DAY – 32 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – ANCIENT & MEDIEVAL INDIA, Subject-wise Test 18 , Textbook-based Test – 28 and February 2024 CA

INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024

#### Quiz-summary

0 of 30 questions completed

Questions:

#### Information

Read about Insights IAS INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Prelims – 2024 [ HERE ] :

DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(GS) [HERE] :

DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(CSAT) [HERE] :

Download MITRA booklet (My Insta Tests Revision and Assessment) – It’s for to track your daily progress while following Insta 75 Days plan. [ CLICK HERE ] :

Wish you Good Luck! 🙂

You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.

Quiz is loading...

You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.

You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:

0 of 30 questions answered correctly

Your time:

Time has elapsed

You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)

Average score |

Your score |

#### Categories

• Not categorized 0%

Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result

Table is loading

No data available

| | | |

• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points With reference to Buddhist literature, consider the following: Digha Nikaya Majjhima Nikaya Samyutta Nikaya Anguttara Nikaya Lalitavistara Nikaya How many of the above are part of ‘Three Pitakas’? a) Only two b) Only three c) Only four d) All five Correct Answer: c Explanation: The Buddha’s teachings were delivered orally. He taught for 45 years, tailoring his lessons to the needs of the students. The teachings were learned by the Sangha, and group recitations were held at festivals and special occasions. In 483 BC, the teachings were rehearsed and validated in the First Council, after which they were separated into Three Pitakas. Around 25 BCE, his teachings were written down in Pali. Three Pitakas Vinaya Pitaka Sutta Pitaka Abhidhamma Pitaka The Vinaya Pitakacontains standards of behavior and discipline for monks and nuns in their monastic lives. The main teaching or Dhamma of Buddha is contained in the Sutta Pitaka.It is divided into five collections or Nikayas. Digha Nikaya Majjhima Nikaya Samyutta Nikaya Anguttara Nikaya Khuddaka Nikaya The Abhidamma Pitakais a philosophical examination and systematization of monks’ teaching and scholarly work. Lalitavistara is a Mahayana text which tells the story of Gautama Buddha from the time of his descent from Tushita until his first sermon. Hence, it is not a part of Three Pitakas. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: The Buddha’s teachings were delivered orally. He taught for 45 years, tailoring his lessons to the needs of the students. The teachings were learned by the Sangha, and group recitations were held at festivals and special occasions. In 483 BC, the teachings were rehearsed and validated in the First Council, after which they were separated into Three Pitakas. Around 25 BCE, his teachings were written down in Pali. Three Pitakas Vinaya Pitaka Sutta Pitaka Abhidhamma Pitaka The Vinaya Pitakacontains standards of behavior and discipline for monks and nuns in their monastic lives. The main teaching or Dhamma of Buddha is contained in the Sutta Pitaka.It is divided into five collections or Nikayas. Digha Nikaya Majjhima Nikaya Samyutta Nikaya Anguttara Nikaya Khuddaka Nikaya The Abhidamma Pitakais a philosophical examination and systematization of monks’ teaching and scholarly work. Lalitavistara is a Mahayana text which tells the story of Gautama Buddha from the time of his descent from Tushita until his first sermon. Hence, it is not a part of Three Pitakas. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 1. Question

With reference to Buddhist literature, consider the following:

• Digha Nikaya

• Majjhima Nikaya

• Samyutta Nikaya

• Anguttara Nikaya

• Lalitavistara Nikaya

How many of the above are part of ‘Three Pitakas’?

• a) Only two

• b) Only three

• c) Only four

• d) All five

Explanation:

• The Buddha’s teachings were delivered orally. He taught for 45 years, tailoring his lessons to the needs of the students.

• The teachings were learned by the Sangha, and group recitations were held at festivals and special occasions.

• In 483 BC, the teachings were rehearsed and validated in the First Council, after which they were separated into Three Pitakas.

• Around 25 BCE, his teachings were written down in Pali.

• Three Pitakas Vinaya Pitaka Sutta Pitaka Abhidhamma Pitaka

• Vinaya Pitaka

• Sutta Pitaka

• Abhidhamma Pitaka

• The Vinaya Pitakacontains standards of behavior and discipline for monks and nuns in their monastic lives.

• The main teaching or Dhamma of Buddha is contained in the Sutta Pitaka.It is divided into five collections or Nikayas.

• Digha Nikaya

• Majjhima Nikaya

• Samyutta Nikaya

• Anguttara Nikaya

• Khuddaka Nikaya

• The Abhidamma Pitakais a philosophical examination and systematization of monks’ teaching and scholarly work.

• Lalitavistara is a Mahayana text which tells the story of Gautama Buddha from the time of his descent from Tushita until his first sermon. Hence, it is not a part of Three Pitakas.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

• The Buddha’s teachings were delivered orally. He taught for 45 years, tailoring his lessons to the needs of the students.

• The teachings were learned by the Sangha, and group recitations were held at festivals and special occasions.

• In 483 BC, the teachings were rehearsed and validated in the First Council, after which they were separated into Three Pitakas.

• Around 25 BCE, his teachings were written down in Pali.

• Three Pitakas Vinaya Pitaka Sutta Pitaka Abhidhamma Pitaka

• Vinaya Pitaka

• Sutta Pitaka

• Abhidhamma Pitaka

• The Vinaya Pitakacontains standards of behavior and discipline for monks and nuns in their monastic lives.

• The main teaching or Dhamma of Buddha is contained in the Sutta Pitaka.It is divided into five collections or Nikayas.

• Digha Nikaya

• Majjhima Nikaya

• Samyutta Nikaya

• Anguttara Nikaya

• Khuddaka Nikaya

• The Abhidamma Pitakais a philosophical examination and systematization of monks’ teaching and scholarly work.

• Lalitavistara is a Mahayana text which tells the story of Gautama Buddha from the time of his descent from Tushita until his first sermon. Hence, it is not a part of Three Pitakas.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Buddhism was once just one of many schools of thought that arose in response to what was viewed as traditional Hinduism’s failure to satisfy the needs of the people. It remained a small school of thought until the reign of Ashoka the Great of the Mauryan Empire. Which of the above given statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: c Explanation: Buddhism did indeed emerge as a response to certain perceived shortcomings of traditional Hinduism, such as its emphasis on rituals and the caste system. Siddhartha Gautama, the founder of Buddhism, sought answers to questions regarding suffering, existence, and the nature of reality, which led him to reject certain aspects of Hindu religious practices and philosophical teachings. In ancient India, there were 3 families of religious philosophies: Astika traditions — the famed 6 schools of Yoga, Nyaya, Vaisesika, Samkhya, Mimamsa and Vedanta that are attached to the Vedic religion. Nastika traditions — the 5 religious schools that declined to believe in the supremacy of Vedas — Buddhism, Jainism, Ajivika, Ajnana, Caravaka. 2 of them became independent religions, while the philosophies of other 3 merged with other faiths. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Folk traditions — these were faiths that are quite common across rural India and of indeterminant origin. This group is often left out in the discussion of Indian philosophies. Buddhism initially remained a relatively small movement primarily concentrated in certain regions of India until the reign of Emperor Ashoka. Ashoka’s conversion to Buddhism and subsequent patronage significantly contributed to the spread of Buddhism throughout the Mauryan Empire and beyond. His support led to the establishment of monasteries, the sending of missions to spread Buddhism to other parts of Asia, and the inscribing of Buddhist teachings on pillars and rock surfaces across his empire. Ashoka’s efforts played a crucial role in elevating Buddhism from a localized movement to a major world religion. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Buddhism did indeed emerge as a response to certain perceived shortcomings of traditional Hinduism, such as its emphasis on rituals and the caste system. Siddhartha Gautama, the founder of Buddhism, sought answers to questions regarding suffering, existence, and the nature of reality, which led him to reject certain aspects of Hindu religious practices and philosophical teachings. In ancient India, there were 3 families of religious philosophies: Astika traditions — the famed 6 schools of Yoga, Nyaya, Vaisesika, Samkhya, Mimamsa and Vedanta that are attached to the Vedic religion. Nastika traditions — the 5 religious schools that declined to believe in the supremacy of Vedas — Buddhism, Jainism, Ajivika, Ajnana, Caravaka. 2 of them became independent religions, while the philosophies of other 3 merged with other faiths. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Folk traditions — these were faiths that are quite common across rural India and of indeterminant origin. This group is often left out in the discussion of Indian philosophies. Buddhism initially remained a relatively small movement primarily concentrated in certain regions of India until the reign of Emperor Ashoka. Ashoka’s conversion to Buddhism and subsequent patronage significantly contributed to the spread of Buddhism throughout the Mauryan Empire and beyond. His support led to the establishment of monasteries, the sending of missions to spread Buddhism to other parts of Asia, and the inscribing of Buddhist teachings on pillars and rock surfaces across his empire. Ashoka’s efforts played a crucial role in elevating Buddhism from a localized movement to a major world religion. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Hence, option (c) is correct. Ancient history can be divided into different periods according to the tools used by people back then. Paleolithic Period (Old Stone Age): 500,000 BCE – 10,000 BCE Mesolithic Period (Late Stone Age): 10,000 BCE 6000 BCE Neolithic Period (New Stone Age): 6000BCE 1000 BCE Chalcolithic Period (Stone Copper Age): 3000 BCE 500 BCE Iron Age: 1500 BCE – 200 BCE The Paleolithic Age and Mesolithic Age were characterized by hunting and gathering activities. The characteristic feature of the Neolithic Age is agriculture, which is the food-producing stage. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Buddhism was once just one of many schools of thought that arose in response to what was viewed as traditional Hinduism’s failure to satisfy the needs of the people.

• It remained a small school of thought until the reign of Ashoka the Great of the Mauryan Empire.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• Buddhism did indeed emerge as a response to certain perceived shortcomings of traditional Hinduism, such as its emphasis on rituals and the caste system. Siddhartha Gautama, the founder of Buddhism, sought answers to questions regarding suffering, existence, and the nature of reality, which led him to reject certain aspects of Hindu religious practices and philosophical teachings.

• In ancient India, there were 3 families of religious philosophies:

• Astika traditions — the famed 6 schools of Yoga, Nyaya, Vaisesika, Samkhya, Mimamsa and Vedanta that are attached to the Vedic religion.

• Nastika traditions — the 5 religious schools that declined to believe in the supremacy of Vedas — Buddhism, Jainism, Ajivika, Ajnana, Caravaka. 2 of them became independent religions, while the philosophies of other 3 merged with other faiths. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Folk traditions — these were faiths that are quite common across rural India and of indeterminant origin. This group is often left out in the discussion of Indian philosophies.

• Buddhism initially remained a relatively small movement primarily concentrated in certain regions of India until the reign of Emperor Ashoka. Ashoka’s conversion to Buddhism and subsequent patronage significantly contributed to the spread of Buddhism throughout the Mauryan Empire and beyond. His support led to the establishment of monasteries, the sending of missions to spread Buddhism to other parts of Asia, and the inscribing of Buddhist teachings on pillars and rock surfaces across his empire. Ashoka’s efforts played a crucial role in elevating Buddhism from a localized movement to a major world religion. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

• In ancient India, there were 3 families of religious philosophies:

• Astika traditions — the famed 6 schools of Yoga, Nyaya, Vaisesika, Samkhya, Mimamsa and Vedanta that are attached to the Vedic religion.

• Folk traditions — these were faiths that are quite common across rural India and of indeterminant origin. This group is often left out in the discussion of Indian philosophies.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Ancient history can be divided into different periods according to the tools used by people back then.

• Paleolithic Period (Old Stone Age): 500,000 BCE – 10,000 BCE

• Mesolithic Period (Late Stone Age): 10,000 BCE 6000 BCE

• Neolithic Period (New Stone Age): 6000BCE 1000 BCE

• Chalcolithic Period (Stone Copper Age): 3000 BCE 500 BCE

• Iron Age: 1500 BCE – 200 BCE

• The Paleolithic Age and Mesolithic Age were characterized by hunting and gathering activities. The characteristic feature of the Neolithic Age is agriculture, which is the food-producing stage.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Match the life events of Gautama Buddha with their corresponding symbols: 1. Birth of Gautama Buddha 2. Renunciation 3. Enlightenment 4. First Sermon 5. Death A) Lotus and Bull B) Horse C) Bodhi Tree D) Wheel E) Stupa Choose the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 - B, 2 - C, 3 - D, 4- E, 5 – A b) 1 - A, 2 - B, 3 - C, 4 - D, 5 – E c) 1 - E, 2 - B, 3 - C, 4 - D, 5 – A d) 1 - A, 2- B, 3 - C, 4 - D, 5 – E Correct Answer: b Explanation: Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 3. Question

Match the life events of Gautama Buddha with their corresponding symbols:

1.Birth of Gautama Buddha 2. Renunciation 3. Enlightenment 4. First Sermon 5. Death | A) Lotus and Bull B) Horse C) Bodhi Tree D) Wheel E) Stupa
2.Renunciation

1.Enlightenment

1.First Sermon

C) Bodhi Tree

Choose the correct answer using the code given below:

• a) 1 - B, 2 - C, 3 - D, 4- E, 5 – A

• b) 1 - A, 2 - B, 3 - C, 4 - D, 5 – E

• c) 1 - E, 2 - B, 3 - C, 4 - D, 5 – A

• d) 1 - A, 2- B, 3 - C, 4 - D, 5 – E

Explanation:

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Jainism believes that the universe and all its substances are eternal. Jainism does not believe in God as a creator of the universe. Which of the above given statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: c Explanation: The Concept of God in Jainism Jainism believes that the universe and all its substances or entities are eternal. It has no beginning or end with respect to time. Universe runs on its own accord by its own cosmic laws. Hence, statement 1 is correct. All the substances change or modify their forms continuously. Nothing can be destroyed or created in the universe. There is no need for someone to create or manage the affairs of the universe. Hence Jainism does not believe in God as a creator, survivor, and destroyer of the universe. Hence, statement 2 is correct. However Jainism does believe in God, not as a creator, but as a perfect being. When a person destroys all his karmas, he becomes a liberated soul. He lives in a perfect blissful state in Moksha forever. The liberated soul possesses infinite knowledge, infinite vision, infinite power, and infinite bliss. This living being is a God of Jain religion. Every living being has a potential to become God. Hence Jains do not have one God, but Jain Gods are innumerable and their number is continuously increasing as more living beings attain liberation. Hence, option(c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: The Concept of God in Jainism Jainism believes that the universe and all its substances or entities are eternal. It has no beginning or end with respect to time. Universe runs on its own accord by its own cosmic laws. Hence, statement 1 is correct. All the substances change or modify their forms continuously. Nothing can be destroyed or created in the universe. There is no need for someone to create or manage the affairs of the universe. Hence Jainism does not believe in God as a creator, survivor, and destroyer of the universe. Hence, statement 2 is correct. However Jainism does believe in God, not as a creator, but as a perfect being. When a person destroys all his karmas, he becomes a liberated soul. He lives in a perfect blissful state in Moksha forever. The liberated soul possesses infinite knowledge, infinite vision, infinite power, and infinite bliss. This living being is a God of Jain religion. Every living being has a potential to become God. Hence Jains do not have one God, but Jain Gods are innumerable and their number is continuously increasing as more living beings attain liberation. Hence, option(c) is correct. Hoysala architecture is the building style developed under the rule of the Hoysala Empire between the 11th and 14th centuries, mostly concentrated in southern Karnataka. Hoysala temples are sometimes called hybrid or vesara as their unique style seems neither completely Dravida nor Nagara, but somewhere in between. The most characteristic feature of these temples is that they grow extremely complex with so many projecting angles emerging from the previously straightforward square temple, that the plan of these temples starts looking like a star, and is thus known as a stellate-plan. The Hoysala temples, instead of consisting of a simple inner chamber with its pillared hall, contain multiple shrines grouped around a central pillared hall and laid out in the shape of an intricately-designed star. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Jainism believes that the universe and all its substances are eternal.

• Jainism does not believe in God as a creator of the universe.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

The Concept of God in Jainism

• Jainism believes that the universe and all its substances or entities are eternal. It has no beginning or end with respect to time. Universe runs on its own accord by its own cosmic laws. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• All the substances change or modify their forms continuously. Nothing can be destroyed or created in the universe.

• There is no need for someone to create or manage the affairs of the universe. Hence Jainism does not believe in God as a creator, survivor, and destroyer of the universe. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• There is no need for someone to create or manage the affairs of the universe.

• Hence Jainism does not believe in God as a creator, survivor, and destroyer of the universe. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• However Jainism does believe in God, not as a creator, but as a perfect being.

• When a person destroys all his karmas, he becomes a liberated soul. He lives in a perfect blissful state in Moksha forever. The liberated soul possesses infinite knowledge, infinite vision, infinite power, and infinite bliss. This living being is a God of Jain religion. Every living being has a potential to become God.

• When a person destroys all his karmas, he becomes a liberated soul. He lives in a perfect blissful state in Moksha forever.

• The liberated soul possesses infinite knowledge, infinite vision, infinite power, and infinite bliss. This living being is a God of Jain religion.

• Every living being has a potential to become God.

• Hence Jains do not have one God, but Jain Gods are innumerable and their number is continuously increasing as more living beings attain liberation.

Hence, option(c) is correct.

Explanation:

The Concept of God in Jainism

• All the substances change or modify their forms continuously. Nothing can be destroyed or created in the universe.

• There is no need for someone to create or manage the affairs of the universe.

• Hence Jainism does not believe in God as a creator, survivor, and destroyer of the universe. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• However Jainism does believe in God, not as a creator, but as a perfect being.

• When a person destroys all his karmas, he becomes a liberated soul. He lives in a perfect blissful state in Moksha forever.

• The liberated soul possesses infinite knowledge, infinite vision, infinite power, and infinite bliss. This living being is a God of Jain religion.

• Every living being has a potential to become God.

• Hence Jains do not have one God, but Jain Gods are innumerable and their number is continuously increasing as more living beings attain liberation.

Hence, option(c) is correct.

• Hoysala architecture is the building style developed under the rule of the Hoysala Empire between the 11th and 14th centuries, mostly concentrated in southern Karnataka. Hoysala temples are sometimes called hybrid or vesara as their unique style seems neither completely Dravida nor Nagara, but somewhere in between.

• The most characteristic feature of these temples is that they grow extremely complex with so many projecting angles emerging from the previously straightforward square temple, that the plan of these temples starts looking like a star, and is thus known as a stellate-plan.

• The Hoysala temples, instead of consisting of a simple inner chamber with its pillared hall, contain multiple shrines grouped around a central pillared hall and laid out in the shape of an intricately-designed star.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the status of women in the early Vedic age: Women held an esteemed position in society and were regarded as the mistresses of the household. Women had authority over slaves and actively participated in religious ceremonies alongside their husbands. Some learned ladies composed mantras and attained the rank of Rishis. Women enjoyed legal independence and autonomy. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: c Explanation: In the early Vedic age women enjoyed an honoured place in the society. The wife was the mistress of the household and authority over the slaves. In all religious ceremonies she participated with her husband. Parda system was not prevalent in the society. Sati system was also not prevalent in the Vedic society. Hence, statement 1 and 2 are correct. The education of girls was not neglected. The Rig-Veda mentions the names of some learned ladies like Viswavara, Apala and Ghosa who composed mantras and attained the rank of Rishis. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Monogamy was the general Practice. Polygamy was, practiced and it was confined only to Rings and chiefs. Remarriage of widows was permitted. The women were not independent persons in the eye of the law. They had to remain under the protecting care of their male relations. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: In the early Vedic age women enjoyed an honoured place in the society. The wife was the mistress of the household and authority over the slaves. In all religious ceremonies she participated with her husband. Parda system was not prevalent in the society. Sati system was also not prevalent in the Vedic society. Hence, statement 1 and 2 are correct. The education of girls was not neglected. The Rig-Veda mentions the names of some learned ladies like Viswavara, Apala and Ghosa who composed mantras and attained the rank of Rishis. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Monogamy was the general Practice. Polygamy was, practiced and it was confined only to Rings and chiefs. Remarriage of widows was permitted. The women were not independent persons in the eye of the law. They had to remain under the protecting care of their male relations. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the status of women in the early Vedic age:

• Women held an esteemed position in society and were regarded as the mistresses of the household.

• Women had authority over slaves and actively participated in religious ceremonies alongside their husbands.

• Some learned ladies composed mantras and attained the rank of Rishis.

• Women enjoyed legal independence and autonomy.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

• In the early Vedic age women enjoyed an honoured place in the society. The wife was the mistress of the household and authority over the slaves. In all religious ceremonies she participated with her husband. Parda system was not prevalent in the society. Sati system was also not prevalent in the Vedic society. Hence, statement 1 and 2 are correct.

• The education of girls was not neglected. The Rig-Veda mentions the names of some learned ladies like Viswavara, Apala and Ghosa who composed mantras and attained the rank of Rishis. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Monogamy was the general Practice. Polygamy was, practiced and it was confined only to Rings and chiefs.

• Remarriage of widows was permitted. The women were not independent persons in the eye of the law. They had to remain under the protecting care of their male relations. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

• Monogamy was the general Practice. Polygamy was, practiced and it was confined only to Rings and chiefs.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Chola art and architecture: The Brihadeswara temple in Tanjore, built by Rajendra Chola, stands as an outstanding example of Chola architecture. The Darasuram Temple, built by Rajaraja II houses intricate fresco paintings. The cire-perdu or ‘lost-wax’ process was used for casting Chola bronze sculptures, making them highly durable and intricate. How many of the above given statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: a Explanation: The Brihadeswara temple in Tanjore also known as Rajarajeswara temple, was not built by Rajendra Chola but by his father, Rajaraja Chola Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. The Darasuram Temple, also known as Airavatesvara temple, was not built by Rajendra Chola II. While the temple is indeed a testimony of Chola architecture, it is not particularly known for housing intricate fresco paintings. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. The cire-perdue or ‘lost-wax’ process was indeed used for casting Chola bronze sculptures, allowing for intricate detailing and resulting in highly durable sculptures. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (a) is correct. Modi released Tamil classic ‘Thirukkural’ in Tok Pisin language. Tok Pisin is the official language of Papua New Guinea. Thirukkural, also known as Kural, is a highly celebrated work in Tamil literature and is one of the Patiren-kirkkanakku (“Eighteen Ethical Works”). It is commonly attributed to the poet Tiruvalluvar, believed to have lived in India during the 6th century CE. Hence, statement 1 is correct. While traditionally associated with the third Sangam, linguistic analysis suggests a later date of composition around 450 to 500 CE. Thirukkural consists of 133 sections, each containing 10 couplets, and is divided into three books: aram (virtue), porul (government and society), and kamam (love). Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Thirukkural is renowned for its ethical and moral teachings, known for its universality and secular nature. Hence, statement 3 is correct. The first section of Thirukkural opens with praise for God, rain, renunciation, and a virtuous life, emphasizing human sympathy and community welfare. The porul section presents an ideal state and links good citizenship with virtuous private life, while the kamam section explores themes of love, both secret and marital. Thirukkural promotes non-violence, moral vegetarianism, truthfulness, self-restraint, gratitude, hospitality, kindness, and various other virtues. It covers a wide array of social and political topics, including governance, justice, agriculture, education, and abstinence from alcohol and intoxicants. Thirukkural also delves into aspects of friendship, love, sexual union, and domestic life, offering comprehensive insights into human existence and relationships. It covers both profound and mundane aspects of life. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: The Brihadeswara temple in Tanjore also known as Rajarajeswara temple, was not built by Rajendra Chola but by his father, Rajaraja Chola Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. The Darasuram Temple, also known as Airavatesvara temple, was not built by Rajendra Chola II. While the temple is indeed a testimony of Chola architecture, it is not particularly known for housing intricate fresco paintings. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. The cire-perdue or ‘lost-wax’ process was indeed used for casting Chola bronze sculptures, allowing for intricate detailing and resulting in highly durable sculptures. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Chola art and architecture:

• The Brihadeswara temple in Tanjore, built by Rajendra Chola, stands as an outstanding example of Chola architecture.

• The Darasuram Temple, built by Rajaraja II houses intricate fresco paintings.

• The cire-perdu or ‘lost-wax’ process was used for casting Chola bronze sculptures, making them highly durable and intricate.

How many of the above given statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Explanation:

• The Brihadeswara temple in Tanjore also known as Rajarajeswara temple, was not built by Rajendra Chola but by his father, Rajaraja Chola Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• The Darasuram Temple, also known as Airavatesvara temple, was not built by Rajendra Chola II. While the temple is indeed a testimony of Chola architecture, it is not particularly known for housing intricate fresco paintings. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• The cire-perdue or ‘lost-wax’ process was indeed used for casting Chola bronze sculptures, allowing for intricate detailing and resulting in highly durable sculptures. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Hence, option (a) is correct. Modi released Tamil classic ‘Thirukkural’ in Tok Pisin language. Tok Pisin is the official language of Papua New Guinea.

• Thirukkural, also known as Kural, is a highly celebrated work in Tamil literature and is one of the Patiren-kirkkanakku (“Eighteen Ethical Works”).

• It is commonly attributed to the poet Tiruvalluvar, believed to have lived in India during the 6th century CE. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• While traditionally associated with the third Sangam, linguistic analysis suggests a later date of composition around 450 to 500 CE.

• Thirukkural consists of 133 sections, each containing 10 couplets, and is divided into three books: aram (virtue), porul (government and society), and kamam (love). Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• Thirukkural is renowned for its ethical and moral teachings, known for its universality and secular nature. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• The first section of Thirukkural opens with praise for God, rain, renunciation, and a virtuous life, emphasizing human sympathy and community welfare.

• The porul section presents an ideal state and links good citizenship with virtuous private life, while the kamam section explores themes of love, both secret and marital.

• Thirukkural promotes non-violence, moral vegetarianism, truthfulness, self-restraint, gratitude, hospitality, kindness, and various other virtues.

• It covers a wide array of social and political topics, including governance, justice, agriculture, education, and abstinence from alcohol and intoxicants.

• Thirukkural also delves into aspects of friendship, love, sexual union, and domestic life, offering comprehensive insights into human existence and relationships. It covers both profound and mundane aspects of life. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• The Brihadeswara temple in Tanjore also known as Rajarajeswara temple, was not built by Rajendra Chola but by his father, Rajaraja Chola Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Which of the following statements are true regarding the administration of the Chola Empire? Chola rulers appointed Brahmins as spiritual preceptors or rajagurus and granted them huge estates of land. The Chola Empire was divided into mandalams, valanadus, and nadus, and every village was autonomous. Local administration in Chola villages was managed by an executive committee elected by drawing lots or rotation. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Answer: b Explanation: Chola rulers did appoint Brahmins as spiritual preceptors or rajagurus, and they often granted them significant estates of land as endowments. This practice was common in medieval South Indian society. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The Chola Empire indeed had administrative divisions called mandalams, valanadus, and nadus. However, it is not accurate to say that every village was autonomous. While there were autonomous villages, they were not present in every nadu, and the extent of autonomy varied. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. The affairs of the village were managed by an executive committees to which educated person owning property were elected by drawing lots or by rotation. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Chola rulers did appoint Brahmins as spiritual preceptors or rajagurus, and they often granted them significant estates of land as endowments. This practice was common in medieval South Indian society. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The Chola Empire indeed had administrative divisions called mandalams, valanadus, and nadus. However, it is not accurate to say that every village was autonomous. While there were autonomous villages, they were not present in every nadu, and the extent of autonomy varied. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. The affairs of the village were managed by an executive committees to which educated person owning property were elected by drawing lots or by rotation. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 7. Question

Which of the following statements are true regarding the administration of the Chola Empire?

• Chola rulers appointed Brahmins as spiritual preceptors or rajagurus and granted them huge estates of land.

• The Chola Empire was divided into mandalams, valanadus, and nadus, and every village was autonomous.

• Local administration in Chola villages was managed by an executive committee elected by drawing lots or rotation.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) 1 and 2 only

• b) 1 and 3 only

• c) 2 and 3 only

• d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

• Chola rulers did appoint Brahmins as spiritual preceptors or rajagurus, and they often granted them significant estates of land as endowments. This practice was common in medieval South Indian society. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The Chola Empire indeed had administrative divisions called mandalams, valanadus, and nadus. However, it is not accurate to say that every village was autonomous. While there were autonomous villages, they were not present in every nadu, and the extent of autonomy varied. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• The affairs of the village were managed by an executive committees to which educated person owning property were elected by drawing lots or by rotation. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• The affairs of the village were managed by an executive committees to which educated person owning property were elected by drawing lots or by rotation. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Which of the following statements regarding Sengol are correct? It was a Chola tradition where the transfer of power from one king to another was sanctified and blessed by a high ruler using ‘sengol’. The word Sengol is derived from the Tamil word “Semmai”, which means “Righteousness”. The Sengol is 5 feet long and has a lion carved on top. It is the first time a Prime Minister of India has used Sengol, symbolically. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 and 2 only b) 1,2 and 4 only c) 2 ,3 and 4 only d) 1,2,3 and 4 Correct Answer: a Explanation: On May 28th 2023, the Prime Minister inaugurated the new Parliament building, which is part of the Central Vista redevelopment project. One of the highlights of the event was the installation of a historic golden sceptre, called Sengol, near the Speaker’s seat.The Sengol is a symbol of India’s independence and sovereignty, as well as its cultural heritage and diversity. It originated from the Chola dynasty which was one of the most important and powerful dynasties in the history of India. It was used as a symbol of power transfer from one king to his successor. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The sceptre is known as Sengol — derived from the Tamil word “Semmai”, meaning “Righteousness”. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The Sengol is 5 feet long and carries a golden orb at the top. The orb has a carving of Nandi. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. The current The Sengol wasmade by two men — Vummidi Ethirajulu and Vummidi Sudhakar, both are still alive and remember making it. The golden sceptre was crafted by Vummidi Bangaru Chetty, a famous jeweller in the Madras Presidency. Before independence from the British rule in 1947, the then Viceroy – Lord Mountbatten posed a question to the to-be Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru: “What is the ceremony that should be followed to symbolise the transfer of power from British to Indian hands?” PM Nehru then consulted C. Rajagopalachari.Rajaji suggested that the Chola model of handing over the Sengol sceptre could be adopted as a suitable ceremony for India’s independence. The Sengol sceptre was presented to PM Nehru on August 14, 1947. The ‘Sengol’, received in 1947 by Jawaharlal Nehru to represent the transfer of power from the British and kept in a museum in Allahabad. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: On May 28th 2023, the Prime Minister inaugurated the new Parliament building, which is part of the Central Vista redevelopment project. One of the highlights of the event was the installation of a historic golden sceptre, called Sengol, near the Speaker’s seat.The Sengol is a symbol of India’s independence and sovereignty, as well as its cultural heritage and diversity. It originated from the Chola dynasty which was one of the most important and powerful dynasties in the history of India. It was used as a symbol of power transfer from one king to his successor. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The sceptre is known as Sengol — derived from the Tamil word “Semmai”, meaning “Righteousness”. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The Sengol is 5 feet long and carries a golden orb at the top. The orb has a carving of Nandi. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. The current The Sengol wasmade by two men — Vummidi Ethirajulu and Vummidi Sudhakar, both are still alive and remember making it. The golden sceptre was crafted by Vummidi Bangaru Chetty, a famous jeweller in the Madras Presidency. Before independence from the British rule in 1947, the then Viceroy – Lord Mountbatten posed a question to the to-be Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru: “What is the ceremony that should be followed to symbolise the transfer of power from British to Indian hands?” PM Nehru then consulted C. Rajagopalachari.Rajaji suggested that the Chola model of handing over the Sengol sceptre could be adopted as a suitable ceremony for India’s independence. The Sengol sceptre was presented to PM Nehru on August 14, 1947. The ‘Sengol’, received in 1947 by Jawaharlal Nehru to represent the transfer of power from the British and kept in a museum in Allahabad. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 8. Question

Which of the following statements regarding Sengol are correct?

• It was a Chola tradition where the transfer of power from one king to another was sanctified and blessed by a high ruler using ‘sengol’.

• The word Sengol is derived from the Tamil word “Semmai”, which means “Righteousness”.

• The Sengol is 5 feet long and has a lion carved on top.

• It is the first time a Prime Minister of India has used Sengol, symbolically.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• a) 1 and 2 only

• b) 1,2 and 4 only

• c) 2 ,3 and 4 only

• d) 1,2,3 and 4

Explanation:

• On May 28th 2023, the Prime Minister inaugurated the new Parliament building, which is part of the Central Vista redevelopment project.

• One of the highlights of the event was the installation of a historic golden sceptre, called Sengol, near the Speaker’s seat.The Sengol is a symbol of India’s independence and sovereignty, as well as its cultural heritage and diversity.

• It originated from the Chola dynasty which was one of the most important and powerful dynasties in the history of India. It was used as a symbol of power transfer from one king to his successor. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The sceptre is known as Sengol — derived from the Tamil word “Semmai”, meaning “Righteousness”. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• The Sengol is 5 feet long and carries a golden orb at the top. The orb has a carving of Nandi. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• The current The Sengol wasmade by two men — Vummidi Ethirajulu and Vummidi Sudhakar, both are still alive and remember making it.

• The golden sceptre was crafted by Vummidi Bangaru Chetty, a famous jeweller in the Madras Presidency.

• Before independence from the British rule in 1947, the then Viceroy – Lord Mountbatten posed a question to the to-be Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru: “What is the ceremony that should be followed to symbolise the transfer of power from British to Indian hands?”

• PM Nehru then consulted C. Rajagopalachari.Rajaji suggested that the Chola model of handing over the Sengol sceptre could be adopted as a suitable ceremony for India’s independence.

• The Sengol sceptre was presented to PM Nehru on August 14, 1947. The ‘Sengol’, received in 1947 by Jawaharlal Nehru to represent the transfer of power from the British and kept in a museum in Allahabad. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• On May 28th 2023, the Prime Minister inaugurated the new Parliament building, which is part of the Central Vista redevelopment project.

• The sceptre is known as Sengol — derived from the Tamil word “Semmai”, meaning “Righteousness”. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• The Sengol is 5 feet long and carries a golden orb at the top. The orb has a carving of Nandi. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• The current The Sengol wasmade by two men — Vummidi Ethirajulu and Vummidi Sudhakar, both are still alive and remember making it.

• The golden sceptre was crafted by Vummidi Bangaru Chetty, a famous jeweller in the Madras Presidency.

• PM Nehru then consulted C. Rajagopalachari.Rajaji suggested that the Chola model of handing over the Sengol sceptre could be adopted as a suitable ceremony for India’s independence.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Which of the following is NOT a part of Bhaskaracharya’s main work Siddhanta Shiromani? a) Bijaganita b) Grahaganita c) Khandakhadyaka d) Goladhyaya Correct Answer: c Explanation: Indian astronomer and mathematician Bhaskaracharya (Bhaskara II) lived in the 12th century AD. Bhaskaracharya was appointed director of the astronomical observatory in Ujjain, which at the time was India’s most important mathematical hub. His principal work, Siddhanta-Siromani, is broken into four sections that are often regarded as four distinct works and are titled Lilavati, Bijagaita, Grahagaita, and Goladhyaya. Lilavati is a comprehensive exposition of arithmetic, algebra, geometry, mensuration, number theory and related topics. This textbook deals mainly with ’Arithmetic’ and consists of 279 verses written in Sanskrit in poetic form (terse verses) with a prose commentary. Bijaganita: This is one of the volumes of Bhaskaracarya’s main work, Siddhanta Shiromani. It deals with algebraic equations. Grahaganita: Another volume of Siddhanta Shiromani, Grahaganita, deals with astronomy and celestial mechanics. Goladhyaya: This volume of Siddhanta Shiromani focuses on spherical trigonometry and astronomy related to the celestial sphere. Khandakhadyak is not a part of Bhaskaracarya’s main work. It is the work of astronomer and mathematician Brahmagupta lived from 598 to 668 CE. The Khandakhadyaka, a more practical text, and the theoretical Brahmasphutasiddhanta are two of his early works on mathematics and astronomy. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Indian astronomer and mathematician Bhaskaracharya (Bhaskara II) lived in the 12th century AD. Bhaskaracharya was appointed director of the astronomical observatory in Ujjain, which at the time was India’s most important mathematical hub. His principal work, Siddhanta-Siromani, is broken into four sections that are often regarded as four distinct works and are titled Lilavati, Bijagaita, Grahagaita, and Goladhyaya. Lilavati is a comprehensive exposition of arithmetic, algebra, geometry, mensuration, number theory and related topics. This textbook deals mainly with ’Arithmetic’ and consists of 279 verses written in Sanskrit in poetic form (terse verses) with a prose commentary. Bijaganita: This is one of the volumes of Bhaskaracarya’s main work, Siddhanta Shiromani. It deals with algebraic equations. Grahaganita: Another volume of Siddhanta Shiromani, Grahaganita, deals with astronomy and celestial mechanics. Goladhyaya: This volume of Siddhanta Shiromani focuses on spherical trigonometry and astronomy related to the celestial sphere. Khandakhadyak is not a part of Bhaskaracarya’s main work. It is the work of astronomer and mathematician Brahmagupta lived from 598 to 668 CE. The Khandakhadyaka, a more practical text, and the theoretical Brahmasphutasiddhanta are two of his early works on mathematics and astronomy. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 9. Question

Which of the following is NOT a part of Bhaskaracharya’s main work Siddhanta Shiromani?

• a) Bijaganita

• b) Grahaganita

• c) Khandakhadyaka

• d) Goladhyaya

Explanation:

• Indian astronomer and mathematician Bhaskaracharya (Bhaskara II) lived in the 12th century AD. Bhaskaracharya was appointed director of the astronomical observatory in Ujjain, which at the time was India’s most important mathematical hub.

• His principal work, Siddhanta-Siromani, is broken into four sections that are often regarded as four distinct works and are titled Lilavati, Bijagaita, Grahagaita, and Goladhyaya.

• Lilavati is a comprehensive exposition of arithmetic, algebra, geometry, mensuration, number theory and related topics. This textbook deals mainly with ’Arithmetic’ and consists of 279 verses written in Sanskrit in poetic form (terse verses) with a prose commentary.

• Bijaganita: This is one of the volumes of Bhaskaracarya’s main work, Siddhanta Shiromani. It deals with algebraic equations.

• Grahaganita: Another volume of Siddhanta Shiromani, Grahaganita, deals with astronomy and celestial mechanics.

• Goladhyaya: This volume of Siddhanta Shiromani focuses on spherical trigonometry and astronomy related to the celestial sphere.

• Khandakhadyak is not a part of Bhaskaracarya’s main work. It is the work of astronomer and mathematician Brahmagupta lived from 598 to 668 CE. The Khandakhadyaka, a more practical text, and the theoretical Brahmasphutasiddhanta are two of his early works on mathematics and astronomy.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

• His principal work, Siddhanta-Siromani, is broken into four sections that are often regarded as four distinct works and are titled Lilavati, Bijagaita, Grahagaita, and Goladhyaya.

• Bijaganita: This is one of the volumes of Bhaskaracarya’s main work, Siddhanta Shiromani. It deals with algebraic equations.

• Grahaganita: Another volume of Siddhanta Shiromani, Grahaganita, deals with astronomy and celestial mechanics.

• Goladhyaya: This volume of Siddhanta Shiromani focuses on spherical trigonometry and astronomy related to the celestial sphere.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes the term ‘antyaja’ often used during medieval India? a) A type of tax collected on slaughtering of animals b) A caste that provided menial services to the wealthy c) A guild of wealthy and powerful merchants d) Sex slaves who were owned by the wealthy Correct Answer: b Explanation: The society and religion of the Rashtrakuta kingdom were similar to the conditions of the 10th-century social and religious conditions of India. Al-Biruni, the famed 10th-century Persian Indologist mentions sixteen castes, including the four basic castes of Brahmins, Kshatriya, Vaishya and Shudras. Lower castes: The Antyajas caste provided many menial services to the wealthy. Brahmins enjoyed the highest status in Rashtrakuta society; only those Kshatriyas in the Sat-Kshatriya sub-caste (noble Kshatriyas) were higher in status. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: The society and religion of the Rashtrakuta kingdom were similar to the conditions of the 10th-century social and religious conditions of India. Al-Biruni, the famed 10th-century Persian Indologist mentions sixteen castes, including the four basic castes of Brahmins, Kshatriya, Vaishya and Shudras. Lower castes: The Antyajas caste provided many menial services to the wealthy. Brahmins enjoyed the highest status in Rashtrakuta society; only those Kshatriyas in the Sat-Kshatriya sub-caste (noble Kshatriyas) were higher in status. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 10. Question

Which of the following best describes the term ‘antyaja’ often used during medieval India?

• a) A type of tax collected on slaughtering of animals

• b) A caste that provided menial services to the wealthy

• c) A guild of wealthy and powerful merchants

• d) Sex slaves who were owned by the wealthy

Explanation:

• The society and religion of the Rashtrakuta kingdom were similar to the conditions of the 10th-century social and religious conditions of India.

• Al-Biruni, the famed 10th-century Persian Indologist mentions sixteen castes, including the four basic castes of Brahmins, Kshatriya, Vaishya and Shudras.

• Lower castes: The Antyajas caste provided many menial services to the wealthy. Brahmins enjoyed the highest status in Rashtrakuta society; only those Kshatriyas in the Sat-Kshatriya sub-caste (noble Kshatriyas) were higher in status.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• The society and religion of the Rashtrakuta kingdom were similar to the conditions of the 10th-century social and religious conditions of India.

• Al-Biruni, the famed 10th-century Persian Indologist mentions sixteen castes, including the four basic castes of Brahmins, Kshatriya, Vaishya and Shudras.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: As per the Ramsar Convention, a wetland exclusively refers to an area of marsh or peatland that is natural with permanent static water. The Ramsar Convention provides that wetlands include riparian and coastal zones adjacent to the wetlands and islands. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: As per the Ramsar Convention, a wetland is defined as ‘areas of marsh, fen, peatland or water, whether natural or artificial, permanent or temporary, with water that is static or flowing, fresh, brackish or salt, including areas of marine water the depth of which at low tides does not exceed six meters’. Statement 2 is correct: In addition, to protect coherent sites, the Convention provides that ‘wetlands may include riparian and coastal zones adjacent to the wetlands, and islands or bodies of marine water deeper than six meters at low tide lying within the wetlands.’ There exist marine and coastal wetlands such as open coasts, coral reefs, estuaries, tidal flats, mangroves and coastal lagoons; Inland wetlands such as permanent and seasonal rivers, inland deltas and floodplains, permanent and seasonal lakes and ponds, marshes, freshwater swamps and peatlands as well as Human-made wetlands such as reservoirs, barrages and dams, aquaculture ponds, excavations and burrow pits, wastewater treatment ponds, irrigation canals, ditches, irrigation ponds and rice fields. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: As per the Ramsar Convention, a wetland is defined as ‘areas of marsh, fen, peatland or water, whether natural or artificial, permanent or temporary, with water that is static or flowing, fresh, brackish or salt, including areas of marine water the depth of which at low tides does not exceed six meters’. Statement 2 is correct: In addition, to protect coherent sites, the Convention provides that ‘wetlands may include riparian and coastal zones adjacent to the wetlands, and islands or bodies of marine water deeper than six meters at low tide lying within the wetlands.’ There exist marine and coastal wetlands such as open coasts, coral reefs, estuaries, tidal flats, mangroves and coastal lagoons; Inland wetlands such as permanent and seasonal rivers, inland deltas and floodplains, permanent and seasonal lakes and ponds, marshes, freshwater swamps and peatlands as well as Human-made wetlands such as reservoirs, barrages and dams, aquaculture ponds, excavations and burrow pits, wastewater treatment ponds, irrigation canals, ditches, irrigation ponds and rice fields.

#### 11. Question

Consider the following statements:

• As per the Ramsar Convention, a wetland exclusively refers to an area of marsh or peatland that is natural with permanent static water.

• The Ramsar Convention provides that wetlands include riparian and coastal zones adjacent to the wetlands and islands.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: As per the Ramsar Convention, a wetland is defined as ‘areas of marsh, fen, peatland or water, whether natural or artificial, permanent or temporary, with water that is static or flowing, fresh, brackish or salt, including areas of marine water the depth of which at low tides does not exceed six meters’.

Statement 2 is correct: In addition, to protect coherent sites, the Convention provides that ‘wetlands may include riparian and coastal zones adjacent to the wetlands, and islands or bodies of marine water deeper than six meters at low tide lying within the wetlands.’

There exist marine and coastal wetlands such as open coasts, coral reefs, estuaries, tidal flats, mangroves and coastal lagoons; Inland wetlands such as permanent and seasonal rivers, inland deltas and floodplains, permanent and seasonal lakes and ponds, marshes, freshwater swamps and peatlands as well as Human-made wetlands such as reservoirs, barrages and dams, aquaculture ponds, excavations and burrow pits, wastewater treatment ponds, irrigation canals, ditches, irrigation ponds and rice fields.

Answer: B

Explanation:

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Atmospheric Rivers: These are narrow regions in the atmosphere that transport water vapours outside of the tropics. All the atmospheric rivers are weak systems that provide beneficial rain crucial to the water supply. The Pineapple Express is a strong atmospheric river capable of bringing moisture from the tropics. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Atmospheric rivers are relatively long, narrow regions in the atmosphere – like rivers in the sky – that transport most of the water vapour outside of the tropics. While atmospheric rivers can vary in size and strength, the average atmospheric river carries an amount of water vapour roughly equivalent to the average flow of water at the mouth of the Mississippi River. Statement 2 is not correct: When the atmospheric rivers make landfall, they often release this water vapor in the form of rain or snow. These events can disrupt travel, induce mudslides and cause catastrophic damage to life and property. Not all atmospheric rivers cause damage; some are weak systems that often provide beneficial rain or snow that is crucial to the water supply. Atmospheric rivers are a key feature in the global water cycle and are closely tied to both water supply and flood risks — particularly in the western United States. Statement 3 is correct: A well-known example is the “Pineapple Express,” a strong atmospheric river that is capable of bringing moisture from the tropics near Hawaii over to the U.S. West Coast. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Atmospheric rivers are relatively long, narrow regions in the atmosphere – like rivers in the sky – that transport most of the water vapour outside of the tropics. While atmospheric rivers can vary in size and strength, the average atmospheric river carries an amount of water vapour roughly equivalent to the average flow of water at the mouth of the Mississippi River. Statement 2 is not correct: When the atmospheric rivers make landfall, they often release this water vapor in the form of rain or snow. These events can disrupt travel, induce mudslides and cause catastrophic damage to life and property. Not all atmospheric rivers cause damage; some are weak systems that often provide beneficial rain or snow that is crucial to the water supply. Atmospheric rivers are a key feature in the global water cycle and are closely tied to both water supply and flood risks — particularly in the western United States. Statement 3 is correct: A well-known example is the “Pineapple Express,” a strong atmospheric river that is capable of bringing moisture from the tropics near Hawaii over to the U.S. West Coast.

#### 12. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Atmospheric Rivers:

• These are narrow regions in the atmosphere that transport water vapours outside of the tropics.

• All the atmospheric rivers are weak systems that provide beneficial rain crucial to the water supply.

• The Pineapple Express is a strong atmospheric river capable of bringing moisture from the tropics.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Atmospheric rivers are relatively long, narrow regions in the atmosphere – like rivers in the sky – that transport most of the water vapour outside of the tropics.

While atmospheric rivers can vary in size and strength, the average atmospheric river carries an amount of water vapour roughly equivalent to the average flow of water at the mouth of the Mississippi River.

Statement 2 is not correct: When the atmospheric rivers make landfall, they often release this water vapor in the form of rain or snow.

These events can disrupt travel, induce mudslides and cause catastrophic damage to life and property.

Not all atmospheric rivers cause damage; some are weak systems that often provide beneficial rain or snow that is crucial to the water supply.

Atmospheric rivers are a key feature in the global water cycle and are closely tied to both water supply and flood risks — particularly in the western United States.

Statement 3 is correct: A well-known example is the “Pineapple Express,” a strong atmospheric river that is capable of bringing moisture from the tropics near Hawaii over to the U.S. West Coast.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Atmospheric rivers are relatively long, narrow regions in the atmosphere – like rivers in the sky – that transport most of the water vapour outside of the tropics.

Statement 2 is not correct: When the atmospheric rivers make landfall, they often release this water vapor in the form of rain or snow.

These events can disrupt travel, induce mudslides and cause catastrophic damage to life and property.

Not all atmospheric rivers cause damage; some are weak systems that often provide beneficial rain or snow that is crucial to the water supply.

Atmospheric rivers are a key feature in the global water cycle and are closely tied to both water supply and flood risks — particularly in the western United States.

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Rotating black holes have a unique feature called ergosphere which is a region outside their outer event horizon. A black hole is formed when a massive star runs out of fuel to fuse leaving its core to implode under its weight to form a black hole. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Rotating black holes (a.k.a. Kerr black holes) have a unique feature: a region outside their outer event horizon called the ergosphere. Statement 2 is correct: A black hole is formed when a massive star runs out of fuel to fuse, blows up, leaving its core to implode under its weight to form a black hole. The centre of a black hole is a gravitational singularity, a point where the general theory of relativity breaks down, i.e. where its predictions don’t apply. A black hole’s great gravitational pull emerges as if from the singularity. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Rotating black holes (a.k.a. Kerr black holes) have a unique feature: a region outside their outer event horizon called the ergosphere. Statement 2 is correct: A black hole is formed when a massive star runs out of fuel to fuse, blows up, leaving its core to implode under its weight to form a black hole. The centre of a black hole is a gravitational singularity, a point where the general theory of relativity breaks down, i.e. where its predictions don’t apply. A black hole’s great gravitational pull emerges as if from the singularity.

#### 13. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Rotating black holes have a unique feature called ergosphere which is a region outside their outer event horizon.

• A black hole is formed when a massive star runs out of fuel to fuse leaving its core to implode under its weight to form a black hole.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Rotating black holes (a.k.a. Kerr black holes) have a unique feature: a region outside their outer event horizon called the ergosphere.

Statement 2 is correct: A black hole is formed when a massive star runs out of fuel to fuse, blows up, leaving its core to implode under its weight to form a black hole.

The centre of a black hole is a gravitational singularity, a point where the general theory of relativity breaks down, i.e. where its predictions don’t apply. A black hole’s great gravitational pull emerges as if from the singularity.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Rotating black holes (a.k.a. Kerr black holes) have a unique feature: a region outside their outer event horizon called the ergosphere.

Statement 2 is correct: A black hole is formed when a massive star runs out of fuel to fuse, blows up, leaving its core to implode under its weight to form a black hole.

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Which one of the following schemes/Missions in India has two sub-schemes namely ‘Sambal’ and ‘Samarthya’ under its ambit? (a) Mission Shakti (b) PM SHRI Scheme (c) Waste to Wealth Mision (d) PM Suryodaya Yojana Correct Answer: A Explanation: Option (a) is correct: ‘Mission Shakti’ is a scheme in mission mode aimed at strengthening interventions for women safety, security and empowerment. It seeks to realise the Government s commitment for women-led development by addressing issues affecting women on a life-cycle continuum basis and by making them equal partners in nation-building through convergence and citizen-ownership. Mission Shakti has two sub-schemes – ‘Sambal’ and ‘Samarthya’. In the Sambal subscheme, which is for safety and security of women, the existing scheme of One Stop Centre (OSC), Women Helpline (WHL), Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) have been included with modifications and a new component of Nari Adalat – women collective has been added. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Option (a) is correct: ‘Mission Shakti’ is a scheme in mission mode aimed at strengthening interventions for women safety, security and empowerment. It seeks to realise the Government s commitment for women-led development by addressing issues affecting women on a life-cycle continuum basis and by making them equal partners in nation-building through convergence and citizen-ownership. Mission Shakti has two sub-schemes – ‘Sambal’ and ‘Samarthya’. In the Sambal subscheme, which is for safety and security of women, the existing scheme of One Stop Centre (OSC), Women Helpline (WHL), Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) have been included with modifications and a new component of Nari Adalat – women collective has been added.

#### 14. Question

Which one of the following schemes/Missions in India has two sub-schemes namely ‘Sambal’ and ‘Samarthya’ under its ambit?

• (a) Mission Shakti

• (b) PM SHRI Scheme

• (c) Waste to Wealth Mision

• (d) PM Suryodaya Yojana

Answer: A

Explanation:

Option (a) is correct: ‘Mission Shakti’ is a scheme in mission mode aimed at strengthening interventions for women safety, security and empowerment.

It seeks to realise the Government s commitment for women-led development by addressing issues affecting women on a life-cycle continuum basis and by making them equal partners in nation-building through convergence and citizen-ownership.

Mission Shakti has two sub-schemes – ‘Sambal’ and ‘Samarthya’. In the Sambal subscheme, which is for safety and security of women, the existing scheme of One Stop Centre (OSC), Women Helpline (WHL), Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) have been included with modifications and a new component of Nari Adalat – women collective has been added.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Option (a) is correct: ‘Mission Shakti’ is a scheme in mission mode aimed at strengthening interventions for women safety, security and empowerment.

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the D2M Technology: It is based on the convergence of broadband and broadcast using which mobile phones can receive terrestrial digital televisions. It is used to directly broadcast content related to citizen-centric information to counter fake news and issue emergency alerts. Which of the statements given above is/are *not correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: D Explanation: The technology, called ‘direct-to-mobile’ (D2M) broadcasting, promises to improve consumption of broadband and utilisation of spectrum. Statement 1 is correct: The technology is based on the convergence of broadband and broadcast, using which mobile phones can receive terrestrial digital TV. It would be similar to how people listen to FM radio on their phones, where a receiver within the phone can tap into radio frequencies. Statement 2 is correct: Using D2M, multimedia content can also be beamed to phones directly. The idea behind the technology is that it can possibly be used to directly broadcast content related to citizen-centric information and can be further used to counter fake news, issue emergency alerts and offer assistance in disaster management, among other things. Apart from that, it can be used to broadcast live news, sports etc. on mobile phones. More so, the content should stream without any buffering whatsoever while not consuming any internet data. Incorrect Answer: D Explanation: The technology, called ‘direct-to-mobile’ (D2M) broadcasting, promises to improve consumption of broadband and utilisation of spectrum. Statement 1 is correct: The technology is based on the convergence of broadband and broadcast, using which mobile phones can receive terrestrial digital TV. It would be similar to how people listen to FM radio on their phones, where a receiver within the phone can tap into radio frequencies. Statement 2 is correct:* Using D2M, multimedia content can also be beamed to phones directly. The idea behind the technology is that it can possibly be used to directly broadcast content related to citizen-centric information and can be further used to counter fake news, issue emergency alerts and offer assistance in disaster management, among other things. Apart from that, it can be used to broadcast live news, sports etc. on mobile phones. More so, the content should stream without any buffering whatsoever while not consuming any internet data.

#### 15. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the D2M Technology:

• It is based on the convergence of broadband and broadcast using which mobile phones can receive terrestrial digital televisions.

• It is used to directly broadcast content related to citizen-centric information to counter fake news and issue emergency alerts.

Which of the statements given above is/are *not* correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Explanation:

The technology, called ‘direct-to-mobile’ (D2M) broadcasting, promises to improve consumption of broadband and utilisation of spectrum.

Statement 1 is correct: The technology is based on the convergence of broadband and broadcast, using which mobile phones can receive terrestrial digital TV. It would be similar to how people listen to FM radio on their phones, where a receiver within the phone can tap into radio frequencies.

Statement 2 is correct: Using D2M, multimedia content can also be beamed to phones directly. The idea behind the technology is that it can possibly be used to directly broadcast content related to citizen-centric information and can be further used to counter fake news, issue emergency alerts and offer assistance in disaster management, among other things.

Apart from that, it can be used to broadcast live news, sports etc. on mobile phones. More so, the content should stream without any buffering whatsoever while not consuming any internet data.

Answer: D

Explanation:

The technology, called ‘direct-to-mobile’ (D2M) broadcasting, promises to improve consumption of broadband and utilisation of spectrum.

Apart from that, it can be used to broadcast live news, sports etc. on mobile phones. More so, the content should stream without any buffering whatsoever while not consuming any internet data.

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points With reference to the Atmospheric Research Testbed (ART), consider the following statements: The facility aims to conduct ground-based observations of weather. The first phase of India’s Atmospheric Research Testbed in Central India (ART-CI) was inaugurated in Gujarat. The testbed was funded by the Ministry of Science and Technology. The facility will not provide observations during the southwest monsoon season from June to September. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Answer: (a) Recently, the first phase of India’s Atmospheric Research Testbed in Central India (ART-CI) was inaugurated at Silkheda in Sehore district, located about 50 km northwest of Bhopal in Madhya Pradesh. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. It was funded by the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES). Hence, statement 3 is not correct. The facility will house 25 cutting-edge meteorological instruments for studying critical cloud dynamics linked with monsoons over central India’s Monsoon Core Zone (MCZ). The ART is an open-field, focused observational and analytical research programme at Silkheda. The facility intends to conduct ground-based observations of weather parameters such as temperature and wind speeds, as well as in-situ (on-site) observations of transient synoptic systems such as low-pressure areas and depressions that form in the Bay of Bengal during the southwest monsoon season, which runs from June to September. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 4 is not correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Incorrect Answer: (a) Recently, the first phase of India’s Atmospheric Research Testbed in Central India (ART-CI) was inaugurated at Silkheda in Sehore district, located about 50 km northwest of Bhopal in Madhya Pradesh. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. It was funded by the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES). Hence, statement 3 is not correct. The facility will house 25 cutting-edge meteorological instruments for studying critical cloud dynamics linked with monsoons over central India’s Monsoon Core Zone (MCZ). The ART is an open-field, focused observational and analytical research programme at Silkheda. The facility intends to conduct ground-based observations of weather parameters such as temperature and wind speeds, as well as in-situ (on-site) observations of transient synoptic systems such as low-pressure areas and depressions that form in the Bay of Bengal during the southwest monsoon season, which runs from June to September. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 4 is not correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

#### 16. Question

With reference to the Atmospheric Research Testbed (ART), consider the following statements:

• The facility aims to conduct ground-based observations of weather.

• The first phase of India’s Atmospheric Research Testbed in Central India (ART-CI) was inaugurated in Gujarat.

• The testbed was funded by the Ministry of Science and Technology.

• The facility will not provide observations during the southwest monsoon season from June to September.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Answer: (a)

Recently, the first phase of India’s Atmospheric Research Testbed in Central India (ART-CI) was inaugurated at Silkheda in Sehore district, located about 50 km northwest of Bhopal in Madhya Pradesh. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

It was funded by the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES). Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

The facility will house 25 cutting-edge meteorological instruments for studying critical cloud dynamics linked with monsoons over central India’s Monsoon Core Zone (MCZ).

The ART is an open-field, focused observational and analytical research programme at Silkheda.

The facility intends to conduct ground-based observations of weather parameters such as temperature and wind speeds, as well as in-situ (on-site) observations of transient synoptic systems such as low-pressure areas and depressions that form in the Bay of Bengal during the southwest monsoon season, which runs from June to September. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 4 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Answer: (a)

It was funded by the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES). Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

The facility will house 25 cutting-edge meteorological instruments for studying critical cloud dynamics linked with monsoons over central India’s Monsoon Core Zone (MCZ).

The ART is an open-field, focused observational and analytical research programme at Silkheda.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points With reference to the Model Code of Conduct (MCC), consider the following statements: It is a set of guidelines issued to regulate political parties and candidates prior to elections. It does not govern speeches and campaigning. It ensures to conduct of free and fair elections in the country. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: (b) The Model Code of Conduct (MCC) will come into immediate effect after the announcement of schedule for the upcoming Lok Sabha and state Assembly elections. The MCC is a collection of guidelines published to govern political parties and candidates ahead of elections. Hence, statement 1 is correct. It regulates speeches, campaigning, the content of election manifestos, behaviour at polling booths, and other aspects to ensure that the country’s elections are free and fair. Hence, statement 2 is not correct and statement 3 is correct. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Incorrect Answer: (b) The Model Code of Conduct (MCC) will come into immediate effect after the announcement of schedule for the upcoming Lok Sabha and state Assembly elections. The MCC is a collection of guidelines published to govern political parties and candidates ahead of elections. Hence, statement 1 is correct. It regulates speeches, campaigning, the content of election manifestos, behaviour at polling booths, and other aspects to ensure that the country’s elections are free and fair. Hence, statement 2 is not correct and statement 3 is correct. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

#### 17. Question

With reference to the Model Code of Conduct (MCC), consider the following statements:

• It is a set of guidelines issued to regulate political parties and candidates prior to elections.

• It does not govern speeches and campaigning.

• It ensures to conduct of free and fair elections in the country.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: (b)

The Model Code of Conduct (MCC) will come into immediate effect after the announcement of schedule for the upcoming Lok Sabha and state Assembly elections.

The MCC is a collection of guidelines published to govern political parties and candidates ahead of elections. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

It regulates speeches, campaigning, the content of election manifestos, behaviour at polling booths, and other aspects to ensure that the country’s elections are free and fair. Hence, statement 2 is not correct and statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Answer: (b)

The Model Code of Conduct (MCC) will come into immediate effect after the announcement of schedule for the upcoming Lok Sabha and state Assembly elections.

The MCC is a collection of guidelines published to govern political parties and candidates ahead of elections. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points With reference to the High-level Committee (HLC) on “One Nation, One Election”, consider the following statements: In the event of a hung House, a no-confidence motion, or any such event, fresh elections should be held to constitute the new Lok Sabha or state Assembly. The committee recommended the preparation of single electoral roll and electoral photo identity cards. The Constitution should be amended to enable simultaneous elections. How many of the above are the recommendations of the High-level Committee (HLC)? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: (c) The High-level Committee (HLC) on One Nation, One Election submitted its report to President Droupadi Murmu. Simultaneous elections, popularly referred to as “One Nation, One Election”, means holding elections to Lok Sabha, all state Legislative Assemblies, and urban and rural local bodies (municipalities and panchayats) at the same time. According to the FAQs, the committee has made the following recommendations: (i) Amending the Constitution The Constitution should be amended to enable simultaneous elections in two steps: (a) In the first step, simultaneous elections will be held to Lok Sabha and State Assemblies. For this, no ratification by the states will be required for the constitutional amendment. (b) In the second step, elections to municipalities and the panchayats will be synchronised with elections to Lok Sabha and state Assemblies in such a way that local body elections are held within 100 days of the elections to Lok Sabha and state Assemblies. This will require ratification by not less than one-half of the states. (ii) Single electoral roll and Election ID The Constitution should be amended to allow the Election Commission of India to prepare a single electoral roll and electoral photo identity cards for use in elections to all three levels of government in consultation with state election commissions. These amendments will require ratification by at least half of the states. (iii) In case of hung house, etc In the event of a hung House, a no-confidence motion, or any such event, fresh elections should be held to constitute the new Lok Sabha or state Assembly for the unexpired term of the House. (iv) Meeting Logistics Requirements The committee has recommended that for meeting logistical requirements, the Election Commission of India will plan and estimate in advance, in consultation with the State Election Commissions, and take steps for the deployment of manpower, polling personnel, security forces, EVMs/VVPATs, etc., so that free and fair simultaneous elections are held in all the three tiers of the government. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Incorrect Answer: (c) The High-level Committee (HLC) on One Nation, One Election submitted its report to President Droupadi Murmu. Simultaneous elections, popularly referred to as “One Nation, One Election”, means holding elections to Lok Sabha, all state Legislative Assemblies, and urban and rural local bodies (municipalities and panchayats) at the same time. According to the FAQs, the committee has made the following recommendations: (i) Amending the Constitution The Constitution should be amended to enable simultaneous elections in two steps: (a) In the first step, simultaneous elections will be held to Lok Sabha and State Assemblies. For this, no ratification by the states will be required for the constitutional amendment. (b) In the second step, elections to municipalities and the panchayats will be synchronised with elections to Lok Sabha and state Assemblies in such a way that local body elections are held within 100 days of the elections to Lok Sabha and state Assemblies. This will require ratification by not less than one-half of the states. (ii) Single electoral roll and Election ID The Constitution should be amended to allow the Election Commission of India to prepare a single electoral roll and electoral photo identity cards for use in elections to all three levels of government in consultation with state election commissions. These amendments will require ratification by at least half of the states. (iii) In case of hung house, etc In the event of a hung House, a no-confidence motion, or any such event, fresh elections should be held to constitute the new Lok Sabha or state Assembly for the unexpired term of the House. (iv) Meeting Logistics Requirements The committee has recommended that for meeting logistical requirements, the Election Commission of India will plan and estimate in advance, in consultation with the State Election Commissions, and take steps for the deployment of manpower, polling personnel, security forces, EVMs/VVPATs, etc., so that free and fair simultaneous elections are held in all the three tiers of the government. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

#### 18. Question

With reference to the High-level Committee (HLC) on “One Nation, One Election”, consider the following statements:

• In the event of a hung House, a no-confidence motion, or any such event, fresh elections should be held to constitute the new Lok Sabha or state Assembly.

• The committee recommended the preparation of single electoral roll and electoral photo identity cards.

• The Constitution should be amended to enable simultaneous elections.

How many of the above are the recommendations of the High-level Committee (HLC)?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: (c)

The High-level Committee (HLC) on One Nation, One Election submitted its report to President Droupadi Murmu.

Simultaneous elections, popularly referred to as “One Nation, One Election”, means holding elections to Lok Sabha, all state Legislative Assemblies, and urban and rural local bodies (municipalities and panchayats) at the same time.

According to the FAQs, the committee has made the following recommendations:

(i) Amending the Constitution

The Constitution should be amended to enable simultaneous elections in two steps:

(a) In the first step, simultaneous elections will be held to Lok Sabha and State Assemblies. For this, no ratification by the states will be required for the constitutional amendment.

(b) In the second step, elections to municipalities and the panchayats will be synchronised with elections to Lok Sabha and state Assemblies in such a way that local body elections are held within 100 days of the elections to Lok Sabha and state Assemblies. This will require ratification by not less than one-half of the states.

(ii) Single electoral roll and Election ID

The Constitution should be amended to allow the Election Commission of India to prepare a single electoral roll and electoral photo identity cards for use in elections to all three levels of government in consultation with state election commissions. These amendments will require ratification by at least half of the states.

(iii) In case of hung house, etc

In the event of a hung House, a no-confidence motion, or any such event, fresh elections should be held to constitute the new Lok Sabha or state Assembly for the unexpired term of the House.

(iv) Meeting Logistics Requirements

The committee has recommended that for meeting logistical requirements, the Election Commission of India will plan and estimate in advance, in consultation with the State Election Commissions, and take steps for the deployment of manpower, polling personnel, security forces, EVMs/VVPATs, etc., so that free and fair simultaneous elections are held in all the three tiers of the government.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Answer: (c)

The High-level Committee (HLC) on One Nation, One Election submitted its report to President Droupadi Murmu.

According to the FAQs, the committee has made the following recommendations:

(i) Amending the Constitution

The Constitution should be amended to enable simultaneous elections in two steps:

(a) In the first step, simultaneous elections will be held to Lok Sabha and State Assemblies. For this, no ratification by the states will be required for the constitutional amendment.

(ii) Single electoral roll and Election ID

(iii) In case of hung house, etc

In the event of a hung House, a no-confidence motion, or any such event, fresh elections should be held to constitute the new Lok Sabha or state Assembly for the unexpired term of the House.

(iv) Meeting Logistics Requirements

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points With reference to the Scalable Instructable Multiworld Agent (SIMA), consider the following statements: It follows natural language instructions to perform tasks across video game environments. It is not capable of learning and adapting. It is capable of doing different kinds of tasks and understands and follows instructions in all sorts of virtual environments. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: (b) Google DeepMind revealed its latest AI gaming agent called SIMA or Scalable Instructable Multiworld Agent, which can follow natural language instructions to perform tasks across video game environments. SIMA takes us a step closer to AI which can intelligently collaborate with humans not only in games but also in doing tasks in real-world environments. Hence, statement 1 is correct. SIMA can be called a generalist AI Agent that is capable of doing different kinds of tasks. It can accomplish tasks or solve challenges assigned to it. It is capable of doing different kinds of tasks and understands and follows instructions in all sorts of virtual environments. Hence, statement 3 is correct. SIMA “understands” your commands as it has been trained to process human language. So when you ask it to build a castle or find the treasure chest, it understands exactly what these commands mean. It is capable of learning and adapting. SIMA does this through the interactions it has with the user. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Incorrect Answer: (b) Google DeepMind revealed its latest AI gaming agent called SIMA or Scalable Instructable Multiworld Agent, which can follow natural language instructions to perform tasks across video game environments. SIMA takes us a step closer to AI which can intelligently collaborate with humans not only in games but also in doing tasks in real-world environments. Hence, statement 1 is correct. SIMA can be called a generalist AI Agent that is capable of doing different kinds of tasks. It can accomplish tasks or solve challenges assigned to it. It is capable of doing different kinds of tasks and understands and follows instructions in all sorts of virtual environments. Hence, statement 3 is correct. SIMA “understands” your commands as it has been trained to process human language. So when you ask it to build a castle or find the treasure chest, it understands exactly what these commands mean. It is capable of learning and adapting. SIMA does this through the interactions it has with the user. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

#### 19. Question

With reference to the Scalable Instructable Multiworld Agent (SIMA), consider the following statements:

• It follows natural language instructions to perform tasks across video game environments.

• It is not capable of learning and adapting.

• It is capable of doing different kinds of tasks and understands and follows instructions in all sorts of virtual environments.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: (b)

Google DeepMind revealed its latest AI gaming agent called SIMA or Scalable Instructable Multiworld Agent, which can follow natural language instructions to perform tasks across video game environments.

SIMA takes us a step closer to AI which can intelligently collaborate with humans not only in games but also in doing tasks in real-world environments. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

SIMA can be called a generalist AI Agent that is capable of doing different kinds of tasks. It can accomplish tasks or solve challenges assigned to it.

It is capable of doing different kinds of tasks and understands and follows instructions in all sorts of virtual environments. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

SIMA “understands” your commands as it has been trained to process human language. So when you ask it to build a castle or find the treasure chest, it understands exactly what these commands mean.

It is capable of learning and adapting. SIMA does this through the interactions it has with the user. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Answer: (b)

SIMA takes us a step closer to AI which can intelligently collaborate with humans not only in games but also in doing tasks in real-world environments. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

SIMA can be called a generalist AI Agent that is capable of doing different kinds of tasks. It can accomplish tasks or solve challenges assigned to it.

It is capable of doing different kinds of tasks and understands and follows instructions in all sorts of virtual environments. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

It is capable of learning and adapting. SIMA does this through the interactions it has with the user. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points With reference to the India’s indigenous Fast Breeder Reactor (FBR), consider the following statements: It is a project in which electricity is produced from plutonium in nuclear power reactors. Bharatiya Nabhikiya Vidyut Nigam Ltd. was incorporated to build and operate the Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR). It is located in Karnataka. When commissioned, India will be the second country after Russia to have a commercial operating FBR. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Answer: (b) The vital second stage of India’s three-stage nuclear programme got a boost with the commencement of ‘core loading’ at the country’s first indigenous Fast Breeder Reactor (FBR) at Kalpakkam, Tamil Nadu. Hence, statement 3 is not correct. Core loading is the process of placing nuclear fuel assemblies inside the core of a nuclear reactor. It is a project in which electricity is produced from uranium in nuclear power reactors. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. The project has been supported by successive governments as a step towards India gaining comprehensive skills that span the full nuclear fuel cycle, which is the process by which uranium is converted into energy in nuclear power reactors. The project to create an FBR was started twenty years ago. In 2003, when Atal Bihari Vajpayee was Prime Minister, the Bharatiya Nabhikiya Vidyut Nigam Ltd or BHAVINI was incorporated to build and operate India’s most advanced nuclear reactor, the Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR). Hence, statement 2 is correct. Once commissioned, India will be the second country after Russia to have a commercial operating FBR. Hence, statement 4 is correct. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Incorrect Answer: (b) The vital second stage of India’s three-stage nuclear programme got a boost with the commencement of ‘core loading’ at the country’s first indigenous Fast Breeder Reactor (FBR) at Kalpakkam, Tamil Nadu. Hence, statement 3 is not correct. Core loading is the process of placing nuclear fuel assemblies inside the core of a nuclear reactor. It is a project in which electricity is produced from uranium in nuclear power reactors. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. The project has been supported by successive governments as a step towards India gaining comprehensive skills that span the full nuclear fuel cycle, which is the process by which uranium is converted into energy in nuclear power reactors. The project to create an FBR was started twenty years ago. In 2003, when Atal Bihari Vajpayee was Prime Minister, the Bharatiya Nabhikiya Vidyut Nigam Ltd or BHAVINI was incorporated to build and operate India’s most advanced nuclear reactor, the Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR). Hence, statement 2 is correct. Once commissioned, India will be the second country after Russia to have a commercial operating FBR. Hence, statement 4 is correct. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

#### 20. Question

With reference to the India’s indigenous Fast Breeder Reactor (FBR), consider the following statements:

• It is a project in which electricity is produced from plutonium in nuclear power reactors.

• Bharatiya Nabhikiya Vidyut Nigam Ltd. was incorporated to build and operate the Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR).

• It is located in Karnataka.

• When commissioned, India will be the second country after Russia to have a commercial operating FBR.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Answer: (b)

The vital second stage of India’s three-stage nuclear programme got a boost with the commencement of ‘core loading’ at the country’s first indigenous Fast Breeder Reactor (FBR) at Kalpakkam, Tamil Nadu. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Core loading is the process of placing nuclear fuel assemblies inside the core of a nuclear reactor.

It is a project in which electricity is produced from uranium in nuclear power reactors. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

The project has been supported by successive governments as a step towards India gaining comprehensive skills that span the full nuclear fuel cycle, which is the process by which uranium is converted into energy in nuclear power reactors. The project to create an FBR was started twenty years ago.

In 2003, when Atal Bihari Vajpayee was Prime Minister, the Bharatiya Nabhikiya Vidyut Nigam Ltd or BHAVINI was incorporated to build and operate India’s most advanced nuclear reactor, the Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR). Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Once commissioned, India will be the second country after Russia to have a commercial operating FBR. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Answer: (b)

Core loading is the process of placing nuclear fuel assemblies inside the core of a nuclear reactor.

It is a project in which electricity is produced from uranium in nuclear power reactors. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

Once commissioned, India will be the second country after Russia to have a commercial operating FBR. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points The Sela tunnel which would provide all-weather connectivity was in the news. It will connect: (a) Srinagar and Kargil (b) Ladakh and Srinagar (c) Tezpur to Tawang (d) Guwahati to Gangtok Correct Answer: (c) The Sela Tunnel, which was “dedicated to the nation” by Prime Minister Narendra Modi is a key border infrastructure project as it connects Guwahati to the strategic Tawang sector round-the-year, thus aiding faster military movement to the Line of Actual Control (LAC). It is constructed by the Border Roads Organisation (BRO) at an altitude of around 13,000 feet and a cost of Rs 825 crore. The tunnel was aimed at providing all-weather connectivity to Tawang across Sela Pass on the Balipara-Chariduar-Tawang (BCT) Road, whichconnects Tezpur in Assam to Tawang in Arunachal Pradesh. At present, two separate routes connect Tezpur and Tawang: Balipara-Chariduar-Tawang (BCT) and Orang-Kalaktang-Shergaon-Rupa-Tenga (OKSRT), which meet at Sela Pass and merge into one route to Tawang. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Incorrect Answer: (c) The Sela Tunnel, which was “dedicated to the nation” by Prime Minister Narendra Modi is a key border infrastructure project as it connects Guwahati to the strategic Tawang sector round-the-year, thus aiding faster military movement to the Line of Actual Control (LAC). It is constructed by the Border Roads Organisation (BRO) at an altitude of around 13,000 feet and a cost of Rs 825 crore. The tunnel was aimed at providing all-weather connectivity to Tawang across Sela Pass on the Balipara-Chariduar-Tawang (BCT) Road, whichconnects Tezpur in Assam to Tawang in Arunachal Pradesh. At present, two separate routes connect Tezpur and Tawang: Balipara-Chariduar-Tawang (BCT) and Orang-Kalaktang-Shergaon-Rupa-Tenga (OKSRT), which meet at Sela Pass and merge into one route to Tawang. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

#### 21. Question

The Sela tunnel which would provide all-weather connectivity was in the news. It will connect:

• (a) Srinagar and Kargil

• (b) Ladakh and Srinagar

• (c) Tezpur to Tawang

• (d) Guwahati to Gangtok

Answer: (c)

The Sela Tunnel, which was “dedicated to the nation” by Prime Minister Narendra Modi is a key border infrastructure project as it connects Guwahati to the strategic Tawang sector round-the-year, thus aiding faster military movement to the Line of Actual Control (LAC).

• It is constructed by the Border Roads Organisation (BRO) at an altitude of around 13,000 feet and a cost of Rs 825 crore.

• The tunnel was aimed at providing all-weather connectivity to Tawang across Sela Pass on the Balipara-Chariduar-Tawang (BCT) Road, whichconnects Tezpur in Assam to Tawang in Arunachal Pradesh.

• At present, two separate routes connect Tezpur and Tawang: Balipara-Chariduar-Tawang (BCT) and Orang-Kalaktang-Shergaon-Rupa-Tenga (OKSRT), which meet at Sela Pass and merge into one route to Tawang.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Answer: (c)

• It is constructed by the Border Roads Organisation (BRO) at an altitude of around 13,000 feet and a cost of Rs 825 crore.

• The tunnel was aimed at providing all-weather connectivity to Tawang across Sela Pass on the Balipara-Chariduar-Tawang (BCT) Road, whichconnects Tezpur in Assam to Tawang in Arunachal Pradesh.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The State is ready to set up its first Integrated Aqua Park. 95 percent of State’s population is estimated to be fish consumers. The State needs to import fish from adjoining Bangladesh and other Indian states to fullfil its need. The above-mentioned statements refer to which state? (a) Tripura (b) Meghalaya (c) Assam (d) Mizoram Correct Answer: (a) The Tripura government has announced plans to establish the state’s first Integrated Aqua Park in Unakoti district, with the goal of increasing fish output and job prospects in the sector. The central government approved funds for the first phase of the project under the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY). According to the minister, 1.15 lakh metric tonnes of fish must be consumed yearly in Tripura, where 95% of the population is considered to be fish consumers. Despite producing 80,000 metric tonnes of fish on its own, Tripura still needs to import 30,000 metric tonnes of fish from neighbouring Bangladesh and other Indian states. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Incorrect Answer: (a) The Tripura government has announced plans to establish the state’s first Integrated Aqua Park in Unakoti district, with the goal of increasing fish output and job prospects in the sector. The central government approved funds for the first phase of the project under the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY). According to the minister, 1.15 lakh metric tonnes of fish must be consumed yearly in Tripura, where 95% of the population is considered to be fish consumers. Despite producing 80,000 metric tonnes of fish on its own, Tripura still needs to import 30,000 metric tonnes of fish from neighbouring Bangladesh and other Indian states. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

#### 22. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The State is ready to set up its first Integrated Aqua Park.

• 95 percent of State’s population is estimated to be fish consumers.

• The State needs to import fish from adjoining Bangladesh and other Indian states to fullfil its need.

The above-mentioned statements refer to which state?

• (a) Tripura

• (b) Meghalaya

• (d) Mizoram

Answer: (a)

The Tripura government has announced plans to establish the state’s first Integrated Aqua Park in Unakoti district, with the goal of increasing fish output and job prospects in the sector.

The central government approved funds for the first phase of the project under the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY).

According to the minister, 1.15 lakh metric tonnes of fish must be consumed yearly in Tripura, where 95% of the population is considered to be fish consumers.

Despite producing 80,000 metric tonnes of fish on its own, Tripura still needs to import 30,000 metric tonnes of fish from neighbouring Bangladesh and other Indian states.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Answer: (a)

The Tripura government has announced plans to establish the state’s first Integrated Aqua Park in Unakoti district, with the goal of increasing fish output and job prospects in the sector.

The central government approved funds for the first phase of the project under the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY).

According to the minister, 1.15 lakh metric tonnes of fish must be consumed yearly in Tripura, where 95% of the population is considered to be fish consumers.

Despite producing 80,000 metric tonnes of fish on its own, Tripura still needs to import 30,000 metric tonnes of fish from neighbouring Bangladesh and other Indian states.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points With reference to the Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicle technology, consider the following statements: MIRV-equipped missiles can accommodate multiple warheads, each of which can be programmed to strike a separate target. It can penetrate missile defence systems. These missiles can be released from the missile at different speeds and in different directions. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: c) MIRV (Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicle) technology is the capability that allows multiple warheads to be loaded on a single missile delivery system and programmed to hit different targets. — MIRV-equipped missiles can accommodate multiple warheads, each of which can be programmed to strike a separate target. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The number of warheads that a missile can carry depends on its design, weight, size, range and other parameters. MIRV-equipped missiles can be made to carry decoy warheads to confuse the defence system. It has the ability to penetrate missile defence systems. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The Agni series of short, medium, and intercontinental range ballistic missiles, developed in-house by the DRDO, will benefit from the incorporation of MIRV technology. Agni missiles are the primary land-based delivery vehicles for India’s nuclear arsenal. MIRVs can carry multiple warheads. Warheads on MIRVed missiles can be released from the missile at different speeds and in different directions. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Incorrect Answer: c) MIRV (Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicle) technology is the capability that allows multiple warheads to be loaded on a single missile delivery system and programmed to hit different targets. — MIRV-equipped missiles can accommodate multiple warheads, each of which can be programmed to strike a separate target. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The number of warheads that a missile can carry depends on its design, weight, size, range and other parameters. MIRV-equipped missiles can be made to carry decoy warheads to confuse the defence system. It has the ability to penetrate missile defence systems. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The Agni series of short, medium, and intercontinental range ballistic missiles, developed in-house by the DRDO, will benefit from the incorporation of MIRV technology. Agni missiles are the primary land-based delivery vehicles for India’s nuclear arsenal. MIRVs can carry multiple warheads. Warheads on MIRVed missiles can be released from the missile at different speeds and in different directions. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

#### 23. Question

With reference to the Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicle technology, consider the following statements:

• MIRV-equipped missiles can accommodate multiple warheads, each of which can be programmed to strike a separate target.

• It can penetrate missile defence systems.

• These missiles can be released from the missile at different speeds and in different directions.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: c)

MIRV (Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicle) technology is the capability that allows multiple warheads to be loaded on a single missile delivery system and programmed to hit different targets.

— MIRV-equipped missiles can accommodate multiple warheads, each of which can be programmed to strike a separate target. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The number of warheads that a missile can carry depends on its design, weight, size, range and other parameters.

• MIRV-equipped missiles can be made to carry decoy warheads to confuse the defence system. It has the ability to penetrate missile defence systems. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• The Agni series of short, medium, and intercontinental range ballistic missiles, developed in-house by the DRDO, will benefit from the incorporation of MIRV technology. Agni missiles are the primary land-based delivery vehicles for India’s nuclear arsenal.

• MIRVs can carry multiple warheads. Warheads on MIRVed missiles can be released from the missile at different speeds and in different directions. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Answer: c)

— MIRV-equipped missiles can accommodate multiple warheads, each of which can be programmed to strike a separate target. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The number of warheads that a missile can carry depends on its design, weight, size, range and other parameters.

• MIRV-equipped missiles can be made to carry decoy warheads to confuse the defence system. It has the ability to penetrate missile defence systems. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• MIRVs can carry multiple warheads. Warheads on MIRVed missiles can be released from the missile at different speeds and in different directions. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points India has recently signed a trade agreement with the four-nation European Free Trade Association (EFTA). Which of the following countries is not part of this intergovernmental grouping? (a) Norway (b) Switzerland (c) Iceland (d) Denmark Correct Answer: (d) India signed a trade agreement with the four-nation European Free Trade Association (EFTA), an intergovernmental grouping of Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway and Switzerland. The deal brings in $100 billion in investment over 15 years, with the EFTA looking at joint ventures that will help India diversify imports away from China. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. Incorrect Answer: (d) India signed a trade agreement with the four-nation European Free Trade Association (EFTA), an intergovernmental grouping of Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway and Switzerland. The deal brings in $100 billion in investment over 15 years, with the EFTA looking at joint ventures that will help India diversify imports away from China. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

#### 24. Question

India has recently signed a trade agreement with the four-nation European Free Trade Association (EFTA). Which of the following countries is not part of this intergovernmental grouping?

• (a) Norway

• (b) Switzerland

• (c) Iceland

• (d) Denmark

Answer: (d)

India signed a trade agreement with the four-nation European Free Trade Association (EFTA), an intergovernmental grouping of Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway and Switzerland.

The deal brings in $100 billion in investment over 15 years, with the EFTA looking at joint ventures that will help India diversify imports away from China.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Answer: (d)

India signed a trade agreement with the four-nation European Free Trade Association (EFTA), an intergovernmental grouping of Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway and Switzerland.

The deal brings in $100 billion in investment over 15 years, with the EFTA looking at joint ventures that will help India diversify imports away from China.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Rhodamine B, recently seen in news, is a: (a) Dye (b) Election ink (c) Explosive (d) Leukaemia medicine Correct Answer: (a) The Karnataka government recently “banned” the use of harmful colouring agents in gobhi manchurian and cotton candy, with a violation attracting imprisonment of up to 7 years and fine of up to Rs 10 lakhs, Karnataka health minister Dinesh Gundu Rao said. “Consumption of snacks containing these artificial colours may pose long-term health risks, including cancer. Therefore, the health department has taken this necessary action,” he said. Artificial colouring was found in 107 of the 171 gobhi manchurian samples tested by the state government, and in 15 of the 25 cotton candy samples tested. “Based on these findings, an order has been issued banning the use of prohibited artificial colours, including Rhodamine B, in Gobi Manchurian and cotton candy,” the minister said. What is Rhodamine B? While the minister said that Karnataka was banning the use of the colouring agent Rhodamine B, it is not one of the permitted food colouring agents under the country’s food safety regulation. It is a chemical colour used in dyeing clothes, paper, leather, printing, and plastics. It is used to give red and pink colours. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Incorrect Answer: (a) The Karnataka government recently “banned” the use of harmful colouring agents in gobhi manchurian and cotton candy, with a violation attracting imprisonment of up to 7 years and fine of up to Rs 10 lakhs, Karnataka health minister Dinesh Gundu Rao said. “Consumption of snacks containing these artificial colours may pose long-term health risks, including cancer. Therefore, the health department has taken this necessary action,” he said. Artificial colouring was found in 107 of the 171 gobhi manchurian samples tested by the state government, and in 15 of the 25 cotton candy samples tested. “Based on these findings, an order has been issued banning the use of prohibited artificial colours, including Rhodamine B, in Gobi Manchurian and cotton candy,” the minister said. What is Rhodamine B? While the minister said that Karnataka was banning the use of the colouring agent Rhodamine B, it is not one of the permitted food colouring agents under the country’s food safety regulation. It is a chemical colour used in dyeing clothes, paper, leather, printing, and plastics. It is used to give red and pink colours. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

#### 25. Question

Rhodamine B, recently seen in news, is a:

• (b) Election ink

• (c) Explosive

• (d) Leukaemia medicine

Answer: (a)

The Karnataka government recently “banned” the use of harmful colouring agents in gobhi manchurian and cotton candy, with a violation attracting imprisonment of up to 7 years and fine of up to Rs 10 lakhs, Karnataka health minister Dinesh Gundu Rao said.

• “Consumption of snacks containing these artificial colours may pose long-term health risks, including cancer. Therefore, the health department has taken this necessary action,” he said.

• Artificial colouring was found in 107 of the 171 gobhi manchurian samples tested by the state government, and in 15 of the 25 cotton candy samples tested. “Based on these findings, an order has been issued banning the use of prohibited artificial colours, including Rhodamine B, in Gobi Manchurian and cotton candy,” the minister said.

What is Rhodamine B?

While the minister said that Karnataka was banning the use of the colouring agent Rhodamine B, it is not one of the permitted food colouring agents under the country’s food safety regulation. It is a chemical colour used in dyeing clothes, paper, leather, printing, and plastics. It is used to give red and pink colours.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Answer: (a)

• “Consumption of snacks containing these artificial colours may pose long-term health risks, including cancer. Therefore, the health department has taken this necessary action,” he said.

What is Rhodamine B?

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points In Eastern culture, emotional experience and assessments of well-being are intimately connected to the relationships. How you are viewed by others is critical to how you view yourself. Westerners care about how they are regarded by others, but they are also encouraged to stand on their own feet and stick to their convictions. An independent self may have to endure the negative regard of others in the service of remaining true to the self. In contrast, eastern children are taught to develop “sympathetic relationships” with others. Sympathy here refers to an interdependent relationship in which individuals are expected to attune themselves empathically to the feeling and thoughts of others. The central theme of the passage is best described by, A. Taking others perspectives in account and serving their needs is prevalent in East B. Achievements are more important sources of happiness in Eastern cultures C. There is no freedom in Eastern cultures D. Democracy is not suitable for Eastern cultures Correct Answer: A All three in B C and D are absurd or outside the passage context, the passage talks about sympathy, thus A is correct that in east one is expected to understand and act as per others needs. Incorrect Answer: A All three in B C and D are absurd or outside the passage context, the passage talks about sympathy, thus A is correct that in east one is expected to understand and act as per others needs.

#### 26. Question

In Eastern culture, emotional experience and assessments of well-being are intimately connected to the relationships. How you are viewed by others is critical to how you view yourself. Westerners care about how they are regarded by others, but they are also encouraged to stand on their own feet and stick to their convictions. An independent self may have to endure the negative regard of others in the service of remaining true to the self. In contrast, eastern children are taught to develop “sympathetic relationships” with others. Sympathy here refers to an interdependent relationship in which individuals are expected to attune themselves empathically to the feeling and thoughts of others.

The central theme of the passage is best described by,

• A. Taking others perspectives in account and serving their needs is prevalent in East

• B. Achievements are more important sources of happiness in Eastern cultures

• C. There is no freedom in Eastern cultures

• D. Democracy is not suitable for Eastern cultures

All three in B C and D are absurd or outside the passage context, the passage talks about sympathy, thus A is correct that in east one is expected to understand and act as per others needs.

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points Most computer scientists think that consciousness is a characteristic that will emerge as technology develops. Some believe that consciousness involves accepting new information, storing and retrieving old information and cognitive processing of it all into perceptions and actions. If that’s right, then one day machines will indeed be the ultimate consciousness. They’ll be able to gather more information than a human, store more than many libraries, access vast databases in milliseconds and compute all of it into decisions more complex, and yet more logical, than any person ever could. On the other hand, there are physicists and philosophers who say there’s something more about human behaviour that cannot be computed by a machine. Creativity, for example, and the sense of freedom people possess don’t appear to come from logic or calculations. . Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the passage? a) In the coming years, artificial intelligence will make “conscious” machines b) Only humans can have consciousness c) Scientists and philosophers are still exploring and understanding what consciousness actually is d) Consciousness is an abstract concept Correct Solution: C. The passage does not give one particular definition of consciousness. It talks about different interpretations of the word and leaves the question unanswered at the end of it. Hence C. Incorrect Solution: C. The passage does not give one particular definition of consciousness. It talks about different interpretations of the word and leaves the question unanswered at the end of it. Hence C.

#### 27. Question

Most computer scientists think that consciousness is a characteristic that will emerge as technology develops. Some believe that consciousness involves accepting new information, storing and retrieving old information and cognitive processing of it all into perceptions and actions. If that’s right, then one day machines will indeed be the ultimate consciousness. They’ll be able to gather more information than a human, store more than many libraries, access vast databases in milliseconds and compute all of it into decisions more complex, and yet more logical, than any person ever could.

On the other hand, there are physicists and philosophers who say there’s something more about human behaviour that cannot be computed by a machine. Creativity, for example, and the sense of freedom people possess don’t appear to come from logic or calculations.

. Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the passage?

• a) In the coming years, artificial intelligence will make “conscious” machines

• b) Only humans can have consciousness

• c) Scientists and philosophers are still exploring and understanding what consciousness actually is

• d) Consciousness is an abstract concept

Solution: C.

The passage does not give one particular definition of consciousness. It talks about different interpretations of the word and leaves the question unanswered at the end of it. Hence C.

Solution: C.

The passage does not give one particular definition of consciousness. It talks about different interpretations of the word and leaves the question unanswered at the end of it. Hence C.

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points Tickets numbered 1 to 30 are mixed up and then a ticket is drawn at random. What is the probability that the ticket drawn has a number which is a multiple of 3 or 5? A.1/2 B.2/5 C.8/15 D.7/10 Correct Answer: Option D) 7/10 Explanation: Here, S = {1, 2, 3, 4, …., 29, 30}. Let E = event of getting a multiple of 3 or 5 = {3, 6 , 9, 12, 15, 18,21,24,27,30, 5, 10, 20,25}. P(E) = n(E) / n(S) = 14/20 =7/10 Incorrect Answer: Option D) 7/10 Explanation: Here, S = {1, 2, 3, 4, …., 29, 30}. Let E = event of getting a multiple of 3 or 5 = {3, 6 , 9, 12, 15, 18,21,24,27,30, 5, 10, 20,25}. P(E) = n(E) / n(S) = 14/20 =7/10

#### 28. Question

Tickets numbered 1 to 30 are mixed up and then a ticket is drawn at random. What is the probability that the ticket drawn has a number which is a multiple of 3 or 5?

Answer: Option D) 7/10

Explanation:

Here, S = {1, 2, 3, 4, …., 29, 30}.

Let E = event of getting a multiple of 3 or 5 = {3, 6 , 9, 12, 15, 18,21,24,27,30, 5, 10, 20,25}.

P(E) = n(E) / n(S) = 14/20 =7/10

Answer: Option D) 7/10

Explanation:

Here, S = {1, 2, 3, 4, …., 29, 30}.

Let E = event of getting a multiple of 3 or 5 = {3, 6 , 9, 12, 15, 18,21,24,27,30, 5, 10, 20,25}.

P(E) = n(E) / n(S) = 14/20 =7/10

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points A man has 9 friends, 4 boys and 5 girls. In how many ways can he invite them, if there have to be exactly 3girls in the invitees? a) 320 b) 160 c) 80 d) 200 Correct Answer: (b) 160 Out of the 5 girls,3 girls are to be invited. It can be done in ways = 10 ways. Now, nothing is given about the number of boys to be invited. He can invite one boy, two boys, three boys, all the four boys or no boy. Hence, the total number of ways of selection of boys = 24 = 16. So, the total number of ways of invitation = 10 × 16 = 160. Incorrect Answer: (b) 160 Out of the 5 girls,3 girls are to be invited. It can be done in ways = 10 ways. Now, nothing is given about the number of boys to be invited. He can invite one boy, two boys, three boys, all the four boys or no boy. Hence, the total number of ways of selection of boys = 24 = 16. So, the total number of ways of invitation = 10 × 16 = 160.

#### 29. Question

A man has 9 friends, 4 boys and 5 girls. In how many ways can he invite them, if there have to be exactly 3girls in the invitees?

Answer: (b) 160

Out of the 5 girls,3 girls are to be invited. It can be done in ways = 10 ways.

Now, nothing is given about the number of boys to be invited.

He can invite one boy, two boys, three boys, all the four boys or no boy.

Hence, the total number of ways of selection of boys = 24 = 16.

So, the total number of ways of invitation = 10 × 16 = 160.

Answer: (b) 160

Out of the 5 girls,3 girls are to be invited. It can be done in ways = 10 ways.

Now, nothing is given about the number of boys to be invited.

He can invite one boy, two boys, three boys, all the four boys or no boy.

Hence, the total number of ways of selection of boys = 24 = 16.

So, the total number of ways of invitation = 10 × 16 = 160.

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points How many numbers can be formed from 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 (without repetition), when the digit at the unit’s place must be greater than that in the ten’s place? (a) 54 (b) 60 (c) 17 (d) 2 × 4! Correct Answer: (b) 60 According to the question, the digit in the unit’s place should be greater than that in the ten’s place. Hence, if 5 is placed at the unit place, then remaining four places can be filled with any of the four digits 1, 2, 3 and 4, hence total numbers =4! However, if digit 4 is placed at the unit place then 5 cannot occupy the ten’s place. Hence, the digits at the ten’s place can be 1, 2 or 3. This can happen in 3 ways. The remaining 3 digits can be filled in the remaining three places in 3! ways. Hence, in all we have (3 × 3!) numbers ending in 4. Similarly, if we have 3 in the unit’s place, the ten’s place can be either 1 or 2. This can happen in 2 ways. The remaining 3 digits can be arranged in the remaining 3 places in 3! ways. Hence, we will have (2 × 3!) numbers ending in 3. Similarly, we have 3! numbers ending in 2 and no number ending with 1. Hence total number of numbers= 4! + 3 × 3! + 2 × 3! + 3! = 24 + 18 + 12 + 6 = 60. Incorrect Answer: (b) 60 According to the question, the digit in the unit’s place should be greater than that in the ten’s place. Hence, if 5 is placed at the unit place, then remaining four places can be filled with any of the four digits 1, 2, 3 and 4, hence total numbers =4! However, if digit 4 is placed at the unit place then 5 cannot occupy the ten’s place. Hence, the digits at the ten’s place can be 1, 2 or 3. This can happen in 3 ways. The remaining 3 digits can be filled in the remaining three places in 3! ways. Hence, in all we have (3 × 3!) numbers ending in 4. Similarly, if we have 3 in the unit’s place, the ten’s place can be either 1 or 2. This can happen in 2 ways. The remaining 3 digits can be arranged in the remaining 3 places in 3! ways. Hence, we will have (2 × 3!) numbers ending in 3. Similarly, we have 3! numbers ending in 2 and no number ending with 1. Hence total number of numbers= 4! + 3 × 3! + 2 × 3! + 3! = 24 + 18 + 12 + 6 = 60.

#### 30. Question

How many numbers can be formed from 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 (without repetition), when the digit at the unit’s place must be greater than that in the ten’s place?

• (d) 2 × 4!

Answer: (b) 60

According to the question, the digit in the unit’s place should be greater than that in the ten’s place.

Hence, if 5 is placed at the unit place, then remaining four places can be filled with any of the four digits 1, 2, 3 and 4, hence total numbers =4!

However, if digit 4 is placed at the unit place then 5 cannot occupy the ten’s place.

Hence, the digits at the ten’s place can be 1, 2 or 3. This can happen in 3 ways.

The remaining 3 digits can be filled in the remaining three places in 3! ways.

Hence, in all we have (3 × 3!) numbers ending in 4.

Similarly, if we have 3 in the unit’s place, the ten’s place can be either 1 or 2.

This can happen in 2 ways. The remaining 3 digits can be arranged in the remaining 3 places in 3! ways.

Hence, we will have (2 × 3!) numbers ending in 3. Similarly, we have 3! numbers ending in 2 and no number ending with 1.

Hence total number of numbers= 4! + 3 × 3! + 2 × 3! + 3! = 24 + 18 + 12 + 6 = 60.

Answer: (b) 60

According to the question, the digit in the unit’s place should be greater than that in the ten’s place.

Hence, if 5 is placed at the unit place, then remaining four places can be filled with any of the four digits 1, 2, 3 and 4, hence total numbers =4!

However, if digit 4 is placed at the unit place then 5 cannot occupy the ten’s place.

Hence, the digits at the ten’s place can be 1, 2 or 3. This can happen in 3 ways.

The remaining 3 digits can be filled in the remaining three places in 3! ways.

Hence, in all we have (3 × 3!) numbers ending in 4.

Similarly, if we have 3 in the unit’s place, the ten’s place can be either 1 or 2.

This can happen in 2 ways. The remaining 3 digits can be arranged in the remaining 3 places in 3! ways.

Hence, we will have (2 × 3!) numbers ending in 3. Similarly, we have 3! numbers ending in 2 and no number ending with 1.

Hence total number of numbers= 4! + 3 × 3! + 2 × 3! + 3! = 24 + 18 + 12 + 6 = 60.

Join our Official Telegram Channel HERE

Please subscribe to Our podcast channel HERE

Follow our Twitter Account HERE

Follow our Instagram ID HERE