DAY – 33 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – ANCIENT & MEDIEVAL INDIA, Subject-wise Test 1,18 , Textbook-based Test – 30 and February 2024 CA

INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Consider the following foreign travelers: Nicolo Conti Abdur Razzaq Al Samudi Marco Polo Duarte Barbosa How many of the above given travelers visited the Vijayanagara Empire? a) Only two b) Only three c) Only four d) All five Correct Answer: b Explanation: Vijayanagara Empire was established in 1336 AD. Al Samudi visited India in AD 957 and Marco Polo in 1292-94. Notable foreign travelers who visited the Vijayanagara Kingdom: Ibn Battuta (Morroco): He left an account ofHarihara I’s reign in his book Rehla He noted the opulence and grandeur of Vijayanagara’s court and highlighted the religious tolerance and diverse cultural practices within the empire. Niccolò de’ Conti (Italy): He visited the Vijaynagar Kingdom during the time of Dev Raya I and left an account in the Travels of Nicolo Conti. He observed the significant role of Vijayanagara in regional trade and commerce. Abdur Razzaq (Persia): He visited the Vijaynagar Kingdom at the time of Dev Raya IIas an ambassador of Shah Rukh, the Timurid dynasty ruler of Persia He praised the efficient administration and organization of the Vijayanagara Empire. Domingo Paes (Portuguese Traveller): He gave the most detailed accounts of all historic descriptions of the ancient city Hampi which was governed by the Vijaynagar Empire under Krishna Deva Raya. He highlighted that Krishnadeva was a great builder. Fernao Nuniz (Portuguese Writer): He observed that the kings of Quilon, Sri Lanka, Pulicat, Pegu, and Tenasserism paid tribute to Deva Raya II. He observed the prosperity of the empire. Duarte Barbosa (Portuguese Writer): He had given a vivid account of Vijaynagara governance under Krishna Deva Raya in his book, “An Account of Countries Bordering the Indian Ocean and their Inhabitants”. He provided insights into the local customs, including marriage ceremonies and social gatherings. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Vijayanagara Empire was established in 1336 AD. Al Samudi visited India in AD 957 and Marco Polo in 1292-94. Notable foreign travelers who visited the Vijayanagara Kingdom: Ibn Battuta (Morroco): He left an account ofHarihara I’s reign in his book Rehla He noted the opulence and grandeur of Vijayanagara’s court and highlighted the religious tolerance and diverse cultural practices within the empire. Niccolò de’ Conti (Italy): He visited the Vijaynagar Kingdom during the time of Dev Raya I and left an account in the Travels of Nicolo Conti. He observed the significant role of Vijayanagara in regional trade and commerce. Abdur Razzaq (Persia): He visited the Vijaynagar Kingdom at the time of Dev Raya IIas an ambassador of Shah Rukh, the Timurid dynasty ruler of Persia He praised the efficient administration and organization of the Vijayanagara Empire. Domingo Paes (Portuguese Traveller): He gave the most detailed accounts of all historic descriptions of the ancient city Hampi which was governed by the Vijaynagar Empire under Krishna Deva Raya. He highlighted that Krishnadeva was a great builder. Fernao Nuniz (Portuguese Writer): He observed that the kings of Quilon, Sri Lanka, Pulicat, Pegu, and Tenasserism paid tribute to Deva Raya II. He observed the prosperity of the empire. Duarte Barbosa (Portuguese Writer): He had given a vivid account of Vijaynagara governance under Krishna Deva Raya in his book, “An Account of Countries Bordering the Indian Ocean and their Inhabitants”. He provided insights into the local customs, including marriage ceremonies and social gatherings. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following foreign travelers:

• Nicolo Conti

• Abdur Razzaq

• Marco Polo

• Duarte Barbosa

How many of the above given travelers visited the Vijayanagara Empire?

• a) Only two

• b) Only three

• c) Only four

• d) All five

Explanation:

Vijayanagara Empire was established in 1336 AD. Al Samudi visited India in AD 957 and Marco Polo in 1292-94.

Notable foreign travelers who visited the Vijayanagara Kingdom:

Ibn Battuta (Morroco):

• He left an account ofHarihara I’s reign in his book Rehla

• He noted the opulence and grandeur of Vijayanagara’s court and highlighted the religious tolerance and diverse cultural practices within the empire.

Niccolò de’ Conti (Italy):

• He visited the Vijaynagar Kingdom during the time of Dev Raya I and left an account in the Travels of Nicolo Conti.

• He observed the significant role of Vijayanagara in regional trade and commerce.

Abdur Razzaq (Persia):

• He visited the Vijaynagar Kingdom at the time of Dev Raya IIas an ambassador of Shah Rukh, the Timurid dynasty ruler of Persia

• He praised the efficient administration and organization of the Vijayanagara Empire.

Domingo Paes (Portuguese Traveller):

• He gave the most detailed accounts of all historic descriptions of the ancient city Hampi which was governed by the Vijaynagar Empire under Krishna Deva Raya.

• He highlighted that Krishnadeva was a great builder.

Fernao Nuniz (Portuguese Writer):

• He observed that the kings of Quilon, Sri Lanka, Pulicat, Pegu, and Tenasserism paid tribute to Deva Raya II.

• He observed the prosperity of the empire.

Duarte Barbosa (Portuguese Writer):

• He had given a vivid account of Vijaynagara governance under Krishna Deva Raya in his book, “An Account of Countries Bordering the Indian Ocean and their Inhabitants”.

• He provided insights into the local customs, including marriage ceremonies and social gatherings.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

Vijayanagara Empire was established in 1336 AD. Al Samudi visited India in AD 957 and Marco Polo in 1292-94.

Notable foreign travelers who visited the Vijayanagara Kingdom:

Ibn Battuta (Morroco):

• He left an account ofHarihara I’s reign in his book Rehla

• He noted the opulence and grandeur of Vijayanagara’s court and highlighted the religious tolerance and diverse cultural practices within the empire.

Niccolò de’ Conti (Italy):

• He visited the Vijaynagar Kingdom during the time of Dev Raya I and left an account in the Travels of Nicolo Conti.

• He observed the significant role of Vijayanagara in regional trade and commerce.

Abdur Razzaq (Persia):

• He visited the Vijaynagar Kingdom at the time of Dev Raya IIas an ambassador of Shah Rukh, the Timurid dynasty ruler of Persia

• He praised the efficient administration and organization of the Vijayanagara Empire.

Domingo Paes (Portuguese Traveller):

• He gave the most detailed accounts of all historic descriptions of the ancient city Hampi which was governed by the Vijaynagar Empire under Krishna Deva Raya.

• He highlighted that Krishnadeva was a great builder.

Fernao Nuniz (Portuguese Writer):

• He observed that the kings of Quilon, Sri Lanka, Pulicat, Pegu, and Tenasserism paid tribute to Deva Raya II.

• He observed the prosperity of the empire.

Duarte Barbosa (Portuguese Writer):

• He had given a vivid account of Vijaynagara governance under Krishna Deva Raya in his book, “An Account of Countries Bordering the Indian Ocean and their Inhabitants”.

• He provided insights into the local customs, including marriage ceremonies and social gatherings.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Arrange the following dynasties of Vijayanagara Empire in the correct chronological order: Saluva Dynasty Sangama Dynasty Tuluva Dynasty Aravidu Dynasty Select the correct answer from the code given below: a) 2-3-1-4 b) 2-1-3-4 c) 4-2-1-3 d) 2-3-4-1 Correct Answer: b Explanation: When the armies of the Delhi Sultanat destroyed the four great Kingdoms of the South viz., the Sevunas of Devagiri, Kakatiyas of Warangal, Hoysalas of Dwarasamudra and the Pandyas of Madhurai, it looked as if the political landscape of the South was going to be dominated by the Delhi Sultanat. However, this led to the rise of one of the greatest empires of India viz, Vijayanagara Empire. In 1336 A.D, brothers Harihara (Hakka) and Bukka of Sangama dynasty with the help of their guru sage Vidyaranya established Viajaynagar Empire. Vijayanagara Empire saw the rule of four dynasties: Sangama dynasty (1336-1485) Saluva dynasty (1485-1505) Tuluva dynasty (1491-1570) – Krishnadevaraya belonged to Tuluva dynasty. Aravidu dynasty (1542-1646): Last dynasty of Vijayanagara. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: When the armies of the Delhi Sultanat destroyed the four great Kingdoms of the South viz., the Sevunas of Devagiri, Kakatiyas of Warangal, Hoysalas of Dwarasamudra and the Pandyas of Madhurai, it looked as if the political landscape of the South was going to be dominated by the Delhi Sultanat. However, this led to the rise of one of the greatest empires of India viz, Vijayanagara Empire. In 1336 A.D, brothers Harihara (Hakka) and Bukka of Sangama dynasty with the help of their guru sage Vidyaranya established Viajaynagar Empire. Vijayanagara Empire saw the rule of four dynasties: Sangama dynasty (1336-1485) Saluva dynasty (1485-1505) Tuluva dynasty (1491-1570) – Krishnadevaraya belonged to Tuluva dynasty. Aravidu dynasty (1542-1646): Last dynasty of Vijayanagara. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 2. Question

Arrange the following dynasties of Vijayanagara Empire in the correct chronological order:

• Saluva Dynasty

• Sangama Dynasty

• Tuluva Dynasty

• Aravidu Dynasty

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

• a) 2-3-1-4

• b) 2-1-3-4

• c) 4-2-1-3

• d) 2-3-4-1

Explanation:

• When the armies of the Delhi Sultanat destroyed the four great Kingdoms of the South viz., the Sevunas of Devagiri, Kakatiyas of Warangal, Hoysalas of Dwarasamudra and the Pandyas of Madhurai, it looked as if the political landscape of the South was going to be dominated by the Delhi Sultanat.

• However, this led to the rise of one of the greatest empires of India viz, Vijayanagara Empire.

• In 1336 A.D, brothers Harihara (Hakka) and Bukka of Sangama dynasty with the help of their guru sage Vidyaranya established Viajaynagar Empire.

• Vijayanagara Empire saw the rule of four dynasties:

• Sangama dynasty (1336-1485)

• Saluva dynasty (1485-1505)

• Tuluva dynasty (1491-1570) – Krishnadevaraya belonged to Tuluva dynasty.

• Aravidu dynasty (1542-1646): Last dynasty of Vijayanagara.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• However, this led to the rise of one of the greatest empires of India viz, Vijayanagara Empire.

• In 1336 A.D, brothers Harihara (Hakka) and Bukka of Sangama dynasty with the help of their guru sage Vidyaranya established Viajaynagar Empire.

• Vijayanagara Empire saw the rule of four dynasties:

• Sangama dynasty (1336-1485)

• Saluva dynasty (1485-1505)

• Tuluva dynasty (1491-1570) – Krishnadevaraya belonged to Tuluva dynasty.

• Aravidu dynasty (1542-1646): Last dynasty of Vijayanagara.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Who built the famous Hoysaleshwara temple at Halebidu? a) Nripa Kama II b) Narasimha II c) Vishnuvardhana d) Ketamalla Correct Answer: d Explanation: Three Hoysala-era temples in Karnataka [Chennakeshava (Belur), Hoysaleswara (Halebidu) and Keshava Temple (Somanathapura, Mysuru) recently made it to UNESCO’s World Heritage List, under the collective entry of ‘Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas’. King Vishnuwardana also known as Bittiga (1108 A.D- 1152 A.D) was the first great ruler of Hoysala dynasty. Vishnuvardhana freed Gangavadi from the Cholas and in celebration of his victory, he built the Keertinarayana temple at Talakad, and the Chennakeshava Temple at Belur. His commander Ketamalla built the famous Hoysaleshwara temple at Halebidu. The Keshava Temple at Somanathapura was built in 1268 CE by Somanatha, who was a dandanayaka under the Hoysala King Narasimha III. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: Three Hoysala-era temples in Karnataka [Chennakeshava (Belur), Hoysaleswara (Halebidu) and Keshava Temple (Somanathapura, Mysuru) recently made it to UNESCO’s World Heritage List, under the collective entry of ‘Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas’. King Vishnuwardana also known as Bittiga (1108 A.D- 1152 A.D) was the first great ruler of Hoysala dynasty. Vishnuvardhana freed Gangavadi from the Cholas and in celebration of his victory, he built the Keertinarayana temple at Talakad, and the Chennakeshava Temple at Belur. His commander Ketamalla built the famous Hoysaleshwara temple at Halebidu. The Keshava Temple at Somanathapura was built in 1268 CE by Somanatha, who was a dandanayaka under the Hoysala King Narasimha III. Hence, option (d) is correct.

#### 3. Question

Who built the famous Hoysaleshwara temple at Halebidu?

• a) Nripa Kama II

• b) Narasimha II

• c) Vishnuvardhana

• d) Ketamalla

Explanation:

• Three Hoysala-era temples in Karnataka [Chennakeshava (Belur), Hoysaleswara (Halebidu) and Keshava Temple (Somanathapura, Mysuru) recently made it to UNESCO’s World Heritage List, under the collective entry of ‘Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas’.

• King Vishnuwardana also known as Bittiga (1108 A.D- 1152 A.D) was the first great ruler of Hoysala dynasty.

• Vishnuvardhana freed Gangavadi from the Cholas and in celebration of his victory, he built the Keertinarayana temple at Talakad, and the Chennakeshava Temple at Belur.

• His commander Ketamalla built the famous Hoysaleshwara temple at Halebidu.

• The Keshava Temple at Somanathapura was built in 1268 CE by Somanatha, who was a dandanayaka under the Hoysala King Narasimha III.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

• King Vishnuwardana also known as Bittiga (1108 A.D- 1152 A.D) was the first great ruler of Hoysala dynasty.

• Vishnuvardhana freed Gangavadi from the Cholas and in celebration of his victory, he built the Keertinarayana temple at Talakad, and the Chennakeshava Temple at Belur.

• His commander Ketamalla built the famous Hoysaleshwara temple at Halebidu.

• The Keshava Temple at Somanathapura was built in 1268 CE by Somanatha, who was a dandanayaka under the Hoysala King Narasimha III.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Bhakti Movement: Bhakti Movement resulted in a surge of Hindu literature in regional languages. It led to development of different philosophies within the Vedanta school. It led to emergence of new forms of spiritual leadership. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: c Explanation: Bhakti movement disregarded the austerities preached by the Jains and the Buddhists along with rejecting their fatalistic and atheistic traditions and preached personal devotion to God as a means of Salvation. The Bhakti saints usually emerged from lower castes, preached a religion which was non-ritualistic and open to all without any distinction of caste or creed, taught in the local vernacular language. The Bhakti Movement was a significant factor in the development of regional literature in languages such as Hindi, Bengali, Marathi, and Tamil. Many of the great works of Indian literature were also translated into regional languages during this time. Hence statement 1 is correct. The Bhakti Movement led to the development of different philosophies within the Vedanta school. The Bhakti Movement played an important role in the development of different philosophical schools of thought within the Vedanta tradition. These included the Advaita Vedanta of Shankaracharya and the Vishishtadvaita Vedanta of Ramanujacharya. Hence statement 2 is correct. The Bhakti Movement led to the emergence of a new class of spiritual leaders, known as bhaktas or saints, who were not bound by caste or social status. These saints, such as Kabir, Guru Nanak, and Chaitanya Mahaprabhu, were seen as intermediaries between the individual and the divine and played an important role in spreading the message of the Bhakti Movement. Hence statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Bhakti movement disregarded the austerities preached by the Jains and the Buddhists along with rejecting their fatalistic and atheistic traditions and preached personal devotion to God as a means of Salvation. The Bhakti saints usually emerged from lower castes, preached a religion which was non-ritualistic and open to all without any distinction of caste or creed, taught in the local vernacular language. The Bhakti Movement was a significant factor in the development of regional literature in languages such as Hindi, Bengali, Marathi, and Tamil. Many of the great works of Indian literature were also translated into regional languages during this time. Hence statement 1 is correct. The Bhakti Movement led to the development of different philosophies within the Vedanta school. The Bhakti Movement played an important role in the development of different philosophical schools of thought within the Vedanta tradition. These included the Advaita Vedanta of Shankaracharya and the Vishishtadvaita Vedanta of Ramanujacharya. Hence statement 2 is correct. The Bhakti Movement led to the emergence of a new class of spiritual leaders, known as bhaktas or saints, who were not bound by caste or social status. These saints, such as Kabir, Guru Nanak, and Chaitanya Mahaprabhu, were seen as intermediaries between the individual and the divine and played an important role in spreading the message of the Bhakti Movement. Hence statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Bhakti Movement:

• Bhakti Movement resulted in a surge of Hindu literature in regional languages.

• It led to development of different philosophies within the Vedanta school.

• It led to emergence of new forms of spiritual leadership.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Explanation:

• Bhakti movement disregarded the austerities preached by the Jains and the Buddhists along with rejecting their fatalistic and atheistic traditions and preached personal devotion to God as a means of Salvation.

• The Bhakti saints usually emerged from lower castes, preached a religion which was non-ritualistic and open to all without any distinction of caste or creed, taught in the local vernacular language. The Bhakti Movement was a significant factor in the development of regional literature in languages such as Hindi, Bengali, Marathi, and Tamil. Many of the great works of Indian literature were also translated into regional languages during this time. Hence statement 1 is correct.

• The Bhakti Movement led to the development of different philosophies within the Vedanta school. The Bhakti Movement played an important role in the development of different philosophical schools of thought within the Vedanta tradition. These included the Advaita Vedanta of Shankaracharya and the Vishishtadvaita Vedanta of Ramanujacharya. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• The Bhakti Movement led to the emergence of a new class of spiritual leaders, known as bhaktas or saints, who were not bound by caste or social status. These saints, such as Kabir, Guru Nanak, and Chaitanya Mahaprabhu, were seen as intermediaries between the individual and the divine and played an important role in spreading the message of the Bhakti Movement. Hence statement 3 is correct.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Which innovative weapon did the Marathas use in warfare? a) Longbows b) Crossbows c) Longer but lighter Spears d) Sharp metal claws Correct Answer: d Explanation: The innovative weapon used by the Marathas in warfare was the Bagh naka, also known as the tiger claw. This weapon was designed to be worn over the hand and concealed under the fingers. It consisted of sharp metal claws that could be extended to inflict slashing and tearing wounds on opponents in close combat. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: The innovative weapon used by the Marathas in warfare was the Bagh naka, also known as the tiger claw. This weapon was designed to be worn over the hand and concealed under the fingers. It consisted of sharp metal claws that could be extended to inflict slashing and tearing wounds on opponents in close combat. Hence, option (d) is correct.

#### 5. Question

Which innovative weapon did the Marathas use in warfare?

• a) Longbows

• b) Crossbows

• c) Longer but lighter Spears

• d) Sharp metal claws

Explanation:

• The innovative weapon used by the Marathas in warfare was the Bagh naka, also known as the tiger claw. This weapon was designed to be worn over the hand and concealed under the fingers. It consisted of sharp metal claws that could be extended to inflict slashing and tearing wounds on opponents in close combat.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points The word used for Sufism in Islamic texts is: a) Khanqah b) Tasawwuf c) Qalandar d) Silsila Correct Answer: b Explanation: Sufism is an English word coined in the nineteenth century. The word used for Sufism in Islamic texts is tasawwuf. Historians have understood this term in several ways. According to some scholars, it is derived from suf, meaning wool, referring to the coarse woollen clothes worn by sufis. Others derive it from safa, meaning purity. It may also have been derived from suffa, the platform outside the Prophet’s mosque, where a group of close followers assembled to learn about the faith. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Sufism is an English word coined in the nineteenth century. The word used for Sufism in Islamic texts is tasawwuf. Historians have understood this term in several ways. According to some scholars, it is derived from suf, meaning wool, referring to the coarse woollen clothes worn by sufis. Others derive it from safa, meaning purity. It may also have been derived from suffa, the platform outside the Prophet’s mosque, where a group of close followers assembled to learn about the faith. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 6. Question

The word used for Sufism in Islamic texts is:

• a) Khanqah

• b) Tasawwuf

• c) Qalandar

• d) Silsila

Explanation:

• Sufism is an English word coined in the nineteenth century. The word used for Sufism in Islamic texts is tasawwuf.

• Historians have understood this term in several ways. According to some scholars, it is derived from suf, meaning wool, referring to the coarse woollen clothes worn by sufis. Others derive it from safa, meaning purity. It may also have been derived from suffa, the platform outside the Prophet’s mosque, where a group of close followers assembled to learn about the faith.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• Sufism is an English word coined in the nineteenth century. The word used for Sufism in Islamic texts is tasawwuf.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Which of the following statements accurately describe the sufis’ approach towards religion? They sought an interpretation of Qur’an based on personal experience. They adhered strictly to dogmatic definitions of Islam. They criticized scholastic methods of interpretation of Islam. They viewed Prophet Muhammad as a perfect human being. Which of the above given statements is/are correct? a) 1 and 3 only b) 2 and 4 only c) 1,3 and 4 only d) 1,2,3 and 4 Correct Answer: c Explanation: In the early centuries of Islam a group of religiousminded people called sufis turned to asceticism and mysticism in protest against the growing materialism of the Caliphate as a religious and political institution. They were critical of the dogmatic definitions and scholastic methods of interpreting the Qur’an and sunna (traditions of the Prophet) adopted by theologians. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect but statement 3 is correct. Instead, they laid emphasis on seeking salvation through intense devotion and love for God by following His commands, and by following the example of the Prophet Muhammad whom they regarded as a perfect human being. The sufis thus sought an interpretation of the Qur’an on the basis of their personal experience. Hence, statement 1 and statement 4 are correct. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: In the early centuries of Islam a group of religiousminded people called sufis turned to asceticism and mysticism in protest against the growing materialism of the Caliphate as a religious and political institution. They were critical of the dogmatic definitions and scholastic methods of interpreting the Qur’an and sunna (traditions of the Prophet) adopted by theologians. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect but statement 3 is correct. Instead, they laid emphasis on seeking salvation through intense devotion and love for God by following His commands, and by following the example of the Prophet Muhammad whom they regarded as a perfect human being. The sufis thus sought an interpretation of the Qur’an on the basis of their personal experience. Hence, statement 1 and statement 4 are correct. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 7. Question

Which of the following statements accurately describe the sufis’ approach towards religion?

• They sought an interpretation of Qur’an based on personal experience.

• They adhered strictly to dogmatic definitions of Islam.

• They criticized scholastic methods of interpretation of Islam.

• They viewed Prophet Muhammad as a perfect human being.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

• a) 1 and 3 only

• b) 2 and 4 only

• c) 1,3 and 4 only

• d) 1,2,3 and 4

Explanation:

• In the early centuries of Islam a group of religiousminded people called sufis turned to asceticism and mysticism in protest against the growing materialism of the Caliphate as a religious and political institution.

• They were critical of the dogmatic definitions and scholastic methods of interpreting the Qur’an and sunna (traditions of the Prophet) adopted by theologians. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect but statement 3 is correct.

• Instead, they laid emphasis on seeking salvation through intense devotion and love for God by following His commands, and by following the example of the Prophet Muhammad whom they regarded as a perfect human being. The sufis thus sought an interpretation of the Qur’an on the basis of their personal experience. Hence, statement 1 and statement 4 are correct.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Which of the following is NOT correct with regard to different traditions used by Kabir to describe the Ultimate Reality? a) He used terms from Islamic traditions such as Allah and Hazrat. b) He used terms from Vedantic traditions such as Brahman and Atman. c) He used terms from yogic traditions such as shabda and shunya. d) He used terms from Buddhist traditions such as nirvana and dharma. Correct Answer: d Explanation: One of the striking features of Kabir’s poetry is the range of traditions Kabir drew on to describe the Ultimate Reality. These include Islam: he described the Ultimate Reality as Allah, Khuda, Hazrat and Pir. Hence, statement 1 is correct. He also used terms drawn from Vedantic traditions, alakh (the unseen), nirakar (formless), Brahman, Atman, etc. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Other terms with mystical connotations such as shabda (sound) or shunya (emptiness) were drawn from yogic traditions. Hence, statement 3 is correct. While Kabir drew upon various traditions, there is no evidence to suggest that he used terms specifically from Buddhist traditions such as nirvana and dharma to describe the Ultimate Reality. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: One of the striking features of Kabir’s poetry is the range of traditions Kabir drew on to describe the Ultimate Reality. These include Islam: he described the Ultimate Reality as Allah, Khuda, Hazrat and Pir. Hence, statement 1 is correct. He also used terms drawn from Vedantic traditions, alakh (the unseen), nirakar (formless), Brahman, Atman, etc. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Other terms with mystical connotations such as shabda (sound) or shunya (emptiness) were drawn from yogic traditions. Hence, statement 3 is correct. While Kabir drew upon various traditions, there is no evidence to suggest that he used terms specifically from Buddhist traditions such as nirvana and dharma to describe the Ultimate Reality. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. Hence, option (d) is correct.

#### 8. Question

Which of the following is NOT correct with regard to different traditions used by Kabir to describe the Ultimate Reality?

• a) He used terms from Islamic traditions such as Allah and Hazrat.

• b) He used terms from Vedantic traditions such as Brahman and Atman.

• c) He used terms from yogic traditions such as shabda and shunya.

• d) He used terms from Buddhist traditions such as nirvana and dharma.

Explanation:

• One of the striking features of Kabir’s poetry is the range of traditions Kabir drew on to describe the Ultimate Reality.

• These include Islam: he described the Ultimate Reality as Allah, Khuda, Hazrat and Pir. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• He also used terms drawn from Vedantic traditions, alakh (the unseen), nirakar (formless), Brahman, Atman, etc. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Other terms with mystical connotations such as shabda (sound) or shunya (emptiness) were drawn from yogic traditions. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• While Kabir drew upon various traditions, there is no evidence to suggest that he used terms specifically from Buddhist traditions such as nirvana and dharma to describe the Ultimate Reality. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

• One of the striking features of Kabir’s poetry is the range of traditions Kabir drew on to describe the Ultimate Reality.

• These include Islam: he described the Ultimate Reality as Allah, Khuda, Hazrat and Pir. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• He also used terms drawn from Vedantic traditions, alakh (the unseen), nirakar (formless), Brahman, Atman, etc. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Other terms with mystical connotations such as shabda (sound) or shunya (emptiness) were drawn from yogic traditions. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Why was Panipat a preferred battle field during medieval period? The longer period of monsoon rainfall in the region made it easier for the movement of naval forces to Panipat. Panipat’s surrounding region has a flat ground which was suitable for cavalry movement. It was connected by Grand Trunk Road which became an easier route for the conquerors. Select the correct answer from the code given below: a) 1 only b) 3 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1,2 and 3 Correct Answer: c Explanation: Why was Panipat a favourite battle field? The duration of monsoon rainfall in the region is short in comparison to other areas making it easier to fight. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Panipat had a strategic location. One of the parties of the war generally came from the north/northwest through the Khyber Pass to get hold over Delhi, the political capital of northern India. Its proximity to Delhi made it easier for the Indian rulers to transport weapons, military and food supplies etc. Panipat’s surrounding region has a flat ground which was suitable for cavalry movement—the main mode of warfare at the time. Hence statement 2 is correct. After the construction of the Grand Trunk Road by Sher Shah Suri, Panipat was on this route. It became easier for conquerors to find their way there. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Why was Panipat a favourite battle field? The duration of monsoon rainfall in the region is short in comparison to other areas making it easier to fight. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Panipat had a strategic location. One of the parties of the war generally came from the north/northwest through the Khyber Pass to get hold over Delhi, the political capital of northern India. Its proximity to Delhi made it easier for the Indian rulers to transport weapons, military and food supplies etc. Panipat’s surrounding region has a flat ground which was suitable for cavalry movement—the main mode of warfare at the time. Hence statement 2 is correct. After the construction of the Grand Trunk Road by Sher Shah Suri, Panipat was on this route. It became easier for conquerors to find their way there. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 9. Question

Why was Panipat a preferred battle field during medieval period?

• The longer period of monsoon rainfall in the region made it easier for the movement of naval forces to Panipat.

• Panipat’s surrounding region has a flat ground which was suitable for cavalry movement.

• It was connected by Grand Trunk Road which became an easier route for the conquerors.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

• c) 2 and 3 only

• d) 1,2 and 3

Explanation:

Why was Panipat a favourite battle field?

• The duration of monsoon rainfall in the region is short in comparison to other areas making it easier to fight. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• Panipat had a strategic location. One of the parties of the war generally came from the north/northwest through the Khyber Pass to get hold over Delhi, the political capital of northern India. Its proximity to Delhi made it easier for the Indian rulers to transport weapons, military and food supplies etc.

• Panipat’s surrounding region has a flat ground which was suitable for cavalry movement—the main mode of warfare at the time. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• After the construction of the Grand Trunk Road by Sher Shah Suri, Panipat was on this route. It became easier for conquerors to find their way there. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

Why was Panipat a favourite battle field?

• The duration of monsoon rainfall in the region is short in comparison to other areas making it easier to fight. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• Panipat’s surrounding region has a flat ground which was suitable for cavalry movement—the main mode of warfare at the time. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• After the construction of the Grand Trunk Road by Sher Shah Suri, Panipat was on this route. It became easier for conquerors to find their way there. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Who were involved in the war of succession that took place in 1657-58 A.D.? a) Kam Baksh, Murad, Dara Shikoh, and Aurangzeb b) Aurangzeb, Dara Shikoh, Shuja, and Kam Baksh c) Dara Shikoh, Aurangzeb, Murad, and Shuja d) Dara Shikoh, Kamran, Aurangzeb, and Murad Correct Answer: c Explanation: The war of succession that took place in 1657-58 A.D. among the sons of Shah Jahan was a major event in Mughal history. After Shahjahan fell ill and was unable to rule, his four sons, Dara Shikoh, Shuja, Aurangzeb, and Murad, all laid claim to the throne. This resulted in a bitter power struggle, which lasted for over a year and led to widespread conflict and bloodshed. Dara Shikoh was the eldest of the four brothers and was initially seen as the frontrunner in the race for the throne. He was a patron of the arts and was known for his liberal religious views. Shuja, the second-eldest, was the governor of Bengal and had a reputation for being a skilled military commander. Aurangzeb, the third son, was the governor of Deccan and was known for his strong religious convictions. Murad, the youngest, was the governor of Gujarat and was known for his love of luxury and extravagance. During the war of succession, each brother sought to gain the support of the Mughal nobility, military commanders, and other influential figures. Battles were fought across the Mughal Empire, and alliances shifted frequently as the brothers jostled for position. Ultimately, Aurangzeb emerged as the victor, and he ascended to the Mughal throne in 1658. He went on to become one of the most significant rulers in Indian history and expanded the Mughal Empire to its greatest extent Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: The war of succession that took place in 1657-58 A.D. among the sons of Shah Jahan was a major event in Mughal history. After Shahjahan fell ill and was unable to rule, his four sons, Dara Shikoh, Shuja, Aurangzeb, and Murad, all laid claim to the throne. This resulted in a bitter power struggle, which lasted for over a year and led to widespread conflict and bloodshed. Dara Shikoh was the eldest of the four brothers and was initially seen as the frontrunner in the race for the throne. He was a patron of the arts and was known for his liberal religious views. Shuja, the second-eldest, was the governor of Bengal and had a reputation for being a skilled military commander. Aurangzeb, the third son, was the governor of Deccan and was known for his strong religious convictions. Murad, the youngest, was the governor of Gujarat and was known for his love of luxury and extravagance. During the war of succession, each brother sought to gain the support of the Mughal nobility, military commanders, and other influential figures. Battles were fought across the Mughal Empire, and alliances shifted frequently as the brothers jostled for position. Ultimately, Aurangzeb emerged as the victor, and he ascended to the Mughal throne in 1658. He went on to become one of the most significant rulers in Indian history and expanded the Mughal Empire to its greatest extent Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 10. Question

Who were involved in the war of succession that took place in 1657-58 A.D.?

• a) Kam Baksh, Murad, Dara Shikoh, and Aurangzeb

• b) Aurangzeb, Dara Shikoh, Shuja, and Kam Baksh

• c) Dara Shikoh, Aurangzeb, Murad, and Shuja

• d) Dara Shikoh, Kamran, Aurangzeb, and Murad

Explanation:

• The war of succession that took place in 1657-58 A.D. among the sons of Shah Jahan was a major event in Mughal history. After Shahjahan fell ill and was unable to rule, his four sons, Dara Shikoh, Shuja, Aurangzeb, and Murad, all laid claim to the throne. This resulted in a bitter power struggle, which lasted for over a year and led to widespread conflict and bloodshed.

• Dara Shikoh was the eldest of the four brothers and was initially seen as the frontrunner in the race for the throne. He was a patron of the arts and was known for his liberal religious views. Shuja, the second-eldest, was the governor of Bengal and had a reputation for being a skilled military commander. Aurangzeb, the third son, was the governor of Deccan and was known for his strong religious convictions. Murad, the youngest, was the governor of Gujarat and was known for his love of luxury and extravagance.

• During the war of succession, each brother sought to gain the support of the Mughal nobility, military commanders, and other influential figures. Battles were fought across the Mughal Empire, and alliances shifted frequently as the brothers jostled for position.

• Ultimately, Aurangzeb emerged as the victor, and he ascended to the Mughal throne in 1658. He went on to become one of the most significant rulers in Indian history and expanded the Mughal Empire to its greatest extent

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The 2019 amendment to the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act allows for the designation of an individual as a terrorist. The designation of an individual as a terrorist under the UAPA requires a conviction in a court of law. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A The 2019 amendment to the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act indeed allows for the designation of an individual as a terrorist. This enables the Indian government to name individuals as terrorists and impose restrictions accordingly, even before a court conviction. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Under the UAPA, the designation does not require a conviction in a court of law. It can be based on sufficient credible information and evidence as determined by the government, and is thus subject to judicial review but not dependent on a criminal conviction. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution: A The 2019 amendment to the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act indeed allows for the designation of an individual as a terrorist. This enables the Indian government to name individuals as terrorists and impose restrictions accordingly, even before a court conviction. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Under the UAPA, the designation does not require a conviction in a court of law. It can be based on sufficient credible information and evidence as determined by the government, and is thus subject to judicial review but not dependent on a criminal conviction. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

#### 11. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The 2019 amendment to the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act allows for the designation of an individual as a terrorist.

• The designation of an individual as a terrorist under the UAPA requires a conviction in a court of law.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

The 2019 amendment to the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act indeed allows for the designation of an individual as a terrorist. This enables the Indian government to name individuals as terrorists and impose restrictions accordingly, even before a court conviction.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Under the UAPA, the designation does not require a conviction in a court of law. It can be based on sufficient credible information and evidence as determined by the government, and is thus subject to judicial review but not dependent on a criminal conviction.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Solution: A

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Which of the following statements correctly describes the purpose and functionality of VVPAT? (a) VVPAT is used to electronically transmit votes to the central counting centre and does not provide a physical record. (b) VVPAT is a system that generates a slip of paper with the symbol of the party for which a vote has been cast and allows the voter to verify this choice. (c) VVPAT replaces the Electronic Voting Machine (EVM) system entirely, requiring voters to cast their votes on paper. (d) VVPAT is utilized solely by the election officials for internal audit purposes and is not accessible for verification by the voters. Correct Solution: B The Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) system is used alongside Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) to provide a physical confirmation of the vote cast. When a voter presses the button on the EVM for their chosen candidate, the VVPAT prints a slip containing the candidate’s serial number, name, and symbol, which the voter can see for a brief period before it drops into a sealed box attached to the EVM. Incorrect Solution: B The Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) system is used alongside Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) to provide a physical confirmation of the vote cast. When a voter presses the button on the EVM for their chosen candidate, the VVPAT prints a slip containing the candidate’s serial number, name, and symbol, which the voter can see for a brief period before it drops into a sealed box attached to the EVM.

#### 12. Question

Which of the following statements correctly describes the purpose and functionality of VVPAT?

• (a) VVPAT is used to electronically transmit votes to the central counting centre and does not provide a physical record.

• (b) VVPAT is a system that generates a slip of paper with the symbol of the party for which a vote has been cast and allows the voter to verify this choice.

• (c) VVPAT replaces the Electronic Voting Machine (EVM) system entirely, requiring voters to cast their votes on paper.

• (d) VVPAT is utilized solely by the election officials for internal audit purposes and is not accessible for verification by the voters.

Solution: B

The Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) system is used alongside Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) to provide a physical confirmation of the vote cast. When a voter presses the button on the EVM for their chosen candidate, the VVPAT prints a slip containing the candidate’s serial number, name, and symbol, which the voter can see for a brief period before it drops into a sealed box attached to the EVM.

Solution: B

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points The Aditya-L1 mission’s placement at the L1 point allows it to continuously monitor the Sun because: (a) It is closer to the Sun than Earth, providing better visibility. (b) It is in a stable point between the Earth and the Sun, allowing constant observation. (c) It can harness solar energy more efficiently at this point. (d) It needs to avoid the Earth's shadow for solar observations. Correct Solution: B The L1 point is a stable gravitational point located between Earth and the Sun, where the Aditya-L1 spacecraft will be positioned. It is not closer to the Sun than Earth, nor is it selected for solar energy efficiency or to avoid Earth’s shadow. Its placement at the L1 point ensures that it can constantly monitor the Sun without the orbital dynamics of Earth affecting its view. Incorrect Solution: B The L1 point is a stable gravitational point located between Earth and the Sun, where the Aditya-L1 spacecraft will be positioned. It is not closer to the Sun than Earth, nor is it selected for solar energy efficiency or to avoid Earth’s shadow. Its placement at the L1 point ensures that it can constantly monitor the Sun without the orbital dynamics of Earth affecting its view.

#### 13. Question

The Aditya-L1 mission’s placement at the L1 point allows it to continuously monitor the Sun because:

• (a) It is closer to the Sun than Earth, providing better visibility.

• (b) It is in a stable point between the Earth and the Sun, allowing constant observation.

• (c) It can harness solar energy more efficiently at this point.

• (d) It needs to avoid the Earth's shadow for solar observations.

Solution: B

The L1 point is a stable gravitational point located between Earth and the Sun, where the Aditya-L1 spacecraft will be positioned. It is not closer to the Sun than Earth, nor is it selected for solar energy efficiency or to avoid Earth’s shadow. Its placement at the L1 point ensures that it can constantly monitor the Sun without the orbital dynamics of Earth affecting its view.

Solution: B

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Square Kilometer Array (SKA) project: India was a founding member of the Square Kilometer Array (SKA) project. The SKA project will be primarily focusing on the moon and planetary observations. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: D None of the statements are correct. India was not a founding member of the SKA project but decided to join it later as a full member. The SKA project’s focus is to create the world’s largest radio telescope to understand the universe, including phenomena such as the formation and evolution of stars and galaxies, testing theories of gravity, and searching for extraterrestrial life, not specifically the moon and planetary observations. Incorrect Solution: D None of the statements are correct. India was not a founding member of the SKA project but decided to join it later as a full member. The SKA project’s focus is to create the world’s largest radio telescope to understand the universe, including phenomena such as the formation and evolution of stars and galaxies, testing theories of gravity, and searching for extraterrestrial life, not specifically the moon and planetary observations.

#### 14. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Square Kilometer Array (SKA) project:

• India was a founding member of the Square Kilometer Array (SKA) project.

• The SKA project will be primarily focusing on the moon and planetary observations.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: D

None of the statements are correct.

India was not a founding member of the SKA project but decided to join it later as a full member.

The SKA project’s focus is to create the world’s largest radio telescope to understand the universe, including phenomena such as the formation and evolution of stars and galaxies, testing theories of gravity, and searching for extraterrestrial life, not specifically the moon and planetary observations.

Solution: D

None of the statements are correct.

India was not a founding member of the SKA project but decided to join it later as a full member.

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Taiwan’s political system can be described as: (a) A single-party state (b) A multi-party democracy (c) An absolute monarchy (d) A communist state Correct Solution: B Taiwan has a multi-party system with a democratic political structure. This system is characterized by the presence of multiple political parties that have the capacity to gain control of the government offices, separately or in coalition. The political landscape in Taiwan is vibrant and allows for competitive elections, unlike a single-party state, an absolute monarchy, or a communist state. Incorrect Solution: B Taiwan has a multi-party system with a democratic political structure. This system is characterized by the presence of multiple political parties that have the capacity to gain control of the government offices, separately or in coalition. The political landscape in Taiwan is vibrant and allows for competitive elections, unlike a single-party state, an absolute monarchy, or a communist state.

#### 15. Question

Taiwan’s political system can be described as:

• (a) A single-party state

• (b) A multi-party democracy

• (c) An absolute monarchy

• (d) A communist state

Solution: B

Taiwan has a multi-party system with a democratic political structure. This system is characterized by the presence of multiple political parties that have the capacity to gain control of the government offices, separately or in coalition. The political landscape in Taiwan is vibrant and allows for competitive elections, unlike a single-party state, an absolute monarchy, or a communist state.

Solution: B

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Peer to Peer (P2P) Lending: It allows individuals to borrow money without going to a bank. It is also referred to as “social lending” or “crowd lending.” It can improve financial inclusion in an economy. It provides low returns to the lenders due to its volatility. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Peer-to-peer (P2P) lending is a form of financial technology that allows people to lend or borrow money from one another without going through a bank. The peer-to-peer (P2P) lending market in India is a nascent one with a rather modest size of about ₹300 crore. Statement 2 is correct: P2P lending is also known as “social lending” or “crowd lending.” Statement 3 is correct: If run well, P2P platforms can improve financial inclusion in the country. Since the RBI’s October 2017 guidelines, P2P lending and borrowing have seen strong growth. Statement 4 is not correct: It has the potential to scale up manifold. P2P platforms facilitate funds for borrowers who might not have got them from traditional sources such as banks, and the possibility of high returns for lenders who take on the risk of funding such borrowers. The default rates for P2P loans are much higher than those in traditional finance. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Peer-to-peer (P2P) lending is a form of financial technology that allows people to lend or borrow money from one another without going through a bank. The peer-to-peer (P2P) lending market in India is a nascent one with a rather modest size of about ₹300 crore. Statement 2 is correct: P2P lending is also known as “social lending” or “crowd lending.” Statement 3 is correct: If run well, P2P platforms can improve financial inclusion in the country. Since the RBI’s October 2017 guidelines, P2P lending and borrowing have seen strong growth. Statement 4 is not correct: It has the potential to scale up manifold. P2P platforms facilitate funds for borrowers who might not have got them from traditional sources such as banks, and the possibility of high returns for lenders who take on the risk of funding such borrowers. The default rates for P2P loans are much higher than those in traditional finance.

#### 16. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Peer to Peer (P2P) Lending:

• It allows individuals to borrow money without going to a bank.

• It is also referred to as “social lending” or “crowd lending.”

• It can improve financial inclusion in an economy.

• It provides low returns to the lenders due to its volatility.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Peer-to-peer (P2P) lending is a form of financial technology that allows people to lend or borrow money from one another without going through a bank.

The peer-to-peer (P2P) lending market in India is a nascent one with a rather modest size of about ₹300 crore.

Statement 2 is correct: P2P lending is also known as “social lending” or “crowd lending.”

Statement 3 is correct: If run well, P2P platforms can improve financial inclusion in the country. Since the RBI’s October 2017 guidelines, P2P lending and borrowing have seen strong growth.

Statement 4 is not correct: It has the potential to scale up manifold. P2P platforms facilitate funds for borrowers who might not have got them from traditional sources such as banks, and the possibility of high returns for lenders who take on the risk of funding such borrowers.

The default rates for P2P loans are much higher than those in traditional finance.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Peer-to-peer (P2P) lending is a form of financial technology that allows people to lend or borrow money from one another without going through a bank.

The peer-to-peer (P2P) lending market in India is a nascent one with a rather modest size of about ₹300 crore.

Statement 2 is correct: P2P lending is also known as “social lending” or “crowd lending.”

Statement 3 is correct: If run well, P2P platforms can improve financial inclusion in the country. Since the RBI’s October 2017 guidelines, P2P lending and borrowing have seen strong growth.

The default rates for P2P loans are much higher than those in traditional finance.

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Meteors are pieces of solid objects in space descended onto a planet and are called as meteorites on reaching the surface. Aubrites are a type of meteorites that are coarse-grained igneous rocks formed in oxygen-rich conditions of terrestrial planets. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Meteors are pieces of some solid object in space that broke away, descended onto a planet or moon, and managed to reach the surface. Once on the surface, they are called meteorites. Aubrites are a type of meteorite; scientists are not yet sure of their origin, although some signs indicate that they could be from the asteroid 3103 Eger or from the planet Mercury. Statement 2 is not correct: Aubrites “are coarse-grained igneous rocks that formed” in oxygen-poor conditions, and thus “contain a variety of exotic minerals that are not found on Earth”. For example, the mineral heideite was first described in the Basti meteorite. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Meteors are pieces of some solid object in space that broke away, descended onto a planet or moon, and managed to reach the surface. Once on the surface, they are called meteorites. Aubrites are a type of meteorite; scientists are not yet sure of their origin, although some signs indicate that they could be from the asteroid 3103 Eger or from the planet Mercury. Statement 2 is not correct: Aubrites “are coarse-grained igneous rocks that formed” in oxygen-poor conditions, and thus “contain a variety of exotic minerals that are not found on Earth”. For example, the mineral heideite was first described in the Basti meteorite.

#### 17. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Meteors are pieces of solid objects in space descended onto a planet and are called as meteorites on reaching the surface.

• Aubrites are a type of meteorites that are coarse-grained igneous rocks formed in oxygen-rich conditions of terrestrial planets.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Meteors are pieces of some solid object in space that broke away, descended onto a planet or moon, and managed to reach the surface. Once on the surface, they are called meteorites.

Aubrites are a type of meteorite; scientists are not yet sure of their origin, although some signs indicate that they could be from the asteroid 3103 Eger or from the planet Mercury.

Statement 2 is not correct: Aubrites “are coarse-grained igneous rocks that formed” in oxygen-poor conditions, and thus “contain a variety of exotic minerals that are not found on Earth”. For example, the mineral heideite was first described in the Basti meteorite.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Aubrites are a type of meteorite; scientists are not yet sure of their origin, although some signs indicate that they could be from the asteroid 3103 Eger or from the planet Mercury.

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding New Space India Limited: It is the commercial arm of the Indian Space Research Organisation and operates under its exclusive control. It launched the ‘Project NETRA’ as an early warning system to detect space debris and hazards to Indian satellites. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: D Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: The Union Government has already set up New Space India Limited (NSIL), a wholly owned Government of India undertaking/ Central Public Sector Enterprise (CPSE). NSIL/NewSpace India Limited is the commercial arm of the Indian space agency ISRO. It was incorporated in March 2019 and is under the administrative control of the Department of Space (DOS) of the Government of India. NSIL operates to fulfil business demands in the space sector, including building launch vehicles through Indian industries, providing launch services, satellite building and associated ground services. Statement 2 is not correct: In the middle of its two-month Chandrayaan-2 campaign, the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) (NOT NSIL) initiated ‘Project NETRA’ – an early warning system in space to detect debris and other hazards to Indian satellites. Incorrect Answer: D Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: The Union Government has already set up New Space India Limited (NSIL), a wholly owned Government of India undertaking/ Central Public Sector Enterprise (CPSE). NSIL/NewSpace India Limited is the commercial arm of the Indian space agency ISRO. It was incorporated in March 2019 and is under the administrative control of the Department of Space (DOS) of the Government of India. NSIL operates to fulfil business demands in the space sector, including building launch vehicles through Indian industries, providing launch services, satellite building and associated ground services. Statement 2 is not correct: In the middle of its two-month Chandrayaan-2 campaign, the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) (NOT NSIL) initiated ‘Project NETRA’ – an early warning system in space to detect debris and other hazards to Indian satellites.

#### 18. Question

Consider the following statements regarding New Space India Limited:

• It is the commercial arm of the Indian Space Research Organisation and operates under its exclusive control.

• It launched the ‘Project NETRA’ as an early warning system to detect space debris and hazards to Indian satellites.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: The Union Government has already set up New Space India Limited (NSIL), a wholly owned Government of India undertaking/ Central Public Sector Enterprise (CPSE).

NSIL/NewSpace India Limited is the commercial arm of the Indian space agency ISRO. It was incorporated in March 2019 and is under the administrative control of the Department of Space (DOS) of the Government of India.

NSIL operates to fulfil business demands in the space sector, including building launch vehicles through Indian industries, providing launch services, satellite building and associated ground services.

Statement 2 is not correct: In the middle of its two-month Chandrayaan-2 campaign, the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) (NOT NSIL) initiated ‘Project NETRA’ – an early warning system in space to detect debris and other hazards to Indian satellites.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: The Union Government has already set up New Space India Limited (NSIL), a wholly owned Government of India undertaking/ Central Public Sector Enterprise (CPSE).

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the “BRICS” Organisation: It originally comprised Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa. At present, it represents around 40 percent of the global population. It has recently invited the Arab Republic of Egypt for its full membership. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: The BRICS grouping was formed in September 2006 and it originally comprised Brazil, Russia, India and China (BRIC). It was renamed as BRICS after South Africa was accepted as a full member in September 2010. Statement 2 is correct: It present, the BRICS represents 41 per cent of the global population, 24 per cent of the global GDP and 16 per cent of the global trade. Statement 3 is correct: The BRICS, in its declaration, said, “We have decided to invite the Argentine Republic, the Arab Republic of Egypt, the Federal Democratic Republic of Ethiopia, the Islamic Republic of Iran, the Kingdom of Saudi Arabia and the United Arab Emirates to become full members of BRICS from 1 January 2024.” Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: The BRICS grouping was formed in September 2006 and it originally comprised Brazil, Russia, India and China (BRIC). It was renamed as BRICS after South Africa was accepted as a full member in September 2010. Statement 2 is correct: It present, the BRICS represents 41 per cent of the global population, 24 per cent of the global GDP and 16 per cent of the global trade. Statement 3 is correct: The BRICS, in its declaration, said, “We have decided to invite the Argentine Republic, the Arab Republic of Egypt, the Federal Democratic Republic of Ethiopia, the Islamic Republic of Iran, the Kingdom of Saudi Arabia and the United Arab Emirates to become full members of BRICS from 1 January 2024.”

#### 19. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the “BRICS” Organisation:

• It originally comprised Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa.

• At present, it represents around 40 percent of the global population.

• It has recently invited the Arab Republic of Egypt for its full membership.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: The BRICS grouping was formed in September 2006 and it originally comprised Brazil, Russia, India and China (BRIC). It was renamed as BRICS after South Africa was accepted as a full member in September 2010.

Statement 2 is correct: It present, the BRICS represents 41 per cent of the global population, 24 per cent of the global GDP and 16 per cent of the global trade.

Statement 3 is correct: The BRICS, in its declaration, said, “We have decided to invite the Argentine Republic, the Arab Republic of Egypt, the Federal Democratic Republic of Ethiopia, the Islamic Republic of Iran, the Kingdom of Saudi Arabia and the United Arab Emirates to become full members of BRICS from 1 January 2024.”

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 2 is correct: It present, the BRICS represents 41 per cent of the global population, 24 per cent of the global GDP and 16 per cent of the global trade.

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points With reference to the Kilkari Programme, consider the following statements: It is in line with the Government’s commitment to strengthen health services by leveraging India’s expanding mobile phone penetration. It is centrally hosted by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare where the technological investment or operational costs are borne by States. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: A Explanation: ‘Kilkari’ (meaning ‘a baby’s gurgle’), is a centralized interactive voice response (IVR) based mobile health service which delivers free, weekly, time-appropriate 72 audio messages about pregnancy, childbirth, and childcare directly to families’ mobile phones from the second trimester of pregnancy until the child is one year old. Statement 1 is correct: The launch of the Kilkari Programme is in line with the Government’s commitment to prioritize the public health infrastructure and strengthen citizen-centric health services by leveraging India’s expanding mobile phone penetration Statement 2 is not correct: Kilkari Programme is centrally hosted by MoHFW for all the States/UTs and no further investment in the technology, telephony infrastructure or operational costs is required to be borne by States/UTs. This service is FREE of cost for States/UTs and beneficiaries. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: ‘Kilkari’ (meaning ‘a baby’s gurgle’), is a centralized interactive voice response (IVR) based mobile health service which delivers free, weekly, time-appropriate 72 audio messages about pregnancy, childbirth, and childcare directly to families’ mobile phones from the second trimester of pregnancy until the child is one year old. Statement 1 is correct: The launch of the Kilkari Programme is in line with the Government’s commitment to prioritize the public health infrastructure and strengthen citizen-centric health services by leveraging India’s expanding mobile phone penetration Statement 2 is not correct: Kilkari Programme is centrally hosted by MoHFW for all the States/UTs and no further investment in the technology, telephony infrastructure or operational costs is required to be borne by States/UTs. This service is FREE of cost for States/UTs and beneficiaries.

#### 20. Question

With reference to the Kilkari Programme, consider the following statements:

• It is in line with the Government’s commitment to strengthen health services by leveraging India’s expanding mobile phone penetration.

• It is centrally hosted by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare where the technological investment or operational costs are borne by States.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Explanation:

‘Kilkari’ (meaning ‘a baby’s gurgle’), is a centralized interactive voice response (IVR) based mobile health service which delivers free, weekly, time-appropriate 72 audio messages about pregnancy, childbirth, and childcare directly to families’ mobile phones from the second trimester of pregnancy until the child is one year old.

Statement 1 is correct: The launch of the Kilkari Programme is in line with the Government’s commitment to prioritize the public health infrastructure and strengthen citizen-centric health services by leveraging India’s expanding mobile phone penetration

Statement 2 is not correct: Kilkari Programme is centrally hosted by MoHFW for all the States/UTs and no further investment in the technology, telephony infrastructure or operational costs is required to be borne by States/UTs. This service is FREE of cost for States/UTs and beneficiaries.

Answer: A

Explanation:

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about land conservation efforts, both globally and in India. The G20 Global Initiative on Reducing Land Degradation and Enhancing Conservation of Terrestrial Habitats aims to prevent, halt and reverse land degradation and reduce degraded land by 50% by 2040. The Decade (2021-2030) is being championed by the UNEP and FAO as UN Decade on Ecosystem Restoration. India is a signatory to the UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD). India is pursuing the goal of Land Degradation Neutrality (LDN) under the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). How many of the above are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution: d) Justification: The G20 Global Initiative on Reducing Land Degradation and Enhancing Conservation of Terrestrial Habitats was launched in 2020, and it aims to prevent, halt and reverse land degradation and reduce degraded land by 50% by 2040. UN Decade on Ecosystem Restoration: The Decade (2021-2030) is being championed by the UNEP and FAO. India’s Commitment: o It is a signatory to UNCCD, aiming to restore 26 million hectares by 2030. It is pursuing Land Degradation Neutrality (LDN) under SDG 15.3. For more, see Q Source (p. 51). Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/03/CA-30-FEB-2024-MONTHLY.pdf Incorrect Solution: d) Justification: The G20 Global Initiative on Reducing Land Degradation and Enhancing Conservation of Terrestrial Habitats was launched in 2020, and it aims to prevent, halt and reverse land degradation and reduce degraded land by 50% by 2040. UN Decade on Ecosystem Restoration: The Decade (2021-2030) is being championed by the UNEP and FAO. India’s Commitment: o It is a signatory to UNCCD, aiming to restore 26 million hectares by 2030. It is pursuing Land Degradation Neutrality (LDN) under SDG 15.3. For more, see Q Source (p. 51). Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/03/CA-30-FEB-2024-MONTHLY.pdf

#### 21. Question

Consider the following statements about land conservation efforts, both globally and in India.

• The G20 Global Initiative on Reducing Land Degradation and Enhancing Conservation of Terrestrial Habitats aims to prevent, halt and reverse land degradation and reduce degraded land by 50% by 2040.

• The Decade (2021-2030) is being championed by the UNEP and FAO as UN Decade on Ecosystem Restoration.

• India is a signatory to the UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD).

• India is pursuing the goal of Land Degradation Neutrality (LDN) under the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).

How many of the above are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Solution: d)

Justification: The G20 Global Initiative on Reducing Land Degradation and Enhancing Conservation of Terrestrial Habitats was launched in 2020, and it aims to prevent, halt and reverse land degradation and reduce degraded land by 50% by 2040.

• UN Decade on Ecosystem Restoration: The Decade (2021-2030) is being championed by the UNEP and FAO.

• India’s Commitment:

o It is a signatory to UNCCD, aiming to restore 26 million hectares by 2030.

It is pursuing Land Degradation Neutrality (LDN) under SDG 15.3.

For more, see Q Source (p. 51).

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/03/CA-30-FEB-2024-MONTHLY.pdf

Solution: d)

• UN Decade on Ecosystem Restoration: The Decade (2021-2030) is being championed by the UNEP and FAO.

• India’s Commitment:

o It is a signatory to UNCCD, aiming to restore 26 million hectares by 2030.

It is pursuing Land Degradation Neutrality (LDN) under SDG 15.3.

For more, see Q Source (p. 51).

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/03/CA-30-FEB-2024-MONTHLY.pdf

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. A flyway is a geographical region within which a single or group of migratory species completes its annual cycle, including breeding, moulting, staging and non-breeding. Currently, only three flyways have been identified across the world, none of which passes through India. The UN convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species (CMS) is responsible for designating flyways. How many of the above are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Justification: A flyway is a geographical region within which a single or group of migratory species completes its annual cycle – breeding, moulting, staging and non-breeding. There are nine flyways in the world. Thirty countries including India fall within the CAF. The other range countries in the CAF include Armenia, Bangladesh, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Kuwait, Mongolia, Oman, Saudi Arabia, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan. A UN convention on the conservation of migratory species of wild animals (CMS) on Saturday adopted India’s initiative for Central Asian Flyway (CAF) and agreed for listing 14 additional migratory species from across the globe for conservation in the CMS appendices on concluding day of its 14th meet (COP14) in Samarkand, Uzbekistan. The move to adopt initiative on CAF will bring a paradigm shift in conservation of migratory birds through creation of a coordination unit in India under the convention and pave the way for sustaining the population of over 600 species of migratory birds that use the flyway. Learning: Molting is the shedding of old feathers to make way for new feathers. A bird needs to molt each year to get rid of old or damaged feathers. Some migratory birds moult in their breeding areas after nesting is over; others moult at a staging area on migration; while others moult in winter quarters. Yet others show a split moult, replacing part of their plumage in one place and part in another, moult being arrested during the intervening migration. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/03/CA-30-FEB-2024-MONTHLY.pdf Incorrect Solution: b) Justification: A flyway is a geographical region within which a single or group of migratory species completes its annual cycle – breeding, moulting, staging and non-breeding. There are nine flyways in the world. Thirty countries including India fall within the CAF. The other range countries in the CAF include Armenia, Bangladesh, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Kuwait, Mongolia, Oman, Saudi Arabia, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan. A UN convention on the conservation of migratory species of wild animals (CMS) on Saturday adopted India’s initiative for Central Asian Flyway (CAF) and agreed for listing 14 additional migratory species from across the globe for conservation in the CMS appendices on concluding day of its 14th meet (COP14) in Samarkand, Uzbekistan. The move to adopt initiative on CAF will bring a paradigm shift in conservation of migratory birds through creation of a coordination unit in India under the convention and pave the way for sustaining the population of over 600 species of migratory birds that use the flyway. Learning: Molting is the shedding of old feathers to make way for new feathers. A bird needs to molt each year to get rid of old or damaged feathers. Some migratory birds moult in their breeding areas after nesting is over; others moult at a staging area on migration; while others moult in winter quarters. Yet others show a split moult, replacing part of their plumage in one place and part in another, moult being arrested during the intervening migration. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/03/CA-30-FEB-2024-MONTHLY.pdf

#### 22. Question

Consider the following statements.

• A flyway is a geographical region within which a single or group of migratory species completes its annual cycle, including breeding, moulting, staging and non-breeding.

• Currently, only three flyways have been identified across the world, none of which passes through India.

• The UN convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species (CMS) is responsible for designating flyways.

How many of the above are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: b)

Justification: A flyway is a geographical region within which a single or group of migratory species completes its annual cycle – breeding, moulting, staging and non-breeding.

There are nine flyways in the world. Thirty countries including India fall within the CAF. The other range countries in the CAF include Armenia, Bangladesh, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Kuwait, Mongolia, Oman, Saudi Arabia, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan.

A UN convention on the conservation of migratory species of wild animals (CMS) on Saturday adopted India’s initiative for Central Asian Flyway (CAF) and agreed for listing 14 additional migratory species from across the globe for conservation in the CMS appendices on concluding day of its 14th meet (COP14) in Samarkand, Uzbekistan. The move to adopt initiative on CAF will bring a paradigm shift in conservation of migratory birds through creation of a coordination unit in India under the convention and pave the way for sustaining the population of over 600 species of migratory birds that use the flyway.

Learning: Molting is the shedding of old feathers to make way for new feathers. A bird needs to molt each year to get rid of old or damaged feathers.

Some migratory birds moult in their breeding areas after nesting is over; others moult at a staging area on migration; while others moult in winter quarters. Yet others show a split moult, replacing part of their plumage in one place and part in another, moult being arrested during the intervening migration.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/03/CA-30-FEB-2024-MONTHLY.pdf

Solution: b)

Justification: A flyway is a geographical region within which a single or group of migratory species completes its annual cycle – breeding, moulting, staging and non-breeding.

Learning: Molting is the shedding of old feathers to make way for new feathers. A bird needs to molt each year to get rid of old or damaged feathers.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/03/CA-30-FEB-2024-MONTHLY.pdf

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points The Government of India has had dedicated schemes or protected regions for the conservation of which of the following? Migratory Birds Marine turtles Snow Leopard Dugongs How many of the above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution: d) Justification: Initiatives taken by India: National Action Plan for the Conservation of Migratory Birds (2018-2023): India launched this plan to address challenges faced by migratory birds, including habitat loss, hunting, pollution, and climate change. Goals include stopping bird decline by 2027, promoting transboundary cooperation, and improving the database on migratory birds. Conservation of marine turtles: India launched the Marine Turtle Policy and Marine Stranding Management Policy in 2020 to protect marine turtles and reduce pollution from micro-plastic and sin- gle-use plastic. Transboundary protected areas: India established protected areas for species like Tigers, Asian elephants, Snow Leopard, the Asiatic Lion, the one- horned rhinoceros, and the Great Indian Bustard. Project Snow Leopard (PSL): Launched in 2009, PSL promotes an inclusive approach to conserving snow leopards and their habitat. Dugong Conservation Reserve: India established its first Dugong conservation reserve in Tamil Nadu. Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: The act provides stringent punishments for violating wildlife protection laws and includes migratory birds in Schedule I for the highest protection. Other initiatives: India imposed a ban on the vet- erinary use of diclofenac to conserve vultures, established Vulture breeding centres, and set up the Wildlife Crime Control Bureau to control illegal wildlife trade. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/03/CA-30-FEB-2024-MONTHLY.pdf Incorrect Solution: d) Justification: Initiatives taken by India: National Action Plan for the Conservation of Migratory Birds (2018-2023): India launched this plan to address challenges faced by migratory birds, including habitat loss, hunting, pollution, and climate change. Goals include stopping bird decline by 2027, promoting transboundary cooperation, and improving the database on migratory birds. Conservation of marine turtles: India launched the Marine Turtle Policy and Marine Stranding Management Policy in 2020 to protect marine turtles and reduce pollution from micro-plastic and sin- gle-use plastic. Transboundary protected areas: India established protected areas for species like Tigers, Asian elephants, Snow Leopard, the Asiatic Lion, the one- horned rhinoceros, and the Great Indian Bustard. Project Snow Leopard (PSL): Launched in 2009, PSL promotes an inclusive approach to conserving snow leopards and their habitat. Dugong Conservation Reserve: India established its first Dugong conservation reserve in Tamil Nadu. Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: The act provides stringent punishments for violating wildlife protection laws and includes migratory birds in Schedule I for the highest protection. Other initiatives: India imposed a ban on the vet- erinary use of diclofenac to conserve vultures, established Vulture breeding centres, and set up the Wildlife Crime Control Bureau to control illegal wildlife trade. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/03/CA-30-FEB-2024-MONTHLY.pdf

#### 23. Question

The Government of India has had dedicated schemes or protected regions for the conservation of which of the following?

• Migratory Birds

• Marine turtles

• Snow Leopard

How many of the above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Solution: d)

Justification: Initiatives taken by India:

• National Action Plan for the Conservation of Migratory Birds (2018-2023): India launched this plan to address challenges faced by migratory birds, including habitat loss, hunting, pollution, and climate change.

• Goals include stopping bird decline by 2027, promoting transboundary cooperation, and improving the database on migratory birds.

• Conservation of marine turtles: India launched the Marine Turtle Policy and Marine Stranding Management Policy in 2020 to protect marine turtles and reduce pollution from micro-plastic and sin- gle-use plastic.

• Transboundary protected areas: India established protected areas for species like Tigers, Asian elephants, Snow Leopard, the Asiatic Lion, the one- horned rhinoceros, and the Great Indian Bustard.

• Project Snow Leopard (PSL): Launched in 2009, PSL promotes an inclusive approach to conserving snow leopards and their habitat.

• Dugong Conservation Reserve: India established its first Dugong conservation reserve in Tamil Nadu.

• Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: The act provides stringent punishments for violating wildlife protection laws and includes migratory birds in Schedule I for the highest protection.

• Other initiatives: India imposed a ban on the vet- erinary use of diclofenac to conserve vultures, established Vulture breeding centres, and set up the Wildlife Crime Control Bureau to control illegal wildlife trade.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/03/CA-30-FEB-2024-MONTHLY.pdf

Solution: d)

Justification: Initiatives taken by India:

• Goals include stopping bird decline by 2027, promoting transboundary cooperation, and improving the database on migratory birds.

• Project Snow Leopard (PSL): Launched in 2009, PSL promotes an inclusive approach to conserving snow leopards and their habitat.

• Dugong Conservation Reserve: India established its first Dugong conservation reserve in Tamil Nadu.

• Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: The act provides stringent punishments for violating wildlife protection laws and includes migratory birds in Schedule I for the highest protection.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/03/CA-30-FEB-2024-MONTHLY.pdf

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. The United Nations Clean Seas campaign is a global initiative launched by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) to combat marine plastic pollution. MacArthur Foundation’s New Plastics Economy initiative aims to create a circular economy for plastics, where plastics are designed, used, and recycled in a way that eliminates waste and pollution. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: c) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/03/CA-30-FEB-2024-MONTHLY.pdf Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/03/CA-30-FEB-2024-MONTHLY.pdf

#### 24. Question

Consider the following statements.

• The United Nations Clean Seas campaign is a global initiative launched by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) to combat marine plastic pollution.

• MacArthur Foundation’s New Plastics Economy initiative aims to create a circular economy for plastics, where plastics are designed, used, and recycled in a way that eliminates waste and pollution.

Which of the above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/03/CA-30-FEB-2024-MONTHLY.pdf

Solution: c)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/03/CA-30-FEB-2024-MONTHLY.pdf

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Dhokra Shilpkala. It is an ancient metal casting tradition believed to have originated from the Dhokra Damar tribes of Central India. The technique involves using the lost wax casting method, known as cire perdue. At present, it is only practiced in Chattisgarh. How many of the above are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Justification: Dhokra Shilpkala: It is an ancient metal casting tradition believed to have originated from the Dhokra Damar tribes of Central India. It has deep roots in the tribal communities of Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, and Odisha, where it evolved as a cultural and religious practice. The technique involves using the lost wax casting method, known as cire perdue, which results in intricate designs inspired by nature, mythology, and everyday life. Despite its rich heritage, Dhokra Shilpkala faces challenges due to urbanization and mechanized production Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/03/CA-30-FEB-2024-MONTHLY.pdf Incorrect Solution: b) Justification: Dhokra Shilpkala: It is an ancient metal casting tradition believed to have originated from the Dhokra Damar tribes of Central India. It has deep roots in the tribal communities of Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, and Odisha, where it evolved as a cultural and religious practice. The technique involves using the lost wax casting method, known as cire perdue, which results in intricate designs inspired by nature, mythology, and everyday life. Despite its rich heritage, Dhokra Shilpkala faces challenges due to urbanization and mechanized production Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/03/CA-30-FEB-2024-MONTHLY.pdf

#### 25. Question

Consider the following statements about Dhokra Shilpkala.

• It is an ancient metal casting tradition believed to have originated from the Dhokra Damar tribes of Central India.

• The technique involves using the lost wax casting method, known as cire perdue.

• At present, it is only practiced in Chattisgarh.

How many of the above are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: b)

Justification: Dhokra Shilpkala: It is an ancient metal casting tradition believed to have originated from the Dhokra Damar tribes of Central India.

It has deep roots in the tribal communities of Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, and Odisha, where it evolved as a cultural and religious practice. The technique involves using the lost wax casting method, known as cire perdue, which results in intricate designs inspired by nature, mythology, and everyday life.

Despite its rich heritage, Dhokra Shilpkala faces challenges due to urbanization and mechanized production

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/03/CA-30-FEB-2024-MONTHLY.pdf

Solution: b)

Justification: Dhokra Shilpkala: It is an ancient metal casting tradition believed to have originated from the Dhokra Damar tribes of Central India.

Despite its rich heritage, Dhokra Shilpkala faces challenges due to urbanization and mechanized production

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/03/CA-30-FEB-2024-MONTHLY.pdf

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points The average temperature of the Earth has been rising by 0.5ºC over the past 100 years. Although a long-term rise of 2ºC would seem minor, this is thought to be sufficient to completely melt the glacial ice caps in Antarctica and Greenland, causing sea levels to rise by 100 m. This can alter the climate patterns such as rainfall. Climate changes can have consequences like migrations, as well as wars between nations for resources and concerns for food security and trade. The greenhouse effect is a warming of the lower-atmosphere caused by accumulation of certain greenhouse gases (notably carbon dioxide and methane) that allow the rays of the sun to pass through, but then reflect or reradiate the heat to the Earth. In this way, heat is trapped on Earth in the same way as heat is trapped behind the glass panels of a greenhouse. Greenhouse gases include a diverse variety of atmospheric gases. Carbon dioxide is a product of burning fossil fuels and wood. Nitrous oxide (N2O), produced by the use of fertilizer and released from decomposition of animal wastes is another prominent greenhouse gas. CFCs, in particular freon (a refrigerant), are the greenhouse gases thought to be responsible for the depletion of the planetary ozone layer in the upper-atmosphere. Which of the following can be practically inferred from the passage? A. Increase in average temperature by 2 degree C will result in drowning of most of the coastal cities B. Increase in average temperature by 2 degree C will insure that there is no snowfall on earth C. Increase in average temperature by 2 degree C will cause the salination of water D. If situation is not changed, marine life will cease to exist. Correct Answer: A While C looks equally logical it cannot be practical because all water won’t be salinized by sea rise. So what is logical and practical is only costal cities drowning. D is wrong because, it is sweeping generalization that marine life will end due to sea level rise. Incorrect Answer: A While C looks equally logical it cannot be practical because all water won’t be salinized by sea rise. So what is logical and practical is only costal cities drowning. D is wrong because, it is sweeping generalization that marine life will end due to sea level rise.

#### 26. Question

The average temperature of the Earth has been rising by 0.5ºC over the past 100 years. Although a long-term rise of 2ºC would seem minor, this is thought to be sufficient to completely melt the glacial ice caps in Antarctica and Greenland, causing sea levels to rise by 100 m. This can alter the climate patterns such as rainfall. Climate changes can have consequences like migrations, as well as wars between nations for resources and concerns for food security and trade. The greenhouse effect is a warming of the lower-atmosphere caused by accumulation of certain greenhouse gases (notably carbon dioxide and methane) that allow the rays of the sun to pass through, but then reflect or reradiate the heat to the Earth. In this way, heat is trapped on Earth in the same way as heat is trapped behind the glass panels of a greenhouse. Greenhouse gases include a diverse variety of atmospheric gases. Carbon dioxide is a product of burning fossil fuels and wood. Nitrous oxide (N2O), produced by the use of fertilizer and released from decomposition of animal wastes is another prominent greenhouse gas. CFCs, in particular freon (a refrigerant), are the greenhouse gases thought to be responsible for the depletion of the planetary ozone layer in the upper-atmosphere.

Which of the following can be practically inferred from the passage?

• A. Increase in average temperature by 2 degree C will result in drowning of most of the coastal cities

• B. Increase in average temperature by 2 degree C will insure that there is no snowfall on earth

• C. Increase in average temperature by 2 degree C will cause the salination of water

• D. If situation is not changed, marine life will cease to exist.

While C looks equally logical it cannot be practical because all water won’t be salinized by sea rise. So what is logical and practical is only costal cities drowning. D is wrong because, it is sweeping generalization that marine life will end due to sea level rise.

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points The average temperature of the Earth has been rising by 0.5ºC over the past 100 years. Although a long-term rise of 2ºC would seem minor, this is thought to be sufficient to completely melt the glacial ice caps in Antarctica and Greenland, causing sea levels to rise by 100 m. This can alter the climate patterns such as rainfall. Climate changes can have consequences like migrations, as well as wars between nations for resources and concerns for food security and trade. The greenhouse effect is a warming of the lower-atmosphere caused by accumulation of certain greenhouse gases (notably carbon dioxide and methane) that allow the rays of the sun to pass through, but then reflect or reradiate the heat to the Earth. In this way, heat is trapped on Earth in the same way as heat is trapped behind the glass panels of a greenhouse. Greenhouse gases include a diverse variety of atmospheric gases. Carbon dioxide is a product of burning fossil fuels and wood. Nitrous oxide (N2O), produced by the use of fertilizer and released from decomposition of animal wastes is another prominent greenhouse gas. CFCs, in particular freon (a refrigerant), are the greenhouse gases thought to be responsible for the depletion of the planetary ozone layer in the upper-atmosphere. Which of the following is contributing to increase in temperature? Use of fertilizers Depletion of ozone Increased usage of automobiles Code: A) 1 & 2 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 3 D) 1, 2 & 3 Correct Answer: C While ozone is depleted by CFCs we can’t tell global warming and ozone depletion are linked in light of the Passage so 2 is wrong. And C is answer. Incorrect Answer: C While ozone is depleted by CFCs we can’t tell global warming and ozone depletion are linked in light of the Passage so 2 is wrong. And C is answer.

#### 27. Question

Which of the following is contributing to increase in temperature?

• Use of fertilizers

• Depletion of ozone

• Increased usage of automobiles

• D) 1, 2 & 3

While ozone is depleted by CFCs we can’t tell global warming and ozone depletion are linked in light of the Passage so 2 is wrong. And C is answer.

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points The increase in greenhouse gases will have, A) Geopolitical consequences B) Biological consequences C) Geoeconomic consequences D) All the above Correct Answer: D Wars will bring geopolitical consequences, hunger and migration will lead to biological ones and trade issues cause economic consequences. So all will be caused. Incorrect Answer: D Wars will bring geopolitical consequences, hunger and migration will lead to biological ones and trade issues cause economic consequences. So all will be caused.

#### 28. Question

The increase in greenhouse gases will have,

• A) Geopolitical consequences

• B) Biological consequences

• C) Geoeconomic consequences

• D) All the above

Wars will bring geopolitical consequences, hunger and migration will lead to biological ones and trade issues cause economic consequences. So all will be caused.

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points An intelligence agency forms a code of two distinct digits selected from 0, 1, 2, …., 9 such that the first digit of the code is nonzero. The code, handwritten on a slip, can however potentially create confusion, when read upside-down-for example, the code 91 may appear as 16. How many codes are there for which no such confusion can arise? (a) 80 (b) 78 (c) 71 (d) 69 Correct Answer: (c) 71 The available digits are 0,1,2, …9. The first digit can be chosen in 9 ways (0 not acceptable), the second digit can be accepted in 9 ways (digits repetition not allowed). Thus, the code can be made in 9 × 9 = 81 ways. Now there are only 4 digits 1, 6, 8, 9 which can create confusion. Hence, the total number of codes which create confusion are = 4 × 3 = 12. Out of these 12 codes 69 and 96 will not create confusion. Hence, in total 12 – 2 = 10 codes will create confusion. Hence, the total codes without confusion are 81 – 10 = 71. Incorrect Answer: (c) 71 The available digits are 0,1,2, …9. The first digit can be chosen in 9 ways (0 not acceptable), the second digit can be accepted in 9 ways (digits repetition not allowed). Thus, the code can be made in 9 × 9 = 81 ways. Now there are only 4 digits 1, 6, 8, 9 which can create confusion. Hence, the total number of codes which create confusion are = 4 × 3 = 12. Out of these 12 codes 69 and 96 will not create confusion. Hence, in total 12 – 2 = 10 codes will create confusion. Hence, the total codes without confusion are 81 – 10 = 71.

#### 29. Question

An intelligence agency forms a code of two distinct digits selected from 0, 1, 2, …., 9 such that the first digit of the code is nonzero. The code, handwritten on a slip, can however potentially create confusion, when read upside-down-for example, the code 91 may appear as 16. How many codes are there for which no such confusion can arise?

Answer: (c) 71

The available digits are 0,1,2, …9.

The first digit can be chosen in 9 ways (0 not acceptable), the second digit can be accepted in 9 ways (digits repetition not allowed).

Thus, the code can be made in 9 × 9 = 81 ways.

Now there are only 4 digits 1, 6, 8, 9 which can create confusion.

Hence, the total number of codes which create confusion are = 4 × 3 = 12.

Out of these 12 codes 69 and 96 will not create confusion.

Hence, in total 12 – 2 = 10 codes will create confusion.

Hence, the total codes without confusion are 81 – 10 = 71.

Answer: (c) 71

The available digits are 0,1,2, …9.

The first digit can be chosen in 9 ways (0 not acceptable), the second digit can be accepted in 9 ways (digits repetition not allowed).

Thus, the code can be made in 9 × 9 = 81 ways.

Now there are only 4 digits 1, 6, 8, 9 which can create confusion.

Hence, the total number of codes which create confusion are = 4 × 3 = 12.

Out of these 12 codes 69 and 96 will not create confusion.

Hence, in total 12 – 2 = 10 codes will create confusion.

Hence, the total codes without confusion are 81 – 10 = 71.

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points If two dices are rolled, what is the probability that a number greater than 3 comes on at least one dice? A. 1/4 B.1/2 C. 3/4 D.7/12 Correct Answer C) 3/4 The number of possibilities in which no dice shows a number greater than 3 = 3× 3 Number of unfavorable outcomes = 3 × 3 = 9 Number of favorable outcomes = 6 × 6 – 3 × 3 = 27 Probability = 27/36 = 3/4 Hence, option C is correct. Incorrect Answer C) 3/4 The number of possibilities in which no dice shows a number greater than 3 = 3× 3 Number of unfavorable outcomes = 3 × 3 = 9 Number of favorable outcomes = 6 × 6 – 3 × 3 = 27 Probability = 27/36 = 3/4 Hence, option C is correct.

#### 30. Question

If two dices are rolled, what is the probability that a number greater than 3 comes on at least one dice?

Answer C) 3/4

The number of possibilities in which no dice shows a number greater than

Number of unfavorable outcomes = 3 × 3 = 9

Number of favorable outcomes = 6 × 6 – 3 × 3 = 27

Probability = 27/36 = 3/4

Hence, option C is correct.

Answer C) 3/4

The number of possibilities in which no dice shows a number greater than

Number of unfavorable outcomes = 3 × 3 = 9

Number of favorable outcomes = 6 × 6 – 3 × 3 = 27

Probability = 27/36 = 3/4

Hence, option C is correct.

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