DAY – 31 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – ANCIENT & MEDIEVAL INDIA, Subject-wise Test 1 , Textbook-based Test – 27 and Dec 2023 – Jan 2024 CA
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INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024
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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Which poetic style did Sanskrit poetess Shilabhattarika’s work adhere to? a) Vaidharbhi style b) Gaudi style c) Panchali style d) Lati style Correct Answer: c Explanation: Researchers at the Pune-based Bhandarkar Oriental Research Institute in Indiahave decoded copper plates revealing that the celebrated Sanskrit poetess Shilabhattarika was a daughter of the Chalukyan ruler Pulakeshin II. Previously, it was thought that she was the wife of the 8th-century Rashtrakuta ruler Dhruva As per some recent research, she lived in the 7th century AD rather than the current theory, which called her as the wife of the 8thcentury Rashtrakuta ruler, Dhruva. Shilabhattarika was a Sanskrit poetess. She is known to have written at least 46 poems on topics such as “love, morality, politics, nature, beauty, the seasons, insects, anger, indignation, codes of conduct, and the characteristic features of various kinds of heroines. However, most of her works are now lost. Only six of her short poems are surviving. She was known for her adherence to the Panchali style of poetry, which emphasizes a balance of words with their meanings. Shilabhattarika’s work inspired poets and artists throughout history, including the Sanskrit poet-critic Rajashekhara and the noted Marathi poetess Shanta Shelke. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Researchers at the Pune-based Bhandarkar Oriental Research Institute in Indiahave decoded copper plates revealing that the celebrated Sanskrit poetess Shilabhattarika was a daughter of the Chalukyan ruler Pulakeshin II. Previously, it was thought that she was the wife of the 8th-century Rashtrakuta ruler Dhruva As per some recent research, she lived in the 7th century AD rather than the current theory, which called her as the wife of the 8thcentury Rashtrakuta ruler, Dhruva. Shilabhattarika was a Sanskrit poetess. She is known to have written at least 46 poems on topics such as “love, morality, politics, nature, beauty, the seasons, insects, anger, indignation, codes of conduct, and the characteristic features of various kinds of heroines. However, most of her works are now lost. Only six of her short poems are surviving. She was known for her adherence to the Panchali style of poetry, which emphasizes a balance of words with their meanings. Shilabhattarika’s work inspired poets and artists throughout history, including the Sanskrit poet-critic Rajashekhara and the noted Marathi poetess Shanta Shelke. Hence, option (c) is correct.
#### 1. Question
Which poetic style did Sanskrit poetess Shilabhattarika’s work adhere to?
• a) Vaidharbhi style
• b) Gaudi style
• c) Panchali style
• d) Lati style
Explanation:
• Researchers at the Pune-based Bhandarkar Oriental Research Institute in Indiahave decoded copper plates revealing that the celebrated Sanskrit poetess Shilabhattarika was a daughter of the Chalukyan ruler Pulakeshin II.
• Previously, it was thought that she was the wife of the 8th-century Rashtrakuta ruler Dhruva
• As per some recent research, she lived in the 7th century AD rather than the current theory, which called her as the wife of the 8thcentury Rashtrakuta ruler, Dhruva.
• Shilabhattarika was a Sanskrit poetess.
• She is known to have written at least 46 poems on topics such as “love, morality, politics, nature, beauty, the seasons, insects, anger, indignation, codes of conduct, and the characteristic features of various kinds of heroines.
• However, most of her works are now lost. Only six of her short poems are surviving.
• She was known for her adherence to the Panchali style of poetry, which emphasizes a balance of words with their meanings.
• Shilabhattarika’s work inspired poets and artists throughout history, including the Sanskrit poet-critic Rajashekhara and the noted Marathi poetess Shanta Shelke.
• Hence, option (c) is correct.
Explanation:
• Researchers at the Pune-based Bhandarkar Oriental Research Institute in Indiahave decoded copper plates revealing that the celebrated Sanskrit poetess Shilabhattarika was a daughter of the Chalukyan ruler Pulakeshin II.
• Previously, it was thought that she was the wife of the 8th-century Rashtrakuta ruler Dhruva
• As per some recent research, she lived in the 7th century AD rather than the current theory, which called her as the wife of the 8thcentury Rashtrakuta ruler, Dhruva.
• Shilabhattarika was a Sanskrit poetess.
• She is known to have written at least 46 poems on topics such as “love, morality, politics, nature, beauty, the seasons, insects, anger, indignation, codes of conduct, and the characteristic features of various kinds of heroines.
• However, most of her works are now lost. Only six of her short poems are surviving.
• She was known for her adherence to the Panchali style of poetry, which emphasizes a balance of words with their meanings.
• Shilabhattarika’s work inspired poets and artists throughout history, including the Sanskrit poet-critic Rajashekhara and the noted Marathi poetess Shanta Shelke.
• Hence, option (c) is correct.
• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Consider the following: Neolithic Age Mesolithic Age Chalcolithic Age Palaeolithic Age Arrange the above in the correct chronological order: a) 4-2-1-3 b) 1-2-3-4 c) 2-3-1-4 d) 4-1-2-3 Correct Answer: a Explanation: Ancient history can be divided into different periods according to the tools used by people back then. Paleolithic Period (Old Stone Age): 500,000 BCE – 10,000 BCE Mesolithic Period (Late Stone Age): 10,000 BCE 6000 BCE Neolithic Period (New Stone Age): 6000BCE 1000 BCE Chalcolithic Period (Stone Copper Age): 3000 BCE 500 BCE Iron Age: 1500 BCE – 200 BCE The Paleolithic Age and Mesolithic Age were characterized by hunting and gathering activities. The characteristic feature of the Neolithic Age is agriculture, which is the food-producing stage. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Ancient history can be divided into different periods according to the tools used by people back then. Paleolithic Period (Old Stone Age): 500,000 BCE – 10,000 BCE Mesolithic Period (Late Stone Age): 10,000 BCE 6000 BCE Neolithic Period (New Stone Age): 6000BCE 1000 BCE Chalcolithic Period (Stone Copper Age): 3000 BCE 500 BCE Iron Age: 1500 BCE – 200 BCE The Paleolithic Age and Mesolithic Age were characterized by hunting and gathering activities. The characteristic feature of the Neolithic Age is agriculture, which is the food-producing stage. Hence, option (a) is correct.
#### 2. Question
Consider the following:
• Neolithic Age
• Mesolithic Age
• Chalcolithic Age
• Palaeolithic Age
Arrange the above in the correct chronological order:
• a) 4-2-1-3
• b) 1-2-3-4
• c) 2-3-1-4
• d) 4-1-2-3
Explanation:
• Ancient history can be divided into different periods according to the tools used by people back then.
• Paleolithic Period (Old Stone Age): 500,000 BCE – 10,000 BCE
• Mesolithic Period (Late Stone Age): 10,000 BCE 6000 BCE
• Neolithic Period (New Stone Age): 6000BCE 1000 BCE
• Chalcolithic Period (Stone Copper Age): 3000 BCE 500 BCE
• Iron Age: 1500 BCE – 200 BCE
• The Paleolithic Age and Mesolithic Age were characterized by hunting and gathering activities. The characteristic feature of the Neolithic Age is agriculture, which is the food-producing stage.
• Hence, option (a) is correct.
Explanation:
• Ancient history can be divided into different periods according to the tools used by people back then.
• Paleolithic Period (Old Stone Age): 500,000 BCE – 10,000 BCE
• Mesolithic Period (Late Stone Age): 10,000 BCE 6000 BCE
• Neolithic Period (New Stone Age): 6000BCE 1000 BCE
• Chalcolithic Period (Stone Copper Age): 3000 BCE 500 BCE
• Iron Age: 1500 BCE – 200 BCE
• The Paleolithic Age and Mesolithic Age were characterized by hunting and gathering activities. The characteristic feature of the Neolithic Age is agriculture, which is the food-producing stage.
• Hence, option (a) is correct.
• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points What was the major defect in the drainage system of the Indus valley civilization? a) Drains were covered with loose bricks b) Drains were not connected to soak-pits c) Drains were located near the wells d) Drains often over flowed Correct Answer: c Explanation: One of the most remarkable features of the Indus valley civilization is that the city was provided with an excellent closed drainage system. Each house had its own drainage and soak pit which was connected to the public drainage. They were covered and had manholes at intervals for cleaning and clearing purposes. Thus Indus people had a perfect underground drainage system. No other contemporary civilization gave so much attention to cleanliness. The one defect of drainage system of IVC was that in some places drains run very near to wells. Hence, Option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: One of the most remarkable features of the Indus valley civilization is that the city was provided with an excellent closed drainage system. Each house had its own drainage and soak pit which was connected to the public drainage. They were covered and had manholes at intervals for cleaning and clearing purposes. Thus Indus people had a perfect underground drainage system. No other contemporary civilization gave so much attention to cleanliness. The one defect of drainage system of IVC was that in some places drains run very near to wells. Hence, Option (c) is correct.
#### 3. Question
What was the major defect in the drainage system of the Indus valley civilization?
• a) Drains were covered with loose bricks
• b) Drains were not connected to soak-pits
• c) Drains were located near the wells
• d) Drains often over flowed
Explanation:
• One of the most remarkable features of the Indus valley civilization is that the city was provided with an excellent closed drainage system.
• Each house had its own drainage and soak pit which was connected to the public drainage. They were covered and had manholes at intervals for cleaning and clearing purposes. Thus Indus people had a perfect underground drainage system. No other contemporary civilization gave so much attention to cleanliness.
• The one defect of drainage system of IVC was that in some places drains run very near to wells.
Hence, Option (c) is correct.
Explanation:
• One of the most remarkable features of the Indus valley civilization is that the city was provided with an excellent closed drainage system.
• Each house had its own drainage and soak pit which was connected to the public drainage. They were covered and had manholes at intervals for cleaning and clearing purposes. Thus Indus people had a perfect underground drainage system. No other contemporary civilization gave so much attention to cleanliness.
• The one defect of drainage system of IVC was that in some places drains run very near to wells.
Hence, Option (c) is correct.
• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points What is the distinctive feature of Hoysala temples that gives them the name “stellate-plan”? a) Circular plan b) Triangular plan c) Star-shaped plan d) Rectangular plan Correct Answer: c Explanation: Hoysala architecture is the building style developed under the rule of the Hoysala Empire between the 11th and 14th centuries, mostly concentrated in southern Karnataka. Hoysala temples are sometimes called hybrid or vesara as their unique style seems neither completely Dravida nor Nagara, but somewhere in between. The most characteristic feature of these temples is that they grow extremely complex with so many projecting angles emerging from the previously straightforward square temple, that the plan of these temples starts looking like a star, and is thus known as a stellate-plan. The Hoysala temples, instead of consisting of a simple inner chamber with its pillared hall, contain multiple shrines grouped around a central pillared hall and laid out in the shape of an intricately-designed star. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Hoysala architecture is the building style developed under the rule of the Hoysala Empire between the 11th and 14th centuries, mostly concentrated in southern Karnataka. Hoysala temples are sometimes called hybrid or vesara as their unique style seems neither completely Dravida nor Nagara, but somewhere in between. The most characteristic feature of these temples is that they grow extremely complex with so many projecting angles emerging from the previously straightforward square temple, that the plan of these temples starts looking like a star, and is thus known as a stellate-plan. The Hoysala temples, instead of consisting of a simple inner chamber with its pillared hall, contain multiple shrines grouped around a central pillared hall and laid out in the shape of an intricately-designed star. Hence, option (c) is correct.
#### 4. Question
What is the distinctive feature of Hoysala temples that gives them the name “stellate-plan”?
• a) Circular plan
• b) Triangular plan
• c) Star-shaped plan
• d) Rectangular plan
Explanation:
• Hoysala architecture is the building style developed under the rule of the Hoysala Empire between the 11th and 14th centuries, mostly concentrated in southern Karnataka. Hoysala temples are sometimes called hybrid or vesara as their unique style seems neither completely Dravida nor Nagara, but somewhere in between.
• The most characteristic feature of these temples is that they grow extremely complex with so many projecting angles emerging from the previously straightforward square temple, that the plan of these temples starts looking like a star, and is thus known as a stellate-plan.
• The Hoysala temples, instead of consisting of a simple inner chamber with its pillared hall, contain multiple shrines grouped around a central pillared hall and laid out in the shape of an intricately-designed star.
• Hence, option (c) is correct.
Explanation:
• Hoysala architecture is the building style developed under the rule of the Hoysala Empire between the 11th and 14th centuries, mostly concentrated in southern Karnataka. Hoysala temples are sometimes called hybrid or vesara as their unique style seems neither completely Dravida nor Nagara, but somewhere in between.
• The most characteristic feature of these temples is that they grow extremely complex with so many projecting angles emerging from the previously straightforward square temple, that the plan of these temples starts looking like a star, and is thus known as a stellate-plan.
• The Hoysala temples, instead of consisting of a simple inner chamber with its pillared hall, contain multiple shrines grouped around a central pillared hall and laid out in the shape of an intricately-designed star.
• Hence, option (c) is correct.
• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Which Indus Valley Civilization Site has a cemetery but no major habitation around it? a) Kotada Bhadli b) Juna Khatiya c) Daimabad d) Champaner-Pavagadh Correct Answer: b Explanation: Recent excavations at one of the biggest necropolises at Juna Khatiya village (Kutch, Gujarat) show rows of graves with valuable items such as Ceramic pots, beaded jewellery, animal bones etc. They date back to 3200BCE to 2600BCE (predating several other Harappan sites) The site is important because others like Dholavira have a cemetery in and around the town, but no major habitation has been discovered near Juna Khatiya. A necropolis is a large, designed cemetery with elaborate tomb monuments. The name stems from the Ancient Greek meaning “city of the dead“. The pyramid at Giza, in Egypt, is an example of a necropolis — it’s the tomb of an Egyptian pharaoh. Juna Khatiya has emerged as one the biggest Harappan burial sites, with the possibility of 500 graves, of which about 125 have been found so far. The site demonstrates the transition from earth-mound burial to stone graves. The rectangular graves were made of shale and sandstone. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Recent excavations at one of the biggest necropolises at Juna Khatiya village (Kutch, Gujarat) show rows of graves with valuable items such as Ceramic pots, beaded jewellery, animal bones etc. They date back to 3200BCE to 2600BCE (predating several other Harappan sites) The site is important because others like Dholavira have a cemetery in and around the town, but no major habitation has been discovered near Juna Khatiya. A necropolis is a large, designed cemetery with elaborate tomb monuments. The name stems from the Ancient Greek meaning “city of the dead“. The pyramid at Giza, in Egypt, is an example of a necropolis — it’s the tomb of an Egyptian pharaoh. Juna Khatiya has emerged as one the biggest Harappan burial sites, with the possibility of 500 graves, of which about 125 have been found so far. The site demonstrates the transition from earth-mound burial to stone graves. The rectangular graves were made of shale and sandstone. Hence, option (b) is correct.
#### 5. Question
Which Indus Valley Civilization Site has a cemetery but no major habitation around it?
• a) Kotada Bhadli
• b) Juna Khatiya
• c) Daimabad
• d) Champaner-Pavagadh
Explanation:
• Recent excavations at one of the biggest necropolises at Juna Khatiya village (Kutch, Gujarat) show rows of graves with valuable items such as Ceramic pots, beaded jewellery, animal bones etc. They date back to 3200BCE to 2600BCE (predating several other Harappan sites)
• The site is important because others like Dholavira have a cemetery in and around the town, but no major habitation has been discovered near Juna Khatiya.
• A necropolis is a large, designed cemetery with elaborate tomb monuments. The name stems from the Ancient Greek meaning “city of the dead“. The pyramid at Giza, in Egypt, is an example of a necropolis — it’s the tomb of an Egyptian pharaoh.
• Juna Khatiya has emerged as one the biggest Harappan burial sites, with the possibility of 500 graves, of which about 125 have been found so far.
• The site demonstrates the transition from earth-mound burial to stone graves.
• The rectangular graves were made of shale and sandstone.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
Explanation:
• Recent excavations at one of the biggest necropolises at Juna Khatiya village (Kutch, Gujarat) show rows of graves with valuable items such as Ceramic pots, beaded jewellery, animal bones etc. They date back to 3200BCE to 2600BCE (predating several other Harappan sites)
• The site is important because others like Dholavira have a cemetery in and around the town, but no major habitation has been discovered near Juna Khatiya.
• A necropolis is a large, designed cemetery with elaborate tomb monuments. The name stems from the Ancient Greek meaning “city of the dead“. The pyramid at Giza, in Egypt, is an example of a necropolis — it’s the tomb of an Egyptian pharaoh.
• Juna Khatiya has emerged as one the biggest Harappan burial sites, with the possibility of 500 graves, of which about 125 have been found so far.
• The site demonstrates the transition from earth-mound burial to stone graves.
• The rectangular graves were made of shale and sandstone.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements with regard to ‘Thirukkural’: It is a highly celebrated work in Tamil literature commonly attributed to the poet Tiruvalluvar. Thirukkural is divided into two books, aram and kamam. It is considered as one of the greatest works on ethics and morality. The topics covered in Thirukkural are very profound and are devoid of mundane aspects. How many of the above given statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: b Explanation: In May 2023, PM Modi released Tamil classic ‘Thirukkural’ in Tok Pisin language. Tok Pisin is the official language of Papua New Guinea. Thirukkural, also known as Kural, is a highly celebrated work in Tamil literature and is one of the Patiren-kirkkanakku (“Eighteen Ethical Works”). It is commonly attributed to the poet Tiruvalluvar, believed to have lived in India during the 6th century CE. Hence, statement 1 is correct. While traditionally associated with the third Sangam, linguistic analysis suggests a later date of composition around 450 to 500 CE. Thirukkural consists of 133 sections, each containing 10 couplets, and is divided into three books: aram (virtue), porul (government and society), and kamam (love). Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Thirukkural is renowned for its ethical and moral teachings, known for its universality and secular nature. Hence, statement 3 is correct. The first section of Thirukkural opens with praise for God, rain, renunciation, and a virtuous life, emphasizing human sympathy and community welfare. The porul section presents an ideal state and links good citizenship with virtuous private life, while the kamam section explores themes of love, both secret and marital. Thirukkural promotes non-violence, moral vegetarianism, truthfulness, self-restraint, gratitude, hospitality, kindness, and various other virtues. It covers a wide array of social and political topics, including governance, justice, agriculture, education, and abstinence from alcohol and intoxicants. Thirukkural also delves into aspects of friendship, love, sexual union, and domestic life, offering comprehensive insights into human existence and relationships. It covers both profound and mundane aspects of life. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: In May 2023, PM Modi released Tamil classic ‘Thirukkural’ in Tok Pisin language. Tok Pisin is the official language of Papua New Guinea. Thirukkural, also known as Kural, is a highly celebrated work in Tamil literature and is one of the Patiren-kirkkanakku (“Eighteen Ethical Works”). It is commonly attributed to the poet Tiruvalluvar, believed to have lived in India during the 6th century CE. Hence, statement 1 is correct. While traditionally associated with the third Sangam, linguistic analysis suggests a later date of composition around 450 to 500 CE. Thirukkural consists of 133 sections, each containing 10 couplets, and is divided into three books: aram (virtue), porul (government and society), and kamam (love). Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Thirukkural is renowned for its ethical and moral teachings, known for its universality and secular nature. Hence, statement 3 is correct. The first section of Thirukkural opens with praise for God, rain, renunciation, and a virtuous life, emphasizing human sympathy and community welfare. The porul section presents an ideal state and links good citizenship with virtuous private life, while the kamam section explores themes of love, both secret and marital. Thirukkural promotes non-violence, moral vegetarianism, truthfulness, self-restraint, gratitude, hospitality, kindness, and various other virtues. It covers a wide array of social and political topics, including governance, justice, agriculture, education, and abstinence from alcohol and intoxicants. Thirukkural also delves into aspects of friendship, love, sexual union, and domestic life, offering comprehensive insights into human existence and relationships. It covers both profound and mundane aspects of life. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. Hence, option (b) is correct.
#### 6. Question
Consider the following statements with regard to ‘Thirukkural’:
• It is a highly celebrated work in Tamil literature commonly attributed to the poet Tiruvalluvar.
• Thirukkural is divided into two books, aram and kamam.
• It is considered as one of the greatest works on ethics and morality.
• The topics covered in Thirukkural are very profound and are devoid of mundane aspects.
How many of the above given statements are correct?
• a) Only one
• b) Only two
• c) Only three
• d) All four
Explanation:
• In May 2023, PM Modi released Tamil classic ‘Thirukkural’ in Tok Pisin language. Tok Pisin is the official language of Papua New Guinea.
• Thirukkural, also known as Kural, is a highly celebrated work in Tamil literature and is one of the Patiren-kirkkanakku (“Eighteen Ethical Works”).
• It is commonly attributed to the poet Tiruvalluvar, believed to have lived in India during the 6th century CE. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• While traditionally associated with the third Sangam, linguistic analysis suggests a later date of composition around 450 to 500 CE.
• Thirukkural consists of 133 sections, each containing 10 couplets, and is divided into three books: aram (virtue), porul (government and society), and kamam (love). Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Thirukkural is renowned for its ethical and moral teachings, known for its universality and secular nature. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• The first section of Thirukkural opens with praise for God, rain, renunciation, and a virtuous life, emphasizing human sympathy and community welfare.
• The porul section presents an ideal state and links good citizenship with virtuous private life, while the kamam section explores themes of love, both secret and marital.
• Thirukkural promotes non-violence, moral vegetarianism, truthfulness, self-restraint, gratitude, hospitality, kindness, and various other virtues.
• It covers a wide array of social and political topics, including governance, justice, agriculture, education, and abstinence from alcohol and intoxicants.
• Thirukkural also delves into aspects of friendship, love, sexual union, and domestic life, offering comprehensive insights into human existence and relationships. It covers both profound and mundane aspects of life. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
• Hence, option (b) is correct.
Explanation:
• In May 2023, PM Modi released Tamil classic ‘Thirukkural’ in Tok Pisin language. Tok Pisin is the official language of Papua New Guinea.
• Thirukkural, also known as Kural, is a highly celebrated work in Tamil literature and is one of the Patiren-kirkkanakku (“Eighteen Ethical Works”).
• It is commonly attributed to the poet Tiruvalluvar, believed to have lived in India during the 6th century CE. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• While traditionally associated with the third Sangam, linguistic analysis suggests a later date of composition around 450 to 500 CE.
• Thirukkural consists of 133 sections, each containing 10 couplets, and is divided into three books: aram (virtue), porul (government and society), and kamam (love). Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Thirukkural is renowned for its ethical and moral teachings, known for its universality and secular nature. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• The first section of Thirukkural opens with praise for God, rain, renunciation, and a virtuous life, emphasizing human sympathy and community welfare.
• The porul section presents an ideal state and links good citizenship with virtuous private life, while the kamam section explores themes of love, both secret and marital.
• Thirukkural promotes non-violence, moral vegetarianism, truthfulness, self-restraint, gratitude, hospitality, kindness, and various other virtues.
• It covers a wide array of social and political topics, including governance, justice, agriculture, education, and abstinence from alcohol and intoxicants.
• Thirukkural also delves into aspects of friendship, love, sexual union, and domestic life, offering comprehensive insights into human existence and relationships. It covers both profound and mundane aspects of life. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
• Hence, option (b) is correct.
• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points With reference to Indus Valley Civilization (IVC), consider the following statements: Evidence of world’s earliest ploughed field is found in Kalibangan site. The earliest recorded earthquake was from Rakhigarhi in Haryana. Which of the above given statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: a Explanation: Kalibangan has given the evidence of the earliest (c. 2800 BC) ploughed agricultural field. It shows a grid pattern of furrows, placed about 30 cm apart running east-west and other spaced about 190 cm apart running north-south, a pattern remarkably similar to the one practiced even now. Use of Wooden Plough is also found in Kalibangan. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Kalibangan is a site which has given an evidence of earliest recorded “Earthquake”. The earthquake is dated back to 2600 BC and is considered to have contributed to the end of this remarkable site of the Indus Valley Civilization. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Kalibangan has given the evidence of the earliest (c. 2800 BC) ploughed agricultural field. It shows a grid pattern of furrows, placed about 30 cm apart running east-west and other spaced about 190 cm apart running north-south, a pattern remarkably similar to the one practiced even now. Use of Wooden Plough is also found in Kalibangan. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Kalibangan is a site which has given an evidence of earliest recorded “Earthquake”. The earthquake is dated back to 2600 BC and is considered to have contributed to the end of this remarkable site of the Indus Valley Civilization. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct.
#### 7. Question
With reference to Indus Valley Civilization (IVC), consider the following statements:
• Evidence of world’s earliest ploughed field is found in Kalibangan site.
• The earliest recorded earthquake was from Rakhigarhi in Haryana.
Which of the above given statements is/are correct?
• c) Both 1 and 2
• d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
• Kalibangan has given the evidence of the earliest (c. 2800 BC) ploughed agricultural field. It shows a grid pattern of furrows, placed about 30 cm apart running east-west and other spaced about 190 cm apart running north-south, a pattern remarkably similar to the one practiced even now. Use of Wooden Plough is also found in Kalibangan. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Kalibangan is a site which has given an evidence of earliest recorded “Earthquake”. The earthquake is dated back to 2600 BC and is considered to have contributed to the end of this remarkable site of the Indus Valley Civilization. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Hence, option (a) is correct.
Explanation:
• Kalibangan has given the evidence of the earliest (c. 2800 BC) ploughed agricultural field. It shows a grid pattern of furrows, placed about 30 cm apart running east-west and other spaced about 190 cm apart running north-south, a pattern remarkably similar to the one practiced even now. Use of Wooden Plough is also found in Kalibangan. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Kalibangan is a site which has given an evidence of earliest recorded “Earthquake”. The earthquake is dated back to 2600 BC and is considered to have contributed to the end of this remarkable site of the Indus Valley Civilization. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Hence, option (a) is correct.
• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points The provinces in the Gupta Empire were called: a) Vishayas b) Bhuktis c) Uparikas d) Vithis Correct Answer: b Explanation: The Gupta Empire had decentralized administrative set up. Bhuktis: The Empire was divided into provinces called ‘bhuktis’. Each bhukti was administered by a provancial governor ‘uparika’, who was appointed by the king The king directly appointed the uparika, who in turn frequently appointed the district administration and the district board. District = Vishayas: ‘Vishayas’, were overseen by a Vishayapati. Vishayapatis were appointed by the provincial governor or, in some cases, the king himself to control the vishayas. Vithis: Multiple villages were grouped into ‘Vithis’, sub-dristricts or modern day blocks. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: The Gupta Empire had decentralized administrative set up. Bhuktis: The Empire was divided into provinces called ‘bhuktis’. Each bhukti was administered by a provancial governor ‘uparika’, who was appointed by the king The king directly appointed the uparika, who in turn frequently appointed the district administration and the district board. District = Vishayas: ‘Vishayas’, were overseen by a Vishayapati. Vishayapatis were appointed by the provincial governor or, in some cases, the king himself to control the vishayas. Vithis: Multiple villages were grouped into ‘Vithis’, sub-dristricts or modern day blocks. Hence, option (b) is correct.
#### 8. Question
The provinces in the Gupta Empire were called:
• a) Vishayas
• b) Bhuktis
• c) Uparikas
Explanation:
• The Gupta Empire had decentralized administrative set up.
• Bhuktis: The Empire was divided into provinces called ‘bhuktis’.
• Each bhukti was administered by a provancial governor ‘uparika’, who was appointed by the king
• The king directly appointed the uparika, who in turn frequently appointed the district administration and the district board.
• District = Vishayas: ‘Vishayas’, were overseen by a Vishayapati.
• Vishayapatis were appointed by the provincial governor or, in some cases, the king himself to control the vishayas.
• Vithis: Multiple villages were grouped into ‘Vithis’, sub-dristricts or modern day blocks.
• Hence, option (b) is correct.
Explanation:
• The Gupta Empire had decentralized administrative set up.
• Bhuktis: The Empire was divided into provinces called ‘bhuktis’.
• Each bhukti was administered by a provancial governor ‘uparika’, who was appointed by the king
• The king directly appointed the uparika, who in turn frequently appointed the district administration and the district board.
• District = Vishayas: ‘Vishayas’, were overseen by a Vishayapati.
• Vishayapatis were appointed by the provincial governor or, in some cases, the king himself to control the vishayas.
• Vithis: Multiple villages were grouped into ‘Vithis’, sub-dristricts or modern day blocks.
• Hence, option (b) is correct.
• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points With reference to sects of Jainism, consider the following statements: Digambara tradition holds that women lack the body and rigid will to attain Moksha. Shvetambaras acknowledge the possibility of women attaining Moksha. Which of the above given statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: c Explanation: Digambara tradition holds that a woman lacks the body and rigid will necessary to attain moksha, i.e., liberation, hence she has to be reborn as a man before such an attainment is possible. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Shvetambaras acknowledge the possibility of women attaining Jina-hood and maintain that women are capable in the present lifetime of the same spiritual accomplishments as men. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Digambara tradition holds that a woman lacks the body and rigid will necessary to attain moksha, i.e., liberation, hence she has to be reborn as a man before such an attainment is possible. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Shvetambaras acknowledge the possibility of women attaining Jina-hood and maintain that women are capable in the present lifetime of the same spiritual accomplishments as men. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Hence, option (c) is correct.
#### 9. Question
With reference to sects of Jainism, consider the following statements:
• Digambara tradition holds that women lack the body and rigid will to attain Moksha.
• Shvetambaras acknowledge the possibility of women attaining Moksha.
Which of the above given statements is/are correct?
• c) Both 1 and 2
• d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
• Digambara tradition holds that a woman lacks the body and rigid will necessary to attain moksha, i.e., liberation, hence she has to be reborn as a man before such an attainment is possible. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Shvetambaras acknowledge the possibility of women attaining Jina-hood and maintain that women are capable in the present lifetime of the same spiritual accomplishments as men. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Hence, option (c) is correct.
Explanation:
• Digambara tradition holds that a woman lacks the body and rigid will necessary to attain moksha, i.e., liberation, hence she has to be reborn as a man before such an attainment is possible. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Shvetambaras acknowledge the possibility of women attaining Jina-hood and maintain that women are capable in the present lifetime of the same spiritual accomplishments as men. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Hence, option (c) is correct.
• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs with respect to usage purposes of potteries during Harappan Civilization: 1.Plain pottery Used for household purposes, mainly for storage of grains 2. Miniature pottery vessels Used for straining liquor. 3. Perforated pottery Used for decorative purposes How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: a Explanation: The potteries found at the excavation sites can be broadly classified into two kinds-plain pottery and painted pottery. The painted pottery is also known as Black and Red Ware as it used red pigments to paint the background and glossy black paint to draw designs and figures on the red background. Trees, birds, animal figures and geometrical patterns were the recurring themes of the paintings on the Red and Black Pottery. Most of the potteries that have been found are very fine wheel-made wares, with very few being handmade. Some examples of polychrome pottery have also been found, though rarely. The potteries were used for three main purposes: Plain pottery was used for household purposes, mainly for storage of grains and water. (Hence pair 1 is correctly matched) Miniature vessels, generally less than half an inch in size, were used for decorative purposes. (Hence pair 2 is incorrectly matched) Some of the potteries were perforated – with a large hole at the bottom and small holes across the sides. They might have been used for straining liquor. (Hence pair 3 is incorrectly matched) Hence, option(a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: The potteries found at the excavation sites can be broadly classified into two kinds-plain pottery and painted pottery. The painted pottery is also known as Black and Red Ware as it used red pigments to paint the background and glossy black paint to draw designs and figures on the red background. Trees, birds, animal figures and geometrical patterns were the recurring themes of the paintings on the Red and Black Pottery. Most of the potteries that have been found are very fine wheel-made wares, with very few being handmade. Some examples of polychrome pottery have also been found, though rarely. The potteries were used for three main purposes: Plain pottery was used for household purposes, mainly for storage of grains and water. (Hence pair 1 is correctly matched) Miniature vessels, generally less than half an inch in size, were used for decorative purposes. (Hence pair 2 is incorrectly matched) Some of the potteries were perforated – with a large hole at the bottom and small holes across the sides. They might have been used for straining liquor. (Hence pair 3 is incorrectly matched) Hence, option(a) is correct.
#### 10. Question
Consider the following pairs with respect to usage purposes of potteries during Harappan Civilization:
1.Plain pottery | Used for household purposes, mainly for storage of grains
- 1.Miniature pottery vessels | Used for straining liquor.
- 2.Perforated pottery | Used for decorative purposes
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
• a) Only one
• b) Only two
• c) All three
Answer: a
Explanation:
• The potteries found at the excavation sites can be broadly classified into two kinds-plain pottery and painted pottery. The painted pottery is also known as Black and Red Ware as it used red pigments to paint the background and glossy black paint to draw designs and figures on the red background. Trees, birds, animal figures and geometrical patterns were the recurring themes of the paintings on the Red and Black Pottery.
• Most of the potteries that have been found are very fine wheel-made wares, with very few being handmade. Some examples of polychrome pottery have also been found, though rarely. The potteries were used for three main purposes: Plain pottery was used for household purposes, mainly for storage of grains and water. (Hence pair 1 is correctly matched) Miniature vessels, generally less than half an inch in size, were used for decorative purposes. (Hence pair 2 is incorrectly matched) Some of the potteries were perforated – with a large hole at the bottom and small holes across the sides. They might have been used for straining liquor. (Hence pair 3 is incorrectly matched)
• Plain pottery was used for household purposes, mainly for storage of grains and water. (Hence pair 1 is correctly matched)
• Miniature vessels, generally less than half an inch in size, were used for decorative purposes. (Hence pair 2 is incorrectly matched)
• Some of the potteries were perforated – with a large hole at the bottom and small holes across the sides. They might have been used for straining liquor. (Hence pair 3 is incorrectly matched)
Hence, option(a) is correct.
Answer: a
Explanation:
• The potteries found at the excavation sites can be broadly classified into two kinds-plain pottery and painted pottery. The painted pottery is also known as Black and Red Ware as it used red pigments to paint the background and glossy black paint to draw designs and figures on the red background. Trees, birds, animal figures and geometrical patterns were the recurring themes of the paintings on the Red and Black Pottery.
• Most of the potteries that have been found are very fine wheel-made wares, with very few being handmade. Some examples of polychrome pottery have also been found, though rarely. The potteries were used for three main purposes: Plain pottery was used for household purposes, mainly for storage of grains and water. (Hence pair 1 is correctly matched) Miniature vessels, generally less than half an inch in size, were used for decorative purposes. (Hence pair 2 is incorrectly matched) Some of the potteries were perforated – with a large hole at the bottom and small holes across the sides. They might have been used for straining liquor. (Hence pair 3 is incorrectly matched)
• Plain pottery was used for household purposes, mainly for storage of grains and water. (Hence pair 1 is correctly matched)
• Miniature vessels, generally less than half an inch in size, were used for decorative purposes. (Hence pair 2 is incorrectly matched)
• Some of the potteries were perforated – with a large hole at the bottom and small holes across the sides. They might have been used for straining liquor. (Hence pair 3 is incorrectly matched)
Hence, option(a) is correct.
• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points With reference to Unicorn Companies, consider the following statements: These are the start-ups worth at least a billion dollars and not yet listed on a public exchange. Indian unicorn companies have the highest contribution to the total global unicorn valuation. The ‘work from home’ regime fuelled digital business resulting in a long unicorn list in India. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Unicorn is a term used in the venture capital industry to describe a privately held start-up company with a value of over $1 billion. Statement 2 is not correct: The US has the highest number of unicorn companies worldwide with an impressive 668 – over three times more than China in second place (172). Despite a lower average valuation per unicorn at $2.72 billion compared to some counterparts, India’s unicorns make a substantial 5 per cent contribution to the total global unicorn valuation. Statement 3 is correct: While work from home during the pandemic fuelled the growth of digital businesses in India, the incident also resulted in a long unicorn list. Mainly three factors, a thriving digital payments ecosystem, large smartphone user base and digital-first business models, have come together to attract investors. Tech companies, which have become household brands, are contributing to the unicorn boom in India, as smartphone penetration and digitization of commerce in every aspect of life has increased manifold during the pandemic. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Unicorn is a term used in the venture capital industry to describe a privately held start-up company with a value of over $1 billion. Statement 2 is not correct: The US has the highest number of unicorn companies worldwide with an impressive 668 – over three times more than China in second place (172). Despite a lower average valuation per unicorn at $2.72 billion compared to some counterparts, India’s unicorns make a substantial 5 per cent contribution to the total global unicorn valuation. Statement 3 is correct: While work from home during the pandemic fuelled the growth of digital businesses in India, the incident also resulted in a long unicorn list. Mainly three factors, a thriving digital payments ecosystem, large smartphone user base and digital-first business models, have come together to attract investors. Tech companies, which have become household brands, are contributing to the unicorn boom in India, as smartphone penetration and digitization of commerce in every aspect of life has increased manifold during the pandemic.
#### 11. Question
With reference to Unicorn Companies, consider the following statements:
• These are the start-ups worth at least a billion dollars and not yet listed on a public exchange.
• Indian unicorn companies have the highest contribution to the total global unicorn valuation.
• The ‘work from home’ regime fuelled digital business resulting in a long unicorn list in India.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Unicorn is a term used in the venture capital industry to describe a privately held start-up company with a value of over $1 billion.
Statement 2 is not correct: The US has the highest number of unicorn companies worldwide with an impressive 668 – over three times more than China in second place (172).
Despite a lower average valuation per unicorn at $2.72 billion compared to some counterparts, India’s unicorns make a substantial 5 per cent contribution to the total global unicorn valuation.
Statement 3 is correct: While work from home during the pandemic fuelled the growth of digital businesses in India, the incident also resulted in a long unicorn list.
Mainly three factors, a thriving digital payments ecosystem, large smartphone user base and digital-first business models, have come together to attract investors.
Tech companies, which have become household brands, are contributing to the unicorn boom in India, as smartphone penetration and digitization of commerce in every aspect of life has increased manifold during the pandemic.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Unicorn is a term used in the venture capital industry to describe a privately held start-up company with a value of over $1 billion.
Statement 2 is not correct: The US has the highest number of unicorn companies worldwide with an impressive 668 – over three times more than China in second place (172).
Despite a lower average valuation per unicorn at $2.72 billion compared to some counterparts, India’s unicorns make a substantial 5 per cent contribution to the total global unicorn valuation.
Statement 3 is correct: While work from home during the pandemic fuelled the growth of digital businesses in India, the incident also resulted in a long unicorn list.
Mainly three factors, a thriving digital payments ecosystem, large smartphone user base and digital-first business models, have come together to attract investors.
Tech companies, which have become household brands, are contributing to the unicorn boom in India, as smartphone penetration and digitization of commerce in every aspect of life has increased manifold during the pandemic.
• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points With reference to the International Court of Justice, consider the following statements: All members of the United Nations are automatically parties to its statute. Advisory proceedings before it are open to the five organs of the United Nations. It elects a Chamber of Summary Procedure annually following its Statute. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: C Explanation: The International Court of Justice (ICJ) based in The Hague in Netherlands, is a 15-judge court established in 1945 by the United Nations Charter. Statement 1 is correct: The statute of the ICJ regulates the functioning of the Court. All members of the UN are automatic parties to the statute, but this does not automatically give ICJ jurisdiction over disputes involving them. The ICJ gets jurisdiction only on the basis of consent of both parties. Statement 2 is correct: Advisory proceedings before the Court are only open to five organs of the United Nations and 16 specialized agencies of the United Nations family or affiliated organizations. Statement 3 is correct: The Court discharges its duties as a full court but, at the request of the parties, it may also establish ad hoc chambers to examine specific cases. A Chamber of Summary Procedure is elected every year by the Court in accordance with its Statute Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: The International Court of Justice (ICJ) based in The Hague in Netherlands, is a 15-judge court established in 1945 by the United Nations Charter. Statement 1 is correct: The statute of the ICJ regulates the functioning of the Court. All members of the UN are automatic parties to the statute, but this does not automatically give ICJ jurisdiction over disputes involving them. The ICJ gets jurisdiction only on the basis of consent of both parties. Statement 2 is correct: Advisory proceedings before the Court are only open to five organs of the United Nations and 16 specialized agencies of the United Nations family or affiliated organizations. Statement 3 is correct: The Court discharges its duties as a full court but, at the request of the parties, it may also establish ad hoc chambers to examine specific cases. A Chamber of Summary Procedure is elected every year by the Court in accordance with its Statute
#### 12. Question
With reference to the International Court of Justice, consider the following statements:
• All members of the United Nations are automatically parties to its statute.
• Advisory proceedings before it are open to the five organs of the United Nations.
• It elects a Chamber of Summary Procedure annually following its Statute.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Answer: C
Explanation:
The International Court of Justice (ICJ) based in The Hague in Netherlands, is a 15-judge court established in 1945 by the United Nations Charter.
Statement 1 is correct: The statute of the ICJ regulates the functioning of the Court. All members of the UN are automatic parties to the statute, but this does not automatically give ICJ jurisdiction over disputes involving them.
The ICJ gets jurisdiction only on the basis of consent of both parties.
Statement 2 is correct: Advisory proceedings before the Court are only open to five organs of the United Nations and 16 specialized agencies of the United Nations family or affiliated organizations.
Statement 3 is correct: The Court discharges its duties as a full court but, at the request of the parties, it may also establish ad hoc chambers to examine specific cases. A Chamber of Summary Procedure is elected every year by the Court in accordance with its Statute
Answer: C
Explanation:
The International Court of Justice (ICJ) based in The Hague in Netherlands, is a 15-judge court established in 1945 by the United Nations Charter.
Statement 1 is correct: The statute of the ICJ regulates the functioning of the Court. All members of the UN are automatic parties to the statute, but this does not automatically give ICJ jurisdiction over disputes involving them.
The ICJ gets jurisdiction only on the basis of consent of both parties.
Statement 2 is correct: Advisory proceedings before the Court are only open to five organs of the United Nations and 16 specialized agencies of the United Nations family or affiliated organizations.
Statement 3 is correct: The Court discharges its duties as a full court but, at the request of the parties, it may also establish ad hoc chambers to examine specific cases. A Chamber of Summary Procedure is elected every year by the Court in accordance with its Statute
• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points With reference to Ammonia, consider the following statements: It occurs naturally but can be produced by human activity. It is lighter than air but cannot be dissolved in water. It can be applied directly into the soil on farm fields. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Ammonia, anhydrous appears as a clear colourless gas with a strong odor. Shipped as a liquid under its own vapour pressure. Statement 1 is correct: Ammonia occurs naturally and is produced by human activity. It is an important source of nitrogen which is needed by plants and animals. Bacteria found in the intestines can produce ammonia. Ammonia is a colourless gas with a very distinct odour. This odour is familiar to many people because ammonia is used in smelling salts, many household and industrial cleaners, and window-cleaning products. Statement 2 is not correct: Although ammonia is lighter than air, the vapours from a leak will initially hug the ground. Ammonia gas can be dissolved in water. Statement 3 is correct: Ammonia is applied directly into soil on farm fields, and is used to make fertilizers for farm crops, lawns, and plants Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Ammonia, anhydrous appears as a clear colourless gas with a strong odor. Shipped as a liquid under its own vapour pressure. Statement 1 is correct: Ammonia occurs naturally and is produced by human activity. It is an important source of nitrogen which is needed by plants and animals. Bacteria found in the intestines can produce ammonia. Ammonia is a colourless gas with a very distinct odour. This odour is familiar to many people because ammonia is used in smelling salts, many household and industrial cleaners, and window-cleaning products. Statement 2 is not correct: Although ammonia is lighter than air, the vapours from a leak will initially hug the ground. Ammonia gas can be dissolved in water. Statement 3 is correct: Ammonia is applied directly into soil on farm fields, and is used to make fertilizers for farm crops, lawns, and plants
#### 13. Question
With reference to Ammonia, consider the following statements:
• It occurs naturally but can be produced by human activity.
• It is lighter than air but cannot be dissolved in water.
• It can be applied directly into the soil on farm fields.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Answer: B
Explanation:
Ammonia, anhydrous appears as a clear colourless gas with a strong odor. Shipped as a liquid under its own vapour pressure.
Statement 1 is correct: Ammonia occurs naturally and is produced by human activity. It is an important source of nitrogen which is needed by plants and animals. Bacteria found in the intestines can produce ammonia.
Ammonia is a colourless gas with a very distinct odour. This odour is familiar to many people because ammonia is used in smelling salts, many household and industrial cleaners, and window-cleaning products.
Statement 2 is not correct: Although ammonia is lighter than air, the vapours from a leak will initially hug the ground. Ammonia gas can be dissolved in water.
Statement 3 is correct: Ammonia is applied directly into soil on farm fields, and is used to make fertilizers for farm crops, lawns, and plants
Answer: B
Explanation:
Ammonia, anhydrous appears as a clear colourless gas with a strong odor. Shipped as a liquid under its own vapour pressure.
Statement 1 is correct: Ammonia occurs naturally and is produced by human activity. It is an important source of nitrogen which is needed by plants and animals. Bacteria found in the intestines can produce ammonia.
Ammonia is a colourless gas with a very distinct odour. This odour is familiar to many people because ammonia is used in smelling salts, many household and industrial cleaners, and window-cleaning products.
Statement 2 is not correct: Although ammonia is lighter than air, the vapours from a leak will initially hug the ground. Ammonia gas can be dissolved in water.
Statement 3 is correct: Ammonia is applied directly into soil on farm fields, and is used to make fertilizers for farm crops, lawns, and plants
• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points With reference to Uranium, consider the following statements: It is a heavy metal which is abundant in soil. It is used in treating cancer and also used for naval propulsion. Its most common isotope U-238, can produce a fission chain reaction. It is mostly obtained from the mines of Uzbekistan. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: Uranium is a heavy metal which occurs naturally in low concentrations in soil, rock and water. It is commercially extracted from uranium-bearing minerals. Statement 2 is correct: The radioactive metal is the most widely used fuel for nuclear energy due to its abundance and the relative ease of splitting its atoms. It is also used in treating cancer, for naval propulsion, and in nuclear weapons. Statement 3 is not correct: U-238 is the most common isotope of uranium found in nature but it cannot produce a fission chain reaction – the process of splitting a uranium atom to release energy. Statement 4 is not correct: About two-thirds of the world’s production of uranium from mines is from Kazakhstan, Canada and Australia. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: Uranium is a heavy metal which occurs naturally in low concentrations in soil, rock and water. It is commercially extracted from uranium-bearing minerals. Statement 2 is correct: The radioactive metal is the most widely used fuel for nuclear energy due to its abundance and the relative ease of splitting its atoms. It is also used in treating cancer, for naval propulsion, and in nuclear weapons. Statement 3 is not correct: U-238 is the most common isotope of uranium found in nature but it cannot produce a fission chain reaction – the process of splitting a uranium atom to release energy. Statement 4 is not correct: About two-thirds of the world’s production of uranium from mines is from Kazakhstan, Canada and Australia.
#### 14. Question
With reference to Uranium, consider the following statements:
• It is a heavy metal which is abundant in soil.
• It is used in treating cancer and also used for naval propulsion.
• Its most common isotope U-238, can produce a fission chain reaction.
• It is mostly obtained from the mines of Uzbekistan.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) Only three
• (d) All four
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is not correct: Uranium is a heavy metal which occurs naturally in low concentrations in soil, rock and water. It is commercially extracted from uranium-bearing minerals.
Statement 2 is correct: The radioactive metal is the most widely used fuel for nuclear energy due to its abundance and the relative ease of splitting its atoms. It is also used in treating cancer, for naval propulsion, and in nuclear weapons.
Statement 3 is not correct: U-238 is the most common isotope of uranium found in nature but it cannot produce a fission chain reaction – the process of splitting a uranium atom to release energy.
Statement 4 is not correct: About two-thirds of the world’s production of uranium from mines is from Kazakhstan, Canada and Australia.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is not correct: Uranium is a heavy metal which occurs naturally in low concentrations in soil, rock and water. It is commercially extracted from uranium-bearing minerals.
Statement 2 is correct: The radioactive metal is the most widely used fuel for nuclear energy due to its abundance and the relative ease of splitting its atoms. It is also used in treating cancer, for naval propulsion, and in nuclear weapons.
Statement 3 is not correct: U-238 is the most common isotope of uranium found in nature but it cannot produce a fission chain reaction – the process of splitting a uranium atom to release energy.
Statement 4 is not correct: About two-thirds of the world’s production of uranium from mines is from Kazakhstan, Canada and Australia.
• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the “RoDTEP Scheme” recently seen in the news: It is an initiative by the Government of India aimed at refunding embedded taxes and duties on exported products. It does not support the additional export sectors including Advance Authorisation holders and Special Economic Zones export units. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Remission of Duties and Taxes on Exported Products (RoDTEP) Scheme is a key initiative by the Government of India aimed at refunding various embedded taxes and duties on exported products. Statement 2 is not correct: The Government of India has announced extension of the RoDTEP Scheme support to additional export sectors i.e. Advance Authorisation (AA) holders, Export Oriented Units (EOU) and Special Economic Zones (SEZ) export units. This decision comes in recognition of the significant contribution these sectors make to India’s Exports, constituting approximately 25% of our exports. By providing support to crucial export sectors, the government aims to not only enhance their competitiveness but also create employment opportunities and contribute to overall economic growth, aligning with the vision of building an Aatmanirbhar Bharat. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Remission of Duties and Taxes on Exported Products (RoDTEP) Scheme is a key initiative by the Government of India aimed at refunding various embedded taxes and duties on exported products. Statement 2 is not correct: The Government of India has announced extension of the RoDTEP Scheme support to additional export sectors i.e. Advance Authorisation (AA) holders, Export Oriented Units (EOU) and Special Economic Zones (SEZ) export units. This decision comes in recognition of the significant contribution these sectors make to India’s Exports, constituting approximately 25% of our exports. By providing support to crucial export sectors, the government aims to not only enhance their competitiveness but also create employment opportunities and contribute to overall economic growth, aligning with the vision of building an Aatmanirbhar Bharat.
#### 15. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the “RoDTEP Scheme” recently seen in the news:
• It is an initiative by the Government of India aimed at refunding embedded taxes and duties on exported products.
• It does not support the additional export sectors including Advance Authorisation holders and Special Economic Zones export units.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Remission of Duties and Taxes on Exported Products (RoDTEP) Scheme is a key initiative by the Government of India aimed at refunding various embedded taxes and duties on exported products.
Statement 2 is not correct: The Government of India has announced extension of the RoDTEP Scheme support to additional export sectors i.e. Advance Authorisation (AA) holders, Export Oriented Units (EOU) and Special Economic Zones (SEZ) export units.
This decision comes in recognition of the significant contribution these sectors make to India’s Exports, constituting approximately 25% of our exports.
By providing support to crucial export sectors, the government aims to not only enhance their competitiveness but also create employment opportunities and contribute to overall economic growth, aligning with the vision of building an Aatmanirbhar Bharat.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Remission of Duties and Taxes on Exported Products (RoDTEP) Scheme is a key initiative by the Government of India aimed at refunding various embedded taxes and duties on exported products.
Statement 2 is not correct: The Government of India has announced extension of the RoDTEP Scheme support to additional export sectors i.e. Advance Authorisation (AA) holders, Export Oriented Units (EOU) and Special Economic Zones (SEZ) export units.
This decision comes in recognition of the significant contribution these sectors make to India’s Exports, constituting approximately 25% of our exports.
By providing support to crucial export sectors, the government aims to not only enhance their competitiveness but also create employment opportunities and contribute to overall economic growth, aligning with the vision of building an Aatmanirbhar Bharat.
• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Per-and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS): They are termed forever chemicals because they tend to remain in rainwater and soil for long period. These chemicals are used to make non-stick cookware, water-repellent clothing and stain-resistant fabrics. Their mobility confers them long-range transport potential causing their pervasive spreading even into remote regions. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: “Per- and polyfluoroalkyl substances,” (PFAs), which are called “forever chemicals” because of their tendency to stick around in the atmosphere, rainwater and soil for long periods of time. Statement 2 is correct: PFAs are man-made chemicals used to make non-stick cookware, water-repellent clothing, stain-resistant fabrics, cosmetics, firefighting forms and many other products that resist grease, water and oil. PFAs can migrate to the soil, water and air during their production and use. Statement 3 is correct: Common features of PFAS are represented by their chemical stability which causes environmental persistence, their high mobility which confers them a long-range transport potential causing their pervasive spreading even into remote regions. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: “Per- and polyfluoroalkyl substances,” (PFAs), which are called “forever chemicals” because of their tendency to stick around in the atmosphere, rainwater and soil for long periods of time. Statement 2 is correct: PFAs are man-made chemicals used to make non-stick cookware, water-repellent clothing, stain-resistant fabrics, cosmetics, firefighting forms and many other products that resist grease, water and oil. PFAs can migrate to the soil, water and air during their production and use. Statement 3 is correct: Common features of PFAS are represented by their chemical stability which causes environmental persistence, their high mobility which confers them a long-range transport potential causing their pervasive spreading even into remote regions.
#### 16. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Per-and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS):
• They are termed forever chemicals because they tend to remain in rainwater and soil for long period.
• These chemicals are used to make non-stick cookware, water-repellent clothing and stain-resistant fabrics.
• Their mobility confers them long-range transport potential causing their pervasive spreading even into remote regions.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: “Per- and polyfluoroalkyl substances,” (PFAs), which are called “forever chemicals” because of their tendency to stick around in the atmosphere, rainwater and soil for long periods of time.
Statement 2 is correct: PFAs are man-made chemicals used to make non-stick cookware, water-repellent clothing, stain-resistant fabrics, cosmetics, firefighting forms and many other products that resist grease, water and oil. PFAs can migrate to the soil, water and air during their production and use.
Statement 3 is correct: Common features of PFAS are represented by their chemical stability which causes environmental persistence, their high mobility which confers them a long-range transport potential causing their pervasive spreading even into remote regions.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: “Per- and polyfluoroalkyl substances,” (PFAs), which are called “forever chemicals” because of their tendency to stick around in the atmosphere, rainwater and soil for long periods of time.
Statement 2 is correct: PFAs are man-made chemicals used to make non-stick cookware, water-repellent clothing, stain-resistant fabrics, cosmetics, firefighting forms and many other products that resist grease, water and oil. PFAs can migrate to the soil, water and air during their production and use.
Statement 3 is correct: Common features of PFAS are represented by their chemical stability which causes environmental persistence, their high mobility which confers them a long-range transport potential causing their pervasive spreading even into remote regions.
• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points With reference to Polar Vortex, consider the following statements: It is an area of low pressure and cold air surrounding the Earth’s poles. It only exists near the poles and gets weakened during the winters. It is essentially a feature that exists at the Earth’s surface. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The polar vortex is a large area of low pressure and cold air surrounding both of the Earth’s poles. Statement 2 is not correct: It ALWAYS exists near the poles, but weakens in summer and strengthens in winter. The term “vortex” refers to the counter-clockwise flow of air that helps keep the colder air near the Poles. Many times during winter in the northern hemisphere, the polar vortex will expand, sending cold air southward with the jet stream. There are several things the polar vortex is NOT. Polar vortexes are not something new. The term “polar vortex” has only recently been popularized, bringing attention to a weather feature that has always been present. Statement 3 is not correct: It is also not a feature that exists at the Earth’s surface. Weather forecasters examine the polar vortex by looking at conditions tens of thousands of feet up in the atmosphere. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The polar vortex is a large area of low pressure and cold air surrounding both of the Earth’s poles. Statement 2 is not correct: It ALWAYS exists near the poles, but weakens in summer and strengthens in winter. The term “vortex” refers to the counter-clockwise flow of air that helps keep the colder air near the Poles. Many times during winter in the northern hemisphere, the polar vortex will expand, sending cold air southward with the jet stream. There are several things the polar vortex is NOT. Polar vortexes are not something new. The term “polar vortex” has only recently been popularized, bringing attention to a weather feature that has always been present. Statement 3 is not correct: It is also not a feature that exists at the Earth’s surface. Weather forecasters examine the polar vortex by looking at conditions tens of thousands of feet up in the atmosphere.
#### 17. Question
With reference to Polar Vortex, consider the following statements:
• It is an area of low pressure and cold air surrounding the Earth’s poles.
• It only exists near the poles and gets weakened during the winters.
• It is essentially a feature that exists at the Earth’s surface.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The polar vortex is a large area of low pressure and cold air surrounding both of the Earth’s poles.
Statement 2 is not correct: It ALWAYS exists near the poles, but weakens in summer and strengthens in winter.
The term “vortex” refers to the counter-clockwise flow of air that helps keep the colder air near the Poles.
Many times during winter in the northern hemisphere, the polar vortex will expand, sending cold air southward with the jet stream.
There are several things the polar vortex is NOT. Polar vortexes are not something new. The term “polar vortex” has only recently been popularized, bringing attention to a weather feature that has always been present.
Statement 3 is not correct: It is also not a feature that exists at the Earth’s surface. Weather forecasters examine the polar vortex by looking at conditions tens of thousands of feet up in the atmosphere.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The polar vortex is a large area of low pressure and cold air surrounding both of the Earth’s poles.
Statement 2 is not correct: It ALWAYS exists near the poles, but weakens in summer and strengthens in winter.
The term “vortex” refers to the counter-clockwise flow of air that helps keep the colder air near the Poles.
Many times during winter in the northern hemisphere, the polar vortex will expand, sending cold air southward with the jet stream.
There are several things the polar vortex is NOT. Polar vortexes are not something new. The term “polar vortex” has only recently been popularized, bringing attention to a weather feature that has always been present.
Statement 3 is not correct: It is also not a feature that exists at the Earth’s surface. Weather forecasters examine the polar vortex by looking at conditions tens of thousands of feet up in the atmosphere.
• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Which one of the following statements *does not provide the purpose of the Eco-sensitive Zones of India? (a) Avoid environmental degradation due to anthropogenic activities. (b) Create some kind of shock absorber for the specialized ecosystem. (c) Act as a transition zone from higher protection to areas of lesser protection. (d) Prohibit activities like agricultural or horticultural practices in the region. Correct Answer: D Explanation: Option (d) is correct: Purpose of Eco-Sensitive Zones: Protect environment and avoid its degradation due to anthropogenic activities. Create some kind of barrier/ shock absorber for the specialized ecosystem (PAs). Act as transition zone from areas of higher protection to areas involving lesser protection. The guidelines list the activities prohibited in an ESZ, such as commercial mining, saw mills, commercial use of wood, etc., apart from regulated activities like felling of trees. Lastly, there are permitted activities like ongoing agricultural or horticultural practices, rainwater harvesting, organic farming, among others. Incorrect Answer: D Explanation: Option (d) is correct: *Purpose of Eco-Sensitive Zones: Protect environment and avoid its degradation due to anthropogenic activities. Create some kind of barrier/ shock absorber for the specialized ecosystem (PAs). Act as transition zone from areas of higher protection to areas involving lesser protection. The guidelines list the activities prohibited in an ESZ, such as commercial mining, saw mills, commercial use of wood, etc., apart from regulated activities like felling of trees. Lastly, there are permitted activities like ongoing agricultural or horticultural practices, rainwater harvesting, organic farming, among others.
#### 18. Question
Which one of the following statements *does not* provide the purpose of the Eco-sensitive Zones of India?
• (a) Avoid environmental degradation due to anthropogenic activities.
• (b) Create some kind of shock absorber for the specialized ecosystem.
• (c) Act as a transition zone from higher protection to areas of lesser protection.
• (d) Prohibit activities like agricultural or horticultural practices in the region.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Option (d) is correct: Purpose of Eco-Sensitive Zones:
• Protect environment and avoid its degradation due to anthropogenic activities.
• Create some kind of barrier/ shock absorber for the specialized ecosystem (PAs).
• Act as transition zone from areas of higher protection to areas involving lesser protection.
The guidelines list the activities prohibited in an ESZ, such as commercial mining, saw mills, commercial use of wood, etc., apart from regulated activities like felling of trees.
Lastly, there are permitted activities like ongoing agricultural or horticultural practices, rainwater harvesting, organic farming, among others.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Option (d) is correct: Purpose of Eco-Sensitive Zones:
• Protect environment and avoid its degradation due to anthropogenic activities.
• Create some kind of barrier/ shock absorber for the specialized ecosystem (PAs).
• Act as transition zone from areas of higher protection to areas involving lesser protection.
The guidelines list the activities prohibited in an ESZ, such as commercial mining, saw mills, commercial use of wood, etc., apart from regulated activities like felling of trees.
Lastly, there are permitted activities like ongoing agricultural or horticultural practices, rainwater harvesting, organic farming, among others.
• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points With reference to the Spotted deer, consider the following statements: It is referred to as Sengai and is found in Keibul Lamjao National Park in Manipur. It walks on the hind surface of its pasterns with mincing hops over floating foliage. Its sexes are not dimorphic in body size and the rump patch is not pronounced. How many of the statements given above are *not correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: The spotted deer, or chital, is the most common deer species in Indian forests. With a lifespan of about 20 to 30 years, it stands at about 35 inches tall and weighs about 187 pounds. The deer’s golden-rufus coloring is speckled with white spots, and it has a white underbelly. Its curved, three-pronged antlers extend nearly 3 feet and shed each year. Statement 2 is not correct: Sangai/Brow-antlered deer is a medium-sized deer, with uniquely distinctive antlers, with extremely long brow tine, which form the main beam. Sengai walks on the hind surface of its pasterns with mincing hops over floating foliage, and is hence also called the Dancing Deer. All the features in the Statements are associated with the Brow-antlered deer. Statement 3 is not correct: Due to the tropical conditions, males do not have synchronized antler cycles. The size and hardness of a male’s antlers demonstrate their dominance; those with velvet antlers that are still growing or have no horns at all are unlikely to fight for a female’s attention. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: The spotted deer, or chital, is the most common deer species in Indian forests. With a lifespan of about 20 to 30 years, it stands at about 35 inches tall and weighs about 187 pounds. The deer’s golden-rufus coloring is speckled with white spots, and it has a white underbelly. Its curved, three-pronged antlers extend nearly 3 feet and shed each year. Statement 2 is not correct: Sangai/Brow-antlered deer is a medium-sized deer, with uniquely distinctive antlers, with extremely long brow tine, which form the main beam. Sengai walks on the hind surface of its pasterns with mincing hops over floating foliage, and is hence also called the Dancing Deer. All the features in the Statements are associated with the Brow-antlered deer. Statement 3 is not correct:* Due to the tropical conditions, males do not have synchronized antler cycles. The size and hardness of a male’s antlers demonstrate their dominance; those with velvet antlers that are still growing or have no horns at all are unlikely to fight for a female’s attention.
#### 19. Question
With reference to the Spotted deer, consider the following statements:
• It is referred to as Sengai and is found in Keibul Lamjao National Park in Manipur.
• It walks on the hind surface of its pasterns with mincing hops over floating foliage.
• Its sexes are not dimorphic in body size and the rump patch is not pronounced.
How many of the statements given above are *not* correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is not correct: The spotted deer, or chital, is the most common deer species in Indian forests. With a lifespan of about 20 to 30 years, it stands at about 35 inches tall and weighs about 187 pounds.
The deer’s golden-rufus coloring is speckled with white spots, and it has a white underbelly. Its curved, three-pronged antlers extend nearly 3 feet and shed each year.
Statement 2 is not correct: Sangai/Brow-antlered deer is a medium-sized deer, with uniquely distinctive antlers, with extremely long brow tine, which form the main beam.
Sengai walks on the hind surface of its pasterns with mincing hops over floating foliage, and is hence also called the Dancing Deer.
All the features in the Statements are associated with the Brow-antlered deer.
Statement 3 is not correct: Due to the tropical conditions, males do not have synchronized antler cycles. The size and hardness of a male’s antlers demonstrate their dominance; those with velvet antlers that are still growing or have no horns at all are unlikely to fight for a female’s attention.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is not correct: The spotted deer, or chital, is the most common deer species in Indian forests. With a lifespan of about 20 to 30 years, it stands at about 35 inches tall and weighs about 187 pounds.
The deer’s golden-rufus coloring is speckled with white spots, and it has a white underbelly. Its curved, three-pronged antlers extend nearly 3 feet and shed each year.
Statement 2 is not correct: Sangai/Brow-antlered deer is a medium-sized deer, with uniquely distinctive antlers, with extremely long brow tine, which form the main beam.
Sengai walks on the hind surface of its pasterns with mincing hops over floating foliage, and is hence also called the Dancing Deer.
All the features in the Statements are associated with the Brow-antlered deer.
Statement 3 is not correct: Due to the tropical conditions, males do not have synchronized antler cycles. The size and hardness of a male’s antlers demonstrate their dominance; those with velvet antlers that are still growing or have no horns at all are unlikely to fight for a female’s attention.
• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points With reference to Mozambique, consider the following statements: It is a country located in Southern Africa. It has a coastline on the Indian Ocean to the east. It is bordered by six countries including Botswana. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Mozambique is a country in Southern Africa and is located in the Southern and Eastern Hemispheres of the Earth. Statement 2 is correct: The country also has a coastline on the Indian Ocean to the east. Statement 3 is not correct: It is bordered by six countries. These are Tanzania to the north, Zambia and Malawi to the northwest, and Zimbabwe to the west. South Africa and Eswatini border Mozambique to the southwest. The island countries and territories of Madagascar, Comoros, and Mayotte are separated from Mozambique by the Mozambique Channel. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Mozambique is a country in Southern Africa and is located in the Southern and Eastern Hemispheres of the Earth. Statement 2 is correct: The country also has a coastline on the Indian Ocean to the east. Statement 3 is not correct: It is bordered by six countries. These are Tanzania to the north, Zambia and Malawi to the northwest, and Zimbabwe to the west. South Africa and Eswatini border Mozambique to the southwest. The island countries and territories of Madagascar, Comoros, and Mayotte are separated from Mozambique by the Mozambique Channel.
#### 20. Question
With reference to Mozambique, consider the following statements:
• It is a country located in Southern Africa.
• It has a coastline on the Indian Ocean to the east.
• It is bordered by six countries including Botswana.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Mozambique is a country in Southern Africa and is located in the Southern and Eastern Hemispheres of the Earth.
Statement 2 is correct: The country also has a coastline on the Indian Ocean to the east.
Statement 3 is not correct: It is bordered by six countries. These are Tanzania to the north, Zambia and Malawi to the northwest, and Zimbabwe to the west. South Africa and Eswatini border Mozambique to the southwest.
The island countries and territories of Madagascar, Comoros, and Mayotte are separated from Mozambique by the Mozambique Channel.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Mozambique is a country in Southern Africa and is located in the Southern and Eastern Hemispheres of the Earth.
Statement 2 is correct: The country also has a coastline on the Indian Ocean to the east.
Statement 3 is not correct: It is bordered by six countries. These are Tanzania to the north, Zambia and Malawi to the northwest, and Zimbabwe to the west. South Africa and Eswatini border Mozambique to the southwest.
The island countries and territories of Madagascar, Comoros, and Mayotte are separated from Mozambique by the Mozambique Channel.
• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Ladakh lies at a strategic location between the Indus River valley and Hindukhush Mountains. Brokpas are the ancient settlers of Ladakh with mitochondrial lineage going back to the Neolithic period. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: C Explanation: Ladakh is a high-altitude region, characterised by an alternating valley-range configuration with complex terrain and micro-climates operating over the terrain-facets and snowfall. Statement 1 is correct: It lies at a strategic location between the Indus River valley and the Hindukhush Mountains, which makes this “Land of high passes” one of the major routes for movement of people. Through the years, the region has faced multi-layered cultural movements, genetic assimilation and demographic changes. The maternal genetic lineages of the Brokpa, Changpa and Monpa populations of Ladakh region are related to lineages that are commonly found in South Asia, East Asia, and Tibet. Statement 2 is correct: Brokpas are the most ancient settlers of the region, with very deep mitochondrial lineage going back to Neolithic period. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Ladakh is a high-altitude region, characterised by an alternating valley-range configuration with complex terrain and micro-climates operating over the terrain-facets and snowfall. Statement 1 is correct: It lies at a strategic location between the Indus River valley and the Hindukhush Mountains, which makes this “Land of high passes” one of the major routes for movement of people. Through the years, the region has faced multi-layered cultural movements, genetic assimilation and demographic changes. The maternal genetic lineages of the Brokpa, Changpa and Monpa populations of Ladakh region are related to lineages that are commonly found in South Asia, East Asia, and Tibet. Statement 2 is correct: Brokpas are the most ancient settlers of the region, with very deep mitochondrial lineage going back to Neolithic period.
#### 21. Question
Consider the following statements:
• Ladakh lies at a strategic location between the Indus River valley and Hindukhush Mountains.
• Brokpas are the ancient settlers of Ladakh with mitochondrial lineage going back to the Neolithic period.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Explanation:
Ladakh is a high-altitude region, characterised by an alternating valley-range configuration with complex terrain and micro-climates operating over the terrain-facets and snowfall.
Statement 1 is correct: It lies at a strategic location between the Indus River valley and the Hindukhush Mountains, which makes this “Land of high passes” one of the major routes for movement of people.
• Through the years, the region has faced multi-layered cultural movements, genetic assimilation and demographic changes.
• The maternal genetic lineages of the Brokpa, Changpa and Monpa populations of Ladakh region are related to lineages that are commonly found in South Asia, East Asia, and Tibet.
Statement 2 is correct: Brokpas are the most ancient settlers of the region, with very deep mitochondrial lineage going back to Neolithic period.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Ladakh is a high-altitude region, characterised by an alternating valley-range configuration with complex terrain and micro-climates operating over the terrain-facets and snowfall.
Statement 1 is correct: It lies at a strategic location between the Indus River valley and the Hindukhush Mountains, which makes this “Land of high passes” one of the major routes for movement of people.
• Through the years, the region has faced multi-layered cultural movements, genetic assimilation and demographic changes.
• The maternal genetic lineages of the Brokpa, Changpa and Monpa populations of Ladakh region are related to lineages that are commonly found in South Asia, East Asia, and Tibet.
Statement 2 is correct: Brokpas are the most ancient settlers of the region, with very deep mitochondrial lineage going back to Neolithic period.
• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Which one of the following Organisations has recently released the Global Unicorn Index, 2024? (a) The Reserve Bank of India (b) The International Monetary Fund (c) The United Nations Development Programme (d) None of the above Correct Answer: D Explanation: Option (d) is correct: The Hurun Research Institute released the Global Unicorn Index 2024, a ranking of the world’s start-ups founded in the 2000s, worth at least a billion dollars and not yet listed on a public exchange. The cut-off was 1 January 2024, with significant changes in valuation updated up to the date of release. Hurun Research has been tracking unicorns since 2017. Incorrect Answer: D Explanation: Option (d) is correct: The Hurun Research Institute released the Global Unicorn Index 2024, a ranking of the world’s start-ups founded in the 2000s, worth at least a billion dollars and not yet listed on a public exchange. The cut-off was 1 January 2024, with significant changes in valuation updated up to the date of release. Hurun Research has been tracking unicorns since 2017.
#### 22. Question
Which one of the following Organisations has recently released the Global Unicorn Index, 2024?
• (a) The Reserve Bank of India
• (b) The International Monetary Fund
• (c) The United Nations Development Programme
• (d) None of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
Option (d) is correct: The Hurun Research Institute released the Global Unicorn Index 2024, a ranking of the world’s start-ups founded in the 2000s, worth at least a billion dollars and not yet listed on a public exchange.
The cut-off was 1 January 2024, with significant changes in valuation updated up to the date of release. Hurun Research has been tracking unicorns since 2017.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Option (d) is correct: The Hurun Research Institute released the Global Unicorn Index 2024, a ranking of the world’s start-ups founded in the 2000s, worth at least a billion dollars and not yet listed on a public exchange.
The cut-off was 1 January 2024, with significant changes in valuation updated up to the date of release. Hurun Research has been tracking unicorns since 2017.
• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Kaladan Multimodal Transit Transport Project: It was jointly identified by India and Maldives to create a multi-modal mode of transport for shipment of cargo. It envisages a waterway trade route from Sittwe Port and a road route along the India-Maldivian border. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: D Explanation: Option (d) is correct: The Kaladan Multimodal Transit Transport Project (KMTTP) was jointly identified by India and Myanmar to create a multi modal mode of transport for shipment of cargo. KMTTP envisages a waterway trade route from Sittwe Port to Paletwa (158 Kms) along the river Kaladan and road route from Paletwa to India-Myanmar border of 110Kms. Incorrect Answer: D Explanation: Option (d) is correct: The Kaladan Multimodal Transit Transport Project (KMTTP) was jointly identified by India and Myanmar to create a multi modal mode of transport for shipment of cargo. KMTTP envisages a waterway trade route from Sittwe Port to Paletwa (158 Kms) along the river Kaladan and road route from Paletwa to India-Myanmar border of 110Kms.
#### 23. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Kaladan Multimodal Transit Transport Project:
• It was jointly identified by India and Maldives to create a multi-modal mode of transport for shipment of cargo.
• It envisages a waterway trade route from Sittwe Port and a road route along the India-Maldivian border.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• c) Both 1 and 2
• d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
Explanation:
Option (d) is correct: The Kaladan Multimodal Transit Transport Project (KMTTP) was jointly identified by India and Myanmar to create a multi modal mode of transport for shipment of cargo.
KMTTP envisages a waterway trade route from Sittwe Port to Paletwa (158 Kms) along the river Kaladan and road route from Paletwa to India-Myanmar border of 110Kms.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Option (d) is correct: The Kaladan Multimodal Transit Transport Project (KMTTP) was jointly identified by India and Myanmar to create a multi modal mode of transport for shipment of cargo.
KMTTP envisages a waterway trade route from Sittwe Port to Paletwa (158 Kms) along the river Kaladan and road route from Paletwa to India-Myanmar border of 110Kms.
• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the START Programme: It is an online programme associated with space awareness. It covers the domains of Heliophysics and Aeronomy. It includes students enrolled under the PM–SHRI scheme. It has been launched by New Space India Limited. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Answer: B Explanation: Option (b) is correct: ISRO has launched a new introductory-level online training programme called ‘Space Science and Technology Awareness Training (START)’ aimed at post-graduate and final-year undergraduate students of physical sciences and technology. PM Shri students are not included under the programme. The programme will cover various domains of space science, including Astronomy & Astrophysics, Heliophysics & Sun-Earth interaction, Instrumentation, and Aeronomy. It will be delivered by the scientists from Indian academia and ISRO centres. The START programme is part of ISRO’s efforts to enable Indian students to become professionals in space science and technology, as the organization’s space science exploration program continues to expand into new domains. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Option (b) is correct: ISRO has launched a new introductory-level online training programme called ‘Space Science and Technology Awareness Training (START)’ aimed at post-graduate and final-year undergraduate students of physical sciences and technology. PM Shri students are not included under the programme. The programme will cover various domains of space science, including Astronomy & Astrophysics, Heliophysics & Sun-Earth interaction, Instrumentation, and Aeronomy. It will be delivered by the scientists from Indian academia and ISRO centres. The START programme is part of ISRO’s efforts to enable Indian students to become professionals in space science and technology, as the organization’s space science exploration program continues to expand into new domains.
#### 24. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the START Programme:
• It is an online programme associated with space awareness.
• It covers the domains of Heliophysics and Aeronomy.
• It includes students enrolled under the PM–SHRI scheme.
• It has been launched by New Space India Limited.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) Only three
• (d) All four
Answer: B
Explanation:
Option (b) is correct: ISRO has launched a new introductory-level online training programme called ‘Space Science and Technology Awareness Training (START)’ aimed at post-graduate and final-year undergraduate students of physical sciences and technology.
• PM Shri students are not included under the programme.
• The programme will cover various domains of space science, including Astronomy & Astrophysics, Heliophysics & Sun-Earth interaction, Instrumentation, and Aeronomy.
• It will be delivered by the scientists from Indian academia and ISRO centres.
• The START programme is part of ISRO’s efforts to enable Indian students to become professionals in space science and technology, as the organization’s space science exploration program continues to expand into new domains.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Option (b) is correct: ISRO has launched a new introductory-level online training programme called ‘Space Science and Technology Awareness Training (START)’ aimed at post-graduate and final-year undergraduate students of physical sciences and technology.
• PM Shri students are not included under the programme.
• The programme will cover various domains of space science, including Astronomy & Astrophysics, Heliophysics & Sun-Earth interaction, Instrumentation, and Aeronomy.
• It will be delivered by the scientists from Indian academia and ISRO centres.
• The START programme is part of ISRO’s efforts to enable Indian students to become professionals in space science and technology, as the organization’s space science exploration program continues to expand into new domains.
• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Annual Land Use and Land Cover Atlas of India: The National Remote Sensing Centre undertakes this annual assessment for India. Its outcome encompasses preparation of Annual Rabi and Kharif crop sown data. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: C Explanation: Option (c) is correct: Since 2005, the National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC) has been undertaking annual assessment of Annual Land Use and Land Cover Atlas of India for the country under Natural Resources Census (NRC) Programme of ISRO. The outcome of this project encompasses preparation of geo-spatial dataset on 56m resolution comprising of: Annual Land Use and Land Cover data for India, Annual Kharif and Rabi crop sown data, Monthly Kharif sown area for August and September, Monthly Rabi sown area for December and January Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Option (c) is correct: Since 2005, the National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC) has been undertaking annual assessment of Annual Land Use and Land Cover Atlas of India for the country under Natural Resources Census (NRC) Programme of ISRO. The outcome of this project encompasses preparation of geo-spatial dataset on 56m resolution comprising of: Annual Land Use and Land Cover data for India, Annual Kharif and Rabi crop sown data, Monthly Kharif sown area for August and September, Monthly Rabi sown area for December and January
#### 25. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Annual Land Use and Land Cover Atlas of India:
• The National Remote Sensing Centre undertakes this annual assessment for India.
• Its outcome encompasses preparation of Annual Rabi and Kharif crop sown data.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Explanation:
Option (c) is correct: Since 2005, the National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC) has been undertaking annual assessment of Annual Land Use and Land Cover Atlas of India for the country under Natural Resources Census (NRC) Programme of ISRO.
The outcome of this project encompasses preparation of geo-spatial dataset on 56m resolution comprising of:
• Annual Land Use and Land Cover data for India,
• Annual Kharif and Rabi crop sown data,
• Monthly Kharif sown area for August and September,
• Monthly Rabi sown area for December and January
Answer: C
Explanation:
Option (c) is correct: Since 2005, the National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC) has been undertaking annual assessment of Annual Land Use and Land Cover Atlas of India for the country under Natural Resources Census (NRC) Programme of ISRO.
The outcome of this project encompasses preparation of geo-spatial dataset on 56m resolution comprising of:
• Annual Land Use and Land Cover data for India,
• Annual Kharif and Rabi crop sown data,
• Monthly Kharif sown area for August and September,
• Monthly Rabi sown area for December and January
• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points Gandhiji recognized that, while all men should have equal opportunity, all did not have the same capacity. Some had the ability to earn more than others. But, he believed that those who had talent would be performing the work of society if they used their talent well. Gandhiji said that he would allow a man of intellect to earn more and not suppress his talent. But it was his view that the bulk of his larger earnings should go to the common fund. Those with talent and opportunity would find their fulfilment as trustees. Gandhiji extended this concept of trusteeship to cover all fields of life. The crux of the passage is that Gandhiji never believed in A. Social equality of ruler and ruled B. Procedural equality of all C. Differential treatment for downtrodden D. Complete equality in all respect Correct Answer: D Gandhiji is supporting equality of opportunity in procedural sense only, he does not prefer equality of outcomes, so he would not mind if someone earns more than others, and since by nature some can be better than others he is against assumptions that all are equal. Incorrect Answer: D Gandhiji is supporting equality of opportunity in procedural sense only, he does not prefer equality of outcomes, so he would not mind if someone earns more than others, and since by nature some can be better than others he is against assumptions that all are equal.
#### 26. Question
Gandhiji recognized that, while all men should have equal opportunity, all did not have the same capacity. Some had the ability to earn more than others. But, he believed that those who had talent would be performing the work of society if they used their talent well. Gandhiji said that he would allow a man of intellect to earn more and not suppress his talent. But it was his view that the bulk of his larger earnings should go to the common fund. Those with talent and opportunity would find their fulfilment as trustees. Gandhiji extended this concept of trusteeship to cover all fields of life.
The crux of the passage is that Gandhiji never believed in
• A. Social equality of ruler and ruled
• B. Procedural equality of all
• C. Differential treatment for downtrodden
• D. Complete equality in all respect
Gandhiji is supporting equality of opportunity in procedural sense only, he does not prefer equality of outcomes, so he would not mind if someone earns more than others, and since by nature some can be better than others he is against assumptions that all are equal.
Gandhiji is supporting equality of opportunity in procedural sense only, he does not prefer equality of outcomes, so he would not mind if someone earns more than others, and since by nature some can be better than others he is against assumptions that all are equal.
• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points Gandhiji recognized that, while all men should have equal opportunity, all did not have the same capacity. Some had the ability to earn more than others. But, he believed that those who had talent would be performing the work of society if they used their talent well. Gandhiji said that he would allow a man of intellect to earn more and not suppress his talent. But it was his view that the bulk of his larger earnings should go to the common fund. Those with talent and opportunity would find their fulfilment as trustees. Gandhiji extended this concept of trusteeship to cover all fields of life. On the basis of above passage the following assumptions have been made: Gandhiji believed that one can serve the society if ones talent is used wisely Gandhiji propounded that a man of intellect should earn for others not for himself Which of the assumptions is/are valid? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 & 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: C Incorrect Answer: C
#### 27. Question
Gandhiji recognized that, while all men should have equal opportunity, all did not have the same capacity. Some had the ability to earn more than others. But, he believed that those who had talent would be performing the work of society if they used their talent well. Gandhiji said that he would allow a man of intellect to earn more and not suppress his talent. But it was his view that the bulk of his larger earnings should go to the common fund. Those with talent and opportunity would find their fulfilment as trustees. Gandhiji extended this concept of trusteeship to cover all fields of life.
On the basis of above passage the following assumptions have been made:
• Gandhiji believed that one can serve the society if ones talent is used wisely
• Gandhiji propounded that a man of intellect should earn for others not for himself
Which of the assumptions is/are valid?
• C. Both 1 & 2
• D. Neither 1 nor 2
• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points The logical and practical corollary that can be made from the above passage are: Gandhi is a capitalist Gandhiji does not subscribe to equality of outcomes Code: A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 & 2 D. Neither 1 nor Correct Answer: B The passage does not help us to conclude he was socialist or capitalist. He is supporting economic freedom but again imposes social duty, so we can’t make a corollary. Next, Gandhi does not mind some earning more than other, so it is true that he does not subscribe to equality of outcomes. So 2 alone is correct. As shown by the passage Gandhi believes in promoting special privileges like talent but that should be for social good, so 2 is correct and also, passage obviously tells using talents well can help us serve society, so 1 is also correct. Incorrect Answer: B The passage does not help us to conclude he was socialist or capitalist. He is supporting economic freedom but again imposes social duty, so we can’t make a corollary. Next, Gandhi does not mind some earning more than other, so it is true that he does not subscribe to equality of outcomes. So 2 alone is correct. As shown by the passage Gandhi believes in promoting special privileges like talent but that should be for social good, so 2 is correct and also, passage obviously tells using talents well can help us serve society, so 1 is also correct.
#### 28. Question
The logical and practical corollary that can be made from the above passage are:
• Gandhi is a capitalist Gandhiji does not subscribe to equality of outcomes
• Gandhi is a capitalist
• Gandhiji does not subscribe to equality of outcomes
• C. Both 1 & 2
• D. Neither 1 nor
The passage does not help us to conclude he was socialist or capitalist. He is supporting economic freedom but again imposes social duty, so we can’t make a corollary. Next, Gandhi does not mind some earning more than other, so it is true that he does not subscribe to equality of outcomes. So 2 alone is correct.
As shown by the passage Gandhi believes in promoting special privileges like talent but that should be for social good, so 2 is correct and also, passage obviously tells using talents well can help us serve society, so 1 is also correct.
The passage does not help us to conclude he was socialist or capitalist. He is supporting economic freedom but again imposes social duty, so we can’t make a corollary. Next, Gandhi does not mind some earning more than other, so it is true that he does not subscribe to equality of outcomes. So 2 alone is correct.
As shown by the passage Gandhi believes in promoting special privileges like talent but that should be for social good, so 2 is correct and also, passage obviously tells using talents well can help us serve society, so 1 is also correct.
• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points A bag contains ‘x’ red, ‘x+5’ blue and ‘x + 7’ grey balls. If two balls are randomly drawn from the bag and the probability that both the balls are of same colour is 148/435, then find the total number of balls in the bag. A. 36 balls B. 64 balls C. 58 balls D. 30 balls Correct Answer D) 30 balls Number of red balls = x Number of blue balls = x + 5 Number of grey balls = x + 7 Total number of balls in the bag = 3x + 12 The probability that both the balls are of same colour =( xC2 + x+5C2 + x+7C2 ) / 3x+12 C2 = 148/ 435 = [x(x – 1) + (x + 5) (x + 4) + (x + 7) (x + 6)] /(3x + 12) (3x + 11) = 148/ 435 =( x2– x + x2 + 9x + 20 + x2+ 13x + 42) / 9x + 69x + 132 =148 /435 = (3 x2 + 21x + 62 ) / 9 x2+ 69x + 132 = 148/435 = 1305 x2 + 9135x + 26970 = 1332 x2 + 10212x + 19536 = 27 x2 + 1077x – 7434 = 0 = 9 x2 + 359x – 2478 = 0 = 9 x2+ 413x – 54x – 2478 = 0 = x (9x + 413) – 6 (9x + 413) = 0 = (x – 6) (9x + 413) = 0 = x = 6 , –413/9 Value of x can’t be negative. So, x = 6 So, the total number of balls in the bag = 6 + 11 + 13 = 30 balls Hence, option D is correct. Incorrect Answer D) 30 balls Number of red balls = x Number of blue balls = x + 5 Number of grey balls = x + 7 Total number of balls in the bag = 3x + 12 The probability that both the balls are of same colour =( xC2 + x+5C2 + x+7C2 ) / 3x+12 C2 = 148/ 435 = [x(x – 1) + (x + 5) (x + 4) + (x + 7) (x + 6)] /(3x + 12) (3x + 11) = 148/ 435 =( x2– x + x2 + 9x + 20 + x2+ 13x + 42) / 9x + 69x + 132 =148 /435 = (3 x2 + 21x + 62 ) / 9 x2+ 69x + 132 = 148/435 = 1305 x2 + 9135x + 26970 = 1332 x2 + 10212x + 19536 = 27 x2 + 1077x – 7434 = 0 = 9 x2 + 359x – 2478 = 0 = 9 x2+ 413x – 54x – 2478 = 0 = x (9x + 413) – 6 (9x + 413) = 0 = (x – 6) (9x + 413) = 0 = x = 6 , –413/9 Value of x can’t be negative. So, x = 6 So, the total number of balls in the bag = 6 + 11 + 13 = 30 balls Hence, option D is correct.
#### 29. Question
A bag contains ‘x’ red, ‘x+5’ blue and ‘x + 7’ grey balls. If two balls are randomly drawn from the bag and the probability that both the balls are of same colour is 148/435, then find the total number of balls in the bag.
• A. 36 balls
• B. 64 balls
• C. 58 balls
• D. 30 balls
Answer D) 30 balls
Number of red balls = x
Number of blue balls = x + 5
Number of grey balls = x + 7
Total number of balls in the bag = 3x + 12
The probability that both the balls are of same colour =( xC2 + x+5C2 + x+7C2 ) / 3x+12 C2 = 148/ 435
= [x(x – 1) + (x + 5) (x + 4) + (x + 7) (x + 6)] /(3x + 12) (3x + 11) = 148/ 435
=( x2– x + x2 + 9x + 20 + x2+ 13x + 42) / 9x + 69x + 132 =148 /435
= (3 x2 + 21x + 62 ) / 9 x2+ 69x + 132 = 148/435
= 1305 x2 + 9135x + 26970 = 1332 x2 + 10212x + 19536
= 27 x2 + 1077x – 7434 = 0
= 9 x2 + 359x – 2478 = 0
= 9 x2+ 413x – 54x – 2478 = 0
= x (9x + 413) – 6 (9x + 413) = 0
= (x – 6) (9x + 413) = 0
= x = 6 , –413/9
Value of x can’t be negative.
So, the total number of balls in the bag = 6 + 11 + 13 = 30 balls
Hence, option D is correct.
Answer D) 30 balls
Number of red balls = x
Number of blue balls = x + 5
Number of grey balls = x + 7
Total number of balls in the bag = 3x + 12
The probability that both the balls are of same colour =( xC2 + x+5C2 + x+7C2 ) / 3x+12 C2 = 148/ 435
= [x(x – 1) + (x + 5) (x + 4) + (x + 7) (x + 6)] /(3x + 12) (3x + 11) = 148/ 435
=( x2– x + x2 + 9x + 20 + x2+ 13x + 42) / 9x + 69x + 132 =148 /435
= (3 x2 + 21x + 62 ) / 9 x2+ 69x + 132 = 148/435
= 1305 x2 + 9135x + 26970 = 1332 x2 + 10212x + 19536
= 27 x2 + 1077x – 7434 = 0
= 9 x2 + 359x – 2478 = 0
= 9 x2+ 413x – 54x – 2478 = 0
= x (9x + 413) – 6 (9x + 413) = 0
= (x – 6) (9x + 413) = 0
= x = 6 , –413/9
Value of x can’t be negative.
So, the total number of balls in the bag = 6 + 11 + 13 = 30 balls
Hence, option D is correct.
• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points In how many ways can 10 similar balls be put in 4 distinct boxes such that each box contains at least 1 ball? a) 82 b) 84 c) 86 d) 88 Correct Answer B) 84 Solution: This question is almost similar to the previous question with a minor difference. In this question, each box must have at least 1 ball. Incorrect Answer B) 84 Solution: This question is almost similar to the previous question with a minor difference. In this question, each box must have at least 1 ball.
#### 30. Question
In how many ways can 10 similar balls be put in 4 distinct boxes such that each box contains at least 1 ball?
Answer B) 84
This question is almost similar to the previous question with a minor difference.
In this question, each box must have at least 1 ball.
Answer B) 84
This question is almost similar to the previous question with a minor difference.
In this question, each box must have at least 1 ball.
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