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DAY – 39 : Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2025 : MODERN INDIA

Kartavya Desk Staff

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding early Portuguese activities in India: They aimed to establish a maritime empire to control the spice trade, often referred to as ‘Estado da Índia’. Alfonso de Albuquerque advocated for intermarriage between Portuguese men and local women to secure a permanent population base. The Portuguese introduced the ‘Cartaz’ system, requiring Indian ships to purchase passes for trading in the Indian Ocean. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: D All three statements are correct. Statement 1: The Portuguese aimed to control maritime trade routes in the Indian Ocean, establishing fortified posts and controlling trade – this system was known as ‘Estado da Índia’ (State of India). Statement 2: Alfonso de Albuquerque, the second governor of Portuguese India, encouraged Portuguese soldiers and settlers to marry local women to create a loyal Luso-Indian population and secure their presence. Statement 3: The ‘Cartaz’ was a naval trade license or pass issued by the Portuguese in the Indian Ocean during the 16th century. Ships which did not purchase the cartaz were liable to be confiscated and their crew killed. Incorrect Solution: D All three statements are correct. Statement 1: The Portuguese aimed to control maritime trade routes in the Indian Ocean, establishing fortified posts and controlling trade – this system was known as ‘Estado da Índia’ (State of India). Statement 2: Alfonso de Albuquerque, the second governor of Portuguese India, encouraged Portuguese soldiers and settlers to marry local women to create a loyal Luso-Indian population and secure their presence. Statement 3: The ‘Cartaz’ was a naval trade license or pass issued by the Portuguese in the Indian Ocean during the 16th century. Ships which did not purchase the cartaz were liable to be confiscated and their crew killed.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding early Portuguese activities in India:

• They aimed to establish a maritime empire to control the spice trade, often referred to as ‘Estado da Índia’.

• Alfonso de Albuquerque advocated for intermarriage between Portuguese men and local women to secure a permanent population base.

• The Portuguese introduced the ‘Cartaz’ system, requiring Indian ships to purchase passes for trading in the Indian Ocean.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

All three statements are correct.

Statement 1: The Portuguese aimed to control maritime trade routes in the Indian Ocean, establishing fortified posts and controlling trade – this system was known as ‘Estado da Índia’ (State of India).

Statement 2: Alfonso de Albuquerque, the second governor of Portuguese India, encouraged Portuguese soldiers and settlers to marry local women to create a loyal Luso-Indian population and secure their presence.

Statement 3: The ‘Cartaz’ was a naval trade license or pass issued by the Portuguese in the Indian Ocean during the 16th century. Ships which did not purchase the cartaz were liable to be confiscated and their crew killed.

Solution: D

All three statements are correct.

Statement 1: The Portuguese aimed to control maritime trade routes in the Indian Ocean, establishing fortified posts and controlling trade – this system was known as ‘Estado da Índia’ (State of India).

Statement 2: Alfonso de Albuquerque, the second governor of Portuguese India, encouraged Portuguese soldiers and settlers to marry local women to create a loyal Luso-Indian population and secure their presence.

Statement 3: The ‘Cartaz’ was a naval trade license or pass issued by the Portuguese in the Indian Ocean during the 16th century. Ships which did not purchase the cartaz were liable to be confiscated and their crew killed.

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points With reference to the Dutch East India Company (VOC) in India, consider the following: Their primary interest initially lay more in the Indonesian archipelago than in mainland India. They established their first factory in India at Masulipatnam. The Battle of Colachel (1741) marked a significant defeat for the Dutch against the Travancore kingdom. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one statement (b) Only two statements (c) All three statements (d) None of the statements Correct Solution: C All three statements are correct. Statement 1: The Dutch VOC’s primary focus was initially on the spice-rich islands of Indonesia (especially Java, Sumatra, and the Moluccas), though they maintained significant trading posts in India. Statement 2: The Dutch established their first factory in India at Masulipatnam (present-day Andhra Pradesh) in 1605. Statement 3: The Battle of Colachel (1741) was a decisive victory for the forces of Maharaja Marthanda Varma of Travancore over the Dutch East India Company, effectively ending major Dutch expansionist ambitions in Kerala. Incorrect Solution: C All three statements are correct. Statement 1: The Dutch VOC’s primary focus was initially on the spice-rich islands of Indonesia (especially Java, Sumatra, and the Moluccas), though they maintained significant trading posts in India. Statement 2: The Dutch established their first factory in India at Masulipatnam (present-day Andhra Pradesh) in 1605. Statement 3: The Battle of Colachel (1741) was a decisive victory for the forces of Maharaja Marthanda Varma of Travancore over the Dutch East India Company, effectively ending major Dutch expansionist ambitions in Kerala.

#### 2. Question

With reference to the Dutch East India Company (VOC) in India, consider the following:

• Their primary interest initially lay more in the Indonesian archipelago than in mainland India.

• They established their first factory in India at Masulipatnam.

• The Battle of Colachel (1741) marked a significant defeat for the Dutch against the Travancore kingdom.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one statement

• (b) Only two statements

• (c) All three statements

• (d) None of the statements

Solution: C

All three statements are correct.

Statement 1: The Dutch VOC’s primary focus was initially on the spice-rich islands of Indonesia (especially Java, Sumatra, and the Moluccas), though they maintained significant trading posts in India.

Statement 2: The Dutch established their first factory in India at Masulipatnam (present-day Andhra Pradesh) in 1605.

Statement 3: The Battle of Colachel (1741) was a decisive victory for the forces of Maharaja Marthanda Varma of Travancore over the Dutch East India Company, effectively ending major Dutch expansionist ambitions in Kerala.

Solution: C

All three statements are correct.

Statement 1: The Dutch VOC’s primary focus was initially on the spice-rich islands of Indonesia (especially Java, Sumatra, and the Moluccas), though they maintained significant trading posts in India.

Statement 2: The Dutch established their first factory in India at Masulipatnam (present-day Andhra Pradesh) in 1605.

Statement 3: The Battle of Colachel (1741) was a decisive victory for the forces of Maharaja Marthanda Varma of Travancore over the Dutch East India Company, effectively ending major Dutch expansionist ambitions in Kerala.

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs regarding European settlements in India: Settlement European Power Pondicherry French Diu Portuguese Tranquebar Dutch How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs (c) All three pairs (d) None of the pairs Correct Solution: B Pair 1 is correctly matched: Pondicherry was the main French settlement in India. Pair 2 is correctly matched: Diu was a Portuguese colony from 1535 until annexed by India in 1961. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Tranquebar (Tharangambadi) was a Danish settlement, not Dutch. The main Dutch settlements included Pulicat, Surat, Chinsurah, Cochin, etc. Therefore, only two pairs (1 and 2) are correctly matched. Incorrect Solution: B Pair 1 is correctly matched: Pondicherry was the main French settlement in India. Pair 2 is correctly matched: Diu was a Portuguese colony from 1535 until annexed by India in 1961. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Tranquebar (Tharangambadi) was a Danish settlement, not Dutch. The main Dutch settlements included Pulicat, Surat, Chinsurah, Cochin, etc. Therefore, only two pairs (1 and 2) are correctly matched.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following pairs regarding European settlements in India:

Settlement | European Power

Pondicherry | French

Diu | Portuguese

Tranquebar | Dutch

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

• (a) Only one pair

• (b) Only two pairs

• (c) All three pairs

• (d) None of the pairs

Solution: B

Pair 1 is correctly matched: Pondicherry was the main French settlement in India.

Pair 2 is correctly matched: Diu was a Portuguese colony from 1535 until annexed by India in 1961.

Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Tranquebar (Tharangambadi) was a Danish settlement, not Dutch. The main Dutch settlements included Pulicat, Surat, Chinsurah, Cochin, etc. Therefore, only two pairs (1 and 2) are correctly matched.

Solution: B

Pair 1 is correctly matched: Pondicherry was the main French settlement in India.

Pair 2 is correctly matched: Diu was a Portuguese colony from 1535 until annexed by India in 1961.

Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Tranquebar (Tharangambadi) was a Danish settlement, not Dutch. The main Dutch settlements included Pulicat, Surat, Chinsurah, Cochin, etc. Therefore, only two pairs (1 and 2) are correctly matched.

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Match the following early political organizations with their founders: Early Political Organizations Founders A. East India Association 1. Mahadev Govind Ranade B. Bombay Association 2. Dadabhai Naoroji C. Poona Sarvajanik Sabha 3. Jagannath Shankarshet D. Madras Mahajan Sabha 4. B. Subramaniya Aiyyar Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4 (b) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 (c) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3 (d) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 Correct Solution: A East India Association → Dadabhai Naoroji (1867) Founded in London to voice Indian grievances in British Parliament. It aimed to influence British public opinion in favor of India and was the precursor to more organized political movements in India. Bombay Association → Jagannath Shankarshet (1852) One of the first political associations in Bombay (now Mumbai). Formed by leading lawyers, businessmen, and landlords to represent Indian interests to the British authorities. Poona Sarvajanik Sabha → Mahadev Govind Ranade (1870) Established in Pune to create political consciousness among people. It acted as a bridge between the government and the people, especially advocating for the cause of Indian peasants and the poor. Madras Mahajan Sabha → B. Subramaniya Aiyyar (1884) Founded to promote nationalist sentiments in South India. Played a major role in the founding of the Indian National Congress (1885) by representing southern interests. Incorrect Solution: A East India Association → Dadabhai Naoroji (1867) Founded in London to voice Indian grievances in British Parliament. It aimed to influence British public opinion in favor of India and was the precursor to more organized political movements in India. Bombay Association → Jagannath Shankarshet (1852) One of the first political associations in Bombay (now Mumbai). Formed by leading lawyers, businessmen, and landlords to represent Indian interests to the British authorities. Poona Sarvajanik Sabha → Mahadev Govind Ranade (1870) Established in Pune to create political consciousness among people. It acted as a bridge between the government and the people, especially advocating for the cause of Indian peasants and the poor. Madras Mahajan Sabha → B. Subramaniya Aiyyar (1884) Founded to promote nationalist sentiments in South India. Played a major role in the founding of the Indian National Congress (1885) by representing southern interests.

#### 4. Question

Match the following early political organizations with their founders:

Early Political Organizations | Founders

A. East India Association | 1. Mahadev Govind Ranade

B. Bombay Association | 2. Dadabhai Naoroji

C. Poona Sarvajanik Sabha | 3. Jagannath Shankarshet

D. Madras Mahajan Sabha | 4. B. Subramaniya Aiyyar

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

• (a) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4

• (b) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

• (c) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

• (d) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

Solution: A

East India Association → Dadabhai Naoroji (1867)

Founded in London to voice Indian grievances in British Parliament.

• It aimed to influence British public opinion in favor of India and was the precursor to more organized political movements in India.

Bombay Association → Jagannath Shankarshet (1852)

• One of the first political associations in Bombay (now Mumbai).

• Formed by leading lawyers, businessmen, and landlords to represent Indian interests to the British authorities.

Poona Sarvajanik Sabha → Mahadev Govind Ranade (1870)

• Established in Pune to create political consciousness among people.

• It acted as a bridge between the government and the people, especially advocating for the cause of Indian peasants and the poor.

Madras Mahajan Sabha → B. Subramaniya Aiyyar (1884)

• Founded to promote nationalist sentiments in South India.

• Played a major role in the founding of the Indian National Congress (1885) by representing southern interests.

Solution: A

East India Association → Dadabhai Naoroji (1867)

Founded in London to voice Indian grievances in British Parliament.

• It aimed to influence British public opinion in favor of India and was the precursor to more organized political movements in India.

Bombay Association → Jagannath Shankarshet (1852)

• One of the first political associations in Bombay (now Mumbai).

• Formed by leading lawyers, businessmen, and landlords to represent Indian interests to the British authorities.

Poona Sarvajanik Sabha → Mahadev Govind Ranade (1870)

• Established in Pune to create political consciousness among people.

• It acted as a bridge between the government and the people, especially advocating for the cause of Indian peasants and the poor.

Madras Mahajan Sabha → B. Subramaniya Aiyyar (1884)

• Founded to promote nationalist sentiments in South India.

• Played a major role in the founding of the Indian National Congress (1885) by representing southern interests.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Which of the following statements best explains the primary reason for the failure of the French East India Company against the British East India Company in India during the 18th century? (a) Frequent change of British leadership led to French dominance in key regions. (b) The French East India Company enjoyed complete autonomy from its government, allowing quick decisions. (c) Superior French naval strength consistently outmatched the British Royal Navy. (d) Excessive control and interference by the French government delayed crucial decisions and weakened French efforts. Correct Solution: D Explanation: Excessive French Government Control: The French East India Company operated under strict control of the French government, delaying decisions and weakening operational efficiency. (Hence d is correct) (a) is incorrect because, British leadership remained relatively stable, and British alliances and military strategies ensured their dominance. (b) is incorrect because, unlike the British Company, the French lacked financial independence and strategic flexibility due to government bureaucracy. (c) is incorrect because, the British Royal Navy was superior; crucial victories like the Battle of Wandiwash (1760) marked British naval and military dominance. Other Important Factors for French Defeat (Additional Points): Limited Financial Resources: The French Company lacked funds compared to the richer British East India Company. Focused on European Wars: France diverted attention to wars in Europe (e.g., Seven Years’ War), weakening its Indian efforts. Failure to Build Strong Local Alliances: British alliances (e.g., with Mir Jafar in Bengal) proved stronger compared to French attempts. Incorrect Solution: D Explanation: Excessive French Government Control: The French East India Company operated under strict control of the French government, delaying decisions and weakening operational efficiency. (Hence d is correct) (a) is incorrect because, British leadership remained relatively stable, and British alliances and military strategies ensured their dominance. (b) is incorrect because, unlike the British Company, the French lacked financial independence and strategic flexibility due to government bureaucracy. (c) is incorrect because, the British Royal Navy was superior; crucial victories like the Battle of Wandiwash (1760) marked British naval and military dominance. Other Important Factors for French Defeat (Additional Points): Limited Financial Resources: The French Company lacked funds compared to the richer British East India Company. Focused on European Wars: France diverted attention to wars in Europe (e.g., Seven Years’ War), weakening its Indian efforts. Failure to Build Strong Local Alliances: British alliances (e.g., with Mir Jafar in Bengal) proved stronger compared to French attempts.

#### 5. Question

Which of the following statements best explains the primary reason for the failure of the French East India Company against the British East India Company in India during the 18th century?

• (a) Frequent change of British leadership led to French dominance in key regions.

• (b) The French East India Company enjoyed complete autonomy from its government, allowing quick decisions.

• (c) Superior French naval strength consistently outmatched the British Royal Navy.

• (d) Excessive control and interference by the French government delayed crucial decisions and weakened French efforts.

Solution: D

Explanation:

Excessive French Government Control: The French East India Company operated under strict control of the French government, delaying decisions and weakening operational efficiency. (Hence d is correct)

(a) is incorrect because, British leadership remained relatively stable, and British alliances and military strategies ensured their dominance.

(b) is incorrect because, unlike the British Company, the French lacked financial independence and strategic flexibility due to government bureaucracy.

(c) is incorrect because, the British Royal Navy was superior; crucial victories like the Battle of Wandiwash (1760) marked British naval and military dominance.

Other Important Factors for French Defeat (Additional Points):

Limited Financial Resources: The French Company lacked funds compared to the richer British East India Company.

Focused on European Wars: France diverted attention to wars in Europe (e.g., Seven Years’ War), weakening its Indian efforts.

Failure to Build Strong Local Alliances: British alliances (e.g., with Mir Jafar in Bengal) proved stronger compared to French attempts.

Solution: D

Explanation:

Excessive French Government Control: The French East India Company operated under strict control of the French government, delaying decisions and weakening operational efficiency. (Hence d is correct)

(a) is incorrect because, British leadership remained relatively stable, and British alliances and military strategies ensured their dominance.

(b) is incorrect because, unlike the British Company, the French lacked financial independence and strategic flexibility due to government bureaucracy.

(c) is incorrect because, the British Royal Navy was superior; crucial victories like the Battle of Wandiwash (1760) marked British naval and military dominance.

Other Important Factors for French Defeat (Additional Points):

Limited Financial Resources: The French Company lacked funds compared to the richer British East India Company.

Focused on European Wars: France diverted attention to wars in Europe (e.g., Seven Years’ War), weakening its Indian efforts.

Failure to Build Strong Local Alliances: British alliances (e.g., with Mir Jafar in Bengal) proved stronger compared to French attempts.

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Consider the following factors contributing to the Revolt of 1857: The policy of ‘Doctrine of Lapse’ implemented by Lord Dalhousie. Activities of Christian missionaries perceived as interference in local customs. Introduction of the Enfield Rifle with greased cartridges. The General Service Enlistment Act of 1856 requiring sepoys to serve overseas if needed. Which of the above were socio-religious or military causes of the revolt? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: C Statement 1 (Doctrine of Lapse) was a major political cause, alienating ruling families. Statement 2 (Missionary activities) was a significant socio-religious cause, creating apprehension about forced conversions and interference with customs. Statement 3 (Greased cartridges) was the immediate military cause, offending the religious sentiments of both Hindu and Muslim sepoys. Statement 4 (General Service Enlistment Act) was a military cause, as it disregarded the caste taboo among some Hindu communities against crossing the sea. The question asks for socio-religious or military causes. Therefore, statements 2, 3, and 4 fit this description. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 (Doctrine of Lapse) was a major political cause, alienating ruling families. Statement 2 (Missionary activities) was a significant socio-religious cause, creating apprehension about forced conversions and interference with customs. Statement 3 (Greased cartridges) was the immediate military cause, offending the religious sentiments of both Hindu and Muslim sepoys. Statement 4 (General Service Enlistment Act) was a military cause, as it disregarded the caste taboo among some Hindu communities against crossing the sea. The question asks for socio-religious or military causes. Therefore, statements 2, 3, and 4 fit this description.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following factors contributing to the Revolt of 1857:

• The policy of ‘Doctrine of Lapse’ implemented by Lord Dalhousie.

• Activities of Christian missionaries perceived as interference in local customs.

• Introduction of the Enfield Rifle with greased cartridges.

• The General Service Enlistment Act of 1856 requiring sepoys to serve overseas if needed.

Which of the above were socio-religious or military causes of the revolt?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 3 and 4 only

• (c) 2, 3 and 4 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: C

Statement 1 (Doctrine of Lapse) was a major political cause, alienating ruling families.

Statement 2 (Missionary activities) was a significant socio-religious cause, creating apprehension about forced conversions and interference with customs.

Statement 3 (Greased cartridges) was the immediate military cause, offending the religious sentiments of both Hindu and Muslim sepoys.

Statement 4 (General Service Enlistment Act) was a military cause, as it disregarded the caste taboo among some Hindu communities against crossing the sea.

The question asks for socio-religious or military causes. Therefore, statements 2, 3, and 4 fit this description.

Solution: C

Statement 1 (Doctrine of Lapse) was a major political cause, alienating ruling families.

Statement 2 (Missionary activities) was a significant socio-religious cause, creating apprehension about forced conversions and interference with customs.

Statement 3 (Greased cartridges) was the immediate military cause, offending the religious sentiments of both Hindu and Muslim sepoys.

Statement 4 (General Service Enlistment Act) was a military cause, as it disregarded the caste taboo among some Hindu communities against crossing the sea.

The question asks for socio-religious or military causes. Therefore, statements 2, 3, and 4 fit this description.

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points The Indian Association, founded by Surendranath Banerjea and Anand Mohan Bose in 1876, had which of the following objectives? Creating a strong public opinion on political questions. Uniting Indian people on a common political programme. Promoting friendly relations between Hindus and Muslims. Advocating for simultaneous ICS examinations in India and England. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: D All four statements reflect the key objectives and activities of the Indian Association. Statement 1: It aimed to mobilize educated public opinion on national issues through meetings, lectures, and publications. Statement 2: A major goal was to unify diverse Indian groups under a common political platform, transcending regional and sectarian divides. Statement 3: Promoting Hindu-Muslim unity was an explicit aim to foster broader national consciousness. Statement 4: It actively campaigned against discriminatory policies like the reduction of the age limit for the ICS examination and advocated for simultaneous exams in India and England to provide fairer opportunities for Indians. Incorrect Solution: D All four statements reflect the key objectives and activities of the Indian Association. Statement 1: It aimed to mobilize educated public opinion on national issues through meetings, lectures, and publications. Statement 2: A major goal was to unify diverse Indian groups under a common political platform, transcending regional and sectarian divides. Statement 3: Promoting Hindu-Muslim unity was an explicit aim to foster broader national consciousness. Statement 4: It actively campaigned against discriminatory policies like the reduction of the age limit for the ICS examination and advocated for simultaneous exams in India and England to provide fairer opportunities for Indians.

#### 7. Question

The Indian Association, founded by Surendranath Banerjea and Anand Mohan Bose in 1876, had which of the following objectives?

• Creating a strong public opinion on political questions.

• Uniting Indian people on a common political programme.

• Promoting friendly relations between Hindus and Muslims.

• Advocating for simultaneous ICS examinations in India and England.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1, 2 and 4 only

• (c) 3 and 4 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: D

All four statements reflect the key objectives and activities of the Indian Association.

Statement 1: It aimed to mobilize educated public opinion on national issues through meetings, lectures, and publications.

Statement 2: A major goal was to unify diverse Indian groups under a common political platform, transcending regional and sectarian divides.

Statement 3: Promoting Hindu-Muslim unity was an explicit aim to foster broader national consciousness.

Statement 4: It actively campaigned against discriminatory policies like the reduction of the age limit for the ICS examination and advocated for simultaneous exams in India and England to provide fairer opportunities for Indians.

Solution: D

All four statements reflect the key objectives and activities of the Indian Association.

Statement 1: It aimed to mobilize educated public opinion on national issues through meetings, lectures, and publications.

Statement 2: A major goal was to unify diverse Indian groups under a common political platform, transcending regional and sectarian divides.

Statement 3: Promoting Hindu-Muslim unity was an explicit aim to foster broader national consciousness.

Statement 4: It actively campaigned against discriminatory policies like the reduction of the age limit for the ICS examination and advocated for simultaneous exams in India and England to provide fairer opportunities for Indians.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statement: Statement I: The Revolt of 1857 failed to overthrow British rule in India completely. Statement II: The revolt lacked unified leadership, a common plan, modern weaponry, and support from all sections of Indian society, including many princely states and educated elites. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement I is correct: The Revolt of 1857, despite its scale and intensity, ultimately failed to end British rule in India. Statement II is correct: Several factors contributed to the failure, including the lack of a unified command structure and coordinated plan across different centers, the absence of a shared future vision among leaders, inferior weaponry and resources compared to the British, and the lack of widespread support. Many princely states remained loyal to the British, and the newly emerging Western-educated Indian middle class generally did not support the revolt, viewing it as backward-looking. Statement II provides the key reasons explaining why the event described in Statement I occurred. Therefore, Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I. Incorrect Solution: A Statement I is correct: The Revolt of 1857, despite its scale and intensity, ultimately failed to end British rule in India. Statement II is correct: Several factors contributed to the failure, including the lack of a unified command structure and coordinated plan across different centers, the absence of a shared future vision among leaders, inferior weaponry and resources compared to the British, and the lack of widespread support. Many princely states remained loyal to the British, and the newly emerging Western-educated Indian middle class generally did not support the revolt, viewing it as backward-looking. Statement II provides the key reasons explaining why the event described in Statement I occurred. Therefore, Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statement:

Statement I: The Revolt of 1857 failed to overthrow British rule in India completely.

Statement II: The revolt lacked unified leadership, a common plan, modern weaponry, and support from all sections of Indian society, including many princely states and educated elites.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I

• (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I

• (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

• (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Solution: A

Statement I is correct: The Revolt of 1857, despite its scale and intensity, ultimately failed to end British rule in India.

Statement II is correct: Several factors contributed to the failure, including the lack of a unified command structure and coordinated plan across different centers, the absence of a shared future vision among leaders, inferior weaponry and resources compared to the British, and the lack of widespread support. Many princely states remained loyal to the British, and the newly emerging Western-educated Indian middle class generally did not support the revolt, viewing it as backward-looking. Statement II provides the key reasons explaining why the event described in Statement I occurred. Therefore, Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.

Solution: A

Statement I is correct: The Revolt of 1857, despite its scale and intensity, ultimately failed to end British rule in India.

Statement II is correct: Several factors contributed to the failure, including the lack of a unified command structure and coordinated plan across different centers, the absence of a shared future vision among leaders, inferior weaponry and resources compared to the British, and the lack of widespread support. Many princely states remained loyal to the British, and the newly emerging Western-educated Indian middle class generally did not support the revolt, viewing it as backward-looking. Statement II provides the key reasons explaining why the event described in Statement I occurred. Therefore, Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points The Government of India Act 1858, enacted after the Revolt of 1857, resulted in which of the following significant changes? Transfer of power from the East India Company to the British Crown. Creation of the office of the Secretary of State for India, assisted by a Council of India. Abolition of the Board of Control and Court of Directors. 4. Guaranteeing the territorial integrity of the remaining Princely States. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: D All four statements accurately describe major consequences enshrined in or resulting directly from the Government of India Act 1858 and the subsequent Queen’s Proclamation. Statement 1: The Act formally ended the rule of the East India Company and transferred governance directly to the British Crown. Statement 2: It created the post of Secretary of State for India, a member of the British cabinet, responsible for Indian affairs, advised by a 15-member Council of India. Statement 3: The Act abolished the Company’s governing bodies in London – the Board of Control (representing the Crown) and the Court of Directors (representing the Company). Statement 4: The Queen’s Proclamation (1858) assured Indian princes that their territories would be respected and the policy of annexation (like the Doctrine of Lapse) would be abandoned, seeking to secure their loyalty as allies. Incorrect Solution: D All four statements accurately describe major consequences enshrined in or resulting directly from the Government of India Act 1858 and the subsequent Queen’s Proclamation. Statement 1: The Act formally ended the rule of the East India Company and transferred governance directly to the British Crown. Statement 2: It created the post of Secretary of State for India, a member of the British cabinet, responsible for Indian affairs, advised by a 15-member Council of India. Statement 3: The Act abolished the Company’s governing bodies in London – the Board of Control (representing the Crown) and the Court of Directors (representing the Company). Statement 4: The Queen’s Proclamation (1858) assured Indian princes that their territories would be respected and the policy of annexation (like the Doctrine of Lapse) would be abandoned, seeking to secure their loyalty as allies.

#### 9. Question

The Government of India Act 1858, enacted after the Revolt of 1857, resulted in which of the following significant changes?

• Transfer of power from the East India Company to the British Crown.

• Creation of the office of the Secretary of State for India, assisted by a Council of India.

• Abolition of the Board of Control and Court of Directors. 4. Guaranteeing the territorial integrity of the remaining Princely States.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (c) 3 and 4 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: D

All four statements accurately describe major consequences enshrined in or resulting directly from the Government of India Act 1858 and the subsequent Queen’s Proclamation.

Statement 1: The Act formally ended the rule of the East India Company and transferred governance directly to the British Crown.

Statement 2: It created the post of Secretary of State for India, a member of the British cabinet, responsible for Indian affairs, advised by a 15-member Council of India.

Statement 3: The Act abolished the Company’s governing bodies in London – the Board of Control (representing the Crown) and the Court of Directors (representing the Company).

Statement 4: The Queen’s Proclamation (1858) assured Indian princes that their territories would be respected and the policy of annexation (like the Doctrine of Lapse) would be abandoned, seeking to secure their loyalty as allies.

Solution: D

All four statements accurately describe major consequences enshrined in or resulting directly from the Government of India Act 1858 and the subsequent Queen’s Proclamation.

Statement 1: The Act formally ended the rule of the East India Company and transferred governance directly to the British Crown.

Statement 2: It created the post of Secretary of State for India, a member of the British cabinet, responsible for Indian affairs, advised by a 15-member Council of India.

Statement 3: The Act abolished the Company’s governing bodies in London – the Board of Control (representing the Crown) and the Court of Directors (representing the Company).

Statement 4: The Queen’s Proclamation (1858) assured Indian princes that their territories would be respected and the policy of annexation (like the Doctrine of Lapse) would be abandoned, seeking to secure their loyalty as allies.

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Which perspective argues that the 1857 Revolt was the “First War of Indian Independence”? (a) Primarily British historians viewing it as a sepoy mutiny confined to North India. (b) Marxist historians analyzing it as a struggle against feudal and foreign exploitation. (c) Nationalist historians emphasizing the widespread participation and anti-British sentiment. (d) Subaltern historians focusing on the autonomous role of peasants and tribal communities. Correct Solution: C The characterization of the 1857 Revolt as the “First War of Indian Independence” was prominently put forth by nationalist historians and figures (like V.D. Savarkar in his book of the same name). This perspective emphasizes the anti-British sentiment, the participation of various sections of society beyond just the sepoys, and the attempt, however fragmented, to overthrow foreign rule. Incorrect Solution: C The characterization of the 1857 Revolt as the “First War of Indian Independence” was prominently put forth by nationalist historians and figures (like V.D. Savarkar in his book of the same name). This perspective emphasizes the anti-British sentiment, the participation of various sections of society beyond just the sepoys, and the attempt, however fragmented, to overthrow foreign rule.

#### 10. Question

Which perspective argues that the 1857 Revolt was the “First War of Indian Independence”?

• (a) Primarily British historians viewing it as a sepoy mutiny confined to North India.

• (b) Marxist historians analyzing it as a struggle against feudal and foreign exploitation.

• (c) Nationalist historians emphasizing the widespread participation and anti-British sentiment.

• (d) Subaltern historians focusing on the autonomous role of peasants and tribal communities.

Solution: C

The characterization of the 1857 Revolt as the “First War of Indian Independence” was prominently put forth by nationalist historians and figures (like V.D. Savarkar in his book of the same name). This perspective emphasizes the anti-British sentiment, the participation of various sections of society beyond just the sepoys, and the attempt, however fragmented, to overthrow foreign rule.

Solution: C

The characterization of the 1857 Revolt as the “First War of Indian Independence” was prominently put forth by nationalist historians and figures (like V.D. Savarkar in his book of the same name). This perspective emphasizes the anti-British sentiment, the participation of various sections of society beyond just the sepoys, and the attempt, however fragmented, to overthrow foreign rule.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The foundation of Pondicherry was laid in the year 1673 after the French Company successfully obtained firman from the Qiladar of Valikondapurarm. Sikander Adil Shah leased out Madras to the British and allowed them to fortify it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A The foundation of Pondicherry was laid in 1673 when the French East India Company obtained a firman (royal order) from the Qiladar of Valikondapuram, under the Sultan of Bijapur. (Hence statement 1 is correct) In 1639, Francis Day was able to obtain Madras on lease from Damarla Venkatadri Nayaka of Wandiwash; the ruler gave over to the East India Company a three-mile-long strip of land, a fishing village called Madrasapatam– copies of which were endorsed by Andrew Cogan, the Chief of Masulipatam factory. The ruler allowed the English to fortify Madras, to administer it and to coin money on the condition that English will pay him half the customs revenue of the port. Thus, the English set up a factory and built a small Fort around it, called Fort Saint George. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: A The foundation of Pondicherry was laid in 1673 when the French East India Company obtained a firman (royal order) from the Qiladar of Valikondapuram, under the Sultan of Bijapur. (Hence statement 1 is correct) In 1639, Francis Day was able to obtain Madras on lease from Damarla Venkatadri Nayaka of Wandiwash; the ruler gave over to the East India Company a three-mile-long strip of land, a fishing village called Madrasapatam– copies of which were endorsed by Andrew Cogan, the Chief of Masulipatam factory. The ruler allowed the English to fortify Madras, to administer it and to coin money on the condition that English will pay him half the customs revenue of the port. Thus, the English set up a factory and built a small Fort around it, called Fort Saint George. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

#### 11. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The foundation of Pondicherry was laid in the year 1673 after the French Company successfully obtained firman from the Qiladar of Valikondapurarm.

• Sikander Adil Shah leased out Madras to the British and allowed them to fortify it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

• The foundation of Pondicherry was laid in 1673 when the French East India Company obtained a firman (royal order) from the Qiladar of Valikondapuram, under the Sultan of Bijapur. (Hence statement 1 is correct)

• In 1639, Francis Day was able to obtain Madras on lease from Damarla Venkatadri Nayaka of Wandiwash; the ruler gave over to the East India Company a three-mile-long strip of land, a fishing village called Madrasapatam– copies of which were endorsed by Andrew Cogan, the Chief of Masulipatam factory.

• The ruler allowed the English to fortify Madras, to administer it and to coin money on the condition that English will pay him half the customs revenue of the port.

• Thus, the English set up a factory and built a small Fort around it, called Fort Saint George.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Solution: A

• The foundation of Pondicherry was laid in 1673 when the French East India Company obtained a firman (royal order) from the Qiladar of Valikondapuram, under the Sultan of Bijapur. (Hence statement 1 is correct)

• In 1639, Francis Day was able to obtain Madras on lease from Damarla Venkatadri Nayaka of Wandiwash; the ruler gave over to the East India Company a three-mile-long strip of land, a fishing village called Madrasapatam– copies of which were endorsed by Andrew Cogan, the Chief of Masulipatam factory.

• The ruler allowed the English to fortify Madras, to administer it and to coin money on the condition that English will pay him half the customs revenue of the port.

• Thus, the English set up a factory and built a small Fort around it, called Fort Saint George.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs: Portuguese Governor : Major achievement Alfonzo-de-Albuquerque : Construction of Anjediva fort Nino-de- Cunha : Goa established as official Portuguese capital in India Francisco De Almeida : Adoption of Blue Water Policy How many of the pairs given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Alfonzo-de-Albuquerque was the greatest Portuguese victory in India and is also called the real founder of Portuguese power in India. He set up his headquarter at Cochin In 1509 he conquered Diu and in 1510 he conquered Goa from the Sultan of Bijapur and with this, the regional Kingdom of Portuguese in India was established Hence pair 1 is incorrect Nino-de- Cunha in 1530 transferred the government head office from Cochin to Goa, thus making Goa the official capital of the Portuguese in India. Hence pair 2 is correct Francisco De Almeida was appointed as the first Portuguese victory of India for a period of 3 years. He adopted the Blue Water policy with an aim to establish Naval supremacy of the Portuguese in the Indian Ocean rather than over land He is credited with the construction of Fort Anjediva on the Anjediva Island lying at the border of Muslim Bijapur and Hindu Vijayanagara States. Hence pair 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: B Alfonzo-de-Albuquerque was the greatest Portuguese victory in India and is also called the real founder of Portuguese power in India. He set up his headquarter at Cochin In 1509 he conquered Diu and in 1510 he conquered Goa from the Sultan of Bijapur and with this, the regional Kingdom of Portuguese in India was established Hence pair 1 is incorrect Nino-de- Cunha in 1530 transferred the government head office from Cochin to Goa, thus making Goa the official capital of the Portuguese in India. Hence pair 2 is correct Francisco De Almeida was appointed as the first Portuguese victory of India for a period of 3 years. He adopted the Blue Water policy with an aim to establish Naval supremacy of the Portuguese in the Indian Ocean rather than over land He is credited with the construction of Fort Anjediva on the Anjediva Island lying at the border of Muslim Bijapur and Hindu Vijayanagara States. Hence pair 3 is correct

#### 12. Question

Consider the following pairs:

Portuguese Governor : Major achievement

• Alfonzo-de-Albuquerque : Construction of Anjediva fort

• Nino-de- Cunha : Goa established as official Portuguese capital in India

• Francisco De Almeida : Adoption of Blue Water Policy

How many of the pairs given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Alfonzo-de-Albuquerque was the greatest Portuguese victory in India and is also called the real founder of Portuguese power in India.

• He set up his headquarter at Cochin

• In 1509 he conquered Diu and in 1510 he conquered Goa from the Sultan of Bijapur and with this, the regional Kingdom of Portuguese in India was established

Hence pair 1 is incorrect

Nino-de- Cunha in 1530 transferred the government head office from Cochin to Goa, thus making Goa the official capital of the Portuguese in India.

Hence pair 2 is correct

Francisco De Almeida was appointed as the first Portuguese victory of India for a period of 3 years.

• He adopted the Blue Water policy with an aim to establish Naval supremacy of the Portuguese in the Indian Ocean rather than over land

• He is credited with the construction of Fort Anjediva on the Anjediva Island lying at the border of Muslim Bijapur and Hindu Vijayanagara States.

Hence pair 3 is correct

Solution: B

Alfonzo-de-Albuquerque was the greatest Portuguese victory in India and is also called the real founder of Portuguese power in India.

• He set up his headquarter at Cochin

• In 1509 he conquered Diu and in 1510 he conquered Goa from the Sultan of Bijapur and with this, the regional Kingdom of Portuguese in India was established

Hence pair 1 is incorrect

Nino-de- Cunha in 1530 transferred the government head office from Cochin to Goa, thus making Goa the official capital of the Portuguese in India.

Hence pair 2 is correct

Francisco De Almeida was appointed as the first Portuguese victory of India for a period of 3 years.

• He adopted the Blue Water policy with an aim to establish Naval supremacy of the Portuguese in the Indian Ocean rather than over land

• He is credited with the construction of Fort Anjediva on the Anjediva Island lying at the border of Muslim Bijapur and Hindu Vijayanagara States.

Hence pair 3 is correct

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement – I: The Inam Commission of 1852 added to the grievances that led to the revolt of 1857. Statement – II: The recommendations of the Inam Commission of 1852 resulted in confiscation of several lands that were exempt from paying revenue to the ruling authority. Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct Correct Solution: A Inam lands were actually land grants that were exempt from paying taxes to the ruling authority; these lands were given for religious, charitable or service purposes. The British constituted the Inam commission in 1852 to investigate and verify ownership of Inam lands. The commission aimed to systematize land revenue collection and consolidate British control over land ownership. The commission’s investigations led to confiscation of numerous Inam lands, specially when owners failed to produce sufficient evidence to prove the validity of their grants This issue contributed to the grievances that fuelled the Revolt of 1857 The recommendations of the Commission, particularly seizure of land from landlords created significant economic and political discontent and further fuelled the already tensed situations prior to the outbreak of the revolt of 1857. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 correctly explains statement 1 Incorrect Solution: A Inam lands were actually land grants that were exempt from paying taxes to the ruling authority; these lands were given for religious, charitable or service purposes. The British constituted the Inam commission in 1852 to investigate and verify ownership of Inam lands. The commission aimed to systematize land revenue collection and consolidate British control over land ownership. The commission’s investigations led to confiscation of numerous Inam lands, specially when owners failed to produce sufficient evidence to prove the validity of their grants This issue contributed to the grievances that fuelled the Revolt of 1857 The recommendations of the Commission, particularly seizure of land from landlords created significant economic and political discontent and further fuelled the already tensed situations prior to the outbreak of the revolt of 1857. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 correctly explains statement 1

#### 13. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement – I: The Inam Commission of 1852 added to the grievances that led to the revolt of 1857.

Statement – II: The recommendations of the Inam Commission of 1852 resulted in confiscation of several lands that were exempt from paying revenue to the ruling authority.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I

• (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I

• (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect

• (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct

Solution: A

• Inam lands were actually land grants that were exempt from paying taxes to the ruling authority; these lands were given for religious, charitable or service purposes.

• The British constituted the Inam commission in 1852 to investigate and verify ownership of Inam lands.

• The commission aimed to systematize land revenue collection and consolidate British control over land ownership.

• The commission’s investigations led to confiscation of numerous Inam lands, specially when owners failed to produce sufficient evidence to prove the validity of their grants

• This issue contributed to the grievances that fuelled the Revolt of 1857

• The recommendations of the Commission, particularly seizure of land from landlords created significant economic and political discontent and further fuelled the already tensed situations prior to the outbreak of the revolt of 1857.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 correctly explains statement 1

Solution: A

• Inam lands were actually land grants that were exempt from paying taxes to the ruling authority; these lands were given for religious, charitable or service purposes.

• The British constituted the Inam commission in 1852 to investigate and verify ownership of Inam lands.

• The commission aimed to systematize land revenue collection and consolidate British control over land ownership.

• The commission’s investigations led to confiscation of numerous Inam lands, specially when owners failed to produce sufficient evidence to prove the validity of their grants

• This issue contributed to the grievances that fuelled the Revolt of 1857

• The recommendations of the Commission, particularly seizure of land from landlords created significant economic and political discontent and further fuelled the already tensed situations prior to the outbreak of the revolt of 1857.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 correctly explains statement 1

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the East India Association (EIA): It was founded in London to influence British public opinion on Indian issues. Through the association Dadabhai Naoroji aimed to promote the concept of ‘Drain of wealth’. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C The East India Association was formed by Dadabhai Naoroji in 1866 in London along with some other members including Pherozshah Mehta and Manmohan Ghosh to carry political propaganda in England and discuss the Indian question and work for interest and welfare of the Indians. Hence statement 1 is correct Dadabhai Naoroji was a key figure in developing and popularizing the “Drain of Wealth” theory, which argued that a significant portion of India’s wealth was being systematically transferred to Britain without adequate economic returns. He used various platforms to promote this concept, and the East India Association was certainly one of them, even before the publication of his influential book “Poverty and Un-British Rule in India” in 1901. The association provided a forum to discuss and disseminate his economic ideas to a British audience. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: C The East India Association was formed by Dadabhai Naoroji in 1866 in London along with some other members including Pherozshah Mehta and Manmohan Ghosh to carry political propaganda in England and discuss the Indian question and work for interest and welfare of the Indians. Hence statement 1 is correct Dadabhai Naoroji was a key figure in developing and popularizing the “Drain of Wealth” theory, which argued that a significant portion of India’s wealth was being systematically transferred to Britain without adequate economic returns. He used various platforms to promote this concept, and the East India Association was certainly one of them, even before the publication of his influential book “Poverty and Un-British Rule in India” in 1901. The association provided a forum to discuss and disseminate his economic ideas to a British audience. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

#### 14. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the East India Association (EIA):

• It was founded in London to influence British public opinion on Indian issues.

• Through the association Dadabhai Naoroji aimed to promote the concept of ‘Drain of wealth’.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

• The East India Association was formed by Dadabhai Naoroji in 1866 in London along with some other members including Pherozshah Mehta and Manmohan Ghosh to carry political propaganda in England and discuss the Indian question and work for interest and welfare of the Indians. Hence statement 1 is correct

• Dadabhai Naoroji was a key figure in developing and popularizing the “Drain of Wealth” theory, which argued that a significant portion of India’s wealth was being systematically transferred to Britain without adequate economic returns.

• He used various platforms to promote this concept, and the East India Association was certainly one of them, even before the publication of his influential book “Poverty and Un-British Rule in India” in 1901.

• The association provided a forum to discuss and disseminate his economic ideas to a British audience. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Solution: C

• The East India Association was formed by Dadabhai Naoroji in 1866 in London along with some other members including Pherozshah Mehta and Manmohan Ghosh to carry political propaganda in England and discuss the Indian question and work for interest and welfare of the Indians. Hence statement 1 is correct

• Dadabhai Naoroji was a key figure in developing and popularizing the “Drain of Wealth” theory, which argued that a significant portion of India’s wealth was being systematically transferred to Britain without adequate economic returns.

• He used various platforms to promote this concept, and the East India Association was certainly one of them, even before the publication of his influential book “Poverty and Un-British Rule in India” in 1901.

• The association provided a forum to discuss and disseminate his economic ideas to a British audience. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Consider the following revolutionaries: KT Telang Mahadev Govind Ranade Ganesh Vasudeo Joshi SH Chiplunkar How many of the above best founding members of the Poone Sarvjanik Sabha? (a) 2 and 4 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 3 only Correct Solution: C The Poonam Sarvajanik Sabha was founded him 1870 by MG Ranade, SH Chiplunkar and Ganesh Vasudeo Joshi. It was founded with an aim of serving as a bridge between the government and the people. It worked in close association with other organisations and played an important role in arousing political consciousness. It represented the local community including the businessmen, government servants, land owners, lawyers, teachers It advocated for the rights of peasants, organised famine relief in the Deccan region and also established arbitration courts. Hence options 2, 3 and 4 are correct Incorrect Solution: C The Poonam Sarvajanik Sabha was founded him 1870 by MG Ranade, SH Chiplunkar and Ganesh Vasudeo Joshi. It was founded with an aim of serving as a bridge between the government and the people. It worked in close association with other organisations and played an important role in arousing political consciousness. It represented the local community including the businessmen, government servants, land owners, lawyers, teachers It advocated for the rights of peasants, organised famine relief in the Deccan region and also established arbitration courts. Hence options 2, 3 and 4 are correct

#### 15. Question

Consider the following revolutionaries:

• Mahadev Govind Ranade

• Ganesh Vasudeo Joshi

• SH Chiplunkar

How many of the above best founding members of the Poone Sarvjanik Sabha?

• (a) 2 and 4 only

• (b) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (c) 2, 3 and 4 only

• (d) 1 and 3 only

Solution: C

• The Poonam Sarvajanik Sabha was founded him 1870 by MG Ranade, SH Chiplunkar and Ganesh Vasudeo Joshi.

• It was founded with an aim of serving as a bridge between the government and the people.

• It worked in close association with other organisations and played an important role in arousing political consciousness.

• It represented the local community including the businessmen, government servants, land owners, lawyers, teachers

• It advocated for the rights of peasants, organised famine relief in the Deccan region and also established arbitration courts.

Hence options 2, 3 and 4 are correct

Solution: C

• The Poonam Sarvajanik Sabha was founded him 1870 by MG Ranade, SH Chiplunkar and Ganesh Vasudeo Joshi.

• It was founded with an aim of serving as a bridge between the government and the people.

• It worked in close association with other organisations and played an important role in arousing political consciousness.

• It represented the local community including the businessmen, government servants, land owners, lawyers, teachers

• It advocated for the rights of peasants, organised famine relief in the Deccan region and also established arbitration courts.

Hence options 2, 3 and 4 are correct

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement – I: The Government of India Act 1858 abolished the East India Company and ended its rule in India. Statement – II: The Permanent Settlement and Mahalwari system introduced by the Company enhanced grievances of cultivators, who also participated in the Revolt of 1857. Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct Correct Solution: B Although the revolt of 1857 was suppressed by the British and the authority was re-established, the Revolt provided a severe blow to the government. It was seen as a milestone event and an eye opener and warnings for the Company. The Structure and policies of the British raj were in many aspects drastically changed and inaugurated a new era of colonialism in India; thus, the changes introduced in the post Revolt years were guided by a renewed imperialist ideology. After the Revolt of 1857 the British government was forced to pass the Act of 1858 which called for liquidation of the British East India Company and its rule in India. Hence statement 1 is correct The various land revenue settlements like Permanent Settlement, Ryotwari and Mahalwari systems, introduced by the Company, meant loss of land for the landlords and heavy taxation for the cultivators. This made the cultivators heavily indebted; many of them later participated in the Revolt of 1857 driving away the government officials and burning money lenders’ records. The addition of cultivators in the revolt strengthened its base and made it more wide spread. Thus, the policies of the Company were directly responsible for outbreak of The Revolt and hence the British government thought of ending the Company rule and usher a new era of British administration in India through the Act of 1858. Hence statement 2 is correct Statement – I describe the consequence of the Revolt of 1857 (the abolition of the East India Company). Statement – II describes some of the underlying causes and grievances that contributed to the Revolt of 1857, in which cultivators played a part. Incorrect Solution: B Although the revolt of 1857 was suppressed by the British and the authority was re-established, the Revolt provided a severe blow to the government. It was seen as a milestone event and an eye opener and warnings for the Company. The Structure and policies of the British raj were in many aspects drastically changed and inaugurated a new era of colonialism in India; thus, the changes introduced in the post Revolt years were guided by a renewed imperialist ideology. After the Revolt of 1857 the British government was forced to pass the Act of 1858 which called for liquidation of the British East India Company and its rule in India. Hence statement 1 is correct The various land revenue settlements like Permanent Settlement, Ryotwari and Mahalwari systems, introduced by the Company, meant loss of land for the landlords and heavy taxation for the cultivators. This made the cultivators heavily indebted; many of them later participated in the Revolt of 1857 driving away the government officials and burning money lenders’ records. The addition of cultivators in the revolt strengthened its base and made it more wide spread. Thus, the policies of the Company were directly responsible for outbreak of The Revolt and hence the British government thought of ending the Company rule and usher a new era of British administration in India through the Act of 1858. Hence statement 2 is correct Statement – I describe the consequence of the Revolt of 1857 (the abolition of the East India Company). Statement – II describes some of the underlying causes and grievances that contributed to the Revolt of 1857, in which cultivators played a part.

#### 16. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement – I: The Government of India Act 1858 abolished the East India Company and ended its rule in India.

Statement – II: The Permanent Settlement and Mahalwari system introduced by the Company enhanced grievances of cultivators, who also participated in the Revolt of 1857.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I

• (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I

• (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect

• (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct

Solution: B

• Although the revolt of 1857 was suppressed by the British and the authority was re-established, the Revolt provided a severe blow to the government.

• It was seen as a milestone event and an eye opener and warnings for the Company.

• The Structure and policies of the British raj were in many aspects drastically changed and inaugurated a new era of colonialism in India; thus, the changes introduced in the post Revolt years were guided by a renewed imperialist ideology.

• After the Revolt of 1857 the British government was forced to pass the Act of 1858 which called for liquidation of the British East India Company and its rule in India.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The various land revenue settlements like Permanent Settlement, Ryotwari and Mahalwari systems, introduced by the Company, meant loss of land for the landlords and heavy taxation for the cultivators.

• This made the cultivators heavily indebted; many of them later participated in the Revolt of 1857 driving away the government officials and burning money lenders’ records.

• The addition of cultivators in the revolt strengthened its base and made it more wide spread.

• Thus, the policies of the Company were directly responsible for outbreak of The Revolt and hence the British government thought of ending the Company rule and usher a new era of British administration in India through the Act of 1858.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Statement – I describe the consequence of the Revolt of 1857 (the abolition of the East India Company). Statement – II describes some of the underlying causes and grievances that contributed to the Revolt of 1857, in which cultivators played a part.

Solution: B

• Although the revolt of 1857 was suppressed by the British and the authority was re-established, the Revolt provided a severe blow to the government.

• It was seen as a milestone event and an eye opener and warnings for the Company.

• The Structure and policies of the British raj were in many aspects drastically changed and inaugurated a new era of colonialism in India; thus, the changes introduced in the post Revolt years were guided by a renewed imperialist ideology.

• After the Revolt of 1857 the British government was forced to pass the Act of 1858 which called for liquidation of the British East India Company and its rule in India.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The various land revenue settlements like Permanent Settlement, Ryotwari and Mahalwari systems, introduced by the Company, meant loss of land for the landlords and heavy taxation for the cultivators.

• This made the cultivators heavily indebted; many of them later participated in the Revolt of 1857 driving away the government officials and burning money lenders’ records.

• The addition of cultivators in the revolt strengthened its base and made it more wide spread.

• Thus, the policies of the Company were directly responsible for outbreak of The Revolt and hence the British government thought of ending the Company rule and usher a new era of British administration in India through the Act of 1858.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Statement – I describe the consequence of the Revolt of 1857 (the abolition of the East India Company). Statement – II describes some of the underlying causes and grievances that contributed to the Revolt of 1857, in which cultivators played a part.

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points The Farrukhsiyar Farman 1717 provided for: Measures should be taken so that the boats owned or hired by them are not molested by anyone. Use of coins by the Company minted by them at Bombay Duty free trade in Bengal in exchange for an annual payment Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 only Correct Solution: C The provisions of the Farman of 1717 were – Duty-free trade: English Company agents could transport goods by land or water without paying customs duties, except for an annual peshkash (tribute) of ₹3000. Protection of goods: Local authorities were directed to recover stolen goods of the Company and punish the thieves promptly. Factory establishment support: The English were to be assisted in setting up factories across Bengal without obstruction. Debt recovery from locals: If native merchants or weavers owed money to the Company’s agents, the authorities had to ensure repayment. Protection of transport boats: Boats owned or hired by the Company were to be protected from molestation or harassment. Rights over purchased villages: Villages legally bought by the Company would remain in their possession; they could also rent adjoining villages with Diwan’s permission. Acceptance of Madras coins: If silver coins minted in Madras matched Surat standards, no discount was to be demanded. Seizure of fleeing debtors: Any Company servant attempting to escape debts had to be caught and handed over to Company officials. Safeguarding shipwreck goods: In the event of shipwrecks, special care was to be taken to recover and protect Company belongings. Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct Incorrect Solution: C The provisions of the Farman of 1717 were – Duty-free trade: English Company agents could transport goods by land or water without paying customs duties, except for an annual peshkash (tribute) of ₹3000. Protection of goods: Local authorities were directed to recover stolen goods of the Company and punish the thieves promptly. Factory establishment support: The English were to be assisted in setting up factories across Bengal without obstruction. Debt recovery from locals: If native merchants or weavers owed money to the Company’s agents, the authorities had to ensure repayment. Protection of transport boats: Boats owned or hired by the Company were to be protected from molestation or harassment. Rights over purchased villages: Villages legally bought by the Company would remain in their possession; they could also rent adjoining villages with Diwan’s permission. Acceptance of Madras coins: If silver coins minted in Madras matched Surat standards, no discount was to be demanded. Seizure of fleeing debtors: Any Company servant attempting to escape debts had to be caught and handed over to Company officials. Safeguarding shipwreck goods: In the event of shipwrecks, special care was to be taken to recover and protect Company belongings. Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct

#### 17. Question

The Farrukhsiyar Farman 1717 provided for:

• Measures should be taken so that the boats owned or hired by them are not molested by anyone.

• Use of coins by the Company minted by them at Bombay

• Duty free trade in Bengal in exchange for an annual payment

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3

• (d) 3 only

Solution: C

The provisions of the Farman of 1717 were –

Duty-free trade: English Company agents could transport goods by land or water without paying customs duties, except for an annual peshkash (tribute) of ₹3000.

Protection of goods: Local authorities were directed to recover stolen goods of the Company and punish the thieves promptly.

Factory establishment support: The English were to be assisted in setting up factories across Bengal without obstruction.

Debt recovery from locals: If native merchants or weavers owed money to the Company’s agents, the authorities had to ensure repayment.

Protection of transport boats: Boats owned or hired by the Company were to be protected from molestation or harassment.

Rights over purchased villages: Villages legally bought by the Company would remain in their possession; they could also rent adjoining villages with Diwan’s permission.

Acceptance of Madras coins: If silver coins minted in Madras matched Surat standards, no discount was to be demanded.

Seizure of fleeing debtors: Any Company servant attempting to escape debts had to be caught and handed over to Company officials.

Safeguarding shipwreck goods: In the event of shipwrecks, special care was to be taken to recover and protect Company belongings.

Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Solution: C

The provisions of the Farman of 1717 were –

Duty-free trade: English Company agents could transport goods by land or water without paying customs duties, except for an annual peshkash (tribute) of ₹3000.

Protection of goods: Local authorities were directed to recover stolen goods of the Company and punish the thieves promptly.

Factory establishment support: The English were to be assisted in setting up factories across Bengal without obstruction.

Debt recovery from locals: If native merchants or weavers owed money to the Company’s agents, the authorities had to ensure repayment.

Protection of transport boats: Boats owned or hired by the Company were to be protected from molestation or harassment.

Rights over purchased villages: Villages legally bought by the Company would remain in their possession; they could also rent adjoining villages with Diwan’s permission.

Acceptance of Madras coins: If silver coins minted in Madras matched Surat standards, no discount was to be demanded.

Seizure of fleeing debtors: Any Company servant attempting to escape debts had to be caught and handed over to Company officials.

Safeguarding shipwreck goods: In the event of shipwrecks, special care was to be taken to recover and protect Company belongings.

Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Bangobhasha Prakashika Sabha was established by Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar to promote Bengali literature in British India. The Bengal British India society was the first official political organisation in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: D The Bangabasha Prakashika Sabha was a Bengali language and literary society established in Calcutta in 1836 by associates of Ram Mohan Roy. It was set up under the leadership of Gaurishankar Tarkabagish. The association also advocated for interests of the zamindars in Bengal. Vidyasagar (1820-1891) was not associated with this organisation. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The Zamindari Association or the Landholders Society (1836) was the first formal political Association of British India. The Bengal British India Society was formed in 1843 with the objective of promoting general public interest and spread information related to actual condition of people in British India. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: D The Bangabasha Prakashika Sabha was a Bengali language and literary society established in Calcutta in 1836 by associates of Ram Mohan Roy. It was set up under the leadership of Gaurishankar Tarkabagish. The association also advocated for interests of the zamindars in Bengal. Vidyasagar (1820-1891) was not associated with this organisation. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The Zamindari Association or the Landholders Society (1836) was the first formal political Association of British India. The Bengal British India Society was formed in 1843 with the objective of promoting general public interest and spread information related to actual condition of people in British India. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

#### 18. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Bangobhasha Prakashika Sabha was established by Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar to promote Bengali literature in British India.

• The Bengal British India society was the first official political organisation in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: D

• The Bangabasha Prakashika Sabha was a Bengali language and literary society established in Calcutta in 1836 by associates of Ram Mohan Roy.

• It was set up under the leadership of Gaurishankar Tarkabagish.

• The association also advocated for interests of the zamindars in Bengal.

Vidyasagar (1820-1891) was not associated with this organisation.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The Zamindari Association or the Landholders Society (1836) was the first formal political Association of British India.

• The Bengal British India Society was formed in 1843 with the objective of promoting general public interest and spread information related to actual condition of people in British India.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Solution: D

• The Bangabasha Prakashika Sabha was a Bengali language and literary society established in Calcutta in 1836 by associates of Ram Mohan Roy.

• It was set up under the leadership of Gaurishankar Tarkabagish.

• The association also advocated for interests of the zamindars in Bengal.

Vidyasagar (1820-1891) was not associated with this organisation.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The Zamindari Association or the Landholders Society (1836) was the first formal political Association of British India.

• The Bengal British India Society was formed in 1843 with the objective of promoting general public interest and spread information related to actual condition of people in British India.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Consider the following places: Pulicat Nizampatam Balasore Karaikal At how many of the places mentioned above, were Dutch factories established in India? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: D In 1602 the Dutch East India company was formed and that Parliament give it a charter impowering it to make War and Peace with other states Aqua territories and build fortresses in. In 1606, the first Dutch factory in India was established at Masulipatam in Andhra; the second factory was set up at Nizampatam The Dutch East India company established several other factories across India for trading purposes, in Pulicat, Surat, Karaikal, Chinsurah, Baranagar, Kasimbazar, Balasore, Patna, Bimlipatam, Nagapatam and Cochin. In 1759 the Dutch were defeated by the English in the Battle of Bedara which ended the Dutch power in India. Hence option D is correct Incorrect Solution: D In 1602 the Dutch East India company was formed and that Parliament give it a charter impowering it to make War and Peace with other states Aqua territories and build fortresses in. In 1606, the first Dutch factory in India was established at Masulipatam in Andhra; the second factory was set up at Nizampatam The Dutch East India company established several other factories across India for trading purposes, in Pulicat, Surat, Karaikal, Chinsurah, Baranagar, Kasimbazar, Balasore, Patna, Bimlipatam, Nagapatam and Cochin. In 1759 the Dutch were defeated by the English in the Battle of Bedara which ended the Dutch power in India. Hence option D is correct

#### 19. Question

Consider the following places:

• Nizampatam

At how many of the places mentioned above, were Dutch factories established in India?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: D

• In 1602 the Dutch East India company was formed and that Parliament give it a charter impowering it to make War and Peace with other states Aqua territories and build fortresses in.

• In 1606, the first Dutch factory in India was established at Masulipatam in Andhra; the second factory was set up at Nizampatam

• The Dutch East India company established several other factories across India for trading purposes, in Pulicat, Surat, Karaikal, Chinsurah, Baranagar, Kasimbazar, Balasore, Patna, Bimlipatam, Nagapatam and Cochin.

• In 1759 the Dutch were defeated by the English in the Battle of Bedara which ended the Dutch power in India.

Hence option D is correct

Solution: D

• In 1602 the Dutch East India company was formed and that Parliament give it a charter impowering it to make War and Peace with other states Aqua territories and build fortresses in.

• In 1606, the first Dutch factory in India was established at Masulipatam in Andhra; the second factory was set up at Nizampatam

• The Dutch East India company established several other factories across India for trading purposes, in Pulicat, Surat, Karaikal, Chinsurah, Baranagar, Kasimbazar, Balasore, Patna, Bimlipatam, Nagapatam and Cochin.

• In 1759 the Dutch were defeated by the English in the Battle of Bedara which ended the Dutch power in India.

Hence option D is correct

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement – I: VD Savarkar was the first to put forward the concept that the Revolt of 1857 was a national struggle in his book ‘The Indian War of Independence of 1857’. Statement – II: Vinayak Damodar Savarkar coined the term ‘Bharatvarsha’ and described it as a land for and to be governed by Indians only. Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct Correct Solution: C The concept that the Revolt of 1857 was the national struggle was first put forth in 1902 by VD Savarkar in his book The Indian War of Independence of 1857. The book was influenced by histories of the French revolution, American revolution and Indian histories of Maratha conquests. The book was published in 1909. By that time, the nationalist agitation had emerged and the happenings of 1857 were viewed as part of that struggle, in this account the focus now shifted from sepoy mutiny to the colonial context. Hence statement 1 is correct VD Savarkar did not coin the term Bharatvarsha. Savarkar was the first to coin the term Hindutva. The term Bharatvarsha was first used in the Hathigumpa inscription of king Kharvela of the Mahameghavahana dynasty. The inscription dates back to second century BC and was carved on Udayagiri Hills near Bhubaneswar in Odisha. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: C The concept that the Revolt of 1857 was the national struggle was first put forth in 1902 by VD Savarkar in his book The Indian War of Independence of 1857. The book was influenced by histories of the French revolution, American revolution and Indian histories of Maratha conquests. The book was published in 1909. By that time, the nationalist agitation had emerged and the happenings of 1857 were viewed as part of that struggle, in this account the focus now shifted from sepoy mutiny to the colonial context. Hence statement 1 is correct VD Savarkar did not coin the term Bharatvarsha. Savarkar was the first to coin the term Hindutva. The term Bharatvarsha was first used in the Hathigumpa inscription of king Kharvela of the Mahameghavahana dynasty. The inscription dates back to second century BC and was carved on Udayagiri Hills near Bhubaneswar in Odisha. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

#### 20. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement – I: VD Savarkar was the first to put forward the concept that the Revolt of 1857 was a national struggle in his book ‘The Indian War of Independence of 1857’.

Statement – II: Vinayak Damodar Savarkar coined the term ‘Bharatvarsha’ and described it as a land for and to be governed by Indians only.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I

• (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I

• (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect

• (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct

Solution: C

• The concept that the Revolt of 1857 was the national struggle was first put forth in 1902 by VD Savarkar in his book The Indian War of Independence of 1857.

• The book was influenced by histories of the French revolution, American revolution and Indian histories of Maratha conquests.

• The book was published in 1909.

• By that time, the nationalist agitation had emerged and the happenings of 1857 were viewed as part of that struggle, in this account the focus now shifted from sepoy mutiny to the colonial context.

Hence statement 1 is correct

VD Savarkar did not coin the term Bharatvarsha.

• Savarkar was the first to coin the term Hindutva.

• The term Bharatvarsha was first used in the Hathigumpa inscription of king Kharvela of the Mahameghavahana dynasty.

• The inscription dates back to second century BC and was carved on Udayagiri Hills near Bhubaneswar in Odisha.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Solution: C

• The concept that the Revolt of 1857 was the national struggle was first put forth in 1902 by VD Savarkar in his book The Indian War of Independence of 1857.

• The book was influenced by histories of the French revolution, American revolution and Indian histories of Maratha conquests.

• The book was published in 1909.

• By that time, the nationalist agitation had emerged and the happenings of 1857 were viewed as part of that struggle, in this account the focus now shifted from sepoy mutiny to the colonial context.

Hence statement 1 is correct

VD Savarkar did not coin the term Bharatvarsha.

• Savarkar was the first to coin the term Hindutva.

• The term Bharatvarsha was first used in the Hathigumpa inscription of king Kharvela of the Mahameghavahana dynasty.

• The inscription dates back to second century BC and was carved on Udayagiri Hills near Bhubaneswar in Odisha.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points With reference to the appointment of the Chief Justice of India (CJI), consider the following statements: The Constitution of India explicitly lays down seniority as the sole criterion for the appointment of the Chief Justice of India. The President of India is constitutionally bound to appoint the senior-most judge of the Supreme Court as the CJI. The appointment of the Chief Justice of India is an executive function exercised by the President under Article 124(2), guided by constitutional convention and judicial precedent. The Supreme Court’s 1993 and 1998 judgments (Second and Third Judges Cases) form the legal foundation for the collegium system but do not explicitly cover the process of CJI appointment. Which of the above given statements is/are correct? (a) 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only Correct Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution does not mandate seniority as the sole criterion. It simply states under Article 124(2) that the President shall appoint judges (including the CJI) after consultation with judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts. The practice of appointing the senior-most judge as CJI is a constitutional convention, not a textual mandate. Statement 2 is incorrect: While the President generally follows the convention of appointing the senior-most judge, there is no constitutional or legal obligation to do so. The executive retains discretion, though it’s politically and legally restrained by convention and precedent. Statement 3 is correct: The President appoints the CJI under Article 124(2). It is an executive function guided by convention, and influenced by judicial precedent in the Second and Third Judges Cases. Statement 4 is correct: The Second (1993) and Third (1998) Judges Cases primarily dealt with the appointment of other SC and HC judges via the collegium system. The appointment of CJI is not directly governed by these judgments but follows a separate seniority-based convention. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution does not mandate seniority as the sole criterion. It simply states under Article 124(2) that the President shall appoint judges (including the CJI) after consultation with judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts. The practice of appointing the senior-most judge as CJI is a constitutional convention, not a textual mandate. Statement 2 is incorrect: While the President generally follows the convention of appointing the senior-most judge, there is no constitutional or legal obligation to do so. The executive retains discretion, though it’s politically and legally restrained by convention and precedent. Statement 3 is correct: The President appoints the CJI under Article 124(2). It is an executive function guided by convention, and influenced by judicial precedent in the Second and Third Judges Cases. Statement 4 is correct: The Second (1993) and Third (1998) Judges Cases primarily dealt with the appointment of other SC and HC judges via the collegium system. The appointment of CJI is not directly governed by these judgments but follows a separate seniority-based convention.

#### 21. Question

With reference to the appointment of the Chief Justice of India (CJI), consider the following statements:

• The Constitution of India explicitly lays down seniority as the sole criterion for the appointment of the Chief Justice of India.

• The President of India is constitutionally bound to appoint the senior-most judge of the Supreme Court as the CJI.

• The appointment of the Chief Justice of India is an executive function exercised by the President under Article 124(2), guided by constitutional convention and judicial precedent.

• The Supreme Court’s 1993 and 1998 judgments (Second and Third Judges Cases) form the legal foundation for the collegium system but do not explicitly cover the process of CJI appointment.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

• (a) 3 only

• (b) 2 and 4 only

• (c) 3 and 4 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution does not mandate seniority as the sole criterion. It simply states under Article 124(2) that the President shall appoint judges (including the CJI) after consultation with judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts. The practice of appointing the senior-most judge as CJI is a constitutional convention, not a textual mandate.

Statement 2 is incorrect: While the President generally follows the convention of appointing the senior-most judge, there is no constitutional or legal obligation to do so. The executive retains discretion, though it’s politically and legally restrained by convention and precedent.

Statement 3 is correct: The President appoints the CJI under Article 124(2). It is an executive function guided by convention, and influenced by judicial precedent in the Second and Third Judges Cases.

Statement 4 is correct: The Second (1993) and Third (1998) Judges Cases primarily dealt with the appointment of other SC and HC judges via the collegium system. The appointment of CJI is not directly governed by these judgments but follows a separate seniority-based convention.

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution does not mandate seniority as the sole criterion. It simply states under Article 124(2) that the President shall appoint judges (including the CJI) after consultation with judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts. The practice of appointing the senior-most judge as CJI is a constitutional convention, not a textual mandate.

Statement 2 is incorrect: While the President generally follows the convention of appointing the senior-most judge, there is no constitutional or legal obligation to do so. The executive retains discretion, though it’s politically and legally restrained by convention and precedent.

Statement 3 is correct: The President appoints the CJI under Article 124(2). It is an executive function guided by convention, and influenced by judicial precedent in the Second and Third Judges Cases.

Statement 4 is correct: The Second (1993) and Third (1998) Judges Cases primarily dealt with the appointment of other SC and HC judges via the collegium system. The appointment of CJI is not directly governed by these judgments but follows a separate seniority-based convention.

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points With reference to the RBI’s revised operational framework on reclassification of Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI) into Foreign Direct Investment (FDI), consider the following sectors: Gambling and betting Chit funds Atomic energy Lottery business Manufacturing of cigars and tobacco products Nuclear power generation Real estate business (excluding construction of townships) How many of the above sectors are prohibited under India’s FDI policy, thereby disallowing FPI reclassification into FDI? (a) Only three (b) Only four (c) Only five (d) All seven Correct Answer: C Explanation: Under India’s FDI policy (as per the Consolidated FDI Policy issued by DPIIT), FDI is strictly prohibited in the following sectors, and thus FPI reclassification into FDI is not allowed in them: Gambling and betting – Prohibited Chit funds – Prohibited atomic energy – Prohibited (production and processing restricted to the government) Lottery business – Prohibited Manufacturing of cigars and tobacco products – Prohibited Nuclear power generation – Not entirely prohibited; public-private participation allowed via NPCIL and joint ventures in specific subdomains. Real estate business – Prohibited only for trading of land and real estate speculation, but FDI is allowed in construction-development projects (townships, infrastructure, SEZs, etc.). Thus, only five out of seven are fully prohibited and hence FPI cannot be reclassified into FDI in those sectors. hence, option (c) Only five is correct. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Under India’s FDI policy (as per the Consolidated FDI Policy issued by DPIIT), FDI is strictly prohibited in the following sectors, and thus FPI reclassification into FDI is not allowed in them: Gambling and betting – Prohibited Chit funds – Prohibited atomic energy – Prohibited (production and processing restricted to the government) Lottery business – Prohibited Manufacturing of cigars and tobacco products – Prohibited Nuclear power generation – Not entirely prohibited; public-private participation allowed via NPCIL and joint ventures in specific subdomains. Real estate business – Prohibited only for trading of land and real estate speculation, but FDI is allowed in construction-development projects (townships, infrastructure, SEZs, etc.). Thus, only five out of seven are fully prohibited and hence FPI cannot be reclassified into FDI in those sectors. hence, option (c) Only five is correct.

#### 22. Question

With reference to the RBI’s revised operational framework on reclassification of Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI) into Foreign Direct Investment (FDI), consider the following sectors:

• Gambling and betting

• Chit funds

• Atomic energy

• Lottery business

• Manufacturing of cigars and tobacco products

• Nuclear power generation

• Real estate business (excluding construction of townships)

How many of the above sectors are prohibited under India’s FDI policy, thereby disallowing FPI reclassification into FDI?

• (a) Only three

• (b) Only four

• (c) Only five

• (d) All seven

Explanation:

Under India’s FDI policy (as per the Consolidated FDI Policy issued by DPIIT), FDI is strictly prohibited in the following sectors, and thus FPI reclassification into FDI is not allowed in them:

Gambling and betting – Prohibited

Chit funds – Prohibited

• atomic energy – Prohibited (production and processing restricted to the government)

Lottery business – Prohibited

Manufacturing of cigars and tobacco products – Prohibited

Nuclear power generation – Not entirely prohibited; public-private participation allowed via NPCIL and joint ventures in specific subdomains.

Real estate business – Prohibited only for trading of land and real estate speculation, but FDI is allowed in construction-development projects (townships, infrastructure, SEZs, etc.).

Thus, only five out of seven are fully prohibited and hence FPI cannot be reclassified into FDI in those sectors. hence, option (c) Only five is correct.

Explanation:

Under India’s FDI policy (as per the Consolidated FDI Policy issued by DPIIT), FDI is strictly prohibited in the following sectors, and thus FPI reclassification into FDI is not allowed in them:

Gambling and betting – Prohibited

Chit funds – Prohibited

• atomic energy – Prohibited (production and processing restricted to the government)

Lottery business – Prohibited

Manufacturing of cigars and tobacco products – Prohibited

Nuclear power generation – Not entirely prohibited; public-private participation allowed via NPCIL and joint ventures in specific subdomains.

Real estate business – Prohibited only for trading of land and real estate speculation, but FDI is allowed in construction-development projects (townships, infrastructure, SEZs, etc.).

Thus, only five out of seven are fully prohibited and hence FPI cannot be reclassified into FDI in those sectors. hence, option (c) Only five is correct.

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points With reference to Hypersonic Missile Technology, consider the following statements: Hypersonic missiles travel at speeds greater than Mach 5. They can manoeuvre during flight, making them difficult to intercept. India has successfully developed and tested its hypersonic missile technology demonstrator vehicle. Which of the statements given above are correct? A) 1 and 2 only B) 2 and 3 only C) 1 and 3 only D) All of the above Correct Answer: D Explanation: Hypersonic missiles, traveling at speeds greater than Mach 5 (five times the speed of sound), are a game-changer in modern warfare. Their ability to manoeuvre during flight makes them nearly impossible to intercept with existing missile defense systems. India has successfully tested the Hypersonic Technology Demonstrator Vehicle (HSTDV), laying the foundation for future hypersonic weapons. This technology enables rapid response capabilities and enhances deterrence. The successful test reflects India’s commitment to keeping pace with global advancements in military technology, ensuring preparedness against evolving threats. Incorrect Answer: D Explanation: Hypersonic missiles, traveling at speeds greater than Mach 5 (five times the speed of sound), are a game-changer in modern warfare. Their ability to manoeuvre during flight makes them nearly impossible to intercept with existing missile defense systems. India has successfully tested the Hypersonic Technology Demonstrator Vehicle (HSTDV), laying the foundation for future hypersonic weapons. This technology enables rapid response capabilities and enhances deterrence. The successful test reflects India’s commitment to keeping pace with global advancements in military technology, ensuring preparedness against evolving threats.

#### 23. Question

With reference to Hypersonic Missile Technology, consider the following statements:

• Hypersonic missiles travel at speeds greater than Mach 5.

• They can manoeuvre during flight, making them difficult to intercept.

• India has successfully developed and tested its hypersonic missile technology demonstrator vehicle.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• A) 1 and 2 only

• B) 2 and 3 only

• C) 1 and 3 only

• D) All of the above

Explanation: Hypersonic missiles, traveling at speeds greater than Mach 5 (five times the speed of sound), are a game-changer in modern warfare.

• Their ability to manoeuvre during flight makes them nearly impossible to intercept with existing missile defense systems. India has successfully tested the Hypersonic Technology Demonstrator Vehicle (HSTDV), laying the foundation for future hypersonic weapons.

• This technology enables rapid response capabilities and enhances deterrence. The successful test reflects India’s commitment to keeping pace with global advancements in military technology, ensuring preparedness against evolving threats.

Explanation: Hypersonic missiles, traveling at speeds greater than Mach 5 (five times the speed of sound), are a game-changer in modern warfare.

• Their ability to manoeuvre during flight makes them nearly impossible to intercept with existing missile defense systems. India has successfully tested the Hypersonic Technology Demonstrator Vehicle (HSTDV), laying the foundation for future hypersonic weapons.

• This technology enables rapid response capabilities and enhances deterrence. The successful test reflects India’s commitment to keeping pace with global advancements in military technology, ensuring preparedness against evolving threats.

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: India aims to eliminate tuberculosis by 2025, five years ahead of the global SDG deadline. Statement-II: India’s TB elimination target under SDG 3.3 is aligned with the 2030 global timeline. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Answer: C Explanation: Statement-I is correct: India has adopted a national target of ending TB by 2025, as part of its National Strategic Plan (NSP) 2017–2025, under the NTEP. This target is five years ahead of the global target. Statement-II is incorrect: While SDG Goal 3.3 aims to end the TB epidemic by 2030, India has set an earlier national deadline, making the two timelines different. Hence, the SDG timeline does not explain India’s national objective. So, only Statement-I is correct, and the right answer is (c). Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Statement-I is correct: India has adopted a national target of ending TB by 2025, as part of its National Strategic Plan (NSP) 2017–2025, under the NTEP. This target is five years ahead of the global target. Statement-II is incorrect: While SDG Goal 3.3 aims to end the TB epidemic by 2030, India has set an earlier national deadline, making the two timelines different. Hence, the SDG timeline does not explain India’s national objective. So, only Statement-I is correct, and the right answer is (c).

#### 24. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: India aims to eliminate tuberculosis by 2025, five years ahead of the global SDG deadline. Statement-II: India’s TB elimination target under SDG 3.3 is aligned with the 2030 global timeline.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Explanation: Statement-I is correct: India has adopted a national target of ending TB by 2025, as part of its National Strategic Plan (NSP) 2017–2025, under the NTEP. This target is five years ahead of the global target. Statement-II is incorrect: While SDG Goal 3.3 aims to end the TB epidemic by 2030, India has set an earlier national deadline, making the two timelines different. Hence, the SDG timeline does not explain India’s national objective. So, only Statement-I is correct, and the right answer is (c).

Explanation: Statement-I is correct: India has adopted a national target of ending TB by 2025, as part of its National Strategic Plan (NSP) 2017–2025, under the NTEP. This target is five years ahead of the global target. Statement-II is incorrect: While SDG Goal 3.3 aims to end the TB epidemic by 2030, India has set an earlier national deadline, making the two timelines different. Hence, the SDG timeline does not explain India’s national objective. So, only Statement-I is correct, and the right answer is (c).

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Which of the following districts is the leading producer of uranium in India and hosts the country’s only operational underground uranium mine? (a) Singhbhum, Jharkhand (b) Kadapa, Andhra Pradesh (c) Udaipur, Rajasthan (d) Tumkur, Karnataka Correct Answer: A Explanation The East Singhbhum district in Jharkhand is India’s leading producer of uranium and hosts the country’s first and longest-operating underground uranium mine—the Jaduguda Uranium Mine. Operated by the Uranium Corporation of India Limited (UCIL), the Jaduguda mine has been in continuous operation since 1967, supplying uranium for India’s nuclear energy program. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation The East Singhbhum district in Jharkhand is India’s leading producer of uranium and hosts the country’s first and longest-operating underground uranium mine—the Jaduguda Uranium Mine. Operated by the Uranium Corporation of India Limited (UCIL), the Jaduguda mine has been in continuous operation since 1967, supplying uranium for India’s nuclear energy program.

#### 25. Question

Which of the following districts is the leading producer of uranium in India and hosts the country’s only operational underground uranium mine?

• (a) Singhbhum, Jharkhand

• (b) Kadapa, Andhra Pradesh

• (c) Udaipur, Rajasthan

• (d) Tumkur, Karnataka

Explanation

The East Singhbhum district in Jharkhand is India’s leading producer of uranium and hosts the country’s first and longest-operating underground uranium mine—the Jaduguda Uranium Mine. Operated by the Uranium Corporation of India Limited (UCIL), the Jaduguda mine has been in continuous operation since 1967, supplying uranium for India’s nuclear energy program.

Explanation

The East Singhbhum district in Jharkhand is India’s leading producer of uranium and hosts the country’s first and longest-operating underground uranium mine—the Jaduguda Uranium Mine. Operated by the Uranium Corporation of India Limited (UCIL), the Jaduguda mine has been in continuous operation since 1967, supplying uranium for India’s nuclear energy program.

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points Most feather colours, such as reds, oranges and yellows, result from pigments. Blues come from intricate protein structures that reflect light in a certain way, and greens are produced by both pigment and light-reflecting proteins. As well as through pigments, birds can change the colour of their feathers through nanostructures, which reflect the light in different ways. Iridescent feathers, like on peacocks, possess those which fracture the light much like the formation of a rainbow. Some feathers, like the pink of the flamingo, are the direct result of the food it eats. Flamingos consume crustaceans that contain coloured proteins. The flamingo’s digestive enzymes turn these proteins into new pigments which are then deposited into the feathers. Flamingos in captivity require a special diet enriched in chemical pigment to ensure they preserve their striking colours. The best explanation for the development of different coloured feathers is for mating and reproduction. It has been shown that in many bird species with pigmented colouration, such as yellows, reds and oranges, the more brightly coloured male is the preferred mate for females. The pink colour of flamingos is heightened during the mating period. As they are not migratory birds so their diet does not change, their colour should remain the same. This increase in pigmentation occurs due to a pink, pigmented oil that they produce in their preen gland, which is a small organ beneath the tail. The birds preen themselves by rubbing themselves with their bills and heads and transfer more colour onto their feathers. They do this primarily during the mating season and it has the effect of making them more attractive to potential mates. Studies of North American barn swallows have shown that females prefer males with darker breast feathers. By artificially intensifying the colour of the breast feathers, scientists have found that they breed earlier and father younger. But it seems that there is another factor at play. The birds with experimentally altered feather colour also experienced a surge in the sex hormone testosterone. Thus, it seems a bird’s external appearance can change its internal hormone levels. The information that the appearance of the feathers provides, not only speaks to mates but to the bird itself. Scientists believe this raised testosterone occurs through the social feedback they receive from the way potential mates react to different intensities of feather colour. (390 words) Which of the following scenarios, if false, could be seen as supporting the passage? Scientists can change the mating habits of birds by artificially colouring their feathers. Increased water pollution could impact the colouring of flamingos in the wild. Select the correct answer using the options given below. a.)1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Correct Option: D Justification: For the statements to support the passage when false, they must not support the passage when true. However, statement 1 is true as researchers in North America have noted. Statement 2 can also support the passage as water pollution would impact the presence of crustaceans and therefore the diet of flamingos. Both these sentences support the passage when true. Thus, neither supports the passage when false. Hence, D. Incorrect Correct Option: D Justification: For the statements to support the passage when false, they must not support the passage when true. However, statement 1 is true as researchers in North America have noted. Statement 2 can also support the passage as water pollution would impact the presence of crustaceans and therefore the diet of flamingos. Both these sentences support the passage when true. Thus, neither supports the passage when false. Hence, D.

#### 26. Question

Most feather colours, such as reds, oranges and yellows, result from pigments. Blues come from intricate protein structures that reflect light in a certain way, and greens are produced by both pigment and light-reflecting proteins. As well as through pigments, birds can change the colour of their feathers through nanostructures, which reflect the light in different ways. Iridescent feathers, like on peacocks, possess those which fracture the light much like the formation of a rainbow.

Some feathers, like the pink of the flamingo, are the direct result of the food it eats. Flamingos consume crustaceans that contain coloured proteins. The flamingo’s digestive enzymes turn these proteins into new pigments which are then deposited into the feathers. Flamingos in captivity require a special diet enriched in chemical pigment to ensure they preserve their striking colours. The best explanation for the development of different coloured feathers is for mating and reproduction. It has been shown that in many bird species with pigmented colouration, such as yellows, reds and oranges, the more brightly coloured male is the preferred mate for females. The pink colour of flamingos is heightened during the mating period. As they are not migratory birds so their diet does not change, their colour should remain the same. This increase in pigmentation occurs due to a pink, pigmented oil that they produce in their preen gland, which is a small organ beneath the tail. The birds preen themselves by rubbing themselves with their bills and heads and transfer more colour onto their feathers. They do this primarily during the mating season and it has the effect of making them more attractive to potential mates.

Studies of North American barn swallows have shown that females prefer males with darker breast feathers. By artificially intensifying the colour of the breast feathers, scientists have found that they breed earlier and father younger. But it seems that there is another factor at play. The birds with experimentally altered feather colour also experienced a surge in the sex hormone testosterone. Thus, it seems a bird’s external appearance can change its internal hormone levels. The information that the appearance of the feathers provides, not only speaks to mates but to the bird itself. Scientists believe this raised testosterone occurs through the social feedback they receive from the way potential mates react to different intensities of feather colour. (390 words)

Which of the following scenarios, if false, could be seen as supporting the passage?

• Scientists can change the mating habits of birds by artificially colouring their feathers.

• Increased water pollution could impact the colouring of flamingos in the wild.

Select the correct answer using the options given below.

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Option: D

Justification:

For the statements to support the passage when false, they must not support the passage when true. However, statement 1 is true as researchers in North America have noted. Statement 2 can also support the passage as water pollution would impact the presence of crustaceans and therefore the diet of flamingos. Both these sentences support the passage when true. Thus, neither supports the passage when false. Hence, D.

Correct Option: D

Justification:

For the statements to support the passage when false, they must not support the passage when true. However, statement 1 is true as researchers in North America have noted. Statement 2 can also support the passage as water pollution would impact the presence of crustaceans and therefore the diet of flamingos. Both these sentences support the passage when true. Thus, neither supports the passage when false. Hence, D.

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points The simple interest on a certain sum of money for 2(1/2) years at 12% per annum is Rs. 40 less than the simple interest on the same sum for 3(1/2) years at 10% per annum. Find the sum. a) Rs. 600 b) Rs. 666 c) Rs. 780 d) Rs. 800 Correct Correct Option: D Justification: Let the sum be Rs. x. Then we can write: [{x×10×7}/ {100×2}] – [{x×12×5}/{100×2}] = 40. This can be written as: 7x/20 – 3x / 10 = 40. Therefore, we have x = Rs. 800 Incorrect Correct Option: D Justification: Let the sum be Rs. x. Then we can write: [{x×10×7}/ {100×2}] – [{x×12×5}/{100×2}] = 40. This can be written as: 7x/20 – 3x / 10 = 40. Therefore, we have x = Rs. 800

#### 27. Question

The simple interest on a certain sum of money for 2(1/2) years at 12% per annum is Rs. 40 less than the simple interest on the same sum for 3(1/2) years at 10% per annum. Find the sum.

• a) Rs. 600

• b) Rs. 666

• c) Rs. 780

• d) Rs. 800

Correct Option: D

Justification:

Let the sum be Rs. x.

Then we can write: [{x×10×7}/ {100×2}] – [{x×12×5}/{100×2}] = 40.

This can be written as: 7x/20 – 3x / 10 = 40.

Therefore, we have x = Rs. 800

Correct Option: D

Justification:

Let the sum be Rs. x.

Then we can write: [{x×10×7}/ {100×2}] – [{x×12×5}/{100×2}] = 40.

This can be written as: 7x/20 – 3x / 10 = 40.

Therefore, we have x = Rs. 800

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points The difference between Compound Interest and Simple Interest on certain sum at the end of two years at 4% interest rate is Rs.10. What is the sum? a) Rs.5000 b) Rs.6250 c) Rs.7500 d) Rs.10000 Correct Correct Option: B Justification: Incorrect Correct Option: B Justification:

#### 28. Question

The difference between Compound Interest and Simple Interest on certain sum at the end of two years at 4% interest rate is Rs.10. What is the sum?

• a) Rs.5000

• b) Rs.6250

• c) Rs.7500

• d) Rs.10000

Correct Option: B

Justification:

Correct Option: B

Justification:

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points Vikas lends Rs 30,000 to two of his friends for 1 year. He gives Rs 15,000 to the first friend Praveen at 6% p.a. simple interest. He wants to make a profit of 20% on the whole. The simple interest rate at which he should lend the remaining sum of money to the second friend, Rahul is? a) 28% b) 36% c) 32% d) 34% Correct Correct Option: D Justification: S.I. on Rs 15000 = (15000×6×1)/100 = Rs. 900 Profit to made on Rs 30000 = 30000×20/100=Rs 6000 S.I. on Rs.15000 = 6000-900 = Rs.5100 Rate=(S.I. 100)/(P T) = (5100×100)/15000 = 34% per annum Incorrect Correct Option: D Justification: S.I. on Rs 15000 = (15000×6×1)/100 = Rs. 900 Profit to made on Rs 30000 = 30000×20/100=Rs 6000 S.I. on Rs.15000 = 6000-900 = Rs.5100 Rate=(S.I. 100)/(P T) = (5100×100)/15000 = 34% per annum

#### 29. Question

Vikas lends Rs 30,000 to two of his friends for 1 year. He gives Rs 15,000 to the first friend Praveen at 6% p.a. simple interest. He wants to make a profit of 20% on the whole. The simple interest rate at which he should lend the remaining sum of money to the second friend, Rahul is?

Correct Option: D

Justification:

S.I. on Rs 15000 = (15000×6×1)/100 = Rs. 900 Profit to made on Rs 30000 = 30000×20/100=Rs 6000 S.I. on Rs.15000 = 6000-900 = Rs.5100 Rate=(S.I. 100)/(P T) = (5100×100)/15000 = 34% per annum

Correct Option: D

Justification:

S.I. on Rs 15000 = (15000×6×1)/100 = Rs. 900 Profit to made on Rs 30000 = 30000×20/100=Rs 6000 S.I. on Rs.15000 = 6000-900 = Rs.5100 Rate=(S.I. 100)/(P T) = (5100×100)/15000 = 34% per annum

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points The difference between Compound Interest and Simple Interest on a certain sum of money at 10 % per annum for 3 years is Rs. 930. Find the principal if it is known that the interest is compounded annually. a) 31000 b) 30000 c) 31500 d) 32000 Correct Correct Option: B Justification: The Simple after three years for 10% is 30%. The Compound Interest after three years for 10% is 1.11.11.1=1.331 Cumulative rate of compound interest = 33.1% Difference between SI and CI= 3.1% Principal = 930100/3.1= 30000 Incorrect Correct Option: B Justification: The Simple after three years for 10% is 30%. The Compound Interest after three years for 10% is 1.11.11.1=1.331 Cumulative rate of compound interest = 33.1% Difference between SI and CI= 3.1% Principal = 930100/3.1= 30000

#### 30. Question

The difference between Compound Interest and Simple Interest on a certain sum of money at 10 % per annum for 3 years is Rs. 930. Find the principal if it is known that the interest is compounded annually.

Correct Option: B

Justification:

The Simple after three years for 10% is 30%.

The Compound Interest after three years for 10% is 1.11.11.1=1.331

Cumulative rate of compound interest = 33.1%

Difference between SI and CI= 3.1%

Principal = 930*100/3.1= 30000

Correct Option: B

Justification:

The Simple after three years for 10% is 30%.

The Compound Interest after three years for 10% is 1.11.11.1=1.331

Cumulative rate of compound interest = 33.1%

Difference between SI and CI= 3.1%

Principal = 930*100/3.1= 30000

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Articles in our archive published before our editorial team was expanded. Legacy content is periodically reviewed and updated by our current editors.

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