DAY – 35 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – ART & CULTURE, Subject-wise Test 2 , Textbook-based Test – 21 and March 2024 CA

INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024

#### Quiz-summary

0 of 30 questions completed

Questions:

#### Information

Read about Insights IAS INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Prelims – 2024 [ HERE ] :

DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(GS) [HERE] :

DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(CSAT) [HERE] :

Download MITRA booklet (My Insta Tests Revision and Assessment) – It’s for to track your daily progress while following Insta 75 Days plan. [ CLICK HERE ] :

Wish you Good Luck! 🙂

You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.

Quiz is loading...

You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.

You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:

0 of 30 questions answered correctly

Your time:

Time has elapsed

You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)

Average score |

Your score |

#### Categories

• Not categorized 0%

Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result

Table is loading

No data available

| | | |

• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points What insight do the Gilgit manuscripts provide regarding religious and philosophical literature? a) They shed light on the development of Jain and Buddhist scriptures. b) They contain exclusively Hindu scriptures. c) They provide evidence of early Islamic texts in the region. d) They have no relevance to religious studies. Correct Answer: a Explanation: Recently, the Minister of State for Culture inaugurated an exhibition under the Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav (AKAM) titled “Hamari Bhasha, Hamari Virasat” and mentioned about Gilgit Manuscripts to celebrate 75th International Archives Day at National Archives of India, New Delhi. Gilgit manuscripts were discovered in the Naupur village (Gilgit region), Pakistan Occupied Kashmir. . Archaeologist Sir Aurel Stein discovered it in the year 1931. It was written between the 5th -6th centuries CE. It is the oldest surviving manuscript collection in Indian Subcontinent. It was written on the birch bark folios documents written on pieces of an inner layer of the bark of birch trees found in the Kashmir region. The Gilgit manuscripts are significant because they contain a variety of texts from both the Jain and Buddhist traditions. These manuscripts offer valuable insights into the development and evolution of religious and philosophical literature in the Indian Subcontinent during the 5th-6th centuries CE. By studying these manuscripts, scholars can better understand the cultural, religious, and philosophical contexts of the time period, as well as the transmission and dissemination of religious ideas in the region. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Recently, the Minister of State for Culture inaugurated an exhibition under the Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav (AKAM) titled “Hamari Bhasha, Hamari Virasat” and mentioned about Gilgit Manuscripts to celebrate 75th International Archives Day at National Archives of India, New Delhi. Gilgit manuscripts were discovered in the Naupur village (Gilgit region), Pakistan Occupied Kashmir. . Archaeologist Sir Aurel Stein discovered it in the year 1931. It was written between the 5th -6th centuries CE. It is the oldest surviving manuscript collection in Indian Subcontinent. It was written on the birch bark folios documents written on pieces of an inner layer of the bark of birch trees found in the Kashmir region. The Gilgit manuscripts are significant because they contain a variety of texts from both the Jain and Buddhist traditions. These manuscripts offer valuable insights into the development and evolution of religious and philosophical literature in the Indian Subcontinent during the 5th-6th centuries CE. By studying these manuscripts, scholars can better understand the cultural, religious, and philosophical contexts of the time period, as well as the transmission and dissemination of religious ideas in the region. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 1. Question

What insight do the Gilgit manuscripts provide regarding religious and philosophical literature?

• a) They shed light on the development of Jain and Buddhist scriptures.

• b) They contain exclusively Hindu scriptures.

• c) They provide evidence of early Islamic texts in the region.

• d) They have no relevance to religious studies.

Explanation:

• Recently, the Minister of State for Culture inaugurated an exhibition under the Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav (AKAM) titled “Hamari Bhasha, Hamari Virasat” and mentioned about Gilgit Manuscripts to celebrate 75th International Archives Day at National Archives of India, New Delhi.

• Gilgit manuscripts were discovered in the Naupur village (Gilgit region), Pakistan Occupied Kashmir. .

• Archaeologist Sir Aurel Stein discovered it in the year 1931.

• It was written between the 5th -6th centuries CE.

• It is the oldest surviving manuscript collection in Indian Subcontinent.

• It was written on the birch bark folios documents written on pieces of an inner layer of the bark of birch trees found in the Kashmir region.

• The Gilgit manuscripts are significant because they contain a variety of texts from both the Jain and Buddhist traditions. These manuscripts offer valuable insights into the development and evolution of religious and philosophical literature in the Indian Subcontinent during the 5th-6th centuries CE. By studying these manuscripts, scholars can better understand the cultural, religious, and philosophical contexts of the time period, as well as the transmission and dissemination of religious ideas in the region.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• Gilgit manuscripts were discovered in the Naupur village (Gilgit region), Pakistan Occupied Kashmir. .

• Archaeologist Sir Aurel Stein discovered it in the year 1931.

• It was written between the 5th -6th centuries CE.

• It is the oldest surviving manuscript collection in Indian Subcontinent.

• It was written on the birch bark folios documents written on pieces of an inner layer of the bark of birch trees found in the Kashmir region.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: It is also known as Raja Rajeswara Temple and is dedicated to lord Shiva. The entire temple structure is made out of granite. The Vimanam of the temple is said to be one of the tallest in the world. The Kumbam (the apex or the bulbous structure on the top) of the temple is carved out of a single rock. The above given statements describe which of the following temples? a) Ranganathaswamy Temple b) Chaturbhuj Temple c) Airavatesvara temple d) Brihadeshwara Temple Correct Answer: d Explanation: Prime Minister, Narendra Modi has recently, replied to a social media post by Hollywood actor Michael Douglas on his visit to Thanjavur. About Brihadisvara Temple: Brihadeshwara Temple (Raja Rajeswara Temple) is dedicated to Shiva and is located in Thanjavur,Tamil Nadu. The temple is an example of Dravidian architecture built during the Chola period by emperor Raja Raja Chola I. The temple is part of the UNESCO World Heritage Site known as the Great Living Chola Temples with the other two being, Gangaikonda Cholapuram and Airavatesvara temple. Characteristics of the temple: The temple consists of a pyramidal spire and is adorned with sculptures and paintings inside as well as outside. The entire temple structure is made out of granite. The Vimanam (temple tower) is 216 ft. high and is said to be one of the tallest in the world. The Kumbam (the apex or the bulbous structure on the top) of the temple is carved out of a single rock. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: Prime Minister, Narendra Modi has recently, replied to a social media post by Hollywood actor Michael Douglas on his visit to Thanjavur. About Brihadisvara Temple: Brihadeshwara Temple (Raja Rajeswara Temple) is dedicated to Shiva and is located in Thanjavur,Tamil Nadu. The temple is an example of Dravidian architecture built during the Chola period by emperor Raja Raja Chola I. The temple is part of the UNESCO World Heritage Site known as the Great Living Chola Temples with the other two being, Gangaikonda Cholapuram and Airavatesvara temple. Characteristics of the temple: The temple consists of a pyramidal spire and is adorned with sculptures and paintings inside as well as outside. The entire temple structure is made out of granite. The Vimanam (temple tower) is 216 ft. high and is said to be one of the tallest in the world. The Kumbam (the apex or the bulbous structure on the top) of the temple is carved out of a single rock. Hence, option (d) is correct.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements:

• It is also known as Raja Rajeswara Temple and is dedicated to lord Shiva.

• The entire temple structure is made out of granite. The Vimanam of the temple is said to be one of the tallest in the world.

• The Kumbam (the apex or the bulbous structure on the top) of the temple is carved out of a single rock.

The above given statements describe which of the following temples?

• a) Ranganathaswamy Temple

• b) Chaturbhuj Temple

• c) Airavatesvara temple

• d) Brihadeshwara Temple

Explanation:

• Prime Minister, Narendra Modi has recently, replied to a social media post by Hollywood actor Michael Douglas on his visit to Thanjavur.

About Brihadisvara Temple:

• Brihadeshwara Temple (Raja Rajeswara Temple) is dedicated to Shiva and is located in Thanjavur,Tamil Nadu.

• The temple is an example of Dravidian architecture built during the Chola period by emperor Raja Raja Chola I.

• The temple is part of the UNESCO World Heritage Site known as the Great Living Chola Temples with the other two being, Gangaikonda Cholapuram and Airavatesvara temple.

Characteristics of the temple:

• The temple consists of a pyramidal spire and is adorned with sculptures and paintings inside as well as outside.

• The entire temple structure is made out of granite. The Vimanam (temple tower) is 216 ft. high and is said to be one of the tallest in the world.

• The Kumbam (the apex or the bulbous structure on the top) of the temple is carved out of a single rock.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

• Prime Minister, Narendra Modi has recently, replied to a social media post by Hollywood actor Michael Douglas on his visit to Thanjavur.

About Brihadisvara Temple:

• Brihadeshwara Temple (Raja Rajeswara Temple) is dedicated to Shiva and is located in Thanjavur,Tamil Nadu.

• The temple is an example of Dravidian architecture built during the Chola period by emperor Raja Raja Chola I.

• The temple is part of the UNESCO World Heritage Site known as the Great Living Chola Temples with the other two being, Gangaikonda Cholapuram and Airavatesvara temple.

Characteristics of the temple:

• The temple consists of a pyramidal spire and is adorned with sculptures and paintings inside as well as outside.

• The entire temple structure is made out of granite. The Vimanam (temple tower) is 216 ft. high and is said to be one of the tallest in the world.

• The Kumbam (the apex or the bulbous structure on the top) of the temple is carved out of a single rock.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements with reference to the differences between Mathura and Amaravathi Schools: Mathura School was influenced by the Greek whereas Amaravathi School was developed indigenously and not influenced by external cultures. The sculptures of Mathura were made using ‘spotted red sandstone’ whereas the sculptures of Amaravathi School were made using ‘white marble’. Mathura school was patronized by Kushana rulers where as Amaravathi school was patronized by Satavahana rulers. Which of the above given statements are correct? a) 1 and 3 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 2 only d) 1, 2 and 3 only Correct Answer: b Explanation: Both Mathura School and Amaravathi School was developed indigenously and not influenced by external cultures. Gandhara School of art was influenced by Greek architecture. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The sculptures of the Mathura school were made using spotted red sandstone and the sculptures of the Amaravati School were made using white marble. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Mathura school patronized by Kushans rulers and Amaravathi School Patronized by Satvahana rulers. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Mathura school Developed in and around Mathura, Sonkh and Kankali Tila in Uttar Pradesh and Amaravathi School Developed in the Krishna-Godavari lower valley, in and around Amaravati and Nagarjunakonda in Andhra Pradesh. Mathura school Influence of all three religions of the time, i.e., Hinduism, Jainism and Buddhism and Amaravathi school mainly Buddhist influence. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Both Mathura School and Amaravathi School was developed indigenously and not influenced by external cultures. Gandhara School of art was influenced by Greek architecture. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The sculptures of the Mathura school were made using spotted red sandstone and the sculptures of the Amaravati School were made using white marble. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Mathura school patronized by Kushans rulers and Amaravathi School Patronized by Satvahana rulers. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Mathura school Developed in and around Mathura, Sonkh and Kankali Tila in Uttar Pradesh and Amaravathi School Developed in the Krishna-Godavari lower valley, in and around Amaravati and Nagarjunakonda in Andhra Pradesh. Mathura school Influence of all three religions of the time, i.e., Hinduism, Jainism and Buddhism and Amaravathi school mainly Buddhist influence. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements with reference to the differences between Mathura and Amaravathi Schools:

• Mathura School was influenced by the Greek whereas Amaravathi School was developed indigenously and not influenced by external cultures.

• The sculptures of Mathura were made using ‘spotted red sandstone’ whereas the sculptures of Amaravathi School were made using ‘white marble’.

• Mathura school was patronized by Kushana rulers where as Amaravathi school was patronized by Satavahana rulers.

Which of the above given statements are correct?

• a) 1 and 3 only

• b) 2 and 3 only

• c) 1 and 2 only

• d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

• Both Mathura School and Amaravathi School was developed indigenously and not influenced by external cultures. Gandhara School of art was influenced by Greek architecture. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

• The sculptures of the Mathura school were made using spotted red sandstone and the sculptures of the Amaravati School were made using white marble. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Mathura school patronized by Kushans rulers and Amaravathi School Patronized by Satvahana rulers. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Mathura school Developed in and around Mathura, Sonkh and Kankali Tila in Uttar Pradesh and Amaravathi School Developed in the Krishna-Godavari lower valley, in and around Amaravati and Nagarjunakonda in Andhra Pradesh.

• Mathura school Influence of all three religions of the time, i.e., Hinduism, Jainism and Buddhism and Amaravathi school mainly Buddhist influence.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• The sculptures of the Mathura school were made using spotted red sandstone and the sculptures of the Amaravati School were made using white marble. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Mathura school patronized by Kushans rulers and Amaravathi School Patronized by Satvahana rulers. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Mathura school Influence of all three religions of the time, i.e., Hinduism, Jainism and Buddhism and Amaravathi school mainly Buddhist influence.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding rock-cut temples and caves: The Shore Temple complex includes three temples dedicated to Lord Shiva. The Rathas in Mahabalipuram comprises five rock-cut temples. The largest monolithic temple in Ellora Caves is dedicated to Lord Vishnu. Bagh Caves in Madhya Pradesh are predominantly Buddhist. How many of the above given statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: b Explanation: Rock-cut architecture occupies a very important place in the history of Indian Architecture as they present the most spectacular piece of ancient Indian art specimen. Most of the rock-cut structures were closely associated with various religions and religious activities. Mahabalipuram, also known as the Seven Pagodas, is a historic town situated in northeast Tamil Nadu. It lies along the Coromandel Coast of the Bay of Bengal towards the south of Chennai. The religious center of the town was founded in the 7th century CE. It was founded by the Hindu Pallava king, Narasimhavarman, who was also known as Mamalla, after whom the town was named. It was during their reign that they created beautiful sculptures and rock-cut cave temples reflecting the Pallava architecture, whose remains still exist. The entire assemblage of Mahabalipuram was designated as a UNESCO world heritage site in the year 1984. The Shore Temple complex, located in Mahabalipuram, Tamil Nadu, consists of three temples, but they are not exclusively dedicated to Lord Shiva. Instead, one of the temples is dedicated to Lord Vishnu, while the other two are dedicated to Shiva. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Pancha Rathas is a monument famous for its design and significance in Mahabalipuram. Also like the Monolithic temples, every Ratha in the complex resembles a stone-cut chariot. These are named after five Pandava brothers and their common wife: Dharmaraj Ratha, Bhima Ratha, Arjun Ratha, Nakul-Sahdev Ratha and Draupadi Rath. These rock-cut chariots display characteristics of contemporary temples. These Rathas are carved with artistic motifs that show Hindu gods and royalties of the time. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The Kailash Temple, located in the Ellora Caves complex in Maharashtra, is dedicated to Lord Shiva, not Lord Vishnu. It is the largest monolithic rock-cut temples in the world and is a masterpiece of Indian architecture. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Bagh Caves: Located on the bank of the Bagh River in Madhya Pradesh, Bagh Caves is a group of 9 Buddhist caves developed around the 6th Century A.D. It is architecturally very similar to the Ajanta caves in terms of their design, execution and decoration. These are remarkable and interesting rock-cut shrines and monasteries. In modern times these caves were first discovered in 1818. Hence, statement 4 is correct. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Rock-cut architecture occupies a very important place in the history of Indian Architecture as they present the most spectacular piece of ancient Indian art specimen. Most of the rock-cut structures were closely associated with various religions and religious activities. Mahabalipuram, also known as the Seven Pagodas, is a historic town situated in northeast Tamil Nadu. It lies along the Coromandel Coast of the Bay of Bengal towards the south of Chennai. The religious center of the town was founded in the 7th century CE. It was founded by the Hindu Pallava king, Narasimhavarman, who was also known as Mamalla, after whom the town was named. It was during their reign that they created beautiful sculptures and rock-cut cave temples reflecting the Pallava architecture, whose remains still exist. The entire assemblage of Mahabalipuram was designated as a UNESCO world heritage site in the year 1984. The Shore Temple complex, located in Mahabalipuram, Tamil Nadu, consists of three temples, but they are not exclusively dedicated to Lord Shiva. Instead, one of the temples is dedicated to Lord Vishnu, while the other two are dedicated to Shiva. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Pancha Rathas is a monument famous for its design and significance in Mahabalipuram. Also like the Monolithic temples, every Ratha in the complex resembles a stone-cut chariot. These are named after five Pandava brothers and their common wife: Dharmaraj Ratha, Bhima Ratha, Arjun Ratha, Nakul-Sahdev Ratha and Draupadi Rath. These rock-cut chariots display characteristics of contemporary temples. These Rathas are carved with artistic motifs that show Hindu gods and royalties of the time. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The Kailash Temple, located in the Ellora Caves complex in Maharashtra, is dedicated to Lord Shiva, not Lord Vishnu. It is the largest monolithic rock-cut temples in the world and is a masterpiece of Indian architecture. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Bagh Caves: Located on the bank of the Bagh River in Madhya Pradesh, Bagh Caves is a group of 9 Buddhist caves developed around the 6th Century A.D. It is architecturally very similar to the Ajanta caves in terms of their design, execution and decoration. These are remarkable and interesting rock-cut shrines and monasteries. In modern times these caves were first discovered in 1818. Hence, statement 4 is correct. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding rock-cut temples and caves:

• The Shore Temple complex includes three temples dedicated to Lord Shiva.

• The Rathas in Mahabalipuram comprises five rock-cut temples.

• The largest monolithic temple in Ellora Caves is dedicated to Lord Vishnu.

• Bagh Caves in Madhya Pradesh are predominantly Buddhist.

How many of the above given statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

• Rock-cut architecture occupies a very important place in the history of Indian Architecture as they present the most spectacular piece of ancient Indian art specimen.

• Most of the rock-cut structures were closely associated with various religions and religious activities.

• Mahabalipuram, also known as the Seven Pagodas, is a historic town situated in northeast Tamil Nadu. It lies along the Coromandel Coast of the Bay of Bengal towards the south of Chennai. The religious center of the town was founded in the 7th century CE.

• It was founded by the Hindu Pallava king, Narasimhavarman, who was also known as Mamalla, after whom the town was named. It was during their reign that they created beautiful sculptures and rock-cut cave temples reflecting the Pallava architecture, whose remains still exist.

• The entire assemblage of Mahabalipuram was designated as a UNESCO world heritage site in the year 1984.

• The Shore Temple complex, located in Mahabalipuram, Tamil Nadu, consists of three temples, but they are not exclusively dedicated to Lord Shiva. Instead, one of the temples is dedicated to Lord Vishnu, while the other two are dedicated to Shiva. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• Pancha Rathas is a monument famous for its design and significance in Mahabalipuram. Also like the Monolithic temples, every Ratha in the complex resembles a stone-cut chariot. These are named after five Pandava brothers and their common wife: Dharmaraj Ratha, Bhima Ratha, Arjun Ratha, Nakul-Sahdev Ratha and Draupadi Rath. These rock-cut chariots display characteristics of contemporary temples. These Rathas are carved with artistic motifs that show Hindu gods and royalties of the time. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• The Kailash Temple, located in the Ellora Caves complex in Maharashtra, is dedicated to Lord Shiva, not Lord Vishnu. It is the largest monolithic rock-cut temples in the world and is a masterpiece of Indian architecture. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Bagh Caves: Located on the bank of the Bagh River in Madhya Pradesh, Bagh Caves is a group of 9 Buddhist caves developed around the 6th Century A.D. It is architecturally very similar to the Ajanta caves in terms of their design, execution and decoration. These are remarkable and interesting rock-cut shrines and monasteries. In modern times these caves were first discovered in 1818. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• Rock-cut architecture occupies a very important place in the history of Indian Architecture as they present the most spectacular piece of ancient Indian art specimen.

• Most of the rock-cut structures were closely associated with various religions and religious activities.

• The entire assemblage of Mahabalipuram was designated as a UNESCO world heritage site in the year 1984.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Which cave complex is known for its horse-shoe shape and is famous for both Viharas and Chaityas? a) Nasik Caves b) Khandagiri Caves c) Ajanta Caves d) Udayagiri Caves Correct Answer: c Explanation: The Ajanta Caves, located in Maharashtra, India, are known for their horse-shoe shape and are famous for both Viharas (monasteries) and Chaityas (prayer halls). The caves were excavated out of volcanic rocks and date back to the 2nd century BCE to 6th century CE. The Ajanta Caves consist of a total of 29 caves, carved into a horse-shoe-shaped cliff overlooking the Waghora River. These caves served as Buddhist monastic complexes and include both residential quarters (Viharas) for monks and prayer halls (Chaityas) for religious activities. 25 of them were used as Viharas or residential caves while 4 were used as Chaitya or prayer halls. The elaborate rock-cut architecture and exquisite paintings found within the Ajanta Caves make them a significant cultural and historical site in India. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: The Ajanta Caves, located in Maharashtra, India, are known for their horse-shoe shape and are famous for both Viharas (monasteries) and Chaityas (prayer halls). The caves were excavated out of volcanic rocks and date back to the 2nd century BCE to 6th century CE. The Ajanta Caves consist of a total of 29 caves, carved into a horse-shoe-shaped cliff overlooking the Waghora River. These caves served as Buddhist monastic complexes and include both residential quarters (Viharas) for monks and prayer halls (Chaityas) for religious activities. 25 of them were used as Viharas or residential caves while 4 were used as Chaitya or prayer halls. The elaborate rock-cut architecture and exquisite paintings found within the Ajanta Caves make them a significant cultural and historical site in India. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 5. Question

Which cave complex is known for its horse-shoe shape and is famous for both Viharas and Chaityas?

• a) Nasik Caves

• b) Khandagiri Caves

• c) Ajanta Caves

• d) Udayagiri Caves

Explanation:

• The Ajanta Caves, located in Maharashtra, India, are known for their horse-shoe shape and are famous for both Viharas (monasteries) and Chaityas (prayer halls).

• The caves were excavated out of volcanic rocks and date back to the 2nd century BCE to 6th century CE.

• The Ajanta Caves consist of a total of 29 caves, carved into a horse-shoe-shaped cliff overlooking the Waghora River. These caves served as Buddhist monastic complexes and include both residential quarters (Viharas) for monks and prayer halls (Chaityas) for religious activities. 25 of them were used as Viharas or residential caves while 4 were used as Chaitya or prayer halls.

• The elaborate rock-cut architecture and exquisite paintings found within the Ajanta Caves make them a significant cultural and historical site in India.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

• The Ajanta Caves, located in Maharashtra, India, are known for their horse-shoe shape and are famous for both Viharas (monasteries) and Chaityas (prayer halls).

• The caves were excavated out of volcanic rocks and date back to the 2nd century BCE to 6th century CE.

• The elaborate rock-cut architecture and exquisite paintings found within the Ajanta Caves make them a significant cultural and historical site in India.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points A certain area is dug up, filled up with sand, and then a structure is built on it. Structures built on these ‘sandboxes’ can withstand earthquake because the seismic waves are absorbed by the sand. Which of the following dynasties employed the “Sand box’ technique? a) Hoysalas b) Kakatiyas c) Ikshavakus d) Vishnukundinas Correct Answer: b Answer: The ‘sandbox’ technique was quite unique to Kakatiya dynasty and was used by Kakatiya rulers for construction of the famous Ramappa Temple and the Thousand Pillar Temple in Warangal. The two temples, which are unaffected by seismic disturbances for hundreds of years, now stand testimony to the effectiveness of that technique. The technique involved filling the pit — dug up for laying foundation — with a mixture of sand lime, jaggery (for binding) and karakkaya (black myrobalan fruit), before the buildings were constructed on these ‘sandboxes’.The sandbox in the foundation acts as a cushion in case of earthquakes. Most of the vibrations caused by earthquake lose their strength while passing through the sand by the time they reach the actual foundation of the building. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Answer: The ‘sandbox’ technique was quite unique to Kakatiya dynasty and was used by Kakatiya rulers for construction of the famous Ramappa Temple and the Thousand Pillar Temple in Warangal. The two temples, which are unaffected by seismic disturbances for hundreds of years, now stand testimony to the effectiveness of that technique. The technique involved filling the pit — dug up for laying foundation — with a mixture of sand lime, jaggery (for binding) and karakkaya (black myrobalan fruit), before the buildings were constructed on these ‘sandboxes’.The sandbox in the foundation acts as a cushion in case of earthquakes. Most of the vibrations caused by earthquake lose their strength while passing through the sand by the time they reach the actual foundation of the building. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 6. Question

A certain area is dug up, filled up with sand, and then a structure is built on it. Structures built on these ‘sandboxes’ can withstand earthquake because the seismic waves are absorbed by the sand.

Which of the following dynasties employed the “Sand box’ technique?

• a) Hoysalas

• b) Kakatiyas

• c) Ikshavakus

• d) Vishnukundinas

• The ‘sandbox’ technique was quite unique to Kakatiya dynasty and was used by Kakatiya rulers for construction of the famous Ramappa Temple and the Thousand Pillar Temple in Warangal. The two temples, which are unaffected by seismic disturbances for hundreds of years, now stand testimony to the effectiveness of that technique.

• The technique involved filling the pit — dug up for laying foundation — with a mixture of sand lime, jaggery (for binding) and karakkaya (black myrobalan fruit), before the buildings were constructed on these ‘sandboxes’.The sandbox in the foundation acts as a cushion in case of earthquakes. Most of the vibrations caused by earthquake lose their strength while passing through the sand by the time they reach the actual foundation of the building.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements with reference to Khajuraho Group of Temples: The temples were constructed facing the direction of sunrise. The temples of Khajuraho consists erotic iconography which features sculptures of fairies with large hips and massive breasts. Sculptures on the temple walls depict four life goals of Hinduism. How many of the above given statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: c Explanation: Khajuaroa temples are located in Madhya Pradesh which is one of the most beautiful temples in India. In 1986 it was declared a World Heritage Site by UNESCO. There are a total of 25 temples still standing out of said 85 temples. These were built between 900 and 1130 AD by the Chandella rulers. It is said that every Chandella ruler built one temple during his reign. So it was a kind of tradition between them. Important features of the temples: The Khajuraho temples are primarily constructed using sandstone, with a granite base that is almost buried. These temples are renowned for their Nagara-style architecture. The architectural design of the Khajuraho temples includes a sanctum, an ante-chamber (antarala), a transept (maha mandapa), additional halls (ardha mandapa), a nave or mandapa, and a circumambulation path (Pradakshina-path) lit by large windows. Sculptures on the temple walls mainly depict Hindu deities and mythology, emphasizing the four life goals of Hinduism: dharma, kama, artha, and moksha. The temples’ carvings also depict scenes of various secular subjects such as dancers, musicians, disciples, and domestic scenes, alongside mythical creatures like villas, sardula, and other animals. Khajuraho temples are divided into three groups: the Western Group, the Eastern Group, and the Southern Group, each featuring temples dedicated to different deities and purposes. Some of the temples in Khajuraho follow the Panchayatana type, featuring four shrines dedicated to divinities and another shrine in front of the portico dedicated to the major deity’s vahana (vehicle). The temples were constructed facing the direction of sunrise, as per the Hindu architectural tradition. A notable feature of the Khajuraho temples is the presence of erotic iconography, showcasing sculptures of celestial nymphs, couples engaged in amorous activities, and scenes depicting the Narathara (human life cycle). The Khajuraho Temples are also known for their intricate sculptures of cults, devatas, surasundaris, and mythical creatures, contributing to their aesthetic appeal and historical. All the given statements are correct. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Khajuaroa temples are located in Madhya Pradesh which is one of the most beautiful temples in India. In 1986 it was declared a World Heritage Site by UNESCO. There are a total of 25 temples still standing out of said 85 temples. These were built between 900 and 1130 AD by the Chandella rulers. It is said that every Chandella ruler built one temple during his reign. So it was a kind of tradition between them. Important features of the temples: The Khajuraho temples are primarily constructed using sandstone, with a granite base that is almost buried. These temples are renowned for their Nagara-style architecture. The architectural design of the Khajuraho temples includes a sanctum, an ante-chamber (antarala), a transept (maha mandapa), additional halls (ardha mandapa), a nave or mandapa, and a circumambulation path (Pradakshina-path) lit by large windows. Sculptures on the temple walls mainly depict Hindu deities and mythology, emphasizing the four life goals of Hinduism: dharma, kama, artha, and moksha. The temples’ carvings also depict scenes of various secular subjects such as dancers, musicians, disciples, and domestic scenes, alongside mythical creatures like villas, sardula, and other animals. Khajuraho temples are divided into three groups: the Western Group, the Eastern Group, and the Southern Group, each featuring temples dedicated to different deities and purposes. Some of the temples in Khajuraho follow the Panchayatana type, featuring four shrines dedicated to divinities and another shrine in front of the portico dedicated to the major deity’s vahana (vehicle). The temples were constructed facing the direction of sunrise, as per the Hindu architectural tradition. A notable feature of the Khajuraho temples is the presence of erotic iconography, showcasing sculptures of celestial nymphs, couples engaged in amorous activities, and scenes depicting the Narathara (human life cycle). The Khajuraho Temples are also known for their intricate sculptures of cults, devatas, surasundaris, and mythical creatures, contributing to their aesthetic appeal and historical. All the given statements are correct. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements with reference to Khajuraho Group of Temples:

• The temples were constructed facing the direction of sunrise.

• The temples of Khajuraho consists erotic iconography which features sculptures of fairies with large hips and massive breasts.

• Sculptures on the temple walls depict four life goals of Hinduism.

How many of the above given statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Explanation:

• Khajuaroa temples are located in Madhya Pradesh which is one of the most beautiful temples in India. In 1986 it was declared a World Heritage Site by UNESCO.

• There are a total of 25 temples still standing out of said 85 temples. These were built between 900 and 1130 AD by the Chandella rulers. It is said that every Chandella ruler built one temple during his reign. So it was a kind of tradition between them.

• Important features of the temples:

• The Khajuraho temples are primarily constructed using sandstone, with a granite base that is almost buried.

• These temples are renowned for their Nagara-style architecture.

• The architectural design of the Khajuraho temples includes a sanctum, an ante-chamber (antarala), a transept (maha mandapa), additional halls (ardha mandapa), a nave or mandapa, and a circumambulation path (Pradakshina-path) lit by large windows.

• Sculptures on the temple walls mainly depict Hindu deities and mythology, emphasizing the four life goals of Hinduism: dharma, kama, artha, and moksha.

• The temples’ carvings also depict scenes of various secular subjects such as dancers, musicians, disciples, and domestic scenes, alongside mythical creatures like villas, sardula, and other animals.

• Khajuraho temples are divided into three groups: the Western Group, the Eastern Group, and the Southern Group, each featuring temples dedicated to different deities and purposes.

• Some of the temples in Khajuraho follow the Panchayatana type, featuring four shrines dedicated to divinities and another shrine in front of the portico dedicated to the major deity’s vahana (vehicle).

• The temples were constructed facing the direction of sunrise, as per the Hindu architectural tradition.

• A notable feature of the Khajuraho temples is the presence of erotic iconography, showcasing sculptures of celestial nymphs, couples engaged in amorous activities, and scenes depicting the Narathara (human life cycle).

• The Khajuraho Temples are also known for their intricate sculptures of cults, devatas, surasundaris, and mythical creatures, contributing to their aesthetic appeal and historical.

• All the given statements are correct.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

• Khajuaroa temples are located in Madhya Pradesh which is one of the most beautiful temples in India. In 1986 it was declared a World Heritage Site by UNESCO.

• Important features of the temples:

• The Khajuraho temples are primarily constructed using sandstone, with a granite base that is almost buried.

• These temples are renowned for their Nagara-style architecture.

• Sculptures on the temple walls mainly depict Hindu deities and mythology, emphasizing the four life goals of Hinduism: dharma, kama, artha, and moksha.

• Khajuraho temples are divided into three groups: the Western Group, the Eastern Group, and the Southern Group, each featuring temples dedicated to different deities and purposes.

• The temples were constructed facing the direction of sunrise, as per the Hindu architectural tradition.

• The Khajuraho Temples are also known for their intricate sculptures of cults, devatas, surasundaris, and mythical creatures, contributing to their aesthetic appeal and historical.

• All the given statements are correct.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points What narrative does the mural in the first cave at Rudragiri Hillock portray? a) Battle between Rama and Ravana b) Battle between Vali and Sugriva c) Hanuman burning Lanka d) Construction of Ram Setu Correct Answer: b Explanation: Recently, a fascinating fusion of rock art was spotted at Rudragiri hillock. In Andhra Pradesh, on the Rudragiri hillock, a 1300 AD Kakatiya era Mural was found superimposed on prehistoric Mesolithic-era artwork. A combination of prehistoric rock paintings from the Mesolithic period and exquisite artwork from the Kakatiya dynasty were The first cave presents a narrative mural portraying the intense battle between the Vanara brothers, Vali and Sugriva. Ramayana fresco depicting Hanuman lifting the Sanjeevani hill with his right hand painted a conch and fire altars can be seen to his right and another prehistoric painting to the left. In the middle cave, a grand sketch of Hanuman, accompanied by sacred symbols of the conch (Sankha) and the fire altar (Yagna Vedi), are seen. The third cave houses the prehistoric rock paintings from the Mesolithic era. Ganapati Deva Maharaja (1199-1262 AD) who was the built the Muppavaram temple and a prominent figure of the Kakatiya dynasty is likely to be the patron of the rich ancient mural heritage found at Rudragiri. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Recently, a fascinating fusion of rock art was spotted at Rudragiri hillock. In Andhra Pradesh, on the Rudragiri hillock, a 1300 AD Kakatiya era Mural was found superimposed on prehistoric Mesolithic-era artwork. A combination of prehistoric rock paintings from the Mesolithic period and exquisite artwork from the Kakatiya dynasty were The first cave presents a narrative mural portraying the intense battle between the Vanara brothers, Vali and Sugriva. Ramayana fresco depicting Hanuman lifting the Sanjeevani hill with his right hand painted a conch and fire altars can be seen to his right and another prehistoric painting to the left. In the middle cave, a grand sketch of Hanuman, accompanied by sacred symbols of the conch (Sankha) and the fire altar (Yagna Vedi), are seen. The third cave houses the prehistoric rock paintings from the Mesolithic era. Ganapati Deva Maharaja (1199-1262 AD) who was the built the Muppavaram temple and a prominent figure of the Kakatiya dynasty is likely to be the patron of the rich ancient mural heritage found at Rudragiri. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 8. Question

What narrative does the mural in the first cave at Rudragiri Hillock portray?

• a) Battle between Rama and Ravana

• b) Battle between Vali and Sugriva

• c) Hanuman burning Lanka

• d) Construction of Ram Setu

Explanation:

• Recently, a fascinating fusion of rock art was spotted at Rudragiri hillock. In Andhra Pradesh, on the Rudragiri hillock, a 1300 AD Kakatiya era Mural was found superimposed on prehistoric Mesolithic-era artwork.

• A combination of prehistoric rock paintings from the Mesolithic period and exquisite artwork from the Kakatiya dynasty were

• The first cave presents a narrative mural portraying the intense battle between the Vanara brothers, Vali and Sugriva.

• Ramayana fresco depicting Hanuman lifting the Sanjeevani hill with his right hand painted a conch and fire altars can be seen to his right and another prehistoric painting to the left.

• In the middle cave, a grand sketch of Hanuman, accompanied by sacred symbols of the conch (Sankha) and the fire altar (Yagna Vedi), are seen.

• The third cave houses the prehistoric rock paintings from the Mesolithic era.

• Ganapati Deva Maharaja (1199-1262 AD) who was the built the Muppavaram temple and a prominent figure of the Kakatiya dynasty is likely to be the patron of the rich ancient mural heritage found at Rudragiri.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• A combination of prehistoric rock paintings from the Mesolithic period and exquisite artwork from the Kakatiya dynasty were

• The first cave presents a narrative mural portraying the intense battle between the Vanara brothers, Vali and Sugriva.

• Ramayana fresco depicting Hanuman lifting the Sanjeevani hill with his right hand painted a conch and fire altars can be seen to his right and another prehistoric painting to the left.

• In the middle cave, a grand sketch of Hanuman, accompanied by sacred symbols of the conch (Sankha) and the fire altar (Yagna Vedi), are seen.

• The third cave houses the prehistoric rock paintings from the Mesolithic era.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Consider the following: Cycle of desire and suffering Concept of time Concept of reincarnation Victory of truth over evil Which of the above concepts does the Konark Wheel represent in Hindu mythology? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: a Explanation: A replica of the Konark Wheel from the Sun temple in Odisha’s Puri served as the backdrop of the Prime Minister of India’s welcome handshake with G20 leaders as they arrived at the summit venue, Bharat Mandapam. The Konark wheel was built during the 13th century under the reign of King Narasimhadeva-I. The wheel with 24 spokes is also adapted into India’s national flag and embodies India’s ancient wisdom, advanced civilisation, and architectural excellence. The wheel symbolizes the Sun God’s chariot and serves as a representation of the cosmic cycle and the concept of time in Hindu mythology. The rotating motion of the Konark Wheel symbolizes time, Kalachakra as well as progress and continuous change. The Konark Sun Temple is designed in the shape of a massive chariot drawn by seven spirited horses. The temple is adorned with 12 pairs of gorgeously decorated wheels at its base, making a total of 24 wheels. Each wheel has a diameter of 9 feet 9 inches and features 8 wider spokes and 8 thinner spokes. The Konark Wheel is adorned with intricately carved spokes and other ornamental details. It is a marvel of ancient stone carving and craftsmanship, reflecting the technical and artistic expertise of the artisans of that era. Carvings and decorations: The 24 wheels of the Konark Temple, though similar in size and architecture, feature unique carvings all over The thicker spokes are adorned with circular medallions at their centers. The axles of the wheels project about one foot from the surface, also decorated at their ends. The rims of the wheels are intricately carved with foliage designs, along with depictions of various birds and animals. The medallions in the spokes of the wheels showcase figures of women in various poses, often of a sensual nature. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: A replica of the Konark Wheel from the Sun temple in Odisha’s Puri served as the backdrop of the Prime Minister of India’s welcome handshake with G20 leaders as they arrived at the summit venue, Bharat Mandapam. The Konark wheel was built during the 13th century under the reign of King Narasimhadeva-I. The wheel with 24 spokes is also adapted into India’s national flag and embodies India’s ancient wisdom, advanced civilisation, and architectural excellence. The wheel symbolizes the Sun God’s chariot and serves as a representation of the cosmic cycle and the concept of time in Hindu mythology. The rotating motion of the Konark Wheel symbolizes time, Kalachakra as well as progress and continuous change. The Konark Sun Temple is designed in the shape of a massive chariot drawn by seven spirited horses. The temple is adorned with 12 pairs of gorgeously decorated wheels at its base, making a total of 24 wheels. Each wheel has a diameter of 9 feet 9 inches and features 8 wider spokes and 8 thinner spokes. The Konark Wheel is adorned with intricately carved spokes and other ornamental details. It is a marvel of ancient stone carving and craftsmanship, reflecting the technical and artistic expertise of the artisans of that era. Carvings and decorations: The 24 wheels of the Konark Temple, though similar in size and architecture, feature unique carvings all over The thicker spokes are adorned with circular medallions at their centers. The axles of the wheels project about one foot from the surface, also decorated at their ends. The rims of the wheels are intricately carved with foliage designs, along with depictions of various birds and animals. The medallions in the spokes of the wheels showcase figures of women in various poses, often of a sensual nature. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following:

• Cycle of desire and suffering

• Concept of time

• Concept of reincarnation

• Victory of truth over evil

Which of the above concepts does the Konark Wheel represent in Hindu mythology?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

• A replica of the Konark Wheel from the Sun temple in Odisha’s Puri served as the backdrop of the Prime Minister of India’s welcome handshake with G20 leaders as they arrived at the summit venue, Bharat Mandapam.

• The Konark wheel was built during the 13th century under the reign of King Narasimhadeva-I.

• The wheel with 24 spokes is also adapted into India’s national flag and embodies India’s ancient wisdom, advanced civilisation, and architectural excellence.

• The wheel symbolizes the Sun God’s chariot and serves as a representation of the cosmic cycle and the concept of time in Hindu mythology. The rotating motion of the Konark Wheel symbolizes time, Kalachakra as well as progress and continuous change.

• The Konark Sun Temple is designed in the shape of a massive chariot drawn by seven spirited horses.

• The temple is adorned with 12 pairs of gorgeously decorated wheels at its base, making a total of 24 wheels.

• Each wheel has a diameter of 9 feet 9 inches and features 8 wider spokes and 8 thinner spokes.

• The Konark Wheel is adorned with intricately carved spokes and other ornamental details.

• It is a marvel of ancient stone carving and craftsmanship, reflecting the technical and artistic expertise of the artisans of that era.

• Carvings and decorations:

• The 24 wheels of the Konark Temple, though similar in size and architecture, feature unique carvings all over

• The thicker spokes are adorned with circular medallions at their centers.

• The axles of the wheels project about one foot from the surface, also decorated at their ends.

• The rims of the wheels are intricately carved with foliage designs, along with depictions of various birds and animals.

• The medallions in the spokes of the wheels showcase figures of women in various poses, often of a sensual nature.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• The Konark wheel was built during the 13th century under the reign of King Narasimhadeva-I.

• The wheel with 24 spokes is also adapted into India’s national flag and embodies India’s ancient wisdom, advanced civilisation, and architectural excellence.

• The Konark Sun Temple is designed in the shape of a massive chariot drawn by seven spirited horses.

• The temple is adorned with 12 pairs of gorgeously decorated wheels at its base, making a total of 24 wheels.

• Each wheel has a diameter of 9 feet 9 inches and features 8 wider spokes and 8 thinner spokes.

• The Konark Wheel is adorned with intricately carved spokes and other ornamental details.

• It is a marvel of ancient stone carving and craftsmanship, reflecting the technical and artistic expertise of the artisans of that era.

• Carvings and decorations:

• The 24 wheels of the Konark Temple, though similar in size and architecture, feature unique carvings all over

• The thicker spokes are adorned with circular medallions at their centers.

• The axles of the wheels project about one foot from the surface, also decorated at their ends.

• The rims of the wheels are intricately carved with foliage designs, along with depictions of various birds and animals.

• The medallions in the spokes of the wheels showcase figures of women in various poses, often of a sensual nature.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements with reference to the Phanigiri artifacts: The artifacts discovered at Phanigiri belongs to Buddhist, Jain and Hindu religions. The thoranas discovered at Phanigiri are the first found south of Sanchi. The artifacts belong to Hinayana period of Buddhism. Which of the above given statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 1 and 2 only d) 1 ,2 and 3 Correct Answer: b Explanation: The Phanigiri Buddhist artefacts, discovered in 1942 and dating from 200 BCE to 400 CE, were recently showcased at the New York Metropolitan Museum of Art in an exhibition called “The Tree and Serpent.” Phanigiri, often referred to as the “hillock of snake hood,” is a small village approximately 150 km from Hyderabad, with significant historical and spiritual significance in Buddhism. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Remarkable findings at Phanigiri are a set of thoranas, which are stone gateways. The thoranas discovered at Phanigiri are very important as they are among the first found south of Sanchi. Hence, statement 2 is correct. One of the thoranas displays both Mahayana and Hinayana schools of Buddhist thought, suggesting coexistence despite philosophical differences. Phanigiri provides evidence of the deification of Buddha and a transition towards canonization and ritual in Buddhist practices. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. The monograph of the event has the image of the Buddha wearing what looks like a Roman toga with folds carved in limestone. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: The Phanigiri Buddhist artefacts, discovered in 1942 and dating from 200 BCE to 400 CE, were recently showcased at the New York Metropolitan Museum of Art in an exhibition called “The Tree and Serpent.” Phanigiri, often referred to as the “hillock of snake hood,” is a small village approximately 150 km from Hyderabad, with significant historical and spiritual significance in Buddhism. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Remarkable findings at Phanigiri are a set of thoranas, which are stone gateways. The thoranas discovered at Phanigiri are very important as they are among the first found south of Sanchi. Hence, statement 2 is correct. One of the thoranas displays both Mahayana and Hinayana schools of Buddhist thought, suggesting coexistence despite philosophical differences. Phanigiri provides evidence of the deification of Buddha and a transition towards canonization and ritual in Buddhist practices. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. The monograph of the event has the image of the Buddha wearing what looks like a Roman toga with folds carved in limestone. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements with reference to the Phanigiri artifacts:

• The artifacts discovered at Phanigiri belongs to Buddhist, Jain and Hindu religions.

• The thoranas discovered at Phanigiri are the first found south of Sanchi.

• The artifacts belong to Hinayana period of Buddhism.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

• c) 1 and 2 only

• d) 1 ,2 and 3

Explanation:

• The Phanigiri Buddhist artefacts, discovered in 1942 and dating from 200 BCE to 400 CE, were recently showcased at the New York Metropolitan Museum of Art in an exhibition called “The Tree and Serpent.”

• Phanigiri, often referred to as the “hillock of snake hood,” is a small village approximately 150 km from Hyderabad, with significant historical and spiritual significance in Buddhism. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• Remarkable findings at Phanigiri are a set of thoranas, which are stone gateways. The thoranas discovered at Phanigiri are very important as they are among the first found south of Sanchi. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• One of the thoranas displays both Mahayana and Hinayana schools of Buddhist thought, suggesting coexistence despite philosophical differences. Phanigiri provides evidence of the deification of Buddha and a transition towards canonization and ritual in Buddhist practices. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• The monograph of the event has the image of the Buddha wearing what looks like a Roman toga with folds carved in limestone.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• The monograph of the event has the image of the Buddha wearing what looks like a Roman toga with folds carved in limestone.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Payment banks in India: They are registered as public limited companies under the Companies Act, 2013. They must invest 25% of the demand deposit balances in corporate bonds. They cannot accept demand deposits, such as savings and current accounts. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Payments Banks in India are indeed registered as public limited companies under the Companies Act, 2013. This is a prerequisite for obtaining a license from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to operate as a Payments Bank. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Payments Banks are required to invest a minimum of 75% of their “demand deposit balances” in Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)-eligible government securities/treasury bills with maturity up to one year and hold a maximum of 25% in current and time/fixed deposits with other scheduled commercial banks for operational purposes and liquidity management. They are not permitted to invest demand deposit balances in corporate bonds. Payments Banks are allowed to accept demand deposits, which include savings and current accounts. This is one of the fundamental services they offer, albeit with certain restrictions on the amount per customer and the total balance they can hold. Hence, statement 2 and statement 3 are incorrect. https://www.rbi.org.in/commonperson/English/scripts/FAQs.aspx?Id=3573 Incorrect Solution: A Payments Banks in India are indeed registered as public limited companies under the Companies Act, 2013. This is a prerequisite for obtaining a license from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to operate as a Payments Bank. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Payments Banks are required to invest a minimum of 75% of their “demand deposit balances” in Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)-eligible government securities/treasury bills with maturity up to one year and hold a maximum of 25% in current and time/fixed deposits with other scheduled commercial banks for operational purposes and liquidity management. They are not permitted to invest demand deposit balances in corporate bonds. Payments Banks are allowed to accept demand deposits, which include savings and current accounts. This is one of the fundamental services they offer, albeit with certain restrictions on the amount per customer and the total balance they can hold. Hence, statement 2 and statement 3 are incorrect. https://www.rbi.org.in/commonperson/English/scripts/FAQs.aspx?Id=3573

#### 11. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Payment banks in India:

• They are registered as public limited companies under the Companies Act, 2013.

• They must invest 25% of the demand deposit balances in corporate bonds.

• They cannot accept demand deposits, such as savings and current accounts.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

Payments Banks in India are indeed registered as public limited companies under the Companies Act, 2013. This is a prerequisite for obtaining a license from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to operate as a Payments Bank.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Payments Banks are required to invest a minimum of 75% of their “demand deposit balances” in Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)-eligible government securities/treasury bills with maturity up to one year and hold a maximum of 25% in current and time/fixed deposits with other scheduled commercial banks for operational purposes and liquidity management. They are not permitted to invest demand deposit balances in corporate bonds.

Payments Banks are allowed to accept demand deposits, which include savings and current accounts. This is one of the fundamental services they offer, albeit with certain restrictions on the amount per customer and the total balance they can hold.

Hence, statement 2 and statement 3 are incorrect.

https://www.rbi.org.in/commonperson/English/scripts/FAQs.aspx?Id=3573

Solution: A

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Hence, statement 2 and statement 3 are incorrect.

https://www.rbi.org.in/commonperson/English/scripts/FAQs.aspx?Id=3573

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Penguins It can only be found in cold climates such as Antarctica. The black and white coloration of penguins acts as a form of camouflage Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B Penguins can be found in a variety of climates, not just cold ones like Antarctica. While many species of penguins are native to colder environments in the Southern Hemisphere, including Antarctica, species such as the Galápagos penguin live in warmer climates on the Galápagos Islands near the equator. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. The black and white coloration of penguins, known as countershading, is a form of camouflage. The white belly blends with the bright surface when viewed from below, and the dark back camouflages with the dark ocean depths when seen from above. This coloration helps protect penguins from predators while swimming. Hence, statement 2 is correct. https://indianexpress.com/article/trending/trending-globally/penguins-inspect-work-of-antarctic-carpenter-video-melts-hearts-online-9173146/ Incorrect Solution: B Penguins can be found in a variety of climates, not just cold ones like Antarctica. While many species of penguins are native to colder environments in the Southern Hemisphere, including Antarctica, species such as the Galápagos penguin live in warmer climates on the Galápagos Islands near the equator. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. The black and white coloration of penguins, known as countershading, is a form of camouflage. The white belly blends with the bright surface when viewed from below, and the dark back camouflages with the dark ocean depths when seen from above. This coloration helps protect penguins from predators while swimming. Hence, statement 2 is correct. https://indianexpress.com/article/trending/trending-globally/penguins-inspect-work-of-antarctic-carpenter-video-melts-hearts-online-9173146/

#### 12. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Penguins

• It can only be found in cold climates such as Antarctica.

• The black and white coloration of penguins acts as a form of camouflage

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

Penguins can be found in a variety of climates, not just cold ones like Antarctica. While many species of penguins are native to colder environments in the Southern Hemisphere, including Antarctica, species such as the Galápagos penguin live in warmer climates on the Galápagos Islands near the equator.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

The black and white coloration of penguins, known as countershading, is a form of camouflage. The white belly blends with the bright surface when viewed from below, and the dark back camouflages with the dark ocean depths when seen from above. This coloration helps protect penguins from predators while swimming.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

https://indianexpress.com/article/trending/trending-globally/penguins-inspect-work-of-antarctic-carpenter-video-melts-hearts-online-9173146/

Solution: B

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

https://indianexpress.com/article/trending/trending-globally/penguins-inspect-work-of-antarctic-carpenter-video-melts-hearts-online-9173146/

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points When assessing poverty, what does the headcount ratio indicate? (a) The proportion of the population that falls below the poverty line (b) The average income or consumption of a nation (c) The depth of poverty experienced by the poorest individuals (d) The distribution of income among a population Correct Solution: A The head count ratio (HCR) is the population proportion that exists, or lives, below the poverty threshold. One of the undesirable features of the head count ratio is that it ignores the depth of poverty; if the poor become poorer, the head count index does not change. https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-economics/multidimensional-poverty-meaning-numbers-9141495. Incorrect Solution: A The head count ratio (HCR) is the population proportion that exists, or lives, below the poverty threshold. One of the undesirable features of the head count ratio is that it ignores the depth of poverty; if the poor become poorer, the head count index does not change. https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-economics/multidimensional-poverty-meaning-numbers-9141495.

#### 13. Question

When assessing poverty, what does the headcount ratio indicate?

• (a) The proportion of the population that falls below the poverty line

• (b) The average income or consumption of a nation

• (c) The depth of poverty experienced by the poorest individuals

• (d) The distribution of income among a population

Solution: A

The head count ratio (HCR) is the population proportion that exists, or lives, below the poverty threshold. One of the undesirable features of the head count ratio is that it ignores the depth of poverty; if the poor become poorer, the head count index does not change.

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-economics/multidimensional-poverty-meaning-numbers-9141495.

Solution: A

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-economics/multidimensional-poverty-meaning-numbers-9141495.

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points What is the core principle of NATO’s Article 5? (a) It allows for the creation of new member states. (b) It mandates an economic sanction against aggressor states. (c) It states that an attack on one member is an attack on all. (d) It outlines the defense spending requirements for member countries. Correct Solution: C Article 5 is the cornerstone of NATO’s foundation, ensuring collective defense. It stipulates that an armed attack against one or more member countries in Europe or North America shall be considered an attack against all members. It is a mutual defense clause meaning that if one member is attacked, it is considered as an attack on the entire alliance, obliging each member to assist the attacked member(s), potentially including the use of armed force. This principle of collective defense is a deterrent mechanism intended to maintain peace and security among member nations. Article 5 has only been invoked once in NATO’s history, following the September 11, 2001, terrorist attacks in the United States https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-global/trump-nato-funding-article-5-9159886/ Incorrect Solution: C Article 5 is the cornerstone of NATO’s foundation, ensuring collective defense. It stipulates that an armed attack against one or more member countries in Europe or North America shall be considered an attack against all members. It is a mutual defense clause meaning that if one member is attacked, it is considered as an attack on the entire alliance, obliging each member to assist the attacked member(s), potentially including the use of armed force. This principle of collective defense is a deterrent mechanism intended to maintain peace and security among member nations. Article 5 has only been invoked once in NATO’s history, following the September 11, 2001, terrorist attacks in the United States https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-global/trump-nato-funding-article-5-9159886/

#### 14. Question

What is the core principle of NATO’s Article 5?

• (a) It allows for the creation of new member states.

• (b) It mandates an economic sanction against aggressor states.

• (c) It states that an attack on one member is an attack on all.

• (d) It outlines the defense spending requirements for member countries.

Solution: C

Article 5 is the cornerstone of NATO’s foundation, ensuring collective defense. It stipulates that an armed attack against one or more member countries in Europe or North America shall be considered an attack against all members. It is a mutual defense clause meaning that if one member is attacked, it is considered as an attack on the entire alliance, obliging each member to assist the attacked member(s), potentially including the use of armed force. This principle of collective defense is a deterrent mechanism intended to maintain peace and security among member nations.

Article 5 has only been invoked once in NATO’s history, following the September 11, 2001, terrorist attacks in the United States

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-global/trump-nato-funding-article-5-9159886/

Solution: C

Article 5 has only been invoked once in NATO’s history, following the September 11, 2001, terrorist attacks in the United States

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-global/trump-nato-funding-article-5-9159886/

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the “ Atmospheric River” They are large, flowing columns of condensed water vapor in the atmosphere. They are found only over oceans and do not impact the land. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A Atmospheric rivers are large, flowing columns of condensed water vapor in the atmosphere. They carry vast amounts of moisture and are responsible for significant rain and snowfall events, especially when they make landfall. Hence, statement 1 is correct. When these systems move inland from the ocean, they can release the moisture they carry in the form of intense rain or snow, often leading to significant precipitation impacts on the affected regions, including potential flooding and water supply contributions. They are not confined to oceans; their impact on land is a critical aspect of their significance in weather and climate patterns. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. https://www.noaa.gov/stories/what-are-atmospheric-rivers Incorrect Solution: A Atmospheric rivers are large, flowing columns of condensed water vapor in the atmosphere. They carry vast amounts of moisture and are responsible for significant rain and snowfall events, especially when they make landfall. Hence, statement 1 is correct. When these systems move inland from the ocean, they can release the moisture they carry in the form of intense rain or snow, often leading to significant precipitation impacts on the affected regions, including potential flooding and water supply contributions. They are not confined to oceans; their impact on land is a critical aspect of their significance in weather and climate patterns. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. https://www.noaa.gov/stories/what-are-atmospheric-rivers

#### 15. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the “ Atmospheric River”

• They are large, flowing columns of condensed water vapor in the atmosphere.

• They are found only over oceans and do not impact the land.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

Atmospheric rivers are large, flowing columns of condensed water vapor in the atmosphere. They carry vast amounts of moisture and are responsible for significant rain and snowfall events, especially when they make landfall.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

When these systems move inland from the ocean, they can release the moisture they carry in the form of intense rain or snow, often leading to significant precipitation impacts on the affected regions, including potential flooding and water supply contributions. They are not confined to oceans; their impact on land is a critical aspect of their significance in weather and climate patterns.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

https://www.noaa.gov/stories/what-are-atmospheric-rivers

Solution: A

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

https://www.noaa.gov/stories/what-are-atmospheric-rivers

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Katabatic Winds: They carry high-density air from higher elevations down the slope. The descending katabatic winds have low relative humidity. These are termed as rain shadow winds including Chinook and Fohn. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Unlike anabatic wind which is an upslope wind, katabatic winds are downslope winds. In a simple definition, these are winds that carry high-density air from higher elevations down the slope. Other examples of katabatic winds include bora winds of the Adriatic, oroshi winds of Japan, and piteraq in Greenland. Statement 3 is not correct: Some winds such as chinook, fohn, and bergwind are more of rain shadow winds which are formed when the moist air is driven up the slope on the windward side descend on the leeward side as the warm and dry wind. The descending katabatic winds have low relative humidity. Statement 2 is correct Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Unlike anabatic wind which is an upslope wind, katabatic winds are downslope winds. In a simple definition, these are winds that carry high-density air from higher elevations down the slope. Other examples of katabatic winds include bora winds of the Adriatic, oroshi winds of Japan, and piteraq in Greenland. Statement 3 is not correct: Some winds such as chinook, fohn, and bergwind are more of rain shadow winds which are formed when the moist air is driven up the slope on the windward side descend on the leeward side as the warm and dry wind. The descending katabatic winds have low relative humidity. Statement 2 is correct

#### 16. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Katabatic Winds:

• They carry high-density air from higher elevations down the slope.

• The descending katabatic winds have low relative humidity.

• These are termed as rain shadow winds including Chinook and Fohn.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Unlike anabatic wind which is an upslope wind, katabatic winds are downslope winds. In a simple definition, these are winds that carry high-density air from higher elevations down the slope.

Other examples of katabatic winds include bora winds of the Adriatic, oroshi winds of Japan, and piteraq in Greenland.

Statement 3 is not correct: Some winds such as chinook, fohn, and bergwind are more of rain shadow winds which are formed when the moist air is driven up the slope on the windward side descend on the leeward side as the warm and dry wind.

The descending katabatic winds have low relative humidity. Statement 2 is correct

Answer: B

Explanation:

Other examples of katabatic winds include bora winds of the Adriatic, oroshi winds of Japan, and piteraq in Greenland.

The descending katabatic winds have low relative humidity. Statement 2 is correct

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs: Places in the news- Associated Locations Sela Tunnel- India Gulf of Tonkin- Russia Zemithang Valley- Bhutan Sabroom land Port- Myanmar How many of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Answer: A Explanation: Pair 1 is correctly matched: The Sela Tunnel Project is located in the West Kameng District of Arunachal Pradesh. Pair 2 is not correctly matched: The Gulf of Tonkin is located off the coast of Northern Vietnam and Southern China. Pair 3 is not correctly matched: The Zemithang Valley is one of the hidden gems of Arunachal Pradesh, known for its vast golden farmlands, wide open valleys, and majestic mountains. Pair 4 is not correctly matched: The Sabroom Land Port is located in South Tripura, which will facilitate movement of people and enhance the connectivity, trade & tourism between NE Region & Bangladesh. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Pair 1 is correctly matched: The Sela Tunnel Project is located in the West Kameng District of Arunachal Pradesh. Pair 2 is not correctly matched: The Gulf of Tonkin is located off the coast of Northern Vietnam and Southern China. Pair 3 is not correctly matched: The Zemithang Valley is one of the hidden gems of Arunachal Pradesh, known for its vast golden farmlands, wide open valleys, and majestic mountains. Pair 4 is not correctly matched: The Sabroom Land Port is located in South Tripura, which will facilitate movement of people and enhance the connectivity, trade & tourism between NE Region & Bangladesh.

#### 17. Question

Consider the following pairs:

Places in the news- Associated Locations

• Sela Tunnel- India

• Gulf of Tonkin- Russia

• Zemithang Valley- Bhutan

• Sabroom land Port- Myanmar

How many of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Answer: A

Explanation:

Pair 1 is correctly matched: The Sela Tunnel Project is located in the West Kameng District of Arunachal Pradesh.

Pair 2 is not correctly matched: The Gulf of Tonkin is located off the coast of Northern Vietnam and Southern China.

Pair 3 is not correctly matched: The Zemithang Valley is one of the hidden gems of Arunachal Pradesh, known for its vast golden farmlands, wide open valleys, and majestic mountains.

Pair 4 is not correctly matched: The Sabroom Land Port is located in South Tripura, which will facilitate movement of people and enhance the connectivity, trade & tourism between NE Region & Bangladesh.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Pair 1 is correctly matched: The Sela Tunnel Project is located in the West Kameng District of Arunachal Pradesh.

Pair 2 is not correctly matched: The Gulf of Tonkin is located off the coast of Northern Vietnam and Southern China.

Pair 3 is not correctly matched: The Zemithang Valley is one of the hidden gems of Arunachal Pradesh, known for its vast golden farmlands, wide open valleys, and majestic mountains.

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Asbestos is a group of naturally occurring silicate minerals. All forms of asbestos are carcinogenic to humans. Exposure to asbestos can cause mesothelioma. Asbestos contain atoms of oxygen in their molecular structure. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Answer: D Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Asbestos is a group of naturally occurring silicate minerals composed of long, thin fibres, with different shapes and colours. Chrysotile asbestos is the most commonly used and commercially important type of asbestos nowadays. Statement 2 is correct: All forms of asbestos are carcinogenic to humans. Statement 3 is correct: Exposure to asbestos, including chrysotile, causes cancer of the lung, larynx, and ovaries, and also mesothelioma. Asbestos contamination as an impurity has been found in consumer products, including powdered cosmetics, baby powder and crayons. Statement 4 is correct: It has curly, serpentine-shaped fibres and is primarily composed of magnesium and silicate. Asbestos contain atoms of silicon and oxygen in their molecular structure. Asbestos exposure is also responsible for other diseases such as asbestosis (fibrosis of the lungs), and plaques, thickening and effusion in the pleura. Incorrect Answer: D Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Asbestos is a group of naturally occurring silicate minerals composed of long, thin fibres, with different shapes and colours. Chrysotile asbestos is the most commonly used and commercially important type of asbestos nowadays. Statement 2 is correct: All forms of asbestos are carcinogenic to humans. Statement 3 is correct: Exposure to asbestos, including chrysotile, causes cancer of the lung, larynx, and ovaries, and also mesothelioma. Asbestos contamination as an impurity has been found in consumer products, including powdered cosmetics, baby powder and crayons. Statement 4 is correct: It has curly, serpentine-shaped fibres and is primarily composed of magnesium and silicate. Asbestos contain atoms of silicon and oxygen in their molecular structure. Asbestos exposure is also responsible for other diseases such as asbestosis (fibrosis of the lungs), and plaques, thickening and effusion in the pleura.

#### 18. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Asbestos is a group of naturally occurring silicate minerals.

• All forms of asbestos are carcinogenic to humans.

• Exposure to asbestos can cause mesothelioma.

• Asbestos contain atoms of oxygen in their molecular structure.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Answer: D

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Asbestos is a group of naturally occurring silicate minerals composed of long, thin fibres, with different shapes and colours.

Chrysotile asbestos is the most commonly used and commercially important type of asbestos nowadays.

Statement 2 is correct: All forms of asbestos are carcinogenic to humans.

Statement 3 is correct: Exposure to asbestos, including chrysotile, causes cancer of the lung, larynx, and ovaries, and also mesothelioma.

Asbestos contamination as an impurity has been found in consumer products, including powdered cosmetics, baby powder and crayons.

Statement 4 is correct: It has curly, serpentine-shaped fibres and is primarily composed of magnesium and silicate. Asbestos contain atoms of silicon and oxygen in their molecular structure.

Asbestos exposure is also responsible for other diseases such as asbestosis (fibrosis of the lungs), and plaques, thickening and effusion in the pleura.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Asbestos is a group of naturally occurring silicate minerals composed of long, thin fibres, with different shapes and colours.

Chrysotile asbestos is the most commonly used and commercially important type of asbestos nowadays.

Statement 2 is correct: All forms of asbestos are carcinogenic to humans.

Statement 3 is correct: Exposure to asbestos, including chrysotile, causes cancer of the lung, larynx, and ovaries, and also mesothelioma.

Asbestos contamination as an impurity has been found in consumer products, including powdered cosmetics, baby powder and crayons.

Statement 4 is correct: It has curly, serpentine-shaped fibres and is primarily composed of magnesium and silicate. Asbestos contain atoms of silicon and oxygen in their molecular structure.

Asbestos exposure is also responsible for other diseases such as asbestosis (fibrosis of the lungs), and plaques, thickening and effusion in the pleura.

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points With reference to Red mud, consider the following statements: It is produced during the production of alumina. It contains toxic heavy metals such as arsenic and lead. Its high alkalinity makes it extremely corrosive. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Red mud is a product of the Bayer process during the production of alumina. As the temperature and pressure increase, the solubility of red mud decreases with sodium hydroxide. Statement 2 is correct: Bauxite residue or Red Mud, contains toxic heavy metals such as arsenic, lead, cadmium, chromium, vanadium and mercury. Statement 3 is correct: Its high alkalinity makes it extremely corrosive and damaging to soil and life forms — it can be harmful if ingested or inhaled — posing a significant threat to the environment. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Red mud is a product of the Bayer process during the production of alumina. As the temperature and pressure increase, the solubility of red mud decreases with sodium hydroxide. Statement 2 is correct: Bauxite residue or Red Mud, contains toxic heavy metals such as arsenic, lead, cadmium, chromium, vanadium and mercury. Statement 3 is correct: Its high alkalinity makes it extremely corrosive and damaging to soil and life forms — it can be harmful if ingested or inhaled — posing a significant threat to the environment.

#### 19. Question

With reference to Red mud, consider the following statements:

• It is produced during the production of alumina.

• It contains toxic heavy metals such as arsenic and lead.

• Its high alkalinity makes it extremely corrosive.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Red mud is a product of the Bayer process during the production of alumina. As the temperature and pressure increase, the solubility of red mud decreases with sodium hydroxide.

Statement 2 is correct: Bauxite residue or Red Mud, contains toxic heavy metals such as arsenic, lead, cadmium, chromium, vanadium and mercury.

Statement 3 is correct: Its high alkalinity makes it extremely corrosive and damaging to soil and life forms — it can be harmful if ingested or inhaled — posing a significant threat to the environment.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 2 is correct: Bauxite residue or Red Mud, contains toxic heavy metals such as arsenic, lead, cadmium, chromium, vanadium and mercury.

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Which one of the following is an initiative by India and five ASEAN countries, for cooperation in tourism, culture, education, as well as transport and communications and was launched with the signing of the Vientiane Declaration? (a) The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (b) The Indian Ocean Rim Association (c) The Mekong-Ganga Cooperation (d) The International Forum for Economic Cooperation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Option (c) is correct: The Mekong-Ganga Cooperation (MGC) is an initiative by six countries – India and five ASEAN countries, namely, Cambodia, Lao PDR, Myanmar, Thailand, and Vietnam for cooperation in tourism, culture, education, as well as transport and communications. It was launched in November 2000 in Vientiane, Lao PDR with the signing of the Vientiane Declaration. The grouping was initially called Ganga Suvarnabhumi Programme (GMSP). The MGC is also indicative of the cultural and commercial linkages among the member countries of the MGC down the centuries. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Option (c) is correct: The Mekong-Ganga Cooperation (MGC) is an initiative by six countries – India and five ASEAN countries, namely, Cambodia, Lao PDR, Myanmar, Thailand, and Vietnam for cooperation in tourism, culture, education, as well as transport and communications. It was launched in November 2000 in Vientiane, Lao PDR with the signing of the Vientiane Declaration. The grouping was initially called Ganga Suvarnabhumi Programme (GMSP). The MGC is also indicative of the cultural and commercial linkages among the member countries of the MGC down the centuries.

#### 20. Question

Which one of the following is an initiative by India and five ASEAN countries, for cooperation in tourism, culture, education, as well as transport and communications and was launched with the signing of the Vientiane Declaration?

• (a) The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation

• (b) The Indian Ocean Rim Association

• (c) The Mekong-Ganga Cooperation

• (d) The International Forum for Economic Cooperation

Answer: C

Explanation:

Option (c) is correct: The Mekong-Ganga Cooperation (MGC) is an initiative by six countries – India and five ASEAN countries, namely, Cambodia, Lao PDR, Myanmar, Thailand, and Vietnam for cooperation in tourism, culture, education, as well as transport and communications.

It was launched in November 2000 in Vientiane, Lao PDR with the signing of the Vientiane Declaration. The grouping was initially called Ganga Suvarnabhumi Programme (GMSP).

The MGC is also indicative of the cultural and commercial linkages among the member countries of the MGC down the centuries.

Answer: C

Explanation:

It was launched in November 2000 in Vientiane, Lao PDR with the signing of the Vientiane Declaration. The grouping was initially called Ganga Suvarnabhumi Programme (GMSP).

The MGC is also indicative of the cultural and commercial linkages among the member countries of the MGC down the centuries.

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points India has applied to the International Seabed Authority (ISBA) for rights to explore the Afanasy Nikitin Seamount (AN Seamount), a cobalt-rich region in the Indian Ocean. What are the challenges concerning India’s application? Overlapping claims for extraction by Sri Lanka Multiple international regulations governing seabed exploration High cost of exploration and extraction How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: c) Justification: India has applied to the International Seabed Authority (ISBA) for rights to explore the Afanasy Nikitin Seamount (AN Seamount), a cobalt-rich region in the Indian Ocean. This move, motivated partly by Chinese activity in the area, aims to secure strategic resources. The AN Seamount, located about 3,000 km from India’s coast, is rich in cobalt, nickel, manganese, and copper deposits. The application faces challenges due to overlapping claims by Sri Lanka and international regulations governing seabed exploration. Also, the cost of exploration and extraction is very high. India is also seeking permission to explore the Carlsberg Ridge for polymetallic sulphides. The AN Seamount is a structural feature (400 km long and 150 km wide) in the Central Indian Basin, located about 3,000 km away from India’s coast. From an oceanic depth of about 4,800 km, it rises to about 1,200 metre. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/27/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-27-march-2024/ Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: India has applied to the International Seabed Authority (ISBA) for rights to explore the Afanasy Nikitin Seamount (AN Seamount), a cobalt-rich region in the Indian Ocean. This move, motivated partly by Chinese activity in the area, aims to secure strategic resources. The AN Seamount, located about 3,000 km from India’s coast, is rich in cobalt, nickel, manganese, and copper deposits. The application faces challenges due to overlapping claims by Sri Lanka and international regulations governing seabed exploration. Also, the cost of exploration and extraction is very high. India is also seeking permission to explore the Carlsberg Ridge for polymetallic sulphides. The AN Seamount is a structural feature (400 km long and 150 km wide) in the Central Indian Basin, located about 3,000 km away from India’s coast. From an oceanic depth of about 4,800 km, it rises to about 1,200 metre. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/27/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-27-march-2024/

#### 21. Question

India has applied to the International Seabed Authority (ISBA) for rights to explore the Afanasy Nikitin Seamount (AN Seamount), a cobalt-rich region in the Indian Ocean. What are the challenges concerning India’s application?

• Overlapping claims for extraction by Sri Lanka

• Multiple international regulations governing seabed exploration

• High cost of exploration and extraction

How many of the above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: c)

Justification: India has applied to the International Seabed Authority (ISBA) for rights to explore the Afanasy Nikitin Seamount (AN Seamount), a cobalt-rich region in the Indian Ocean.

This move, motivated partly by Chinese activity in the area, aims to secure strategic resources. The AN Seamount, located about 3,000 km from India’s coast, is rich in cobalt, nickel, manganese, and copper deposits.

The application faces challenges due to overlapping claims by Sri Lanka and international regulations governing seabed exploration. Also, the cost of exploration and extraction is very high.

India is also seeking permission to explore the Carlsberg Ridge for polymetallic sulphides.

The AN Seamount is a structural feature (400 km long and 150 km wide) in the Central Indian Basin, located about 3,000 km away from India’s coast. From an oceanic depth of about 4,800 km, it rises to about 1,200 metre.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/27/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-27-march-2024/

Solution: c)

Justification: India has applied to the International Seabed Authority (ISBA) for rights to explore the Afanasy Nikitin Seamount (AN Seamount), a cobalt-rich region in the Indian Ocean.

The application faces challenges due to overlapping claims by Sri Lanka and international regulations governing seabed exploration. Also, the cost of exploration and extraction is very high.

India is also seeking permission to explore the Carlsberg Ridge for polymetallic sulphides.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/27/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-27-march-2024/

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points The dynasty of the Kalyani Chalukyas was spread over which of these modern states of India? Odisha Andhra Pradesh Chattisgarh How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: D Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/27/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-27-march-2024/ Incorrect Solution: D Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/27/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-27-march-2024/

#### 22. Question

The dynasty of the Kalyani Chalukyas was spread over which of these modern states of India?

• Andhra Pradesh

• Chattisgarh

How many of the above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: D

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/27/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-27-march-2024/

Solution: D

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/27/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-27-march-2024/

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about preventive detention. Article 22 of the Constitution provides safeguards for individuals detained under preventive detention laws. The detainee has the right to know the grounds of detention and make representations against it. Parliament has exclusive power to enact preventive detention laws for defence, foreign affairs, or national security reasons, while both Parliament and State Legislatures can enact laws for maintaining public order or essential services. How many of the above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: c) Justification: Preventive detention entails the detention of an individual without a trial or conviction by a court, aiming to prevent future offences rather than punish past ones. Governments enact preventive detention laws to ensure public safety and maintain social order. In India, Article 22 of the Constitution provides safeguards for individuals detained under such laws. It limits the duration of preventive detention to three months unless an Advisory Board approves an extension. The detainee has the right to know the grounds of detention and make representations against it. Parliament has exclusive power to enact preventive detention laws for defence, foreign affairs, or national security reasons, while both Parliament and State Legislatures can enact laws for maintaining public order or essential services. Various laws in India, such as the National Security Act (NSA) and the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA), allow for preventive detention for up to 12 months without formal charges, with periodic review by an advisory board. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/28/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-28-march-2024/ Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: Preventive detention entails the detention of an individual without a trial or conviction by a court, aiming to prevent future offences rather than punish past ones. Governments enact preventive detention laws to ensure public safety and maintain social order. In India, Article 22 of the Constitution provides safeguards for individuals detained under such laws. It limits the duration of preventive detention to three months unless an Advisory Board approves an extension. The detainee has the right to know the grounds of detention and make representations against it. Parliament has exclusive power to enact preventive detention laws for defence, foreign affairs, or national security reasons, while both Parliament and State Legislatures can enact laws for maintaining public order or essential services. Various laws in India, such as the National Security Act (NSA) and the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA), allow for preventive detention for up to 12 months without formal charges, with periodic review by an advisory board. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/28/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-28-march-2024/

#### 23. Question

Consider the following statements about preventive detention.

• Article 22 of the Constitution provides safeguards for individuals detained under preventive detention laws.

• The detainee has the right to know the grounds of detention and make representations against it.

• Parliament has exclusive power to enact preventive detention laws for defence, foreign affairs, or national security reasons, while both Parliament and State Legislatures can enact laws for maintaining public order or essential services.

How many of the above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: c)

Justification: Preventive detention entails the detention of an individual without a trial or conviction by a court, aiming to prevent future offences rather than punish past ones.

Governments enact preventive detention laws to ensure public safety and maintain social order.

In India, Article 22 of the Constitution provides safeguards for individuals detained under such laws.

It limits the duration of preventive detention to three months unless an Advisory Board approves an extension.

The detainee has the right to know the grounds of detention and make representations against it.

Parliament has exclusive power to enact preventive detention laws for defence, foreign affairs, or national security reasons, while both Parliament and State Legislatures can enact laws for maintaining public order or essential services.

Various laws in India, such as the National Security Act (NSA) and the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA), allow for preventive detention for up to 12 months without formal charges, with periodic review by an advisory board.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/28/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-28-march-2024/

Solution: c)

Justification: Preventive detention entails the detention of an individual without a trial or conviction by a court, aiming to prevent future offences rather than punish past ones.

Governments enact preventive detention laws to ensure public safety and maintain social order.

In India, Article 22 of the Constitution provides safeguards for individuals detained under such laws.

It limits the duration of preventive detention to three months unless an Advisory Board approves an extension.

The detainee has the right to know the grounds of detention and make representations against it.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/28/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-28-march-2024/

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Black carbon, emitted from incomplete combustion of biomass and fossil fuels. Consider the following about it: Black carbon is a light-absorbing particle that contributes to climate change by releasing heat energy into the atmosphere. Black carbon is the longest living climate pollutant that also contributes to global warming. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: a) Justification: In India, the residential sector is the largest source of black carbon emissions. Prioritizing black carbon reduction aligns with India’s global commitments to decarbonization and sustainable development goals, potentially preventing thousands of premature deaths annually. Black carbon is a component of fine particulate matter (PM) air pollution. It’s also known as soot. Black carbon is a light-absorbing particle that contributes to climate change by releasing heat energy into the atmosphere. It’s the second most important contributor to global warming and is considered a short-lived climate pollutant. Black carbon is formed by the incomplete combustion of wood and fossil fuels. The process also creates carbon dioxide (CO), carbon monoxide, and volatile organic compounds. Black carbon particles can also settle on the surface of snow and ice, accelerating its melting. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/28/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-28-march-2024/ Incorrect Solution: a) Justification: In India, the residential sector is the largest source of black carbon emissions. Prioritizing black carbon reduction aligns with India’s global commitments to decarbonization and sustainable development goals, potentially preventing thousands of premature deaths annually. Black carbon is a component of fine particulate matter (PM) air pollution. It’s also known as soot. Black carbon is a light-absorbing particle that contributes to climate change by releasing heat energy into the atmosphere. It’s the second most important contributor to global warming and is considered a short-lived climate pollutant. Black carbon is formed by the incomplete combustion of wood and fossil fuels. The process also creates carbon dioxide (CO), carbon monoxide, and volatile organic compounds. Black carbon particles can also settle on the surface of snow and ice, accelerating its melting. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/28/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-28-march-2024/

#### 24. Question

Black carbon, emitted from incomplete combustion of biomass and fossil fuels. Consider the following about it:

• Black carbon is a light-absorbing particle that contributes to climate change by releasing heat energy into the atmosphere.

• Black carbon is the longest living climate pollutant that also contributes to global warming.

Which of the above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a)

Justification: In India, the residential sector is the largest source of black carbon emissions.

Prioritizing black carbon reduction aligns with India’s global commitments to decarbonization and sustainable development goals, potentially preventing thousands of premature deaths annually.

Black carbon is a component of fine particulate matter (PM) air pollution. It’s also known as soot.

Black carbon is a light-absorbing particle that contributes to climate change by releasing heat energy into the atmosphere. It’s the second most important contributor to global warming and is considered a short-lived climate pollutant.

Black carbon is formed by the incomplete combustion of wood and fossil fuels. The process also creates carbon dioxide (CO), carbon monoxide, and volatile organic compounds.

Black carbon particles can also settle on the surface of snow and ice, accelerating its melting.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/28/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-28-march-2024/

Solution: a)

Justification: In India, the residential sector is the largest source of black carbon emissions.

Prioritizing black carbon reduction aligns with India’s global commitments to decarbonization and sustainable development goals, potentially preventing thousands of premature deaths annually.

Black carbon is a component of fine particulate matter (PM) air pollution. It’s also known as soot.

Black carbon is formed by the incomplete combustion of wood and fossil fuels. The process also creates carbon dioxide (CO), carbon monoxide, and volatile organic compounds.

Black carbon particles can also settle on the surface of snow and ice, accelerating its melting.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/28/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-28-march-2024/

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Mekong River. It originates from the Tibetan Plateau. It traverses via Laos, Cambodia and Thailand, among other countries before reaching southern Vietnam. It remains a crucial trade route as the river is not prone to seasonal fluctuations and no natural obstacles hinder navigation in the river. How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Justification: It is one of the world’s longest, flows through East and Southeast Asia, spanning 4,909 km. Originating from the Tibetan Plateau, it traverses six countries before reaching southern Vietnam. Its seasonal fluctuations and natural obstacles hinder navigation, yet it remains a crucial trade route. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/28/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-28-march-2024/ Incorrect Solution: b) Justification: It is one of the world’s longest, flows through East and Southeast Asia, spanning 4,909 km. Originating from the Tibetan Plateau, it traverses six countries before reaching southern Vietnam. Its seasonal fluctuations and natural obstacles hinder navigation, yet it remains a crucial trade route. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/28/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-28-march-2024/

#### 25. Question

Consider the following statements about the Mekong River.

• It originates from the Tibetan Plateau.

• It traverses via Laos, Cambodia and Thailand, among other countries before reaching southern Vietnam.

• It remains a crucial trade route as the river is not prone to seasonal fluctuations and no natural obstacles hinder navigation in the river.

How many of the above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: b)

Justification: It is one of the world’s longest, flows through East and Southeast Asia, spanning 4,909 km. Originating from the Tibetan Plateau, it traverses six countries before reaching southern Vietnam. Its seasonal fluctuations and natural obstacles hinder navigation, yet it remains a crucial trade route.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/28/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-28-march-2024/

Solution: b)

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/28/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-28-march-2024/

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points Although wide-scale application of pesticides and herbicides is an essential part of augmenting crop yields; excessive use of these chemicals leads to the microbial imbalance, environmental pollution and health hazards. The ultimate “sink” of the pesticides applied in agriculture and public health care is soil. Soil being the storehouse of multitudes of microbes, in quantity and quality, receives the chemicals in various forms. The efficiency and the competence to handle the chemicals vary with the soil and its physical, chemical and biological characteristics. Which one of the following statements best sums up the above passage? A. Soils belonging to two different climates have different way of responding to pesticides B. Different types of soils have different capacities to absorb pesticides and other chemicals. C. All the chemicals and pesticides are absorbed by the soil. D. Pesticides are good for the growth of some types of microbes. Correct Answer: B The passage focuses on the capacity of soil to vary based on different characteristics of soil, so all cannot have same capacity to tolerate, while climate can make difference it is not the only factor that makes difference. Incorrect Answer: B The passage focuses on the capacity of soil to vary based on different characteristics of soil, so all cannot have same capacity to tolerate, while climate can make difference it is not the only factor that makes difference.

#### 26. Question

Although wide-scale application of pesticides and herbicides is an essential part of augmenting crop yields; excessive use of these chemicals leads to the microbial imbalance, environmental pollution and health hazards. The ultimate “sink” of the pesticides applied in agriculture and public health care is soil. Soil being the storehouse of multitudes of microbes, in quantity and quality, receives the chemicals in various forms. The efficiency and the competence to handle the chemicals vary with the soil and its physical, chemical and biological characteristics.

Which one of the following statements best sums up the above passage?

• A. Soils belonging to two different climates have different way of responding to pesticides

• B. Different types of soils have different capacities to absorb pesticides and other chemicals.

• C. All the chemicals and pesticides are absorbed by the soil.

• D. Pesticides are good for the growth of some types of microbes.

The passage focuses on the capacity of soil to vary based on different characteristics of soil, so all cannot have same capacity to tolerate, while climate can make difference it is not the only factor that makes difference.

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points Although wide-scale application of pesticides and herbicides is an essential part of augmenting crop yields; excessive use of these chemicals leads to the microbial imbalance, environmental pollution and health hazards. The ultimate “sink” of the pesticides applied in agriculture and public health care is soil. Soil being the storehouse of multitudes of microbes, in quantity and quality, receives the chemicals in various forms. The efficiency and the competence to handle the chemicals vary with the soil and its physical, chemical and biological characteristics. On the basis of above passage following assumptions have been made: Soil acts as scavenger of harmful substances An ideal pesticide is one which can exactly target the pest It is better if the pest residues are biodegradable Which are correct assumptions? A) 1 only B) 1 & 2 only C) 3 only D) 1, 2 & 3 Correct Answer: D The passage discusses that excess use of pesticide is problem, so exact use may reduce the problem if it exactly targets pest so 2 is correct. Next, pesticide problem can minimize effect on soil since it absorbs it, thus biodegradability will help. So 3 is also correct. Incorrect Answer: D The passage discusses that excess use of pesticide is problem, so exact use may reduce the problem if it exactly targets pest so 2 is correct. Next, pesticide problem can minimize effect on soil since it absorbs it, thus biodegradability will help. So 3 is also correct.

#### 27. Question

On the basis of above passage following assumptions have been made:

• Soil acts as scavenger of harmful substances

• An ideal pesticide is one which can exactly target the pest

• It is better if the pest residues are biodegradable

Which are correct assumptions?

• B) 1 & 2 only

• D) 1, 2 & 3

The passage discusses that excess use of pesticide is problem, so exact use may reduce the problem if it exactly targets pest so 2 is correct. Next, pesticide problem can minimize effect on soil since it absorbs it, thus biodegradability will help. So 3 is also correct.

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points How many different words can be formed with the letter of the word MISSISSIPPI? A) 11! B) 12! C) 13! D) 14! Correct Answer A) 11! Solution In the word MISSISSIPPI, there are 41’s, 4S’s, and 2P’s. Thus required number of words=(11!) / 4! 2! 4! = 34650 Since there are 11 letters in all, therefore → 11! Incorrect Answer A) 11! Solution In the word MISSISSIPPI, there are 41’s, 4S’s, and 2P’s. Thus required number of words=(11!) / 4! 2! 4! = 34650 Since there are 11 letters in all, therefore → 11!

#### 28. Question

How many different words can be formed with the letter of the word MISSISSIPPI?

Answer A) 11!

In the word MISSISSIPPI, there are 41’s, 4S’s, and 2P’s.

Thus required number of words=(11!) / 4! 2! 4! = 34650

Since there are 11 letters in all, therefore → 11!

Answer A) 11!

In the word MISSISSIPPI, there are 41’s, 4S’s, and 2P’s.

Thus required number of words=(11!) / 4! 2! 4! = 34650

Since there are 11 letters in all, therefore → 11!

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points There are 50 students in a class. 40% of the students like Orange and 50% of the students like Mango. If 10 students like both of them, then how many students like either Orange or Mango or both of them? A. 30 B. 35 C. 40 D. 45 Correct Answer B) 35 The distribution of the fruits are given below: The number students who like only Mangoes- 40% of 50 = 20 The number students who like only Oranges- 50% of 50 = 25 n(A U B) = n(A) + n(B) – n(A ∩ B) Therefore, the number of students who like either Orange or Mango or both of them = 20 + 25 – 10 = 35 Hence, option B is correct. Incorrect Answer B) 35 The distribution of the fruits are given below: The number students who like only Mangoes- 40% of 50 = 20 The number students who like only Oranges- 50% of 50 = 25 n(A U B) = n(A) + n(B) – n(A ∩ B) Therefore, the number of students who like either Orange or Mango or both of them = 20 + 25 – 10 = 35 Hence, option B is correct.

#### 29. Question

There are 50 students in a class. 40% of the students like Orange and 50% of the students like Mango. If 10 students like both of them, then how many students like either Orange or Mango or both of them?

Answer B) 35

The distribution of the fruits are given below:

The number students who like only Mangoes- 40% of 50 = 20

The number students who like only Oranges- 50% of 50 = 25

n(A U B) = n(A) + n(B) – n(A ∩ B)

Therefore, the number of students who like either Orange or Mango or both of them = 20 + 25 – 10 = 35

Hence, option B is correct.

Answer B) 35

The distribution of the fruits are given below:

The number students who like only Mangoes- 40% of 50 = 20

The number students who like only Oranges- 50% of 50 = 25

n(A U B) = n(A) + n(B) – n(A ∩ B)

Therefore, the number of students who like either Orange or Mango or both of them = 20 + 25 – 10 = 35

Hence, option B is correct.

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points A coin of radius 3 cm is randomly dropped on a square floor full of square-shaped tiles of 10 cm each. What is the probability that the coin will land completely within a tile? In other words, the coin should not cross the edge of any tile. a) 0.91 b) 0.5 c) 0.49 d) 0.16 Correct Answer : (d) 0.16 The radius of the coin is 3 cm. Since the coin should not cross the edge, the center of the coin should at least be 3 cm away from the edge of the tile. If we left 3 cm from all the edges, then the center can lie in a square of 4 x 4. So, Probability = Area of square 4 x4/ Area of tile = 16/100 =0.16. Incorrect Answer : (d) 0.16 The radius of the coin is 3 cm. Since the coin should not cross the edge, the center of the coin should at least be 3 cm away from the edge of the tile. If we left 3 cm from all the edges, then the center can lie in a square of 4 x 4. So, Probability = Area of square 4 x4/ Area of tile = 16/100 =0.16.

#### 30. Question

A coin of radius 3 cm is randomly dropped on a square floor full of square-shaped tiles of 10 cm each. What is the probability that the coin will land completely within a tile? In other words, the coin should not cross the edge of any tile.

Answer : (d) 0.16

The radius of the coin is 3 cm. Since the coin should not cross the edge, the center of the coin should at least be 3 cm away from the edge of the tile.

If we left 3 cm from all the edges, then the center can lie in a square of 4 x 4.

So, Probability = Area of square 4 x4/ Area of tile

= 16/100 =0.16.

Answer : (d) 0.16

The radius of the coin is 3 cm. Since the coin should not cross the edge, the center of the coin should at least be 3 cm away from the edge of the tile.

If we left 3 cm from all the edges, then the center can lie in a square of 4 x 4.