DAY – 35 : Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2025 : ART & CULTURE

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Painted Grey Ware (PGW) and Northern Black Polished Ware (NBPW) are distinctive types of pottery associated primarily with which periods/cultures in ancient Indian history? (a) PGW with Harappan Civilization, NBPW with Neolithic cultures. (b) PGW with Later Vedic Period/Iron Age, NBPW with Mahajanapada/Mauryan Period. (c) PGW with Neolithic cultures, NBPW with Gupta Period. (d) PGW with Mauryan Period, NBPW with Kushana Period. Correct Solution: B Painted Grey Ware (PGW) is a fine grey pottery painted with geometric patterns in black, strongly associated with the Later Vedic period and the early Iron Age in the Gangetic plain (c. 1200-600 BCE). Northern Black Polished Ware (NBPW) is a highly lustrous, black pottery associated with the subsequent period of Mahajanapadas, the rise of Magadha, and the Mauryan Empire (c. 700-200 BCE), considered a deluxe ware. Incorrect Solution: B Painted Grey Ware (PGW) is a fine grey pottery painted with geometric patterns in black, strongly associated with the Later Vedic period and the early Iron Age in the Gangetic plain (c. 1200-600 BCE). Northern Black Polished Ware (NBPW) is a highly lustrous, black pottery associated with the subsequent period of Mahajanapadas, the rise of Magadha, and the Mauryan Empire (c. 700-200 BCE), considered a deluxe ware.

#### 1. Question

Painted Grey Ware (PGW) and Northern Black Polished Ware (NBPW) are distinctive types of pottery associated primarily with which periods/cultures in ancient Indian history?

• (a) PGW with Harappan Civilization, NBPW with Neolithic cultures.

• (b) PGW with Later Vedic Period/Iron Age, NBPW with Mahajanapada/Mauryan Period.

• (c) PGW with Neolithic cultures, NBPW with Gupta Period.

• (d) PGW with Mauryan Period, NBPW with Kushana Period.

Solution: B

Painted Grey Ware (PGW) is a fine grey pottery painted with geometric patterns in black, strongly associated with the Later Vedic period and the early Iron Age in the Gangetic plain (c. 1200-600 BCE). Northern Black Polished Ware (NBPW) is a highly lustrous, black pottery associated with the subsequent period of Mahajanapadas, the rise of Magadha, and the Mauryan Empire (c. 700-200 BCE), considered a deluxe ware.

Solution: B

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points The Hoysala temples at Belur, Halebidu, and Somanathapura were inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage site in 2023. Consider their unique architectural features: Construction primarily using soft soapstone (chloritic schist). Elaborate star-shaped ground plans for the main shrines. Extensive use of monolithic rock-cut techniques similar to Mahabalipuram Rathas. Presence of highly polished, lathe-turned pillars inside the halls. How many of the features listed above are characteristic of these Hoysala temples? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C In 2023, three temples—Chennakeshava (Belur), Hoysaleswara (Halebidu), and Kesava (Somanathapura)—were inscribed as UNESCO World Heritage Sites under the title “Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas”. Key Features of Hoysala Architecture Material Used – Soapstone (Chloritic Schist): Soft when quarried, ideal for intricate carvings. Hardens over time, ensuring long-term durability. Enabled fine sculptural detailing unique to the region. (Statement 1 is correct.) Stellate (Star-shaped) Plan & Jagati Platform: Star-shaped sanctums create multiple wall projections for rich carvings. The platform (jagati) often mirrors this design, forming a cohesive layout. (Statement 2 is correct.) Construction Style – Block Assembly (Not Monolithic): Built using individual stone blocks, unlike Pallava monoliths at Mahabalipuram. (Statement 3 is incorrect.) Lathe-Turned Pillars with Bracket Figures: Mantapas feature bell-shaped, polished pillars resembling lathe-turned design. Each has four brackets with sculptures of salabhanjikas (madanikas). (Statement 4 is correct.) Incorrect Solution: C In 2023, three temples—Chennakeshava (Belur), Hoysaleswara (Halebidu), and Kesava (Somanathapura)—were inscribed as UNESCO World Heritage Sites under the title “Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas”. Key Features of Hoysala Architecture Material Used – Soapstone (Chloritic Schist): Soft when quarried, ideal for intricate carvings. Hardens over time, ensuring long-term durability. Enabled fine sculptural detailing unique to the region. (Statement 1 is correct.) Stellate (Star-shaped) Plan & Jagati Platform: Star-shaped sanctums create multiple wall projections for rich carvings. The platform (jagati) often mirrors this design, forming a cohesive layout. (Statement 2 is correct.) Construction Style – Block Assembly (Not Monolithic): Built using individual stone blocks, unlike Pallava monoliths at Mahabalipuram. (Statement 3 is incorrect.) Lathe-Turned Pillars with Bracket Figures: Mantapas feature bell-shaped, polished pillars resembling lathe-turned design. Each has four brackets with sculptures of salabhanjikas (madanikas). (Statement 4 is correct.)

#### 2. Question

The Hoysala temples at Belur, Halebidu, and Somanathapura were inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage site in 2023. Consider their unique architectural features:

• Construction primarily using soft soapstone (chloritic schist).

• Elaborate star-shaped ground plans for the main shrines.

• Extensive use of monolithic rock-cut techniques similar to Mahabalipuram Rathas.

• Presence of highly polished, lathe-turned pillars inside the halls.

How many of the features listed above are characteristic of these Hoysala temples?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

In 2023, three temples—Chennakeshava (Belur), Hoysaleswara (Halebidu), and Kesava (Somanathapura)—were inscribed as UNESCO World Heritage Sites under the title “Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas”.

Key Features of Hoysala Architecture

• Material Used – Soapstone (Chloritic Schist): Soft when quarried, ideal for intricate carvings. Hardens over time, ensuring long-term durability. Enabled fine sculptural detailing unique to the region. (Statement 1 is correct.)

• Soft when quarried, ideal for intricate carvings.

• Hardens over time, ensuring long-term durability.

• Enabled fine sculptural detailing unique to the region. (Statement 1 is correct.)

• Stellate (Star-shaped) Plan & Jagati Platform: Star-shaped sanctums create multiple wall projections for rich carvings. The platform (jagati) often mirrors this design, forming a cohesive layout. (Statement 2 is correct.)

• Star-shaped sanctums create multiple wall projections for rich carvings.

• The platform (jagati) often mirrors this design, forming a cohesive layout. (Statement 2 is correct.)

• Construction Style – Block Assembly (Not Monolithic): Built using individual stone blocks, unlike Pallava monoliths at Mahabalipuram. (Statement 3 is incorrect.)

• Built using individual stone blocks, unlike Pallava monoliths at Mahabalipuram. (Statement 3 is incorrect.)

• Lathe-Turned Pillars with Bracket Figures: Mantapas feature bell-shaped, polished pillars resembling lathe-turned design. Each has four brackets with sculptures of salabhanjikas (madanikas). (Statement 4 is correct.)

• Mantapas feature bell-shaped, polished pillars resembling lathe-turned design.

• Each has four brackets with sculptures of salabhanjikas (madanikas). (Statement 4 is correct.)

Solution: C

Key Features of Hoysala Architecture

• Soft when quarried, ideal for intricate carvings.

• Hardens over time, ensuring long-term durability.

• Enabled fine sculptural detailing unique to the region. (Statement 1 is correct.)

• Star-shaped sanctums create multiple wall projections for rich carvings.

• The platform (jagati) often mirrors this design, forming a cohesive layout. (Statement 2 is correct.)

• Construction Style – Block Assembly (Not Monolithic): Built using individual stone blocks, unlike Pallava monoliths at Mahabalipuram. (Statement 3 is incorrect.)

• Built using individual stone blocks, unlike Pallava monoliths at Mahabalipuram. (Statement 3 is incorrect.)

• Mantapas feature bell-shaped, polished pillars resembling lathe-turned design.

• Each has four brackets with sculptures of salabhanjikas (madanikas). (Statement 4 is correct.)

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements comparing Nagara and Dravida styles of temple architecture: In Nagara temples, the main tower (Shikhara) is typically curvilinear, while in Dravida temples, the tower (Vimana) is pyramid-shaped with multiple storeys. Elaborate gateway structures known as Gopurams are prominent features of Nagara temple complexes but generally absent in Dravida ones. Nagara temples commonly feature a water tank within the temple enclosure, whereas this is less characteristic of Dravida temples. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A In Nagara temples, the main tower (Shikhara) is typically curvilinear, while in Dravida temples, the tower (Vimana) is pyramid-shaped with multiple storeys. This statement is correct. The Nagara shikhara curves inwards as it rises, while the Dravida vimana has a stepped, pyramidal shape with distinct tiers (storeys). Elaborate gateway structures known as Gopurams are prominent features of Nagara temple complexes but generally absent in Dravida ones. This statement is incorrect. Gopurams are the towering gateway structures that are a prominent and defining feature of Dravida temple complexes, especially in South India. Nagara temples generally lack these elaborate gateways. Nagara temples commonly feature a water tank within the temple enclosure, whereas this is less characteristic of Dravida temples. This statement is incorrect. Water tanks or temple ponds are a significant and common feature of Dravida temple complexes. They are often used for rituals and are considered sacred. While some Nagara temples might have water tanks, it’s not as consistently defining a characteristic as it is in Dravida architecture. Incorrect Solution: A In Nagara temples, the main tower (Shikhara) is typically curvilinear, while in Dravida temples, the tower (Vimana) is pyramid-shaped with multiple storeys. This statement is correct. The Nagara shikhara curves inwards as it rises, while the Dravida vimana has a stepped, pyramidal shape with distinct tiers (storeys). Elaborate gateway structures known as Gopurams are prominent features of Nagara temple complexes but generally absent in Dravida ones. This statement is incorrect. Gopurams are the towering gateway structures that are a prominent and defining feature of Dravida temple complexes, especially in South India. Nagara temples generally lack these elaborate gateways. Nagara temples commonly feature a water tank within the temple enclosure, whereas this is less characteristic of Dravida temples. This statement is incorrect. Water tanks or temple ponds are a significant and common feature of Dravida temple complexes. They are often used for rituals and are considered sacred. While some Nagara temples might have water tanks, it’s not as consistently defining a characteristic as it is in Dravida architecture.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements comparing Nagara and Dravida styles of temple architecture:

• In Nagara temples, the main tower (Shikhara) is typically curvilinear, while in Dravida temples, the tower (Vimana) is pyramid-shaped with multiple storeys.

• Elaborate gateway structures known as Gopurams are prominent features of Nagara temple complexes but generally absent in Dravida ones.

• Nagara temples commonly feature a water tank within the temple enclosure, whereas this is less characteristic of Dravida temples.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

In Nagara temples, the main tower (Shikhara) is typically curvilinear, while in Dravida temples, the tower (Vimana) is pyramid-shaped with multiple storeys.

• This statement is correct. The Nagara shikhara curves inwards as it rises, while the Dravida vimana has a stepped, pyramidal shape with distinct tiers (storeys).

Elaborate gateway structures known as Gopurams are prominent features of Nagara temple complexes but generally absent in Dravida ones.

• This statement is incorrect. Gopurams are the towering gateway structures that are a prominent and defining feature of Dravida temple complexes, especially in South India. Nagara temples generally lack these elaborate gateways.

Nagara temples commonly feature a water tank within the temple enclosure, whereas this is less characteristic of Dravida temples.

• This statement is incorrect. Water tanks or temple ponds are a significant and common feature of Dravida temple complexes. They are often used for rituals and are considered sacred. While some Nagara temples might have water tanks, it’s not as consistently defining a characteristic as it is in Dravida architecture.

Solution: A

In Nagara temples, the main tower (Shikhara) is typically curvilinear, while in Dravida temples, the tower (Vimana) is pyramid-shaped with multiple storeys.

• This statement is correct. The Nagara shikhara curves inwards as it rises, while the Dravida vimana has a stepped, pyramidal shape with distinct tiers (storeys).

Elaborate gateway structures known as Gopurams are prominent features of Nagara temple complexes but generally absent in Dravida ones.

Nagara temples commonly feature a water tank within the temple enclosure, whereas this is less characteristic of Dravida temples.

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements distinguishing the Gandhara and Mathura schools of sculpture: The Gandhara school was heavily influenced by Greco-Roman artistic traditions, while the Mathura school developed largely from indigenous styles. Gandhara artists primarily used spotted red sandstone, whereas Mathura artists favoured grey schist. Both schools produced images predominantly related to Buddhist themes, particularly depictions of the Buddha and Bodhisattvas. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: B Gandhara art shows clear Hellenistic/Roman influence (realistic anatomy, draped clothing), while Mathura art evolved from indigenous Yaksha traditions. (Hence, statement 1 is correct.) Gandhara artists typically used bluish-grey schist or stucco, while the Mathura school predominantly used locally available spotted red sandstone. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.) While the Mathura school also produced Jain and Hindu images, both schools are renowned for their significant contribution to Buddhist iconography, creating some of the earliest and most numerous images of the Buddha and Bodhisattvas during the Kushana period. (Hence, statement 3 is correct.) Incorrect Solution: B Gandhara art shows clear Hellenistic/Roman influence (realistic anatomy, draped clothing), while Mathura art evolved from indigenous Yaksha traditions. (Hence, statement 1 is correct.) Gandhara artists typically used bluish-grey schist or stucco, while the Mathura school predominantly used locally available spotted red sandstone. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.) While the Mathura school also produced Jain and Hindu images, both schools are renowned for their significant contribution to Buddhist iconography, creating some of the earliest and most numerous images of the Buddha and Bodhisattvas during the Kushana period. (Hence, statement 3 is correct.)

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements distinguishing the Gandhara and Mathura schools of sculpture:

• The Gandhara school was heavily influenced by Greco-Roman artistic traditions, while the Mathura school developed largely from indigenous styles.

• Gandhara artists primarily used spotted red sandstone, whereas Mathura artists favoured grey schist.

• Both schools produced images predominantly related to Buddhist themes, particularly depictions of the Buddha and Bodhisattvas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B

• Gandhara art shows clear Hellenistic/Roman influence (realistic anatomy, draped clothing), while Mathura art evolved from indigenous Yaksha traditions.

(Hence, statement 1 is correct.)

• Gandhara artists typically used bluish-grey schist or stucco, while the Mathura school predominantly used locally available spotted red sandstone. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.)

• While the Mathura school also produced Jain and Hindu images, both schools are renowned for their significant contribution to Buddhist iconography, creating some of the earliest and most numerous images of the Buddha and Bodhisattvas during the Kushana period. (Hence, statement 3 is correct.)

Solution: B

• Gandhara art shows clear Hellenistic/Roman influence (realistic anatomy, draped clothing), while Mathura art evolved from indigenous Yaksha traditions.

(Hence, statement 1 is correct.)

• Gandhara artists typically used bluish-grey schist or stucco, while the Mathura school predominantly used locally available spotted red sandstone. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.)

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points The iconic ‘Nataraja’ bronze sculptures, representing Shiva’s cosmic dance, reached their artistic zenith under the patronage of which dynasty? (a) Pallavas (b) Cholas (c) Guptas (d) Rashtrakutas Correct Solution: B While depictions of dancing Shiva existed earlier, the ‘Nataraja’ form, symbolizing creation, preservation, destruction, illusion, and grace, achieved its most sophisticated and dynamic expression in bronze sculptures during the Chola period (c. 9th-13th centuries). These bronzes, made using the lost-wax method, are considered masterpieces of Indian art. Incorrect Solution: B While depictions of dancing Shiva existed earlier, the ‘Nataraja’ form, symbolizing creation, preservation, destruction, illusion, and grace, achieved its most sophisticated and dynamic expression in bronze sculptures during the Chola period (c. 9th-13th centuries). These bronzes, made using the lost-wax method, are considered masterpieces of Indian art.

#### 5. Question

The iconic ‘Nataraja’ bronze sculptures, representing Shiva’s cosmic dance, reached their artistic zenith under the patronage of which dynasty?

• (a) Pallavas

• (b) Cholas

• (c) Guptas

• (d) Rashtrakutas

Solution: B

• While depictions of dancing Shiva existed earlier, the ‘Nataraja’ form, symbolizing creation, preservation, destruction, illusion, and grace, achieved its most sophisticated and dynamic expression in bronze sculptures during the Chola period (c. 9th-13th centuries).

• These bronzes, made using the lost-wax method, are considered masterpieces of Indian art.

Solution: B

• These bronzes, made using the lost-wax method, are considered masterpieces of Indian art.

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding schools of Indian miniature painting: The Pahari school of painting primarily flourished in the Himalayan foothills and is known for lyrical themes, often depicting Radha and Krishna. The Rajasthani school is characterized by bold lines, vibrant colours, and diverse themes including court scenes, religious narratives, and hunting scenes. The Mughal school significantly influenced both Rajasthani and Pahari schools but focused more on realism and portraiture compared to the lyrical quality of Pahari art. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C All statements are correct Pahari painting (sub-schools like Kangra, Basohli, Guler) developed in the Himalayan states and is celebrated for its delicate lines, subtle colours, and romantic themes, especially legends of Radha and Krishna. Rajasthani painting (sub-schools like Mewar, Bundi, Kishangarh, Jaipur) uses strong lines, bright contrasting colours, and depicts a wide range of subjects from religious epics and court life to folk themes. Mughal painting provided technical finesse and themes (portraiture, court scenes, nature studies) that influenced regional schools. However, Rajasthani schools retained bolder folk elements, and Pahari schools emphasized lyricism and emotion more than Mughal realism. Incorrect Solution: C All statements are correct Pahari painting (sub-schools like Kangra, Basohli, Guler) developed in the Himalayan states and is celebrated for its delicate lines, subtle colours, and romantic themes, especially legends of Radha and Krishna. Rajasthani painting (sub-schools like Mewar, Bundi, Kishangarh, Jaipur) uses strong lines, bright contrasting colours, and depicts a wide range of subjects from religious epics and court life to folk themes. Mughal painting provided technical finesse and themes (portraiture, court scenes, nature studies) that influenced regional schools. However, Rajasthani schools retained bolder folk elements, and Pahari schools emphasized lyricism and emotion more than Mughal realism.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding schools of Indian miniature painting:

• The Pahari school of painting primarily flourished in the Himalayan foothills and is known for lyrical themes, often depicting Radha and Krishna.

• The Rajasthani school is characterized by bold lines, vibrant colours, and diverse themes including court scenes, religious narratives, and hunting scenes.

• The Mughal school significantly influenced both Rajasthani and Pahari schools but focused more on realism and portraiture compared to the lyrical quality of Pahari art.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

All statements are correct

• Pahari painting (sub-schools like Kangra, Basohli, Guler) developed in the Himalayan states and is celebrated for its delicate lines, subtle colours, and romantic themes, especially legends of Radha and Krishna.

• Rajasthani painting (sub-schools like Mewar, Bundi, Kishangarh, Jaipur) uses strong lines, bright contrasting colours, and depicts a wide range of subjects from religious epics and court life to folk themes.

• Mughal painting provided technical finesse and themes (portraiture, court scenes, nature studies) that influenced regional schools. However, Rajasthani schools retained bolder folk elements, and Pahari schools emphasized lyricism and emotion more than Mughal realism.

Solution: C

All statements are correct

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Match the following dyeing/printing techniques with their descriptions: Technique Description (a) Kalamkari (i) Resist dyeing on yarn before weaving (b) Ikat (ii) Hand-painted using vegetable dyes (c) Bandhani (iii) Tie-dye with intricate patterns Options: A) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii) B) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii) C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii) D) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i) Correct Solution: A Kalamkari: It is a traditional Indian art form involving hand-painting or block-printing on cotton or silk fabric. The designs are typically intricate and often depict mythological narratives, floral motifs, and animal figures. Natural dyes derived from plants and minerals are traditionally used in Kalamkari. Ikat: This dyeing technique involves resist dyeing sections of the yarn (either warp, weft, or both) before the fabric is woven. The patterns are created in the weaving process as the dyed yarns are interlaced, resulting in a characteristic blurred or feathered appearance. Ikat requires great precision in dyeing and weaving to achieve the desired patterns. Bandhani: Bandhani is a tie-dye technique where small portions of fabric are tied tightly with thread to resist the dye. This creates intricate patterns of dots, circles, and other shapes on the dyed fabric. It is a highly skilled craft, often practiced by women, and is particularly popular in states like Gujarat and Rajasthan. Incorrect Solution: A Kalamkari: It is a traditional Indian art form involving hand-painting or block-printing on cotton or silk fabric. The designs are typically intricate and often depict mythological narratives, floral motifs, and animal figures. Natural dyes derived from plants and minerals are traditionally used in Kalamkari. Ikat: This dyeing technique involves resist dyeing sections of the yarn (either warp, weft, or both) before the fabric is woven. The patterns are created in the weaving process as the dyed yarns are interlaced, resulting in a characteristic blurred or feathered appearance. Ikat requires great precision in dyeing and weaving to achieve the desired patterns. Bandhani: Bandhani is a tie-dye technique where small portions of fabric are tied tightly with thread to resist the dye. This creates intricate patterns of dots, circles, and other shapes on the dyed fabric. It is a highly skilled craft, often practiced by women, and is particularly popular in states like Gujarat and Rajasthan.

#### 7. Question

Match the following dyeing/printing techniques with their descriptions:

Technique | Description

(a) Kalamkari | (i) Resist dyeing on yarn before weaving

(b) Ikat | (ii) Hand-painted using vegetable dyes

Options:

• A) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii)

• B) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii)

• C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii)

• D) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i)

Solution: A

Kalamkari:

• It is a traditional Indian art form involving hand-painting or block-printing on cotton or silk fabric.

• The designs are typically intricate and often depict mythological narratives, floral motifs, and animal figures.

• Natural dyes derived from plants and minerals are traditionally used in Kalamkari.

• This dyeing technique involves resist dyeing sections of the yarn (either warp, weft, or both) before the fabric is woven.

• The patterns are created in the weaving process as the dyed yarns are interlaced, resulting in a characteristic blurred or feathered appearance.

• Ikat requires great precision in dyeing and weaving to achieve the desired patterns.

Bandhani:

• Bandhani is a tie-dye technique where small portions of fabric are tied tightly with thread to resist the dye.

• This creates intricate patterns of dots, circles, and other shapes on the dyed fabric.

• It is a highly skilled craft, often practiced by women, and is particularly popular in states like Gujarat and Rajasthan.

Solution: A

Kalamkari:

• It is a traditional Indian art form involving hand-painting or block-printing on cotton or silk fabric.

• The designs are typically intricate and often depict mythological narratives, floral motifs, and animal figures.

• Natural dyes derived from plants and minerals are traditionally used in Kalamkari.

• This dyeing technique involves resist dyeing sections of the yarn (either warp, weft, or both) before the fabric is woven.

• The patterns are created in the weaving process as the dyed yarns are interlaced, resulting in a characteristic blurred or feathered appearance.

• Ikat requires great precision in dyeing and weaving to achieve the desired patterns.

Bandhani:

• Bandhani is a tie-dye technique where small portions of fabric are tied tightly with thread to resist the dye.

• This creates intricate patterns of dots, circles, and other shapes on the dyed fabric.

• It is a highly skilled craft, often practiced by women, and is particularly popular in states like Gujarat and Rajasthan.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points The Ellora Caves, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, are unique because: They contain rock-cut monuments belonging to Buddhism, Hinduism, and Jainism, co-existing in proximity. All the caves were exclusively excavated during the Gupta period. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A Ellora is remarkable for representing three major religions of ancient India through its cave temples and monasteries excavated side-by-side. The Kailasa Temple, dedicated to Shiva, is an architectural marvel carved out of a single rock cliff face. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The excavation activity at Ellora spanned several centuries, from roughly the 6th century CE (late Gupta/Chalukya period) through the Rashtrakuta period (when Kailasa temple was built) up to the 10th-11th centuries CE (late Rashtrakuta/early Yadava period for Jain caves). It was not exclusively Gupta. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution: A Ellora is remarkable for representing three major religions of ancient India through its cave temples and monasteries excavated side-by-side. The Kailasa Temple, dedicated to Shiva, is an architectural marvel carved out of a single rock cliff face. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The excavation activity at Ellora spanned several centuries, from roughly the 6th century CE (late Gupta/Chalukya period) through the Rashtrakuta period (when Kailasa temple was built) up to the 10th-11th centuries CE (late Rashtrakuta/early Yadava period for Jain caves). It was not exclusively Gupta. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

#### 8. Question

The Ellora Caves, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, are unique because:

• They contain rock-cut monuments belonging to Buddhism, Hinduism, and Jainism, co-existing in proximity.

• All the caves were exclusively excavated during the Gupta period.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

Ellora is remarkable for representing three major religions of ancient India through its cave temples and monasteries excavated side-by-side. The Kailasa Temple, dedicated to Shiva, is an architectural marvel carved out of a single rock cliff face.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The excavation activity at Ellora spanned several centuries, from roughly the 6th century CE (late Gupta/Chalukya period) through the Rashtrakuta period (when Kailasa temple was built) up to the 10th-11th centuries CE (late Rashtrakuta/early Yadava period for Jain caves). It was not exclusively Gupta.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Solution: A

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Which of the following is recognized by UNESCO as an Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity from India? (a) Kathakali dance form (b) The architectural style of Khajuraho temples (c) Chhau dance (d) The ruins of Hampi Correct Solution: C Kathakali (a) is a classical dance form but not specifically on the UNESCO ICH list itself (Kutiyattam, Sanskrit Theatre which includes elements related to Kathakali, is listed). Khajuraho temples (b) and Hampi ruins (d) are UNESCO Tangible World Heritage Sites. Chhau dance, a tradition of martial, tribal, and folk origins prevalent in Eastern India, is inscribed on the UNESCO Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity (inscribed 2010). Other ICH elements include Yoga, Kumbh Mela, Durga Puja, Garba, etc. Incorrect Solution: C Kathakali (a) is a classical dance form but not specifically on the UNESCO ICH list itself (Kutiyattam, Sanskrit Theatre which includes elements related to Kathakali, is listed). Khajuraho temples (b) and Hampi ruins (d) are UNESCO Tangible World Heritage Sites. Chhau dance, a tradition of martial, tribal, and folk origins prevalent in Eastern India, is inscribed on the UNESCO Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity (inscribed 2010). Other ICH elements include Yoga, Kumbh Mela, Durga Puja, Garba, etc.

#### 9. Question

Which of the following is recognized by UNESCO as an Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity from India?

• (a) Kathakali dance form

• (b) The architectural style of Khajuraho temples

• (c) Chhau dance

• (d) The ruins of Hampi

Solution: C

Kathakali (a) is a classical dance form but not specifically on the UNESCO ICH list itself (Kutiyattam, Sanskrit Theatre which includes elements related to Kathakali, is listed). Khajuraho temples (b) and Hampi ruins (d) are UNESCO Tangible World Heritage Sites.

Chhau dance, a tradition of martial, tribal, and folk origins prevalent in Eastern India, is inscribed on the UNESCO Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity (inscribed 2010). Other ICH elements include Yoga, Kumbh Mela, Durga Puja, Garba, etc.

Solution: C

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points The term ‘Lost-Wax Process’ (Cire Perdue) is associated with which art form in India, famously used for creating intricate sculptures? (a) Terracotta pottery making (b) Miniature painting technique (c) Metal casting, particularly bronze sculpture (d) Wood carving traditions Correct Solution: C The lost-wax process is an ancient metal casting technique. It involves creating a wax model, covering it with clay (leaving channels), heating it to melt out the wax (hence ‘lost wax’), and then pouring molten metal (like bronze) into the clay mould. Once cooled, the mould is broken to reveal the metal sculpture. This technique was masterfully employed by Chola artisans to create their renowned bronze icons. Incorrect Solution: C The lost-wax process is an ancient metal casting technique. It involves creating a wax model, covering it with clay (leaving channels), heating it to melt out the wax (hence ‘lost wax’), and then pouring molten metal (like bronze) into the clay mould. Once cooled, the mould is broken to reveal the metal sculpture. This technique was masterfully employed by Chola artisans to create their renowned bronze icons.

#### 10. Question

The term ‘Lost-Wax Process’ (Cire Perdue) is associated with which art form in India, famously used for creating intricate sculptures?

• (a) Terracotta pottery making

• (b) Miniature painting technique

• (c) Metal casting, particularly bronze sculpture

• (d) Wood carving traditions

Solution: C

• The lost-wax process is an ancient metal casting technique. It involves creating a wax model, covering it with clay (leaving channels), heating it to melt out the wax (hence ‘lost wax’), and then pouring molten metal (like bronze) into the clay mould.

• Once cooled, the mould is broken to reveal the metal sculpture.

• This technique was masterfully employed by Chola artisans to create their renowned bronze icons.

Solution: C

• Once cooled, the mould is broken to reveal the metal sculpture.

• This technique was masterfully employed by Chola artisans to create their renowned bronze icons.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Karnataka School of architecture: It was patronised by Chalukya, Rashtrakutas and Hoyshala dynasties. Curvilinear Shikhara of the temples was inspired from Nagara style. Unlike Dravidian architecture, there are no sculptures on the temples. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: C The Karnataka school or Vesara School of architecture was conceptualised under the Later Chalukyas in the mid 7th century It combined features of both Nagara and Dravida schools of architecture. Under the school emphasis was given on vimana and mandapam; pillars, doorways and ceilings were decorated with intricate carvings Three prominent dynasties that followed this style included Chalukyas of Badami and Kalyani, Rashtrakutas and Hoyshala dynasty Under influence of Nagara style the temples had curvilinear shikhara and square base. Hence statement 1 and 2 are correct Under influence of Dravidian style, intricate carvings and sculpture design of vimana and step or terraced shikara were present in Vesara Temples. Hence statement 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: C The Karnataka school or Vesara School of architecture was conceptualised under the Later Chalukyas in the mid 7th century It combined features of both Nagara and Dravida schools of architecture. Under the school emphasis was given on vimana and mandapam; pillars, doorways and ceilings were decorated with intricate carvings Three prominent dynasties that followed this style included Chalukyas of Badami and Kalyani, Rashtrakutas and Hoyshala dynasty Under influence of Nagara style the temples had curvilinear shikhara and square base. Hence statement 1 and 2 are correct Under influence of Dravidian style, intricate carvings and sculpture design of vimana and step or terraced shikara were present in Vesara Temples. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

#### 11. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Karnataka School of architecture:

• It was patronised by Chalukya, Rashtrakutas and Hoyshala dynasties.

• Curvilinear Shikhara of the temples was inspired from Nagara style.

• Unlike Dravidian architecture, there are no sculptures on the temples.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 2 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: C

The Karnataka school or Vesara School of architecture was conceptualised under the Later Chalukyas in the mid 7th century

• It combined features of both Nagara and Dravida schools of architecture.

• Under the school emphasis was given on vimana and mandapam; pillars, doorways and ceilings were decorated with intricate carvings

• Three prominent dynasties that followed this style included Chalukyas of Badami and Kalyani, Rashtrakutas and Hoyshala dynasty

• Under influence of Nagara style the temples had curvilinear shikhara and square base.

Hence statement 1 and 2 are correct

• Under influence of Dravidian style, intricate carvings and sculpture design of vimana and step or terraced shikara were present in Vesara Temples.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution: C

The Karnataka school or Vesara School of architecture was conceptualised under the Later Chalukyas in the mid 7th century

• It combined features of both Nagara and Dravida schools of architecture.

• Under the school emphasis was given on vimana and mandapam; pillars, doorways and ceilings were decorated with intricate carvings

• Three prominent dynasties that followed this style included Chalukyas of Badami and Kalyani, Rashtrakutas and Hoyshala dynasty

• Under influence of Nagara style the temples had curvilinear shikhara and square base.

Hence statement 1 and 2 are correct

• Under influence of Dravidian style, intricate carvings and sculpture design of vimana and step or terraced shikara were present in Vesara Temples.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The sculptures in both Mathura and Amaravati Schools were made using white marble. Unlike Mathura School which was dedicated to Hinduism, the Amaravati School represents influence of Hinduism, Buddhism and Jainism. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: D The Mathura school developed indigenously without influence of external cultures The sculptures of the Mathura school were made using spotted red sandstone. Amaravati school also developed indigenously and the sculptures were made using white marble. Mathura School had influence of all three religions of the time- Hinduism, Buddhism and Jainism while Amaravati school was mainly influenced by Buddhism. Hence statements 1 and 2 are incorrect Incorrect Solution: D The Mathura school developed indigenously without influence of external cultures The sculptures of the Mathura school were made using spotted red sandstone. Amaravati school also developed indigenously and the sculptures were made using white marble. Mathura School had influence of all three religions of the time- Hinduism, Buddhism and Jainism while Amaravati school was mainly influenced by Buddhism. Hence statements 1 and 2 are incorrect

#### 12. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The sculptures in both Mathura and Amaravati Schools were made using white marble.

• Unlike Mathura School which was dedicated to Hinduism, the Amaravati School represents influence of Hinduism, Buddhism and Jainism.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: D

• The Mathura school developed indigenously without influence of external cultures

• The sculptures of the Mathura school were made using spotted red sandstone.

• Amaravati school also developed indigenously and the sculptures were made using white marble.

• Mathura School had influence of all three religions of the time- Hinduism, Buddhism and Jainism while Amaravati school was mainly influenced by Buddhism.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are incorrect

Solution: D

• The Mathura school developed indigenously without influence of external cultures

• The sculptures of the Mathura school were made using spotted red sandstone.

• Amaravati school also developed indigenously and the sculptures were made using white marble.

• Mathura School had influence of all three religions of the time- Hinduism, Buddhism and Jainism while Amaravati school was mainly influenced by Buddhism.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are incorrect

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Apabhramsha school of art: It developed as a mixture of Hindu painting traditions with paintings related to Vajrayana Buddhism. It is exclusively done on walls, using red and black colour with golden borders. Human figures are drawn with bulging eyes and double chin. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: B The Apabhramsha school of art traces its origin to Gujarat and the Mewar region in Rajasthan It was the prominent School of painting in western India during the 11th to 15th centuries. Originally it exclusively incorporated Jain themes but later Vaishnava school was also used as theme in this form. Hence statement 1 is incorrect In the early Jain phase, the paintings were made on Palm leaf but in the later period, they were done on paper. The colours use in the paintings had a symbolic meaning and the artists usually used red, yellow and ochre colours; later, bright colours and gold colour were used also. Hence statement 2 is incorrect The features of human figures depicted in the paintings have fish shaped bulging eyes, pointed nose and double chin. The artists tried to begin the trend to create angular faces The figure are usually stiff and even the ornamentation is carefully executed in detail. It also includes animal and bird figures. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: B The Apabhramsha school of art traces its origin to Gujarat and the Mewar region in Rajasthan It was the prominent School of painting in western India during the 11th to 15th centuries. Originally it exclusively incorporated Jain themes but later Vaishnava school was also used as theme in this form. Hence statement 1 is incorrect In the early Jain phase, the paintings were made on Palm leaf but in the later period, they were done on paper. The colours use in the paintings had a symbolic meaning and the artists usually used red, yellow and ochre colours; later, bright colours and gold colour were used also. Hence statement 2 is incorrect The features of human figures depicted in the paintings have fish shaped bulging eyes, pointed nose and double chin. The artists tried to begin the trend to create angular faces The figure are usually stiff and even the ornamentation is carefully executed in detail. It also includes animal and bird figures. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 13. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Apabhramsha school of art:

• It developed as a mixture of Hindu painting traditions with paintings related to Vajrayana Buddhism.

• It is exclusively done on walls, using red and black colour with golden borders.

• Human figures are drawn with bulging eyes and double chin.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 2 and 3 only

• (b) 3 only

• (c) 1 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B

• The Apabhramsha school of art traces its origin to Gujarat and the Mewar region in Rajasthan

• It was the prominent School of painting in western India during the 11th to 15th centuries.

• Originally it exclusively incorporated Jain themes but later Vaishnava school was also used as theme in this form.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• In the early Jain phase, the paintings were made on Palm leaf but in the later period, they were done on paper.

• The colours use in the paintings had a symbolic meaning and the artists usually used red, yellow and ochre colours; later, bright colours and gold colour were used also.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• The features of human figures depicted in the paintings have fish shaped bulging eyes, pointed nose and double chin.

• The artists tried to begin the trend to create angular faces

• The figure are usually stiff and even the ornamentation is carefully executed in detail.

• It also includes animal and bird figures.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: B

• The Apabhramsha school of art traces its origin to Gujarat and the Mewar region in Rajasthan

• It was the prominent School of painting in western India during the 11th to 15th centuries.

• Originally it exclusively incorporated Jain themes but later Vaishnava school was also used as theme in this form.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• In the early Jain phase, the paintings were made on Palm leaf but in the later period, they were done on paper.

• The colours use in the paintings had a symbolic meaning and the artists usually used red, yellow and ochre colours; later, bright colours and gold colour were used also.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• The features of human figures depicted in the paintings have fish shaped bulging eyes, pointed nose and double chin.

• The artists tried to begin the trend to create angular faces

• The figure are usually stiff and even the ornamentation is carefully executed in detail.

• It also includes animal and bird figures.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs regarding Embroidery crafts of India: Embroidery craft: State Banni : Gujarat Kasuti : Karnataka Khatwa Applique: Telangana How many of the pairs given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Banni is an embroidery art produced in Gujarat. This type of work is carried on by the Lohana community. Silk floss is used for embroidery of geometrical motifs including the use of glass work. Hence pair 1 is correct Kasuti is GI tag embroidery craft of Karnataka. It is carried out with a single thread and involves counting of each thread on the cloth The patterns are stitched without knots, so that both sides of the clothes are identical. Hence pair 2 is correct Khatwa Applique is a GI tagged artwork from Bihar. The art entails designing by the cutting out pieces of one fabric and stitching them on to another fabric This applique patchwork is generally found in wall hangings, sarees, dupattas, cushion covers and other items. Hence pair 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: B Banni is an embroidery art produced in Gujarat. This type of work is carried on by the Lohana community. Silk floss is used for embroidery of geometrical motifs including the use of glass work. Hence pair 1 is correct Kasuti is GI tag embroidery craft of Karnataka. It is carried out with a single thread and involves counting of each thread on the cloth The patterns are stitched without knots, so that both sides of the clothes are identical. Hence pair 2 is correct Khatwa Applique is a GI tagged artwork from Bihar. The art entails designing by the cutting out pieces of one fabric and stitching them on to another fabric This applique patchwork is generally found in wall hangings, sarees, dupattas, cushion covers and other items. Hence pair 3 is incorrect

#### 14. Question

Consider the following pairs regarding Embroidery crafts of India:

Embroidery craft: State

• Banni : Gujarat

• Kasuti : Karnataka

• Khatwa Applique: Telangana

How many of the pairs given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Banni is an embroidery art produced in Gujarat.

• This type of work is carried on by the Lohana community.

• Silk floss is used for embroidery of geometrical motifs including the use of glass work.

Hence pair 1 is correct

• Kasuti is GI tag embroidery craft of Karnataka.

• It is carried out with a single thread and involves counting of each thread on the cloth

• The patterns are stitched without knots, so that both sides of the clothes are identical.

Hence pair 2 is correct

• Khatwa Applique is a GI tagged artwork from Bihar.

• The art entails designing by the cutting out pieces of one fabric and stitching them on to another fabric

• This applique patchwork is generally found in wall hangings, sarees, dupattas, cushion covers and other items.

Hence pair 3 is incorrect

Solution: B

• Banni is an embroidery art produced in Gujarat.

• This type of work is carried on by the Lohana community.

• Silk floss is used for embroidery of geometrical motifs including the use of glass work.

Hence pair 1 is correct

• Kasuti is GI tag embroidery craft of Karnataka.

• It is carried out with a single thread and involves counting of each thread on the cloth

• The patterns are stitched without knots, so that both sides of the clothes are identical.

Hence pair 2 is correct

• Khatwa Applique is a GI tagged artwork from Bihar.

• The art entails designing by the cutting out pieces of one fabric and stitching them on to another fabric

• This applique patchwork is generally found in wall hangings, sarees, dupattas, cushion covers and other items.

Hence pair 3 is incorrect

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Tikuli Art, a unique art form developed in the state of: (a) Telangana (b) Rajasthan (c) Bihar (d) Tripura Correct Solution: C Tikuli Art is a unique art of Bihar It is derived from the word Tikuli, which is a local term for bindi, worn by women Under this art form, painting is done on a hardboard which is then cut into various shapes; thereafter, four to five enamel coats are applied on it thereby giving a polished Surface to the paintings Usually Madhubani motifs, that are traditionally done by women in Bihar, are used in Tikuli paintings. Hence option C is correct Incorrect Solution: C Tikuli Art is a unique art of Bihar It is derived from the word Tikuli, which is a local term for bindi, worn by women Under this art form, painting is done on a hardboard which is then cut into various shapes; thereafter, four to five enamel coats are applied on it thereby giving a polished Surface to the paintings Usually Madhubani motifs, that are traditionally done by women in Bihar, are used in Tikuli paintings. Hence option C is correct

#### 15. Question

Tikuli Art, a unique art form developed in the state of:

• (a) Telangana

• (b) Rajasthan

• (d) Tripura

Solution: C

• Tikuli Art is a unique art of Bihar

• It is derived from the word Tikuli, which is a local term for bindi, worn by women

• Under this art form, painting is done on a hardboard which is then cut into various shapes; thereafter, four to five enamel coats are applied on it thereby giving a polished Surface to the paintings

• Usually Madhubani motifs, that are traditionally done by women in Bihar, are used in Tikuli paintings.

Hence option C is correct

Solution: C

• Tikuli Art is a unique art of Bihar

• It is derived from the word Tikuli, which is a local term for bindi, worn by women

• Usually Madhubani motifs, that are traditionally done by women in Bihar, are used in Tikuli paintings.

Hence option C is correct

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points With reference to cultural history of India, Moidams are: (a) Sacred groves containing rare medicinal plants (b) Percussion instruments made of bamboo (c) Tribal attires made using jute and cotton (d) Necropolis of kings and royal family members Correct Solution: D Moidams are Royal necropolis of the Tai Ahom dynasty of Assam located in the foothills of the Patkai ranges in Eastern Assam. For 600 years, Tai- Ahoms created Moidams or burial mounds, accentuating the natural topography of the Hills, forestd and water, thus forming a sacred geography. Banyan trees were used for coffin and bark manuscripts were planted and water bodies were also created. Ninety Moidams – hollow vaults built of bricks, stone or earth of different sizes are found within the site, containing remains of the kings and other royal family members together with grave goods such as food, horses and elephants as well as queens and servants. Hence option D is correct Incorrect Solution: D Moidams are Royal necropolis of the Tai Ahom dynasty of Assam located in the foothills of the Patkai ranges in Eastern Assam. For 600 years, Tai- Ahoms created Moidams or burial mounds, accentuating the natural topography of the Hills, forestd and water, thus forming a sacred geography. Banyan trees were used for coffin and bark manuscripts were planted and water bodies were also created. Ninety Moidams – hollow vaults built of bricks, stone or earth of different sizes are found within the site, containing remains of the kings and other royal family members together with grave goods such as food, horses and elephants as well as queens and servants. Hence option D is correct

#### 16. Question

With reference to cultural history of India, Moidams are:

• (a) Sacred groves containing rare medicinal plants

• (b) Percussion instruments made of bamboo

• (c) Tribal attires made using jute and cotton

• (d) Necropolis of kings and royal family members

Solution: D

• Moidams are Royal necropolis of the Tai Ahom dynasty of Assam located in the foothills of the Patkai ranges in Eastern Assam.

• For 600 years, Tai- Ahoms created Moidams or burial mounds, accentuating the natural topography of the Hills, forestd and water, thus forming a sacred geography.

• Banyan trees were used for coffin and bark manuscripts were planted and water bodies were also created.

• Ninety Moidams – hollow vaults built of bricks, stone or earth of different sizes are found within the site, containing remains of the kings and other royal family members together with grave goods such as food, horses and elephants as well as queens and servants.

Hence option D is correct

Solution: D

• Moidams are Royal necropolis of the Tai Ahom dynasty of Assam located in the foothills of the Patkai ranges in Eastern Assam.

• For 600 years, Tai- Ahoms created Moidams or burial mounds, accentuating the natural topography of the Hills, forestd and water, thus forming a sacred geography.

• Banyan trees were used for coffin and bark manuscripts were planted and water bodies were also created.

Hence option D is correct

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Saptamatrika sculptures depict stories of Shakti peethas of goddess Durga. In many Saptamatrika sculptural panels, it is common to find male deities flanking the group of seven mother goddesses. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B Saptamatrika sculptures feature seven mother goddesses often in the order of Brahmani, Maheshwari, Kumari, Vaishnavi, Varahi, Indrani and Chamunda. The sculptures are arranged in a row with two male deities, Vidarbha and Ganesha on either side. These are distinct features of Hindu temples, particularly in South Indian temples One of the oldest depictions of Saptamatrika can be seen in the Kailashnatha Temple in Kanchipuram. Hence statement 1 is incorrect As we discussed, it is indeed common to find male deities flanking the Saptamatrika panels. The most frequent are Virabhadra (a form of Shiva) and Ganesha. Therefore, statement 2 is correct. Hence statement 2 is correct Incorrect Solution: B Saptamatrika sculptures feature seven mother goddesses often in the order of Brahmani, Maheshwari, Kumari, Vaishnavi, Varahi, Indrani and Chamunda. The sculptures are arranged in a row with two male deities, Vidarbha and Ganesha on either side. These are distinct features of Hindu temples, particularly in South Indian temples One of the oldest depictions of Saptamatrika can be seen in the Kailashnatha Temple in Kanchipuram. Hence statement 1 is incorrect As we discussed, it is indeed common to find male deities flanking the Saptamatrika panels. The most frequent are Virabhadra (a form of Shiva) and Ganesha. Therefore, statement 2 is correct. Hence statement 2 is correct

#### 17. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Saptamatrika sculptures depict stories of Shakti peethas of goddess Durga.

• In many Saptamatrika sculptural panels, it is common to find male deities flanking the group of seven mother goddesses.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

• Saptamatrika sculptures feature seven mother goddesses often in the order of Brahmani, Maheshwari, Kumari, Vaishnavi, Varahi, Indrani and Chamunda.

• The sculptures are arranged in a row with two male deities, Vidarbha and Ganesha on either side.

• These are distinct features of Hindu temples, particularly in South Indian temples

• One of the oldest depictions of Saptamatrika can be seen in the Kailashnatha Temple in Kanchipuram.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• As we discussed, it is indeed common to find male deities flanking the Saptamatrika panels. The most frequent are Virabhadra (a form of Shiva) and Ganesha. Therefore, statement 2 is correct.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Solution: B

• Saptamatrika sculptures feature seven mother goddesses often in the order of Brahmani, Maheshwari, Kumari, Vaishnavi, Varahi, Indrani and Chamunda.

• The sculptures are arranged in a row with two male deities, Vidarbha and Ganesha on either side.

• These are distinct features of Hindu temples, particularly in South Indian temples

• One of the oldest depictions of Saptamatrika can be seen in the Kailashnatha Temple in Kanchipuram.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• As we discussed, it is indeed common to find male deities flanking the Saptamatrika panels. The most frequent are Virabhadra (a form of Shiva) and Ganesha. Therefore, statement 2 is correct.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Eklingji Temple: The historical text Eklinga Mahamaya provides history of the temple. It is managed by the Natha sect. It features Shiva performing tandava, symbolising creation, preservation and destruction, occurring simultaneously. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Eklingji Temple is situated in Udaipur, Rajasthan. Its history has been recorded in Ekalinga Mahamaya, a historical text of the 15th century According to the text, the original temple was built in 734 ADs by ruler Bappa Rawal of Guhila dynasty. The temple was plundered during the Delhi sultanate Period and was renovated by Rana Kumbha in the 15th century who added the Vishnu Temple. Hence statement 1 is correct The temple originally belonged to the Pashupata sect; then the Nath sect and after 16th century, it was managed and controlled by the Ramanandis. It is now managed by the Maharana of Udaipur who is considered the Diwan of Eklingji. Hence statement 2 is incorrect It is a Shiva temple; the main deity is Ekling or Shiva The shiva lingam is five faced and it is made of black stone The five faces depict four different forms of Lord Shiva- the Eastern side represents Surya or sun, Western side recognises Lord Brahma or the creator; Northern side recognises Lord Vishnu or the supreme being and Southern side is Rudra or the Mightiest and the upraised top is Shiva lingam, which is an embodiment of Sadashiva with Amba- his consort. The idol is encircled with figures of goddess Parvati, Lord Ganesha and Lord Kartikeya. Hence statement 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: A Eklingji Temple is situated in Udaipur, Rajasthan. Its history has been recorded in Ekalinga Mahamaya, a historical text of the 15th century According to the text, the original temple was built in 734 ADs by ruler Bappa Rawal of Guhila dynasty. The temple was plundered during the Delhi sultanate Period and was renovated by Rana Kumbha in the 15th century who added the Vishnu Temple. Hence statement 1 is correct The temple originally belonged to the Pashupata sect; then the Nath sect and after 16th century, it was managed and controlled by the Ramanandis. It is now managed by the Maharana of Udaipur who is considered the Diwan of Eklingji. Hence statement 2 is incorrect It is a Shiva temple; the main deity is Ekling or Shiva The shiva lingam is five faced and it is made of black stone The five faces depict four different forms of Lord Shiva- the Eastern side represents Surya or sun, Western side recognises Lord Brahma or the creator; Northern side recognises Lord Vishnu or the supreme being and Southern side is Rudra or the Mightiest and the upraised top is Shiva lingam, which is an embodiment of Sadashiva with Amba- his consort. The idol is encircled with figures of goddess Parvati, Lord Ganesha and Lord Kartikeya. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

#### 18. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Eklingji Temple:

• The historical text Eklinga Mahamaya provides history of the temple.

• It is managed by the Natha sect.

• It features Shiva performing tandava, symbolising creation, preservation and destruction, occurring simultaneously.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Eklingji Temple is situated in Udaipur, Rajasthan.

• Its history has been recorded in Ekalinga Mahamaya, a historical text of the 15th century

• According to the text, the original temple was built in 734 ADs by ruler Bappa Rawal of Guhila dynasty.

• The temple was plundered during the Delhi sultanate Period and was renovated by Rana Kumbha in the 15th century who added the Vishnu Temple.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The temple originally belonged to the Pashupata sect; then the Nath sect and after 16th century, it was managed and controlled by the Ramanandis.

• It is now managed by the Maharana of Udaipur who is considered the Diwan of Eklingji.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• It is a Shiva temple; the main deity is Ekling or Shiva

• The shiva lingam is five faced and it is made of black stone

• The five faces depict four different forms of Lord Shiva- the Eastern side represents Surya or sun, Western side recognises Lord Brahma or the creator; Northern side recognises Lord Vishnu or the supreme being and Southern side is Rudra or the Mightiest and the upraised top is Shiva lingam, which is an embodiment of Sadashiva with Amba- his consort.

• The idol is encircled with figures of goddess Parvati, Lord Ganesha and Lord Kartikeya.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution: A

• Eklingji Temple is situated in Udaipur, Rajasthan.

• Its history has been recorded in Ekalinga Mahamaya, a historical text of the 15th century

• According to the text, the original temple was built in 734 ADs by ruler Bappa Rawal of Guhila dynasty.

• The temple was plundered during the Delhi sultanate Period and was renovated by Rana Kumbha in the 15th century who added the Vishnu Temple.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The temple originally belonged to the Pashupata sect; then the Nath sect and after 16th century, it was managed and controlled by the Ramanandis.

• It is now managed by the Maharana of Udaipur who is considered the Diwan of Eklingji.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• It is a Shiva temple; the main deity is Ekling or Shiva

• The shiva lingam is five faced and it is made of black stone

• The idol is encircled with figures of goddess Parvati, Lord Ganesha and Lord Kartikeya.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Consider the following cultural heritage of India: Mahabodhi temple complex, Bodhgaya Group of monuments at Mandu Group of monuments at Pattadakal Sarnath ancient Buddhist site How many of the above are included within the UNESCO List of Cultural Heritage in India? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Mahabodhi temple complex Bodhgaya is one of the four holy sites related to the life of Lord Buddha particularly attainment of enlightenment. The first temple was built by Ashoka in 3rd century BC and the present Temple dates from 5th or 6th It is one of the earliest Buddhist temples built entirely of bricks, standing from the late Gupta period. Group of monuments at Pattadakal in Karnataka represents the harmonious blend of architectural forms of Northern and southern India under patronage of the Chalukya Dynasty. A series of 9 Hindu temples as well as a Jain Sanctuary can be seen. One of the masterpieces from the group is the Virupaksha Temple built by Queen Lokamahadevi to commemorate victory of her husband in battle. These two are included in the UNESCO list of Cultural heritage of the world. Hence options 1 and 3 are correct. The Group of monuments at Mandu are situated in Madhya Pradesh. The site includes 61 fort wall protected monuments that are declared as monuments of national importance. Ancient Buddhist site Sarnath is situated at 8 km from Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh; these monuments include Stupas, monasteries and temples. These two are included in the Tentative list of sites of the UNESCO World Heritage. Hence options 2 and 4 are incorrect Incorrect Solution: B Mahabodhi temple complex Bodhgaya is one of the four holy sites related to the life of Lord Buddha particularly attainment of enlightenment. The first temple was built by Ashoka in 3rd century BC and the present Temple dates from 5th or 6th It is one of the earliest Buddhist temples built entirely of bricks, standing from the late Gupta period. Group of monuments at Pattadakal in Karnataka represents the harmonious blend of architectural forms of Northern and southern India under patronage of the Chalukya Dynasty. A series of 9 Hindu temples as well as a Jain Sanctuary can be seen. One of the masterpieces from the group is the Virupaksha Temple built by Queen Lokamahadevi to commemorate victory of her husband in battle. These two are included in the UNESCO list of Cultural heritage of the world. Hence options 1 and 3 are correct. The Group of monuments at Mandu are situated in Madhya Pradesh. The site includes 61 fort wall protected monuments that are declared as monuments of national importance. Ancient Buddhist site Sarnath is situated at 8 km from Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh; these monuments include Stupas, monasteries and temples. These two are included in the Tentative list of sites of the UNESCO World Heritage. Hence options 2 and 4 are incorrect

#### 19. Question

Consider the following cultural heritage of India:

• Mahabodhi temple complex, Bodhgaya

• Group of monuments at Mandu

• Group of monuments at Pattadakal

• Sarnath ancient Buddhist site

How many of the above are included within the UNESCO List of Cultural Heritage in India?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

• Mahabodhi temple complex Bodhgaya is one of the four holy sites related to the life of Lord Buddha particularly attainment of enlightenment. The first temple was built by Ashoka in 3rd century BC and the present Temple dates from 5th or 6th It is one of the earliest Buddhist temples built entirely of bricks, standing from the late Gupta period.

• Group of monuments at Pattadakal in Karnataka represents the harmonious blend of architectural forms of Northern and southern India under patronage of the Chalukya Dynasty. A series of 9 Hindu temples as well as a Jain Sanctuary can be seen. One of the masterpieces from the group is the Virupaksha Temple built by Queen Lokamahadevi to commemorate victory of her husband in battle.

These two are included in the UNESCO list of Cultural heritage of the world.

Hence options 1 and 3 are correct.

• The Group of monuments at Mandu are situated in Madhya Pradesh. The site includes 61 fort wall protected monuments that are declared as monuments of national importance.

• Ancient Buddhist site Sarnath is situated at 8 km from Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh; these monuments include Stupas, monasteries and temples.

These two are included in the Tentative list of sites of the UNESCO World Heritage.

Hence options 2 and 4 are incorrect

Solution: B

These two are included in the UNESCO list of Cultural heritage of the world.

Hence options 1 and 3 are correct.

• The Group of monuments at Mandu are situated in Madhya Pradesh. The site includes 61 fort wall protected monuments that are declared as monuments of national importance.

• Ancient Buddhist site Sarnath is situated at 8 km from Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh; these monuments include Stupas, monasteries and temples.

These two are included in the Tentative list of sites of the UNESCO World Heritage.

Hence options 2 and 4 are incorrect

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Harappan pottery: Painted pottery with Black motifs on red background was used. The motifs on pottery included themes from nature. Pottery was exclusively used as a trade item. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: A Potteries found at excavation sites of Indus Valley Civilization can be classified into two types – plain pottery and painted pottery. The painted pottery is also known as black and red ware as it used red pigments to paint the background and glossy black paint to draw designs and figures on the red background. Trees, animals, birds as well as geometrical patterns were usually the themes of paintings on the red and black pottery. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct Potteries were used for three main purposes P pottery used for household purposes mainly storing grains and water Miniature vessels for decorative purposes and Perforated Pottery which might have been used for straining purposes. Hence statement 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: A Potteries found at excavation sites of Indus Valley Civilization can be classified into two types – plain pottery and painted pottery. The painted pottery is also known as black and red ware as it used red pigments to paint the background and glossy black paint to draw designs and figures on the red background. Trees, animals, birds as well as geometrical patterns were usually the themes of paintings on the red and black pottery. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct Potteries were used for three main purposes P pottery used for household purposes mainly storing grains and water Miniature vessels for decorative purposes and Perforated Pottery which might have been used for straining purposes. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

#### 20. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Harappan pottery:

• Painted pottery with Black motifs on red background was used.

• The motifs on pottery included themes from nature.

• Pottery was exclusively used as a trade item.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

• Potteries found at excavation sites of Indus Valley Civilization can be classified into two types – plain pottery and painted pottery.

• The painted pottery is also known as black and red ware as it used red pigments to paint the background and glossy black paint to draw designs and figures on the red background.

• Trees, animals, birds as well as geometrical patterns were usually the themes of paintings on the red and black pottery.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

Potteries were used for three main purposes

• P pottery used for household purposes mainly storing grains and water

• Miniature vessels for decorative purposes and

• Perforated Pottery which might have been used for straining purposes.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution: A

• Potteries found at excavation sites of Indus Valley Civilization can be classified into two types – plain pottery and painted pottery.

• The painted pottery is also known as black and red ware as it used red pigments to paint the background and glossy black paint to draw designs and figures on the red background.

• Trees, animals, birds as well as geometrical patterns were usually the themes of paintings on the red and black pottery.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

Potteries were used for three main purposes

• P pottery used for household purposes mainly storing grains and water

• Miniature vessels for decorative purposes and

• Perforated Pottery which might have been used for straining purposes.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the National Maritime Heritage Complex (NMHC): It is being developed under the Sagarmala Programme by the Ministry of Culture. It aims to be the world’s largest maritime heritage complex and is located at Dholvira in Gujarat. The site at Dholavira was chosen due to its Harappan-era dockyard, the oldest known in the world. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) All three Correct Answer: D Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: The National Maritime Heritage Complex (NMHC) is being developed by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways under the Sagarmala Programme. While the Ministry of Culture is a knowledge partner and will contribute to the museum’s content, it is not the primary developing ministry. Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect: The NMHC is located near Lothal in the Bhavnagar district of Gujarat, not Dholavira. While both are significant Harappan sites in Gujarat, the NMHC project is specifically situated near Lothal, which is historically known for its ancient dockyard. The aim is for it to be one of the world’s largest maritime heritage complexes. Dholavira is known for its impressive water management system and unique urban planning. Hence, option (d) is correct answer. Incorrect Answer: D Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: The National Maritime Heritage Complex (NMHC) is being developed by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways under the Sagarmala Programme. While the Ministry of Culture is a knowledge partner and will contribute to the museum’s content, it is not the primary developing ministry. Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect: The NMHC is located near Lothal in the Bhavnagar district of Gujarat, not Dholavira. While both are significant Harappan sites in Gujarat, the NMHC project is specifically situated near Lothal, which is historically known for its ancient dockyard. The aim is for it to be one of the world’s largest maritime heritage complexes. Dholavira is known for its impressive water management system and unique urban planning. Hence, option (d) is correct answer.

#### 21. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the National Maritime Heritage Complex (NMHC):

• It is being developed under the Sagarmala Programme by the Ministry of Culture.

• It aims to be the world’s largest maritime heritage complex and is located at Dholvira in Gujarat.

• The site at Dholavira was chosen due to its Harappan-era dockyard, the oldest known in the world.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) All three

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The National Maritime Heritage Complex (NMHC) is being developed by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways under the Sagarmala Programme. While the Ministry of Culture is a knowledge partner and will contribute to the museum’s content, it is not the primary developing ministry.

• While the Ministry of Culture is a knowledge partner and will contribute to the museum’s content, it is not the primary developing ministry.

• Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect: The NMHC is located near Lothal in the Bhavnagar district of Gujarat, not Dholavira. While both are significant Harappan sites in Gujarat, the NMHC project is specifically situated near Lothal, which is historically known for its ancient dockyard. The aim is for it to be one of the world’s largest maritime heritage complexes. Dholavira is known for its impressive water management system and unique urban planning.

• Dholavira is known for its impressive water management system and unique urban planning.

Hence, option (d) is correct answer.

Explanation:

• While the Ministry of Culture is a knowledge partner and will contribute to the museum’s content, it is not the primary developing ministry.

• Dholavira is known for its impressive water management system and unique urban planning.

Hence, option (d) is correct answer.

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points The National Health Accounts (NHA) Estimates for India are prepared by which of the following institutions? (a) National Health Authority (NHA) (b) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare directly (c) National Health Accounts Technical Secretariat (NHATS) (d) NITI Aayog Correct Solution: C Explanation: The Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare recently released the National Health Account (NHA) estimates for the fiscal years 2020-21 and 2021-22. NHA estimates are based on the globally recognized System of Health Accounts (SHA) framework, established in 2011 by the World Health Organization. India’s NHA estimates follow the National Health Accounts Guidelines for India, 2016. The NHATS prepares NHA estimates with the support of the NHA Steering Committee and Expert Group. These estimates are released by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) and describe financial flows in India’s health system. Incorrect Solution: C Explanation: The Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare recently released the National Health Account (NHA) estimates for the fiscal years 2020-21 and 2021-22. NHA estimates are based on the globally recognized System of Health Accounts (SHA) framework, established in 2011 by the World Health Organization. India’s NHA estimates follow the National Health Accounts Guidelines for India, 2016. The NHATS prepares NHA estimates with the support of the NHA Steering Committee and Expert Group. These estimates are released by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) and describe financial flows in India’s health system.

#### 22. Question

The National Health Accounts (NHA) Estimates for India are prepared by which of the following institutions?

• (a) National Health Authority (NHA)

• (b) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare directly

• (c) National Health Accounts Technical Secretariat (NHATS)

• (d) NITI Aayog

Solution: C

Explanation:

The Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare recently released the National Health Account (NHA) estimates for the fiscal years 2020-21 and 2021-22.

• NHA estimates are based on the globally recognized System of Health Accounts (SHA) framework, established in 2011 by the World Health Organization.

• India’s NHA estimates follow the National Health Accounts Guidelines for India, 2016.

• The NHATS prepares NHA estimates with the support of the NHA Steering Committee and Expert Group.

• These estimates are released by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) and describe financial flows in India’s health system.

Solution: C

Explanation:

The Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare recently released the National Health Account (NHA) estimates for the fiscal years 2020-21 and 2021-22.

• NHA estimates are based on the globally recognized System of Health Accounts (SHA) framework, established in 2011 by the World Health Organization.

• India’s NHA estimates follow the National Health Accounts Guidelines for India, 2016.

• The NHATS prepares NHA estimates with the support of the NHA Steering Committee and Expert Group.

• These estimates are released by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) and describe financial flows in India’s health system.

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Offshore Areas Mineral (Development and Regulation) Act, 2002: It governs mineral extraction only within India’s Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) and continental shelf, not international seabeds. Government-owned companies are given priority access to reserved offshore mining zones. Mining leases can be terminated if production remains uneconomical for 5 years under the Act’s provisions. How many of the above given statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Offshore mining, also known as deep-sea mining, involves the extraction of mineral resources from the deep seabed—typically beyond a depth of 200 meters. Statement 1 is correct: The Act applies to India’s EEZ/continental shelf (not international seabeds). As the Act explicitly states its application to “the territorial waters, continental shelf, exclusive economic zone and other maritime zones of India”. It does not extend to international seabeds, which are governed by international law and the International Seabed Authority. Applicability: The rules apply to all minerals in offshore areas, excluding mineral oils, hydrocarbons, and specified atomic minerals. Lease Surrender: Lessees are permitted to surrender the mining lease after 10 years if operations are found to be uneconomical. (hence, statement 3 is incorrect.) Reserved Zones: Priority is accorded to the government and state-owned enterprises in the grant of operating rights for areas designated as reserved offshore zones. (Hence, statement 2 correct) Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Offshore mining, also known as deep-sea mining, involves the extraction of mineral resources from the deep seabed—typically beyond a depth of 200 meters. Statement 1 is correct: The Act applies to India’s EEZ/continental shelf (not international seabeds). As the Act explicitly states its application to “the territorial waters, continental shelf, exclusive economic zone and other maritime zones of India”. It does not extend to international seabeds, which are governed by international law and the International Seabed Authority. Applicability: The rules apply to all minerals in offshore areas, excluding mineral oils, hydrocarbons, and specified atomic minerals. Lease Surrender: Lessees are permitted to surrender the mining lease after 10 years if operations are found to be uneconomical. (hence, statement 3 is incorrect.) Reserved Zones: Priority is accorded to the government and state-owned enterprises in the grant of operating rights for areas designated as reserved offshore zones. (Hence, statement 2 correct)

#### 23. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Offshore Areas Mineral (Development and Regulation) Act, 2002:

• It governs mineral extraction only within India’s Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) and continental shelf, not international seabeds.

• Government-owned companies are given priority access to reserved offshore mining zones.

• Mining leases can be terminated if production remains uneconomical for 5 years under the Act’s provisions.

How many of the above given statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Explanation:

Offshore mining, also known as deep-sea mining, involves the extraction of mineral resources from the deep seabed—typically beyond a depth of 200 meters.

• Statement 1 is correct: The Act applies to India’s EEZ/continental shelf (not international seabeds). As the Act explicitly states its application to “the territorial waters, continental shelf, exclusive economic zone and other maritime zones of India”. It does not extend to international seabeds, which are governed by international law and the International Seabed Authority.

• As the Act explicitly states its application to “the territorial waters, continental shelf, exclusive economic zone and other maritime zones of India”. It does not extend to international seabeds, which are governed by international law and the International Seabed Authority.

• Applicability: The rules apply to all minerals in offshore areas, excluding mineral oils, hydrocarbons, and specified atomic minerals.

• Lease Surrender: Lessees are permitted to surrender the mining lease after 10 years if operations are found to be uneconomical. (hence, statement 3 is incorrect.)

• Reserved Zones: Priority is accorded to the government and state-owned enterprises in the grant of operating rights for areas designated as reserved offshore zones. (Hence, statement 2 correct)

Explanation:

Offshore mining, also known as deep-sea mining, involves the extraction of mineral resources from the deep seabed—typically beyond a depth of 200 meters.

• Applicability: The rules apply to all minerals in offshore areas, excluding mineral oils, hydrocarbons, and specified atomic minerals.

• Lease Surrender: Lessees are permitted to surrender the mining lease after 10 years if operations are found to be uneconomical. (hence, statement 3 is incorrect.)

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Right to Information (Amendment) Act, 2019: It grants fixed five-year tenure to Central and State Information Commissioners. The amendment enhances the salary of Information Commissioners to be at par with Supreme Court judges. It creates a new appellate mechanism under the Ministry of Law and Justice. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. Vembanad Lake (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) None Correct Answer: D Explanation: The 2019 Amendment actually removed the statutory guarantee of tenure (which was earlier fixed at 5 years) and instead vested the power to determine tenure, salaries, and service conditions of Information Commissioners with the Central Government, thereby compromising the independence envisaged under the original Act. It did not raise their salaries to be equivalent to those of Supreme Court judges—in fact, it allowed the executive to decide such conditions from time to time. Finally, no new appellate mechanism was established under the Ministry of Law and Justice. The existing two-tier mechanism—First Appellate Authority and Central/State Information Commission—remains. These changes are criticized as diluting institutional autonomy. Incorrect Answer: D Explanation: The 2019 Amendment actually removed the statutory guarantee of tenure (which was earlier fixed at 5 years) and instead vested the power to determine tenure, salaries, and service conditions of Information Commissioners with the Central Government, thereby compromising the independence envisaged under the original Act. It did not raise their salaries to be equivalent to those of Supreme Court judges—in fact, it allowed the executive to decide such conditions from time to time. Finally, no new appellate mechanism was established under the Ministry of Law and Justice. The existing two-tier mechanism—First Appellate Authority and Central/State Information Commission—remains. These changes are criticized as diluting institutional autonomy.

#### 24. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Right to Information (Amendment) Act, 2019:

• It grants fixed five-year tenure to Central and State Information Commissioners.

• The amendment enhances the salary of Information Commissioners to be at par with Supreme Court judges.

• It creates a new appellate mechanism under the Ministry of Law and Justice.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• A. Vembanad Lake

• (b) 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The 2019 Amendment actually removed the statutory guarantee of tenure (which was earlier fixed at 5 years) and instead vested the power to determine tenure, salaries, and service conditions of Information Commissioners with the Central Government, thereby compromising the independence envisaged under the original Act.

• It did not raise their salaries to be equivalent to those of Supreme Court judges—in fact, it allowed the executive to decide such conditions from time to time.

• Finally, no new appellate mechanism was established under the Ministry of Law and Justice.

• The existing two-tier mechanism—First Appellate Authority and Central/State Information Commission—remains. These changes are criticized as diluting institutional autonomy.

• It did not raise their salaries to be equivalent to those of Supreme Court judges—in fact, it allowed the executive to decide such conditions from time to time.

• Finally, no new appellate mechanism was established under the Ministry of Law and Justice.

• The existing two-tier mechanism—First Appellate Authority and Central/State Information Commission—remains. These changes are criticized as diluting institutional autonomy.

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points The term “Anaconda Strategy” in contemporary geopolitical discourse refers to: (a) A rapid aerial strike strategy to gain swift dominance. (b) A slow economic, cyber, and military encirclement to exhaust the adversary. (c) A guerrilla warfare tactic for weakening occupying forces. (d) A doctrine promoting joint maritime security in Indo-Pacific waters. Correct Answer: B Explanation: The “Anaconda Strategy,” originally proposed by Union General Winfield Scott during the American Civil War, involved blockading the South to economically “suffocate” it. China’s modern adoption of the term in its Taiwan policy refers to a multi-pronged non-kinetic pressure campaign—including military manoeuvres, cyber warfare, and psychological operations—to force Taiwan’s submission without initiating a direct, full-scale invasion. The metaphor reflects how a boa constrictor slowly crushes its prey—hence, extended coercion over sudden aggression. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: The “Anaconda Strategy,” originally proposed by Union General Winfield Scott during the American Civil War, involved blockading the South to economically “suffocate” it. China’s modern adoption of the term in its Taiwan policy refers to a multi-pronged non-kinetic pressure campaign—including military manoeuvres, cyber warfare, and psychological operations—to force Taiwan’s submission without initiating a direct, full-scale invasion. The metaphor reflects how a boa constrictor slowly crushes its prey—hence, extended coercion over sudden aggression.

#### 25. Question

The term “Anaconda Strategy” in contemporary geopolitical discourse refers to:

• (a) A rapid aerial strike strategy to gain swift dominance.

• (b) A slow economic, cyber, and military encirclement to exhaust the adversary.

• (c) A guerrilla warfare tactic for weakening occupying forces.

• (d) A doctrine promoting joint maritime security in Indo-Pacific waters.

Explanation: The “Anaconda Strategy,” originally proposed by Union General Winfield Scott during the American Civil War, involved blockading the South to economically “suffocate” it.

• China’s modern adoption of the term in its Taiwan policy refers to a multi-pronged non-kinetic pressure campaign—including military manoeuvres, cyber warfare, and psychological operations—to force Taiwan’s submission without initiating a direct, full-scale invasion.

• The metaphor reflects how a boa constrictor slowly crushes its prey—hence, extended coercion over sudden aggression.

Explanation: The “Anaconda Strategy,” originally proposed by Union General Winfield Scott during the American Civil War, involved blockading the South to economically “suffocate” it.

• The metaphor reflects how a boa constrictor slowly crushes its prey—hence, extended coercion over sudden aggression.

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points When there is a medical emergency and a hospital has to decide who they will treat first, the younger patient is often selected. Making a decision for priority of care based purely on age is not fair. Many people would disagree, saying that older people have already had the benefit of experiencing life and that younger people should get the same chance. But all lives have the same value and that a person’s age is irrelevant. In emergency situations, the decision should be made on the probability of the patient’s recovery. The patient that is more likely to benefit from immediate care should be treated first. A person’s age may be part of this decision-making process, in the sense that a very elderly person might be less likely to get better. On the other hand, if someone is ill, being very young can also lessen the likelihood of recovery. Other factors should also be taken into consideration. One person’s illness might be more serious or one of the interventions may take longer than the other. One factor that should never be involved in the decision-making process is a person’s socio-economic status. It is understandable that staff at hospitals are obliged to make instant ethical decisions and by having a policy that means giving care to young people first, these decisions are more easily made. But what if there is a small age difference such as five years? Should the policy remain the same? People who work in hospitals should not have the burden of making such decisions about priority of care on top of the already difficult job they have. However, there should be other criteria added to that of age when deciding who should receive care first. Basically, the decision should be based on who is more likely to recover and age might only be a part of that. (310 words) Which of the following views is corroborated by the passage? a) Emergency treatment should be given on the basis of gender. b) Hospital staff should decide which patient receives priority of care. c) Likelihood of recovery should be the deciding factor during emergency healthcare. d) None of the above Correct Correct Option: C Justification: Statement 1 is not correct as the passage does not suggest any bias on the basis of gender or other such factors. Statement 2 is not correct because the passage says that hospital staff should not be forced to make such decisions. Instead there should be ethical guidelines in place to guide such decisions. Statement 3 is correct as the passage shows how different factors such as illness, injury etc. can have more effect on likelihood of recovery than just age. Thus this likelihood should be the determining factor. Incorrect Correct Option: C Justification: Statement 1 is not correct as the passage does not suggest any bias on the basis of gender or other such factors. Statement 2 is not correct because the passage says that hospital staff should not be forced to make such decisions. Instead there should be ethical guidelines in place to guide such decisions. Statement 3 is correct as the passage shows how different factors such as illness, injury etc. can have more effect on likelihood of recovery than just age. Thus this likelihood should be the determining factor.

#### 26. Question

When there is a medical emergency and a hospital has to decide who they will treat first, the younger patient is often selected. Making a decision for priority of care based purely on age is not fair. Many people would disagree, saying that older people have already had the benefit of experiencing life and that younger people should get the same chance. But all lives have the same value and that a person’s age is irrelevant.

In emergency situations, the decision should be made on the probability of the patient’s recovery. The patient that is more likely to benefit from immediate care should be treated first. A person’s age may be part of this decision-making process, in the sense that a very elderly person might be less likely to get better. On the other hand, if someone is ill, being very young can also lessen the likelihood of recovery. Other factors should also be taken into consideration. One person’s illness might be more serious or one of the interventions may take longer than the other. One factor that should never be involved in the decision-making process is a person’s socio-economic status.

It is understandable that staff at hospitals are obliged to make instant ethical decisions and by having a policy that means giving care to young people first, these decisions are more easily made. But what if there is a small age difference such as five years? Should the policy remain the same?

People who work in hospitals should not have the burden of making such decisions about priority of care on top of the already difficult job they have. However, there should be other criteria added to that of age when deciding who should receive care first. Basically, the decision should be based on who is more likely to recover and age might only be a part of that. (310 words)

Which of the following views is corroborated by the passage?

• a) Emergency treatment should be given on the basis of gender.

• b) Hospital staff should decide which patient receives priority of care.

• c) Likelihood of recovery should be the deciding factor during emergency healthcare.

• d) None of the above

Correct Option: C

Justification:

Statement 1 is not correct as the passage does not suggest any bias on the basis of gender or other such factors. Statement 2 is not correct because the passage says that hospital staff should not be forced to make such decisions. Instead there should be ethical guidelines in place to guide such decisions. Statement 3 is correct as the passage shows how different factors such as illness, injury etc. can have more effect on likelihood of recovery than just age. Thus this likelihood should be the determining factor.

Correct Option: C

Justification:

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points The number of ways in which only one letter goes in the wrong envelope is: a) 43 b) 4C1+4C2 + 4C3 + 4C4 c) 0 d) 4C0 + 4C1 + 4C2 + 4C3 Correct Correct Option: C Justification: Answer C) 0 At least two letters have to be interchanged for a wrong choice. So, the number of ways in which only one letter goes in wrong envelope = 0. Incorrect Correct Option: C Justification: Answer C) 0 At least two letters have to be interchanged for a wrong choice. So, the number of ways in which only one letter goes in wrong envelope = 0.

#### 27. Question

The number of ways in which only one letter goes in the wrong envelope is:

• b) 4C1+4C2 + 4C3 + 4C4

• d) 4C0 + 4C1 + 4C2 + 4C3

Correct Option: C

Justification:

Answer C) 0

At least two letters have to be interchanged for a wrong choice.

So, the number of ways in which only one letter goes in wrong envelope = 0.

Correct Option: C

Justification:

Answer C) 0

At least two letters have to be interchanged for a wrong choice.

So, the number of ways in which only one letter goes in wrong envelope = 0.

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points India and New Zealand player one-day international cricket series until anyone team win 4 matches. No match ended in a draw. In how many ways can the series be won? a) 35 b) 70 c) 105 d) 140 Correct Correct Option: B Justification: So, India can win the series in 1+4+10+20 = 35 ways. Similarly, New Zealand can win the series in 35 ways. Hence, the total number of ways in which the series can be won is 35+35=70 ways No. of Matches India Wins New Zealand Wins No. of Ways 4 4 0 4C4 =1 5 4 1 4!/3!=4 6 4 2 5!/3!2!=10 7 4 3 6!/3!3!=20 Incorrect Correct Option: B Justification: So, India can win the series in 1+4+10+20 = 35 ways. Similarly, New Zealand can win the series in 35 ways. Hence, the total number of ways in which the series can be won is 35+35=70 ways No. of Matches India Wins New Zealand Wins No. of Ways 4 4 0 4C4 =1 5 4 1 4!/3!=4 6 4 2 5!/3!2!=10 7 4 3 6!/3!3!=20

#### 28. Question

India and New Zealand player one-day international cricket series until anyone team win 4 matches. No match ended in a draw. In how many ways can the series be won?

Correct Option: B

Justification:

So, India can win the series in 1+4+10+20 = 35 ways.

Similarly, New Zealand can win the series in 35 ways.

Hence, the total number of ways in which the series can be won is 35+35=70 ways

No. of Matches | India Wins | New Zealand Wins | No. of Ways

4 | 4 | 0 | 4C4 =1

5 | 4 | 1 | 4!/3!=4

6 | 4 | 2 | 5!/3!2!=10

7 | 4 | 3 | 6!/3!3!=20

Correct Option: B

Justification:

So, India can win the series in 1+4+10+20 = 35 ways.

Similarly, New Zealand can win the series in 35 ways.

Hence, the total number of ways in which the series can be won is 35+35=70 ways

No. of Matches | India Wins | New Zealand Wins | No. of Ways

4 | 4 | 0 | 4C4 =1

5 | 4 | 1 | 4!/3!=4

6 | 4 | 2 | 5!/3!2!=10

7 | 4 | 3 | 6!/3!3!=20

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points The sum of all the possible numbers of 4 digits formed by digits 3, 5, 5, and 6 using each digit once is a) 64427 b) 63327 c) 65297 d) 43521 Correct Correct Option: B Justification: Total number of different numbers of 4 digits formed by using these digits only once = 4!2! = 12 The numbers formed whose unit digit is 3 = 3 The number formed whose unit digit is 5 = 6 The number formed whose unit digit is 6 = 3 (Same rule is applicable for 10th, 100th and 1000th units) Sum of the total number of unit digits = 3×3+5×6 +6×3 = 57 Sum of the 10th digit number = 57×10 Sum of the 100th digit number = 57×100 Sum of the 1000th digit number = 57×1000 Sum of all the numbers formed = 57(1+10+100 + 1000) = 63327. Incorrect Correct Option: B Justification: Total number of different numbers of 4 digits formed by using these digits only once = 4!2! = 12 The numbers formed whose unit digit is 3 = 3 The number formed whose unit digit is 5 = 6 The number formed whose unit digit is 6 = 3 (Same rule is applicable for 10th, 100th and 1000th units) Sum of the total number of unit digits = 3×3+5×6 +6×3 = 57 Sum of the 10th digit number = 57×10 Sum of the 100th digit number = 57×100 Sum of the 1000th digit number = 57×1000 Sum of all the numbers formed = 57(1+10+100 + 1000) = 63327.

#### 29. Question

The sum of all the possible numbers of 4 digits formed by digits 3, 5, 5, and 6 using each digit once is

Correct Option: B

Justification:

Total number of different numbers of 4 digits formed by using these digits only once = 4!2! = 12

The numbers formed whose unit digit is 3 = 3

The number formed whose unit digit is 5 = 6

The number formed whose unit digit is 6 = 3

(Same rule is applicable for 10th, 100th and 1000th units)

Sum of the total number of unit digits = 3×3+5×6 +6×3 = 57

Sum of the 10th digit number = 57×10

Sum of the 100th digit number = 57×100

Sum of the 1000th digit number = 57×1000

Sum of all the numbers formed = 57(1+10+100 + 1000) = 63327.

Correct Option: B

Justification:

Total number of different numbers of 4 digits formed by using these digits only once = 4!2! = 12

The numbers formed whose unit digit is 3 = 3

The number formed whose unit digit is 5 = 6

The number formed whose unit digit is 6 = 3

(Same rule is applicable for 10th, 100th and 1000th units)

Sum of the total number of unit digits = 3×3+5×6 +6×3 = 57

Sum of the 10th digit number = 57×10

Sum of the 100th digit number = 57×100

Sum of the 1000th digit number = 57×1000

Sum of all the numbers formed = 57(1+10+100 + 1000) = 63327.

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points *Read the information given below and answer following two questions. A bag contains 4 red, 4 green and 4 blue balls. Two balls are drawn at random without replacement. What is the probability that none of the balls drawn is green? a) 7/18 b) 14/33 c) 7/36 d) 2/3 Correct Correct Option: B Justification: Solution: B) 14/33 Total non-green balls = 8; hence chance of getting one in first draw = 8/12 After first successful draw, non-green balls = 7, also total balls is now 11 Hence, probability of getting non green = 7/11 Final probability = 8/12 × 7/11 = 14/33 Hence, option(b) is correct. Incorrect Correct Option: B Justification: Solution: B) 14/33 Total non-green balls = 8; hence chance of getting one in first draw = 8/12 After first successful draw, non-green balls = 7, also total balls is now 11 Hence, probability of getting non green = 7/11 Final probability = 8/12 × 7/11 = 14/33 Hence, option(b) is correct*.

#### 30. Question

*Read the information given below and answer following two questions.*

A bag contains 4 red, 4 green and 4 blue balls. Two balls are drawn at random without replacement. What is the probability that none of the balls drawn is green?

Correct Option: B

Justification:

Solution: B) 14/33

Total non-green balls = 8; hence chance of getting one in first draw = 8/12 After first successful draw, non-green balls = 7, also total balls is now 11 Hence, probability of getting non green = 7/11 Final probability = 8/12 × 7/11 = 14/33

Hence, option(b) is correct.

Correct Option: B

Justification:

Solution: B) 14/33

Hence, option(b) is correct.

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