DAY – 34 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – ANCIENT & MEDIEVAL INDIA, Subject-wise Test 1,18 , Textbook-based Test – 27, 28, 30 and February 2024 CA

INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Which crops were considered “jins-i kamil” and encouraged by the Mughals for cultivation? a) Basic staples like rice and wheat b) Commercial crops like cotton and sugarcane c) Exotic fruits like pineapple and papaya d) Medicinal herbs and spices Correct Answer: b Explanation: The crops considered “jins-i kamil” and encouraged by the Mughal state for cultivation were primarily commercial crops like cotton and sugarcane. These crops were valued for their economic significance as they brought in more revenue compared to basic staples like rice and wheat. The Mughal state actively promoted the cultivation of such crops to increase agricultural productivity and enhance its revenue. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: The crops considered “jins-i kamil” and encouraged by the Mughal state for cultivation were primarily commercial crops like cotton and sugarcane. These crops were valued for their economic significance as they brought in more revenue compared to basic staples like rice and wheat. The Mughal state actively promoted the cultivation of such crops to increase agricultural productivity and enhance its revenue. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 1. Question

Which crops were considered “jins-i kamil” and encouraged by the Mughals for cultivation?

• a) Basic staples like rice and wheat

• b) Commercial crops like cotton and sugarcane

• c) Exotic fruits like pineapple and papaya

• d) Medicinal herbs and spices

Explanation:

• The crops considered “jins-i kamil” and encouraged by the Mughal state for cultivation were primarily commercial crops like cotton and sugarcane.

• These crops were valued for their economic significance as they brought in more revenue compared to basic staples like rice and wheat. The Mughal state actively promoted the cultivation of such crops to increase agricultural productivity and enhance its revenue.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• The crops considered “jins-i kamil” and encouraged by the Mughal state for cultivation were primarily commercial crops like cotton and sugarcane.

• These crops were valued for their economic significance as they brought in more revenue compared to basic staples like rice and wheat. The Mughal state actively promoted the cultivation of such crops to increase agricultural productivity and enhance its revenue.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points What was the difference between “jama” and “hasil” in the context of land revenue system of Mughals? a) Jama referred to land measurement while hasil referred to revenue collection. b) Jama was the assessed amount while hasil was the collected amount. c) Jama was collected in kind while hasil was collected in cash. d) Jama was paid by peasants while hasil was paid by zamindars. Correct Answers: b Explanation: In the context of Mughal land revenue, “jama” referred to the amount of revenue assessed or fixed by the revenue officials based on the productive capacity of the land. It was essentially the theoretical or estimated amount of revenue that should be collected from a particular area or landholding. On the other hand, “hasil” referred to the actual amount of revenue collected by the revenue officials from the peasants or landholders. It represented the real-world outcome of revenue collection efforts, which could vary from the initially assessed amount due to factors such as crop yields, economic conditions, or administrative issues. Therefore, while “jama” was the amount determined through assessment, “hasil” represented the tangible revenue collected from the landholders. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answers: b Explanation: In the context of Mughal land revenue, “jama” referred to the amount of revenue assessed or fixed by the revenue officials based on the productive capacity of the land. It was essentially the theoretical or estimated amount of revenue that should be collected from a particular area or landholding. On the other hand, “hasil” referred to the actual amount of revenue collected by the revenue officials from the peasants or landholders. It represented the real-world outcome of revenue collection efforts, which could vary from the initially assessed amount due to factors such as crop yields, economic conditions, or administrative issues. Therefore, while “jama” was the amount determined through assessment, “hasil” represented the tangible revenue collected from the landholders. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 2. Question

What was the difference between “jama” and “hasil” in the context of land revenue system of Mughals?

• a) Jama referred to land measurement while hasil referred to revenue collection.

• b) Jama was the assessed amount while hasil was the collected amount.

• c) Jama was collected in kind while hasil was collected in cash.

• d) Jama was paid by peasants while hasil was paid by zamindars.

Answers: b

Explanation:

• In the context of Mughal land revenue, “jama” referred to the amount of revenue assessed or fixed by the revenue officials based on the productive capacity of the land. It was essentially the theoretical or estimated amount of revenue that should be collected from a particular area or landholding.

• On the other hand, “hasil” referred to the actual amount of revenue collected by the revenue officials from the peasants or landholders. It represented the real-world outcome of revenue collection efforts, which could vary from the initially assessed amount due to factors such as crop yields, economic conditions, or administrative issues.

• Therefore, while “jama” was the amount determined through assessment, “hasil” represented the tangible revenue collected from the landholders.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Answers: b

Explanation:

• In the context of Mughal land revenue, “jama” referred to the amount of revenue assessed or fixed by the revenue officials based on the productive capacity of the land. It was essentially the theoretical or estimated amount of revenue that should be collected from a particular area or landholding.

• On the other hand, “hasil” referred to the actual amount of revenue collected by the revenue officials from the peasants or landholders. It represented the real-world outcome of revenue collection efforts, which could vary from the initially assessed amount due to factors such as crop yields, economic conditions, or administrative issues.

• Therefore, while “jama” was the amount determined through assessment, “hasil” represented the tangible revenue collected from the landholders.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points The period of the Mughals, which began in 1526 A.D. with Babur’s accession to the throne, started disintegrating with the death of Aurangzeb in 1707 A.D. Aurangzeb’s death marked the end of an era in Indian history. When Aurangzeb died, the empire of the Mughals was the largest in India. Yet, within about fifty years of his death, the Mughal Empire disintegrated. Which of the following is/are the reasons for the disintegration of Mughal Empire? Lack of law of succession The Jagirdari Crisis Degeneration of the nobility Demoralisation of the army Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 and 4 only b) 1,2 and 4 only c) 1,3 and 4 only d) 1,2,3 and 4 Correct Answer: d Explanation: The Mughals did not follow any law of succession like the law of primogeniture. Consequently, each time a ruler died, a war of succession between the brothers for the throne started. This weakened the Mughal Empire, especially after Aurangzeb. The nobles, by siding with one contender or the other, increased their own power. The successors of Aurangzeb were weak and became victims of the intrigues and conspiracies of the faction-ridden nobles. They were inefficient generals and incapable of suppressing revolts. The absence of a strong ruler, an efficient bureaucracy and a capable army had made the Mughal Empire weak. The Mughal emperor was a highly centralized bureaucratized structure with the emperor at the top his vitality depending upon the strength of the military aristocracy, who were placed just below him. About four-fifths of the land revenue of the Mughal Empires was under the control of mansabdars and jagirdars; but this income was unevenly distributed among them, creating jealousies within the aristocracy- particularly at the time when the resources of the Empire were diminishing. This economic situation known as the ‘jagirdari crisis’ of the 18th century- has been defined by Satish chandra in the following words, ‘the available social surplus was insufficient to defray the cost of administration, pay for Wars of one type or another and to give the ruling classes a standard of living in keeping with its expectations’. In this situation the actual revenue collection was much less than what had been estimated, there by diminishing the expected income of the jagirdars. The history of India of the time of Akbar, Jahangir and Shahjahan was made by Bairam Khan, Munim Khan, Muzaffar Khan and Abdur Rahim Khan Khana, Itmad Ud daulah and Mahababat Khan, Asaf Khan and Saadulla khan. But with the decline in the character of the later Mughal Emperors decline also set in the character of the nobility wealth and leisure which the foreign Muslims acquired in India fostered luxury and sloth and the presence of many women in their harems encouraged debauchery, which, in their turn, undermined their character and love of adventure. Consequently, physical, moral and intellectual degeneration overtook the governing classes. The demoralization of the Mughal Army was the major reason for the decline of the Mughal Empire the Mughal army which by origin and composition was became weak and defective. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: The Mughals did not follow any law of succession like the law of primogeniture. Consequently, each time a ruler died, a war of succession between the brothers for the throne started. This weakened the Mughal Empire, especially after Aurangzeb. The nobles, by siding with one contender or the other, increased their own power. The successors of Aurangzeb were weak and became victims of the intrigues and conspiracies of the faction-ridden nobles. They were inefficient generals and incapable of suppressing revolts. The absence of a strong ruler, an efficient bureaucracy and a capable army had made the Mughal Empire weak. The Mughal emperor was a highly centralized bureaucratized structure with the emperor at the top his vitality depending upon the strength of the military aristocracy, who were placed just below him. About four-fifths of the land revenue of the Mughal Empires was under the control of mansabdars and jagirdars; but this income was unevenly distributed among them, creating jealousies within the aristocracy- particularly at the time when the resources of the Empire were diminishing. This economic situation known as the ‘jagirdari crisis’ of the 18th century- has been defined by Satish chandra in the following words, ‘the available social surplus was insufficient to defray the cost of administration, pay for Wars of one type or another and to give the ruling classes a standard of living in keeping with its expectations’. In this situation the actual revenue collection was much less than what had been estimated, there by diminishing the expected income of the jagirdars. The history of India of the time of Akbar, Jahangir and Shahjahan was made by Bairam Khan, Munim Khan, Muzaffar Khan and Abdur Rahim Khan Khana, Itmad Ud daulah and Mahababat Khan, Asaf Khan and Saadulla khan. But with the decline in the character of the later Mughal Emperors decline also set in the character of the nobility wealth and leisure which the foreign Muslims acquired in India fostered luxury and sloth and the presence of many women in their harems encouraged debauchery, which, in their turn, undermined their character and love of adventure. Consequently, physical, moral and intellectual degeneration overtook the governing classes. The demoralization of the Mughal Army was the major reason for the decline of the Mughal Empire the Mughal army which by origin and composition was became weak and defective. Hence, option (d) is correct.

#### 3. Question

The period of the Mughals, which began in 1526 A.D. with Babur’s accession to the throne, started disintegrating with the death of Aurangzeb in 1707 A.D. Aurangzeb’s death marked the end of an era in Indian history. When Aurangzeb died, the empire of the Mughals was the largest in India. Yet, within about fifty years of his death, the Mughal Empire disintegrated.

Which of the following is/are the reasons for the disintegration of Mughal Empire?

• Lack of law of succession

• The Jagirdari Crisis

• Degeneration of the nobility

• Demoralisation of the army

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• a) 1 and 4 only

• b) 1,2 and 4 only

• c) 1,3 and 4 only

• d) 1,2,3 and 4

Explanation:

• The Mughals did not follow any law of succession like the law of primogeniture. Consequently, each time a ruler died, a war of succession between the brothers for the throne started. This weakened the Mughal Empire, especially after Aurangzeb. The nobles, by siding with one contender or the other, increased their own power.

• The successors of Aurangzeb were weak and became victims of the intrigues and conspiracies of the faction-ridden nobles. They were inefficient generals and incapable of suppressing revolts. The absence of a strong ruler, an efficient bureaucracy and a capable army had made the Mughal Empire weak.

• The Mughal emperor was a highly centralized bureaucratized structure with the emperor at the top his vitality depending upon the strength of the military aristocracy, who were placed just below him. About four-fifths of the land revenue of the Mughal Empires was under the control of mansabdars and jagirdars; but this income was unevenly distributed among them, creating jealousies within the aristocracy- particularly at the time when the resources of the Empire were diminishing. This economic situation known as the ‘jagirdari crisis’ of the 18th century- has been defined by Satish chandra in the following words, ‘the available social surplus was insufficient to defray the cost of administration, pay for Wars of one type or another and to give the ruling classes a standard of living in keeping with its expectations’. In this situation the actual revenue collection was much less than what had been estimated, there by diminishing the expected income of the jagirdars.

• The history of India of the time of Akbar, Jahangir and Shahjahan was made by Bairam Khan, Munim Khan, Muzaffar Khan and Abdur Rahim Khan Khana, Itmad Ud daulah and Mahababat Khan, Asaf Khan and Saadulla khan. But with the decline in the character of the later Mughal Emperors decline also set in the character of the nobility wealth and leisure which the foreign Muslims acquired in India fostered luxury and sloth and the presence of many women in their harems encouraged debauchery, which, in their turn, undermined their character and love of adventure. Consequently, physical, moral and intellectual degeneration overtook the governing classes.

• The demoralization of the Mughal Army was the major reason for the decline of the Mughal Empire the Mughal army which by origin and composition was became weak and defective.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

• The Mughals did not follow any law of succession like the law of primogeniture. Consequently, each time a ruler died, a war of succession between the brothers for the throne started. This weakened the Mughal Empire, especially after Aurangzeb. The nobles, by siding with one contender or the other, increased their own power.

• The successors of Aurangzeb were weak and became victims of the intrigues and conspiracies of the faction-ridden nobles. They were inefficient generals and incapable of suppressing revolts. The absence of a strong ruler, an efficient bureaucracy and a capable army had made the Mughal Empire weak.

• The Mughal emperor was a highly centralized bureaucratized structure with the emperor at the top his vitality depending upon the strength of the military aristocracy, who were placed just below him. About four-fifths of the land revenue of the Mughal Empires was under the control of mansabdars and jagirdars; but this income was unevenly distributed among them, creating jealousies within the aristocracy- particularly at the time when the resources of the Empire were diminishing. This economic situation known as the ‘jagirdari crisis’ of the 18th century- has been defined by Satish chandra in the following words, ‘the available social surplus was insufficient to defray the cost of administration, pay for Wars of one type or another and to give the ruling classes a standard of living in keeping with its expectations’. In this situation the actual revenue collection was much less than what had been estimated, there by diminishing the expected income of the jagirdars.

• The history of India of the time of Akbar, Jahangir and Shahjahan was made by Bairam Khan, Munim Khan, Muzaffar Khan and Abdur Rahim Khan Khana, Itmad Ud daulah and Mahababat Khan, Asaf Khan and Saadulla khan. But with the decline in the character of the later Mughal Emperors decline also set in the character of the nobility wealth and leisure which the foreign Muslims acquired in India fostered luxury and sloth and the presence of many women in their harems encouraged debauchery, which, in their turn, undermined their character and love of adventure. Consequently, physical, moral and intellectual degeneration overtook the governing classes.

• The demoralization of the Mughal Army was the major reason for the decline of the Mughal Empire the Mughal army which by origin and composition was became weak and defective.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements with reference to Vijayanagara Empire: The forts encircled not only the city but also agricultural tracts and forests. Kamalapuram canal drew water from the Tungabhadra River to irrigate the cultivated fields. The architecture of Vijayanagara Empire had many secular features. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: b Explanation: Abdur Razzaq, an ambassador sent by the ruler of Persia to Calicut (present-day Kozhikode) in the fifteenth century, was greatly impressed by the fortifications, and mentioned seven lines of forts. These encircled not only the city but also its agricultural hinterland and forests. The outermost wall linked the hills surrounding the city. Agricultural tracts were indeed incorporated within the fortified area of Vijayanagara to protect them during sieges. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The Hiriya canal drew water from the Tungabhadra River to irrigate the cultivated valley. Kamalapuram tank was a significant water reservoir built in the early years of the fifteenth century in the vicinity of Vijayanagara, an imperial capital of the Vijayanagara Empire. This tank played a crucial role in the water management system of the region, especially in the arid zone characterized by the river Tungabhadra. Water from the Kamalapuram tank was utilized for multiple purposes, including irrigation of nearby fields and supplying water to the “royal centre” of Vijayanagara through a channel. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Vijayanagara, being an imperial capital of the Vijayanagara Empire, featured gateways leading into the fortified settlement that were characterized by Indo-Islamic architectural features. These gateways typically exhibited arches and domes, which were distinctive elements of Indo-Islamic architecture. The arches were often pointed or horseshoe-shaped, reflecting the influence of Islamic architectural styles. Additionally, domes were commonly used to cover the gateways, providing structural support and aesthetic appeal. The architecture of Vijayanagara included both religious and secular structures. While religious structures like temples were prominent, the empire also had secular architecture, including forts, palaces, and urban infrastructure. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Abdur Razzaq, an ambassador sent by the ruler of Persia to Calicut (present-day Kozhikode) in the fifteenth century, was greatly impressed by the fortifications, and mentioned seven lines of forts. These encircled not only the city but also its agricultural hinterland and forests. The outermost wall linked the hills surrounding the city. Agricultural tracts were indeed incorporated within the fortified area of Vijayanagara to protect them during sieges. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The Hiriya canal drew water from the Tungabhadra River to irrigate the cultivated valley. Kamalapuram tank was a significant water reservoir built in the early years of the fifteenth century in the vicinity of Vijayanagara, an imperial capital of the Vijayanagara Empire. This tank played a crucial role in the water management system of the region, especially in the arid zone characterized by the river Tungabhadra. Water from the Kamalapuram tank was utilized for multiple purposes, including irrigation of nearby fields and supplying water to the “royal centre” of Vijayanagara through a channel. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Vijayanagara, being an imperial capital of the Vijayanagara Empire, featured gateways leading into the fortified settlement that were characterized by Indo-Islamic architectural features. These gateways typically exhibited arches and domes, which were distinctive elements of Indo-Islamic architecture. The arches were often pointed or horseshoe-shaped, reflecting the influence of Islamic architectural styles. Additionally, domes were commonly used to cover the gateways, providing structural support and aesthetic appeal. The architecture of Vijayanagara included both religious and secular structures. While religious structures like temples were prominent, the empire also had secular architecture, including forts, palaces, and urban infrastructure. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements with reference to Vijayanagara Empire:

• The forts encircled not only the city but also agricultural tracts and forests.

• Kamalapuram canal drew water from the Tungabhadra River to irrigate the cultivated fields.

• The architecture of Vijayanagara Empire had many secular features.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Explanation:

• Abdur Razzaq, an ambassador sent by the ruler of Persia to Calicut (present-day Kozhikode) in the fifteenth century, was greatly impressed by the fortifications, and mentioned seven lines of forts. These encircled not only the city but also its agricultural hinterland and forests. The outermost wall linked the hills surrounding the city. Agricultural tracts were indeed incorporated within the fortified area of Vijayanagara to protect them during sieges. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The Hiriya canal drew water from the Tungabhadra River to irrigate the cultivated valley. Kamalapuram tank was a significant water reservoir built in the early years of the fifteenth century in the vicinity of Vijayanagara, an imperial capital of the Vijayanagara Empire. This tank played a crucial role in the water management system of the region, especially in the arid zone characterized by the river Tungabhadra. Water from the Kamalapuram tank was utilized for multiple purposes, including irrigation of nearby fields and supplying water to the “royal centre” of Vijayanagara through a channel. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• Vijayanagara, being an imperial capital of the Vijayanagara Empire, featured gateways leading into the fortified settlement that were characterized by Indo-Islamic architectural features. These gateways typically exhibited arches and domes, which were distinctive elements of Indo-Islamic architecture. The arches were often pointed or horseshoe-shaped, reflecting the influence of Islamic architectural styles. Additionally, domes were commonly used to cover the gateways, providing structural support and aesthetic appeal.

• The architecture of Vijayanagara included both religious and secular structures. While religious structures like temples were prominent, the empire also had secular architecture, including forts, palaces, and urban infrastructure. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• Abdur Razzaq, an ambassador sent by the ruler of Persia to Calicut (present-day Kozhikode) in the fifteenth century, was greatly impressed by the fortifications, and mentioned seven lines of forts. These encircled not only the city but also its agricultural hinterland and forests. The outermost wall linked the hills surrounding the city. Agricultural tracts were indeed incorporated within the fortified area of Vijayanagara to protect them during sieges. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The Hiriya canal drew water from the Tungabhadra River to irrigate the cultivated valley. Kamalapuram tank was a significant water reservoir built in the early years of the fifteenth century in the vicinity of Vijayanagara, an imperial capital of the Vijayanagara Empire. This tank played a crucial role in the water management system of the region, especially in the arid zone characterized by the river Tungabhadra. Water from the Kamalapuram tank was utilized for multiple purposes, including irrigation of nearby fields and supplying water to the “royal centre” of Vijayanagara through a channel. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• Vijayanagara, being an imperial capital of the Vijayanagara Empire, featured gateways leading into the fortified settlement that were characterized by Indo-Islamic architectural features. These gateways typically exhibited arches and domes, which were distinctive elements of Indo-Islamic architecture. The arches were often pointed or horseshoe-shaped, reflecting the influence of Islamic architectural styles. Additionally, domes were commonly used to cover the gateways, providing structural support and aesthetic appeal.

• The architecture of Vijayanagara included both religious and secular structures. While religious structures like temples were prominent, the empire also had secular architecture, including forts, palaces, and urban infrastructure. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Which of the following officials were part of the council of ministers known as Ashtapradhan who assisted the king in Maratha administration? a) Diwan, Fadnis, Jamadar, Potnis b) Peshwa ,Subedar, Pandit , Nyayadhish c) Peshwa, Amatya, Dabir, Senapati d) Peshwa, Karkhanis, Chitnis, Shurnavis Correct Answer: c Explanation: The king was assisted by a council of ministers known as Ashtapradhan. Peshwa (Prime Minister): He was the head of both civil and military affairs. Amatya/Mazumdar (auditor): He looked into the income and expenditure of the state. Waqe Navis: He was in charge of intelligence. Dabir/Sumanta: Foreign secretary. Shurnavis/Sachiv (superintendent): He used to take care of all the official correspondences. Pandit Rao: Ecclesiastical head. Senapati: Commander in chief Nyayadhish: Chief Justice Hence, option(c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: The king was assisted by a council of ministers known as Ashtapradhan. Peshwa (Prime Minister): He was the head of both civil and military affairs. Amatya/Mazumdar (auditor): He looked into the income and expenditure of the state. Waqe Navis: He was in charge of intelligence. Dabir/Sumanta: Foreign secretary. Shurnavis/Sachiv (superintendent): He used to take care of all the official correspondences. Pandit Rao: Ecclesiastical head. Senapati: Commander in chief Nyayadhish: Chief Justice Hence, option(c) is correct.

#### 5. Question

Which of the following officials were part of the council of ministers known as Ashtapradhan who assisted the king in Maratha administration?

• a) Diwan, Fadnis, Jamadar, Potnis

• b) Peshwa ,Subedar, Pandit , Nyayadhish

• c) Peshwa, Amatya, Dabir, Senapati

• d) Peshwa, Karkhanis, Chitnis, Shurnavis

Explanation:

• The king was assisted by a council of ministers known as Ashtapradhan.

• Peshwa (Prime Minister): He was the head of both civil and military affairs.

• Amatya/Mazumdar (auditor): He looked into the income and expenditure of the state.

• Waqe Navis: He was in charge of intelligence.

• Dabir/Sumanta: Foreign secretary.

• Shurnavis/Sachiv (superintendent): He used to take care of all the official correspondences.

• Pandit Rao: Ecclesiastical head.

• Senapati: Commander in chief

• Nyayadhish: Chief Justice

Hence, option(c) is correct.

Explanation:

• The king was assisted by a council of ministers known as Ashtapradhan.

• Peshwa (Prime Minister): He was the head of both civil and military affairs.

• Amatya/Mazumdar (auditor): He looked into the income and expenditure of the state.

• Waqe Navis: He was in charge of intelligence.

• Dabir/Sumanta: Foreign secretary.

• Shurnavis/Sachiv (superintendent): He used to take care of all the official correspondences.

• Pandit Rao: Ecclesiastical head.

• Senapati: Commander in chief

• Nyayadhish: Chief Justice

Hence, option(c) is correct.

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Maratha provincial administration: Shivaji introduced new administrative units in the provinces. The provincial officials during Shivaji’s time were hereditary and permanent. The local administration under Shivaji was highly centralized. Which of the above given statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 1,2 and 3 Correct Answer: c Explanation: Shivaji adopted the administrative units from the Deccan Sultanate and renamed and reorganized them. He did not introduce entirely new administrative units. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. During Shivaji’s time, the posts of provincial officials, were not hereditary and permanent. They held office at the king’s pleasure and were frequently transferred. It was only under the Peshwas that the posts became permanent and hereditary. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Shivaji’s administration was characterized by a centralized monarchy, with the king at the helm of affairs. He had a council of ministers known as the Ashtapradhan to assist him, and he exercised significant control over the provincial administration. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Shivaji adopted the administrative units from the Deccan Sultanate and renamed and reorganized them. He did not introduce entirely new administrative units. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. During Shivaji’s time, the posts of provincial officials, were not hereditary and permanent. They held office at the king’s pleasure and were frequently transferred. It was only under the Peshwas that the posts became permanent and hereditary. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Shivaji’s administration was characterized by a centralized monarchy, with the king at the helm of affairs. He had a council of ministers known as the Ashtapradhan to assist him, and he exercised significant control over the provincial administration. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Maratha provincial administration:

• Shivaji introduced new administrative units in the provinces.

• The provincial officials during Shivaji’s time were hereditary and permanent.

• The local administration under Shivaji was highly centralized.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

• d) 1,2 and 3

Explanation:

• Shivaji adopted the administrative units from the Deccan Sultanate and renamed and reorganized them. He did not introduce entirely new administrative units. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• During Shivaji’s time, the posts of provincial officials, were not hereditary and permanent. They held office at the king’s pleasure and were frequently transferred. It was only under the Peshwas that the posts became permanent and hereditary. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• Shivaji’s administration was characterized by a centralized monarchy, with the king at the helm of affairs. He had a council of ministers known as the Ashtapradhan to assist him, and he exercised significant control over the provincial administration. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

• Shivaji adopted the administrative units from the Deccan Sultanate and renamed and reorganized them. He did not introduce entirely new administrative units. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• During Shivaji’s time, the posts of provincial officials, were not hereditary and permanent. They held office at the king’s pleasure and were frequently transferred. It was only under the Peshwas that the posts became permanent and hereditary. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• Shivaji’s administration was characterized by a centralized monarchy, with the king at the helm of affairs. He had a council of ministers known as the Ashtapradhan to assist him, and he exercised significant control over the provincial administration. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points What distinguishes the ceilings of the mantapa in Hoysala temples? a) They are plain and undecorated. b) They bear mythological figures and floral designs. c) They feature intricate geometric patterns d) They are covered with gold leaf. Correct Answer: b Explanation: Noticeable features of Hoysala architecture: Makartorana: It leads to the mantapa of the temples. It is made with sculpted images of Makara in lintel form overhead to the temple. Mantapa: Hoysala temples have features of both open (outer mantapa) and closed mantapa (innner mantapa). The ceilings of the mantapa are highly ornate bearing mythological figures and floral design. Pillars: The mantapas of Hoysala temples have circular pillars. Each pillar bears four brackets at the top with sculpted figures. Cella (vimana): The characteristic feature of vimana in Hoysala temples is that they are plain inside while outside is profusely elaborated. Shrine: The Hoysala temples generally bear one or more shrines. The temples are classified as ekakuta (one shrine), dvikuta (two shrines), etc. relating to the number of shrines. Development of Kalasa: The Hoysala temples bear a very nice vase-shaped water pot that stands on the topmost portion of the temple tower. Salabhanjika: It is the peculiar feature of Hoysala sculpture. The origin of this mythical woman figure traces back its origin from the Buddhist sculpture. Salabhanjika or madanika is a mythical woman figure with stylized feminine characters who stands near a tree or grasping a branch of a tree. Sometimes, they are portrayed engaging in artistic activities like music, dance, etc. These sculpted figures are seen in each four brackets that are placed on the top of the pillars of Hoysala temples. Besides this, each side of the makartorana is heavily sculpted with figures of salabhanjika. Kirtimukh: The figure of kirtimukhh ornates the vimana of some Hoysala temples. Mythical presentation: No other dynasty had been able to present Hindu mythology in sculpted and architectural form than the Hoysala dynasty. The pictures from Ramayana, Mahabharata, and Puranas are very vigorously decorated on the walls of the Hoysala temples. At the entrance of the makartorana, various scenes are sequentially depicted from Hindu mythology in a clockwise direction. General decoration: Besides mythical presentation, the walls of Hoysala temples are decorated with live panels of musicians, dancers, animals, etc. Artistic plan: The shrines of the temples are generally seen in stellate shape though sometimes the staggered square plan is visible. Erotica: In some temples, erotic sculptures are seen swayed by the Sakta tradition prevailing at that time. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Noticeable features of Hoysala architecture: Makartorana: It leads to the mantapa of the temples. It is made with sculpted images of Makara in lintel form overhead to the temple. Mantapa: Hoysala temples have features of both open (outer mantapa) and closed mantapa (innner mantapa). The ceilings of the mantapa are highly ornate bearing mythological figures and floral design. Pillars: The mantapas of Hoysala temples have circular pillars. Each pillar bears four brackets at the top with sculpted figures. Cella (vimana): The characteristic feature of vimana in Hoysala temples is that they are plain inside while outside is profusely elaborated. Shrine: The Hoysala temples generally bear one or more shrines. The temples are classified as ekakuta (one shrine), dvikuta (two shrines), etc. relating to the number of shrines. Development of Kalasa: The Hoysala temples bear a very nice vase-shaped water pot that stands on the topmost portion of the temple tower. Salabhanjika: It is the peculiar feature of Hoysala sculpture. The origin of this mythical woman figure traces back its origin from the Buddhist sculpture. Salabhanjika or madanika is a mythical woman figure with stylized feminine characters who stands near a tree or grasping a branch of a tree. Sometimes, they are portrayed engaging in artistic activities like music, dance, etc. These sculpted figures are seen in each four brackets that are placed on the top of the pillars of Hoysala temples. Besides this, each side of the makartorana is heavily sculpted with figures of salabhanjika. Kirtimukh: The figure of kirtimukhh ornates the vimana of some Hoysala temples. Mythical presentation: No other dynasty had been able to present Hindu mythology in sculpted and architectural form than the Hoysala dynasty. The pictures from Ramayana, Mahabharata, and Puranas are very vigorously decorated on the walls of the Hoysala temples. At the entrance of the makartorana, various scenes are sequentially depicted from Hindu mythology in a clockwise direction. General decoration: Besides mythical presentation, the walls of Hoysala temples are decorated with live panels of musicians, dancers, animals, etc. Artistic plan: The shrines of the temples are generally seen in stellate shape though sometimes the staggered square plan is visible. Erotica: In some temples, erotic sculptures are seen swayed by the Sakta tradition prevailing at that time. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 7. Question

What distinguishes the ceilings of the mantapa in Hoysala temples?

• a) They are plain and undecorated.

• b) They bear mythological figures and floral designs.

• c) They feature intricate geometric patterns

• d) They are covered with gold leaf.

Explanation:

• Noticeable features of Hoysala architecture:

• Makartorana: It leads to the mantapa of the temples. It is made with sculpted images of Makara in lintel form overhead to the temple.

• Mantapa: Hoysala temples have features of both open (outer mantapa) and closed mantapa (innner mantapa). The ceilings of the mantapa are highly ornate bearing mythological figures and floral design.

• Pillars: The mantapas of Hoysala temples have circular pillars. Each pillar bears four brackets at the top with sculpted figures.

• Cella (vimana): The characteristic feature of vimana in Hoysala temples is that they are plain inside while outside is profusely elaborated.

• Shrine: The Hoysala temples generally bear one or more shrines. The temples are classified as ekakuta (one shrine), dvikuta (two shrines), etc. relating to the number of shrines.

• Development of Kalasa: The Hoysala temples bear a very nice vase-shaped water pot that stands on the topmost portion of the temple tower.

• Salabhanjika: It is the peculiar feature of Hoysala sculpture. The origin of this mythical woman figure traces back its origin from the Buddhist sculpture. Salabhanjika or madanika is a mythical woman figure with stylized feminine characters who stands near a tree or grasping a branch of a tree. Sometimes, they are portrayed engaging in artistic activities like music, dance, etc. These sculpted figures are seen in each four brackets that are placed on the top of the pillars of Hoysala temples. Besides this, each side of the makartorana is heavily sculpted with figures of salabhanjika.

• Kirtimukh: The figure of kirtimukhh ornates the vimana of some Hoysala temples.

• Mythical presentation: No other dynasty had been able to present Hindu mythology in sculpted and architectural form than the Hoysala dynasty. The pictures from Ramayana, Mahabharata, and Puranas are very vigorously decorated on the walls of the Hoysala temples. At the entrance of the makartorana, various scenes are sequentially depicted from Hindu mythology in a clockwise direction.

• General decoration: Besides mythical presentation, the walls of Hoysala temples are decorated with live panels of musicians, dancers, animals, etc.

• Artistic plan: The shrines of the temples are generally seen in stellate shape though sometimes the staggered square plan is visible.

• Erotica: In some temples, erotic sculptures are seen swayed by the Sakta tradition prevailing at that time.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• Noticeable features of Hoysala architecture:

• Makartorana: It leads to the mantapa of the temples. It is made with sculpted images of Makara in lintel form overhead to the temple.

• Mantapa: Hoysala temples have features of both open (outer mantapa) and closed mantapa (innner mantapa). The ceilings of the mantapa are highly ornate bearing mythological figures and floral design.

• Pillars: The mantapas of Hoysala temples have circular pillars. Each pillar bears four brackets at the top with sculpted figures.

• Cella (vimana): The characteristic feature of vimana in Hoysala temples is that they are plain inside while outside is profusely elaborated.

• Shrine: The Hoysala temples generally bear one or more shrines. The temples are classified as ekakuta (one shrine), dvikuta (two shrines), etc. relating to the number of shrines.

• Development of Kalasa: The Hoysala temples bear a very nice vase-shaped water pot that stands on the topmost portion of the temple tower.

• Salabhanjika: It is the peculiar feature of Hoysala sculpture. The origin of this mythical woman figure traces back its origin from the Buddhist sculpture. Salabhanjika or madanika is a mythical woman figure with stylized feminine characters who stands near a tree or grasping a branch of a tree. Sometimes, they are portrayed engaging in artistic activities like music, dance, etc. These sculpted figures are seen in each four brackets that are placed on the top of the pillars of Hoysala temples. Besides this, each side of the makartorana is heavily sculpted with figures of salabhanjika.

• Kirtimukh: The figure of kirtimukhh ornates the vimana of some Hoysala temples.

• Mythical presentation: No other dynasty had been able to present Hindu mythology in sculpted and architectural form than the Hoysala dynasty. The pictures from Ramayana, Mahabharata, and Puranas are very vigorously decorated on the walls of the Hoysala temples. At the entrance of the makartorana, various scenes are sequentially depicted from Hindu mythology in a clockwise direction.

• General decoration: Besides mythical presentation, the walls of Hoysala temples are decorated with live panels of musicians, dancers, animals, etc.

• Artistic plan: The shrines of the temples are generally seen in stellate shape though sometimes the staggered square plan is visible.

• Erotica: In some temples, erotic sculptures are seen swayed by the Sakta tradition prevailing at that time.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes ‘succession states’? a) Mughal provinces that became states after seceding from the empire b) States that arose as a result of the destabilisation of Mughal sovereignty over the provinces c) States established by rebels against the Mughal empire d) Provinces ruled by the princes of the empire. Correct Answer: a Explanation: The states that arose as a result of the Mughal Empire’s fall may be divided into three basic categories: Successor States Independent Kingdoms The New States Successor States – These were the Mughal provinces that became states after seceding from the empire. Though they did not dispute the Mughal ruler’s sovereignty, their governors’ installation of essentially independent and hereditary power demonstrated the rise of autonomous polity in these provinces. Awadh, Bengal, and Hyderabad are a few instances. Independent Kingdoms – These nations arose mostly as a result of the destabilisation of Mughal sovereignty over the provinces, with Mysore and the Rajput states serving as examples. The New States – These were the states established by rebels against the Mughal Empire, such as the Maratha, Sikh, and Jat states. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: The states that arose as a result of the Mughal Empire’s fall may be divided into three basic categories: Successor States Independent Kingdoms The New States Successor States – These were the Mughal provinces that became states after seceding from the empire. Though they did not dispute the Mughal ruler’s sovereignty, their governors’ installation of essentially independent and hereditary power demonstrated the rise of autonomous polity in these provinces. Awadh, Bengal, and Hyderabad are a few instances. Independent Kingdoms – These nations arose mostly as a result of the destabilisation of Mughal sovereignty over the provinces, with Mysore and the Rajput states serving as examples. The New States – These were the states established by rebels against the Mughal Empire, such as the Maratha, Sikh, and Jat states. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 8. Question

Which of the following best describes ‘succession states’?

• a) Mughal provinces that became states after seceding from the empire

• b) States that arose as a result of the destabilisation of Mughal sovereignty over the provinces

• c) States established by rebels against the Mughal empire

• d) Provinces ruled by the princes of the empire.

Explanation:

• The states that arose as a result of the Mughal Empire’s fall may be divided into three basic categories:

• Successor States

• Independent Kingdoms

• The New States

• Successor States – These were the Mughal provinces that became states after seceding from the empire.

• Though they did not dispute the Mughal ruler’s sovereignty, their governors’ installation of essentially independent and hereditary power demonstrated the rise of autonomous polity in these provinces. Awadh, Bengal, and Hyderabad are a few instances.

• Independent Kingdoms – These nations arose mostly as a result of the destabilisation of Mughal sovereignty over the provinces, with Mysore and the Rajput states serving as examples.

• The New States – These were the states established by rebels against the Mughal Empire, such as the Maratha, Sikh, and Jat states.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• The states that arose as a result of the Mughal Empire’s fall may be divided into three basic categories:

• Successor States

• Independent Kingdoms

• The New States

• Successor States – These were the Mughal provinces that became states after seceding from the empire.

• Though they did not dispute the Mughal ruler’s sovereignty, their governors’ installation of essentially independent and hereditary power demonstrated the rise of autonomous polity in these provinces. Awadh, Bengal, and Hyderabad are a few instances.

• Independent Kingdoms – These nations arose mostly as a result of the destabilisation of Mughal sovereignty over the provinces, with Mysore and the Rajput states serving as examples.

• The New States – These were the states established by rebels against the Mughal Empire, such as the Maratha, Sikh, and Jat states.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Consider the following: Mamluk Dynasty Sayeed Dynasty Khalji Dynasty Thuglaq Dynasty Arrange the above dynasties in correct chronological order: a) 1-3-4-2 b) 1-2-3-4 c) 2-1-4-3 d) 3-4-1-2 Correct Answer: a Explanation: The Muslim invasions into India had ultimately resulted in the establishment of Delhi Sultanate which existed from A.D. 1206 to 1526. Five different dynasties – the Slave, Khalji, Tughlaq, Sayyids and Lodis – ruled under the Delhi Sultanate Slave Dynasty aka Mamluk dynasty (1206-1290) Khalji Dynasty (1290-1320) Thuglaq Dynasty (1320-1414) Sayeed Dynasty (1414-1451) Lodhi Dynasty (1451-1526) Slave Dynasty (1206-1290): Founded by Qutb-ud-din Aibak, a former slave of Muhammad Ghori. Known for the construction of the Qutub Minar in Delhi. Alauddin Khilji was the most prominent ruler of this dynasty. Khalji Dynasty (1290-1320): Founded by Jalal-ud-din Firuz Khalji after overthrowing the last ruler of the Slave Dynasty. Known for their military conquests and expansion of the Delhi Sultanate. Alauddin Khalji was the most notable ruler who implemented various administrative reforms. Tughlaq Dynasty (1320-1414): Founded by Ghazi Malik, who took the title of Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq Known for their ambitious but often unsuccessful military campaigns. Muhammad bin Tughlaq attempted to shift the capital from Delhi to Daulatabad, leading to administrative chaos. Sayyid Dynasty (1414-1451): Founded by Khizr Khan, a former governor under the Tughlaqs. Known for their weak and short-lived rule over the Delhi Sultanate. The dynasty ended with the rise of the Lodi Dynasty. Lodi Dynasty (1451-1526): Founded by Bahlul Khan Lodi, who established the dynasty after overthrowing the last ruler of the Sayyid Dynasty. Known for their Pashtun (Afghan) origin and their rule over Delhi. The most prominent ruler of this dynasty was Sikandar Lodi, known for his administrative reforms. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: The Muslim invasions into India had ultimately resulted in the establishment of Delhi Sultanate which existed from A.D. 1206 to 1526. Five different dynasties – the Slave, Khalji, Tughlaq, Sayyids and Lodis – ruled under the Delhi Sultanate Slave Dynasty aka Mamluk dynasty (1206-1290) Khalji Dynasty (1290-1320) Thuglaq Dynasty (1320-1414) Sayeed Dynasty (1414-1451) Lodhi Dynasty (1451-1526) Slave Dynasty (1206-1290): Founded by Qutb-ud-din Aibak, a former slave of Muhammad Ghori. Known for the construction of the Qutub Minar in Delhi. Alauddin Khilji was the most prominent ruler of this dynasty. Khalji Dynasty (1290-1320): Founded by Jalal-ud-din Firuz Khalji after overthrowing the last ruler of the Slave Dynasty. Known for their military conquests and expansion of the Delhi Sultanate. Alauddin Khalji was the most notable ruler who implemented various administrative reforms. Tughlaq Dynasty (1320-1414): Founded by Ghazi Malik, who took the title of Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq Known for their ambitious but often unsuccessful military campaigns. Muhammad bin Tughlaq attempted to shift the capital from Delhi to Daulatabad, leading to administrative chaos. Sayyid Dynasty (1414-1451): Founded by Khizr Khan, a former governor under the Tughlaqs. Known for their weak and short-lived rule over the Delhi Sultanate. The dynasty ended with the rise of the Lodi Dynasty. Lodi Dynasty (1451-1526): Founded by Bahlul Khan Lodi, who established the dynasty after overthrowing the last ruler of the Sayyid Dynasty. Known for their Pashtun (Afghan) origin and their rule over Delhi. The most prominent ruler of this dynasty was Sikandar Lodi, known for his administrative reforms. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following:

• Mamluk Dynasty

• Sayeed Dynasty

• Khalji Dynasty

• Thuglaq Dynasty

Arrange the above dynasties in correct chronological order:

• a) 1-3-4-2

• b) 1-2-3-4

• c) 2-1-4-3

• d) 3-4-1-2

Explanation:

• The Muslim invasions into India had ultimately resulted in the establishment of Delhi Sultanate which existed from A.D. 1206 to 1526. Five different dynasties – the Slave, Khalji, Tughlaq, Sayyids and Lodis – ruled under the Delhi Sultanate

• Slave Dynasty aka Mamluk dynasty (1206-1290)

• Khalji Dynasty (1290-1320)

• Thuglaq Dynasty (1320-1414)

• Sayeed Dynasty (1414-1451)

• Lodhi Dynasty (1451-1526)

• Slave Dynasty (1206-1290):

• Founded by Qutb-ud-din Aibak, a former slave of Muhammad Ghori.

• Known for the construction of the Qutub Minar in Delhi.

• Alauddin Khilji was the most prominent ruler of this dynasty.

• Khalji Dynasty (1290-1320):

• Founded by Jalal-ud-din Firuz Khalji after overthrowing the last ruler of the Slave Dynasty.

• Known for their military conquests and expansion of the Delhi Sultanate.

• Alauddin Khalji was the most notable ruler who implemented various administrative reforms.

• Tughlaq Dynasty (1320-1414):

• Founded by Ghazi Malik, who took the title of Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq

• Known for their ambitious but often unsuccessful military campaigns.

• Muhammad bin Tughlaq attempted to shift the capital from Delhi to Daulatabad, leading to administrative chaos.

• Sayyid Dynasty (1414-1451):

• Founded by Khizr Khan, a former governor under the Tughlaqs.

• Known for their weak and short-lived rule over the Delhi Sultanate.

• The dynasty ended with the rise of the Lodi Dynasty.

• Lodi Dynasty (1451-1526):

• Founded by Bahlul Khan Lodi, who established the dynasty after overthrowing the last ruler of the Sayyid Dynasty.

• Known for their Pashtun (Afghan) origin and their rule over Delhi.

• The most prominent ruler of this dynasty was Sikandar Lodi, known for his administrative reforms.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• The Muslim invasions into India had ultimately resulted in the establishment of Delhi Sultanate which existed from A.D. 1206 to 1526. Five different dynasties – the Slave, Khalji, Tughlaq, Sayyids and Lodis – ruled under the Delhi Sultanate

• Slave Dynasty aka Mamluk dynasty (1206-1290)

• Khalji Dynasty (1290-1320)

• Thuglaq Dynasty (1320-1414)

• Sayeed Dynasty (1414-1451)

• Lodhi Dynasty (1451-1526)

• Slave Dynasty (1206-1290):

• Founded by Qutb-ud-din Aibak, a former slave of Muhammad Ghori.

• Known for the construction of the Qutub Minar in Delhi.

• Alauddin Khilji was the most prominent ruler of this dynasty.

• Khalji Dynasty (1290-1320):

• Founded by Jalal-ud-din Firuz Khalji after overthrowing the last ruler of the Slave Dynasty.

• Known for their military conquests and expansion of the Delhi Sultanate.

• Alauddin Khalji was the most notable ruler who implemented various administrative reforms.

• Tughlaq Dynasty (1320-1414):

• Founded by Ghazi Malik, who took the title of Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq

• Known for their ambitious but often unsuccessful military campaigns.

• Muhammad bin Tughlaq attempted to shift the capital from Delhi to Daulatabad, leading to administrative chaos.

• Sayyid Dynasty (1414-1451):

• Founded by Khizr Khan, a former governor under the Tughlaqs.

• Known for their weak and short-lived rule over the Delhi Sultanate.

• The dynasty ended with the rise of the Lodi Dynasty.

• Lodi Dynasty (1451-1526):

• Founded by Bahlul Khan Lodi, who established the dynasty after overthrowing the last ruler of the Sayyid Dynasty.

• Known for their Pashtun (Afghan) origin and their rule over Delhi.

• The most prominent ruler of this dynasty was Sikandar Lodi, known for his administrative reforms.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Which ethnic group did the rulers of the Khalji Dynasty belong to? a) Turkish b) Arab c) Persian d) Afghan Correct Answer: a Explanation: Among all the dynasties that comprised Delhi Sultanate, Slave Dynasty (1206-1290) Khalji Dynasty (1290-1320) and Thuglaq Dynasty (1320-1414) belonged to Turkish race. Sayeeds were Arabs and they proclaimed their descedency from Prophet Mohammed. Lodis were Afghans. The Khalji Dynasty, which ruled from 1290 to 1320, was a Muslim dynasty of Turkish origin that succeeded the Mamluk dynasty of Delhi. Its founder, Jalal ud din Firuz Khalji, was a Turkish military commander who rose to power by overthrowing the last ruler of the Mamluk dynasty, Muiz ud din Qaiqabad, in 1290. The Khalji rulers, including Jalal ud din Firuz Khalji and his successors, were ethnically Turkish, belonging to the Central Asian Turkic tribes. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Among all the dynasties that comprised Delhi Sultanate, Slave Dynasty (1206-1290) Khalji Dynasty (1290-1320) and Thuglaq Dynasty (1320-1414) belonged to Turkish race. Sayeeds were Arabs and they proclaimed their descedency from Prophet Mohammed. Lodis were Afghans. The Khalji Dynasty, which ruled from 1290 to 1320, was a Muslim dynasty of Turkish origin that succeeded the Mamluk dynasty of Delhi. Its founder, Jalal ud din Firuz Khalji, was a Turkish military commander who rose to power by overthrowing the last ruler of the Mamluk dynasty, Muiz ud din Qaiqabad, in 1290. The Khalji rulers, including Jalal ud din Firuz Khalji and his successors, were ethnically Turkish, belonging to the Central Asian Turkic tribes. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 10. Question

Which ethnic group did the rulers of the Khalji Dynasty belong to?

• a) Turkish

• c) Persian

Explanation:

• Among all the dynasties that comprised Delhi Sultanate, Slave Dynasty (1206-1290) Khalji Dynasty (1290-1320) and Thuglaq Dynasty (1320-1414) belonged to Turkish race.

• Sayeeds were Arabs and they proclaimed their descedency from Prophet Mohammed. Lodis were Afghans.

• The Khalji Dynasty, which ruled from 1290 to 1320, was a Muslim dynasty of Turkish origin that succeeded the Mamluk dynasty of Delhi. Its founder, Jalal ud din Firuz Khalji, was a Turkish military commander who rose to power by overthrowing the last ruler of the Mamluk dynasty, Muiz ud din Qaiqabad, in 1290. The Khalji rulers, including Jalal ud din Firuz Khalji and his successors, were ethnically Turkish, belonging to the Central Asian Turkic tribes.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• Among all the dynasties that comprised Delhi Sultanate, Slave Dynasty (1206-1290) Khalji Dynasty (1290-1320) and Thuglaq Dynasty (1320-1414) belonged to Turkish race.

• Sayeeds were Arabs and they proclaimed their descedency from Prophet Mohammed. Lodis were Afghans.

• The Khalji Dynasty, which ruled from 1290 to 1320, was a Muslim dynasty of Turkish origin that succeeded the Mamluk dynasty of Delhi. Its founder, Jalal ud din Firuz Khalji, was a Turkish military commander who rose to power by overthrowing the last ruler of the Mamluk dynasty, Muiz ud din Qaiqabad, in 1290. The Khalji rulers, including Jalal ud din Firuz Khalji and his successors, were ethnically Turkish, belonging to the Central Asian Turkic tribes.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Bura Chapori Wildlife Sanctuary: It is geographically located on the south bank of the Brahmaputra. It comprises a mosaic of wet alluvial grassland and semi-evergreen forests. It is located in the state of Assam along with the Laokhowa Wildlife Sanctuary. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Bura Chapori Wildlife Sanctuary is geographically located on the south bank of the Brahmaputra but under the Sonitpur district. Statement 2 is correct: It is a part of the Laokhowa-Burachapori ecosystem and comprises of a mosaic of wet alluvial grassland, riparian and semi-evergreen forests dotted by wetland and river systems. This sanctuary covers an area of 44.06 sq. km. and is home to the Great Indian one-horned rhinoceros, tiger, leopard, wild buffalo, hog deer, wild pig, and elephants. Statement 3 is correct: The Laokhowa and Burhachapori Wildlife Sanctuaries are two highly significant ecosystems of the state of Assam. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Bura Chapori Wildlife Sanctuary is geographically located on the south bank of the Brahmaputra but under the Sonitpur district. Statement 2 is correct: It is a part of the Laokhowa-Burachapori ecosystem and comprises of a mosaic of wet alluvial grassland, riparian and semi-evergreen forests dotted by wetland and river systems. This sanctuary covers an area of 44.06 sq. km. and is home to the Great Indian one-horned rhinoceros, tiger, leopard, wild buffalo, hog deer, wild pig, and elephants. Statement 3 is correct: The Laokhowa and Burhachapori Wildlife Sanctuaries are two highly significant ecosystems of the state of Assam.

#### 11. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Bura Chapori Wildlife Sanctuary:

• It is geographically located on the south bank of the Brahmaputra.

• It comprises a mosaic of wet alluvial grassland and semi-evergreen forests.

• It is located in the state of Assam along with the Laokhowa Wildlife Sanctuary.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Bura Chapori Wildlife Sanctuary is geographically located on the south bank of the Brahmaputra but under the Sonitpur district.

Statement 2 is correct: It is a part of the Laokhowa-Burachapori ecosystem and comprises of a mosaic of wet alluvial grassland, riparian and semi-evergreen forests dotted by wetland and river systems.

This sanctuary covers an area of 44.06 sq. km. and is home to the Great Indian one-horned rhinoceros, tiger, leopard, wild buffalo, hog deer, wild pig, and elephants.

Statement 3 is correct: The Laokhowa and Burhachapori Wildlife Sanctuaries are two highly significant ecosystems of the state of Assam.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Bura Chapori Wildlife Sanctuary is geographically located on the south bank of the Brahmaputra but under the Sonitpur district.

Statement 2 is correct: It is a part of the Laokhowa-Burachapori ecosystem and comprises of a mosaic of wet alluvial grassland, riparian and semi-evergreen forests dotted by wetland and river systems.

This sanctuary covers an area of 44.06 sq. km. and is home to the Great Indian one-horned rhinoceros, tiger, leopard, wild buffalo, hog deer, wild pig, and elephants.

Statement 3 is correct: The Laokhowa and Burhachapori Wildlife Sanctuaries are two highly significant ecosystems of the state of Assam.

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points With reference to the Canary Islands, consider the following statements: They are located in the Macaronesia region of the North Atlantic Ocean. They are a part of the Arctic Region but politically belong to Europe. Their climate is described as ‘tundra’ moderated by trade winds. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Canary Islands are located in the Macaronesia region of the North Atlantic Ocean. Statement 2 is not correct: The island group is on the west coast of continental Africa, approximately 100 km from Morocco and southwest of Spain. The archipelago is approximately 1,300 km southeast of Gibraltar. Geographically, the archipelago is part of continental Africa, but politically and economically it is part of Europe. Statement 3 is not correct: The Canary Islands’ climate is described as desert and tropical, moderated by trade winds and the surrounding sea. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Canary Islands are located in the Macaronesia region of the North Atlantic Ocean. Statement 2 is not correct: The island group is on the west coast of continental Africa, approximately 100 km from Morocco and southwest of Spain. The archipelago is approximately 1,300 km southeast of Gibraltar. Geographically, the archipelago is part of continental Africa, but politically and economically it is part of Europe. Statement 3 is not correct: The Canary Islands’ climate is described as desert and tropical, moderated by trade winds and the surrounding sea.

#### 12. Question

With reference to the Canary Islands, consider the following statements:

• They are located in the Macaronesia region of the North Atlantic Ocean.

• They are a part of the Arctic Region but politically belong to Europe.

• Their climate is described as ‘tundra’ moderated by trade winds.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Canary Islands are located in the Macaronesia region of the North Atlantic Ocean.

Statement 2 is not correct: The island group is on the west coast of continental Africa, approximately 100 km from Morocco and southwest of Spain.

The archipelago is approximately 1,300 km southeast of Gibraltar. Geographically, the archipelago is part of continental Africa, but politically and economically it is part of Europe.

Statement 3 is not correct: The Canary Islands’ climate is described as desert and tropical, moderated by trade winds and the surrounding sea.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Canary Islands are located in the Macaronesia region of the North Atlantic Ocean.

Statement 2 is not correct: The island group is on the west coast of continental Africa, approximately 100 km from Morocco and southwest of Spain.

The archipelago is approximately 1,300 km southeast of Gibraltar. Geographically, the archipelago is part of continental Africa, but politically and economically it is part of Europe.

Statement 3 is not correct: The Canary Islands’ climate is described as desert and tropical, moderated by trade winds and the surrounding sea.

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Consider the following: Which one of the following Space Agencies launched the “BepiColombo” Mission to study the planet Mercury from unique vantage points? (a) The European Space Agency (b) The NewSpace India Limited (c) The Indian Space Research Organisation (d) The National Aeronautics and Space Administration Correct Answer: A Explanation: Option (a) is correct: BepiColombo is an international mission comprised of two spacecraft riding together to Mercury to orbit and to study the planet from unique vantage points. The European Space Agency (ESA) provided one orbiter. The Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA) supplied the second orbiter. ESA’s Mercury Planetary Orbiter (MPO) will study the planet’s surface and interior. JAXA’s Mercury Magnetospheric Orbiter (MIO) will study the planet’s magnetic field. These are the first Mercury missions for the ESA and Japan. Only two other spacecraft have visited Mercury: NASA’s Mariner 10 and MESSENGER. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Option (a) is correct: BepiColombo is an international mission comprised of two spacecraft riding together to Mercury to orbit and to study the planet from unique vantage points. The European Space Agency (ESA) provided one orbiter. The Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA) supplied the second orbiter. ESA’s Mercury Planetary Orbiter (MPO) will study the planet’s surface and interior. JAXA’s Mercury Magnetospheric Orbiter (MIO) will study the planet’s magnetic field. These are the first Mercury missions for the ESA and Japan. Only two other spacecraft have visited Mercury: NASA’s Mariner 10 and MESSENGER.

#### 13. Question

Consider the following:

Which one of the following Space Agencies launched the “BepiColombo” Mission to study the planet Mercury from unique vantage points?

• (a) The European Space Agency

• (b) The NewSpace India Limited

• (c) The Indian Space Research Organisation

• (d) The National Aeronautics and Space Administration

Answer: A

Explanation:

Option (a) is correct: BepiColombo is an international mission comprised of two spacecraft riding together to Mercury to orbit and to study the planet from unique vantage points.

• The European Space Agency (ESA) provided one orbiter.

• The Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA) supplied the second orbiter.

• ESA’s Mercury Planetary Orbiter (MPO) will study the planet’s surface and interior.

• JAXA’s Mercury Magnetospheric Orbiter (MIO) will study the planet’s magnetic field.

• These are the first Mercury missions for the ESA and Japan. Only two other spacecraft have visited Mercury: NASA’s Mariner 10 and MESSENGER.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Option (a) is correct: BepiColombo is an international mission comprised of two spacecraft riding together to Mercury to orbit and to study the planet from unique vantage points.

• The European Space Agency (ESA) provided one orbiter.

• The Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA) supplied the second orbiter.

• ESA’s Mercury Planetary Orbiter (MPO) will study the planet’s surface and interior.

• JAXA’s Mercury Magnetospheric Orbiter (MIO) will study the planet’s magnetic field.

• These are the first Mercury missions for the ESA and Japan. Only two other spacecraft have visited Mercury: NASA’s Mariner 10 and MESSENGER.

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Prepaid Payment Instruments (PPIs): PPIs can be used to purchase goods and services to send or receive money by using the stored value in the wallet. PPIs can be used in Indian rupees as well as foreign currencies in the form of physical smart cards, secure tokens and vouchers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Prepaid Payment Instruments (PPIs) are payment methods that can be used to purchase goods and services and send/receive money by using the stored value in the wallet. Users have to pre-load the wallet with a desired amount. The amount can be loaded/reloaded against cash or through debit to bank account, or by using credit/debit cards, UPI, or any other approved payment method in India. Statement 2 is not correct: PPIs can only be used in Indian rupees. PPIs can be in the form of mobile wallets, physical smart cards, secure tokens, vouchers, or any other method that allows access to prepaid funds. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Prepaid Payment Instruments (PPIs) are payment methods that can be used to purchase goods and services and send/receive money by using the stored value in the wallet. Users have to pre-load the wallet with a desired amount. The amount can be loaded/reloaded against cash or through debit to bank account, or by using credit/debit cards, UPI, or any other approved payment method in India. Statement 2 is not correct: PPIs can only be used in Indian rupees. PPIs can be in the form of mobile wallets, physical smart cards, secure tokens, vouchers, or any other method that allows access to prepaid funds.

#### 14. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Prepaid Payment Instruments (PPIs):

• PPIs can be used to purchase goods and services to send or receive money by using the stored value in the wallet.

• PPIs can be used in Indian rupees as well as foreign currencies in the form of physical smart cards, secure tokens and vouchers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Prepaid Payment Instruments (PPIs) are payment methods that can be used to purchase goods and services and send/receive money by using the stored value in the wallet.

Users have to pre-load the wallet with a desired amount. The amount can be loaded/reloaded against cash or through debit to bank account, or by using credit/debit cards, UPI, or any other approved payment method in India.

Statement 2 is not correct: PPIs can only be used in Indian rupees. PPIs can be in the form of mobile wallets, physical smart cards, secure tokens, vouchers, or any other method that allows access to prepaid funds.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Prepaid Payment Instruments (PPIs) are payment methods that can be used to purchase goods and services and send/receive money by using the stored value in the wallet.

Users have to pre-load the wallet with a desired amount. The amount can be loaded/reloaded against cash or through debit to bank account, or by using credit/debit cards, UPI, or any other approved payment method in India.

Statement 2 is not correct: PPIs can only be used in Indian rupees. PPIs can be in the form of mobile wallets, physical smart cards, secure tokens, vouchers, or any other method that allows access to prepaid funds.

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Mission Innovation: It is an exclusive global forum of G7 Countries and the European Commission. It aims to accelerate Clean Energy revolution towards the Paris Agreement goals. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: B Explanation: Option (b) is correct: Mission Innovation (MI) is a Ministerial-level global forum of 23 Countries and the European Commission (on behalf of the European Union) to accelerate Clean Energy revolution and progress towards the Paris Agreement goals and pathways to Net Zero. The main objective of MI is to catalyse a decade of action and investment in research, development and demonstration to make clean energy affordable, attractive and accessible for all. It does this by taking steps to accelerate clean energy innovation to mobilise low-cost finance by international partners, enhance private sector investments and demand for clean technologies that advances R&D of clean energy technology. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Option (b) is correct: Mission Innovation (MI) is a Ministerial-level global forum of 23 Countries and the European Commission (on behalf of the European Union) to accelerate Clean Energy revolution and progress towards the Paris Agreement goals and pathways to Net Zero. The main objective of MI is to catalyse a decade of action and investment in research, development and demonstration to make clean energy affordable, attractive and accessible for all. It does this by taking steps to accelerate clean energy innovation to mobilise low-cost finance by international partners, enhance private sector investments and demand for clean technologies that advances R&D of clean energy technology.

#### 15. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Mission Innovation:

• It is an exclusive global forum of G7 Countries and the European Commission.

• It aims to accelerate Clean Energy revolution towards the Paris Agreement goals.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Explanation:

Option (b) is correct: Mission Innovation (MI) is a Ministerial-level global forum of 23 Countries and the European Commission (on behalf of the European Union) to accelerate Clean Energy revolution and progress towards the Paris Agreement goals and pathways to Net Zero.

The main objective of MI is to catalyse a decade of action and investment in research, development and demonstration to make clean energy affordable, attractive and accessible for all.

It does this by taking steps to accelerate clean energy innovation to mobilise low-cost finance by international partners, enhance private sector investments and demand for clean technologies that advances R&D of clean energy technology.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Option (b) is correct: Mission Innovation (MI) is a Ministerial-level global forum of 23 Countries and the European Commission (on behalf of the European Union) to accelerate Clean Energy revolution and progress towards the Paris Agreement goals and pathways to Net Zero.

The main objective of MI is to catalyse a decade of action and investment in research, development and demonstration to make clean energy affordable, attractive and accessible for all.

It does this by taking steps to accelerate clean energy innovation to mobilise low-cost finance by international partners, enhance private sector investments and demand for clean technologies that advances R&D of clean energy technology.

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Snow leopards: Snow leopards lack a flexible ligament structure with their larynx due to this they cannot produce a roar. They are considered an umbrella species in their ecosystem. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Both of the statements are correct. Unlike lions and tigers, which have a flexible ligament structure within their larynx, snow leopards lack this and therefore cannot produce a roar. This unique feature among big cats contributes to their nickname “ghosts of the mountain,” as their inability to roar makes them even more elusive. Snow leopards are considered an umbrella species because their conservation also protects many other species in the same habitat. Being top predators, their presence indicates a healthy ecosystem. By ensuring their habitat is protected, conservation efforts inadvertently safeguard the entire ecological network, including other wildlife and the water supply, crucial for humans and animals. Their conservation helps maintain the balance and health of the alpine ecosystem. Incorrect Solution: C Both of the statements are correct. Unlike lions and tigers, which have a flexible ligament structure within their larynx, snow leopards lack this and therefore cannot produce a roar. This unique feature among big cats contributes to their nickname “ghosts of the mountain,” as their inability to roar makes them even more elusive. Snow leopards are considered an umbrella species because their conservation also protects many other species in the same habitat. Being top predators, their presence indicates a healthy ecosystem. By ensuring their habitat is protected, conservation efforts inadvertently safeguard the entire ecological network, including other wildlife and the water supply, crucial for humans and animals. Their conservation helps maintain the balance and health of the alpine ecosystem.

#### 16. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Snow leopards:

• Snow leopards lack a flexible ligament structure with their larynx due to this they cannot produce a roar.

• They are considered an umbrella species in their ecosystem.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

Both of the statements are correct.

Unlike lions and tigers, which have a flexible ligament structure within their larynx, snow leopards lack this and therefore cannot produce a roar. This unique feature among big cats contributes to their nickname “ghosts of the mountain,” as their inability to roar makes them even more elusive.

Snow leopards are considered an umbrella species because their conservation also protects many other species in the same habitat. Being top predators, their presence indicates a healthy ecosystem. By ensuring their habitat is protected, conservation efforts inadvertently safeguard the entire ecological network, including other wildlife and the water supply, crucial for humans and animals. Their conservation helps maintain the balance and health of the alpine ecosystem.

Solution: C

Both of the statements are correct.

Unlike lions and tigers, which have a flexible ligament structure within their larynx, snow leopards lack this and therefore cannot produce a roar. This unique feature among big cats contributes to their nickname “ghosts of the mountain,” as their inability to roar makes them even more elusive.

Snow leopards are considered an umbrella species because their conservation also protects many other species in the same habitat. Being top predators, their presence indicates a healthy ecosystem. By ensuring their habitat is protected, conservation efforts inadvertently safeguard the entire ecological network, including other wildlife and the water supply, crucial for humans and animals. Their conservation helps maintain the balance and health of the alpine ecosystem.

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Lakshadweep Islands: The islands are a uni-district Union Territory administered directly by the Indian central government. Lava Dance and Oppana Songs are performed here. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Both of the statements are correct. The Lakshadweep Islands are a uni-district Union Territory, which means they are administered directly by the Government of India rather than having a state government. This administration is conducted through an appointed administrator, emphasizing centralized control, typical of Union Territories in India. Lava Dance and Oppana Songs are part of the cultural heritage of Lakshadweep. These forms of art reflect the blend of local traditions and influences from mainland India. Lava Dance is particularly noted during festive occasions, showcasing the vibrant cultural fabric of the islands. Oppana Songs, typically performed during weddings and other celebrations, have roots in Muslim traditions, illustrating the cultural diversity of Lakshadweep. These performances are crucial in maintaining and celebrating the unique cultural identity of the islands. Incorrect Solution: C Both of the statements are correct. The Lakshadweep Islands are a uni-district Union Territory, which means they are administered directly by the Government of India rather than having a state government. This administration is conducted through an appointed administrator, emphasizing centralized control, typical of Union Territories in India. Lava Dance and Oppana Songs are part of the cultural heritage of Lakshadweep. These forms of art reflect the blend of local traditions and influences from mainland India. Lava Dance is particularly noted during festive occasions, showcasing the vibrant cultural fabric of the islands. Oppana Songs, typically performed during weddings and other celebrations, have roots in Muslim traditions, illustrating the cultural diversity of Lakshadweep. These performances are crucial in maintaining and celebrating the unique cultural identity of the islands.

#### 17. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Lakshadweep Islands:

• The islands are a uni-district Union Territory administered directly by the Indian central government.

• Lava Dance and Oppana Songs are performed here.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

Both of the statements are correct.

The Lakshadweep Islands are a uni-district Union Territory, which means they are administered directly by the Government of India rather than having a state government. This administration is conducted through an appointed administrator, emphasizing centralized control, typical of Union Territories in India.

Lava Dance and Oppana Songs are part of the cultural heritage of Lakshadweep. These forms of art reflect the blend of local traditions and influences from mainland India. Lava Dance is particularly noted during festive occasions, showcasing the vibrant cultural fabric of the islands. Oppana Songs, typically performed during weddings and other celebrations, have roots in Muslim traditions, illustrating the cultural diversity of Lakshadweep. These performances are crucial in maintaining and celebrating the unique cultural identity of the islands.

Solution: C

Both of the statements are correct.

The Lakshadweep Islands are a uni-district Union Territory, which means they are administered directly by the Government of India rather than having a state government. This administration is conducted through an appointed administrator, emphasizing centralized control, typical of Union Territories in India.

Lava Dance and Oppana Songs are part of the cultural heritage of Lakshadweep. These forms of art reflect the blend of local traditions and influences from mainland India. Lava Dance is particularly noted during festive occasions, showcasing the vibrant cultural fabric of the islands. Oppana Songs, typically performed during weddings and other celebrations, have roots in Muslim traditions, illustrating the cultural diversity of Lakshadweep. These performances are crucial in maintaining and celebrating the unique cultural identity of the islands.

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Nagara style temple architecture: It typically features a beehive-shaped tower (Shikhara) which is curvilinear. The garbhagriha (sanctum sanctorum) is usually located directly under the tallest tower. The temples usually have a star-shaped platform with a circular or elliptical plan. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Nagara style temple architecture is distinguished by its beehive-shaped tower, known as a Shikhara, which is curvilinear and rises above the sanctum sanctorum. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The garbhagriha, or the sanctum sanctorum, is traditionally situated directly below the temple’s tallest tower in Nagara style architecture. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The characteristic of having a star-shaped platform with a circular or elliptical plan is typical of the Vesara style of temple architecture, particularly noted in the Hoysala temples in Karnataka, rather than the Nagara style. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution: B Nagara style temple architecture is distinguished by its beehive-shaped tower, known as a Shikhara, which is curvilinear and rises above the sanctum sanctorum. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The garbhagriha, or the sanctum sanctorum, is traditionally situated directly below the temple’s tallest tower in Nagara style architecture. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The characteristic of having a star-shaped platform with a circular or elliptical plan is typical of the Vesara style of temple architecture, particularly noted in the Hoysala temples in Karnataka, rather than the Nagara style. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

#### 18. Question

Consider the following statements about Nagara style temple architecture:

• It typically features a beehive-shaped tower (Shikhara) which is curvilinear.

• The garbhagriha (sanctum sanctorum) is usually located directly under the tallest tower.

• The temples usually have a star-shaped platform with a circular or elliptical plan.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Nagara style temple architecture is distinguished by its beehive-shaped tower, known as a Shikhara, which is curvilinear and rises above the sanctum sanctorum. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The garbhagriha, or the sanctum sanctorum, is traditionally situated directly below the temple’s tallest tower in Nagara style architecture.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

The characteristic of having a star-shaped platform with a circular or elliptical plan is typical of the Vesara style of temple architecture, particularly noted in the Hoysala temples in Karnataka, rather than the Nagara style.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution: B

Nagara style temple architecture is distinguished by its beehive-shaped tower, known as a Shikhara, which is curvilinear and rises above the sanctum sanctorum. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The garbhagriha, or the sanctum sanctorum, is traditionally situated directly below the temple’s tallest tower in Nagara style architecture.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

The characteristic of having a star-shaped platform with a circular or elliptical plan is typical of the Vesara style of temple architecture, particularly noted in the Hoysala temples in Karnataka, rather than the Nagara style.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points The Ramakien, a version of the Ramayana, holds significant cultural importance in which country? (a) Laos (b) Thailand (c) Vietnam (d) Cambodia Correct Solution: B The Ramakien is Thailand’s national epic, derived from the Hindu epic Ramayana. It has been adapted to represent Thai beliefs, values, and culture. The version of the story, while sharing the core narrative of the Ramayana, has variations unique to Thai culture and has been influential in art, dance, and literature within Thailand. Incorrect Solution: B The Ramakien is Thailand’s national epic, derived from the Hindu epic Ramayana. It has been adapted to represent Thai beliefs, values, and culture. The version of the story, while sharing the core narrative of the Ramayana, has variations unique to Thai culture and has been influential in art, dance, and literature within Thailand.

#### 19. Question

The Ramakien, a version of the Ramayana, holds significant cultural importance in which country?

• (b) Thailand

• (c) Vietnam

• (d) Cambodia

Solution: B

The Ramakien is Thailand’s national epic, derived from the Hindu epic Ramayana. It has been adapted to represent Thai beliefs, values, and culture. The version of the story, while sharing the core narrative of the Ramayana, has variations unique to Thai culture and has been influential in art, dance, and literature within Thailand.

Solution: B

The Ramakien is Thailand’s national epic, derived from the Hindu epic Ramayana. It has been adapted to represent Thai beliefs, values, and culture. The version of the story, while sharing the core narrative of the Ramayana, has variations unique to Thai culture and has been influential in art, dance, and literature within Thailand.

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points The Free Movement Regime (FMR) on the India-Myanmar border allows for: (a) Visa-free travel up to 16 kilometres into each other's territories for local tribes (b) Unlimited migration for work and settlement (c) Free trade between India and Myanmar without tariffs (d) Cross-border movement without any restrictions Correct Solution: A The Free Movement Regime (FMR) was a unique bilateral arrangement between India and Myanmar that recognized the social and economic dynamics of the border communities. It allowed residents, particularly the tribal communities living within 16 kilometers of the border, to cross into each other’s territories without a visa or passport. The FMR was designed to facilitate these communities’ traditional way of life, which often involves crossing the border for trade, work, and maintaining family and cultural ties. Recently, it was scrapped due to security concerns. Incorrect Solution: A The Free Movement Regime (FMR) was a unique bilateral arrangement between India and Myanmar that recognized the social and economic dynamics of the border communities. It allowed residents, particularly the tribal communities living within 16 kilometers of the border, to cross into each other’s territories without a visa or passport. The FMR was designed to facilitate these communities’ traditional way of life, which often involves crossing the border for trade, work, and maintaining family and cultural ties. Recently, it was scrapped due to security concerns.

#### 20. Question

The Free Movement Regime (FMR) on the India-Myanmar border allows for:

• (a) Visa-free travel up to 16 kilometres into each other's territories for local tribes

• (b) Unlimited migration for work and settlement

• (c) Free trade between India and Myanmar without tariffs

• (d) Cross-border movement without any restrictions

Solution: A

The Free Movement Regime (FMR) was a unique bilateral arrangement between India and Myanmar that recognized the social and economic dynamics of the border communities. It allowed residents, particularly the tribal communities living within 16 kilometers of the border, to cross into each other’s territories without a visa or passport. The FMR was designed to facilitate these communities’ traditional way of life, which often involves crossing the border for trade, work, and maintaining family and cultural ties.

Recently, it was scrapped due to security concerns.

Solution: A

The Free Movement Regime (FMR) was a unique bilateral arrangement between India and Myanmar that recognized the social and economic dynamics of the border communities. It allowed residents, particularly the tribal communities living within 16 kilometers of the border, to cross into each other’s territories without a visa or passport. The FMR was designed to facilitate these communities’ traditional way of life, which often involves crossing the border for trade, work, and maintaining family and cultural ties.

Recently, it was scrapped due to security concerns.

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Food Waste generates roughly 10% of global greenhouse gas emissions. Countries with hotter climates generate more food waste per capita in households as compared to colder countries, due to the lack of robust cold chains in the former. The Food Waste Index (FWI) Report 2024 was released by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). Sustainable Development Goals aims to reduce food loss and waste by 2030. How many of the above are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution: d) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/30/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-30-march-2024/ Incorrect Solution: d) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/30/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-30-march-2024/

#### 21. Question

Consider the following statements.

• Food Waste generates roughly 10% of global greenhouse gas emissions.

• Countries with hotter climates generate more food waste per capita in households as compared to colder countries, due to the lack of robust cold chains in the former.

• The Food Waste Index (FWI) Report 2024 was released by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).

• Sustainable Development Goals aims to reduce food loss and waste by 2030.

How many of the above are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Solution: d)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/30/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-30-march-2024/

Solution: d)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/30/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-30-march-2024/

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the United Nations Security Council (UNSC). The UN Charter obligates UN members to accept and implement UNSC decisions. If the UNSC fails to pass a resolution, it may issue a non-binding presidential statement adopted by consensus. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 Only b) 2 Only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: c) Justification: A UNSC resolution is a decision adopted by the UN Security Council, responsible for international peace and security. Article 27 of the UN Charter requires an affirmative vote of nine out of fifteen members for resolutions. Any of the five permanent members can veto resolutions, except procedural ones. The permanent members are China, France, Russia, the UK, and the US. Article 25 obligates UN members to accept and implement UNSC decisions. As of today, the Security Council has passed 2728 resolutions. The ICJ has affirmed the legal bindingness of all Security Council resolutions. If the Security Council fails to pass a resolution, it may issue a non-binding presidential statement adopted by consensus. These statements apply political pressure and signal the Council’s attention, often indicating that further action may follow. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/29/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-29-march-2024/ Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: A UNSC resolution is a decision adopted by the UN Security Council, responsible for international peace and security. Article 27 of the UN Charter requires an affirmative vote of nine out of fifteen members for resolutions. Any of the five permanent members can veto resolutions, except procedural ones. The permanent members are China, France, Russia, the UK, and the US. Article 25 obligates UN members to accept and implement UNSC decisions. As of today, the Security Council has passed 2728 resolutions. The ICJ has affirmed the legal bindingness of all Security Council resolutions. If the Security Council fails to pass a resolution, it may issue a non-binding presidential statement adopted by consensus. These statements apply political pressure and signal the Council’s attention, often indicating that further action may follow. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/29/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-29-march-2024/

#### 22. Question

Consider the following statements about the United Nations Security Council (UNSC).

• The UN Charter obligates UN members to accept and implement UNSC decisions.

• If the UNSC fails to pass a resolution, it may issue a non-binding presidential statement adopted by consensus.

Which of the above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c)

Justification: A UNSC resolution is a decision adopted by the UN Security Council, responsible for international peace and security. Article 27 of the UN Charter requires an affirmative vote of nine out of fifteen members for resolutions. Any of the five permanent members can veto resolutions, except procedural ones.

The permanent members are China, France, Russia, the UK, and the US. Article 25 obligates UN members to accept and implement UNSC decisions. As of today, the Security Council has passed 2728 resolutions. The ICJ has affirmed the legal bindingness of all Security Council resolutions.

If the Security Council fails to pass a resolution, it may issue a non-binding presidential statement adopted by consensus. These statements apply political pressure and signal the Council’s attention, often indicating that further action may follow.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/29/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-29-march-2024/

Solution: c)

Justification: A UNSC resolution is a decision adopted by the UN Security Council, responsible for international peace and security. Article 27 of the UN Charter requires an affirmative vote of nine out of fifteen members for resolutions. Any of the five permanent members can veto resolutions, except procedural ones.

The permanent members are China, France, Russia, the UK, and the US. Article 25 obligates UN members to accept and implement UNSC decisions. As of today, the Security Council has passed 2728 resolutions. The ICJ has affirmed the legal bindingness of all Security Council resolutions.

If the Security Council fails to pass a resolution, it may issue a non-binding presidential statement adopted by consensus. These statements apply political pressure and signal the Council’s attention, often indicating that further action may follow.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/29/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-29-march-2024/

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Indian vulture or White-backed vulture can be found to inhabit open grasslands in which of the following states? Jharkhand Rajasthan Madhya Pradesh How many of the above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: c) Justification: Gyps indicus (also known as the Indian vulture or White-backed vulture) are characterized by whitish feathers on a dark head and neck, with a pale collar. They are colonial nesters and often found in flocks. However, their population is declining rapidly. They primarily inhabit open grasslands in states like Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, and Rajasthan. Classified as critically endangered by the IUCN and listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act-1972, conservation efforts include banning non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs like diclofenac and Ketoprofen for veterinary use, along with the implementation of the Vulture Action Plan 2020-25. Q Source: March current events Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: Gyps indicus (also known as the Indian vulture or White-backed vulture) are characterized by whitish feathers on a dark head and neck, with a pale collar. They are colonial nesters and often found in flocks. However, their population is declining rapidly. They primarily inhabit open grasslands in states like Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, and Rajasthan. Classified as critically endangered by the IUCN and listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act-1972, conservation efforts include banning non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs like diclofenac and Ketoprofen for veterinary use, along with the implementation of the Vulture Action Plan 2020-25. Q Source: March current events

#### 23. Question

Indian vulture or White-backed vulture can be found to inhabit open grasslands in which of the following states?

• Madhya Pradesh

How many of the above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: c)

Justification: Gyps indicus (also known as the Indian vulture or White-backed vulture) are characterized by whitish feathers on a dark head and neck, with a pale collar. They are colonial nesters and often found in flocks.

However, their population is declining rapidly. They primarily inhabit open grasslands in states like Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, and Rajasthan.

Classified as critically endangered by the IUCN and listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act-1972, conservation efforts include banning non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs like diclofenac and Ketoprofen for veterinary use, along with the implementation of the Vulture Action Plan 2020-25.

Q Source: March current events

Solution: c)

Justification: Gyps indicus (also known as the Indian vulture or White-backed vulture) are characterized by whitish feathers on a dark head and neck, with a pale collar. They are colonial nesters and often found in flocks.

However, their population is declining rapidly. They primarily inhabit open grasslands in states like Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, and Rajasthan.

Classified as critically endangered by the IUCN and listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act-1972, conservation efforts include banning non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs like diclofenac and Ketoprofen for veterinary use, along with the implementation of the Vulture Action Plan 2020-25.

Q Source: March current events

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. India launched a new database hosted on the Unite Aware platform to record crimes against peacekeepers and monitor accountability efforts. Currently, no Asian country, other than India, is a member of the Group of Friends (GOF) that aims to strengthen legal frameworks concerning crimes targeting peacekeepers. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: a) Justification: India, leading the Group of Friends (GOF) comprising 40 member states, convened a meeting to discuss strategies for strengthening legal frameworks against crimes targeting peacekeepers. India launched a new database hosted on the Unite Aware platform to record crimes against peacekeepers and monitor accountability efforts. The meeting underscores member states’ commitment, led by India, to uphold the safety and dignity of peacekeepers worldwide. The GOF was launched by India in 2022 to promote accountability for crimes against the Blue Helmets during its presidency of the UN Security Council. India, Bangladesh, Egypt, France, Morocco and Nepal are co-chairs of the GOF, which comprises 40 member states. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/30/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-30-march-2024/ Incorrect Solution: a) Justification: India, leading the Group of Friends (GOF) comprising 40 member states, convened a meeting to discuss strategies for strengthening legal frameworks against crimes targeting peacekeepers. India launched a new database hosted on the Unite Aware platform to record crimes against peacekeepers and monitor accountability efforts. The meeting underscores member states’ commitment, led by India, to uphold the safety and dignity of peacekeepers worldwide. The GOF was launched by India in 2022 to promote accountability for crimes against the Blue Helmets during its presidency of the UN Security Council. India, Bangladesh, Egypt, France, Morocco and Nepal are co-chairs of the GOF, which comprises 40 member states. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/30/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-30-march-2024/

#### 24. Question

Consider the following statements.

• India launched a new database hosted on the Unite Aware platform to record crimes against peacekeepers and monitor accountability efforts.

• Currently, no Asian country, other than India, is a member of the Group of Friends (GOF) that aims to strengthen legal frameworks concerning crimes targeting peacekeepers.

Which of the above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a)

Justification: India, leading the Group of Friends (GOF) comprising 40 member states, convened a meeting to discuss strategies for strengthening legal frameworks against crimes targeting peacekeepers.

India launched a new database hosted on the Unite Aware platform to record crimes against peacekeepers and monitor accountability efforts.

The meeting underscores member states’ commitment, led by India, to uphold the safety and dignity of peacekeepers worldwide.

The GOF was launched by India in 2022 to promote accountability for crimes against the Blue Helmets during its presidency of the UN Security Council.

India, Bangladesh, Egypt, France, Morocco and Nepal are co-chairs of the GOF, which comprises 40 member states.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/30/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-30-march-2024/

Solution: a)

Justification: India, leading the Group of Friends (GOF) comprising 40 member states, convened a meeting to discuss strategies for strengthening legal frameworks against crimes targeting peacekeepers.

India launched a new database hosted on the Unite Aware platform to record crimes against peacekeepers and monitor accountability efforts.

The meeting underscores member states’ commitment, led by India, to uphold the safety and dignity of peacekeepers worldwide.

The GOF was launched by India in 2022 to promote accountability for crimes against the Blue Helmets during its presidency of the UN Security Council.

India, Bangladesh, Egypt, France, Morocco and Nepal are co-chairs of the GOF, which comprises 40 member states.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/30/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-30-march-2024/

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Currently, social bonds in India can only be released by cooperative banks. India’s first green bond was issued by a public bank. The International Finance Corporation (IFC) recently released the Green and Social Bond Impact Report. How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: a) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/30/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-30-march-2024/ Incorrect Solution: a) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/30/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-30-march-2024/

#### 25. Question

Consider the following statements.

• Currently, social bonds in India can only be released by cooperative banks.

• India’s first green bond was issued by a public bank.

• The International Finance Corporation (IFC) recently released the Green and Social Bond Impact Report.

How many of the above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: a)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/30/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-30-march-2024/

Solution: a)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/30/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-30-march-2024/

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points Speech is God’s gift to mankind. Through speech a human being conveys his thoughts, sentiments and feeling to others. The concept of the freedom of speech and expression is very essential to the protection of the privacy, integrity and the basic needs of the people. Freedom of expression, the free flow of information, and freedom and pluralism of the media have internationally been acknowledged as human rights in the post-Second World War intergovernmental instruments. In this context, we see rising cases of data retention. Data retention refers to compulsory retention by communication service providers of the communication records of all their clients – beyond the normal (billing) period for keeping data – “just in case” the data might be useful in some future police or secret service enquiry. This ought to be viewed as mass surveillance of citizens without due cause. The crux of the passage is best described by: A. Potential is there to encroach human rights in virtual worlds like social media B. Corporate control of data can be overcome with help of State regulation C. Right against retaining data is a fundamental right D. Our footprints in digital space is not secure from State Correct Answer: A The passage talks not just about threat to data security from State alone it shows how it can be retained where ever we leave foot print, so D is wrong and that makes A the best choice. Incorrect Answer: A The passage talks not just about threat to data security from State alone it shows how it can be retained where ever we leave foot print, so D is wrong and that makes A the best choice.

#### 26. Question

Speech is God’s gift to mankind. Through speech a human being conveys his thoughts, sentiments and feeling to others. The concept of the freedom of speech and expression is very essential to the protection of the privacy, integrity and the basic needs of the people. Freedom of expression, the free flow of information, and freedom and pluralism of the media have internationally been acknowledged as human rights in the post-Second World War intergovernmental instruments. In this context, we see rising cases of data retention. Data retention refers to compulsory retention by communication service providers of the communication records of all their clients – beyond the normal (billing) period for keeping data – “just in case” the data might be useful in some future police or secret service enquiry. This ought to be viewed as mass surveillance of citizens without due cause.

The crux of the passage is best described by:

• A. Potential is there to encroach human rights in virtual worlds like social media

• B. Corporate control of data can be overcome with help of State regulation

• C. Right against retaining data is a fundamental right

• D. Our footprints in digital space is not secure from State

The passage talks not just about threat to data security from State alone it shows how it can be retained where ever we leave foot print, so D is wrong and that makes A the best choice.

The passage talks not just about threat to data security from State alone it shows how it can be retained where ever we leave foot print, so D is wrong and that makes A the best choice.

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points Speech is God’s gift to mankind. Through speech a human being conveys his thoughts, sentiments and feeling to others. The concept of the freedom of speech and expression is very essential to the protection of the privacy, integrity and the basic needs of the people. Freedom of expression, the free flow of information, and freedom and pluralism of the media have internationally been acknowledged as human rights in the post-Second World War intergovernmental instruments. In this context, we see rising cases of data retention. Data retention refers to compulsory retention by communication service providers of the communication records of all their clients – beyond the normal (billing) period for keeping data – “just in case” the data might be useful in some future police or secret service enquiry. This ought to be viewed as mass surveillance of citizens without due cause. On the basis of above passage following assumptions have been made: Speech is a natural right Data retention does not violate freedom of speech Which of above assumptions is/are valid? A) 1 only B) 2 only C) Both 1 & 2 D) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: A Speech is god’s gift so for author it is a natural right. 2 is absurd, speech freedom needed for privacy but lack of privacy will affect free speech or not is not detailed discussed and there can be no such clear conclusion, so 2 is wrong. Incorrect Answer: A Speech is god’s gift so for author it is a natural right. 2 is absurd, speech freedom needed for privacy but lack of privacy will affect free speech or not is not detailed discussed and there can be no such clear conclusion, so 2 is wrong.

#### 27. Question

Speech is God’s gift to mankind. Through speech a human being conveys his thoughts, sentiments and feeling to others. The concept of the freedom of speech and expression is very essential to the protection of the privacy, integrity and the basic needs of the people. Freedom of expression, the free flow of information, and freedom and pluralism of the media have internationally been acknowledged as human rights in the post-Second World War intergovernmental instruments. In this context, we see rising cases of data retention. Data retention refers to compulsory retention by communication service providers of the communication records of all their clients – beyond the normal (billing) period for keeping data – “just in case” the data might be useful in some future police or secret service enquiry. This ought to be viewed as mass surveillance of citizens without due cause.

On the basis of above passage following assumptions have been made:

• Speech is a natural right

• Data retention does not violate freedom of speech

Which of above assumptions is/are valid?

• C) Both 1 & 2

• D) Neither 1 nor 2

Speech is god’s gift so for author it is a natural right. 2 is absurd, speech freedom needed for privacy but lack of privacy will affect free speech or not is not detailed discussed and there can be no such clear conclusion, so 2 is wrong.

Speech is god’s gift so for author it is a natural right. 2 is absurd, speech freedom needed for privacy but lack of privacy will affect free speech or not is not detailed discussed and there can be no such clear conclusion, so 2 is wrong.

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points Which of the following is/are the logical corollary/corollaries that can be made from the above passage? Data retention is against rule of law E-commerce sector is most prone for data retention Which of the above assumptions is/are correct? A) 1 only B) 2 only C) Both 1 & 2 D) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: A We are not said which one is big threat regard to data retention, so 2 is wrong. Also, since due process is not followed as per ending line, rule of law is violated and 1 is correct. Thus A is answer. Incorrect Answer: A We are not said which one is big threat regard to data retention, so 2 is wrong. Also, since due process is not followed as per ending line, rule of law is violated and 1 is correct. Thus A is answer.

#### 28. Question

Which of the following is/are the logical corollary/corollaries that can be made from the above passage?

• Data retention is against rule of law E-commerce sector is most prone for data retention

• Data retention is against rule of law

• E-commerce sector is most prone for data retention

Which of the above assumptions is/are correct?

• C) Both 1 & 2

• D) Neither 1 nor 2

We are not said which one is big threat regard to data retention, so 2 is wrong. Also, since due process is not followed as per ending line, rule of law is violated and 1 is correct. Thus A is answer.

We are not said which one is big threat regard to data retention, so 2 is wrong. Also, since due process is not followed as per ending line, rule of law is violated and 1 is correct. Thus A is answer.

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points Find the number of ways in which 18 different beads can be arranged to form a necklace? a) 17!/2 b) 17!/4 c) 19!/2 d) 19!/4 Correct Answer a) 17!/2 Solution 18 different beads can be arranged among themselves in a circular order in (18-1)!= 17! Ways Now in the case of necklace, there is no distinction between clockwise and anticlockwise arrangements. So the required number of arrangements = ½ (17!) = 17!/2 Incorrect Answer a) 17!/2 Solution 18 different beads can be arranged among themselves in a circular order in (18-1)!= 17! Ways Now in the case of necklace, there is no distinction between clockwise and anticlockwise arrangements. So the required number of arrangements = ½ (17!) = 17!/2

#### 29. Question

Find the number of ways in which 18 different beads can be arranged to form a necklace?

Answer a) 17!/2

18 different beads can be arranged among themselves in a circular order in

(18-1)!= 17! Ways

Now in the case of necklace, there is no distinction between clockwise and anticlockwise arrangements.

So the required number of arrangements = ½ (17!) = 17!/2

Answer a) 17!/2

18 different beads can be arranged among themselves in a circular order in

(18-1)!= 17! Ways

Now in the case of necklace, there is no distinction between clockwise and anticlockwise arrangements.

So the required number of arrangements = ½ (17!) = 17!/2

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points Probability of grasshopper eating grass = 1/5 Probability of frog eating grasshopper = 1/6 Probability of snake eating frog = 1/7 Probability of hawk eating snake = 1/8 Probability of man eating hawk = 1/9 What is the probability of a man eating a hawk who has eaten a snake which had consumed a frog who ate a grasshopper which didn’t eat grass? A. 1/ 756 B. 1/3780 C. 1/ 4096 D. 1/2048 Correct Answer B) 1/3780 Probability of grasshopper not eating grass = 1 – 1/5 = 4/5 Reqd. probability = 1/9 1/8 1/7 1/6 4/5 =1/3780 Hence, option B is correct. Incorrect Answer B) 1/3780 Probability of grasshopper not eating grass = 1 – 1/5 = 4/5 Reqd. probability = 1/9 1/8 1/7 1/6 4/5 =1/3780 Hence, option B is correct.

#### 30. Question

Probability of grasshopper eating grass = 1/5

Probability of frog eating grasshopper = 1/6

Probability of snake eating frog = 1/7

Probability of hawk eating snake = 1/8

Probability of man eating hawk = 1/9

What is the probability of a man eating a hawk who has eaten a snake which had consumed a frog who ate a grasshopper which didn’t eat grass?

• C. 1/ 4096

Answer B) 1/3780

Probability of grasshopper not eating grass

= 1 – 1/5 = 4/5

Reqd. probability = 1/9 1/8 1/7 1/6 4/5 =1/3780

Hence, option B is correct.

Answer B) 1/3780

Probability of grasshopper not eating grass

= 1 – 1/5 = 4/5

Reqd. probability = 1/9 1/8 1/7 1/6 4/5 =1/3780

Hence, option B is correct.

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