DAY – 39 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – MODERN INDIA, Subject-wise Test 3, 4 , Textbook-based Test – 23 and Feb & Mar 2024 CA

INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Consider the following about the Financing for Sustainable Development Report 2024. It is released by United Nations Department of Economic and Social Affairs (UNDESA). It shows that developing countries face a significant financing gap for achieving Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) due to systemic risks like the COVID-19 pandemic and frequent disasters straining national financing frameworks. It argues that enhance tax capacity to boost tax revenue for SDGs will not work for developing countries as external borrowing and structural reforms will be more effective. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: a) Justification: The report is released by United Nations Department of Economic and Social Affairs (UNDESA). Key findings: Developing countries face a significant financing gap for achieving Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), estimated between $2.5 trillion and $4 trillion annually. Systemic risks like the COVID-19 pandemic and more frequent disasters strain national financing frameworks Recommendations: Enhance tax capacity to boost tax revenue for SDGs. UN DESA (HQ: New York City; est.1948), supports countries in making informed decisions by offering information via publications, databases, and international discussions at forums like the UN General Assembly and ECOSOC. It releases report the World Social Report (since 1997). Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/13/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-13-april-2024/ Incorrect Solution: a) Justification: The report is released by United Nations Department of Economic and Social Affairs (UNDESA). Key findings: Developing countries face a significant financing gap for achieving Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), estimated between $2.5 trillion and $4 trillion annually. Systemic risks like the COVID-19 pandemic and more frequent disasters strain national financing frameworks Recommendations: Enhance tax capacity to boost tax revenue for SDGs. UN DESA (HQ: New York City; est.1948), supports countries in making informed decisions by offering information via publications, databases, and international discussions at forums like the UN General Assembly and ECOSOC. It releases report the World Social Report (since 1997). Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/13/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-13-april-2024/

#### 1. Question

Consider the following about the Financing for Sustainable Development Report 2024.

• It is released by United Nations Department of Economic and Social Affairs (UNDESA).

• It shows that developing countries face a significant financing gap for achieving Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) due to systemic risks like the COVID-19 pandemic and frequent disasters straining national financing frameworks.

• It argues that enhance tax capacity to boost tax revenue for SDGs will not work for developing countries as external borrowing and structural reforms will be more effective.

Which of the above is/are correct?

• a) 1 and 2 only

• b) 2 and 3 only

• d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: a)

Justification: The report is released by United Nations Department of Economic and Social Affairs (UNDESA).

Key findings: Developing countries face a significant financing gap for achieving Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), estimated between $2.5 trillion and $4 trillion annually. Systemic risks like the COVID-19 pandemic and more frequent disasters strain national financing frameworks

Recommendations: Enhance tax capacity to boost tax revenue for SDGs.

UN DESA (HQ: New York City; est.1948), supports countries in making informed decisions by offering information via publications, databases, and international discussions at forums like the UN General Assembly and ECOSOC. It releases report the World Social Report (since 1997).

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/13/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-13-april-2024/

Solution: a)

Justification: The report is released by United Nations Department of Economic and Social Affairs (UNDESA).

Recommendations: Enhance tax capacity to boost tax revenue for SDGs.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/13/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-13-april-2024/

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points One can find Bhil tribal groups in which of the following states of India? Karnataka Assam Andhra Pradesh How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None of the above Correct Solution: b) Justification: The context and explanation is mentioned below: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/13/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-13-april-2024/ Incorrect Solution: b) Justification: The context and explanation is mentioned below: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/13/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-13-april-2024/

#### 2. Question

One can find Bhil tribal groups in which of the following states of India?

• Andhra Pradesh

How many of the above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

• d) None of the above

Solution: b)

Justification: The context and explanation is mentioned below:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/13/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-13-april-2024/

Solution: b)

Justification: The context and explanation is mentioned below:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/13/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-13-april-2024/

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Climate change can impinge on which of the following human rights? Right to shelter Right to security Right to health How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None of the above Correct Solution: c) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/09/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-9-april-2024/ Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/09/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-9-april-2024/

#### 3. Question

Climate change can impinge on which of the following human rights?

• Right to shelter

• Right to security

• Right to health

How many of the above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

• d) None of the above

Solution: c)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/09/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-9-april-2024/

Solution: c)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/09/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-9-april-2024/

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. The polar vortex is a large, persistent circulation of frigid air located in the stratosphere and typically centred near the Earth’s poles. Disruptions in the polar vortex can occur, leading to phenomena such as sudden stratospheric warming events, which can result in shifts in weather patterns and colder temperatures in regions outside of the polar areas. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) None of the above Correct Solution: c) Justification: The polar vortex is a large, persistent circulation of frigid air located in the stratosphere and typically centred near the Earth’s poles. It is characterized by a strong wind current that circulates from west to east, trapping cold air within the polar regions during the winter months. The polar vortex plays a crucial role in maintaining the polar climate and can influence weather patterns in mid-latitude regions. Occasionally, disruptions in the polar vortex can occur, leading to phenomena such as sudden stratospheric warming events, which can result in shifts in weather patterns and colder temperatures in regions outside of the polar areas. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/09/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-9-april-2024/ Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: The polar vortex is a large, persistent circulation of frigid air located in the stratosphere and typically centred near the Earth’s poles. It is characterized by a strong wind current that circulates from west to east, trapping cold air within the polar regions during the winter months. The polar vortex plays a crucial role in maintaining the polar climate and can influence weather patterns in mid-latitude regions. Occasionally, disruptions in the polar vortex can occur, leading to phenomena such as sudden stratospheric warming events, which can result in shifts in weather patterns and colder temperatures in regions outside of the polar areas. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/09/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-9-april-2024/

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements.

• The polar vortex is a large, persistent circulation of frigid air located in the stratosphere and typically centred near the Earth’s poles.

• Disruptions in the polar vortex can occur, leading to phenomena such as sudden stratospheric warming events, which can result in shifts in weather patterns and colder temperatures in regions outside of the polar areas.

Which of the above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) None of the above

Solution: c)

Justification: The polar vortex is a large, persistent circulation of frigid air located in the stratosphere and typically centred near the Earth’s poles.

It is characterized by a strong wind current that circulates from west to east, trapping cold air within the polar regions during the winter months.

The polar vortex plays a crucial role in maintaining the polar climate and can influence weather patterns in mid-latitude regions.

Occasionally, disruptions in the polar vortex can occur, leading to phenomena such as sudden stratospheric warming events, which can result in shifts in weather patterns and colder temperatures in regions outside of the polar areas.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/09/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-9-april-2024/

Solution: c)

Justification: The polar vortex is a large, persistent circulation of frigid air located in the stratosphere and typically centred near the Earth’s poles.

It is characterized by a strong wind current that circulates from west to east, trapping cold air within the polar regions during the winter months.

The polar vortex plays a crucial role in maintaining the polar climate and can influence weather patterns in mid-latitude regions.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/09/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-9-april-2024/

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points The Southern Ocean plays a critical role in regulating global climate and ocean circulation patterns. It is bounded by the continents of Antarctica South America Africa Australia How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution: d) Justification: The Southern Ocean is the body of water that surrounds Antarctica and is bounded by the continents of Antarctica, South America, Africa, and Australia. It is the southernmost ocean on Earth and is characterized by its vast expanse of open water, strong currents, and harsh climate conditions. The Southern Ocean plays a critical role in regulating global climate and ocean circulation patterns. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/09/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-9-april-2024/ Incorrect Solution: d) Justification: The Southern Ocean is the body of water that surrounds Antarctica and is bounded by the continents of Antarctica, South America, Africa, and Australia. It is the southernmost ocean on Earth and is characterized by its vast expanse of open water, strong currents, and harsh climate conditions. The Southern Ocean plays a critical role in regulating global climate and ocean circulation patterns. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/09/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-9-april-2024/

#### 5. Question

The Southern Ocean plays a critical role in regulating global climate and ocean circulation patterns. It is bounded by the continents of

• Antarctica

• South America

How many of the above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Solution: d)

Justification: The Southern Ocean is the body of water that surrounds Antarctica and is bounded by the continents of Antarctica, South America, Africa, and Australia.

It is the southernmost ocean on Earth and is characterized by its vast expanse of open water, strong currents, and harsh climate conditions.

The Southern Ocean plays a critical role in regulating global climate and ocean circulation patterns.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/09/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-9-april-2024/

Solution: d)

Justification: The Southern Ocean is the body of water that surrounds Antarctica and is bounded by the continents of Antarctica, South America, Africa, and Australia.

It is the southernmost ocean on Earth and is characterized by its vast expanse of open water, strong currents, and harsh climate conditions.

The Southern Ocean plays a critical role in regulating global climate and ocean circulation patterns.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/09/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-9-april-2024/

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Which of the following statements about organ donation eligibility in India is correct? (a) Only individuals under 65 years can receive organs. (b) Family consent is not required for deceased organ donation. (c) Individuals above 18 years can be living donors. (d) State domicile is necessary for patient registration on transplant lists. Correct Solution: C In India, the eligibility for organ donation is governed by the Transplantation of Human Organs and Tissues Act (THOTA), 1994. This act sets forth the legal and ethical framework for organ donation and transplantation, ensuring that both processes are carried out safely and responsibly. Legal Age for Donation: The law specifies that individuals who are 18 years old or above can legally give their consent to become living donors. This age criterion is important as it ensures that the donor is legally an adult and capable of making an informed decision regarding such a significant medical procedure. Physical Condition Over Age for Receiving Organs: The eligibility to receive an organ is not strictly limited by age. Individuals above 65 years of age can receive organs if they are deemed suitable candidates based on their overall health and specific medical conditions. This makes organ transplantation inclusive and accessible to older patients who are in need of organ transplants and are otherwise healthy. Consent for Deceased Donation: Contrary to statement B), family consent is indeed required for deceased organ donation in India. In cases where the deceased has not left any explicit instruction regarding organ donation, the family’s consent becomes necessary. This requirement ensures ethical practices in organ donation, respecting the wishes of the family and the deceased. State Domicile Requirements: Statement D) “State domicile is necessary for patient registration on transplant lists” is incorrect. Recent guidelines have removed the requirement of state domicile for patient registration on transplant lists. This change aims to broaden the eligibility for organ transplants across the country, allowing for a more equitable system where patients can receive organ transplants regardless of their state of residence. Overall, the framework established by THOTA is designed to maximize the ethical donation and transplantation of organs, ensuring that donors are competent and willing, and that recipients get the organs they need regardless of age or state domicile, within the bounds of medical suitability. Incorrect Solution: C In India, the eligibility for organ donation is governed by the Transplantation of Human Organs and Tissues Act (THOTA), 1994. This act sets forth the legal and ethical framework for organ donation and transplantation, ensuring that both processes are carried out safely and responsibly. Legal Age for Donation: The law specifies that individuals who are 18 years old or above can legally give their consent to become living donors. This age criterion is important as it ensures that the donor is legally an adult and capable of making an informed decision regarding such a significant medical procedure. Physical Condition Over Age for Receiving Organs: The eligibility to receive an organ is not strictly limited by age. Individuals above 65 years of age can receive organs if they are deemed suitable candidates based on their overall health and specific medical conditions. This makes organ transplantation inclusive and accessible to older patients who are in need of organ transplants and are otherwise healthy. Consent for Deceased Donation: Contrary to statement B), family consent is indeed required for deceased organ donation in India. In cases where the deceased has not left any explicit instruction regarding organ donation, the family’s consent becomes necessary. This requirement ensures ethical practices in organ donation, respecting the wishes of the family and the deceased. State Domicile Requirements: Statement D) “State domicile is necessary for patient registration on transplant lists” is incorrect. Recent guidelines have removed the requirement of state domicile for patient registration on transplant lists. This change aims to broaden the eligibility for organ transplants across the country, allowing for a more equitable system where patients can receive organ transplants regardless of their state of residence. Overall, the framework established by THOTA is designed to maximize the ethical donation and transplantation of organs, ensuring that donors are competent and willing, and that recipients get the organs they need regardless of age or state domicile, within the bounds of medical suitability.

#### 6. Question

Which of the following statements about organ donation eligibility in India is correct?

• (a) Only individuals under 65 years can receive organs.

• (b) Family consent is not required for deceased organ donation.

• (c) Individuals above 18 years can be living donors.

• (d) State domicile is necessary for patient registration on transplant lists.

Solution: C

In India, the eligibility for organ donation is governed by the Transplantation of Human Organs and Tissues Act (THOTA), 1994. This act sets forth the legal and ethical framework for organ donation and transplantation, ensuring that both processes are carried out safely and responsibly.

• Legal Age for Donation: The law specifies that individuals who are 18 years old or above can legally give their consent to become living donors. This age criterion is important as it ensures that the donor is legally an adult and capable of making an informed decision regarding such a significant medical procedure.

• Physical Condition Over Age for Receiving Organs: The eligibility to receive an organ is not strictly limited by age. Individuals above 65 years of age can receive organs if they are deemed suitable candidates based on their overall health and specific medical conditions. This makes organ transplantation inclusive and accessible to older patients who are in need of organ transplants and are otherwise healthy.

• Consent for Deceased Donation: Contrary to statement B), family consent is indeed required for deceased organ donation in India. In cases where the deceased has not left any explicit instruction regarding organ donation, the family’s consent becomes necessary. This requirement ensures ethical practices in organ donation, respecting the wishes of the family and the deceased.

• State Domicile Requirements: Statement D) “State domicile is necessary for patient registration on transplant lists” is incorrect. Recent guidelines have removed the requirement of state domicile for patient registration on transplant lists. This change aims to broaden the eligibility for organ transplants across the country, allowing for a more equitable system where patients can receive organ transplants regardless of their state of residence.

Overall, the framework established by THOTA is designed to maximize the ethical donation and transplantation of organs, ensuring that donors are competent and willing, and that recipients get the organs they need regardless of age or state domicile, within the bounds of medical suitability.

Solution: C

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Regarding AIDS, consider the following statements: AIDS is a condition that occurs immediately after an individual is infected with HIV. With the advancement of HIV infection and a decrease in CD4 cells, an individual develops AIDS, which is the last stage of HIV infection. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B AIDS (Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome) is not a condition that occurs immediately after an individual is infected with HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus). When a person is first infected with HIV, they can feel and appear perfectly healthy for a long time. There is an initial phase of acute infection which may present as a flu-like illness, but then the virus typically enters a longer asymptomatic phase. The progression from HIV to AIDS without treatment can take several years, commonly around 8 to 10 years. During this time, HIV is damaging the immune system, specifically CD4 cells, but not enough to have reached the critical level defined as AIDS. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. AIDS is the last stage of HIV infection. It is characterized by a critically low number of CD4 cells (T cells) in the body. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) defines AIDS as having a CD4 cell count of fewer than 200 cells per cubic millimeter of blood (200 cells/mm³), compared to counts of 500 to 1,600 for healthy individuals. At this stage, the immune system is severely compromised, making the individual susceptible to opportunistic infections and cancers that a healthy immune system would typically fend off. This transition to AIDS can be delayed significantly with the use of antiretroviral therapy (ART), which controls the replication of the virus, thereby preserving the immune system’s function and preventing the onset of AIDS-related conditions. Hence, statement 2 is correct. https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/01/editorial-analysis-the-art-of-indias-hiv-aids-response/ Incorrect Solution: B AIDS (Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome) is not a condition that occurs immediately after an individual is infected with HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus). When a person is first infected with HIV, they can feel and appear perfectly healthy for a long time. There is an initial phase of acute infection which may present as a flu-like illness, but then the virus typically enters a longer asymptomatic phase. The progression from HIV to AIDS without treatment can take several years, commonly around 8 to 10 years. During this time, HIV is damaging the immune system, specifically CD4 cells, but not enough to have reached the critical level defined as AIDS. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. AIDS is the last stage of HIV infection. It is characterized by a critically low number of CD4 cells (T cells) in the body. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) defines AIDS as having a CD4 cell count of fewer than 200 cells per cubic millimeter of blood (200 cells/mm³), compared to counts of 500 to 1,600 for healthy individuals. At this stage, the immune system is severely compromised, making the individual susceptible to opportunistic infections and cancers that a healthy immune system would typically fend off. This transition to AIDS can be delayed significantly with the use of antiretroviral therapy (ART), which controls the replication of the virus, thereby preserving the immune system’s function and preventing the onset of AIDS-related conditions. Hence, statement 2 is correct. https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/01/editorial-analysis-the-art-of-indias-hiv-aids-response/

#### 7. Question

Regarding AIDS, consider the following statements:

• AIDS is a condition that occurs immediately after an individual is infected with HIV.

• With the advancement of HIV infection and a decrease in CD4 cells, an individual develops AIDS, which is the last stage of HIV infection.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

AIDS (Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome) is not a condition that occurs immediately after an individual is infected with HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus). When a person is first infected with HIV, they can feel and appear perfectly healthy for a long time. There is an initial phase of acute infection which may present as a flu-like illness, but then the virus typically enters a longer asymptomatic phase. The progression from HIV to AIDS without treatment can take several years, commonly around 8 to 10 years. During this time, HIV is damaging the immune system, specifically CD4 cells, but not enough to have reached the critical level defined as AIDS.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

AIDS is the last stage of HIV infection. It is characterized by a critically low number of CD4 cells (T cells) in the body. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) defines AIDS as having a CD4 cell count of fewer than 200 cells per cubic millimeter of blood (200 cells/mm³), compared to counts of 500 to 1,600 for healthy individuals. At this stage, the immune system is severely compromised, making the individual susceptible to opportunistic infections and cancers that a healthy immune system would typically fend off. This transition to AIDS can be delayed significantly with the use of antiretroviral therapy (ART), which controls the replication of the virus, thereby preserving the immune system’s function and preventing the onset of AIDS-related conditions.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/01/editorial-analysis-the-art-of-indias-hiv-aids-response/

Solution: B

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/01/editorial-analysis-the-art-of-indias-hiv-aids-response/

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Which of the following statements accurately describes the source of black carbon emissions in India? 1. The primary source of black carbon emissions in India is the industrial combustion of fossil fuels. 2. Most black carbon emissions in India come from burning biomass, such as cow dung or straw, in traditional cookstoves. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B While the industrial combustion of fossil fuels is a source of black carbon emissions globally, it is not identified as the primary source in India. Black carbon is a component of fine particulate matter (PM2.5) produced from incomplete combustion. Industrial processes do contribute to black carbon emissions, but in India’s context, this is not the predominant source as compared to biomass burning. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect, In India, the majority of black carbon emissions come from the burning of biomass, such as cow dung or straw, particularly in traditional cookstoves. These cookstoves are widely used in rural and some urban areas for daily cooking and heating needs. The combustion process in these stoves is often incomplete due to insufficient airflow and the nature of the fuel, leading to the release of a significant amount of black carbon into the atmosphere. This form of emission is particularly relevant in India due to the prevalence of biomass as a fuel for domestic energy needs. Hence, statement 2 is correct. *https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/27/editorial-analysis-the-need-to-curb-black-carbon-emissions/ Incorrect Solution: B While the industrial combustion of fossil fuels is a source of black carbon emissions globally, it is not identified as the primary source in India. Black carbon is a component of fine particulate matter (PM2.5) produced from incomplete combustion. Industrial processes do contribute to black carbon emissions, but in India’s context, this is not the predominant source as compared to biomass burning. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect, In India, the majority of black carbon emissions come from the burning of biomass, such as cow dung or straw, particularly in traditional cookstoves. These cookstoves are widely used in rural and some urban areas for daily cooking and heating needs. The combustion process in these stoves is often incomplete due to insufficient airflow and the nature of the fuel, leading to the release of a significant amount of black carbon into the atmosphere. This form of emission is particularly relevant in India due to the prevalence of biomass as a fuel for domestic energy needs. Hence, statement 2 is correct. *https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/27/editorial-analysis-the-need-to-curb-black-carbon-emissions/**

#### 8. Question

Which of the following statements accurately describes the source of black carbon emissions in India? 1. The primary source of black carbon emissions in India is the industrial combustion of fossil fuels. 2. Most black carbon emissions in India come from burning biomass, such as cow dung or straw, in traditional cookstoves.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

While the industrial combustion of fossil fuels is a source of black carbon emissions globally, it is not identified as the primary source in India. Black carbon is a component of fine particulate matter (PM2.5) produced from incomplete combustion. Industrial processes do contribute to black carbon emissions, but in India’s context, this is not the predominant source as compared to biomass burning.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect,

In India, the majority of black carbon emissions come from the burning of biomass, such as cow dung or straw, particularly in traditional cookstoves. These cookstoves are widely used in rural and some urban areas for daily cooking and heating needs. The combustion process in these stoves is often incomplete due to insufficient airflow and the nature of the fuel, leading to the release of a significant amount of black carbon into the atmosphere. This form of emission is particularly relevant in India due to the prevalence of biomass as a fuel for domestic energy needs.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

*https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/27/editorial-analysis-the-need-to-curb-black-carbon-emissions/*

Solution: B

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect,

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

*https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/27/editorial-analysis-the-need-to-curb-black-carbon-emissions/*

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points What primary objective do the ’90-70-90′ targets serve in the context of global health? (a) To reduce the incidence of communicable diseases globally (b) To increase the availability of primary healthcare services (c) To eliminate cervical cancer as a public health problem (d) To improve the nutritional status of children under five Correct Solution: C The ’90-70-90′ targets are part of the WHO’s global strategy to eliminate cervical cancer as a public health issue. The aim is for countries to meet these targets by 2030, which will put them on the path to potentially eradicate cervical cancer within the next century. These targets are: Vaccination: 90% of girls fully vaccinated with the HPV vaccine by the age of 15 years. Screening: 70% of women are screened with a high-performance test by the age of 35 and again by the age of 45. Treatment: 90% of women identified with cervical disease receive treatment. This includes 90% of women with precancer treated and 90% of women with invasive cancer managed. Meeting these targets is crucial, as the WHO’s mathematical models project that achieving them by 2030 in low- and lower-middle-income countries would result in a median cervical cancer incidence rate fall by 42% by 2045. By 2120, this could lead to a 97% reduction, averting more than 74 million new cases of cervical cancer. Furthermore, a significant number of cervical cancer deaths could be prevented, with estimates reaching 300,000 by 2030 and over 62 million by 2120. https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/08/editorial-analysis-a-bold-step-towards-a-cervical-cancer-free-future/ Incorrect Solution: C The ’90-70-90′ targets are part of the WHO’s global strategy to eliminate cervical cancer as a public health issue. The aim is for countries to meet these targets by 2030, which will put them on the path to potentially eradicate cervical cancer within the next century. These targets are: Vaccination: 90% of girls fully vaccinated with the HPV vaccine by the age of 15 years. Screening: 70% of women are screened with a high-performance test by the age of 35 and again by the age of 45. Treatment: 90% of women identified with cervical disease receive treatment. This includes 90% of women with precancer treated and 90% of women with invasive cancer managed. Meeting these targets is crucial, as the WHO’s mathematical models project that achieving them by 2030 in low- and lower-middle-income countries would result in a median cervical cancer incidence rate fall by 42% by 2045. By 2120, this could lead to a 97% reduction, averting more than 74 million new cases of cervical cancer. Furthermore, a significant number of cervical cancer deaths could be prevented, with estimates reaching 300,000 by 2030 and over 62 million by 2120. https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/08/editorial-analysis-a-bold-step-towards-a-cervical-cancer-free-future/

#### 9. Question

What primary objective do the ’90-70-90′ targets serve in the context of global health?

• (a) To reduce the incidence of communicable diseases globally

• (b) To increase the availability of primary healthcare services

• (c) To eliminate cervical cancer as a public health problem

• (d) To improve the nutritional status of children under five

Solution: C

The ’90-70-90′ targets are part of the WHO’s global strategy to eliminate cervical cancer as a public health issue. The aim is for countries to meet these targets by 2030, which will put them on the path to potentially eradicate cervical cancer within the next century. These targets are:

• Vaccination: 90% of girls fully vaccinated with the HPV vaccine by the age of 15 years.

• Screening: 70% of women are screened with a high-performance test by the age of 35 and again by the age of 45.

• Treatment: 90% of women identified with cervical disease receive treatment. This includes 90% of women with precancer treated and 90% of women with invasive cancer managed.

Meeting these targets is crucial, as the WHO’s mathematical models project that achieving them by 2030 in low- and lower-middle-income countries would result in a median cervical cancer incidence rate fall by 42% by 2045. By 2120, this could lead to a 97% reduction, averting more than 74 million new cases of cervical cancer. Furthermore, a significant number of cervical cancer deaths could be prevented, with estimates reaching 300,000 by 2030 and over 62 million by 2120.

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/08/editorial-analysis-a-bold-step-towards-a-cervical-cancer-free-future/

Solution: C

• Vaccination: 90% of girls fully vaccinated with the HPV vaccine by the age of 15 years.

• Screening: 70% of women are screened with a high-performance test by the age of 35 and again by the age of 45.

• Treatment: 90% of women identified with cervical disease receive treatment. This includes 90% of women with precancer treated and 90% of women with invasive cancer managed.

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/08/editorial-analysis-a-bold-step-towards-a-cervical-cancer-free-future/

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding thermoplastics and thermosetting plastics: Thermoplastics can be melted and reshaped multiple times after curing. Thermosetting plastics can withstand high temperatures and maintain structural integrity because they form permanent chemical bonds that cannot be altered by reheating. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Both statements given are correct. Thermoplastics are characterized by their ability to be melted and reformed repeatedly without undergoing any significant chemical change. This property is due to the thermoplastics not forming permanent chemical bonds during the initial setting process. As a result, they can be reheated, remolded, and cooled multiple times, which makes them highly versatile and recyclable. This attribute is particularly useful in various manufacturing processes, including injection molding and extrusion, where the plastic needs to be shaped into complex forms . Thermosetting plastics, unlike thermoplastics, undergo a chemical transformation during their initial heating and molding process that creates strong cross-linked bonds between the polymer chains. These bonds are permanent and do not melt under heat. This makes thermosetting plastics highly resistant to heat and capable of maintaining their structural integrity under high temperature conditions. Once set, they cannot be remelted or reshaped, which limits their recyclability but makes them ideal for high-heat applications such as electronic components and automotive parts https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/04/editorial-analysis-mountains-of-plastic-are-choking-the-himalayan-states/ https://www.twi-global.com/technical-knowledge/faqs/thermoset-vs-thermoplastic Incorrect Solution: C Both statements given are correct. Thermoplastics are characterized by their ability to be melted and reformed repeatedly without undergoing any significant chemical change. This property is due to the thermoplastics not forming permanent chemical bonds during the initial setting process. As a result, they can be reheated, remolded, and cooled multiple times, which makes them highly versatile and recyclable. This attribute is particularly useful in various manufacturing processes, including injection molding and extrusion, where the plastic needs to be shaped into complex forms . Thermosetting plastics, unlike thermoplastics, undergo a chemical transformation during their initial heating and molding process that creates strong cross-linked bonds between the polymer chains. These bonds are permanent and do not melt under heat. This makes thermosetting plastics highly resistant to heat and capable of maintaining their structural integrity under high temperature conditions. Once set, they cannot be remelted or reshaped, which limits their recyclability but makes them ideal for high-heat applications such as electronic components and automotive parts https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/04/editorial-analysis-mountains-of-plastic-are-choking-the-himalayan-states/ https://www.twi-global.com/technical-knowledge/faqs/thermoset-vs-thermoplastic

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements regarding thermoplastics and thermosetting plastics:

• Thermoplastics can be melted and reshaped multiple times after curing.

• Thermosetting plastics can withstand high temperatures and maintain structural integrity because they form permanent chemical bonds that cannot be altered by reheating.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

Both statements given are correct.

Thermoplastics are characterized by their ability to be melted and reformed repeatedly without undergoing any significant chemical change. This property is due to the thermoplastics not forming permanent chemical bonds during the initial setting process. As a result, they can be reheated, remolded, and cooled multiple times, which makes them highly versatile and recyclable. This attribute is particularly useful in various manufacturing processes, including injection molding and extrusion, where the plastic needs to be shaped into complex forms

Thermosetting plastics, unlike thermoplastics, undergo a chemical transformation during their initial heating and molding process that creates strong cross-linked bonds between the polymer chains. These bonds are permanent and do not melt under heat. This makes thermosetting plastics highly resistant to heat and capable of maintaining their structural integrity under high temperature conditions. Once set, they cannot be remelted or reshaped, which limits their recyclability but makes them ideal for high-heat applications such as electronic components and automotive parts

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/04/editorial-analysis-mountains-of-plastic-are-choking-the-himalayan-states/

https://www.twi-global.com/technical-knowledge/faqs/thermoset-vs-thermoplastic

Solution: C

Both statements given are correct.

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/04/editorial-analysis-mountains-of-plastic-are-choking-the-himalayan-states/

https://www.twi-global.com/technical-knowledge/faqs/thermoset-vs-thermoplastic

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points With reference to Hepatitis A, consider the following statements: Unlike the other Hepatitis variants, it is not transmitted by the faecal-oral route. The Hepatitis A does not cause chronic liver disease unlike the Hepatitis B. The vaccine ‘Havisure’ is the first indigenously developed Hepatitis A vaccine. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Hepatitis A is an inflammation of the liver caused by the hepatitis A virus. The virus is primarily spread when an uninfected person ingests food or water that is contaminated with the faeces of an infected person. Statement 1 is not correct: The hepatitis A virus is transmitted primarily by the faecal-oral route; that is when an uninfected person ingests food or water that has been contaminated with the faeces of an infected person Statement 2 is correct: Unlike hepatitis B and C, hepatitis A does not cause chronic liver disease but it can cause debilitating symptoms and rarely fulminant hepatitis (acute liver failure), which is often fatal. Statement 3 is correct: Indian Immunologicals recently launched the country’s first indigenously developed Hepatitis A vaccine. The vaccine ‘Havisure’ represents a significant step forward in India’s fight against Hepatitis A and is poised to make a substantial contribution to public health. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Hepatitis A is an inflammation of the liver caused by the hepatitis A virus. The virus is primarily spread when an uninfected person ingests food or water that is contaminated with the faeces of an infected person. Statement 1 is not correct: The hepatitis A virus is transmitted primarily by the faecal-oral route; that is when an uninfected person ingests food or water that has been contaminated with the faeces of an infected person Statement 2 is correct: Unlike hepatitis B and C, hepatitis A does not cause chronic liver disease but it can cause debilitating symptoms and rarely fulminant hepatitis (acute liver failure), which is often fatal. Statement 3 is correct: Indian Immunologicals recently launched the country’s first indigenously developed Hepatitis A vaccine. The vaccine ‘Havisure’ represents a significant step forward in India’s fight against Hepatitis A and is poised to make a substantial contribution to public health.

#### 11. Question

With reference to Hepatitis A, consider the following statements:

• Unlike the other Hepatitis variants, it is not transmitted by the faecal-oral route.

• The Hepatitis A does not cause chronic liver disease unlike the Hepatitis B.

• The vaccine ‘Havisure’ is the first indigenously developed Hepatitis A vaccine.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

Hepatitis A is an inflammation of the liver caused by the hepatitis A virus. The virus is primarily spread when an uninfected person ingests food or water that is contaminated with the faeces of an infected person.

Statement 1 is not correct: The hepatitis A virus is transmitted primarily by the faecal-oral route; that is when an uninfected person ingests food or water that has been contaminated with the faeces of an infected person

Statement 2 is correct: Unlike hepatitis B and C, hepatitis A does not cause chronic liver disease but it can cause debilitating symptoms and rarely fulminant hepatitis (acute liver failure), which is often fatal.

Statement 3 is correct: Indian Immunologicals recently launched the country’s first indigenously developed Hepatitis A vaccine.

The vaccine ‘Havisure’ represents a significant step forward in India’s fight against Hepatitis A and is poised to make a substantial contribution to public health.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 3 is correct: Indian Immunologicals recently launched the country’s first indigenously developed Hepatitis A vaccine.

The vaccine ‘Havisure’ represents a significant step forward in India’s fight against Hepatitis A and is poised to make a substantial contribution to public health.

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points With reference to the Gangetic River Dolphins, consider the following statements: They once lived in the Ganges-Brahmaputra-Meghna River system but are extinct from most of its early distribution ranges. They have a peculiar way of swimming towards one side so that their flipper trails the muddy bottom. They can live in freshwater as well as the saline water creeks of Sundarbans and are essentially blind. How many of the statements given above are *not correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Ganges river dolphins once lived in the Ganges-Brahmaputra-Meghna and Karnaphuli-Sangu river systems of Nepal, India, and Bangladesh. But the species is extinct from most of its early distribution ranges. Statement 2 is correct: The dolphin has the peculiarity of swimming on one side so that its flipper trails the muddy bottom. It is understood that this behaviour aids them in finding food. Statement 3 is not correct: The Ganges river dolphin can only live in freshwater and is essentially blind. They hunt by emitting ultrasonic sounds, which bounces off of fish and other prey, enabling them to “see” an image in their mind. Being a mammal, the Ganges river dolphin cannot breathe in water and must surface every 30-120 seconds. Because of the sound it produces when breathing, the animal is popularly referred to as ‘Susu’. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Ganges river dolphins once lived in the Ganges-Brahmaputra-Meghna and Karnaphuli-Sangu river systems of Nepal, India, and Bangladesh. But the species is extinct from most of its early distribution ranges. Statement 2 is correct: The dolphin has the peculiarity of swimming on one side so that its flipper trails the muddy bottom. It is understood that this behaviour aids them in finding food. Statement 3 is not correct:* The Ganges river dolphin can only live in freshwater and is essentially blind. They hunt by emitting ultrasonic sounds, which bounces off of fish and other prey, enabling them to “see” an image in their mind. Being a mammal, the Ganges river dolphin cannot breathe in water and must surface every 30-120 seconds. Because of the sound it produces when breathing, the animal is popularly referred to as ‘Susu’.

#### 12. Question

With reference to the Gangetic River Dolphins, consider the following statements:

• They once lived in the Ganges-Brahmaputra-Meghna River system but are extinct from most of its early distribution ranges.

• They have a peculiar way of swimming towards one side so that their flipper trails the muddy bottom.

• They can live in freshwater as well as the saline water creeks of Sundarbans and are essentially blind.

How many of the statements given above are *not* correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Ganges river dolphins once lived in the Ganges-Brahmaputra-Meghna and Karnaphuli-Sangu river systems of Nepal, India, and Bangladesh. But the species is extinct from most of its early distribution ranges.

Statement 2 is correct: The dolphin has the peculiarity of swimming on one side so that its flipper trails the muddy bottom. It is understood that this behaviour aids them in finding food.

Statement 3 is not correct: The Ganges river dolphin can only live in freshwater and is essentially blind. They hunt by emitting ultrasonic sounds, which bounces off of fish and other prey, enabling them to “see” an image in their mind.

Being a mammal, the Ganges river dolphin cannot breathe in water and must surface every 30-120 seconds. Because of the sound it produces when breathing, the animal is popularly referred to as ‘Susu’.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 2 is correct: The dolphin has the peculiarity of swimming on one side so that its flipper trails the muddy bottom. It is understood that this behaviour aids them in finding food.

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Which one of the following statements is correct about the SATAT Initiative? (a) It aims to bring transparency in the free supply chain of foodgrains in India under the Public Distribution System. (b) It aims to boost the production of Compressed Biogas as an affordable clean fuel for transportation sector. (c) It was launched to support women-owned enterprises with skill Development and Market Development Assistance. (d) It is a digital learning platform to ensure capacity building of health professionals from primary health centres located in rural areas. Correct Answer: B Explanation: Option (b) is correct: The SATAT Scheme (Sustainable Alternative Towards Affordable Transportation) is an initiative by the government with the objective of setting up Compressed Biogas production plants, and make it available for market use for automotives by inviting expression of interest through potential investors. In order to reduce import dependency of the country in fossil fuels, Government has taken multiple steps launched various policy initiatives to increase the domestic production of crude oil & natural gas and adopted strategies for promotion of biofuels, gas based economy, energy efficiency & energy conservation, improvement in refinery process and increasing renewable energy generation capacity. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Option (b) is correct: The SATAT Scheme (Sustainable Alternative Towards Affordable Transportation) is an initiative by the government with the objective of setting up Compressed Biogas production plants, and make it available for market use for automotives by inviting expression of interest through potential investors. In order to reduce import dependency of the country in fossil fuels, Government has taken multiple steps launched various policy initiatives to increase the domestic production of crude oil & natural gas and adopted strategies for promotion of biofuels, gas based economy, energy efficiency & energy conservation, improvement in refinery process and increasing renewable energy generation capacity.

#### 13. Question

Which one of the following statements is correct about the SATAT Initiative?

• (a) It aims to bring transparency in the free supply chain of foodgrains in India under the Public Distribution System.

• (b) It aims to boost the production of Compressed Biogas as an affordable clean fuel for transportation sector.

• (c) It was launched to support women-owned enterprises with skill Development and Market Development Assistance.

• (d) It is a digital learning platform to ensure capacity building of health professionals from primary health centres located in rural areas.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Option (b) is correct: The SATAT Scheme (Sustainable Alternative Towards Affordable Transportation) is an initiative by the government with the objective of setting up Compressed Biogas production plants, and make it available for market use for automotives by inviting expression of interest through potential investors.

In order to reduce import dependency of the country in fossil fuels, Government has taken multiple steps launched various policy initiatives to increase the domestic production of crude oil & natural gas and adopted strategies for promotion of biofuels, gas based economy, energy efficiency & energy conservation, improvement in refinery process and increasing renewable energy generation capacity.

Answer: B

Explanation:

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Sludge is rich in organic chemicals as it is a residue filtered out of the sewage treatment plants. One of the measures under the ‘Arth Ganga’ project is to monetise and reuse the treated sludge. As per the Indian standards, class A of the treated sludge is safe to be useful as an organic fertilizer. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Sludge is the thick residue filtered out of sewage treatment plants that while rich in organic chemicals is also a repository of heavy metals, industrial effluents and bacterial contaminants. Statement 2 is correct: One of the measures, under this ‘Arth Ganga’ (economic value from Ganga), is to “monetise” and reuse treated wastewater and sludge. Treated sludge can be classified as class A or class B — as per the standards of the United States Environment Protection Agency — with class A being safe to be disposed of in the open and useful as organic fertilizer. Statement 3 is not correct: Class B means that the sludge can be used in “restricted” agricultural applications, the edible parts of the crop not be exposed to the sludge-mixed soil, and animals and people not come into extensive contact. India doesn’t yet have standards classifying sludge as class A or B. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Sludge is the thick residue filtered out of sewage treatment plants that while rich in organic chemicals is also a repository of heavy metals, industrial effluents and bacterial contaminants. Statement 2 is correct: One of the measures, under this ‘Arth Ganga’ (economic value from Ganga), is to “monetise” and reuse treated wastewater and sludge. Treated sludge can be classified as class A or class B — as per the standards of the United States Environment Protection Agency — with class A being safe to be disposed of in the open and useful as organic fertilizer. Statement 3 is not correct: Class B means that the sludge can be used in “restricted” agricultural applications, the edible parts of the crop not be exposed to the sludge-mixed soil, and animals and people not come into extensive contact. India doesn’t yet have standards classifying sludge as class A or B.

#### 14. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Sludge is rich in organic chemicals as it is a residue filtered out of the sewage treatment plants.

• One of the measures under the ‘Arth Ganga’ project is to monetise and reuse the treated sludge.

• As per the Indian standards, class A of the treated sludge is safe to be useful as an organic fertilizer.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Sludge is the thick residue filtered out of sewage treatment plants that while rich in organic chemicals is also a repository of heavy metals, industrial effluents and bacterial contaminants.

Statement 2 is correct: One of the measures, under this ‘Arth Ganga’ (economic value from Ganga), is to “monetise” and reuse treated wastewater and sludge.

Treated sludge can be classified as class A or class B — as per the standards of the United States Environment Protection Agency — with class A being safe to be disposed of in the open and useful as organic fertilizer.

Statement 3 is not correct: Class B means that the sludge can be used in “restricted” agricultural applications, the edible parts of the crop not be exposed to the sludge-mixed soil, and animals and people not come into extensive contact. India doesn’t yet have standards classifying sludge as class A or B.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 2 is correct: One of the measures, under this ‘Arth Ganga’ (economic value from Ganga), is to “monetise” and reuse treated wastewater and sludge.

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Suez Canal: It is an artificial waterway between Southern and Northern Africa that connects the Red Sea to the Mediterranean Sea. It reduces the distance between East Asia and Europe with a direct route between the Indian Ocean and the North Atlantic Ocean. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Suez Canal is an artificial waterway between southern Asia and northern Africa that connects the Red Sea to the Mediterranean Sea via the Isthmus of Suez. Statement 2 is correct: The canal substantially reduces the sailing distance between East Asia and Europe and offers a more direct route between the Indian Ocean and the North Atlantic Ocean through the Red Sea and the Mediterranean Sea. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Suez Canal is an artificial waterway between southern Asia and northern Africa that connects the Red Sea to the Mediterranean Sea via the Isthmus of Suez. Statement 2 is correct: The canal substantially reduces the sailing distance between East Asia and Europe and offers a more direct route between the Indian Ocean and the North Atlantic Ocean through the Red Sea and the Mediterranean Sea.

#### 15. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Suez Canal:

• It is an artificial waterway between Southern and Northern Africa that connects the Red Sea to the Mediterranean Sea.

• It reduces the distance between East Asia and Europe with a direct route between the Indian Ocean and the North Atlantic Ocean.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Suez Canal is an artificial waterway between southern Asia and northern Africa that connects the Red Sea to the Mediterranean Sea via the Isthmus of Suez.

Statement 2 is correct: The canal substantially reduces the sailing distance between East Asia and Europe and offers a more direct route between the Indian Ocean and the North Atlantic Ocean through the Red Sea and the Mediterranean Sea.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Suez Canal is an artificial waterway between southern Asia and northern Africa that connects the Red Sea to the Mediterranean Sea via the Isthmus of Suez.

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Which of the following accurately describes the ‘Sharing Economy’? (a) The Sharing Economy is a system where services are provided in exchange for a share of company stock. (b) It refers exclusively to the sharing of physical goods like tools and books, excluding any form of service. (c) In the Sharing Economy, individuals share access to goods and services through peer-to-peer platforms. (d) Only corporate entities can participate in the Sharing Economy, providing shared services to other businesses. Correct Solution: C The Sharing Economy involves individuals sharing their own resources, such as cars, homes, and personal time, to provide services or access to goods through peer-to-peer platforms. This can include renting out a spare room on platforms like Airbnb or providing a ride service through Uber. This economy leverages technology to create an efficient model of distributed sharing. Incorrect Solution: C The Sharing Economy involves individuals sharing their own resources, such as cars, homes, and personal time, to provide services or access to goods through peer-to-peer platforms. This can include renting out a spare room on platforms like Airbnb or providing a ride service through Uber. This economy leverages technology to create an efficient model of distributed sharing.

#### 16. Question

Which of the following accurately describes the ‘Sharing Economy’?

• (a) The Sharing Economy is a system where services are provided in exchange for a share of company stock.

• (b) It refers exclusively to the sharing of physical goods like tools and books, excluding any form of service.

• (c) In the Sharing Economy, individuals share access to goods and services through peer-to-peer platforms.

• (d) Only corporate entities can participate in the Sharing Economy, providing shared services to other businesses.

Solution: C

The Sharing Economy involves individuals sharing their own resources, such as cars, homes, and personal time, to provide services or access to goods through peer-to-peer platforms. This can include renting out a spare room on platforms like Airbnb or providing a ride service through Uber. This economy leverages technology to create an efficient model of distributed sharing.

Solution: C

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Which statement best describes the ‘Gig Economy’? (a) The Gig Economy solely includes long-term contractual jobs with traditional benefits. (b) Only professional services like consulting and legal advice are considered part of the Gig Economy. (c) The Gig Economy consists of temporary jobs and freelance gigs where individuals earn income per task or project through digital platforms. (d) Participation in the Gig Economy is restricted to those with advanced degrees and specialized skills. Correct Solution: C The Gig Economy is characterized by flexible, temporary, or freelance jobs, often involving connecting with clients or customers through an online platform. This economy enables people to work on individual gigs or tasks such as driving for a ride-sharing service, delivering food, or performing freelance work, and they typically do not receive traditional benefits from these jobs. Incorrect Solution: C The Gig Economy is characterized by flexible, temporary, or freelance jobs, often involving connecting with clients or customers through an online platform. This economy enables people to work on individual gigs or tasks such as driving for a ride-sharing service, delivering food, or performing freelance work, and they typically do not receive traditional benefits from these jobs.

#### 17. Question

Which statement best describes the ‘Gig Economy’?

• (a) The Gig Economy solely includes long-term contractual jobs with traditional benefits.

• (b) Only professional services like consulting and legal advice are considered part of the Gig Economy.

• (c) The Gig Economy consists of temporary jobs and freelance gigs where individuals earn income per task or project through digital platforms.

• (d) Participation in the Gig Economy is restricted to those with advanced degrees and specialized skills.

Solution: C

The Gig Economy is characterized by flexible, temporary, or freelance jobs, often involving connecting with clients or customers through an online platform. This economy enables people to work on individual gigs or tasks such as driving for a ride-sharing service, delivering food, or performing freelance work, and they typically do not receive traditional benefits from these jobs.

Solution: C

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs) in India: 1. REITs are entities that own and often operate income-producing real estate or related assets. 2. REITs in India are primarily regulated under the SEBI (Venture Capital Funds) Regulations, 1996. 3. Like Mutual Funds, REITs are required to distribute a significant portion of their income to their investors. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None of the above Correct Solution: B Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs) in India are entities that own, and often operate, income-producing real estate or related assets. REITs are designed to provide investors with a way to invest in large-scale, income-generating real estate without having to buy the properties directly. This allows for liquidity and diversification in real estate investments. Hence, statement 1 is correct. REITs in India are not regulated under the SEBI (Venture Capital Funds) Regulations, 1996. Instead, they are governed by the SEBI (Real Estate Investment Trusts) Regulations, 2014. These regulations provide the framework for the registration and regulation of REITs in India, detailing their operation, management, and the specific requirements they must fulfill. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Similar to mutual funds, REITs are required to distribute a significant portion of their income to their investors. Specifically, REITs must distribute at least 90% of their net distributable cash flows to their investors annually. This distribution requirement is one of the key attractions of REITs, as it provides a regular income stream for investors. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution: B Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs) in India are entities that own, and often operate, income-producing real estate or related assets. REITs are designed to provide investors with a way to invest in large-scale, income-generating real estate without having to buy the properties directly. This allows for liquidity and diversification in real estate investments. Hence, statement 1 is correct. REITs in India are not regulated under the SEBI (Venture Capital Funds) Regulations, 1996. Instead, they are governed by the SEBI (Real Estate Investment Trusts) Regulations, 2014. These regulations provide the framework for the registration and regulation of REITs in India, detailing their operation, management, and the specific requirements they must fulfill. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Similar to mutual funds, REITs are required to distribute a significant portion of their income to their investors. Specifically, REITs must distribute at least 90% of their net distributable cash flows to their investors annually. This distribution requirement is one of the key attractions of REITs, as it provides a regular income stream for investors. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

#### 18. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs) in India: 1. REITs are entities that own and often operate income-producing real estate or related assets. 2. REITs in India are primarily regulated under the SEBI (Venture Capital Funds) Regulations, 1996. 3. Like Mutual Funds, REITs are required to distribute a significant portion of their income to their investors.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

• d) None of the above

Solution: B

Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs) in India are entities that own, and often operate, income-producing real estate or related assets. REITs are designed to provide investors with a way to invest in large-scale, income-generating real estate without having to buy the properties directly. This allows for liquidity and diversification in real estate investments.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

REITs in India are not regulated under the SEBI (Venture Capital Funds) Regulations, 1996. Instead, they are governed by the SEBI (Real Estate Investment Trusts) Regulations, 2014. These regulations provide the framework for the registration and regulation of REITs in India, detailing their operation, management, and the specific requirements they must fulfill.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Similar to mutual funds, REITs are required to distribute a significant portion of their income to their investors. Specifically, REITs must distribute at least 90% of their net distributable cash flows to their investors annually. This distribution requirement is one of the key attractions of REITs, as it provides a regular income stream for investors.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution: B

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGBs) in India: 1. SGBs are government securities denominated in grams of gold and are substitutes for holding physical gold. 2. Investors have to pay the issue price in cash, and the bonds will be redeemed in cash on maturity. 3. The interest on SGBs is taxed according to the individual’s income tax slab rates. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGBs) are government securities denominated in grams of gold. They are intended to provide an alternative to holding physical gold. Investors pay for these bonds, which reflect the price of gold, and on redemption, they receive the equivalent value based on current gold prices. This allows investors to benefit from the price movements of gold without physically owning it. Hence, statement 1 is correct. When purchasing SGBs, investors pay the issue price in cash, and the bonds are redeemed in cash upon maturity. This means that while the bonds are linked to the price of gold, the transaction both at the outset and at maturity is handled in cash, not in physical gold. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The interest on SGBs is indeed paid semi-annually to the bondholder, but it is not taxed according to the individual’s income tax slab rates. The interest on SGBs is taxable as per the Income Tax Act, 1961; however, the capital gains tax arising on redemption of SGB to an individual has been exempted. This makes SGBs a tax-advantaged option for gold investors. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution: B Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGBs) are government securities denominated in grams of gold. They are intended to provide an alternative to holding physical gold. Investors pay for these bonds, which reflect the price of gold, and on redemption, they receive the equivalent value based on current gold prices. This allows investors to benefit from the price movements of gold without physically owning it. Hence, statement 1 is correct. When purchasing SGBs, investors pay the issue price in cash, and the bonds are redeemed in cash upon maturity. This means that while the bonds are linked to the price of gold, the transaction both at the outset and at maturity is handled in cash, not in physical gold. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The interest on SGBs is indeed paid semi-annually to the bondholder, but it is not taxed according to the individual’s income tax slab rates. The interest on SGBs is taxable as per the Income Tax Act, 1961; however, the capital gains tax arising on redemption of SGB to an individual has been exempted. This makes SGBs a tax-advantaged option for gold investors. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

#### 19. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGBs) in India: 1. SGBs are government securities denominated in grams of gold and are substitutes for holding physical gold. 2. Investors have to pay the issue price in cash, and the bonds will be redeemed in cash on maturity. 3. The interest on SGBs is taxed according to the individual’s income tax slab rates. How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGBs) are government securities denominated in grams of gold. They are intended to provide an alternative to holding physical gold. Investors pay for these bonds, which reflect the price of gold, and on redemption, they receive the equivalent value based on current gold prices. This allows investors to benefit from the price movements of gold without physically owning it.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

When purchasing SGBs, investors pay the issue price in cash, and the bonds are redeemed in cash upon maturity. This means that while the bonds are linked to the price of gold, the transaction both at the outset and at maturity is handled in cash, not in physical gold.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

The interest on SGBs is indeed paid semi-annually to the bondholder, but it is not taxed according to the individual’s income tax slab rates. The interest on SGBs is taxable as per the Income Tax Act, 1961; however, the capital gains tax arising on redemption of SGB to an individual has been exempted. This makes SGBs a tax-advantaged option for gold investors.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution: B

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points In which of the following states is Dibru-Saikhowa National Park located? (a) Assam (b) Manipur (c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) Nagaland Correct Solution: A Dibru-Saikhowa National Park is located in the state of Assam, India. It is situated in the northeastern part of the country, at the edge of the Eastern Himalayan biodiversity hotspots. The park spans the Dibrugarh and Tinsukia districts of Assam and is bordered by the Brahmaputra and Lohit Rivers on the north and Dibru River on the south. Incorrect Solution: A Dibru-Saikhowa National Park is located in the state of Assam, India. It is situated in the northeastern part of the country, at the edge of the Eastern Himalayan biodiversity hotspots. The park spans the Dibrugarh and Tinsukia districts of Assam and is bordered by the Brahmaputra and Lohit Rivers on the north and Dibru River on the south.

#### 20. Question

In which of the following states is Dibru-Saikhowa National Park located?

• (b) Manipur

• (c) Arunachal Pradesh

• (d) Nagaland

Solution: A

Dibru-Saikhowa National Park is located in the state of Assam, India. It is situated in the northeastern part of the country, at the edge of the Eastern Himalayan biodiversity hotspots. The park spans the Dibrugarh and Tinsukia districts of Assam and is bordered by the Brahmaputra and Lohit Rivers on the north and Dibru River on the south.

Solution: A

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points With reference to ‘Protection of Children from Sexual Offences’ (POCSO) Act, consider the following statements: The POCSO Act applies only to female children. The Act primarily focuses on punishing the child victims for any involvement in the incident. The POCSO Act does not cover sexual offenses committed by children against other children. The Act defines different forms of sexual offenses against children and provides for their protection and rehabilitation. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution: A: Context: The Union Cabinet has approved the continuation of the Fast Track Special Courts (FTSC) dedicated to expediting justice in cases of sexual offences for an additional three years, extending up to March 31, 2026. The POCSO Act applies to both male and female children. It recognizes that sexual offenses can be committed against children of any gender. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. The POCSO Act is designed to protect children and does not focus on punishing the child victims. Instead, it emphasizes the legal consequences for the perpetrators of sexual offenses against children. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. The POCSO Act applies to all cases of sexual offenses against children, regardless of whether the perpetrator is a child or an adult. It recognizes that children can be both victims and perpetrators and provides for different procedures in such cases. ○ If a kid commits an offence, the POCSO Act will still apply, but the procedure will be governed by the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. The POCSO Act, enacted in India, defines various forms of sexual offenses against children and lays down legal provisions for the reporting, trial, and punishment of such offenses. Additionally, the Act emphasizes the need for the protection and rehabilitation of child victims, recognizing the sensitive nature of these cases and the long-term impact on the well-being of the child. Hence, statement 4 is correct. https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/12/01/fast-track-courts/ Incorrect Solution: A: Context: The Union Cabinet has approved the continuation of the Fast Track Special Courts (FTSC) dedicated to expediting justice in cases of sexual offences for an additional three years, extending up to March 31, 2026. The POCSO Act applies to both male and female children. It recognizes that sexual offenses can be committed against children of any gender. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. The POCSO Act is designed to protect children and does not focus on punishing the child victims. Instead, it emphasizes the legal consequences for the perpetrators of sexual offenses against children. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. The POCSO Act applies to all cases of sexual offenses against children, regardless of whether the perpetrator is a child or an adult. It recognizes that children can be both victims and perpetrators and provides for different procedures in such cases. ○ If a kid commits an offence, the POCSO Act will still apply, but the procedure will be governed by the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. The POCSO Act, enacted in India, defines various forms of sexual offenses against children and lays down legal provisions for the reporting, trial, and punishment of such offenses. Additionally, the Act emphasizes the need for the protection and rehabilitation of child victims, recognizing the sensitive nature of these cases and the long-term impact on the well-being of the child. Hence, statement 4 is correct. https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/12/01/fast-track-courts/

#### 21. Question

With reference to ‘Protection of Children from Sexual Offences’ (POCSO) Act, consider the following statements:

• The POCSO Act applies only to female children.

• The Act primarily focuses on punishing the child victims for any involvement in the incident.

• The POCSO Act does not cover sexual offenses committed by children against other children.

• The Act defines different forms of sexual offenses against children and provides for their protection and rehabilitation.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Solution: A:

• Context: The Union Cabinet has approved the continuation of the Fast Track Special Courts (FTSC) dedicated to expediting justice in cases of sexual offences for an additional three years, extending up to March 31, 2026.

The POCSO Act applies to both male and female children. It recognizes that sexual offenses can be committed against children of any gender.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

The POCSO Act is designed to protect children and does not focus on punishing the child victims. Instead, it emphasizes the legal consequences for the perpetrators of sexual offenses against children.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

The POCSO Act applies to all cases of sexual offenses against children, regardless of whether the perpetrator is a child or an adult. It recognizes that children can be both victims and perpetrators and provides for different procedures in such cases.

○ If a kid commits an offence, the POCSO Act will still apply, but the procedure will be governed by the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

The POCSO Act, enacted in India, defines various forms of sexual offenses against children and lays down legal provisions for the reporting, trial, and punishment of such offenses. Additionally, the Act emphasizes the need for the protection and rehabilitation of child victims, recognizing the sensitive nature of these cases and the long-term impact on the well-being of the child.

Hence, statement 4 is correct.

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/12/01/fast-track-courts/

Solution: A:

The POCSO Act applies to both male and female children. It recognizes that sexual offenses can be committed against children of any gender.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

○ If a kid commits an offence, the POCSO Act will still apply, but the procedure will be governed by the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Hence, statement 4 is correct.

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/12/01/fast-track-courts/

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points The Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) mechanism of mediation is mentioned in (a) Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (b) The Commercial Courts Act, 2015 (c) The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 (d) All of the above Correct Solution: D Context: The Supreme Court of India has ruled that an arbitration agreement can be binding on non-signatory firms under the ‘group of companies’ doctrine. In India, though mediation finds legitimacy in some specific laws such as the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, the Companies Act, 2013, the Commercial Courts Act, 2015, and the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, there is no standalone legislation as yet. Incorrect Solution: D Context: The Supreme Court of India has ruled that an arbitration agreement can be binding on non-signatory firms under the ‘group of companies’ doctrine. In India, though mediation finds legitimacy in some specific laws such as the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, the Companies Act, 2013, the Commercial Courts Act, 2015, and the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, there is no standalone legislation as yet.

#### 22. Question

The Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) mechanism of mediation is mentioned in

• (a) Code of Civil Procedure, 1908

• (b) The Commercial Courts Act, 2015

• (c) The Consumer Protection Act, 2019

• (d) All of the above

Solution: D

• Context: The Supreme Court of India has ruled that an arbitration agreement can be binding on non-signatory firms under the ‘group of companies’ doctrine.

• In India, though mediation finds legitimacy in some specific laws such as the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, the Companies Act, 2013, the Commercial Courts Act, 2015, and the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, there is no standalone legislation as yet.

Solution: D

• Context: The Supreme Court of India has ruled that an arbitration agreement can be binding on non-signatory firms under the ‘group of companies’ doctrine.

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Which industry generates ‘Pressmud’ as a byproduct? (a) Textile manufacturing (b) Petroleum refining (c) Sugarcane processing (d) Electronics production Correct Solution: C The industry that generates ‘Pressmud’ as a byproduct is the sugarcane processing industry. Pressmud, also known as filter cake or press cake, is a residual byproduct produced during the sugar production process. It is derived from the filtration of sugarcane juice and has various applications, including use as a feedstock for biogas production and as an organic fertilizer due to its nutrient content https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/renewable-energy/sugarcane-byproduct-pressmud-can-be-a-sweet-spot-for-india-s-compressed-biogas-sector-93022 Incorrect Solution: C The industry that generates ‘Pressmud’ as a byproduct is the sugarcane processing industry. Pressmud, also known as filter cake or press cake, is a residual byproduct produced during the sugar production process. It is derived from the filtration of sugarcane juice and has various applications, including use as a feedstock for biogas production and as an organic fertilizer due to its nutrient content https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/renewable-energy/sugarcane-byproduct-pressmud-can-be-a-sweet-spot-for-india-s-compressed-biogas-sector-93022

#### 23. Question

Which industry generates ‘Pressmud’ as a byproduct?

• (a) Textile manufacturing

• (b) Petroleum refining

• (c) Sugarcane processing

• (d) Electronics production

Solution: C

The industry that generates ‘Pressmud’ as a byproduct is the sugarcane processing industry. Pressmud, also known as filter cake or press cake, is a residual byproduct produced during the sugar production process. It is derived from the filtration of sugarcane juice and has various applications, including use as a feedstock for biogas production and as an organic fertilizer due to its nutrient content

https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/renewable-energy/sugarcane-byproduct-pressmud-can-be-a-sweet-spot-for-india-s-compressed-biogas-sector-93022

Solution: C

https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/renewable-energy/sugarcane-byproduct-pressmud-can-be-a-sweet-spot-for-india-s-compressed-biogas-sector-93022

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Tax Inspectors Without Borders (TIWB) is a joint initiative of the (a) IMF and OECD (b) UNDP and OECD (c) IMF and WTO (d) WTO and UNDP Correct Solution: B Tax Inspectors Without Borders (TIWB) is a collaborative initiative between the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) and the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP). This partnership was established to enhance the ability of developing countries to effectively tax multinational enterprises and improve domestic resource mobilization. The initiative leverages the expertise of the OECD in tax matters along with UNDP’s extensive network and policy experience in public financial management to provide targeted audit assistance to countries in need. https://www.tiwb.org/ Incorrect Solution: B Tax Inspectors Without Borders (TIWB) is a collaborative initiative between the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) and the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP). This partnership was established to enhance the ability of developing countries to effectively tax multinational enterprises and improve domestic resource mobilization. The initiative leverages the expertise of the OECD in tax matters along with UNDP’s extensive network and policy experience in public financial management to provide targeted audit assistance to countries in need. https://www.tiwb.org/

#### 24. Question

Tax Inspectors Without Borders (TIWB) is a joint initiative of the

• (a) IMF and OECD

• (b) UNDP and OECD

• (c) IMF and WTO

• (d) WTO and UNDP

Solution: B

Tax Inspectors Without Borders (TIWB) is a collaborative initiative between the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) and the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP). This partnership was established to enhance the ability of developing countries to effectively tax multinational enterprises and improve domestic resource mobilization. The initiative leverages the expertise of the OECD in tax matters along with UNDP’s extensive network and policy experience in public financial management to provide targeted audit assistance to countries in need.

https://www.tiwb.org/

Solution: B

https://www.tiwb.org/

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Which one of the following is the best description of ‘INS Imphal’, that was in the news recently? (a) Stealth-guided missile destroyers (b) Nuclear-powered submarine (c) Torpedo launch and recovery vessel (d) Nuclear-powered aircraft carrier Correct Solution: A INS Imphal is a stealth-guided missile destroyer that has recently been commissioned into the Indian Navy. It is part of the Visakhapatnam-class destroyers, which are known for their advanced stealth features and powerful armament, including the capability to launch BrahMos supersonic cruise missiles. This class of destroyers represents a significant step forward in the Indian Navy’s blue-water capabilities, enhancing its ability to conduct a wide range of maritime operations. *https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/ins-imphal-guided-missile-destroyer/article67690931.ece Incorrect Solution: A INS Imphal is a stealth-guided missile destroyer that has recently been commissioned into the Indian Navy. It is part of the Visakhapatnam-class destroyers, which are known for their advanced stealth features and powerful armament, including the capability to launch BrahMos supersonic cruise missiles. This class of destroyers represents a significant step forward in the Indian Navy’s blue-water capabilities, enhancing its ability to conduct a wide range of maritime operations. *https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/ins-imphal-guided-missile-destroyer/article67690931.ece**

#### 25. Question

Which one of the following is the best description of ‘INS Imphal’, that was in the news recently?

• (a) Stealth-guided missile destroyers

• (b) Nuclear-powered submarine

• (c) Torpedo launch and recovery vessel

• (d) Nuclear-powered aircraft carrier

Solution: A

INS Imphal is a stealth-guided missile destroyer that has recently been commissioned into the Indian Navy. It is part of the Visakhapatnam-class destroyers, which are known for their advanced stealth features and powerful armament, including the capability to launch BrahMos supersonic cruise missiles. This class of destroyers represents a significant step forward in the Indian Navy’s blue-water capabilities, enhancing its ability to conduct a wide range of maritime operations.

*https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/ins-imphal-guided-missile-destroyer/article67690931.ece*

Solution: A

*https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/ins-imphal-guided-missile-destroyer/article67690931.ece*

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points Find the next term 29 , 32 , 61 , 93 , 154 , ? a) 285 b) 160 c) 247 d) 240 Correct Option C) 247 The series is (29 + 32 = 61) , (32 + 61 = 93) , (61 + 93 = 154) , (93 + 154 = 247) Hence answer is C 247 Incorrect Option C) 247 The series is (29 + 32 = 61) , (32 + 61 = 93) , (61 + 93 = 154) , (93 + 154 = 247) Hence answer is C 247

#### 26. Question

Find the next term

29 , 32 , 61 , 93 , 154 , ?

Option C) 247 The series is (29 + 32 = 61) ,

(32 + 61 = 93) ,

(61 + 93 = 154) ,

(93 + 154 = 247)

Hence answer is C 247

Option C) 247 The series is (29 + 32 = 61) ,

(32 + 61 = 93) ,

(61 + 93 = 154) ,

(93 + 154 = 247)

Hence answer is C 247

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points Find out the wrong term in the given series: 16, 9, 11, 19.5, 45, 112.5 a) 16 b) 45 c) 11 d) 9 Correct Option B) 45 the series is, (16.5+1)= 9 (91+2)= 11 (11 1.5+3)= 19.5 ( 19.5 2 + 4) = 43 so wrong term is 45 Incorrect Option B) 45 the series is, (16.5+1)= 9 (91+2)= 11 (11 1.5+3)= 19.5 ( 19.5 2 + 4) = 43 so wrong term is 45

#### 27. Question

Find out the wrong term in the given series:

16, 9, 11, 19.5, 45, 112.5

Option B) 45 the series is, (16*.5+1)= 9

(9*1+2)= 11

(11* 1.5+3)= 19.5

( 19.5 * 2 + 4) = 43 so wrong term is 45

Option B) 45 the series is, (16*.5+1)= 9

(9*1+2)= 11

(11* 1.5+3)= 19.5

( 19.5 * 2 + 4) = 43 so wrong term is 45

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points It has been argued that a group approach to farming, especially in the form of bottom up agricultural production collectivises, offers substantial scope for poverty alleviation and empowering the poor as well as enhancing agricultural productivity. To realize this potential, however, the groups would need to be voluntary in nature, small in size, participative in decision making and equitable in work sharing and benefit distribution. And although the gender impact of the family cooperatives in the transition economies are uncertain, the Indian examples of women-only groups farming offer considerable potential for benefiting women. What does the author imply by ‘‘gender impact’’? (a) Women are doubtful participants in cooperatives. (b) Family cooperatives may not include women. (c) Women benefiting from group farming. (d) Women’s role in transition economies is highly restrictive. Correct Correct Answer: D Explanation: By “gender impact” the author implies that women do not enjoy much power in the transition economies. This is the most appropriate meaning the others come close but are not as accurate. Incorrect Correct Answer: D Explanation: By “gender impact” the author implies that women do not enjoy much power in the transition economies. This is the most appropriate meaning the others come close but are not as accurate.

#### 28. Question

It has been argued that a group approach to farming, especially in the form of bottom up agricultural production collectivises, offers substantial scope for poverty alleviation and empowering the poor as well as enhancing agricultural productivity. To realize this potential, however, the groups would need to be voluntary in nature, small in size, participative in decision making and equitable in work sharing and benefit distribution. And although the gender impact of the family cooperatives in the transition economies are uncertain, the Indian examples of women-only groups farming offer considerable potential for benefiting women.

What does the author imply by ‘‘gender impact’’?

• (a) Women are doubtful participants in cooperatives.

• (b) Family cooperatives may not include women.

• (c) Women benefiting from group farming.

• (d) Women’s role in transition economies is highly restrictive.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

By “gender impact” the author implies that women do not enjoy much power in the transition economies. This is the most appropriate meaning the others come close but are not as accurate.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

By “gender impact” the author implies that women do not enjoy much power in the transition economies. This is the most appropriate meaning the others come close but are not as accurate.

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points We find that today the unity and integrity of the nation is threatened by the divisive forces of regionalism, linguism and communal loyalties which are gaining ascendancy in national life and seeking to tear apart and destroy national integrity. We tend to forget that India is one nation and we are all Indians first and Indians last. It is time we remind ourselves what the great visionary and builder of modern India Jawaharlal Nehru said, “Who dies if India lives, and who lives if India dies?” We must realize, and this is unfortunately what many in public life tend to overlook, sometimes out of ignorance of the forces of history and sometimes deliberately with a view to promoting their self-interest, that national interest must inevitably and forever prevail over any other considerations proceeding from regional, linguistic or communal attachments. The author has quoted Jawaharlal Nehru to emphasize the point that (a) National interest must enjoy supreme importance. (b) India is going to survive even if the world is under the spell of destruction. (c) The world will be destroyed if India is on the threshold of destruction. (d) The survival of the world depends only upon the well being of India. Correct Correct Answer: A Explanation: National interest should be the first priority. No literal meaning of the quotes should be considered and we should derive the context to get the real meaning of quotes. Incorrect Correct Answer: A Explanation: National interest should be the first priority. No literal meaning of the quotes should be considered and we should derive the context to get the real meaning of quotes.

#### 29. Question

We find that today the unity and integrity of the nation is threatened by the divisive forces of regionalism, linguism and communal loyalties which are gaining ascendancy in national life and seeking to tear apart and destroy national integrity. We tend to forget that India is one nation and we are all Indians first and Indians last. It is time we remind ourselves what the great visionary and builder of modern India Jawaharlal Nehru said, “Who dies if India lives, and who lives if India dies?” We must realize, and this is unfortunately what many in public life tend to overlook, sometimes out of ignorance of the forces of history and sometimes deliberately with a view to promoting their self-interest, that national interest must inevitably and forever prevail over any other considerations proceeding from regional, linguistic or communal attachments.

The author has quoted Jawaharlal Nehru to emphasize the point that

• (a) National interest must enjoy supreme importance.

• (b) India is going to survive even if the world is under the spell of destruction.

• (c) The world will be destroyed if India is on the threshold of destruction.

• (d) The survival of the world depends only upon the well being of India.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

National interest should be the first priority.

No literal meaning of the quotes should be considered and we should derive the context to get the real meaning of quotes.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

National interest should be the first priority.

No literal meaning of the quotes should be considered and we should derive the context to get the real meaning of quotes.

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points Chemical pesticides lose their role in sustainable agriculture if the pests evolve resistance. The evolution of pesticide resistance is simply natural selection in action. It is almost certain to occur when vast numbers of a genetically variable population are killed. One or a few individuals may be unusually resistant (perhaps because they possess an enzyme that can detoxify the pesticide). If the pesticide is applied repeatedly, each successive generation of the pest will contain a larger proportion of resistant individuals. Pests typically have a high intrinsic rate of reproduction, and so a few individuals in one generation may give rise to hundreds or thousands in the next, and resistance spreads very rapidly in a population. “The evolution of pesticide resistance is natural selection in action.” What does it actually imply? (a) It is very natural for all organisms to have pesticide resistance. (b) Pesticide resistance among organisms is a universal phenomenon and occurs in every species. (c) Some individuals in any given population show resistance after the application of pesticides. (d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above are correct. Correct Correct Answer: D Explanation: Pesticide resistance may or may not occur in every species. So, we cannot call it as universal phenomenon. Avoid extreme sentences while getting an implication of the statement. Incorrect Correct Answer: D Explanation: Pesticide resistance may or may not occur in every species. So, we cannot call it as universal phenomenon. Avoid extreme sentences while getting an implication of the statement.

#### 30. Question

Chemical pesticides lose their role in sustainable agriculture if the pests evolve resistance. The evolution of pesticide resistance is simply natural selection in action. It is almost certain to occur when vast numbers of a genetically variable population are killed. One or a few individuals may be unusually resistant (perhaps because they possess an enzyme that can detoxify the pesticide). If the pesticide is applied repeatedly, each successive generation of the pest will contain a larger proportion of resistant individuals. Pests typically have a high intrinsic rate of reproduction, and so a few individuals in one generation may give rise to hundreds or thousands in the next, and resistance spreads very rapidly in a population.

“The evolution of pesticide resistance is natural selection in action.” What does it actually imply?

• (a) It is very natural for all organisms to have pesticide resistance.

• (b) Pesticide resistance among organisms is a universal phenomenon and occurs in every species.

• (c) Some individuals in any given population show resistance after the application of pesticides.

• (d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above are correct.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Pesticide resistance may or may not occur in every species.

So, we cannot call it as universal phenomenon.

Avoid extreme sentences while getting an implication of the statement.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Pesticide resistance may or may not occur in every species.

So, we cannot call it as universal phenomenon.

Avoid extreme sentences while getting an implication of the statement.

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