalist movements together.

• Malaviya became the President of the Indian National Congress in 1909, a position he held until 1918. He was a moderate leader and opposed separate electorates for Muslims under the Lucknow Pact of 1916.

• Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya established the Ganga Mahasabha to oppose the damming of the Ganga. This organization was dedicated to preserving the natural flow of the river and preventing any actions that would disrupt its ecological balance. The establishment of the Ganga Mahasabha reflects Malaviya’s deep reverence for the Ganga River and his commitment to environmental conservation. Through this organization, Malaviya aimed to raise awareness about the importance of protecting the Ganga and mobilize support for its preservation among the masses.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Who among the following built Patit Pavan Mandir to allow entry to all Hindus, including Dalits? a) V.D. Savarkar b) Lala Lajpat Rai c) Mahatma Gandhi d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak Correct Answer: a Explanation: Vinayak Damodar Savarkar wrote the “Essentials of Hindutva” during his incarceration in Ratnagiri jail in 1922. Savarkar, though a self-proclaimed atheist, was a staunch believer in Hindutva and advocated for the unity of all religions to form Akhand Bharat. Savarkar joined Tilak’s Swaraj Party and delivered patriotic speeches against the British Government, leading to the withdrawal of his B.A. degree. Savarkar advocated for the use of Hindi as a national language and fought against untouchability and caste-based discrimination. Savarkar built Patit Pavan Mandir in the Ratnagiri district to allow entry to all Hindus, including Dalits, promoting inclusivity and equality within the Hindu community. According to Savarkar, the rigid caste system “deserves to be thrown into the dustbins of history,” reflecting his stance against the discriminatory social hierarchy prevalent in Indian society. Savarkar advocated for breaking away from caste-based vocational rigidity and encouraged individuals to pursue vocations based on their aptitude and ability, emphasizing meritocracy over hereditary occupation. Savarkar aimed to abolish the taboo on inter-caste dining and promoted inter-caste marriage, highlighting his efforts to challenge social barriers and foster unity among different caste groups. Veer Savarkar aimed to popularize Vedic literature among all sections of society, considering it as civilizational knowledge beneficial for the entire human race and India’s unique contribution to mankind. Savarkar believed in global mobility for Indians to absorb the best from other cultures and spread the essence of Indian culture worldwide, emphasizing the need for cultural exchange and enrichment. Veer Savarkar stressed the importance of developing a scientific temper to propel India forward, advocating for advancements in science, modern thought, and industrialization to ensure prosperity and well-being for all citizens. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Vinayak Damodar Savarkar wrote the “Essentials of Hindutva” during his incarceration in Ratnagiri jail in 1922. Savarkar, though a self-proclaimed atheist, was a staunch believer in Hindutva and advocated for the unity of all religions to form Akhand Bharat. Savarkar joined Tilak’s Swaraj Party and delivered patriotic speeches against the British Government, leading to the withdrawal of his B.A. degree. Savarkar advocated for the use of Hindi as a national language and fought against untouchability and caste-based discrimination. Savarkar built Patit Pavan Mandir in the Ratnagiri district to allow entry to all Hindus, including Dalits, promoting inclusivity and equality within the Hindu community. According to Savarkar, the rigid caste system “deserves to be thrown into the dustbins of history,” reflecting his stance against the discriminatory social hierarchy prevalent in Indian society. Savarkar advocated for breaking away from caste-based vocational rigidity and encouraged individuals to pursue vocations based on their aptitude and ability, emphasizing meritocracy over hereditary occupation. Savarkar aimed to abolish the taboo on inter-caste dining and promoted inter-caste marriage, highlighting his efforts to challenge social barriers and foster unity among different caste groups. Veer Savarkar aimed to popularize Vedic literature among all sections of society, considering it as civilizational knowledge beneficial for the entire human race and India’s unique contribution to mankind. Savarkar believed in global mobility for Indians to absorb the best from other cultures and spread the essence of Indian culture worldwide, emphasizing the need for cultural exchange and enrichment. Veer Savarkar stressed the importance of developing a scientific temper to propel India forward, advocating for advancements in science, modern thought, and industrialization to ensure prosperity and well-being for all citizens. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 9. Question

Who among the following built Patit Pavan Mandir to allow entry to all Hindus, including Dalits?

• a) V.D. Savarkar

• b) Lala Lajpat Rai

• c) Mahatma Gandhi

• d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Explanation:

Vinayak Damodar Savarkar wrote the “Essentials of Hindutva” during his incarceration in Ratnagiri jail in 1922.

• Savarkar, though a self-proclaimed atheist, was a staunch believer in Hindutva and advocated for the unity of all religions to form Akhand Bharat.

• Savarkar joined Tilak’s Swaraj Party and delivered patriotic speeches against the British Government, leading to the withdrawal of his B.A. degree.

• Savarkar advocated for the use of Hindi as a national language and fought against untouchability and caste-based discrimination.

Savarkar built Patit Pavan Mandir in the Ratnagiri district to allow entry to all Hindus, including Dalits, promoting inclusivity and equality within the Hindu community.

• According to Savarkar, the rigid caste system “deserves to be thrown into the dustbins of history,” reflecting his stance against the discriminatory social hierarchy prevalent in Indian society.

• Savarkar advocated for breaking away from caste-based vocational rigidity and encouraged individuals to pursue vocations based on their aptitude and ability, emphasizing meritocracy over hereditary occupation.

• Savarkar aimed to abolish the taboo on inter-caste dining and promoted inter-caste marriage, highlighting his efforts to challenge social barriers and foster unity among different caste groups.

• Veer Savarkar aimed to popularize Vedic literature among all sections of society, considering it as civilizational knowledge beneficial for the entire human race and India’s unique contribution to mankind.

• Savarkar believed in global mobility for Indians to absorb the best from other cultures and spread the essence of Indian culture worldwide, emphasizing the need for cultural exchange and enrichment.

• Veer Savarkar stressed the importance of developing a scientific temper to propel India forward, advocating for advancements in science, modern thought, and industrialization to ensure prosperity and well-being for all citizens.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

Vinayak Damodar Savarkar wrote the “Essentials of Hindutva” during his incarceration in Ratnagiri jail in 1922.

• Savarkar, though a self-proclaimed atheist, was a staunch believer in Hindutva and advocated for the unity of all religions to form Akhand Bharat.

• Savarkar joined Tilak’s Swaraj Party and delivered patriotic speeches against the British Government, leading to the withdrawal of his B.A. degree.

• Savarkar advocated for the use of Hindi as a national language and fought against untouchability and caste-based discrimination.

Savarkar built Patit Pavan Mandir in the Ratnagiri district to allow entry to all Hindus, including Dalits, promoting inclusivity and equality within the Hindu community.

• According to Savarkar, the rigid caste system “deserves to be thrown into the dustbins of history,” reflecting his stance against the discriminatory social hierarchy prevalent in Indian society.

• Savarkar advocated for breaking away from caste-based vocational rigidity and encouraged individuals to pursue vocations based on their aptitude and ability, emphasizing meritocracy over hereditary occupation.

• Savarkar aimed to abolish the taboo on inter-caste dining and promoted inter-caste marriage, highlighting his efforts to challenge social barriers and foster unity among different caste groups.

• Veer Savarkar aimed to popularize Vedic literature among all sections of society, considering it as civilizational knowledge beneficial for the entire human race and India’s unique contribution to mankind.

• Savarkar believed in global mobility for Indians to absorb the best from other cultures and spread the essence of Indian culture worldwide, emphasizing the need for cultural exchange and enrichment.

• Veer Savarkar stressed the importance of developing a scientific temper to propel India forward, advocating for advancements in science, modern thought, and industrialization to ensure prosperity and well-being for all citizens.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Consider the following: Passive Resistance Political murder and assassinations Boycott of foreign goods Use of religion for mobilisation How many of the above were the methods used by extremist leaders during the struggle for independence? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: c Explanation: Ideology and Methods of extremists: Unlike moderates, the extremist leaders neither believed in the goodness of the British rule nor in their sense of justice and fair play Since exploitation of India was the chief motive of the British, the extremists did not expect them to take a sympathetic view of the popular demands of the Indian people. Therefore, it was necessary to use pressure to make them accept the demands, not by petitioning or praying like the moderates, but by openly agitating against them The Extremist programme involved the following activities: ‘Boycott’ of foreign goods and promotion of ‘Swadeshi’ goods to give impetus to the growth of indigenous industry and commerce. Non-cooperation with the bureaucracy; this included ‘boycott’ of governmental activities. Establishment of schools and colleges that gave education in the Indian languages and instil in the students pride for the glorious heritage of India, make the students nationalistic and public spirited in character and knowledgeable, self-reliant and independent in spirit ‘ Passive Resistance’ to British rule by non-payment of revenue and taxes and by organising separate ‘indigenous administrative institutions’ parallel to those of the British at the level of villages, talukas and districts Public meetings and processions emerged as major methods of mass mobilisation. Simultaneously they were forms of popular expression The swadeshi spirit also found expression in the establishment of swadeshi textile mills, soap and match factories, tanneries, banks, insurance companies, shops, etc. These enterprises were based more on patriotic zeal than on business acumen Further, The Extremist leaders disfavoured the use of violence against British rule and did not approve the methods of political murder and assassination used by the Indian However, they did take a sympathetic view of the activities of the revolutionaries. The demonstrations, processions undertaken by the extremists brought about an involvement of the common people in agitations against British rule. They also made use of popular symbols like Shivaji, and religious symbols like God Ganapati and Goddess Kali for mobilising the people. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Ideology and Methods of extremists: Unlike moderates, the extremist leaders neither believed in the goodness of the British rule nor in their sense of justice and fair play Since exploitation of India was the chief motive of the British, the extremists did not expect them to take a sympathetic view of the popular demands of the Indian people. Therefore, it was necessary to use pressure to make them accept the demands, not by petitioning or praying like the moderates, but by openly agitating against them The Extremist programme involved the following activities: ‘Boycott’ of foreign goods and promotion of ‘Swadeshi’ goods to give impetus to the growth of indigenous industry and commerce. Non-cooperation with the bureaucracy; this included ‘boycott’ of governmental activities. Establishment of schools and colleges that gave education in the Indian languages and instil in the students pride for the glorious heritage of India, make the students nationalistic and public spirited in character and knowledgeable, self-reliant and independent in spirit ‘ Passive Resistance’ to British rule by non-payment of revenue and taxes and by organising separate ‘indigenous administrative institutions’ parallel to those of the British at the level of villages, talukas and districts Public meetings and processions emerged as major methods of mass mobilisation. Simultaneously they were forms of popular expression The swadeshi spirit also found expression in the establishment of swadeshi textile mills, soap and match factories, tanneries, banks, insurance companies, shops, etc. These enterprises were based more on patriotic zeal than on business acumen Further, The Extremist leaders disfavoured the use of violence against British rule and did not approve the methods of political murder and assassination used by the Indian However, they did take a sympathetic view of the activities of the revolutionaries. The demonstrations, processions undertaken by the extremists brought about an involvement of the common people in agitations against British rule. They also made use of popular symbols like Shivaji, and religious symbols like God Ganapati and Goddess Kali for mobilising the people. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following:

• Passive Resistance

• Political murder and assassinations

• Boycott of foreign goods

• Use of religion for mobilisation

How many of the above were the methods used by extremist leaders during the struggle for independence?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

Ideology and Methods of extremists:

• Unlike moderates, the extremist leaders neither believed in the goodness of the British rule nor in their sense of justice and fair play

• Since exploitation of India was the chief motive of the British, the extremists did not expect them to take a sympathetic view of the popular demands of the Indian people.

• Therefore, it was necessary to use pressure to make them accept the demands, not by petitioning or praying like the moderates, but by openly agitating against them

• The Extremist programme involved the following activities:

‘Boycott’ of foreign goods and promotion of ‘Swadeshi’ goods to give impetus to the growth of indigenous industry and commerce.

Non-cooperation with the bureaucracy; this included ‘boycott’ of governmental activities.

• Establishment of schools and colleges that gave education in the Indian languages and instil in the students pride for the glorious heritage of India, make the students nationalistic and public spirited in character and knowledgeable, self-reliant and independent in spirit

‘ Passive Resistance’ to British rule by non-payment of revenue and taxes and by organising separate ‘indigenous administrative institutions’ parallel to those of the British at the level of villages, talukas and districts

• Public meetings and processions emerged as major methods of mass mobilisation. Simultaneously they were forms of popular expression

• The swadeshi spirit also found expression in the establishment of swadeshi textile mills, soap and match factories, tanneries, banks, insurance companies, shops, etc. These enterprises were based more on patriotic zeal than on business acumen

• Further, The Extremist leaders disfavoured the use of violence against British rule and did not approve the methods of political murder and assassination used by the Indian However, they did take a sympathetic view of the activities of the revolutionaries.

• The demonstrations, processions undertaken by the extremists brought about an involvement of the common people in agitations against British rule.

They also made use of popular symbols like Shivaji, and religious symbols like God Ganapati and Goddess Kali for mobilising the people.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

Ideology and Methods of extremists:

• Unlike moderates, the extremist leaders neither believed in the goodness of the British rule nor in their sense of justice and fair play

• Since exploitation of India was the chief motive of the British, the extremists did not expect them to take a sympathetic view of the popular demands of the Indian people.

• Therefore, it was necessary to use pressure to make them accept the demands, not by petitioning or praying like the moderates, but by openly agitating against them

• The Extremist programme involved the following activities:

‘Boycott’ of foreign goods and promotion of ‘Swadeshi’ goods to give impetus to the growth of indigenous industry and commerce.

Non-cooperation with the bureaucracy; this included ‘boycott’ of governmental activities.

• Establishment of schools and colleges that gave education in the Indian languages and instil in the students pride for the glorious heritage of India, make the students nationalistic and public spirited in character and knowledgeable, self-reliant and independent in spirit

‘ Passive Resistance’ to British rule by non-payment of revenue and taxes and by organising separate ‘indigenous administrative institutions’ parallel to those of the British at the level of villages, talukas and districts

• Public meetings and processions emerged as major methods of mass mobilisation. Simultaneously they were forms of popular expression

• The swadeshi spirit also found expression in the establishment of swadeshi textile mills, soap and match factories, tanneries, banks, insurance companies, shops, etc. These enterprises were based more on patriotic zeal than on business acumen

• Further, The Extremist leaders disfavoured the use of violence against British rule and did not approve the methods of political murder and assassination used by the Indian However, they did take a sympathetic view of the activities of the revolutionaries.

• The demonstrations, processions undertaken by the extremists brought about an involvement of the common people in agitations against British rule.

They also made use of popular symbols like Shivaji, and religious symbols like God Ganapati and Goddess Kali for mobilising the people.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. For a commercial bank, credit-deposit ratio is calculated by dividing the total loans extended by the bank by its total deposits. A higher ratio indicates that more deposits are being held in reserve or invested in other assets. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: a) Justification: The credit-deposit ratio is a financial metric used to assess the relationship between a bank’s lending activities (credit) and its deposit base. It is calculated by dividing the total loans extended by the bank by its total deposits. The ratio indicates how much of a bank’s deposits are being used to provide loans. A higher credit-deposit ratio suggests that a larger portion of the deposits is being lent out as credit, while a lower ratio indicates that more deposits are being held in reserve or invested in other assets. It is an important measure of a bank’s liquidity and lending capacity. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/10/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-10-april-2024/ Incorrect Solution: a) Justification: The credit-deposit ratio is a financial metric used to assess the relationship between a bank’s lending activities (credit) and its deposit base. It is calculated by dividing the total loans extended by the bank by its total deposits. The ratio indicates how much of a bank’s deposits are being used to provide loans. A higher credit-deposit ratio suggests that a larger portion of the deposits is being lent out as credit, while a lower ratio indicates that more deposits are being held in reserve or invested in other assets. It is an important measure of a bank’s liquidity and lending capacity. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/10/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-10-april-2024/

#### 11. Question

Consider the following statements.

• For a commercial bank, credit-deposit ratio is calculated by dividing the total loans extended by the bank by its total deposits.

• A higher ratio indicates that more deposits are being held in reserve or invested in other assets.

Which of the above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a)

Justification: The credit-deposit ratio is a financial metric used to assess the relationship between a bank’s lending activities (credit) and its deposit base.

It is calculated by dividing the total loans extended by the bank by its total deposits. The ratio indicates how much of a bank’s deposits are being used to provide loans.

A higher credit-deposit ratio suggests that a larger portion of the deposits is being lent out as credit, while a lower ratio indicates that more deposits are being held in reserve or invested in other assets.

It is an important measure of a bank’s liquidity and lending capacity.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/10/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-10-april-2024/

Solution: a)

Justification: The credit-deposit ratio is a financial metric used to assess the relationship between a bank’s lending activities (credit) and its deposit base.

It is calculated by dividing the total loans extended by the bank by its total deposits. The ratio indicates how much of a bank’s deposits are being used to provide loans.

A higher credit-deposit ratio suggests that a larger portion of the deposits is being lent out as credit, while a lower ratio indicates that more deposits are being held in reserve or invested in other assets.

It is an important measure of a bank’s liquidity and lending capacity.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/10/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-10-april-2024/

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following about the Information Technology (Guidelines for Intermediaries and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021. These rules were framed in the exercise of powers under the Information Technology Act, 2000. It mandates a grievance redressal system for over the top (OTT) and digital portals in the country. It requires a multi-layered regulation system including a body headed by a current judge of the Supreme Court, and dispenses away with all self-regulating bodies. How many of the above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution: b) Justification: The Centre framed the Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules 2021, in the exercise of powers under section 87 (2) of the Information Technology Act, 2000 and in supersession of the earlier Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines) Rules 2011, which will come into effect from May 26. Overview of the new rules: It mandates a grievance redressal system for over the top (OTT) and digital portals in the country. This is necessary for the users of social media to raise their grievance against the misuse of social media. Significant social media firms have to appoint a chief compliance officer and have a nodal contact person who can be in touch with law enforcement agencies 24/7. A grievance officer: Social media platforms will also have to name a grievance officer who shall register the grievance within 24 hours and dispose of it in 15 days. Removal of content: If there are complaints against the dignity of users, particularly women – about exposed private parts of individuals or nudity or sexual act or impersonation etc – social media platforms will be required to remove that within 24 hours after a complaint is made. A monthly report: They also will have to publish a monthly report about the number of complaints received and the status of redressal. There will be three levels of regulation for news publishers — self-regulation, a self-regulatory body, headed by a retired judge or an eminent person, and oversight from the Information and Broadcasting Ministry, including codes of practices and a grievance committee. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/15/daily-current-affairs-summary/ Incorrect Solution: b) Justification: The Centre framed the Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules 2021, in the exercise of powers under section 87 (2) of the Information Technology Act, 2000 and in supersession of the earlier Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines) Rules 2011, which will come into effect from May 26. Overview of the new rules: It mandates a grievance redressal system for over the top (OTT) and digital portals in the country. This is necessary for the users of social media to raise their grievance against the misuse of social media. Significant social media firms have to appoint a chief compliance officer and have a nodal contact person who can be in touch with law enforcement agencies 24/7. A grievance officer: Social media platforms will also have to name a grievance officer who shall register the grievance within 24 hours and dispose of it in 15 days. Removal of content: If there are complaints against the dignity of users, particularly women – about exposed private parts of individuals or nudity or sexual act or impersonation etc – social media platforms will be required to remove that within 24 hours after a complaint is made. A monthly report: They also will have to publish a monthly report about the number of complaints received and the status of redressal. There will be three levels of regulation for news publishers — self-regulation, a self-regulatory body, headed by a retired judge or an eminent person, and oversight from the Information and Broadcasting Ministry, including codes of practices and a grievance committee. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/15/daily-current-affairs-summary/

#### 12. Question

Consider the following about the Information Technology (Guidelines for Intermediaries and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021.

• These rules were framed in the exercise of powers under the Information Technology Act, 2000.

• It mandates a grievance redressal system for over the top (OTT) and digital portals in the country.

• It requires a multi-layered regulation system including a body headed by a current judge of the Supreme Court, and dispenses away with all self-regulating bodies.

How many of the above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Solution: b)

Justification: The Centre framed the Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules 2021, in the exercise of powers under section 87 (2) of the Information Technology Act, 2000 and in supersession of the earlier Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines) Rules 2011, which will come into effect from May 26.

Overview of the new rules:

It mandates a grievance redressal system for over the top (OTT) and digital portals in the country. This is necessary for the users of social media to raise their grievance against the misuse of social media.

Significant social media firms have to appoint a chief compliance officer and have a nodal contact person who can be in touch with law enforcement agencies 24/7.

A grievance officer: Social media platforms will also have to name a grievance officer who shall register the grievance within 24 hours and dispose of it in 15 days.

Removal of content: If there are complaints against the dignity of users, particularly women – about exposed private parts of individuals or nudity or sexual act or impersonation etc – social media platforms will be required to remove that within 24 hours after a complaint is made.

A monthly report: They also will have to publish a monthly report about the number of complaints received and the status of redressal.

There will be three levels of regulation for news publishers — self-regulation, a self-regulatory body, headed by a retired judge or an eminent person, and oversight from the Information and Broadcasting Ministry, including codes of practices and a grievance committee.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/15/daily-current-affairs-summary/

Solution: b)

Justification: The Centre framed the Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules 2021, in the exercise of powers under section 87 (2) of the Information Technology Act, 2000 and in supersession of the earlier Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines) Rules 2011, which will come into effect from May 26.

Overview of the new rules:

It mandates a grievance redressal system for over the top (OTT) and digital portals in the country. This is necessary for the users of social media to raise their grievance against the misuse of social media.

Significant social media firms have to appoint a chief compliance officer and have a nodal contact person who can be in touch with law enforcement agencies 24/7.

A grievance officer: Social media platforms will also have to name a grievance officer who shall register the grievance within 24 hours and dispose of it in 15 days.

Removal of content: If there are complaints against the dignity of users, particularly women – about exposed private parts of individuals or nudity or sexual act or impersonation etc – social media platforms will be required to remove that within 24 hours after a complaint is made.

A monthly report: They also will have to publish a monthly report about the number of complaints received and the status of redressal.

There will be three levels of regulation for news publishers — self-regulation, a self-regulatory body, headed by a retired judge or an eminent person, and oversight from the Information and Broadcasting Ministry, including codes of practices and a grievance committee.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/15/daily-current-affairs-summary/

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points How can green hydrogen be used to attain a more sustainable economy? Green hydrogen-powered farm machinery, such as tractors and harvesters, can reduce greenhouse gas emissions in agriculture. Green hydrogen can power desalination plants, converting saltwater into freshwater for sustainable water management. Using green hydrogen to power fuel cells increases energy efficiency compared to traditional combustion engines, reducing overall energy consumption. How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None of the above Correct Solution: c) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/08/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-8-april-2024/ Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/08/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-8-april-2024/

#### 13. Question

How can green hydrogen be used to attain a more sustainable economy?

• Green hydrogen-powered farm machinery, such as tractors and harvesters, can reduce greenhouse gas emissions in agriculture.

• Green hydrogen can power desalination plants, converting saltwater into freshwater for sustainable water management.

• Using green hydrogen to power fuel cells increases energy efficiency compared to traditional combustion engines, reducing overall energy consumption.

How many of the above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

• d) None of the above

Solution: c)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/08/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-8-april-2024/

Solution: c)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/08/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-8-april-2024/

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points The Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP) is the most inclusive intergovernmental platform in the Asia-Pacific region. It deals with which of the following areas for social and economic development? Disaster risk reduction Transport development Poverty reduction Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1 and 2 only Correct Solution: a) Justification: The Commission promotes cooperation among its 53 member States and 9 associate members in pursuit of solutions to sustainable development challenges. ESCAP is one of the five regional commissions of the United Nations. The ESCAP secretariat supports inclusive, resilient and sustainable development in the region by generating action-oriented knowledge, and by providing technical assistance and capacity-building services in support of national development objectives, regional agreements and the implementation of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development. ESCAP also provides support to partners at the national level. ESCAP’s national offer is rooted in and linked with the implementation of global and regional intergovernmental frameworks, agreements, and other instruments. The outline of the ESCAP’s Offer of Support at the national level is available here. ESCAP pursues this objective by carrying out work, in close cooperation with other United Nations entities and intergovernmental organizations in the region, in the following areas: Q Source: https://www.unescap.org/our-work https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/08/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-8-april-2024/ Incorrect Solution: a) Justification: The Commission promotes cooperation among its 53 member States and 9 associate members in pursuit of solutions to sustainable development challenges. ESCAP is one of the five regional commissions of the United Nations. The ESCAP secretariat supports inclusive, resilient and sustainable development in the region by generating action-oriented knowledge, and by providing technical assistance and capacity-building services in support of national development objectives, regional agreements and the implementation of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development. ESCAP also provides support to partners at the national level. ESCAP’s national offer is rooted in and linked with the implementation of global and regional intergovernmental frameworks, agreements, and other instruments. The outline of the ESCAP’s Offer of Support at the national level is available here. ESCAP pursues this objective by carrying out work, in close cooperation with other United Nations entities and intergovernmental organizations in the region, in the following areas: Q Source: https://www.unescap.org/our-work https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/08/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-8-april-2024/

#### 14. Question

The Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP) is the most inclusive intergovernmental platform in the Asia-Pacific region. It deals with which of the following areas for social and economic development?

• Disaster risk reduction

• Transport development

• Poverty reduction

Which of the above is/are correct?

• a) 1, 2 and 3

• c) 1 and 3 only

• d) 1 and 2 only

Solution: a)

Justification: The Commission promotes cooperation among its 53 member States and 9 associate members in pursuit of solutions to sustainable development challenges. ESCAP is one of the five regional commissions of the United Nations.

The ESCAP secretariat supports inclusive, resilient and sustainable development in the region by generating action-oriented knowledge, and by providing technical assistance and capacity-building services in support of national development objectives, regional agreements and the implementation of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development. ESCAP also provides support to partners at the national level. ESCAP’s national offer is rooted in and linked with the implementation of global and regional intergovernmental frameworks, agreements, and other instruments. The outline of the ESCAP’s Offer of Support at the national level is available here.

ESCAP pursues this objective by carrying out work, in close cooperation with other United Nations entities and intergovernmental organizations in the region, in the following areas:

Q Source: https://www.unescap.org/our-work

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/08/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-8-april-2024/

Solution: a)

Justification: The Commission promotes cooperation among its 53 member States and 9 associate members in pursuit of solutions to sustainable development challenges. ESCAP is one of the five regional commissions of the United Nations.

The ESCAP secretariat supports inclusive, resilient and sustainable development in the region by generating action-oriented knowledge, and by providing technical assistance and capacity-building services in support of national development objectives, regional agreements and the implementation of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development. ESCAP also provides support to partners at the national level. ESCAP’s national offer is rooted in and linked with the implementation of global and regional intergovernmental frameworks, agreements, and other instruments. The outline of the ESCAP’s Offer of Support at the national level is available here.

ESCAP pursues this objective by carrying out work, in close cooperation with other United Nations entities and intergovernmental organizations in the region, in the following areas:

Q Source: https://www.unescap.org/our-work

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/08/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-8-april-2024/

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points The Sea of Azov, sometimes seen in news, is bordered by Romania Hungary Slovakia How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None of the above Correct Solution: d) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/10/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-10-april-2024/ Incorrect Solution: d) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/10/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-10-april-2024/

#### 15. Question

The Sea of Azov, sometimes seen in news, is bordered by

How many of the above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

• d) None of the above

Solution: d)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/10/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-10-april-2024/

Solution: d)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/10/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-10-april-2024/

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements associated with the phenomenon of ‘virgin birth’ in crocodiles, also known as facultative parthenogenesis: 1) The female’s egg cell developing into a baby without being fertilized by a male’s sperm cell. 2) The phenomenon unique to crocodiles only. 3) The scientists have reported this phenomenon from ancient fossils of crocodiles. How many of the statements given above are correct? a) Only 1 b) Only 1 and 2 c) Only 1, 2 and 3 d) Only 2 and 3 Correct Answer: A The phenomenon of ‘virgin birth’ in crocodiles, known as facultative parthenogenesis, involves a female’s egg cell developing into a baby without being fertilized by a male’s sperm cell. This phenomenon has also been documented in other species of fish, birds, lizards, and snakes. The scientists said this is the first-known example in a crocodile. Parthenogenesis Animals such as bees, wasps, ants have no sex chromosomes. These organisms reproduce by parthenogenesis. A few plants, reptiles and fish are also capable of reproducing in this manner. A few organisms such as crayfish, snakes, komodo dragons and sharks can reproduce sexually as well as by parthenogenesis. This is known as facultative parthenogenesis. There are two types of parthenogenesis: Natural Parthenogenesis Artificial Parthenogenesis Natural Parthenogenesis In certain animals, parthenogenesis occurs naturally in their life cycles. This is known as natural parthenogenesis. Artificial Parthenogenesis The fertilised eggs might sometimes develop parthenogenetically by various chemical and physical means. This is known as artificial parthenogenesis. Incorrect Answer: A The phenomenon of ‘virgin birth’ in crocodiles, known as facultative parthenogenesis, involves a female’s egg cell developing into a baby without being fertilized by a male’s sperm cell. This phenomenon has also been documented in other species of fish, birds, lizards, and snakes. The scientists said this is the first-known example in a crocodile. Parthenogenesis Animals such as bees, wasps, ants have no sex chromosomes. These organisms reproduce by parthenogenesis. A few plants, reptiles and fish are also capable of reproducing in this manner. A few organisms such as crayfish, snakes, komodo dragons and sharks can reproduce sexually as well as by parthenogenesis. This is known as facultative parthenogenesis. There are two types of parthenogenesis: Natural Parthenogenesis Artificial Parthenogenesis Natural Parthenogenesis In certain animals, parthenogenesis occurs naturally in their life cycles. This is known as natural parthenogenesis. Artificial Parthenogenesis The fertilised eggs might sometimes develop parthenogenetically by various chemical and physical means. This is known as artificial parthenogenesis.

#### 16. Question

Consider the following statements associated with the phenomenon of ‘virgin birth’ in crocodiles, also known as facultative parthenogenesis:

  1. 1.The female’s egg cell developing into a baby without being fertilized by a male’s sperm cell.
  1. 1.The phenomenon unique to crocodiles only.
  1. 1.The scientists have reported this phenomenon from ancient fossils of crocodiles.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• b) Only 1 and 2

• c) Only 1, 2 and 3

• d) Only 2 and 3

The phenomenon of ‘virgin birth’ in crocodiles, known as facultative parthenogenesis, involves a female’s egg cell developing into a baby without being fertilized by a male’s sperm cell.

This phenomenon has also been documented in other species of fish, birds, lizards, and snakes. The scientists said this is the first-known example in a crocodile.

Parthenogenesis

Animals such as bees, wasps, ants have no sex chromosomes. These organisms reproduce by parthenogenesis. A few plants, reptiles and fish are also capable of reproducing in this manner.

A few organisms such as crayfish, snakes, komodo dragons and sharks can reproduce sexually as well as by parthenogenesis. This is known as facultative parthenogenesis.

There are two types of parthenogenesis:

• Natural Parthenogenesis

• Artificial Parthenogenesis

Natural Parthenogenesis

In certain animals, parthenogenesis occurs naturally in their life cycles. This is known as natural parthenogenesis.

Artificial Parthenogenesis

The fertilised eggs might sometimes develop parthenogenetically by various chemical and physical means. This is known as artificial parthenogenesis.

The phenomenon of ‘virgin birth’ in crocodiles, known as facultative parthenogenesis, involves a female’s egg cell developing into a baby without being fertilized by a male’s sperm cell.

This phenomenon has also been documented in other species of fish, birds, lizards, and snakes. The scientists said this is the first-known example in a crocodile.

Parthenogenesis

Animals such as bees, wasps, ants have no sex chromosomes. These organisms reproduce by parthenogenesis. A few plants, reptiles and fish are also capable of reproducing in this manner.

A few organisms such as crayfish, snakes, komodo dragons and sharks can reproduce sexually as well as by parthenogenesis. This is known as facultative parthenogenesis.

There are two types of parthenogenesis:

• Natural Parthenogenesis

• Artificial Parthenogenesis

Natural Parthenogenesis

In certain animals, parthenogenesis occurs naturally in their life cycles. This is known as natural parthenogenesis.

Artificial Parthenogenesis

The fertilised eggs might sometimes develop parthenogenetically by various chemical and physical means. This is known as artificial parthenogenesis.

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Which of the following is *NOT* a climate tipping point? a) Frequent droughts in Amazon Rainforest b) Large scale death of Coral Reefs c) Increasing La-Nina Effect d) Thawing Permafrost Correct Answer: C A study suggests that climate change could push up to 30% of species over tipping points as their geographic ranges experience unforeseen temperatures. According to IPCC, tipping points are ‘critical thresholds in a system that, when exceeded, can lead to a significant change in the state of the system, often with an understanding that the change is irreversible.’ In the early 2000s, there was a general consensus among scientists that most tipping points could be reached in the event of a 4C increase in global temperatures. However, more recent assessments found that exceeding 1.5C of global warming risks crossing several of these thresholds. Incorrect Answer: C A study suggests that climate change could push up to 30% of species over tipping points as their geographic ranges experience unforeseen temperatures. According to IPCC, tipping points are ‘critical thresholds in a system that, when exceeded, can lead to a significant change in the state of the system, often with an understanding that the change is irreversible.’ In the early 2000s, there was a general consensus among scientists that most tipping points could be reached in the event of a 4C increase in global temperatures. However, more recent assessments found that exceeding 1.5C of global warming risks crossing several of these thresholds.

#### 17. Question

Which of the following is *NOT* a climate tipping point?

• a) Frequent droughts in Amazon Rainforest

• b) Large scale death of Coral Reefs

• c) Increasing La-Nina Effect

• d) Thawing Permafrost

A study suggests that climate change could push up to 30% of species over tipping points as their geographic ranges experience unforeseen temperatures.

According to IPCC, tipping points are ‘critical thresholds in a system that, when exceeded, can lead to a significant change in the state of the system, often with an understanding that the change is irreversible.’

• In the early 2000s, there was a general consensus among scientists that most tipping points could be reached in the event of a 4C increase in global temperatures.

• However, more recent assessments found that exceeding 1.5C of global warming risks crossing several of these thresholds.

A study suggests that climate change could push up to 30% of species over tipping points as their geographic ranges experience unforeseen temperatures.

According to IPCC, tipping points are ‘critical thresholds in a system that, when exceeded, can lead to a significant change in the state of the system, often with an understanding that the change is irreversible.’

• In the early 2000s, there was a general consensus among scientists that most tipping points could be reached in the event of a 4C increase in global temperatures.

• However, more recent assessments found that exceeding 1.5C of global warming risks crossing several of these thresholds.

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the “Millets and Other Ancient Grains International ReSearcH Initiative (MAHARISHI)” Initiative: MAHARISHI initiative was launched in the meeting of agricultural chief scientists (MACS) in 2023. Its secretariat will be housed at Indian Institute of Millets Research (IIMR), Bengaluru. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A MACS 2023 unanimously agreed to launch a Millet Initiative – MAHARISHI which was proposed by India for research in the field of millets. The meeting of agricultural chief scientists (MACS) of G20 nations in 2023 was held on ‘Sustainable Agriculture and Food System for Healthy People and Planet’ in Varanasi, India. It was focused on innovations and technological interventions for agri-food systems transformation, biofortification in food crops for enhancing nutritional value among others. Its secretariat will be housed at Indian Institute of Millets Research (IIMR), Hyderabad with technical support from ICRISAT, One CGIAR Centres and other international organisations, Therefore option A is the correct answer. Incorrect Solution: A MACS 2023 unanimously agreed to launch a Millet Initiative – MAHARISHI which was proposed by India for research in the field of millets. The meeting of agricultural chief scientists (MACS) of G20 nations in 2023 was held on ‘Sustainable Agriculture and Food System for Healthy People and Planet’ in Varanasi, India. It was focused on innovations and technological interventions for agri-food systems transformation, biofortification in food crops for enhancing nutritional value among others. Its secretariat will be housed at Indian Institute of Millets Research (IIMR), Hyderabad with technical support from ICRISAT, One CGIAR Centres and other international organisations, Therefore option A is the correct answer.

#### 18. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the “Millets and Other Ancient Grains International ReSearcH Initiative (MAHARISHI)” Initiative:

• MAHARISHI initiative was launched in the meeting of agricultural chief scientists (MACS) in 2023.

• Its secretariat will be housed at Indian Institute of Millets Research (IIMR), Bengaluru.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

MACS 2023 unanimously agreed to launch a Millet Initiative – MAHARISHI which was proposed by India for research in the field of millets.

The meeting of agricultural chief scientists (MACS) of G20 nations in 2023 was held on ‘Sustainable Agriculture and Food System for Healthy People and Planet’ in Varanasi, India.

It was focused on innovations and technological interventions for agri-food systems transformation, biofortification in food crops for enhancing nutritional value among others.

Its secretariat will be housed at Indian Institute of Millets Research (IIMR), Hyderabad with technical support from ICRISAT, One CGIAR Centres and other international organisations,

Therefore option A is the correct answer.

Solution: A

MACS 2023 unanimously agreed to launch a Millet Initiative – MAHARISHI which was proposed by India for research in the field of millets.

The meeting of agricultural chief scientists (MACS) of G20 nations in 2023 was held on ‘Sustainable Agriculture and Food System for Healthy People and Planet’ in Varanasi, India.

It was focused on innovations and technological interventions for agri-food systems transformation, biofortification in food crops for enhancing nutritional value among others.

Its secretariat will be housed at Indian Institute of Millets Research (IIMR), Hyderabad with technical support from ICRISAT, One CGIAR Centres and other international organisations,

Therefore option A is the correct answer.

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points With reference to National Electricity Plan (NEP) 2022-32, consider the following statements: The average emission factor is expected to increase by the end of 2031-32. The share of non-fossil-based capacity is likely to increase by the end of 2031-32 Select the correct answer from the code given below: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: B Statement 1 is incorrect. As per the National Electricity Plan (NEP) 2022-32, the average emission factor is expected to reduce by the end of 2031-32. Statement 2 is correct. As per the National Electricity Plan (NEP) 2022-32, the share of non-fossil-based capacity is likely to increase by 68.4% by the end of 2031-32. The Central Electricity Authority (CEA) has notified the National Electricity Plan (NEP) for the period of 2022-32. The NEP: The CEA (Ministry of Power, GoI) must create a NEP in line with the National Electricity Policy, according to the Electricity Act 2003, to – Create short-term (every 5-year) and perspective plans (15-year) Assesses India’s current electricity needs, projected growth, power sources, and challenges Coordinate the efforts of different planning agencies to ensure that resources are used optimally Support the needs of the country’s economy. The 1st National Electricity Plan was published in 2007, the 2nd in 2013, and the third (2018) includes the detailed Plan for 2017–22 and the perspective plan for 2022–27. Key takeaways from the NEP 2022-32: Renewable energy target: While India has committed to half its installed electricity being sourced from renewable sources by 2030, this target may be achieved by 2026-27. The share of non-fossil-based capacity: It is likely to increase to 4% by 2026-27, and 68.4% by 2031-32 from around 42.5% as of April 2023. Ambitious but possible targets: These targets are premised on significant support by the government to industry. Incorrect Answer: B Statement 1 is incorrect. As per the National Electricity Plan (NEP) 2022-32, the average emission factor is expected to reduce by the end of 2031-32. Statement 2 is correct. As per the National Electricity Plan (NEP) 2022-32, the share of non-fossil-based capacity is likely to increase by 68.4% by the end of 2031-32. The Central Electricity Authority (CEA) has notified the National Electricity Plan (NEP) for the period of 2022-32. The NEP: The CEA (Ministry of Power, GoI) must create a NEP in line with the National Electricity Policy, according to the Electricity Act 2003, to – Create short-term (every 5-year) and perspective plans (15-year) Assesses India’s current electricity needs, projected growth, power sources, and challenges Coordinate the efforts of different planning agencies to ensure that resources are used optimally Support the needs of the country’s economy. The 1st National Electricity Plan was published in 2007, the 2nd in 2013, and the third (2018) includes the detailed Plan for 2017–22 and the perspective plan for 2022–27. Key takeaways from the NEP 2022-32: Renewable energy target: While India has committed to half its installed electricity being sourced from renewable sources by 2030, this target may be achieved by 2026-27. The share of non-fossil-based capacity: It is likely to increase to 4% by 2026-27, and 68.4% by 2031-32 from around 42.5% as of April 2023. Ambitious but possible targets: These targets are premised on significant support by the government to industry.

#### 19. Question

With reference to National Electricity Plan (NEP) 2022-32, consider the following statements:

• The average emission factor is expected to increase by the end of 2031-32.

• The share of non-fossil-based capacity is likely to increase by the end of 2031-32

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Statement 1 is incorrect. As per the National Electricity Plan (NEP) 2022-32, the average emission factor is expected to reduce by the end of 2031-32.

Statement 2 is correct. As per the National Electricity Plan (NEP) 2022-32, the share of non-fossil-based capacity is likely to increase by 68.4% by the end of 2031-32.

The Central Electricity Authority (CEA) has notified the National Electricity Plan (NEP) for the period of 2022-32.

The NEP:

The CEA (Ministry of Power, GoI) must create a NEP in line with the National Electricity Policy, according to the Electricity Act 2003, to –

Create short-term (every 5-year) and perspective plans (15-year)

Assesses India’s current electricity needs, projected growth, power sources, and challenges

Coordinate the efforts of different planning agencies to ensure that resources are used optimally

Support the needs of the country’s economy.

The 1st National Electricity Plan was published in 2007, the 2nd in 2013, and the third (2018) includes the detailed Plan for 2017–22 and the perspective plan for 2022–27.

Key takeaways from the NEP 2022-32:

Renewable energy target: While India has committed to half its installed electricity being sourced from renewable sources by 2030, this target may be achieved by 2026-27.

The share of non-fossil-based capacity: It is likely to increase to 4% by 2026-27, and 68.4% by 2031-32 from around 42.5% as of April 2023.

Ambitious but possible targets: These targets are premised on significant support by the government to industry.

Answer: B

Statement 1 is incorrect. As per the National Electricity Plan (NEP) 2022-32, the average emission factor is expected to reduce by the end of 2031-32.

Statement 2 is correct. As per the National Electricity Plan (NEP) 2022-32, the share of non-fossil-based capacity is likely to increase by 68.4% by the end of 2031-32.

The Central Electricity Authority (CEA) has notified the National Electricity Plan (NEP) for the period of 2022-32.

The NEP:

The CEA (Ministry of Power, GoI) must create a NEP in line with the National Electricity Policy, according to the Electricity Act 2003, to –

Create short-term (every 5-year) and perspective plans (15-year)

Assesses India’s current electricity needs, projected growth, power sources, and challenges

Coordinate the efforts of different planning agencies to ensure that resources are used optimally

Support the needs of the country’s economy.

The 1st National Electricity Plan was published in 2007, the 2nd in 2013, and the third (2018) includes the detailed Plan for 2017–22 and the perspective plan for 2022–27.

Key takeaways from the NEP 2022-32:

Renewable energy target: While India has committed to half its installed electricity being sourced from renewable sources by 2030, this target may be achieved by 2026-27.

The share of non-fossil-based capacity: It is likely to increase to 4% by 2026-27, and 68.4% by 2031-32 from around 42.5% as of April 2023.

Ambitious but possible targets: These targets are premised on significant support by the government to industry.

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points With reference to ‘Global Biofuels Alliance’ consider the following statements: The alliance will be established by India, Brazil and South USA. The aim of the alliance is to facilitate cooperation and intensify the use of sustainable biofuels. The alliance will work in collaboration with and complement the relevant existing regional and international agencies as well as initiatives in the bioenergy. How many statements given above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) None of the above Correct Answer: C The Global Biofuel Alliance (GBA) launched during the sidelines of India’s G20 presidency is a grouping of more than 30 countries (founding members being India, the USA and Brazil) and 12 international organizations aimed to serve as a catalytic platform, fostering global collaboration for the advancement and widespread adoption of biofuels. Hence Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 and 3 are correct. The aim of the alliance is to facilitate cooperation and intensify the use of sustainable biofuels. The alliance will work in collaboration with and complement the relevant existing regional and international agencies as well as initiatives in the bioenergy. Biofuels: Biofuels are renewable energy sources derived from biomass, such as crop stubble, plant waste, and municipal solid waste. Biofuels may be solid, liquid or gaseous in nature. Solid: Wood, dried plant material, and manure Liquid:Bioethanol and Biodiesel Gaseous: Biogas Incorrect Answer: C The Global Biofuel Alliance (GBA) launched during the sidelines of India’s G20 presidency is a grouping of more than 30 countries (founding members being India, the USA and Brazil) and 12 international organizations aimed to serve as a catalytic platform, fostering global collaboration for the advancement and widespread adoption of biofuels. Hence Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 and 3 are correct. The aim of the alliance is to facilitate cooperation and intensify the use of sustainable biofuels. The alliance will work in collaboration with and complement the relevant existing regional and international agencies as well as initiatives in the bioenergy. Biofuels: Biofuels are renewable energy sources derived from biomass, such as crop stubble, plant waste, and municipal solid waste. Biofuels may be solid, liquid or gaseous in nature. Solid: Wood, dried plant material, and manure Liquid:Bioethanol and Biodiesel Gaseous: Biogas

#### 20. Question

With reference to ‘Global Biofuels Alliance’ consider the following statements:

• The alliance will be established by India, Brazil and South USA.

• The aim of the alliance is to facilitate cooperation and intensify the use of sustainable biofuels.

• The alliance will work in collaboration with and complement the relevant existing regional and international agencies as well as initiatives in the bioenergy.

How many statements given above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) None of the above

The Global Biofuel Alliance (GBA) launched during the sidelines of India’s G20 presidency is a grouping of more than 30 countries (founding members being India, the USA and Brazil) and 12 international organizations aimed to serve as a catalytic platform, fostering global collaboration for the advancement and widespread adoption of biofuels. Hence Statement 1 is correct.

Statement 2 and 3 are correct. The aim of the alliance is to facilitate cooperation and intensify the use of sustainable biofuels. The alliance will work in collaboration with and complement the relevant existing regional and international agencies as well as initiatives in the bioenergy.

Biofuels:

Biofuels are renewable energy sources derived from biomass, such as crop stubble, plant waste, and municipal solid waste.

Biofuels may be solid, liquid or gaseous in nature.

Solid: Wood, dried plant material, and manure

Liquid:Bioethanol and Biodiesel

Gaseous: Biogas

The Global Biofuel Alliance (GBA) launched during the sidelines of India’s G20 presidency is a grouping of more than 30 countries (founding members being India, the USA and Brazil) and 12 international organizations aimed to serve as a catalytic platform, fostering global collaboration for the advancement and widespread adoption of biofuels. Hence Statement 1 is correct.

Statement 2 and 3 are correct. The aim of the alliance is to facilitate cooperation and intensify the use of sustainable biofuels. The alliance will work in collaboration with and complement the relevant existing regional and international agencies as well as initiatives in the bioenergy.

Biofuels:

Biofuels are renewable energy sources derived from biomass, such as crop stubble, plant waste, and municipal solid waste.

Biofuels may be solid, liquid or gaseous in nature.

Solid: Wood, dried plant material, and manure

Liquid:Bioethanol and Biodiesel

Gaseous: Biogas

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Artemis Accords: The Accords have the status of a multilateral treaty as they set out legal principles among the participating countries. The Accords do not specifically refer to commercial exploitation or mining of lunar and asteroid resources. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: B Explanation: The Artemis Accords document which contains a set of principles and guidelines for the civil exploration and use of the Moon, Mars, comets and asteroids was introduced in 2020 by NASA as the basis for seeking international support and partners for advancing the 2018 US Artemis Program. The Artemis Program concerns off-Earth exploration and commercial mining of planetary resources and for long term human presence on the Moon and Mars. Statement 1 is not correct: The Artemis Accords are a non-binding bilateral arrangement based on the political understanding of the participating countries. This means the Accords do not have the status of a multilateral treaty, or a contract nor does it set out legal principles or rules by any stretch of imagination. Statement 2 is correct: is important to note that the Accords document does not specifically refer to commercial exploitation or mining of lunar and asteroid resources. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: The Artemis Accords document which contains a set of principles and guidelines for the civil exploration and use of the Moon, Mars, comets and asteroids was introduced in 2020 by NASA as the basis for seeking international support and partners for advancing the 2018 US Artemis Program. The Artemis Program concerns off-Earth exploration and commercial mining of planetary resources and for long term human presence on the Moon and Mars. Statement 1 is not correct: The Artemis Accords are a non-binding bilateral arrangement based on the political understanding of the participating countries. This means the Accords do not have the status of a multilateral treaty, or a contract nor does it set out legal principles or rules by any stretch of imagination. Statement 2 is correct: is important to note that the Accords document does not specifically refer to commercial exploitation or mining of lunar and asteroid resources.

#### 21. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Artemis Accords:

• The Accords have the status of a multilateral treaty as they set out legal principles among the participating countries.

• The Accords do not specifically refer to commercial exploitation or mining of lunar and asteroid resources.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Explanation:

The Artemis Accords document which contains a set of principles and guidelines for the civil exploration and use of the Moon, Mars, comets and asteroids was introduced in 2020 by NASA as the basis for seeking international support and partners for advancing the 2018 US Artemis Program.

The Artemis Program concerns off-Earth exploration and commercial mining of planetary resources and for long term human presence on the Moon and Mars.

Statement 1 is not correct: The Artemis Accords are a non-binding bilateral arrangement based on the political understanding of the participating countries. This means the Accords do not have the status of a multilateral treaty, or a contract nor does it set out legal principles or rules by any stretch of imagination.

Statement 2 is correct: is important to note that the Accords document does not specifically refer to commercial exploitation or mining of lunar and asteroid resources.

Answer: B

Explanation:

The Artemis Accords document which contains a set of principles and guidelines for the civil exploration and use of the Moon, Mars, comets and asteroids was introduced in 2020 by NASA as the basis for seeking international support and partners for advancing the 2018 US Artemis Program.

The Artemis Program concerns off-Earth exploration and commercial mining of planetary resources and for long term human presence on the Moon and Mars.

Statement 1 is not correct: The Artemis Accords are a non-binding bilateral arrangement based on the political understanding of the participating countries. This means the Accords do not have the status of a multilateral treaty, or a contract nor does it set out legal principles or rules by any stretch of imagination.

Statement 2 is correct: is important to note that the Accords document does not specifically refer to commercial exploitation or mining of lunar and asteroid resources.

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points With reference to the Chagas Disease, consider the following statements: It is an infectious disease caused by a protozoan parasite. It is entirely confined to continental rural areas of Asia. It can be transmitted by contact with the urine of triatomine bugs. It can be treated with medication but there is no vaccine to prevent it. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Chagas disease is an infectious disease caused by a protozoan parasite (Trypanosoma cruzi). However, this condition is the result of a complex health problem typical of neglected tropical diseases and socially determined diseases. Statement 2 is not correct: Chagas disease was once entirely confined to continental rural areas of the America. Due to increased population mobility, most infected people now live in urban settings and the infection has been detected in 44 countries including Canada and the United States of America. Statement 3 is correct: T. cruzi parasites are mainly transmitted by contact with faeces/urine of infected blood-sucking triatomine bugs. Statement 4 is correct: Chagas disease can be treated with benznidazole or nifurtimox. Both medicines kill the parasite and are fully effective in curing the disease if given early in the acute phase, including in case of congenital transmission. There is no vaccine to prevent Chagas disease. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Chagas disease is an infectious disease caused by a protozoan parasite (Trypanosoma cruzi). However, this condition is the result of a complex health problem typical of neglected tropical diseases and socially determined diseases. Statement 2 is not correct: Chagas disease was once entirely confined to continental rural areas of the America. Due to increased population mobility, most infected people now live in urban settings and the infection has been detected in 44 countries including Canada and the United States of America. Statement 3 is correct: T. cruzi parasites are mainly transmitted by contact with faeces/urine of infected blood-sucking triatomine bugs. Statement 4 is correct: Chagas disease can be treated with benznidazole or nifurtimox. Both medicines kill the parasite and are fully effective in curing the disease if given early in the acute phase, including in case of congenital transmission. There is no vaccine to prevent Chagas disease.

#### 22. Question

With reference to the Chagas Disease, consider the following statements:

• It is an infectious disease caused by a protozoan parasite.

• It is entirely confined to continental rural areas of Asia.

• It can be transmitted by contact with the urine of triatomine bugs.

• It can be treated with medication but there is no vaccine to prevent it.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Chagas disease is an infectious disease caused by a protozoan parasite (Trypanosoma cruzi). However, this condition is the result of a complex health problem typical of neglected tropical diseases and socially determined diseases.

Statement 2 is not correct: Chagas disease was once entirely confined to continental rural areas of the America. Due to increased population mobility, most infected people now live in urban settings and the infection has been detected in 44 countries including Canada and the United States of America.

Statement 3 is correct: T. cruzi parasites are mainly transmitted by contact with faeces/urine of infected blood-sucking triatomine bugs.

Statement 4 is correct: Chagas disease can be treated with benznidazole or nifurtimox. Both medicines kill the parasite and are fully effective in curing the disease if given early in the acute phase, including in case of congenital transmission. There is no vaccine to prevent Chagas disease.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Chagas disease is an infectious disease caused by a protozoan parasite (Trypanosoma cruzi). However, this condition is the result of a complex health problem typical of neglected tropical diseases and socially determined diseases.

Statement 2 is not correct: Chagas disease was once entirely confined to continental rural areas of the America. Due to increased population mobility, most infected people now live in urban settings and the infection has been detected in 44 countries including Canada and the United States of America.

Statement 3 is correct: T. cruzi parasites are mainly transmitted by contact with faeces/urine of infected blood-sucking triatomine bugs.

Statement 4 is correct: Chagas disease can be treated with benznidazole or nifurtimox. Both medicines kill the parasite and are fully effective in curing the disease if given early in the acute phase, including in case of congenital transmission. There is no vaccine to prevent Chagas disease.

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Which one of the following statements best states the objective of the “PM-KUSUM” Scheme? (a) It aims at de-dieselisation of the farm sector increasing the income of farmers and curbing environmental pollution. (b) It facilitates loans to income-generating micro-enterprises engaged in the nonfarm sector in manufacturing. (c) It aims to set up mobile hospitals equipped with cutting-edge technology to bolster medical readiness during the disaster crisis. (d) It aims to ensure equality of opportunity for education for women and improve the literacy rate of women in India. Correct Answer: A Explanation: Option (a) is correct: The objectives of the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan (PM-KUSUM) include de-dieselisation of the farm sector, providing water and energy security to farmers, increasing the income of farmers and curbing environmental pollution. To achieve these objectives, following targets have been kept under the Scheme: Following provisions of the PM-KUSUM Scheme aim to increase country’s solar water pump manufacturing capacity: Target of installation or solarisation of 35 lakh pumps through central financial support under the Scheme provides visibility of demand in the coming years. Condition of domestic content requirement for participation in Component-B and Component-C. Direct participation of manufacturers of solar pumps/ solar photovoltaic modules/ solar pump controller either as sole bidder or member of a Joint Venture, in bidding under Component-B and Component-C. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Option (a) is correct: The objectives of the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan (PM-KUSUM) include de-dieselisation of the farm sector, providing water and energy security to farmers, increasing the income of farmers and curbing environmental pollution. To achieve these objectives, following targets have been kept under the Scheme: Following provisions of the PM-KUSUM Scheme aim to increase country’s solar water pump manufacturing capacity: Target of installation or solarisation of 35 lakh pumps through central financial support under the Scheme provides visibility of demand in the coming years. Condition of domestic content requirement for participation in Component-B and Component-C. Direct participation of manufacturers of solar pumps/ solar photovoltaic modules/ solar pump controller either as sole bidder or member of a Joint Venture, in bidding under Component-B and Component-C.

#### 23. Question

Which one of the following statements best states the objective of the “PM-KUSUM” Scheme?

• (a) It aims at de-dieselisation of the farm sector increasing the income of farmers and curbing environmental pollution.

• (b) It facilitates loans to income-generating micro-enterprises engaged in the nonfarm sector in manufacturing.

• (c) It aims to set up mobile hospitals equipped with cutting-edge technology to bolster medical readiness during the disaster crisis.

• (d) It aims to ensure equality of opportunity for education for women and improve the literacy rate of women in India.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Option (a) is correct: The objectives of the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan (PM-KUSUM) include de-dieselisation of the farm sector, providing water and energy security to farmers, increasing the income of farmers and curbing environmental pollution. To achieve these objectives, following targets have been kept under the Scheme:

Following provisions of the PM-KUSUM Scheme aim to increase country’s solar water pump manufacturing capacity:

• Target of installation or solarisation of 35 lakh pumps through central financial support under the Scheme provides visibility of demand in the coming years.

• Condition of domestic content requirement for participation in Component-B and Component-C.

Direct participation of manufacturers of solar pumps/ solar photovoltaic modules/ solar pump controller either as sole bidder or member of a Joint Venture, in bidding under Component-B and Component-C.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Option (a) is correct: The objectives of the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan (PM-KUSUM) include de-dieselisation of the farm sector, providing water and energy security to farmers, increasing the income of farmers and curbing environmental pollution. To achieve these objectives, following targets have been kept under the Scheme:

Following provisions of the PM-KUSUM Scheme aim to increase country’s solar water pump manufacturing capacity:

• Target of installation or solarisation of 35 lakh pumps through central financial support under the Scheme provides visibility of demand in the coming years.

• Condition of domestic content requirement for participation in Component-B and Component-C.

Direct participation of manufacturers of solar pumps/ solar photovoltaic modules/ solar pump controller either as sole bidder or member of a Joint Venture, in bidding under Component-B and Component-C.

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points With reference to Urban Co-operative Banks, consider the following statements: They refer to primary cooperative banks located only in urban areas. They are allowed to lend money only for the non-agricultural purposes. They can lend money only to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: D Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: The term Urban Co-operative Banks (UCBs), though not formally defined, refers to primary cooperative banks located in urban and semi-urban areas. Statement 2 is not correct: These banks, till 1996, were allowed to lend money only for non-agricultural purposes. This distinction does not hold right presently. These banks were traditionally centred around communities, localities work place groups. Statement 3 is not correct: They essentially lent to small borrowers and businesses. Today, their scope of operations has widened considerably. The origins of the urban cooperative banking movement in India can be traced to the close of nineteenth century when, inspired by the success of the experiments related to the cooperative movement in Britain and the cooperative credit movement in Germany such societies were set up in India. Incorrect Answer: D Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: The term Urban Co-operative Banks (UCBs), though not formally defined, refers to primary cooperative banks located in urban and semi-urban areas. Statement 2 is not correct: These banks, till 1996, were allowed to lend money only for non-agricultural purposes. This distinction does not hold right presently. These banks were traditionally centred around communities, localities work place groups. Statement 3 is not correct: They essentially lent to small borrowers and businesses. Today, their scope of operations has widened considerably. The origins of the urban cooperative banking movement in India can be traced to the close of nineteenth century when, inspired by the success of the experiments related to the cooperative movement in Britain and the cooperative credit movement in Germany such societies were set up in India.

#### 24. Question

With reference to Urban Co-operative Banks, consider the following statements:

• They refer to primary cooperative banks located only in urban areas.

• They are allowed to lend money only for the non-agricultural purposes.

• They can lend money only to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: D

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: The term Urban Co-operative Banks (UCBs), though not formally defined, refers to primary cooperative banks located in urban and semi-urban areas.

Statement 2 is not correct: These banks, till 1996, were allowed to lend money only for non-agricultural purposes. This distinction does not hold right presently.

These banks were traditionally centred around communities, localities work place groups.

Statement 3 is not correct: They essentially lent to small borrowers and businesses. Today, their scope of operations has widened considerably.

The origins of the urban cooperative banking movement in India can be traced to the close of nineteenth century when, inspired by the success of the experiments related to the cooperative movement in Britain and the cooperative credit movement in Germany such societies were set up in India.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: The term Urban Co-operative Banks (UCBs), though not formally defined, refers to primary cooperative banks located in urban and semi-urban areas.

Statement 2 is not correct: These banks, till 1996, were allowed to lend money only for non-agricultural purposes. This distinction does not hold right presently.

These banks were traditionally centred around communities, localities work place groups.

Statement 3 is not correct: They essentially lent to small borrowers and businesses. Today, their scope of operations has widened considerably.

The origins of the urban cooperative banking movement in India can be traced to the close of nineteenth century when, inspired by the success of the experiments related to the cooperative movement in Britain and the cooperative credit movement in Germany such societies were set up in India.

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Aegean Sea is an extension of the Mediterranean Sea. The Bosphorus Strait connects the Aegean Sea to the Black Sea. The Aegean Sea lies between Turkey and Greece. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Aegean Sea is not mythical. It is a real sea and an extension of the Mediterranean Sea. Statement 2 is correct: The Bosphorus and Dardanelles Straits connect the Aegean Sea to the Black Sea and the Marmara Sea respectively. Statement 3 is correct: The sea is situated between the Anatolia and Balkan peninsulas and lies between Turkey and Greece. Nine out of 12 of Greece’s administrative regions border the sea. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Aegean Sea is not mythical. It is a real sea and an extension of the Mediterranean Sea. Statement 2 is correct: The Bosphorus and Dardanelles Straits connect the Aegean Sea to the Black Sea and the Marmara Sea respectively. Statement 3 is correct: The sea is situated between the Anatolia and Balkan peninsulas and lies between Turkey and Greece. Nine out of 12 of Greece’s administrative regions border the sea.

#### 25. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Aegean Sea is an extension of the Mediterranean Sea.

• The Bosphorus Strait connects the Aegean Sea to the Black Sea.

• The Aegean Sea lies between Turkey and Greece.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Aegean Sea is not mythical. It is a real sea and an extension of the Mediterranean Sea.

Statement 2 is correct: The Bosphorus and Dardanelles Straits connect the Aegean Sea to the Black Sea and the Marmara Sea respectively.

Statement 3 is correct: The sea is situated between the Anatolia and Balkan peninsulas and lies between Turkey and Greece. Nine out of 12 of Greece’s administrative regions border the sea.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Aegean Sea is not mythical. It is a real sea and an extension of the Mediterranean Sea.

Statement 2 is correct: The Bosphorus and Dardanelles Straits connect the Aegean Sea to the Black Sea and the Marmara Sea respectively.

Statement 3 is correct: The sea is situated between the Anatolia and Balkan peninsulas and lies between Turkey and Greece. Nine out of 12 of Greece’s administrative regions border the sea.

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points Many nations now place their faith in capitalism and governments choose it as the strategy to create wealth for their people. The spectacular economic growth seen in Brazil, China and India after the liberalization of their economies is proof of its enormous potential and success. However, the global banking crisis and the economic recession have left many bewildered. The debates tend to focus on free market operations and forces, their efficiency and their ability for self correction. Issues of justice, integrity and honesty are rarely elaborated to highlight the failure of the global banking system. The apologists of the system continue to justify the success of capitalism and argue that the recent crisis was a blip. Their arguments betray an ideological bias/ with the assumptions that an unregulated market is fair and competent, and that the exercise of private greed will be in the larger. Public interest. Few recognize the bidirectional relationship between capitalism and greed; that each reinforces the other. Surely, a more honest conceptualization of the conflicts of interest among the rich and powerful players who have benefited from the system, their biases and ideology is needed; the focus on the wealth creation should also highlight the resultant gross inequity. The apologists of the “Free Market System”, according to the passage, believe in (a) Market without control by government authorities. (b) Market without protection by the government. (c) Ability of market to self correct. (d) Market for free goods and services. Correct Correct Answer: C Explanation: The apologists of the free market system believe in the ability of the market to self correct. Their discussions are generally about free market operations and forces, on the efficiency of such enterprises and their ability for self correction. Incorrect Correct Answer: C Explanation: The apologists of the free market system believe in the ability of the market to self correct. Their discussions are generally about free market operations and forces, on the efficiency of such enterprises and their ability for self correction.

#### 26. Question

Many nations now place their faith in capitalism and governments choose it as the strategy to create wealth for their people. The spectacular economic growth seen in Brazil, China and India after the liberalization of their economies is proof of its enormous potential and success. However, the global banking crisis and the economic recession have left many bewildered. The debates tend to focus on free market operations and forces, their efficiency and their ability for self correction. Issues of justice, integrity and honesty are rarely elaborated to highlight the failure of the global banking system. The apologists of the system continue to justify the success of capitalism and argue that the recent crisis was a blip. Their arguments betray an ideological bias/ with the assumptions that an unregulated market is fair and competent, and that the exercise of private greed will be in the larger. Public interest. Few recognize the bidirectional relationship between capitalism and greed; that each reinforces the other. Surely, a more honest conceptualization of the conflicts of interest among the rich and powerful players who have benefited from the system, their biases and ideology is needed; the focus on the wealth creation should also highlight the resultant gross inequity.

The apologists of the “Free Market System”, according to the passage, believe in

• (a) Market without control by government authorities.

• (b) Market without protection by the government.

• (c) Ability of market to self correct.

• (d) Market for free goods and services.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The apologists of the free market system believe in the ability of the market to self correct. Their discussions are generally about free market operations and forces, on the efficiency of such enterprises and their ability for self correction.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The apologists of the free market system believe in the ability of the market to self correct. Their discussions are generally about free market operations and forces, on the efficiency of such enterprises and their ability for self correction.

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points Many nations now place their faith in capitalism and governments choose it as the strategy to create wealth for their people. The spectacular economic growth seen in Brazil, China and India after the liberalization of their economies is proof of its enormous potential and success. However, the global banking crisis and the economic recession have left many bewildered. The debates tend to focus on free market operations and forces, their efficiency and their ability for self correction. Issues of justice, integrity and honesty are rarely elaborated to highlight the failure of the global banking system. The apologists of the system continue to justify the success of capitalism and argue that the recent crisis was a blip. Their arguments betray an ideological bias/ with the assumptions that an unregulated market is fair and competent, and that the exercise of private greed will be in the larger. Public interest. Few recognize the bidirectional relationship between capitalism and greed; that each reinforces the other. Surely, a more honest conceptualization of the conflicts of interest among the rich and powerful players who have benefited from the system, their biases and ideology is needed; the focus on the wealth creation should also highlight the resultant gross inequity. With reference to “ideological bias”, the passage implies that (a) Free market is fair but not competent. (b) Free market is not fair but competent. (c) Free market is fair and competent. (d) Free market is neither fair nor biased. Correct Correct Answer: C Explanation: Ideological bias means an opinion that is of a partial nature. Here the idea expressed in the passage is that an unregulated market is free and competent. Incorrect Correct Answer: C Explanation: Ideological bias means an opinion that is of a partial nature. Here the idea expressed in the passage is that an unregulated market is free and competent.

#### 27. Question

Many nations now place their faith in capitalism and governments choose it as the strategy to create wealth for their people. The spectacular economic growth seen in Brazil, China and India after the liberalization of their economies is proof of its enormous potential and success. However, the global banking crisis and the economic recession have left many bewildered. The debates tend to focus on free market operations and forces, their efficiency and their ability for self correction. Issues of justice, integrity and honesty are rarely elaborated to highlight the failure of the global banking system. The apologists of the system continue to justify the success of capitalism and argue that the recent crisis was a blip. Their arguments betray an ideological bias/ with the assumptions that an unregulated market is fair and competent, and that the exercise of private greed will be in the larger. Public interest. Few recognize the bidirectional relationship between capitalism and greed; that each reinforces the other. Surely, a more honest conceptualization of the conflicts of interest among the rich and powerful players who have benefited from the system, their biases and ideology is needed; the focus on the wealth creation should also highlight the resultant gross inequity.

With reference to “ideological bias”, the passage implies that

• (a) Free market is fair but not competent.

• (b) Free market is not fair but competent.

• (c) Free market is fair and competent.

• (d) Free market is neither fair nor biased.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Ideological bias means an opinion that is of a partial nature. Here the idea expressed in the passage is that an unregulated market is free and competent.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Ideological bias means an opinion that is of a partial nature. Here the idea expressed in the passage is that an unregulated market is free and competent.

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points The exercise of private greed will be in the larger public interest” from the passage Refers to the false ideology of capitalism. Underlies the righteous claims of the free market. Shows the benevolent face of capitalism. Ignores resultant gross inequity. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1and 4 (d) 4 only Correct Correct Answer: C Explanation: It is clearly said that the arguments betray meaning give away a biased opinion. So statement (1) referring to the false ideology of capitalism is one of the options. It is also mentioned that a more honest analysis would reflect the resultant gross inequality. So statement (4) is also the correct option. Incorrect Correct Answer: C Explanation: It is clearly said that the arguments betray meaning give away a biased opinion. So statement (1) referring to the false ideology of capitalism is one of the options. It is also mentioned that a more honest analysis would reflect the resultant gross inequality. So statement (4) is also the correct option.

#### 28. Question

The exercise of private greed will be in the larger public interest” from the passage

• Refers to the false ideology of capitalism.

• Underlies the righteous claims of the free market.

• Shows the benevolent face of capitalism.

• Ignores resultant gross inequity.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 and 3

• (c) 1and 4

• (d) 4 only

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

It is clearly said that the arguments betray meaning give away a biased opinion. So statement (1) referring to the false ideology of capitalism is one of the options. It is also mentioned that a more honest analysis would reflect the resultant gross inequality. So statement (4) is also the correct option.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

It is clearly said that the arguments betray meaning give away a biased opinion. So statement (1) referring to the false ideology of capitalism is one of the options. It is also mentioned that a more honest analysis would reflect the resultant gross inequality. So statement (4) is also the correct option.

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points Select the no that can replace the question mark ( ?) 6420, 6435, 6465, 6510, ?, 6645 a) 6420 b) 6500 c) 6530 d) 6570 Correct Option D) 6570 The series is (6420+15)= 6435 (6435+30)= 6465 (6465+45)= 6510 (6510 + 60)= 6570 Incorrect Option D) 6570 The series is (6420+15)= 6435 (6435+30)= 6465 (6465+45)= 6510 (6510 + 60)= 6570

#### 29. Question

Select the no that can replace the question mark ( ?)

6420, 6435, 6465, 6510, ?, 6645

Option D) 6570

The series is (6420+15)= 6435

(6435+30)= 6465

(6465+45)= 6510

(6510 + 60)= 6570

Option D) 6570

The series is (6420+15)= 6435

(6435+30)= 6465

(6465+45)= 6510

(6510 + 60)= 6570

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points Find out the wrong term in the given series: 29, 154, 118, 460, 397, 1126 A.29 B.154 C.118 D.460 Correct Answer: D) 460 Explanation 29 + 53 = 154 154 – 62 = 118 118 + 73 = 461 461 – 82 = 397 397 + 93 = 1126 Incorrect Answer: D) 460 Explanation 29 + 53 = 154 154 – 62 = 118 118 + 73 = 461 461 – 82 = 397 397 + 93 = 1126

#### 30. Question

Find out the wrong term in the given series:

29, 154, 118, 460, 397, 1126

Answer: D) 460

Explanation

29 + 53 = 154

154 – 62 = 118

118 + 73 = 461

461 – 82 = 397

397 + 93 = 1126

Answer: D) 460

Explanation

29 + 53 = 154

154 – 62 = 118

118 + 73 = 461

461 – 82 = 397

397 + 93 = 1126

Join our Official Telegram Channel HERE

Please subscribe to Our podcast channel HERE

Follow our Twitter Account HERE

Follow our Instagram ID HERE

AI-assisted content, editorially reviewed by Kartavya Desk Staff.

About Kartavya Desk Staff

Articles in our archive published before our editorial team was expanded. Legacy content is periodically reviewed and updated by our current editors.

All News