DAY – 34 : Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2025 : ANCIENT & MEDIEVAL INDIA

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Consider the following characteristics associated with the Indus Valley Civilization (Harappan Civilization): Sophisticated town planning with streets laid out in a grid pattern. Extensive use of iron implements for agriculture and crafts. Presence of large public baths and granaries in major settlements. Widespread evidence of temple structures dedicated to specific deities. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Well-planned cities like Mohenjo-daro and Harappa featured grid layouts and advanced drainage. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The Harappan Civilization was a Bronze Age culture; iron use became common much later, in the Vedic period. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. The Great Bath at Mohenjo-daro and large granary structures found at sites like Harappa and Mohenjo-daro are notable features. Hence, statement 3 is correct. While religious beliefs existed (Pashupati seal, mother goddess figurines), definitive evidence of large, dedicated temple structures comparable to later periods is lacking in IVC sites. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution: B Well-planned cities like Mohenjo-daro and Harappa featured grid layouts and advanced drainage. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The Harappan Civilization was a Bronze Age culture; iron use became common much later, in the Vedic period. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. The Great Bath at Mohenjo-daro and large granary structures found at sites like Harappa and Mohenjo-daro are notable features. Hence, statement 3 is correct. While religious beliefs existed (Pashupati seal, mother goddess figurines), definitive evidence of large, dedicated temple structures comparable to later periods is lacking in IVC sites. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following characteristics associated with the Indus Valley Civilization (Harappan Civilization):

• Sophisticated town planning with streets laid out in a grid pattern.

• Extensive use of iron implements for agriculture and crafts.

• Presence of large public baths and granaries in major settlements.

• Widespread evidence of temple structures dedicated to specific deities.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

Well-planned cities like Mohenjo-daro and Harappa featured grid layouts and advanced drainage.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The Harappan Civilization was a Bronze Age culture; iron use became common much later, in the Vedic period.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

The Great Bath at Mohenjo-daro and large granary structures found at sites like Harappa and Mohenjo-daro are notable features.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

While religious beliefs existed (Pashupati seal, mother goddess figurines), definitive evidence of large, dedicated temple structures comparable to later periods is lacking in IVC sites.

Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Solution: B

Well-planned cities like Mohenjo-daro and Harappa featured grid layouts and advanced drainage.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The Harappan Civilization was a Bronze Age culture; iron use became common much later, in the Vedic period.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

The Great Bath at Mohenjo-daro and large granary structures found at sites like Harappa and Mohenjo-daro are notable features.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

While religious beliefs existed (Pashupati seal, mother goddess figurines), definitive evidence of large, dedicated temple structures comparable to later periods is lacking in IVC sites.

Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the core teachings of Buddhism: The concept of ‘Anatta’ (Anatman) asserts the non-existence of a permanent, unchanging self or soul. The ‘Middle Path’ (Madhyama Pratipada) advocates avoiding extremes of both severe asceticism and excessive sensual indulgence. Attaining Nirvana involves the complete extinction of desire, suffering, and the cycle of rebirth. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: D All three statements are correct. Anatta (no-self) is a core doctrine distinguishing Buddhism from many other Indian philosophies that posit an eternal soul (Atman). The Middle Path, outlined in the Buddha’s first sermon, advises a balanced approach between self-mortification and hedonism. Nirvana is the ultimate goal, signifying the cessation of suffering (Dukkha) achieved by extinguishing craving (Tanha) and escaping Samsara (the cycle of birth and death). Incorrect Solution: D All three statements are correct. Anatta (no-self) is a core doctrine distinguishing Buddhism from many other Indian philosophies that posit an eternal soul (Atman). The Middle Path, outlined in the Buddha’s first sermon, advises a balanced approach between self-mortification and hedonism. Nirvana is the ultimate goal, signifying the cessation of suffering (Dukkha) achieved by extinguishing craving (Tanha) and escaping Samsara (the cycle of birth and death).

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the core teachings of Buddhism:

• The concept of ‘Anatta’ (Anatman) asserts the non-existence of a permanent, unchanging self or soul.

• The ‘Middle Path’ (Madhyama Pratipada) advocates avoiding extremes of both severe asceticism and excessive sensual indulgence.

• Attaining Nirvana involves the complete extinction of desire, suffering, and the cycle of rebirth.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 1 and 2 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

All three statements are correct.

Anatta (no-self) is a core doctrine distinguishing Buddhism from many other Indian philosophies that posit an eternal soul (Atman).

• The Middle Path, outlined in the Buddha’s first sermon, advises a balanced approach between self-mortification and hedonism.

• Nirvana is the ultimate goal, signifying the cessation of suffering (Dukkha) achieved by extinguishing craving (Tanha) and escaping Samsara (the cycle of birth and death).

Solution: D

All three statements are correct.

Anatta (no-self) is a core doctrine distinguishing Buddhism from many other Indian philosophies that posit an eternal soul (Atman).

• The Middle Path, outlined in the Buddha’s first sermon, advises a balanced approach between self-mortification and hedonism.

• Nirvana is the ultimate goal, signifying the cessation of suffering (Dukkha) achieved by extinguishing craving (Tanha) and escaping Samsara (the cycle of birth and death).

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points With reference to Ashokan inscriptions, consider the following: The majority of the inscriptions found in the Indian subcontinent are written in the Brahmi script. The term ‘Devanampiya Piyadasi’ (Beloved of the Gods, He who looks on with affection) is frequently used by Ashoka to refer to himself. The inscriptions primarily focus on Ashoka’s military achievements and administrative reforms. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Brahmi script was used for most Ashokan edicts across India. Kharosthi was used in the northwest, and Greek and Aramaic in the far west. Hence, statement 1 is correct. ‘Devanampiya Piyadasi’ title is commonly found in the edicts as Ashoka’s royal epithet. Hence, statement 2 is correct. While some administrative matters are mentioned, the primary focus of most Ashokan edicts is the propagation of ‘Dhamma’ (his code of ethical conduct) and principles like non-violence, tolerance, and social welfare, particularly after the Kalinga war. Military achievements are notably downplayed post-Kalinga. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution: B Brahmi script was used for most Ashokan edicts across India. Kharosthi was used in the northwest, and Greek and Aramaic in the far west. Hence, statement 1 is correct. ‘Devanampiya Piyadasi’ title is commonly found in the edicts as Ashoka’s royal epithet. Hence, statement 2 is correct. While some administrative matters are mentioned, the primary focus of most Ashokan edicts is the propagation of ‘Dhamma’ (his code of ethical conduct) and principles like non-violence, tolerance, and social welfare, particularly after the Kalinga war. Military achievements are notably downplayed post-Kalinga. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

#### 3. Question

With reference to Ashokan inscriptions, consider the following:

• The majority of the inscriptions found in the Indian subcontinent are written in the Brahmi script.

• The term ‘Devanampiya Piyadasi’ (Beloved of the Gods, He who looks on with affection) is frequently used by Ashoka to refer to himself.

• The inscriptions primarily focus on Ashoka’s military achievements and administrative reforms.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Brahmi script was used for most Ashokan edicts across India. Kharosthi was used in the northwest, and Greek and Aramaic in the far west.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

‘Devanampiya Piyadasi’ title is commonly found in the edicts as Ashoka’s royal epithet.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

While some administrative matters are mentioned, the primary focus of most Ashokan edicts is the propagation of ‘Dhamma’ (his code of ethical conduct) and principles like non-violence, tolerance, and social welfare, particularly after the Kalinga war. Military achievements are notably downplayed post-Kalinga.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution: B

Brahmi script was used for most Ashokan edicts across India. Kharosthi was used in the northwest, and Greek and Aramaic in the far west.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

‘Devanampiya Piyadasi’ title is commonly found in the edicts as Ashoka’s royal epithet.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Consider the following literary works from Ancient India: Arthashastra : A treatise on statecraft, economics, and military strategy, attributed to Kautilya. Meghaduta : A lyrical poem composed by Kalidasa. Silappadikaram : One of the major epics of Tamil Sangam literature. Which of the works mentioned above are correctly attributed/described? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: D All statements are correct. The *Arthashastra* is a seminal work on governance traditionally attributed to Kautilya (Chanakya), advisor to Chandragupta Maurya. *Meghaduta* (The Cloud Messenger) is a celebrated lyrical poem (kavya) by the great Sanskrit poet Kalidasa, likely from the Gupta period. *Silappadikaram*, attributed to Ilango Adigal, is one of the foundational epics of Tamil literature, dating to the later Sangam period or slightly after. Incorrect Solution: D All statements are correct. The *Arthashastra* is a seminal work on governance traditionally attributed to Kautilya (Chanakya), advisor to Chandragupta Maurya. *Meghaduta* (The Cloud Messenger) is a celebrated lyrical poem (kavya) by the great Sanskrit poet Kalidasa, likely from the Gupta period. *Silappadikaram*, attributed to Ilango Adigal, is one of the foundational epics of Tamil literature, dating to the later Sangam period or slightly after.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following literary works from Ancient India:

• Arthashastra : A treatise on statecraft, economics, and military strategy, attributed to Kautilya.

• Meghaduta : A lyrical poem composed by Kalidasa.

• Silappadikaram : One of the major epics of Tamil Sangam literature.

Which of the works mentioned above are correctly attributed/described?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

All statements are correct.

The *Arthashastra* is a seminal work on governance traditionally attributed to Kautilya (Chanakya), advisor to Chandragupta Maurya.

*Meghaduta* (The Cloud Messenger) is a celebrated lyrical poem (kavya) by the great Sanskrit poet Kalidasa, likely from the Gupta period.

*Silappadikaram*, attributed to Ilango Adigal, is one of the foundational epics of Tamil literature, dating to the later Sangam period or slightly after.

Solution: D

All statements are correct.

The *Arthashastra* is a seminal work on governance traditionally attributed to Kautilya (Chanakya), advisor to Chandragupta Maurya.

*Meghaduta* (The Cloud Messenger) is a celebrated lyrical poem (kavya) by the great Sanskrit poet Kalidasa, likely from the Gupta period.

*Silappadikaram*, attributed to Ilango Adigal, is one of the foundational epics of Tamil literature, dating to the later Sangam period or slightly after.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points The famous Ajanta caves are primarily known for their: (a) Monolithic rock-cut Rathas and structural temples. (b) Elaborate sculptures belonging to the Gandhara school of art. (c) Exquisite mural paintings depicting Jataka tales and scenes from Buddha's life. (d) Chaityas and Viharas belonging exclusively to the Jain faith. Correct Solution: C While the Ajanta caves contain rock-cut Chaityas (prayer halls) and Viharas (monasteries) associated with Buddhism, they are most renowned globally for their magnificent mural paintings, dating mainly from the Gupta and Vakataka periods (c. 2nd century BCE to 6th century CE). These paintings vividly depict Buddhist narratives, particularly the Jataka tales (stories of Buddha’s previous births), as well as scenes of courtly life and nature. Rathas (a) are at Mahabalipuram. Gandhara art (b) has a different style and location. Ajanta is primarily Buddhist, not Jain (d). Incorrect Solution: C While the Ajanta caves contain rock-cut Chaityas (prayer halls) and Viharas (monasteries) associated with Buddhism, they are most renowned globally for their magnificent mural paintings, dating mainly from the Gupta and Vakataka periods (c. 2nd century BCE to 6th century CE). These paintings vividly depict Buddhist narratives, particularly the Jataka tales (stories of Buddha’s previous births), as well as scenes of courtly life and nature. Rathas (a) are at Mahabalipuram. Gandhara art (b) has a different style and location. Ajanta is primarily Buddhist, not Jain (d).

#### 5. Question

The famous Ajanta caves are primarily known for their:

• (a) Monolithic rock-cut Rathas and structural temples.

• (b) Elaborate sculptures belonging to the Gandhara school of art.

• (c) Exquisite mural paintings depicting Jataka tales and scenes from Buddha's life.

• (d) Chaityas and Viharas belonging exclusively to the Jain faith.

Solution: C

While the Ajanta caves contain rock-cut Chaityas (prayer halls) and Viharas (monasteries) associated with Buddhism, they are most renowned globally for their magnificent mural paintings, dating mainly from the Gupta and Vakataka periods (c. 2nd century BCE to 6th century CE).

• These paintings vividly depict Buddhist narratives, particularly the Jataka tales (stories of Buddha’s previous births), as well as scenes of courtly life and nature. Rathas (a) are at Mahabalipuram. Gandhara art (b) has a different style and location. Ajanta is primarily Buddhist, not Jain (d).

Solution: C

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points The Allahabad Pillar Inscription (Prayaga Prashasti) provides a detailed account of the conquests and achievements of which Gupta ruler? (a) Chandragupta I (b) Samudragupta (c) Chandragupta II (Vikramaditya) (d) Kumaragupta I Correct Solution: B The Prayaga Prashasti, composed in Sanskrit by Samudragupta’s court poet Harishena, is inscribed on an Ashokan pillar found in Allahabad (Prayagraj). It gives a detailed eulogy of Samudragupta’s extensive military campaigns across North India, his subjugation of forest tribes, and his diplomatic relations with rulers in South India, frontier states, and overseas territories, earning him the title ‘Napoleon of India’ by some historians. Incorrect Solution: B The Prayaga Prashasti, composed in Sanskrit by Samudragupta’s court poet Harishena, is inscribed on an Ashokan pillar found in Allahabad (Prayagraj). It gives a detailed eulogy of Samudragupta’s extensive military campaigns across North India, his subjugation of forest tribes, and his diplomatic relations with rulers in South India, frontier states, and overseas territories, earning him the title ‘Napoleon of India’ by some historians.

#### 6. Question

The Allahabad Pillar Inscription (Prayaga Prashasti) provides a detailed account of the conquests and achievements of which Gupta ruler?

• (a) Chandragupta I

• (b) Samudragupta

• (c) Chandragupta II (Vikramaditya)

• (d) Kumaragupta I

Solution: B

The Prayaga Prashasti, composed in Sanskrit by Samudragupta’s court poet Harishena, is inscribed on an Ashokan pillar found in Allahabad (Prayagraj).

• It gives a detailed eulogy of Samudragupta’s extensive military campaigns across North India, his subjugation of forest tribes, and his diplomatic relations with rulers in South India, frontier states, and overseas territories, earning him the title ‘Napoleon of India’ by some historians.

Solution: B

The Prayaga Prashasti, composed in Sanskrit by Samudragupta’s court poet Harishena, is inscribed on an Ashokan pillar found in Allahabad (Prayagraj).

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Muhammad bin Tughlaq’s reign is known for several ambitious projects. Consider the following: The transfer of the capital from Delhi to Devagiri (Daulatabad). The introduction of token currency using brass and copper coins. The successful conquest and annexation of the Khurasan region in Persia. How many of the projects/events listed above were actually undertaken (though not necessarily successful) during his reign? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The transfer of the capital was undertaken but largely failed due to practical difficulties and was eventually reversed. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Token currency was introduced but failed due to widespread counterfeiting and lack of public trust. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The Khurasan expedition was planned, and a large army was raised, but the expedition was ultimately abandoned before it began, causing significant financial loss. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution: B The transfer of the capital was undertaken but largely failed due to practical difficulties and was eventually reversed. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Token currency was introduced but failed due to widespread counterfeiting and lack of public trust. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The Khurasan expedition was planned, and a large army was raised, but the expedition was ultimately abandoned before it began, causing significant financial loss. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

#### 7. Question

Muhammad bin Tughlaq’s reign is known for several ambitious projects. Consider the following:

• The transfer of the capital from Delhi to Devagiri (Daulatabad).

• The introduction of token currency using brass and copper coins.

• The successful conquest and annexation of the Khurasan region in Persia.

How many of the projects/events listed above were actually undertaken (though not necessarily successful) during his reign?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

The transfer of the capital was undertaken but largely failed due to practical difficulties and was eventually reversed.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Token currency was introduced but failed due to widespread counterfeiting and lack of public trust.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

The Khurasan expedition was planned, and a large army was raised, but the expedition was ultimately abandoned before it began, causing significant financial loss. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution: B

The transfer of the capital was undertaken but largely failed due to practical difficulties and was eventually reversed.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Token currency was introduced but failed due to widespread counterfeiting and lack of public trust.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

The Khurasan expedition was planned, and a large army was raised, but the expedition was ultimately abandoned before it began, causing significant financial loss. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Emperor Akbar’s reign witnessed significant policy initiatives. Which of the following were implemented during his rule? Abolition of the pilgrimage tax levied on Hindus. Introduction of the Dahsala system for land revenue assessment. Promulgation of the ‘Mahzar’, asserting his right to interpret religious law in case of disputes among the Ulema. How many of the policy initiatives listed above were implemented by Akbar? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C All statements are correct. Akbar abolished the pilgrimage tax in 1563. The Dahsala system (Ain-i-Dahsala), associated with Raja Todar Mal, involved fixing revenue rates based on average yields and prices over the previous ten years. It was a development of the Zabti system. The Mahzar (Decree of Infallibility) of 1579 gave Akbar considerable authority in interpreting religious law, placing him above the Ulema in cases of differing opinions. All three initiatives were implemented during Akbar’s reign. Incorrect Solution: C All statements are correct. Akbar abolished the pilgrimage tax in 1563. The Dahsala system (Ain-i-Dahsala), associated with Raja Todar Mal, involved fixing revenue rates based on average yields and prices over the previous ten years. It was a development of the Zabti system. The Mahzar (Decree of Infallibility) of 1579 gave Akbar considerable authority in interpreting religious law, placing him above the Ulema in cases of differing opinions. All three initiatives were implemented during Akbar’s reign.

#### 8. Question

Emperor Akbar’s reign witnessed significant policy initiatives. Which of the following were implemented during his rule?

• Abolition of the pilgrimage tax levied on Hindus.

• Introduction of the Dahsala system for land revenue assessment.

• Promulgation of the ‘Mahzar’, asserting his right to interpret religious law in case of disputes among the Ulema.

How many of the policy initiatives listed above were implemented by Akbar?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

All statements are correct.

• Akbar abolished the pilgrimage tax in 1563.

• The Dahsala system (Ain-i-Dahsala), associated with Raja Todar Mal, involved fixing revenue rates based on average yields and prices over the previous ten years. It was a development of the Zabti system.

• The Mahzar (Decree of Infallibility) of 1579 gave Akbar considerable authority in interpreting religious law, placing him above the Ulema in cases of differing opinions. All three initiatives were implemented during Akbar’s reign.

Solution: C

All statements are correct.

• Akbar abolished the pilgrimage tax in 1563.

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Mughal painting reached its climax, characterized by refined naturalism, focus on portraiture, and depiction of birds, animals, and flowers, under the patronage of which Emperor? (a) Akbar (b) Jahangir (c) Shah Jahan (d) Aurangzeb Correct Solution: B While Mughal painting developed significantly under Akbar, it is considered to have reached its zenith during the reign of Jahangir. Jahangir was a keen connoisseur of art and nature, and painting under his patronage excelled in portraiture and realistic depiction of flora and fauna, with famous artists like Ustad Mansur specializing in nature studies. Shah Jahan’s focus shifted more towards architecture, and Aurangzeb discouraged painting at the imperial court. Incorrect Solution: B While Mughal painting developed significantly under Akbar, it is considered to have reached its zenith during the reign of Jahangir. Jahangir was a keen connoisseur of art and nature, and painting under his patronage excelled in portraiture and realistic depiction of flora and fauna, with famous artists like Ustad Mansur specializing in nature studies. Shah Jahan’s focus shifted more towards architecture, and Aurangzeb discouraged painting at the imperial court.

#### 9. Question

Mughal painting reached its climax, characterized by refined naturalism, focus on portraiture, and depiction of birds, animals, and flowers, under the patronage of which Emperor?

• (b) Jahangir

• (c) Shah Jahan

• (d) Aurangzeb

Solution: B

While Mughal painting developed significantly under Akbar, it is considered to have reached its zenith during the reign of Jahangir. Jahangir was a keen connoisseur of art and nature, and painting under his patronage excelled in portraiture and realistic depiction of flora and fauna, with famous artists like Ustad Mansur specializing in nature studies. Shah Jahan’s focus shifted more towards architecture, and Aurangzeb discouraged painting at the imperial court.

Solution: B

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points The Bahmani Sultanate, a significant power in the Deccan, eventually fragmented into five independent Sultanates. Which of the following was not one of these successor states? (a) Bijapur (Adil Shahi) (b) Golconda (Qutb Shahi) (c) Khandesh (Faruqi) (d) Ahmadnagar (Nizam Shahi) Correct Solution: C The Bahmani Sultanate disintegrated in the late 15th and early 16th centuries into five successor states, often referred to as the Deccan Sultanates: Bijapur (founded by Adil Shahis), Golconda (Qutb Shahis), Ahmadnagar (Nizam Shahis), Berar (Imad Shahis), and Bidar (Barid Shahis). Khandesh was a separate kingdom located north of these, in the Tapti river valley. Incorrect Solution: C The Bahmani Sultanate disintegrated in the late 15th and early 16th centuries into five successor states, often referred to as the Deccan Sultanates: Bijapur (founded by Adil Shahis), Golconda (Qutb Shahis), Ahmadnagar (Nizam Shahis), Berar (Imad Shahis), and Bidar (Barid Shahis). Khandesh was a separate kingdom located north of these, in the Tapti river valley.

#### 10. Question

The Bahmani Sultanate, a significant power in the Deccan, eventually fragmented into five independent Sultanates. Which of the following was not one of these successor states?

• (a) Bijapur (Adil Shahi)

• (b) Golconda (Qutb Shahi)

• (c) Khandesh (Faruqi)

• (d) Ahmadnagar (Nizam Shahi)

Solution: C

The Bahmani Sultanate disintegrated in the late 15th and early 16th centuries into five successor states, often referred to as the Deccan Sultanates: Bijapur (founded by Adil Shahis), Golconda (Qutb Shahis), Ahmadnagar (Nizam Shahis), Berar (Imad Shahis), and Bidar (Barid Shahis). Khandesh was a separate kingdom located north of these, in the Tapti river valley.

Solution: C

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Mughal period : Milkiyat were extensive personal lands owned by zamindars in rural areas. Milkiyat lands were hereditary and the zamindars were not allowed to sell or mortgage them. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution : A Milkiyat, meaning property, were personal lands held by zamindars during Mughal period These lands were cultivated for private use of zamindars often with the help of hired labourers. During the Mughal period the zamindars lived off agriculture but did not participate directly in the process of agricultural production These landed proprietors enjoyed certain social and economic privileges due to their superior status in the rural society ; caste was one factor that accounted for elevated status of zamindars and other factor was that they performed certain services or khidmat for the state. Hence statements 1 is correct The zamindars could sell, mortgage or bequeath these lands at will. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution : A Milkiyat, meaning property, were personal lands held by zamindars during Mughal period These lands were cultivated for private use of zamindars often with the help of hired labourers. During the Mughal period the zamindars lived off agriculture but did not participate directly in the process of agricultural production These landed proprietors enjoyed certain social and economic privileges due to their superior status in the rural society ; caste was one factor that accounted for elevated status of zamindars and other factor was that they performed certain services or khidmat for the state. Hence statements 1 is correct The zamindars could sell, mortgage or bequeath these lands at will. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

#### 11. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Mughal period :

• Milkiyat were extensive personal lands owned by zamindars in rural areas.

• Milkiyat lands were hereditary and the zamindars were not allowed to sell or mortgage them.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : A

• Milkiyat, meaning property, were personal lands held by zamindars during Mughal period

• These lands were cultivated for private use of zamindars often with the help of hired labourers.

• During the Mughal period the zamindars lived off agriculture but did not participate directly in the process of agricultural production

• These landed proprietors enjoyed certain social and economic privileges due to their superior status in the rural society ; caste was one factor that accounted for elevated status of zamindars and other factor was that they performed certain services or khidmat for the state.

Hence statements 1 is correct

• The zamindars could sell, mortgage or bequeath these lands at will.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Solution : A

• Milkiyat, meaning property, were personal lands held by zamindars during Mughal period

• These lands were cultivated for private use of zamindars often with the help of hired labourers.

• During the Mughal period the zamindars lived off agriculture but did not participate directly in the process of agricultural production

Hence statements 1 is correct

• The zamindars could sell, mortgage or bequeath these lands at will.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Virashaivas worship Shiva in the form of a Linga. Virashaivas rejected supremacy of the Brahmanas. Virashaivas questioned the theory of rebirth. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 only Correct Solution: C The 12th century witnessed the emergence of a new Movement in Karnataka led by a Brahmana name Basavanna. He was initially a Jaina and a minister in the court of a Chalukya king. Lingayats or Virashaivas are followers of Basavanna. Virashaivas worship Lord Shiva in his manifestation as a Linga. They believe that on death the devotee will be united with Shiva and will not return to the world and hence, do not practice funerary rights such as cremation. Lingayats challenged the idea of caste and supremacy of the Brahmana as well as questioned the theory of rebirth They encouraged certain practices disapproved in the Dharmashastras, including remarriage of widows. Our understanding of the Virashaiva tradition is derived from vachanas composed in Kannada by women and men who joined the movement. Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct Incorrect Solution: C The 12th century witnessed the emergence of a new Movement in Karnataka led by a Brahmana name Basavanna. He was initially a Jaina and a minister in the court of a Chalukya king. Lingayats or Virashaivas are followers of Basavanna. Virashaivas worship Lord Shiva in his manifestation as a Linga. They believe that on death the devotee will be united with Shiva and will not return to the world and hence, do not practice funerary rights such as cremation. Lingayats challenged the idea of caste and supremacy of the Brahmana as well as questioned the theory of rebirth They encouraged certain practices disapproved in the Dharmashastras, including remarriage of widows. Our understanding of the Virashaiva tradition is derived from vachanas composed in Kannada by women and men who joined the movement. Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct

#### 12. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Virashaivas worship Shiva in the form of a Linga.

• Virashaivas rejected supremacy of the Brahmanas.

• Virashaivas questioned the theory of rebirth.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3

• (d) 1 only

Solution: C

The 12th century witnessed the emergence of a new Movement in Karnataka led by a Brahmana name Basavanna.

• He was initially a Jaina and a minister in the court of a Chalukya king.

• Lingayats or Virashaivas are followers of Basavanna.

• Virashaivas worship Lord Shiva in his manifestation as a Linga.

• They believe that on death the devotee will be united with Shiva and will not return to the world and hence, do not practice funerary rights such as cremation.

• Lingayats challenged the idea of caste and supremacy of the Brahmana as well as questioned the theory of rebirth

• They encouraged certain practices disapproved in the Dharmashastras, including remarriage of widows.

• Our understanding of the Virashaiva tradition is derived from vachanas composed in Kannada by women and men who joined the movement.

Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Solution: C

The 12th century witnessed the emergence of a new Movement in Karnataka led by a Brahmana name Basavanna.

• He was initially a Jaina and a minister in the court of a Chalukya king.

• Lingayats or Virashaivas are followers of Basavanna.

• Virashaivas worship Lord Shiva in his manifestation as a Linga.

• They believe that on death the devotee will be united with Shiva and will not return to the world and hence, do not practice funerary rights such as cremation.

• Lingayats challenged the idea of caste and supremacy of the Brahmana as well as questioned the theory of rebirth

• They encouraged certain practices disapproved in the Dharmashastras, including remarriage of widows.

• Our understanding of the Virashaiva tradition is derived from vachanas composed in Kannada by women and men who joined the movement.

Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Chola administration : The entire Chola state was divided into four Mandalams. Nadus formed the basic unit of administration. Nadus were grouped into Valanadus. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution : C The entire Chola state was divided into four provinces which were termed Mandalams. Sometimes princes of royal families were appointed governor of these Mandalams. Officials were generally paid by giving them assignments of revenue bearing lands. The Chola state included area of Central control as well as loosely administered area under different types of local control. The basic unit of administration during this period was Nadu which consisted of a number of villages having close kinship ties and other close associations. The number of Nadus increased as fresh lands were brought under cultivation by irrigation and converting hill or tribal people into agriculturists. The Nadus were grouped into Valanadus. Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct Incorrect Solution : C The entire Chola state was divided into four provinces which were termed Mandalams. Sometimes princes of royal families were appointed governor of these Mandalams. Officials were generally paid by giving them assignments of revenue bearing lands. The Chola state included area of Central control as well as loosely administered area under different types of local control. The basic unit of administration during this period was Nadu which consisted of a number of villages having close kinship ties and other close associations. The number of Nadus increased as fresh lands were brought under cultivation by irrigation and converting hill or tribal people into agriculturists. The Nadus were grouped into Valanadus. Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct

#### 13. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Chola administration :

• The entire Chola state was divided into four Mandalams.

• Nadus formed the basic unit of administration.

• Nadus were grouped into Valanadus.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution : C

• The entire Chola state was divided into four provinces which were termed Mandalams.

• Sometimes princes of royal families were appointed governor of these Mandalams.

• Officials were generally paid by giving them assignments of revenue bearing lands.

• The Chola state included area of Central control as well as loosely administered area under different types of local control.

• The basic unit of administration during this period was Nadu which consisted of a number of villages having close kinship ties and other close associations.

• The number of Nadus increased as fresh lands were brought under cultivation by irrigation and converting hill or tribal people into agriculturists.

• The Nadus were grouped into Valanadus.

Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Solution : C

• The entire Chola state was divided into four provinces which were termed Mandalams.

• Sometimes princes of royal families were appointed governor of these Mandalams.

• Officials were generally paid by giving them assignments of revenue bearing lands.

• The Chola state included area of Central control as well as loosely administered area under different types of local control.

• The basic unit of administration during this period was Nadu which consisted of a number of villages having close kinship ties and other close associations.

• The number of Nadus increased as fresh lands were brought under cultivation by irrigation and converting hill or tribal people into agriculturists.

• The Nadus were grouped into Valanadus.

Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Mihir Bhoja : His advance towards Eastern India was checked by the Rashtrakutas. Details of his reign are available from travelogues of Arab traveler Sulaiman. He assumed the title Adivaraha. The Sanskrit dramatist Rajashekhar was patronised by him. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 2 and 3 only Correct Solution : D Mihir Bhoj was the real founder of Pratihara Empire and the greatest ruler of the dynasty. He rebuilt the empire and by about 836AD, he recovered Kanauj and made it his capital. Bhoja tried to extend his empire in the east but he was defeated and checked by the Pala ruler Devapala. After the death of Devapala and weakening of Pala Empire, Bhoja extended his empire in the East. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The travelogue of Arab traveler Sulaiman is important among the historical sources available for constructing the details of Mihir bhoj Bho has been described as a Gurjar ruler by the traveller. Hence statement 2 is correct Bhoja was a devotee of Vishnu and adopted the title Adivaraha. It has been found inscribed in some of his coins. Hence statement 3 is correct Rajashekhar was a famous Sanskrit poet and dramatist who lived at the court of Mahipala, the grandson of Bhoja. Hence statement 4 is incorrect Incorrect Solution : D Mihir Bhoj was the real founder of Pratihara Empire and the greatest ruler of the dynasty. He rebuilt the empire and by about 836AD, he recovered Kanauj and made it his capital. Bhoja tried to extend his empire in the east but he was defeated and checked by the Pala ruler Devapala. After the death of Devapala and weakening of Pala Empire, Bhoja extended his empire in the East. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The travelogue of Arab traveler Sulaiman is important among the historical sources available for constructing the details of Mihir bhoj Bho has been described as a Gurjar ruler by the traveller. Hence statement 2 is correct Bhoja was a devotee of Vishnu and adopted the title Adivaraha. It has been found inscribed in some of his coins. Hence statement 3 is correct Rajashekhar was a famous Sanskrit poet and dramatist who lived at the court of Mahipala, the grandson of Bhoja. Hence statement 4 is incorrect

#### 14. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Mihir Bhoja :

• His advance towards Eastern India was checked by the Rashtrakutas.

• Details of his reign are available from travelogues of Arab traveler Sulaiman.

• He assumed the title Adivaraha.

• The Sanskrit dramatist Rajashekhar was patronised by him.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1, 3 and 4 only

• (b) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 4 only

• (d) 2 and 3 only

Solution : D

Mihir Bhoj was the real founder of Pratihara Empire and the greatest ruler of the dynasty.

• He rebuilt the empire and by about 836AD, he recovered Kanauj and made it his capital.

• Bhoja tried to extend his empire in the east but he was defeated and checked by the Pala ruler Devapala.

• After the death of Devapala and weakening of Pala Empire, Bhoja extended his empire in the East.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The travelogue of Arab traveler Sulaiman is important among the historical sources available for constructing the details of Mihir bhoj

• Bho has been described as a Gurjar ruler by the traveller.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Bhoja was a devotee of Vishnu and adopted the title Adivaraha.

• It has been found inscribed in some of his coins.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Rajashekhar was a famous Sanskrit poet and dramatist who lived at the court of Mahipala, the grandson of Bhoja.

Hence statement 4 is incorrect

Solution : D

Mihir Bhoj was the real founder of Pratihara Empire and the greatest ruler of the dynasty.

• He rebuilt the empire and by about 836AD, he recovered Kanauj and made it his capital.

• Bhoja tried to extend his empire in the east but he was defeated and checked by the Pala ruler Devapala.

• After the death of Devapala and weakening of Pala Empire, Bhoja extended his empire in the East.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The travelogue of Arab traveler Sulaiman is important among the historical sources available for constructing the details of Mihir bhoj

• Bho has been described as a Gurjar ruler by the traveller.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Bhoja was a devotee of Vishnu and adopted the title Adivaraha.

• It has been found inscribed in some of his coins.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Rajashekhar was a famous Sanskrit poet and dramatist who lived at the court of Mahipala, the grandson of Bhoja.

Hence statement 4 is incorrect

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Which of the following Dynasties was *not* established in modern day Kashmir? (a) Yashaskara Dynasty (b) Chodaganga Dynasty (c) Utpala Dynasty (d) Karkota Dynasty Correct Solution : B Yashaskara Dynasty was a medieval dynasty that was established in Kashmir. Queen Didda was a prominent figure of this dynasty who ruled from 958 to 1003 CE. Her career has been described by Kalhana in Rajatarangini. The Eastern Ganga Dynasty or the Chodaganga was a Hindu dynasty that reigned from 11th to early 15th century in Odisha and parts of West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh and Chhattisgarh. Utpala Dynasty was a medieval dynasty established in Kashmir. It extended from the 9th to 10th centuries ; it was founded by Avanti Varman in 855 CE and replaced the Karkota dynasty. The cities of Avantipur and Suryapur was founded and many Hindu temples and Buddhist monasteries were found it by rulers of the dynasty. Karkota Dynasty was founded in early 7th century in Kashmir; it marked the rise of Kashmir as a power in Central Asia and Northern India. It was founded by Durlabh Vardhana during the reign of Harshavardhana. Hieun Tsang visited Kashmir during his reign. Hence option B is correct Incorrect Solution : B Yashaskara Dynasty was a medieval dynasty that was established in Kashmir. Queen Didda was a prominent figure of this dynasty who ruled from 958 to 1003 CE. Her career has been described by Kalhana in Rajatarangini. The Eastern Ganga Dynasty or the Chodaganga was a Hindu dynasty that reigned from 11th to early 15th century in Odisha and parts of West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh and Chhattisgarh. Utpala Dynasty was a medieval dynasty established in Kashmir. It extended from the 9th to 10th centuries ; it was founded by Avanti Varman in 855 CE and replaced the Karkota dynasty. The cities of Avantipur and Suryapur was founded and many Hindu temples and Buddhist monasteries were found it by rulers of the dynasty. Karkota Dynasty was founded in early 7th century in Kashmir; it marked the rise of Kashmir as a power in Central Asia and Northern India. It was founded by Durlabh Vardhana during the reign of Harshavardhana. Hieun Tsang visited Kashmir during his reign. Hence option B is correct

#### 15. Question

Which of the following Dynasties was *not* established in modern day Kashmir?

• (a) Yashaskara Dynasty

• (b) Chodaganga Dynasty

• (c) Utpala Dynasty

• (d) Karkota Dynasty

Solution : B

• Yashaskara Dynasty was a medieval dynasty that was established in Kashmir. Queen Didda was a prominent figure of this dynasty who ruled from 958 to 1003 CE. Her career has been described by Kalhana in Rajatarangini.

• The Eastern Ganga Dynasty or the Chodaganga was a Hindu dynasty that reigned from 11th to early 15th century in Odisha and parts of West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh and Chhattisgarh.

• Utpala Dynasty was a medieval dynasty established in Kashmir. It extended from the 9th to 10th centuries ; it was founded by Avanti Varman in 855 CE and replaced the Karkota dynasty. The cities of Avantipur and Suryapur was founded and many Hindu temples and Buddhist monasteries were found it by rulers of the dynasty.

• Karkota Dynasty was founded in early 7th century in Kashmir; it marked the rise of Kashmir as a power in Central Asia and Northern India. It was founded by Durlabh Vardhana during the reign of Harshavardhana. Hieun Tsang visited Kashmir during his reign.

Hence option B is correct

Solution : B

• The Eastern Ganga Dynasty or the Chodaganga was a Hindu dynasty that reigned from 11th to early 15th century in Odisha and parts of West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh and Chhattisgarh.

Hence option B is correct

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Paleolithic men of India belonged to the Negrito race. Homo sapiens or modern humans emerged during the Upper Paleolithic period. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C The Paleolithic age is the earliest period of stone age which developed in the Pleistocene period. Paleolithic men of India are said to have belonged to the Negrito race and lived in the open air caves and rock Shelters ; they were food gathering people who lived on hunting and gathered wild fruits and vegetables. Hence statement 1 is correct The Upper or Late Paleolithic period spanned form 40000 to 10000 BCE . Homo sapiens first appeared at the end of this phase, thereby marking increase in cognitive capability of humans It also coincided with last phase of the Ice Age when the climate became comparatively warmer and less humid. Hence statement 2 is correct Incorrect Solution: C The Paleolithic age is the earliest period of stone age which developed in the Pleistocene period. Paleolithic men of India are said to have belonged to the Negrito race and lived in the open air caves and rock Shelters ; they were food gathering people who lived on hunting and gathered wild fruits and vegetables. Hence statement 1 is correct The Upper or Late Paleolithic period spanned form 40000 to 10000 BCE . Homo sapiens first appeared at the end of this phase, thereby marking increase in cognitive capability of humans It also coincided with last phase of the Ice Age when the climate became comparatively warmer and less humid. Hence statement 2 is correct

#### 16. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Paleolithic men of India belonged to the Negrito race.

• Homo sapiens or modern humans emerged during the Upper Paleolithic period.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

• The Paleolithic age is the earliest period of stone age which developed in the Pleistocene period.

• Paleolithic men of India are said to have belonged to the Negrito race and lived in the open air caves and rock Shelters ; they were food gathering people who lived on hunting and gathered wild fruits and vegetables.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The Upper or Late Paleolithic period spanned form 40000 to 10000 BCE .

• Homo sapiens first appeared at the end of this phase, thereby marking increase in cognitive capability of humans

• It also coincided with last phase of the Ice Age when the climate became comparatively warmer and less humid.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Solution: C

• The Paleolithic age is the earliest period of stone age which developed in the Pleistocene period.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The Upper or Late Paleolithic period spanned form 40000 to 10000 BCE .

• Homo sapiens first appeared at the end of this phase, thereby marking increase in cognitive capability of humans

• It also coincided with last phase of the Ice Age when the climate became comparatively warmer and less humid.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : Silver punch marked coins, which are the first documented coinage in India, were issued by merchant guilds in the 6th century BC. Coins issued by the Gupta rulers are the earliest coins to bear dates, starting with the Gupta Era. Silver Coins issued by Satavahanas had portraits and bilingual legends, inspired by Kshatrapa coins. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The first documented coinage is deemed to start with punch marked coins issued between 6th– 7th century BC and 1st century AD. These were mostly made of silver and bear symbols which was punched on the coin with a separate punch It was issued initially by merchant guilds and later by the states these coins represented a trade currency belonging to a period of intense trade activity and Urban Development- the first period is attributed to the janapadas and the second to the imperial Mauryan period. Hence statement 1 is correct The term Western Kshatrapas refers to the set of rulers who ruled Western India between 1st and 4th century AD The legends on the Kshatrapa coins were generally in Greek and Brahmi as well as Kharosthi in some cases The Western Kshatrapa coins are reckoned to be the earliest coins bearing dates. Hence statement 2 is incorrect The Satavahanas ruled between the rivers Godavari and the Krishna. Their coins were predominantly of Copper and lead; however they also issued silver coins Their coins carried motifs of animals like elephants, lions and other animals, often juxtaposed against motifs from nature like hills, trees, etc. The silver coins of the dynasty carried portraits and billingual legends which were inspired by the Kshatrapa coins. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: B The first documented coinage is deemed to start with punch marked coins issued between 6th– 7th century BC and 1st century AD. These were mostly made of silver and bear symbols which was punched on the coin with a separate punch It was issued initially by merchant guilds and later by the states these coins represented a trade currency belonging to a period of intense trade activity and Urban Development- the first period is attributed to the janapadas and the second to the imperial Mauryan period. Hence statement 1 is correct The term Western Kshatrapas refers to the set of rulers who ruled Western India between 1st and 4th century AD The legends on the Kshatrapa coins were generally in Greek and Brahmi as well as Kharosthi in some cases The Western Kshatrapa coins are reckoned to be the earliest coins bearing dates. Hence statement 2 is incorrect The Satavahanas ruled between the rivers Godavari and the Krishna. Their coins were predominantly of Copper and lead; however they also issued silver coins Their coins carried motifs of animals like elephants, lions and other animals, often juxtaposed against motifs from nature like hills, trees, etc. The silver coins of the dynasty carried portraits and billingual legends which were inspired by the Kshatrapa coins. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 17. Question

Consider the following statements :

• Silver punch marked coins, which are the first documented coinage in India, were issued by merchant guilds in the 6th century BC.

• Coins issued by the Gupta rulers are the earliest coins to bear dates, starting with the Gupta Era.

• Silver Coins issued by Satavahanas had portraits and bilingual legends, inspired by Kshatrapa coins.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• The first documented coinage is deemed to start with punch marked coins issued between 6th– 7th century BC and 1st century AD.

• These were mostly made of silver and bear symbols which was punched on the coin with a separate punch

• It was issued initially by merchant guilds and later by the states

• these coins represented a trade currency belonging to a period of intense trade activity and Urban Development- the first period is attributed to the janapadas and the second to the imperial Mauryan period.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The term Western Kshatrapas refers to the set of rulers who ruled Western India between 1st and 4th century AD

• The legends on the Kshatrapa coins were generally in Greek and Brahmi as well as Kharosthi in some cases

• The Western Kshatrapa coins are reckoned to be the earliest coins bearing dates.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• The Satavahanas ruled between the rivers Godavari and the Krishna.

• Their coins were predominantly of Copper and lead; however they also issued silver coins

• Their coins carried motifs of animals like elephants, lions and other animals, often juxtaposed against motifs from nature like hills, trees, etc.

• The silver coins of the dynasty carried portraits and billingual legends which were inspired by the Kshatrapa coins.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: B

• The first documented coinage is deemed to start with punch marked coins issued between 6th– 7th century BC and 1st century AD.

• These were mostly made of silver and bear symbols which was punched on the coin with a separate punch

• It was issued initially by merchant guilds and later by the states

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The term Western Kshatrapas refers to the set of rulers who ruled Western India between 1st and 4th century AD

• The legends on the Kshatrapa coins were generally in Greek and Brahmi as well as Kharosthi in some cases

• The Western Kshatrapa coins are reckoned to be the earliest coins bearing dates.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• The Satavahanas ruled between the rivers Godavari and the Krishna.

• Their coins were predominantly of Copper and lead; however they also issued silver coins

• Their coins carried motifs of animals like elephants, lions and other animals, often juxtaposed against motifs from nature like hills, trees, etc.

• The silver coins of the dynasty carried portraits and billingual legends which were inspired by the Kshatrapa coins.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following Dynasties: Nanda Dynasty Shishunaga Dynasty Kanva Dynasty Haryanka Dynasty Which of the above dynasties ruled before establishment of the Mauryan dynasty? (a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only Correct Solution: C Mauryan dynasty was established in 321BC. Nanda Dynasty (345-321BC) was established by Mahapadma Nanda; Dhanananda was the last important king of the dynasty who was over thrown by Chandragupta Maurya and established the Mauryan dynasty. Shishunaga Dynasty (413BC) was in power till about 345 BC. It was founded by Shishunaga (a viceroy at Varanasi); Shishunaga and Kalashoka were the two main important rulers of the dynasty. Haryanka Dynasty was founded actually by Bimbisara around 544BC. He was a contemporary of both Buddha and Mahavira. It’s capital was Rajgriha. Hence options 1, 2 and 4 are correct Kanva Dynasty was established around 73 BC and was in power till 28 BC. It was founded after Vasudeva Kanva overthrew the preceding Sunga dynasty. Hence option 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: C Mauryan dynasty was established in 321BC. Nanda Dynasty (345-321BC) was established by Mahapadma Nanda; Dhanananda was the last important king of the dynasty who was over thrown by Chandragupta Maurya and established the Mauryan dynasty. Shishunaga Dynasty (413BC) was in power till about 345 BC. It was founded by Shishunaga (a viceroy at Varanasi); Shishunaga and Kalashoka were the two main important rulers of the dynasty. Haryanka Dynasty was founded actually by Bimbisara around 544BC. He was a contemporary of both Buddha and Mahavira. It’s capital was Rajgriha. Hence options 1, 2 and 4 are correct Kanva Dynasty was established around 73 BC and was in power till 28 BC. It was founded after Vasudeva Kanva overthrew the preceding Sunga dynasty. Hence option 3 is incorrect

#### 18. Question

Consider the following Dynasties:

• Nanda Dynasty

• Shishunaga Dynasty

• Kanva Dynasty

• Haryanka Dynasty

Which of the above dynasties ruled before establishment of the Mauryan dynasty?

• (a) 1, 3 and 4 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 4 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Solution: C

Mauryan dynasty was established in 321BC.

• Nanda Dynasty (345-321BC) was established by Mahapadma Nanda; Dhanananda was the last important king of the dynasty who was over thrown by Chandragupta Maurya and established the Mauryan dynasty.

• Shishunaga Dynasty (413BC) was in power till about 345 BC. It was founded by Shishunaga (a viceroy at Varanasi); Shishunaga and Kalashoka were the two main important rulers of the dynasty.

• Haryanka Dynasty was founded actually by Bimbisara around 544BC. He was a contemporary of both Buddha and Mahavira. It’s capital was Rajgriha.

Hence options 1, 2 and 4 are correct

• Kanva Dynasty was established around 73 BC and was in power till 28 BC. It was founded after Vasudeva Kanva overthrew the preceding Sunga dynasty.

Hence option 3 is incorrect

Solution: C

Mauryan dynasty was established in 321BC.

• Shishunaga Dynasty (413BC) was in power till about 345 BC. It was founded by Shishunaga (a viceroy at Varanasi); Shishunaga and Kalashoka were the two main important rulers of the dynasty.

• Haryanka Dynasty was founded actually by Bimbisara around 544BC. He was a contemporary of both Buddha and Mahavira. It’s capital was Rajgriha.

Hence options 1, 2 and 4 are correct

• Kanva Dynasty was established around 73 BC and was in power till 28 BC. It was founded after Vasudeva Kanva overthrew the preceding Sunga dynasty.

Hence option 3 is incorrect

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points The Buddhist chant ‘ *Om Mani Padme Hum*’ is originally related to : (a) Mahakassappa (b) Avalokitesvara (c) Samantabhadra (d) Nagarjuna Correct Solution : B The Buddhist chanting ‘Om Mani padme hum’ is associated with Bodhisattva Avalokitesvara or the Bodhisattva of Compassion. It is a Sanskrit mantra associated with Buddhism It first appeared in the Mahayana Karandavyuhasutra where it is referred to as Sadaksara. The Mantra in this text, is considered as the condensed form of all Buddhist teachings; Recitation of this Mantra while using prayer beads is the most popular practice in Tibetan Buddhism. Avalokitesvara is the tenth level Bodhisattva associated with great compassion; he has been depicted in various forms and styles. He is usually depicted as white in colour and holding a Lotus and is also known as Padmapani. He is considered as the manifestation of Amitabha, the Buddha of infinite light. Hence option B is correct Incorrect Solution : B The Buddhist chanting ‘Om Mani padme hum’ is associated with Bodhisattva Avalokitesvara or the Bodhisattva of Compassion. It is a Sanskrit mantra associated with Buddhism It first appeared in the Mahayana Karandavyuhasutra where it is referred to as Sadaksara. The Mantra in this text, is considered as the condensed form of all Buddhist teachings; Recitation of this Mantra while using prayer beads is the most popular practice in Tibetan Buddhism. Avalokitesvara is the tenth level Bodhisattva associated with great compassion; he has been depicted in various forms and styles. He is usually depicted as white in colour and holding a Lotus and is also known as Padmapani. He is considered as the manifestation of Amitabha, the Buddha of infinite light. Hence option B is correct

#### 19. Question

The Buddhist chant ‘ *Om Mani Padme Hum*’ is originally related to :

• (a) Mahakassappa

• (b) Avalokitesvara

• (c) Samantabhadra

• (d) Nagarjuna

Solution : B

• The Buddhist chanting ‘Om Mani padme hum’ is associated with Bodhisattva Avalokitesvara or the Bodhisattva of Compassion.

• It is a Sanskrit mantra associated with Buddhism

• It first appeared in the Mahayana Karandavyuhasutra where it is referred to as Sadaksara.

• The Mantra in this text, is considered as the condensed form of all Buddhist teachings;

• Recitation of this Mantra while using prayer beads is the most popular practice in Tibetan Buddhism.

• Avalokitesvara is the tenth level Bodhisattva associated with great compassion; he has been depicted in various forms and styles. He is usually depicted as white in colour and holding a Lotus and is also known as Padmapani. He is considered as the manifestation of Amitabha, the Buddha of infinite light.

Hence option B is correct

Solution : B

• The Buddhist chanting ‘Om Mani padme hum’ is associated with Bodhisattva Avalokitesvara or the Bodhisattva of Compassion.

• It is a Sanskrit mantra associated with Buddhism

• It first appeared in the Mahayana Karandavyuhasutra where it is referred to as Sadaksara.

• The Mantra in this text, is considered as the condensed form of all Buddhist teachings;

• Recitation of this Mantra while using prayer beads is the most popular practice in Tibetan Buddhism.

Hence option B is correct

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : Pit burial was practiced by the Harappan people. Harappan graves are characterized by absence of objects. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A At burials in Harappan sites, the dead were usually laid in pits. Sometimes there were differences in the way burial pit was made; in some instances hollowed out spaces were lined with bricks. Hence statement 1 is correct Harappan graves contain several objects including jewellery. In Harappan sites some graves contain pottery and ornaments, perhaps indicating a belief that these could be used in the afterlife. Jewellery has been found in burials of both men and women An ornament consisting of three shale rings- a Jasper beas and hundreds of microbeads was found near the skull of a male has been found at a Harappan site. In some instances dead were buried with copper mirrors. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: A At burials in Harappan sites, the dead were usually laid in pits. Sometimes there were differences in the way burial pit was made; in some instances hollowed out spaces were lined with bricks. Hence statement 1 is correct Harappan graves contain several objects including jewellery. In Harappan sites some graves contain pottery and ornaments, perhaps indicating a belief that these could be used in the afterlife. Jewellery has been found in burials of both men and women An ornament consisting of three shale rings- a Jasper beas and hundreds of microbeads was found near the skull of a male has been found at a Harappan site. In some instances dead were buried with copper mirrors. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

#### 20. Question

Consider the following statements :

• Pit burial was practiced by the Harappan people.

• Harappan graves are characterized by absence of objects.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

• At burials in Harappan sites, the dead were usually laid in pits.

• Sometimes there were differences in the way burial pit was made; in some instances hollowed out spaces were lined with bricks.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Harappan graves contain several objects including jewellery.

• In Harappan sites some graves contain pottery and ornaments, perhaps indicating a belief that these could be used in the afterlife.

• Jewellery has been found in burials of both men and women

• An ornament consisting of three shale rings- a Jasper beas and hundreds of microbeads was found near the skull of a male has been found at a Harappan site.

• In some instances dead were buried with copper mirrors.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Solution: A

• At burials in Harappan sites, the dead were usually laid in pits.

• Sometimes there were differences in the way burial pit was made; in some instances hollowed out spaces were lined with bricks.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Harappan graves contain several objects including jewellery.

• In Harappan sites some graves contain pottery and ornaments, perhaps indicating a belief that these could be used in the afterlife.

• Jewellery has been found in burials of both men and women

• An ornament consisting of three shale rings- a Jasper beas and hundreds of microbeads was found near the skull of a male has been found at a Harappan site.

• In some instances dead were buried with copper mirrors.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Which of the following are essential components of the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY)? Crop yield estimation through satellite and remote sensing Post-harvest loss coverage due to cyclonic rains Fixed premium for all farmers irrespective of crop Integration with Kisan Credit Card (KCC) Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) for claim settlement Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 5 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only Correct Solution: A The PMFBY, operational since 2016, ensures farmer resilience through key components. Crop yield estimation via satellite and remote sensing (1) is essential, leveraging technology for precise loss assessment, as expanded in 2024 (e.g., drone pilots). Post-harvest loss coverage due to cyclonic rains (2) is a critical feature, protecting crops for 14 days post-harvest against named perils (e.g., 2024 cyclone claims in Odisha). The fixed premium (3) notion is misleading—farmers pay 2% (Kharif), 1.5% (Rabi), or 5% (commercial), varying by crop, not a uniform rate across all, with subsidies covering the rest. Integration with Kisan Credit Card (4) streamlines coverage for loanee farmers, a vital mechanism despite its optional status since 2020. Direct Benefit Transfer (5) ensures timely, transparent claim payouts (e.g., ₹1.55 lakh crore by 2025), a cornerstone of the scheme. Option (a)—1, 2, and 5—encapsulates technology, risk coverage, and payment efficiency, aligning with PMFBY’s objectives. Incorrect Solution: A The PMFBY, operational since 2016, ensures farmer resilience through key components. Crop yield estimation via satellite and remote sensing (1) is essential, leveraging technology for precise loss assessment, as expanded in 2024 (e.g., drone pilots). Post-harvest loss coverage due to cyclonic rains (2) is a critical feature, protecting crops for 14 days post-harvest against named perils (e.g., 2024 cyclone claims in Odisha). The fixed premium (3) notion is misleading—farmers pay 2% (Kharif), 1.5% (Rabi), or 5% (commercial), varying by crop, not a uniform rate across all, with subsidies covering the rest. Integration with Kisan Credit Card (4) streamlines coverage for loanee farmers, a vital mechanism despite its optional status since 2020. Direct Benefit Transfer (5) ensures timely, transparent claim payouts (e.g., ₹1.55 lakh crore by 2025), a cornerstone of the scheme. Option (a)—1, 2, and 5—encapsulates technology, risk coverage, and payment efficiency, aligning with PMFBY’s objectives.

#### 21. Question

Which of the following are essential components of the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY)?

• Crop yield estimation through satellite and remote sensing

• Post-harvest loss coverage due to cyclonic rains

• Fixed premium for all farmers irrespective of crop

• Integration with Kisan Credit Card (KCC)

• Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) for claim settlement

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1, 2 and 5 only

• (b) 2, 3 and 4 only

• (c) 1, 3 and 4 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Solution: A

The PMFBY, operational since 2016, ensures farmer resilience through key components. Crop yield estimation via satellite and remote sensing (1) is essential, leveraging technology for precise loss assessment, as expanded in 2024 (e.g., drone pilots).

• Post-harvest loss coverage due to cyclonic rains (2) is a critical feature, protecting crops for 14 days post-harvest against named perils (e.g., 2024 cyclone claims in Odisha).

• The fixed premium (3) notion is misleading—farmers pay 2% (Kharif), 1.5% (Rabi), or 5% (commercial), varying by crop, not a uniform rate across all, with subsidies covering the rest.

• Integration with Kisan Credit Card (4) streamlines coverage for loanee farmers, a vital mechanism despite its optional status since 2020.

• Direct Benefit Transfer (5) ensures timely, transparent claim payouts (e.g., ₹1.55 lakh crore by 2025), a cornerstone of the scheme.

• Option (a)—1, 2, and 5—encapsulates technology, risk coverage, and payment efficiency, aligning with PMFBY’s objectives.

Solution: A

• Post-harvest loss coverage due to cyclonic rains (2) is a critical feature, protecting crops for 14 days post-harvest against named perils (e.g., 2024 cyclone claims in Odisha).

• The fixed premium (3) notion is misleading—farmers pay 2% (Kharif), 1.5% (Rabi), or 5% (commercial), varying by crop, not a uniform rate across all, with subsidies covering the rest.

• Integration with Kisan Credit Card (4) streamlines coverage for loanee farmers, a vital mechanism despite its optional status since 2020.

• Direct Benefit Transfer (5) ensures timely, transparent claim payouts (e.g., ₹1.55 lakh crore by 2025), a cornerstone of the scheme.

• Option (a)—1, 2, and 5—encapsulates technology, risk coverage, and payment efficiency, aligning with PMFBY’s objectives.

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points The National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA) derives its statutory power to regulate the prices of essential medicines primarily from which of the following legal frameworks? (a) The Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 (b) The Essential Commodities Act, 1955 and Drugs (Prices Control) Order, 2013 (c) The Medical Devices Rules, 2017 (d) The National Health Mission Guidelines Correct Solution: B Explanation: The NPPA, established in 1997, derives its legal and regulatory authority from two frameworks: Essential Commodities Act, 1955: Enables the government to control the production, supply, and distribution of essential commodities, including essential drugs, in public interest. Drugs (Prices Control) Order (DPCO), 2013: Under this, NPPA is empowered to fix, revise, and monitor ceiling prices of essential medicines and medical devices. Incorrect Solution: B Explanation: The NPPA, established in 1997, derives its legal and regulatory authority from two frameworks: Essential Commodities Act, 1955: Enables the government to control the production, supply, and distribution of essential commodities, including essential drugs, in public interest. Drugs (Prices Control) Order (DPCO), 2013: Under this, NPPA is empowered to fix, revise, and monitor ceiling prices of essential medicines and medical devices.

#### 22. Question

The National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA) derives its statutory power to regulate the prices of essential medicines primarily from which of the following legal frameworks?

• (a) The Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940

• (b) The Essential Commodities Act, 1955 and Drugs (Prices Control) Order, 2013

• (c) The Medical Devices Rules, 2017

• (d) The National Health Mission Guidelines

Solution: B

Explanation: The NPPA, established in 1997, derives its legal and regulatory authority from two frameworks:

• Essential Commodities Act, 1955: Enables the government to control the production, supply, and distribution of essential commodities, including essential drugs, in public interest.

• Drugs (Prices Control) Order (DPCO), 2013: Under this, NPPA is empowered to fix, revise, and monitor ceiling prices of essential medicines and medical devices.

Solution: B

Explanation: The NPPA, established in 1997, derives its legal and regulatory authority from two frameworks:

• Essential Commodities Act, 1955: Enables the government to control the production, supply, and distribution of essential commodities, including essential drugs, in public interest.

• Drugs (Prices Control) Order (DPCO), 2013: Under this, NPPA is empowered to fix, revise, and monitor ceiling prices of essential medicines and medical devices.

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement I: Marine phytoplankton are considered a crucial component of the oceanic biological carbon pump. Statement II: Phytoplankton directly absorb methane from seawater and convert it into biomass, sequestering it in the deep ocean. Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both the statements are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I (b) Both the statements are correct but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (d) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Correct Solution: C The biological carbon pump is a process where marine organisms, primarily phytoplankton, absorb carbon dioxide (CO₂) from the atmosphere via photosynthesis, converting it into organic carbon (biomass). When phytoplankton die or are consumed, this carbon sinks to the deep ocean as particulate organic matter (e.g., fecal pellets, dead cells), sequestering it for centuries. Phytoplankton (e.g., diatoms, cyanobacteria) account for ~50% of global photosynthesis, driving ~40 PgC/year into the ocean. Without them, atmospheric CO₂ would rise significantly. *Hence, statement I is correct. Phytoplankton sequester carbon as CO₂-derived biomass, not methane. Methane’s deep-ocean fate involves bacterial oxidation, not phytoplankton-driven sinking. Hence, statement II is incorrect. Incorrect Solution: C The biological carbon pump is a process where marine organisms, primarily phytoplankton, absorb carbon dioxide (CO₂) from the atmosphere via photosynthesis, converting it into organic carbon (biomass). When phytoplankton die or are consumed, this carbon sinks to the deep ocean as particulate organic matter (e.g., fecal pellets, dead cells), sequestering it for centuries. Phytoplankton (e.g., diatoms, cyanobacteria) account for ~50% of global photosynthesis, driving ~40 PgC/year into the ocean. Without them, atmospheric CO₂ would rise significantly. Hence, statement I is correct. Phytoplankton sequester carbon as CO₂-derived biomass, not methane. Methane’s deep-ocean fate involves bacterial oxidation, not phytoplankton-driven sinking. Hence, statement II is incorrect.*

#### 23. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Marine phytoplankton are considered a crucial component of the oceanic biological carbon pump.

Statement II: Phytoplankton directly absorb methane from seawater and convert it into biomass, sequestering it in the deep ocean.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both the statements are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

• (b) Both the statements are correct but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

• (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

• (d) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Solution: C

The biological carbon pump is a process where marine organisms, primarily phytoplankton, absorb carbon dioxide (CO₂) from the atmosphere via photosynthesis, converting it into organic carbon (biomass). When phytoplankton die or are consumed, this carbon sinks to the deep ocean as particulate organic matter (e.g., fecal pellets, dead cells), sequestering it for centuries.

• Phytoplankton (e.g., diatoms, cyanobacteria) account for ~50% of global photosynthesis, driving ~40 PgC/year into the ocean. Without them, atmospheric CO₂ would rise significantly. *Hence, statement I is correct.*

• Phytoplankton sequester carbon as CO₂-derived biomass, not methane. Methane’s deep-ocean fate involves bacterial oxidation, not phytoplankton-driven sinking. *Hence, statement II is incorrect.*

Solution: C

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points It is known for hosting the annual Flamingo Festival, this brackish water lake straddles two Indian states and ranks as the second-largest of its kind in the country. Its shallow coastal ecosystem supports flamingos and spot-billed pelicans, and it plays a vital economic role in regional fisheries. Which lake is this? A. Vembanad Lake B. Chilika Lake C. Pulicat Lake D. Kolleru Lake Correct Solution: C Pulicat lake: Pulicat Lake lies on the border of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu, with 96% of its area in Andhra Pradesh. It is India’s second-largest brackish water lake after Chilika and supports large flocks of greater and lesser flamingos during winter, celebrated through the Flamingo Festival. The lake, alongside Nelapattu Bird Sanctuary, forms a crucial wetland complex for migratory birds. It sustains regional biodiversity, promotes eco-tourism, and supports coastal livelihoods via fishing and salt farming Incorrect Solution: C Pulicat lake: Pulicat Lake lies on the border of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu, with 96% of its area in Andhra Pradesh. It is India’s second-largest brackish water lake after Chilika and supports large flocks of greater and lesser flamingos during winter, celebrated through the Flamingo Festival. The lake, alongside Nelapattu Bird Sanctuary, forms a crucial wetland complex for migratory birds. It sustains regional biodiversity, promotes eco-tourism, and supports coastal livelihoods via fishing and salt farming

#### 24. Question

It is known for hosting the annual Flamingo Festival, this brackish water lake straddles two Indian states and ranks as the second-largest of its kind in the country. Its shallow coastal ecosystem supports flamingos and spot-billed pelicans, and it plays a vital economic role in regional fisheries.

Which lake is this?

• A. Vembanad Lake

• B. Chilika Lake

• C. Pulicat Lake

• D. Kolleru Lake

Solution: C

Pulicat lake: Pulicat Lake lies on the border of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu, with 96% of its area in Andhra Pradesh.

• It is India’s second-largest brackish water lake after Chilika and supports large flocks of greater and lesser flamingos during winter, celebrated through the Flamingo Festival.

• The lake, alongside Nelapattu Bird Sanctuary, forms a crucial wetland complex for migratory birds. It sustains regional biodiversity, promotes eco-tourism, and supports coastal livelihoods via fishing and salt farming

Solution: C

Pulicat lake: Pulicat Lake lies on the border of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu, with 96% of its area in Andhra Pradesh.

• It is India’s second-largest brackish water lake after Chilika and supports large flocks of greater and lesser flamingos during winter, celebrated through the Flamingo Festival.

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about WorldSkills 2024: 47th edition of WorldSkills 2024 took place in Lyon, France. India secured 4 Gold medals in Patisserie, Industry 4.0, Hotel Reception, and Renewable Energy. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B The 47th edition of WorldSkills 2024 was successfully conducted in Lyon, France, bringing global attention to vocational skills development. (statement 1 correct) About WorldSkills Competition: Frequency: Held once every two years (biannual). Nature: It is the largest global platform to showcase and benchmark vocational and technical skill excellence. Analogy: Often called the “Olympics of Skills”. Objective: To promote awareness and raise standards in skill-based education and training globally. India at WorldSkills 2024: Participation: India sent its largest-ever contingent of 60 participants. Competed across 52 skill categories – a record representation for India. Performance Highlights: Medals: 4 Bronze medals in: (statement 2 incorrect) Patisserie and Confectionery Industry 4.0 Hotel Reception Renewable Energy 12 Medallions of Excellence: Awarded for participants scoring above the global average, highlighting India’s growing talent pool. Best of Nation Award: Ashwitha Police won for Patisserie and Confectionery. And she emerged as India’s top performer. Incorrect Solution: B The 47th edition of WorldSkills 2024 was successfully conducted in Lyon, France, bringing global attention to vocational skills development. (statement 1 correct) About WorldSkills Competition: Frequency: Held once every two years (biannual). Nature: It is the largest global platform to showcase and benchmark vocational and technical skill excellence. Analogy: Often called the “Olympics of Skills”. Objective: To promote awareness and raise standards in skill-based education and training globally. India at WorldSkills 2024: Participation: India sent its largest-ever contingent of 60 participants. Competed across 52 skill categories – a record representation for India. Performance Highlights: Medals: 4 Bronze medals in: (statement 2 incorrect) Patisserie and Confectionery Industry 4.0 Hotel Reception Renewable Energy 12 Medallions of Excellence: Awarded for participants scoring above the global average, highlighting India’s growing talent pool. Best of Nation Award: Ashwitha Police won for Patisserie and Confectionery. And she emerged as India’s top performer.

#### 25. Question

Consider the following statements about WorldSkills 2024:

• 47th edition of WorldSkills 2024 took place in Lyon, France.

• India secured 4 Gold medals in Patisserie, Industry 4.0, Hotel Reception, and Renewable Energy.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

The 47th edition of WorldSkills 2024 was successfully conducted in Lyon, France, bringing global attention to vocational skills development. (statement 1 correct)

About WorldSkills Competition:

• Frequency: Held once every two years (biannual).

• Nature: It is the largest global platform to showcase and benchmark vocational and technical skill excellence.

• Analogy: Often called the “Olympics of Skills”.

• Objective: To promote awareness and raise standards in skill-based education and training globally.

India at WorldSkills 2024:

Participation:

• India sent its largest-ever contingent of 60 participants.

• Competed across 52 skill categories – a record representation for India.

Performance Highlights:

• Medals: 4 Bronze medals in: (statement 2 incorrect) Patisserie and Confectionery Industry 4.0 Hotel Reception Renewable Energy

• 4 Bronze medals in: (statement 2 incorrect) Patisserie and Confectionery Industry 4.0 Hotel Reception Renewable Energy

• Patisserie and Confectionery

• Industry 4.0

• Hotel Reception

• Renewable Energy

• 12 Medallions of Excellence: Awarded for participants scoring above the global average, highlighting India’s growing talent pool.

• Best of Nation Award: Ashwitha Police won for Patisserie and Confectionery. And she emerged as India’s top performer.

Solution: B

The 47th edition of WorldSkills 2024 was successfully conducted in Lyon, France, bringing global attention to vocational skills development. (statement 1 correct)

About WorldSkills Competition:

• Frequency: Held once every two years (biannual).

• Nature: It is the largest global platform to showcase and benchmark vocational and technical skill excellence.

• Analogy: Often called the “Olympics of Skills”.

• Objective: To promote awareness and raise standards in skill-based education and training globally.

India at WorldSkills 2024:

Participation:

• India sent its largest-ever contingent of 60 participants.

• Competed across 52 skill categories – a record representation for India.

Performance Highlights:

• Medals: 4 Bronze medals in: (statement 2 incorrect) Patisserie and Confectionery Industry 4.0 Hotel Reception Renewable Energy

• 4 Bronze medals in: (statement 2 incorrect) Patisserie and Confectionery Industry 4.0 Hotel Reception Renewable Energy

• Patisserie and Confectionery

• Industry 4.0

• Hotel Reception

• Renewable Energy

• 12 Medallions of Excellence: Awarded for participants scoring above the global average, highlighting India’s growing talent pool.

• Best of Nation Award: Ashwitha Police won for Patisserie and Confectionery. And she emerged as India’s top performer.

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points Throughout history, various musical notation systems have emerged to represent musical ideas and compositions. One of the earliest known systems is the neumatic notation used in medieval Western music, where symbols called neumes represented groups of notes sung in succession. Over time, this evolved into the more familiar staff notation, which provides a precise representation of pitch and rhythm through the use of clefs, notes, and other symbols. Additionally, alternative notation systems, such as tablature, have been developed for specific instruments like the guitar, providing a visual representation of finger positions on the instrument’s fretboard. The evolution of musical notation systems reflects changes in musical practices, technological advancements, and cultural influences. Q . According to the passage, which of the following statements about neumatic notation is true? a. Neumatic notation uses symbols called notes to represent individual pitches. b. Neumatic notation is the most precise representation of pitch and rhythm. c. Neumatic notation originated during the Renaissance period. d. Neumatic notation represents groups of notes sung in succession using symbols called neumes. Correct Correct Option : D Justification : Option A: Neumatic notation does not use symbols called “notes” to represent individual pitches. Instead, it uses symbols called “neumes” to represent groups of notes sung in succession. Therefore, option A is incorrect. Option B: The passage does not suggest that neumatic notation is the most precise representation of pitch and rhythm. In fact, it describes neumatic notation as an early system that evolved into the more precise staff notation. Therefore, option B is incorrect. Option C: The passage does not specify the exact time period of the origin of neumatic notation. However, it mentions that neumatic notation was used in medieval Western music, which predates the Renaissance period. Therefore, option C is incorrect. Option D: This option correctly describes neumatic notation. The passage states that neumatic notation represents groups of notes sung in succession using symbols called neumes. Therefore, option D is correct. Incorrect Correct Option : D Justification : Option A: Neumatic notation does not use symbols called “notes” to represent individual pitches. Instead, it uses symbols called “neumes” to represent groups of notes sung in succession. Therefore, option A is incorrect. Option B: The passage does not suggest that neumatic notation is the most precise representation of pitch and rhythm. In fact, it describes neumatic notation as an early system that evolved into the more precise staff notation. Therefore, option B is incorrect. Option C: The passage does not specify the exact time period of the origin of neumatic notation. However, it mentions that neumatic notation was used in medieval Western music, which predates the Renaissance period. Therefore, option C is incorrect. Option D: This option correctly describes neumatic notation. The passage states that neumatic notation represents groups of notes sung in succession using symbols called neumes. Therefore, option D is correct.

#### 26. Question

Throughout history, various musical notation systems have emerged to represent musical ideas and compositions. One of the earliest known systems is the neumatic notation used in medieval Western music, where symbols called neumes represented groups of notes sung in succession. Over time, this evolved into the more familiar staff notation, which provides a precise representation of pitch and rhythm through the use of clefs, notes, and other symbols. Additionally, alternative notation systems, such as tablature, have been developed for specific instruments like the guitar, providing a visual representation of finger positions on the instrument’s fretboard. The evolution of musical notation systems reflects changes in musical practices, technological advancements, and cultural influences.

Q . According to the passage, which of the following statements about neumatic notation is true?

• a. Neumatic notation uses symbols called notes to represent individual pitches.

• b. Neumatic notation is the most precise representation of pitch and rhythm.

• c. Neumatic notation originated during the Renaissance period.

• d. Neumatic notation represents groups of notes sung in succession using symbols called neumes.

Correct Option : D

Justification :

Option A: Neumatic notation does not use symbols called “notes” to represent individual pitches. Instead, it uses symbols called “neumes” to represent groups of notes sung in succession. Therefore, option A is incorrect.

Option B: The passage does not suggest that neumatic notation is the most precise representation of pitch and rhythm. In fact, it describes neumatic notation as an early system that evolved into the more precise staff notation. Therefore, option B is incorrect.

Option C: The passage does not specify the exact time period of the origin of neumatic notation. However, it mentions that neumatic notation was used in medieval Western music, which predates the Renaissance period. Therefore, option C is incorrect.

Option D: This option correctly describes neumatic notation. The passage states that neumatic notation represents groups of notes sung in succession using symbols called neumes. Therefore, option D is correct.

Correct Option : D

Justification :

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points A bag contains seven red, ‘y’ blue & ‘x’ yellow balls. How many total blue & yellow balls together? Statement I. One ball is drawn from bag, probability of being that ball blue is 14. Statement II. One ball is drawn from bag, probability of being that ball yellow is 25. a. Only statement I is sufficient b. Only statement II is sufficient c. Statement I and II both together sufficient d. Either statement I or Statement II alone sufficient Correct Correct Option : C Justification : Total number of balls in the bag = (7 + y + x) From I – ? / (7 + y + x) = 14 − ?+3?=7 ——— (i) From II – ? / (7 + y + x) = ?? 3x − 2?=14 ——- (ii) From (I) & (II) x = 8 , y = 5 Total blue & yellow balls in bag = 8 + 5 = 13 So, statement I and statement II together are required to answered the question Incorrect Correct Option : C Justification : Total number of balls in the bag = (7 + y + x) From I – ? / (7 + y + x) = 14 − ?+3?=7 ——— (i) From II – ? / (7 + y + x) = ?? 3x − 2?=14 ——- (ii) From (I) & (II) x = 8 , y = 5 Total blue & yellow balls in bag = 8 + 5 = 13 So, statement I and statement II together are required to answered the question

#### 27. Question

A bag contains seven red, ‘y’ blue & ‘x’ yellow balls. How many total blue & yellow balls together?

Statement I. One ball is drawn from bag, probability of being that ball blue is 14.

Statement II. One ball is drawn from bag, probability of being that ball yellow is 25.

• a. Only statement I is sufficient

• b. Only statement II is sufficient

• c. Statement I and II both together sufficient

• d. Either statement I or Statement II alone sufficient

Correct Option : C

Justification :

Total number of balls in the bag = (7 + y + x)

From I – ? / (7 + y + x) = 14

− ?+3?=7 ——— (i)

From II – ? / (7 + y + x) = ??

3x − 2?=14 ——- (ii)

From (I) & (II)

x = 8 , y = 5

Total blue & yellow balls in bag = 8 + 5 = 13

So, statement I and statement II together are required to answered the question

Correct Option : C

Justification :

Total number of balls in the bag = (7 + y + x)

From I – ? / (7 + y + x) = 14

− ?+3?=7 ——— (i)

From II – ? / (7 + y + x) = ??

3x − 2?=14 ——- (ii)

From (I) & (II)

x = 8 , y = 5

Total blue & yellow balls in bag = 8 + 5 = 13

So, statement I and statement II together are required to answered the question

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points A positive integer is selected at random and is divided by 11. Find the probability that the remainder is not an even number? a. 3/11 b. 8/11 c. 5/11 d. 9/11 Correct Correct Option : C Justification : Total possible remainders = [0, 1, 2, 3, 4……..10] Favourable remainders = [1, 3, 5, 7, 9] Required probability =5/11 Incorrect Correct Option : C Justification : Total possible remainders = [0, 1, 2, 3, 4……..10] Favourable remainders = [1, 3, 5, 7, 9] Required probability =5/11

#### 28. Question

A positive integer is selected at random and is divided by 11. Find the probability that the remainder is not an even number?

Correct Option : C

Justification :

Total possible remainders = [0, 1, 2, 3, 4……..10]

Favourable remainders = [1, 3, 5, 7, 9]

Required probability =5/11

Correct Option : C

Justification :

Total possible remainders = [0, 1, 2, 3, 4……..10]

Favourable remainders = [1, 3, 5, 7, 9]

Required probability =5/11

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points In how many ways a committee of 5 members can be formed from 6 men and 7 women in which at least 3 men should come? a. 431 b. 520 c. 720 d. 531 Correct Correct Option : D Justification : Total ways to form a committee of 5 members from 6 men and 7 women in which at least 3 men selected = 2 women, 3 men + 1 women, 4 men + 5 men 6C3 × 7C2 + 6C4 × 7C1 + 6C5 = 531 Incorrect Correct Option : D Justification : Total ways to form a committee of 5 members from 6 men and 7 women in which at least 3 men selected = 2 women, 3 men + 1 women, 4 men + 5 men 6C3 × 7C2 + 6C4 × 7C1 + 6C5 = 531

#### 29. Question

In how many ways a committee of 5 members can be formed from 6 men and 7 women in which at least 3 men should come?

Correct Option : D

Justification :

Total ways to form a committee of 5 members from 6 men and 7 women in which at least 3 men selected = 2 women, 3 men + 1 women, 4 men + 5 men

6C3 × 7C2 + 6C4 × 7C1 + 6C5

Correct Option : D

Justification :

Total ways to form a committee of 5 members from 6 men and 7 women in which at least 3 men selected = 2 women, 3 men + 1 women, 4 men + 5 men

6C3 × 7C2 + 6C4 × 7C1 + 6C5

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points A carton contains pieces with numbers from 1 to 50 written on them. A piece is drawn and replaced. Then another piece is drawn and after replacing another piece is drawn. What is the probability that an even number appears on the first draw, an odd number on the second draw and a number divisible by 3 on the third draw? a. 4/25 b. 1/25 c. 2/25 d. Cannot be determined Correct Correct Option : D Justification : So, the probability of all the events taking place is: 1/2 1/2 16/50 = 2/25 Incorrect Correct Option : D Justification : So, the probability of all the events taking place is: 1/2 1/2 16/50 = 2/25

#### 30. Question

A carton contains pieces with numbers from 1 to 50 written on them. A piece is drawn and replaced. Then another piece is drawn and after replacing another piece is drawn. What is the probability that an even number appears on the first draw, an odd number on the second draw and a number divisible by 3 on the third draw?

• d. Cannot be determined

Correct Option : D

Justification :

So, the probability of all the events taking place is:

1/2 1/2 16/50 = 2/25

Correct Option : D

Justification :

So, the probability of all the events taking place is:

1/2 1/2 16/50 = 2/25

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