DAY – 30 : Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2025 : GOVERNMENT SCHEMES

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding United Nations Relief and Works Agency for Palestine Refugees in the Near East (UNRWA): It was established in response to the 1948 Arab-Israeli conflict. Its mandate includes providing assistance to Palestinian refugees in Jordan, Lebanon, and Syria only. UNRWA operates independently of the United Nations General Assembly. How many of the above statements given is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) None Correct Solution: A UNRWA was established in 1949 by the UN General Assembly (UNGA) to provide relief to all refugees resulting from the 1948 conflict. Following the 1948 Arab-Israeli War and Palestinian displacement, the UN first created the UN Relief for Palestine Refugees (UNRPR) in November 1948, and then established UNRWA on December 8, 1949 through Resolution 302(IV) Hence, statement 1 is correct. UNRWA operates in five areas: Jordan, Lebanon, Syria, the Gaza Strip and the West Bank, including East Jerusalem Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. UNRWA is a subsidiary organ established by the General Assembly Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution: A UNRWA was established in 1949 by the UN General Assembly (UNGA) to provide relief to all refugees resulting from the 1948 conflict. Following the 1948 Arab-Israeli War and Palestinian displacement, the UN first created the UN Relief for Palestine Refugees (UNRPR) in November 1948, and then established UNRWA on December 8, 1949 through Resolution 302(IV) Hence, statement 1 is correct. UNRWA operates in five areas: Jordan, Lebanon, Syria, the Gaza Strip and the West Bank, including East Jerusalem Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. UNRWA is a subsidiary organ established by the General Assembly Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding United Nations Relief and Works Agency for Palestine Refugees in the Near East (UNRWA):

• It was established in response to the 1948 Arab-Israeli conflict.

• Its mandate includes providing assistance to Palestinian refugees in Jordan, Lebanon, and Syria only.

• UNRWA operates independently of the United Nations General Assembly.

How many of the above statements given is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

Solution: A

UNRWA was established in 1949 by the UN General Assembly (UNGA) to provide relief to all refugees resulting from the 1948 conflict. Following the 1948 Arab-Israeli War and Palestinian displacement, the UN first created the UN Relief for Palestine Refugees (UNRPR) in November 1948, and then established UNRWA on December 8, 1949 through Resolution 302(IV)

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

UNRWA operates in five areas: Jordan, Lebanon, Syria, the Gaza Strip and the West Bank, including East Jerusalem

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

UNRWA is a subsidiary organ established by the General Assembly

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution: A

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

UNRWA operates in five areas: Jordan, Lebanon, Syria, the Gaza Strip and the West Bank, including East Jerusalem

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

UNRWA is a subsidiary organ established by the General Assembly

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The International Committee of the Red Cross was established following the adoption of the First Geneva Convention. It is mandated by the international community to be the guardian of international humanitarian law. It has a permanent observer status at the United Nations General Assembly. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Correct Solution: B The ICRC met for the first time in February 1863 in Geneva, Switzerland and in August 1864 it persuaded governments to adopt the first Geneva Convention. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. As the guardian of humanitarian law, the ICRC takes measures to ensure respect for, to promote, to reaffirm and even to clarify and develop this body of law Hence, statement 2 is correct. On 16 October 1990, the UN General Assembly adopted by consensus resolution 45/6, which granted observer status to the ICRC Hence, statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution: B The ICRC met for the first time in February 1863 in Geneva, Switzerland and in August 1864 it persuaded governments to adopt the first Geneva Convention. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. As the guardian of humanitarian law, the ICRC takes measures to ensure respect for, to promote, to reaffirm and even to clarify and develop this body of law Hence, statement 2 is correct. On 16 October 1990, the UN General Assembly adopted by consensus resolution 45/6, which granted observer status to the ICRC Hence, statement 3 is correct.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The International Committee of the Red Cross was established following the adoption of the First Geneva Convention.

• It is mandated by the international community to be the guardian of international humanitarian law.

• It has a permanent observer status at the United Nations General Assembly.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: B

The ICRC met for the first time in February 1863 in Geneva, Switzerland and in August 1864 it persuaded governments to adopt the first Geneva Convention.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

As the guardian of humanitarian law, the ICRC takes measures to ensure respect for, to promote, to reaffirm and even to clarify and develop this body of law

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

On 16 October 1990, the UN General Assembly adopted by consensus resolution 45/6, which granted observer status to the ICRC

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution: B

The ICRC met for the first time in February 1863 in Geneva, Switzerland and in August 1864 it persuaded governments to adopt the first Geneva Convention.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

As the guardian of humanitarian law, the ICRC takes measures to ensure respect for, to promote, to reaffirm and even to clarify and develop this body of law

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

On 16 October 1990, the UN General Assembly adopted by consensus resolution 45/6, which granted observer status to the ICRC

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points ‘Save the Children’ was founded in: (a) 1919, in response to the aftermath of World War I (b) 1945, following the devastation of World War II (c) 1971, during the Bangladesh Liberation War (d) 1990, after the adoption of the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child Correct Solution: A Save the Children was founded on April 15, 1919, in London, England, by two sisters – Eglantyne Jebb and Dorothy Buxton. The organization was established specifically as a response to the devastating aftermath of World War I, where images of malnourished and sick children were prevalent throughout Europe. Initially, the sisters had formed the “Fight the Famine Council” earlier in 1919 to pressure the British government to end the blockade of Germany that was causing widespread hunger. On April 15, 1919, they separated from this council and formally created the “Save the Children Fund” to provide direct relief to children suffering from wartime shortages of food and supplies Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Solution: A Save the Children was founded on April 15, 1919, in London, England, by two sisters – Eglantyne Jebb and Dorothy Buxton. The organization was established specifically as a response to the devastating aftermath of World War I, where images of malnourished and sick children were prevalent throughout Europe. Initially, the sisters had formed the “Fight the Famine Council” earlier in 1919 to pressure the British government to end the blockade of Germany that was causing widespread hunger. On April 15, 1919, they separated from this council and formally created the “Save the Children Fund” to provide direct relief to children suffering from wartime shortages of food and supplies Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 3. Question

‘Save the Children’ was founded in:

• (a) 1919, in response to the aftermath of World War I

• (b) 1945, following the devastation of World War II

• (d) 1990, after the adoption of the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child

Solution: A

Save the Children was founded on April 15, 1919, in London, England, by two sisters – Eglantyne Jebb and Dorothy Buxton. The organization was established specifically as a response to the devastating aftermath of World War I, where images of malnourished and sick children were prevalent throughout Europe.

Initially, the sisters had formed the “Fight the Famine Council” earlier in 1919 to pressure the British government to end the blockade of Germany that was causing widespread hunger. On April 15, 1919, they separated from this council and formally created the “Save the Children Fund” to provide direct relief to children suffering from wartime shortages of food and supplies

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Solution: A

Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points With reference to the World Food Programme, consider the following statements: It is the food-assistance branch of the United Nations. WFP was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2020. Its headquarters are located in Geneva, Switzerland. How many of the above statements given is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) None Correct Solution: B The World Food Programme is described as an international organization within the United Nations that provides food assistance worldwide. It was established in 1961 by the United Nations General Assembly and FAO (Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations). Its mandate clearly positions it as the UN’s food-assistance branch, providing emergency food aid and development assistance worldwide. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The 2020 Nobel Peace Prize has been awarded to the United Nations World Food Programme (WFP). The award was given specifically “or its efforts to combat hunger, for its contribution to bettering conditions for peace in conflict-affected areas and for acting as a driving force in efforts to prevent the use of hunger as a weapon of war and conflict Hence, statement 2 is correct. The headquarters of the World Food Programme (WFP) is located in Rome, Italy Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution: B The World Food Programme is described as an international organization within the United Nations that provides food assistance worldwide. It was established in 1961 by the United Nations General Assembly and FAO (Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations). Its mandate clearly positions it as the UN’s food-assistance branch, providing emergency food aid and development assistance worldwide. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The 2020 Nobel Peace Prize has been awarded to the United Nations World Food Programme (WFP). The award was given specifically “or its efforts to combat hunger, for its contribution to bettering conditions for peace in conflict-affected areas and for acting as a driving force in efforts to prevent the use of hunger as a weapon of war and conflict Hence, statement 2 is correct. The headquarters of the World Food Programme (WFP) is located in Rome, Italy Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

#### 4. Question

With reference to the World Food Programme, consider the following statements:

• It is the food-assistance branch of the United Nations.

• WFP was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2020.

• Its headquarters are located in Geneva, Switzerland.

How many of the above statements given is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

Solution: B

The World Food Programme is described as an international organization within the United Nations that provides food assistance worldwide. It was established in 1961 by the United Nations General Assembly and FAO (Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations). Its mandate clearly positions it as the UN’s food-assistance branch, providing emergency food aid and development assistance worldwide.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The 2020 Nobel Peace Prize has been awarded to the United Nations World Food Programme (WFP). The award was given specifically “or its efforts to combat hunger, for its contribution to bettering conditions for peace in conflict-affected areas and for acting as a driving force in efforts to prevent the use of hunger as a weapon of war and conflict

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

The headquarters of the World Food Programme (WFP) is located in Rome, Italy

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution: B

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

The headquarters of the World Food Programme (WFP) is located in Rome, Italy

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO): Article 5 of the North Atlantic Treaty establishes that an armed attack against one member in Europe or North America shall be considered an attack against all members. The invocation of Article 5 automatically commits all member states to declare war on the aggressor. NATO invoked Article 5 for the first time in response to the Russian invasion of Ukraine. NATO maintains standing forces on active duty as part of its permanent collective defence efforts. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B The North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) is a political and military alliance established in 1949 to secure peace in Europe after World War II. Central to its mission is the principle of collective defence, which binds member nations in mutual protection and security cooperation. The exact wording of Article 5 states: “The Parties agree that an armed attack against one or more of them in Europe or North America shall be considered an attack against them all…” . This principle is the cornerstone of NATO’s collective defence policy, as “Collective defence means that an attack against one Ally is considered as an attack against all Allies” Hence, statement 1 is correct. While Article 5 establishes collective defence as a principle, it does not automatically commit members to declare war. The treaty specifies that each member state will assist “by taking forthwith, individually and in concert with the other Parties, such action as it deems necessary, including the use of armed force. The key phrase here is “as it deems necessary,” which means each nation retains sovereignty in deciding its specific response Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. NATO invoked Article 5 for the first and only time in its history after the 9/11 terrorist attacks against the United States. While NATO has taken defensive measures in response to Russia’s invasion of Ukraine, including strengthening its eastern flank, Article 5 has not been invoked for this conflict Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. NATO has a number of standing forces on active duty that contribute to the Alliance’s collective defence on a permanent basis. These include “four standing maritime group fleets, which are ready to act when called upon as well as an integrated air defence system and air policing missions that operate 24/7, 365 days per year Hence, statement 4 is correct. Incorrect Solution: B The North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) is a political and military alliance established in 1949 to secure peace in Europe after World War II. Central to its mission is the principle of collective defence, which binds member nations in mutual protection and security cooperation. The exact wording of Article 5 states: “The Parties agree that an armed attack against one or more of them in Europe or North America shall be considered an attack against them all…” . This principle is the cornerstone of NATO’s collective defence policy, as “Collective defence means that an attack against one Ally is considered as an attack against all Allies” Hence, statement 1 is correct. While Article 5 establishes collective defence as a principle, it does not automatically commit members to declare war. The treaty specifies that each member state will assist “by taking forthwith, individually and in concert with the other Parties, such action as it deems necessary, including the use of armed force. The key phrase here is “as it deems necessary,” which means each nation retains sovereignty in deciding its specific response Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. NATO invoked Article 5 for the first and only time in its history after the 9/11 terrorist attacks against the United States. While NATO has taken defensive measures in response to Russia’s invasion of Ukraine, including strengthening its eastern flank, Article 5 has not been invoked for this conflict Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. NATO has a number of standing forces on active duty that contribute to the Alliance’s collective defence on a permanent basis. These include “four standing maritime group fleets, which are ready to act when called upon as well as an integrated air defence system and air policing missions that operate 24/7, 365 days per year Hence, statement 4 is correct.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO):

• Article 5 of the North Atlantic Treaty establishes that an armed attack against one member in Europe or North America shall be considered an attack against all members.

• The invocation of Article 5 automatically commits all member states to declare war on the aggressor.

• NATO invoked Article 5 for the first time in response to the Russian invasion of Ukraine.

• NATO maintains standing forces on active duty as part of its permanent collective defence efforts.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

The North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) is a political and military alliance established in 1949 to secure peace in Europe after World War II. Central to its mission is the principle of collective defence, which binds member nations in mutual protection and security cooperation.

The exact wording of Article 5 states: “The Parties agree that an armed attack against one or more of them in Europe or North America shall be considered an attack against them all…” . This principle is the cornerstone of NATO’s collective defence policy, as “Collective defence means that an attack against one Ally is considered as an attack against all Allies”

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

While Article 5 establishes collective defence as a principle, it does not automatically commit members to declare war. The treaty specifies that each member state will assist “by taking forthwith, individually and in concert with the other Parties, such action as it deems necessary, including the use of armed force. The key phrase here is “as it deems necessary,” which means each nation retains sovereignty in deciding its specific response

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

NATO invoked Article 5 for the first and only time in its history after the 9/11 terrorist attacks against the United States. While NATO has taken defensive measures in response to Russia’s invasion of Ukraine, including strengthening its eastern flank, Article 5 has not been invoked for this conflict

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

NATO has a number of standing forces on active duty that contribute to the Alliance’s collective defence on a permanent basis. These include “four standing maritime group fleets, which are ready to act when called upon as well as an integrated air defence system and air policing missions that operate 24/7, 365 days per year

Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Solution: B

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Hence, statement 4 is correct.

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Médecins Sans Frontières / Doctors Without Borders (MSF): MSF was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 1999 for its pioneering humanitarian work on multiple continents. Under the principle of ‘Bearing Witness’, MSF strictly avoids making public statements about atrocities it observes to maintain neutrality. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A Médecins Sans Frontières (MSF), also known as Doctors Without Borders, is an international humanitarian medical non-governmental organization founded in 1971. The organization delivers emergency aid to people affected by armed conflict, epidemics, natural disasters, and exclusion from healthcare, operating in over 70 countries worldwide. The 1999 Nobel Peace Prize was awarded to Médecins Sans Frontières ‘in recognition of the organisation’s pioneering humanitarian work on several continents’. The organization was honoured specifically for its medical humanitarian work across different parts of the world. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The principle of “témoignage” (bearing witness) is actually central to MSF’s identity and involves speaking out about atrocities they witness. For MSF, temoignage is a part of our action rather than a last resort… MSF believes that although speaking out does not always save people, silence can kill Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution: A Médecins Sans Frontières (MSF), also known as Doctors Without Borders, is an international humanitarian medical non-governmental organization founded in 1971. The organization delivers emergency aid to people affected by armed conflict, epidemics, natural disasters, and exclusion from healthcare, operating in over 70 countries worldwide. The 1999 Nobel Peace Prize was awarded to Médecins Sans Frontières ‘in recognition of the organisation’s pioneering humanitarian work on several continents’. The organization was honoured specifically for its medical humanitarian work across different parts of the world. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The principle of “témoignage” (bearing witness) is actually central to MSF’s identity and involves speaking out about atrocities they witness. For MSF, temoignage is a part of our action rather than a last resort… MSF believes that although speaking out does not always save people, silence can kill Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements about Médecins Sans Frontières / Doctors Without Borders (MSF):

• MSF was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 1999 for its pioneering humanitarian work on multiple continents.

• Under the principle of ‘Bearing Witness’, MSF strictly avoids making public statements about atrocities it observes to maintain neutrality.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

Médecins Sans Frontières (MSF), also known as Doctors Without Borders, is an international humanitarian medical non-governmental organization founded in 1971. The organization delivers emergency aid to people affected by armed conflict, epidemics, natural disasters, and exclusion from healthcare, operating in over 70 countries worldwide.

The 1999 Nobel Peace Prize was awarded to Médecins Sans Frontières ‘in recognition of the organisation’s pioneering humanitarian work on several continents’. The organization was honoured specifically for its medical humanitarian work across different parts of the world.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The principle of “témoignage” (bearing witness) is actually central to MSF’s identity and involves speaking out about atrocities they witness. For MSF, temoignage is a part of our action rather than a last resort… MSF believes that although speaking out does not always save people, silence can kill

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Solution: A

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Which of the following international organizations has released the ‘Recommendation on the Ethics of Artificial Intelligence’? (a) World Economic Forum (WEF) (b) United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) (c) Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) (d) World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) Correct Solution: B UNESCO produced the first-ever global standard on AI ethics – the ‘Recommendation on the Ethics of Artificial Intelligence’ in November 2021. This comprehensive framework addresses various aspects of AI governance including: A human rights approach to AI Privacy protection throughout the AI lifecycle Transparency and explainability requirements Preventing conflicts with human rights norms Oversight mechanisms and impact assessments Education and public understanding of AI Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Solution: B UNESCO produced the first-ever global standard on AI ethics – the ‘Recommendation on the Ethics of Artificial Intelligence’ in November 2021. This comprehensive framework addresses various aspects of AI governance including: A human rights approach to AI Privacy protection throughout the AI lifecycle Transparency and explainability requirements Preventing conflicts with human rights norms Oversight mechanisms and impact assessments Education and public understanding of AI Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 7. Question

Which of the following international organizations has released the ‘Recommendation on the Ethics of Artificial Intelligence’?

• (a) World Economic Forum (WEF)

• (b) United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO)

• (c) Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD)

• (d) World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO)

Solution: B

UNESCO produced the first-ever global standard on AI ethics – the ‘Recommendation on the Ethics of Artificial Intelligence’ in November 2021. This comprehensive framework addresses various aspects of AI governance including:

• A human rights approach to AI

• Privacy protection throughout the AI lifecycle

• Transparency and explainability requirements

• Preventing conflicts with human rights norms

• Oversight mechanisms and impact assessments

• Education and public understanding of AI

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Solution: B

• A human rights approach to AI

• Privacy protection throughout the AI lifecycle

• Transparency and explainability requirements

• Preventing conflicts with human rights norms

• Oversight mechanisms and impact assessments

• Education and public understanding of AI

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points The “Convention on Biological Diversity” (CBD) is associated with which of the following protocols that addresses the safe transfer, handling, and use of living modified organisms (LMOs)? (a) Kyoto Protocol (b) Montreal Protocol (c) Cartagena Protocol (d) Nagoya Protocol Correct Solution: C The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) established an international framework for sustainable development and conservation of biological resources. Among its protocols, one specifically addresses the safe handling of living modified organisms. The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) is an international treaty governing the movements of living modified organisms. The Protocol was adopted in 2000 and entered into force in 2003, establishing comprehensive rules and procedures for the “safe transfer, handling, and use of LMOs, with specific focus on transboundary movements. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Solution: C The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) established an international framework for sustainable development and conservation of biological resources. Among its protocols, one specifically addresses the safe handling of living modified organisms. The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) is an international treaty governing the movements of living modified organisms. The Protocol was adopted in 2000 and entered into force in 2003, establishing comprehensive rules and procedures for the “safe transfer, handling, and use of LMOs, with specific focus on transboundary movements. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 8. Question

The “Convention on Biological Diversity” (CBD) is associated with which of the following protocols that addresses the safe transfer, handling, and use of living modified organisms (LMOs)?

• (a) Kyoto Protocol

• (b) Montreal Protocol

• (c) Cartagena Protocol

• (d) Nagoya Protocol

Solution: C

The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) established an international framework for sustainable development and conservation of biological resources. Among its protocols, one specifically addresses the safe handling of living modified organisms.

The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) is an international treaty governing the movements of living modified organisms.

The Protocol was adopted in 2000 and entered into force in 2003, establishing comprehensive rules and procedures for the “safe transfer, handling, and use of LMOs, with specific focus on transboundary movements.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Solution: C

The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) is an international treaty governing the movements of living modified organisms.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Which of the following regional groupings recently adopted the “Connectivity Master Plan 2025” to enhance infrastructure and economic linkages among its member states? (a) Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) (b) South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) (c) Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) (d) Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) Correct Solution: A The “Master Plan on ASEAN Connectivity 2025” (MPAC 2025) aims to promote connectivity within the ASEAN region by focusing on areas like sustainable infrastructure, digital innovation, seamless logistics, and regulatory excellence. Key points about the Connectivity Master Plan 2025: Focus areas: Infrastructure development, digital innovation, logistics, and regulatory cooperation. Goal: Achieve a seamlessly connected and integrated ASEAN community. Adoption: The plan was adopted by ASEAN leaders at their 28th and 29th summits. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Solution: A The “Master Plan on ASEAN Connectivity 2025” (MPAC 2025) aims to promote connectivity within the ASEAN region by focusing on areas like sustainable infrastructure, digital innovation, seamless logistics, and regulatory excellence. Key points about the Connectivity Master Plan 2025: Focus areas: Infrastructure development, digital innovation, logistics, and regulatory cooperation. Goal: Achieve a seamlessly connected and integrated ASEAN community. Adoption: The plan was adopted by ASEAN leaders at their 28th and 29th summits. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 9. Question

Which of the following regional groupings recently adopted the “Connectivity Master Plan 2025” to enhance infrastructure and economic linkages among its member states?

• (a) Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)

• (b) South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC)

• (c) Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC)

• (d) Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO)

Solution: A

The “Master Plan on ASEAN Connectivity 2025” (MPAC 2025) aims to promote connectivity within the ASEAN region by focusing on areas like sustainable infrastructure, digital innovation, seamless logistics, and regulatory excellence.

Key points about the Connectivity Master Plan 2025:

• Focus areas: Infrastructure development, digital innovation, logistics, and regulatory cooperation.

• Goal: Achieve a seamlessly connected and integrated ASEAN community.

• Adoption: The plan was adopted by ASEAN leaders at their 28th and 29th summits.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Solution: A

Key points about the Connectivity Master Plan 2025:

• Focus areas: Infrastructure development, digital innovation, logistics, and regulatory cooperation.

• Goal: Achieve a seamlessly connected and integrated ASEAN community.

• Adoption: The plan was adopted by ASEAN leaders at their 28th and 29th summits.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the International Court of Justice (ICJ): It is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations. It can hear cases brought before it by states and also give advisory opinions on legal questions referred to it by authorized UN organs and specialized agencies. Individuals and international organizations can directly bring cases before the ICJ. How many of the above statements given is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) None Correct Solution: B The International Court of Justice (ICJ) stands as the principal judicial organ of the United Nations, established in 1945 to resolve legal disputes between states and provide advisory opinions on international legal matters. With its seat at the Peace Palace in the Hague, Netherlands, the ICJ plays a crucial role in the peaceful settlement of international disputes. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The ICJ has two main functions: The chief function of the ICJ is to settle disputes submitted by parties according to international law The Court also gives advisory opinions on legal matters submitted by any of the UN bodies or specialised agencies The ICJ’s advisory opinion has also been requested by the UN General assembly (UNGA), per article 96(1) of the UN Charter The court also provides advisory opinions on legal questions that have been referred to it by other authorized UN organs Hence, statement 2 is correct. The ICJ has jurisdiction only over States. International organisations, other authorities, and private individuals are not entitled to institute proceedings before the ICJ. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution: B The International Court of Justice (ICJ) stands as the principal judicial organ of the United Nations, established in 1945 to resolve legal disputes between states and provide advisory opinions on international legal matters. With its seat at the Peace Palace in the Hague, Netherlands, the ICJ plays a crucial role in the peaceful settlement of international disputes. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The ICJ has two main functions: The chief function of the ICJ is to settle disputes submitted by parties according to international law The Court also gives advisory opinions on legal matters submitted by any of the UN bodies or specialised agencies The ICJ’s advisory opinion has also been requested by the UN General assembly (UNGA), per article 96(1) of the UN Charter The court also provides advisory opinions on legal questions that have been referred to it by other authorized UN organs Hence, statement 2 is correct. The ICJ has jurisdiction only over States. International organisations, other authorities, and private individuals are not entitled to institute proceedings before the ICJ. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements about the International Court of Justice (ICJ):

• It is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations.

• It can hear cases brought before it by states and also give advisory opinions on legal questions referred to it by authorized UN organs and specialized agencies.

• Individuals and international organizations can directly bring cases before the ICJ.

How many of the above statements given is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

Solution: B

The International Court of Justice (ICJ) stands as the principal judicial organ of the United Nations, established in 1945 to resolve legal disputes between states and provide advisory opinions on international legal matters. With its seat at the Peace Palace in the Hague, Netherlands, the ICJ plays a crucial role in the peaceful settlement of international disputes.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The ICJ has two main functions:

• The chief function of the ICJ is to settle disputes submitted by parties according to international law

• The Court also gives advisory opinions on legal matters submitted by any of the UN bodies or specialised agencies

• The ICJ’s advisory opinion has also been requested by the UN General assembly (UNGA), per article 96(1) of the UN Charter

• The court also provides advisory opinions on legal questions that have been referred to it by other authorized UN organs

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

The ICJ has jurisdiction only over States. International organisations, other authorities, and private individuals are not entitled to institute proceedings before the ICJ.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution: B

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The ICJ has two main functions:

• The chief function of the ICJ is to settle disputes submitted by parties according to international law

• The Court also gives advisory opinions on legal matters submitted by any of the UN bodies or specialised agencies

• The ICJ’s advisory opinion has also been requested by the UN General assembly (UNGA), per article 96(1) of the UN Charter

• The court also provides advisory opinions on legal questions that have been referred to it by other authorized UN organs

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

The ICJ has jurisdiction only over States. International organisations, other authorities, and private individuals are not entitled to institute proceedings before the ICJ.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points With reference to the Gulf Cooperation Council, consider the following statements: It was originally formed by founding members of the Arab League as a core group. The heads of member states form the Supreme Council, the highest authority of GCC. The Secretary General is appointed by the Supreme Council. It is a permanent observer at the United Nations. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C The Gulf Cooperation Council is a regional intergovernmental, political and economic Union comprising of six (out of seven Gulf countries) the member countries are Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia and the United Arab Emirates It’s headquartered is located in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia. The founding members of Arab League include Egypt, Iraq, Jordan, Lebanon, Saudi Arabia, Syria and Yemen. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The main organs of the Gulf cooperation Council are the Supreme Council (responsible for overseeing dispute settlement Commission); The Ministerial Council and the Secretariat General. The Supreme Council is the highest authority of the GCC composed of the heads of the member states with its presidency rotating alphabetically It convenes in regular sessions once a year and may hold extraordinary sessions also upon request by members. The Supreme Council is responsible for appointment of the Secretary General. Hence statements 2 and 3 are correct The Gulf Cooperation Council maintains a relationship with the United Nation including having a permanent observer status and engaging in various United Nations activities and dialogues. Hence statement 4 is correct Incorrect Solution: C The Gulf Cooperation Council is a regional intergovernmental, political and economic Union comprising of six (out of seven Gulf countries) the member countries are Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia and the United Arab Emirates It’s headquartered is located in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia. The founding members of Arab League include Egypt, Iraq, Jordan, Lebanon, Saudi Arabia, Syria and Yemen. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The main organs of the Gulf cooperation Council are the Supreme Council (responsible for overseeing dispute settlement Commission); The Ministerial Council and the Secretariat General. The Supreme Council is the highest authority of the GCC composed of the heads of the member states with its presidency rotating alphabetically It convenes in regular sessions once a year and may hold extraordinary sessions also upon request by members. The Supreme Council is responsible for appointment of the Secretary General. Hence statements 2 and 3 are correct The Gulf Cooperation Council maintains a relationship with the United Nation including having a permanent observer status and engaging in various United Nations activities and dialogues. Hence statement 4 is correct

#### 11. Question

With reference to the Gulf Cooperation Council, consider the following statements:

• It was originally formed by founding members of the Arab League as a core group.

• The heads of member states form the Supreme Council, the highest authority of GCC.

• The Secretary General is appointed by the Supreme Council.

• It is a permanent observer at the United Nations.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

• The Gulf Cooperation Council is a regional intergovernmental, political and economic Union comprising of six (out of seven Gulf countries)

• the member countries are Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia and the United Arab Emirates

• It’s headquartered is located in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia.

• The founding members of Arab League include Egypt, Iraq, Jordan, Lebanon, Saudi Arabia, Syria and Yemen.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The main organs of the Gulf cooperation Council are the Supreme Council (responsible for overseeing dispute settlement Commission); The Ministerial Council and the Secretariat General.

• The Supreme Council is the highest authority of the GCC composed of the heads of the member states with its presidency rotating alphabetically

• It convenes in regular sessions once a year and may hold extraordinary sessions also upon request by members.

• The Supreme Council is responsible for appointment of the Secretary General.

Hence statements 2 and 3 are correct

• The Gulf Cooperation Council maintains a relationship with the United Nation including having a permanent observer status and engaging in various United Nations activities and dialogues.

Hence statement 4 is correct

Solution: C

• The Gulf Cooperation Council is a regional intergovernmental, political and economic Union comprising of six (out of seven Gulf countries)

• the member countries are Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia and the United Arab Emirates

• It’s headquartered is located in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia.

• The founding members of Arab League include Egypt, Iraq, Jordan, Lebanon, Saudi Arabia, Syria and Yemen.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The main organs of the Gulf cooperation Council are the Supreme Council (responsible for overseeing dispute settlement Commission); The Ministerial Council and the Secretariat General.

• The Supreme Council is the highest authority of the GCC composed of the heads of the member states with its presidency rotating alphabetically

• It convenes in regular sessions once a year and may hold extraordinary sessions also upon request by members.

• The Supreme Council is responsible for appointment of the Secretary General.

Hence statements 2 and 3 are correct

• The Gulf Cooperation Council maintains a relationship with the United Nation including having a permanent observer status and engaging in various United Nations activities and dialogues.

Hence statement 4 is correct

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The African Union Stabilization and Support Mission in Somalia (AUSSOM) has been established by the Peace and Security council of the African Union. AUSSOM replaced the African Union Transition Mission in Somalia. AUSSOM a Peacekeeping mission endorsed by the United Nation security council. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (c) All three Correct Solution: C The African Union Stabilization and Support Mission in Somalia (AUSSOM) has been formed by the Peace and Security Council of the African Union. The Peace and Security Council is the standing decision-making organ of the African Union for the prevention, management and resolution of conflicts. Its formation has been endorsed by the UN Security Council. The UNSC resolution 2767 (2024) aims to address Somalia’s security challenges posed by civil war and terrorist groups Al Shabaab and Islamic state of Iraq and the Levant It has been established to stabilize Somalia by supporting its Security, infrastructure; addressing terrorism threats and fostering sustainable peace and development. It provides for replacement of the African Union Transition Mission in Somalia whose mandate ended on 31st December 2024. It is similar to UN peacekeeping missions. Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct Incorrect Solution: C The African Union Stabilization and Support Mission in Somalia (AUSSOM) has been formed by the Peace and Security Council of the African Union. The Peace and Security Council is the standing decision-making organ of the African Union for the prevention, management and resolution of conflicts. Its formation has been endorsed by the UN Security Council. The UNSC resolution 2767 (2024) aims to address Somalia’s security challenges posed by civil war and terrorist groups Al Shabaab and Islamic state of Iraq and the Levant It has been established to stabilize Somalia by supporting its Security, infrastructure; addressing terrorism threats and fostering sustainable peace and development. It provides for replacement of the African Union Transition Mission in Somalia whose mandate ended on 31st December 2024. It is similar to UN peacekeeping missions. Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct

#### 12. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The African Union Stabilization and Support Mission in Somalia (AUSSOM) has been established by the Peace and Security council of the African Union.

• AUSSOM replaced the African Union Transition Mission in Somalia.

• AUSSOM a Peacekeeping mission endorsed by the United Nation security council.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

• The African Union Stabilization and Support Mission in Somalia (AUSSOM) has been formed by the Peace and Security Council of the African Union.

• The Peace and Security Council is the standing decision-making organ of the African Union for the prevention, management and resolution of conflicts.

• Its formation has been endorsed by the UN Security Council.

• The UNSC resolution 2767 (2024) aims to address Somalia’s security challenges posed by civil war and terrorist groups Al Shabaab and Islamic state of Iraq and the Levant

• It has been established to stabilize Somalia by supporting its Security, infrastructure; addressing terrorism threats and fostering sustainable peace and development.

• It provides for replacement of the African Union Transition Mission in Somalia whose mandate ended on 31st December 2024.

• It is similar to UN peacekeeping missions.

Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Solution: C

• The African Union Stabilization and Support Mission in Somalia (AUSSOM) has been formed by the Peace and Security Council of the African Union.

• The Peace and Security Council is the standing decision-making organ of the African Union for the prevention, management and resolution of conflicts.

• Its formation has been endorsed by the UN Security Council.

• The UNSC resolution 2767 (2024) aims to address Somalia’s security challenges posed by civil war and terrorist groups Al Shabaab and Islamic state of Iraq and the Levant

• It has been established to stabilize Somalia by supporting its Security, infrastructure; addressing terrorism threats and fostering sustainable peace and development.

• It provides for replacement of the African Union Transition Mission in Somalia whose mandate ended on 31st December 2024.

• It is similar to UN peacekeeping missions.

Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement -I: The Writ of Mandamus is issued by a court to a public official for negligence in performance of duties. Statement -II: Mandamus cannot be issued when the public official does not perform his discretionary duties. Statement -III: Mandamus cannot be issued against the President of India. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement- II and Statement -III are correct and both of them explain Statement- I (b) Both Statement- II and Statement-III are correct but only one of them explains Statement- I (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement- I (d) Neither Statement- II nor Statement-III is correct Correct Solution: A The word Mandamus literary means we command. It is a command issued by the court to a public official asking him to perform his official duties that he has failed or refused to perform it can also be issued against any public body, corporation and inferior Court , Tribunal or government for the same purpose. This writ cannot be issued against: A private individual To enforce department instruction that does not possess statutory force when the duty is discretionary and not mandatory To enforce a contractual obligation Against the President of India or the state governors Against the chief justice of a High Court acting in judicial capacity Hence option A is correct Incorrect Solution: A The word Mandamus literary means we command. It is a command issued by the court to a public official asking him to perform his official duties that he has failed or refused to perform it can also be issued against any public body, corporation and inferior Court , Tribunal or government for the same purpose. This writ cannot be issued against: A private individual To enforce department instruction that does not possess statutory force when the duty is discretionary and not mandatory To enforce a contractual obligation Against the President of India or the state governors Against the chief justice of a High Court acting in judicial capacity Hence option A is correct

#### 13. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement -I: The Writ of Mandamus is issued by a court to a public official for negligence in performance of duties.

Statement -II: Mandamus cannot be issued when the public official does not perform his discretionary duties.

Statement -III: Mandamus cannot be issued against the President of India.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement- II and Statement -III are correct and both of them explain Statement- I

• (b) Both Statement- II and Statement-III are correct but only one of them explains Statement- I

• (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement- I

• (d) Neither Statement- II nor Statement-III is correct

Solution: A

• The word Mandamus literary means we command.

• It is a command issued by the court to a public official asking him to perform his official duties that he has failed or refused to perform

• it can also be issued against any public body, corporation and inferior Court , Tribunal or government for the same purpose.

This writ cannot be issued against:

• A private individual

• To enforce department instruction that does not possess statutory force

• when the duty is discretionary and not mandatory

• To enforce a contractual obligation

• Against the President of India or the state governors

• Against the chief justice of a High Court acting in judicial capacity

Hence option A is correct

Solution: A

• The word Mandamus literary means we command.

• It is a command issued by the court to a public official asking him to perform his official duties that he has failed or refused to perform

• it can also be issued against any public body, corporation and inferior Court , Tribunal or government for the same purpose.

This writ cannot be issued against:

• A private individual

• To enforce department instruction that does not possess statutory force

• when the duty is discretionary and not mandatory

• To enforce a contractual obligation

• Against the President of India or the state governors

• Against the chief justice of a High Court acting in judicial capacity

Hence option A is correct

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs regarding motions in the Parliament: Motion : Description Adjournment Motion : Adjournment of debate on a bill or motion Censure Motion: Moved only against the entire Council of Ministers Calling Attention Motion: Breach of parliamentary privileges by a Minister How many of the pairs given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: D Adjournment Motion is introduced in the Parliament to draw attention of the house to a matter of urgent public importance and needs the support of 50 members to be admitted. It is regarded as an extraordinary device and involves an element of censure against the government and hence only Lok Sabha can use this device. Hence pair 1 is incorrect Censure Motion is moved for censuring the Council of Ministers for specific policies and actions. It can be moved against an individual Minister or a group of ministers or the entire Council of Ministers. It should state reasons for its adoption in the Lok Sabha and if passed, the Council of Ministers do not need to resign from office. Hence pair 2 is incorrect Calling Attention Motion is introduced in the Parliament by a member to call attention of a Minister to a matter of urgent public importance and to seek an authoritative statement from him on that matter. It is an Indian innovation in the parliamentary procedure and has been in existence since 1954. Hence pair 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: D Adjournment Motion is introduced in the Parliament to draw attention of the house to a matter of urgent public importance and needs the support of 50 members to be admitted. It is regarded as an extraordinary device and involves an element of censure against the government and hence only Lok Sabha can use this device. Hence pair 1 is incorrect Censure Motion is moved for censuring the Council of Ministers for specific policies and actions. It can be moved against an individual Minister or a group of ministers or the entire Council of Ministers. It should state reasons for its adoption in the Lok Sabha and if passed, the Council of Ministers do not need to resign from office. Hence pair 2 is incorrect Calling Attention Motion is introduced in the Parliament by a member to call attention of a Minister to a matter of urgent public importance and to seek an authoritative statement from him on that matter. It is an Indian innovation in the parliamentary procedure and has been in existence since 1954. Hence pair 3 is incorrect

#### 14. Question

Consider the following pairs regarding motions in the Parliament:

Motion : Description

• Adjournment Motion : Adjournment of debate on a bill or motion

• Censure Motion: Moved only against the entire Council of Ministers

• Calling Attention Motion: Breach of parliamentary privileges by a Minister

How many of the pairs given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: D

• Adjournment Motion is introduced in the Parliament to draw attention of the house to a matter of urgent public importance and needs the support of 50 members to be admitted.

• It is regarded as an extraordinary device and involves an element of censure against the government and hence only Lok Sabha can use this device.

Hence pair 1 is incorrect

• Censure Motion is moved for censuring the Council of Ministers for specific policies and actions.

• It can be moved against an individual Minister or a group of ministers or the entire Council of Ministers.

• It should state reasons for its adoption in the Lok Sabha and if passed, the Council of Ministers do not need to resign from office.

Hence pair 2 is incorrect

• Calling Attention Motion is introduced in the Parliament by a member to call attention of a Minister to a matter of urgent public importance and to seek an authoritative statement from him on that matter.

• It is an Indian innovation in the parliamentary procedure and has been in existence since 1954.

Hence pair 3 is incorrect

Solution: D

• Adjournment Motion is introduced in the Parliament to draw attention of the house to a matter of urgent public importance and needs the support of 50 members to be admitted.

• It is regarded as an extraordinary device and involves an element of censure against the government and hence only Lok Sabha can use this device.

Hence pair 1 is incorrect

• Censure Motion is moved for censuring the Council of Ministers for specific policies and actions.

• It can be moved against an individual Minister or a group of ministers or the entire Council of Ministers.

• It should state reasons for its adoption in the Lok Sabha and if passed, the Council of Ministers do not need to resign from office.

Hence pair 2 is incorrect

• It is an Indian innovation in the parliamentary procedure and has been in existence since 1954.

Hence pair 3 is incorrect

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Article 143 of the constitution authorises the President to obtain opinion of the supreme court regarding any Question of law related to public importance that is likely to arise. The constitution makes it mandatory for the supreme court to tender its opinion whenever the president seeks the same. Any opinion of the supreme court provided to the Parliament is deemed to be a judicial pronouncement under article 144 of the constitution. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A The constitution under article 143 empowers the President to seek opinion of the Supreme Court (1) On any question of law or fact of public importance which has arisen or which is likely to arise (2) any dispute arising out of any pre-Constitution treaty, agreement, engagement, Sanad or similar instrument which is excluded from original jurisdiction of the supreme court Hence statement 1 is correct The Supreme Court may or may not refuse to tender its opinion to the president for the first case (1). However, for the second case (2), the Supreme Court must tender its opinion to the president Hence statement 2 is incorrect In both the cases opinion expressed by the supreme court is only advisory and not a judicial pronouncement Hence it is not binding on the President who may or may not follow the opinion. Hence statement 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: A The constitution under article 143 empowers the President to seek opinion of the Supreme Court (1) On any question of law or fact of public importance which has arisen or which is likely to arise (2) any dispute arising out of any pre-Constitution treaty, agreement, engagement, Sanad or similar instrument which is excluded from original jurisdiction of the supreme court Hence statement 1 is correct The Supreme Court may or may not refuse to tender its opinion to the president for the first case (1). However, for the second case (2), the Supreme Court must tender its opinion to the president Hence statement 2 is incorrect In both the cases opinion expressed by the supreme court is only advisory and not a judicial pronouncement Hence it is not binding on the President who may or may not follow the opinion. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

#### 15. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Article 143 of the constitution authorises the President to obtain opinion of the supreme court regarding any Question of law related to public importance that is likely to arise.

• The constitution makes it mandatory for the supreme court to tender its opinion whenever the president seeks the same.

• Any opinion of the supreme court provided to the Parliament is deemed to be a judicial pronouncement under article 144 of the constitution.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

The constitution under article 143 empowers the President to seek opinion of the Supreme Court

(1) On any question of law or fact of public importance which has arisen or which is likely to arise

(2) any dispute arising out of any pre-Constitution treaty, agreement, engagement, Sanad or similar instrument which is excluded from original jurisdiction of the supreme court

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The Supreme Court may or may not refuse to tender its opinion to the president for the first case (1).

• However, for the second case (2), the Supreme Court must tender its opinion to the president

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• In both the cases opinion expressed by the supreme court is only advisory and not a judicial pronouncement

• Hence it is not binding on the President who may or may not follow the opinion.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution: A

The constitution under article 143 empowers the President to seek opinion of the Supreme Court

(1) On any question of law or fact of public importance which has arisen or which is likely to arise

(2) any dispute arising out of any pre-Constitution treaty, agreement, engagement, Sanad or similar instrument which is excluded from original jurisdiction of the supreme court

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The Supreme Court may or may not refuse to tender its opinion to the president for the first case (1).

• However, for the second case (2), the Supreme Court must tender its opinion to the president

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• In both the cases opinion expressed by the supreme court is only advisory and not a judicial pronouncement

• Hence it is not binding on the President who may or may not follow the opinion.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Abraham Accords, sometimes seen in news, is related to which of the following? (a) An international Treaty that prohibits stockpiling of biological weapons by developed countries (b) Free movement of humanitarian assistance and emergency medical aid to Syria (c) Universal declaration of Human Rights endorsed by the United Nations General Assembly (d) Normalization agreement between UAE and Israel to establish diplomatic relations Correct Solution: D The Abraham Accords 2020, is a normalisation agreement between the UAE and the Israel to establish formal diplomatic relations It was brokered by the United States The Accord was later joint by Bahrain, Sudan and Morocco and in exchange Israel would suspend its plans to annex parts of the occupied West Bsnk With this Accord UAE became the third Arab Nation to recognise Israel after Egypt and Jordan. Hence option D is correct Incorrect Solution: D The Abraham Accords 2020, is a normalisation agreement between the UAE and the Israel to establish formal diplomatic relations It was brokered by the United States The Accord was later joint by Bahrain, Sudan and Morocco and in exchange Israel would suspend its plans to annex parts of the occupied West Bsnk With this Accord UAE became the third Arab Nation to recognise Israel after Egypt and Jordan. Hence option D is correct

#### 16. Question

Abraham Accords, sometimes seen in news, is related to which of the following?

• (a) An international Treaty that prohibits stockpiling of biological weapons by developed countries

• (b) Free movement of humanitarian assistance and emergency medical aid to Syria

• (c) Universal declaration of Human Rights endorsed by the United Nations General Assembly

• (d) Normalization agreement between UAE and Israel to establish diplomatic relations

Solution: D

• The Abraham Accords 2020, is a normalisation agreement between the UAE and the Israel to establish formal diplomatic relations

• It was brokered by the United States

• The Accord was later joint by Bahrain, Sudan and Morocco and in exchange Israel would suspend its plans to annex parts of the occupied West Bsnk

• With this Accord UAE became the third Arab Nation to recognise Israel after Egypt and Jordan.

Hence option D is correct

Solution: D

• The Abraham Accords 2020, is a normalisation agreement between the UAE and the Israel to establish formal diplomatic relations

• It was brokered by the United States

• The Accord was later joint by Bahrain, Sudan and Morocco and in exchange Israel would suspend its plans to annex parts of the occupied West Bsnk

• With this Accord UAE became the third Arab Nation to recognise Israel after Egypt and Jordan.

Hence option D is correct

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement – I: Voting on demand for grants is the exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha. Statement – II: Only Lok Sabha is empowered to vote on demand for grants with respect to expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India. Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct Correct Solution: C In the light of the reports of departmental standing committees, the Lok Sabha takes up voting of demands for grants. The demands are presented ministry wise. A demand becomes a grant after it has been duly voted. Voting of demands for grants is the exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha; hence Rajya Sabha has no power of voting the demands. Hence statement 1 is correct The voting on demand for grants is confined to the votable part of the budget. The expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India is not submitted to the vote; it can only be discussed. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: C In the light of the reports of departmental standing committees, the Lok Sabha takes up voting of demands for grants. The demands are presented ministry wise. A demand becomes a grant after it has been duly voted. Voting of demands for grants is the exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha; hence Rajya Sabha has no power of voting the demands. Hence statement 1 is correct The voting on demand for grants is confined to the votable part of the budget. The expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India is not submitted to the vote; it can only be discussed. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

#### 17. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement – I: Voting on demand for grants is the exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha.

Statement – II: Only Lok Sabha is empowered to vote on demand for grants with respect to expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I

• (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I

• (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect

• (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct

Solution: C

• In the light of the reports of departmental standing committees, the Lok Sabha takes up voting of demands for grants.

• The demands are presented ministry wise.

• A demand becomes a grant after it has been duly voted.

• Voting of demands for grants is the exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha; hence Rajya Sabha has no power of voting the demands.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The voting on demand for grants is confined to the votable part of the budget.

• The expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India is not submitted to the vote; it can only be discussed.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Solution: C

• In the light of the reports of departmental standing committees, the Lok Sabha takes up voting of demands for grants.

• The demands are presented ministry wise.

• A demand becomes a grant after it has been duly voted.

• Voting of demands for grants is the exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha; hence Rajya Sabha has no power of voting the demands.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The voting on demand for grants is confined to the votable part of the budget.

• The expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India is not submitted to the vote; it can only be discussed.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana: Under the scheme households will be provided with subsidy to cover 40% of the cost of rooftop solar panels. Each household will be provided with 300 units of free electricity on a monthly basis. It aims to cover 30 crore households by 2030 under ‘30×30’ plan. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: A PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana is a government scheme that aims to provide free electricity to households in India. Launched in 2024, the households will be provided with a subsidy to install solar panels on their roof The subsidy will cover up to 40% of the cost of solar panels. The households must include individuals who are Indian citizens The household must have a valid and active electricity connection and must not have availed any other subsidy for solar panel installation Each beneficially household is entitled to 300 units of free electricity per month reducing monthly cost significantly. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct The scheme has been launched in 2024 and is the world’s largest rooftop solar initiative. It aims to provide free electricity to 1 crore households by March 2027. Hence statement 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: A PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana is a government scheme that aims to provide free electricity to households in India. Launched in 2024, the households will be provided with a subsidy to install solar panels on their roof The subsidy will cover up to 40% of the cost of solar panels. The households must include individuals who are Indian citizens The household must have a valid and active electricity connection and must not have availed any other subsidy for solar panel installation Each beneficially household is entitled to 300 units of free electricity per month reducing monthly cost significantly. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct The scheme has been launched in 2024 and is the world’s largest rooftop solar initiative. It aims to provide free electricity to 1 crore households by March 2027. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

#### 18. Question

Consider the following statements regarding PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana:

• Under the scheme households will be provided with subsidy to cover 40% of the cost of rooftop solar panels.

• Each household will be provided with 300 units of free electricity on a monthly basis.

• It aims to cover 30 crore households by 2030 under ‘30×30’ plan.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

• PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana is a government scheme that aims to provide free electricity to households in India.

• Launched in 2024, the households will be provided with a subsidy to install solar panels on their roof

• The subsidy will cover up to 40% of the cost of solar panels.

• The households must include individuals who are Indian citizens

• The household must have a valid and active electricity connection and must not have availed any other subsidy for solar panel installation

• Each beneficially household is entitled to 300 units of free electricity per month reducing monthly cost significantly.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

• The scheme has been launched in 2024 and is the world’s largest rooftop solar initiative.

• It aims to provide free electricity to 1 crore households by March 2027.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution: A

• PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana is a government scheme that aims to provide free electricity to households in India.

• Launched in 2024, the households will be provided with a subsidy to install solar panels on their roof

• The subsidy will cover up to 40% of the cost of solar panels.

• The households must include individuals who are Indian citizens

• The household must have a valid and active electricity connection and must not have availed any other subsidy for solar panel installation

• Each beneficially household is entitled to 300 units of free electricity per month reducing monthly cost significantly.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

• The scheme has been launched in 2024 and is the world’s largest rooftop solar initiative.

• It aims to provide free electricity to 1 crore households by March 2027.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Under the 44th Amendment Act of 1978, a proclamation of National Emergency is required to be passed by both Houses of the Parliament within two months. It is mandatory for the president to revoke proclamation of a national emergency when one-tenth of members of the Lok Sabha approves a resolution for the same. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: D The proclamation of National Emergency must be approved by both houses of the Parliament by a special majority within one month from the date of its issue Originally the period allowed was two months but it was reduced to one month by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978. Hence statement 1 is incorrect A proclamation of National Emergency maybe revoked by the president at anytime by a subsequent proclamation without requiring parliamentary approval. The president must revoke a proclamation if the Lok Sabha passes a resolution disapproving its continuation- this safeguard was introduced by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978. The act provided that where one-tenth of the total number of members of Lok Sabha give a written notice to the speaker (or to the president if the house is not in session), a special sitting of the house should be held within 14 days for the purpose of considering a resolution disapproving continuation of the National Emergency proclamation; such a resolution is to be adopted by a simple majority in the Lok Sabha. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: D The proclamation of National Emergency must be approved by both houses of the Parliament by a special majority within one month from the date of its issue Originally the period allowed was two months but it was reduced to one month by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978. Hence statement 1 is incorrect A proclamation of National Emergency maybe revoked by the president at anytime by a subsequent proclamation without requiring parliamentary approval. The president must revoke a proclamation if the Lok Sabha passes a resolution disapproving its continuation- this safeguard was introduced by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978. The act provided that where one-tenth of the total number of members of Lok Sabha give a written notice to the speaker (or to the president if the house is not in session), a special sitting of the house should be held within 14 days for the purpose of considering a resolution disapproving continuation of the National Emergency proclamation; such a resolution is to be adopted by a simple majority in the Lok Sabha. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

#### 19. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Under the 44th Amendment Act of 1978, a proclamation of National Emergency is required to be passed by both Houses of the Parliament within two months.

• It is mandatory for the president to revoke proclamation of a national emergency when one-tenth of members of the Lok Sabha approves a resolution for the same.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: D

• The proclamation of National Emergency must be approved by both houses of the Parliament by a special majority within one month from the date of its issue

• Originally the period allowed was two months but it was reduced to one month by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• A proclamation of National Emergency maybe revoked by the president at anytime by a subsequent proclamation without requiring parliamentary approval.

• The president must revoke a proclamation if the Lok Sabha passes a resolution disapproving its continuation- this safeguard was introduced by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978.

• The act provided that where one-tenth of the total number of members of Lok Sabha give a written notice to the speaker (or to the president if the house is not in session), a special sitting of the house should be held within 14 days for the purpose of considering a resolution disapproving continuation of the National Emergency proclamation; such a resolution is to be adopted by a simple majority in the Lok Sabha.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Solution: D

• The proclamation of National Emergency must be approved by both houses of the Parliament by a special majority within one month from the date of its issue

• Originally the period allowed was two months but it was reduced to one month by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• A proclamation of National Emergency maybe revoked by the president at anytime by a subsequent proclamation without requiring parliamentary approval.

• The president must revoke a proclamation if the Lok Sabha passes a resolution disapproving its continuation- this safeguard was introduced by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: An act for the purpose of abrogating fundamental rights of the members of police forces can be enacted by the Parliament only. Unlike National Emergency, imposition of Martial Law has no effect on fundamental rights of citizens. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A Article 33 empowers the parliament to restrict or abrogate the fundamental rights of the members of armed forces, intelligence agencies, paramilitary and police forces The objective is to ensure proper discharge of their duties and maintenance of discipline among them The power to make laws under article 33 is conferred to the Parliament and not on state legislatures. Hence statement 1 is correct Article 34 provides for restriction of fundamental rights while Martial Law is in force in any area within the territory of India. It empowers the Parliament to indemnify any government servant or any other person for any acts done in connection with maintenance or Restoration of order in any area where Martial Law is in force. National Emergency affects fundamental rights as well as Centre-state relation. Fundamental rights (with some exceptions) remain suspended during operation of National Emergency. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: A Article 33 empowers the parliament to restrict or abrogate the fundamental rights of the members of armed forces, intelligence agencies, paramilitary and police forces The objective is to ensure proper discharge of their duties and maintenance of discipline among them The power to make laws under article 33 is conferred to the Parliament and not on state legislatures. Hence statement 1 is correct Article 34 provides for restriction of fundamental rights while Martial Law is in force in any area within the territory of India. It empowers the Parliament to indemnify any government servant or any other person for any acts done in connection with maintenance or Restoration of order in any area where Martial Law is in force. National Emergency affects fundamental rights as well as Centre-state relation. Fundamental rights (with some exceptions) remain suspended during operation of National Emergency. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

#### 20. Question

Consider the following statements:

• An act for the purpose of abrogating fundamental rights of the members of police forces can be enacted by the Parliament only.

• Unlike National Emergency, imposition of Martial Law has no effect on fundamental rights of citizens.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

• Article 33 empowers the parliament to restrict or abrogate the fundamental rights of the members of armed forces, intelligence agencies, paramilitary and police forces

• The objective is to ensure proper discharge of their duties and maintenance of discipline among them

• The power to make laws under article 33 is conferred to the Parliament and not on state legislatures.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Article 34 provides for restriction of fundamental rights while Martial Law is in force in any area within the territory of India.

• It empowers the Parliament to indemnify any government servant or any other person for any acts done in connection with maintenance or Restoration of order in any area where Martial Law is in force.

• National Emergency affects fundamental rights as well as Centre-state relation.

• Fundamental rights (with some exceptions) remain suspended during operation of National Emergency.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Solution: A

• Article 33 empowers the parliament to restrict or abrogate the fundamental rights of the members of armed forces, intelligence agencies, paramilitary and police forces

• The objective is to ensure proper discharge of their duties and maintenance of discipline among them

• The power to make laws under article 33 is conferred to the Parliament and not on state legislatures.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Article 34 provides for restriction of fundamental rights while Martial Law is in force in any area within the territory of India.

• National Emergency affects fundamental rights as well as Centre-state relation.

• Fundamental rights (with some exceptions) remain suspended during operation of National Emergency.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Consider the following statements with respect to the MAHA-EV Mission: It exclusively funds startups focused on EV charging software and grid integration. The mission targets innovation in battery technologies, PEMD systems, and EV charging infrastructure. It operates under the Ministry of Heavy Industries through the FAME scheme. Which of the above statements is/ are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only Correct Solution: B Explanation: Only Statement 2 is correct. The MAHA-EV Mission, launched under ANRF, focuses on three key verticals: EV Batteries and Cells Power Electronics, Machines, and Drives (PEMD) EV Charging Infrastructure It seeks to develop indigenous EV technologies, reduce import dependency, and promote India as a global EV component hub, aligning with Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat 2047 goals. Statement 1 is incorrect: The mission supports multi-institutional R&D collaboration, not exclusively startups or just software. Statement 3 is wrong: It is not part of the FAME scheme, nor is it under the Ministry of Heavy Industries; rather, it is anchored by the Ministry of Science & Technology through ANRF. Incorrect Solution: B Explanation: Only Statement 2 is correct. The MAHA-EV Mission, launched under ANRF, focuses on three key verticals: EV Batteries and Cells Power Electronics, Machines, and Drives (PEMD) EV Charging Infrastructure It seeks to develop indigenous EV technologies, reduce import dependency, and promote India as a global EV component hub, aligning with Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat 2047 goals. Statement 1 is incorrect: The mission supports multi-institutional R&D collaboration, not exclusively startups or just software. Statement 3 is wrong: It is not part of the FAME scheme, nor is it under the Ministry of Heavy Industries; rather, it is anchored by the Ministry of Science & Technology through ANRF.

#### 21. Question

Consider the following statements with respect to the MAHA-EV Mission:

• It exclusively funds startups focused on EV charging software and grid integration.

• The mission targets innovation in battery technologies, PEMD systems, and EV charging infrastructure.

• It operates under the Ministry of Heavy Industries through the FAME scheme.

Which of the above statements is/ are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1 and 3 only

Solution: B

Explanation: Only Statement 2 is correct. The MAHA-EV Mission, launched under ANRF, focuses on three key verticals:

• EV Batteries and Cells

• Power Electronics, Machines, and Drives (PEMD)

• EV Charging Infrastructure

It seeks to develop indigenous EV technologies, reduce import dependency, and promote India as a global EV component hub, aligning with Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat 2047 goals.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The mission supports multi-institutional R&D collaboration, not exclusively startups or just software.

Statement 3 is wrong: It is not part of the FAME scheme, nor is it under the Ministry of Heavy Industries; rather, it is anchored by the Ministry of Science & Technology through ANRF.

Solution: B

Explanation: Only Statement 2 is correct. The MAHA-EV Mission, launched under ANRF, focuses on three key verticals:

• EV Batteries and Cells

• Power Electronics, Machines, and Drives (PEMD)

• EV Charging Infrastructure

Statement 1 is incorrect: The mission supports multi-institutional R&D collaboration, not exclusively startups or just software.

Statement 3 is wrong: It is not part of the FAME scheme, nor is it under the Ministry of Heavy Industries; rather, it is anchored by the Ministry of Science & Technology through ANRF.

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Consider the following about Differential Pricing in India: The Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) may initiate action if differential pricing amounts to unfair trade practice under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019. Differential pricing is legally permissible if based on objective business rationale and not discriminatory under Article 14. All forms of dynamic pricing are banned in essential public services under the Competition Act, 2002. Which of the above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 only (d) All three Correct Solution: A Explanation: The CCPA issued notices to companies like Ola and Uber, alleging unfair trade practices based on pricing discrimination linked to smartphone model/type, which may violate Section 2(47) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019. Differential pricing, per se, is not illegal. If based on transparent, legitimate business rationale (like peak demand or volume discounts), it is permitted. However, if it results in unreasonable or hidden discrimination, it may invite scrutiny under Article 14 (equality) and consumer law. Dynamic pricing is not banned in essential services. Rather, it is regulated—e.g., airline and railways use real-time pricing algorithms. Competition law only intervenes in anti-competitive pricing practices, not general market strategies. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, 1 and 2 only are correct Incorrect Solution: A Explanation: The CCPA issued notices to companies like Ola and Uber, alleging unfair trade practices based on pricing discrimination linked to smartphone model/type, which may violate Section 2(47) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019. Differential pricing, per se, is not illegal. If based on transparent, legitimate business rationale (like peak demand or volume discounts), it is permitted. However, if it results in unreasonable or hidden discrimination, it may invite scrutiny under Article 14 (equality) and consumer law. Dynamic pricing is not banned in essential services. Rather, it is regulated—e.g., airline and railways use real-time pricing algorithms. Competition law only intervenes in anti-competitive pricing practices, not general market strategies. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, 1 and 2 only are correct

#### 22. Question

Consider the following about Differential Pricing in India:

• The Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) may initiate action if differential pricing amounts to unfair trade practice under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.

• Differential pricing is legally permissible if based on objective business rationale and not discriminatory under Article 14.

• All forms of dynamic pricing are banned in essential public services under the Competition Act, 2002.

Which of the above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 only

• (d) All three

Solution: A

Explanation:

• The CCPA issued notices to companies like Ola and Uber, alleging unfair trade practices based on pricing discrimination linked to smartphone model/type, which may violate Section 2(47) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.

• Differential pricing, per se, is not illegal. If based on transparent, legitimate business rationale (like peak demand or volume discounts), it is permitted. However, if it results in unreasonable or hidden discrimination, it may invite scrutiny under Article 14 (equality) and consumer law.

• Dynamic pricing is not banned in essential services. Rather, it is regulated—e.g., airline and railways use real-time pricing algorithms. Competition law only intervenes in anti-competitive pricing practices, not general market strategies. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Hence, 1 and 2 only are correct

Solution: A

Explanation:

Hence, 1 and 2 only are correct

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points With reference to UPS, consider the following statements: The scheme applies to central and state government employees mandatorily from April 1, 2025. UPS provides family pension at 60% of the original pension in case of death of the pensioner. The Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority has authority to revise the pension percentage. Minimum pension under UPS is guaranteed only for those completing 10 years of service. How many of the above given statements is/ are correct? (a) One only (b) Two only (c) Three only (d) All four Correct Solution: B Explanation UPS is optional for central government employees covered under NPS, and does not apply to state employees unless adopted separately. UPS provides a 60% family pension of the employee’s guaranteed pension upon death. The PFRDA does not revise pension rates. That power lies with the Central Government, possibly based on actuarial review, not PFRDA discretion. A minimum ₹10,000 per month pension is guaranteed under UPS for employees completing at least 10 years of service. Hence, statement 1 and 3 are incorrect here. So correct answer is option B. Incorrect Solution: B Explanation UPS is optional for central government employees covered under NPS, and does not apply to state employees unless adopted separately. UPS provides a 60% family pension of the employee’s guaranteed pension upon death. The PFRDA does not revise pension rates. That power lies with the Central Government, possibly based on actuarial review, not PFRDA discretion. A minimum ₹10,000 per month pension is guaranteed under UPS for employees completing at least 10 years of service. Hence, statement 1 and 3 are incorrect here. So correct answer is option B.

#### 23. Question

With reference to UPS, consider the following statements:

• The scheme applies to central and state government employees mandatorily from April 1, 2025.

• UPS provides family pension at 60% of the original pension in case of death of the pensioner.

• The Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority has authority to revise the pension percentage.

• Minimum pension under UPS is guaranteed only for those completing 10 years of service.

How many of the above given statements is/ are correct?

• (a) One only

• (b) Two only

• (c) Three only

• (d) All four

Solution: B

Explanation

• UPS is optional for central government employees covered under NPS, and does not apply to state employees unless adopted separately.

• UPS provides a 60% family pension of the employee’s guaranteed pension upon death.

• The PFRDA does not revise pension rates. That power lies with the Central Government, possibly based on actuarial review, not PFRDA discretion.

• A minimum ₹10,000 per month pension is guaranteed under UPS for employees completing at least 10 years of service.

Hence, statement 1 and 3 are incorrect here. So correct answer is option B.

Solution: B

Explanation

• UPS is optional for central government employees covered under NPS, and does not apply to state employees unless adopted separately.

• UPS provides a 60% family pension of the employee’s guaranteed pension upon death.

• The PFRDA does not revise pension rates. That power lies with the Central Government, possibly based on actuarial review, not PFRDA discretion.

• A minimum ₹10,000 per month pension is guaranteed under UPS for employees completing at least 10 years of service.

Hence, statement 1 and 3 are incorrect here. So correct answer is option B.

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Which of the following judicial decisions clarified that the burden of proving citizenship lies on the individual, especially in the context of suspected illegal migrants? (a) Berubari Union Case (1960) (b) State of Arunachal Pradesh v. Khudiram Chakma (1993) (c) Sarbananda Sonowal v. Union of India (2005) (d) S. R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994) Correct Solution: C Explanation: In Sarbananda Sonowal v. Union of India (2005), the Supreme Court held that in matters of suspected illegal migration, especially in the context of the Assam Accord, the burden of proof is on the individual to prove that he/she is a citizen under the Citizenship Act. This decision upheld provisions under the Illegal Migrants (Determination by Tribunals) Act, which were later struck down for being unconstitutional due to lenient burden standards. Incorrect Solution: C Explanation: In Sarbananda Sonowal v. Union of India (2005), the Supreme Court held that in matters of suspected illegal migration, especially in the context of the Assam Accord, the burden of proof is on the individual to prove that he/she is a citizen under the Citizenship Act. This decision upheld provisions under the Illegal Migrants (Determination by Tribunals) Act, which were later struck down for being unconstitutional due to lenient burden standards.

#### 24. Question

Which of the following judicial decisions clarified that the burden of proving citizenship lies on the individual, especially in the context of suspected illegal migrants?

• (a) Berubari Union Case (1960)

• (b) State of Arunachal Pradesh v. Khudiram Chakma (1993)

• (c) Sarbananda Sonowal v. Union of India (2005)

• (d) S. R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994)

Solution: C

Explanation: In Sarbananda Sonowal v. Union of India (2005), the Supreme Court held that in matters of suspected illegal migration, especially in the context of the Assam Accord, the burden of proof is on the individual to prove that he/she is a citizen under the Citizenship Act.

This decision upheld provisions under the Illegal Migrants (Determination by Tribunals) Act, which were later struck down for being unconstitutional due to lenient burden standards.

Solution: C

This decision upheld provisions under the Illegal Migrants (Determination by Tribunals) Act, which were later struck down for being unconstitutional due to lenient burden standards.

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points With reference to the PM Internship Scheme, consider the following statements: It includes a central portal for internship discovery, application, and performance tracking. Internship opportunities are restricted to the public sector only. Interns under this scheme are entitled to Provident Fund and ESIC benefits. The scheme integrates with the National Career Service (NCS) platform for job-matching. Which of the statements are correct? (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 and 4 only Correct Solution: A Explanation: Statements 1 and 4 are correct. The PM Internship Scheme aims to provide 1 crore internships over five years to improve employability and skill development. However, the scheme excludes candidates from IITs and IIMs to target underrepresented youth and those with lesser educational access. Also, the stipend is ₹5,000, with ₹4,500 from the government and ₹500 from the companies The scheme includes a dedicated digital platform for discovering and applying to internships, tracking feedback, and certifying outcomes. It is integrated with the National Career Service (NCS) for long-term career-matching, making internships a pipeline into formal jobs. Statement 2 is wrong: internships are open to both public and private sector, including startups and NGOs. Statement 3 is incorrect: PMIS does not mandate PF or ESIC coverage, as interns are not employees under the EPF Act or ESI Act. Incorrect Solution: A Explanation: Statements 1 and 4 are correct. The PM Internship Scheme aims to provide 1 crore internships over five years to improve employability and skill development. However, the scheme excludes candidates from IITs and IIMs to target underrepresented youth and those with lesser educational access. Also, the stipend is ₹5,000, with ₹4,500 from the government and ₹500 from the companies The scheme includes a dedicated digital platform for discovering and applying to internships, tracking feedback, and certifying outcomes. It is integrated with the National Career Service (NCS) for long-term career-matching, making internships a pipeline into formal jobs. Statement 2 is wrong: internships are open to both public and private sector, including startups and NGOs. Statement 3 is incorrect: PMIS does not mandate PF or ESIC coverage, as interns are not employees under the EPF Act or ESI Act.

#### 25. Question

With reference to the PM Internship Scheme, consider the following statements:

• It includes a central portal for internship discovery, application, and performance tracking.

• Internship opportunities are restricted to the public sector only.

• Interns under this scheme are entitled to Provident Fund and ESIC benefits.

• The scheme integrates with the National Career Service (NCS) platform for job-matching.

Which of the statements are correct?

• (a) 1 and 4 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 3 and 4 only

Solution: A

Explanation:

Statements 1 and 4 are correct.

The PM Internship Scheme aims to provide 1 crore internships over five years to improve employability and skill development. However, the scheme excludes candidates from IITs and IIMs to target underrepresented youth and those with lesser educational access.

• Also, the stipend is ₹5,000, with ₹4,500 from the government and ₹500 from the companies

• The scheme includes a dedicated digital platform for discovering and applying to internships, tracking feedback, and certifying outcomes.

• It is integrated with the National Career Service (NCS) for long-term career-matching, making internships a pipeline into formal jobs.

Statement 2 is wrong: internships are open to both public and private sector, including startups and NGOs.

Statement 3 is incorrect: PMIS does not mandate PF or ESIC coverage, as interns are not employees under the EPF Act or ESI Act.

Solution: A

Explanation:

Statements 1 and 4 are correct.

• Also, the stipend is ₹5,000, with ₹4,500 from the government and ₹500 from the companies

• The scheme includes a dedicated digital platform for discovering and applying to internships, tracking feedback, and certifying outcomes.

• It is integrated with the National Career Service (NCS) for long-term career-matching, making internships a pipeline into formal jobs.

Statement 2 is wrong: internships are open to both public and private sector, including startups and NGOs.

Statement 3 is incorrect: PMIS does not mandate PF or ESIC coverage, as interns are not employees under the EPF Act or ESI Act.

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points I must say that, beyond occasionally exposing me to laughter, my constitutional shyness has been of no disadvantage whatever. In fact, I can see that, on the contrary, it has been all to my advantage. My hesitancy in speech, which was once an annoyance, is now a pleasure. Its greatest benefit has been that it has taught me the economy of words. I have naturally formed the habit of restraining my thoughts. And I can now give myself the certificate that a thoughtless word hardly ever escapes my tongue or pen. I do not recollect ever having had to regret anything in my speech or writing. I have thus been spared many a mishap and waste of time. Experience has taught me that silence is part of the spiritual discipline of a votary of truth. Proneness to exaggerate, to suppress or modify the truth, wittingly or unwittingly, is a natural weakness of man, and silence is necessary in order to surmount it. A man of few words will rarely be thoughtless in his speech; he will measure every word. We find so many people impatient to talk. There is no chairman of a meeting who is not pestered with notes for permission to speak. And whenever the permission is given the speaker generally exceeds the time-limit, asks for more time, and keeps on talking without permission. All this talking can hardly be said to be of any benefit to the world. It is so much waste of time. My shyness has been in reality my shield and buckler. It has allowed me to grow. It has helped me in my discernment of truth. The author says that a thoughtless word hardly ever escapes his tongue or pen. Which one of the following is not a valid reason for this? a) He has no intention to waste his time. b) He believes in the economy of words. c) He believes in restraining his thoughts. d) He has hesitancy in his speech. Correct Correct Option: A Justification: The author clearly states that he has hesitancy in speech and this has taught him the economy of words and has naturally formed the habit of restraining his thoughts. Therefore option (b) (c)(d) are valid reasons. The author observes that so many people impatient to talk and when given a chance they waste the time. This is his observation and not a reason for thoughtfulness. Hence option (a) is not valid and the correct answer. Incorrect Correct Option: A Justification: The author clearly states that he has hesitancy in speech and this has taught him the economy of words and has naturally formed the habit of restraining his thoughts. Therefore option (b) (c)(d) are valid reasons. The author observes that so many people impatient to talk and when given a chance they waste the time. This is his observation and not a reason for thoughtfulness. Hence option (a) is not valid and the correct answer.

#### 26. Question

I must say that, beyond occasionally exposing me to laughter, my constitutional shyness has been of no disadvantage whatever. In fact, I can see that, on the contrary, it has been all to my advantage. My hesitancy in speech, which was once an annoyance, is now a pleasure. Its greatest benefit has been that it has taught me the economy of words. I have naturally formed the habit of restraining my thoughts. And I can now give myself the certificate that a thoughtless word hardly ever escapes my tongue or pen. I do not recollect ever having had to regret anything in my speech or writing. I have thus been spared many a mishap and waste of time. Experience has taught me that silence is part of the spiritual discipline of a votary of truth. Proneness to exaggerate, to suppress or modify the truth, wittingly or unwittingly, is a natural weakness of man, and silence is necessary in order to surmount it. A man of few words will rarely be thoughtless in his speech; he will measure every word. We find so many people impatient to talk. There is no chairman of a meeting who is not pestered with notes for permission to speak. And whenever the permission is given the speaker generally exceeds the time-limit, asks for more time, and keeps on talking without permission. All this talking can hardly be said to be of any benefit to the world. It is so much waste of time. My shyness has been in reality my shield and buckler. It has allowed me to grow. It has helped me in my discernment of truth.

The author says that a thoughtless word hardly ever escapes his tongue or pen. Which one of the following is not a valid reason for this?

• a) He has no intention to waste his time.

• b) He believes in the economy of words.

• c) He believes in restraining his thoughts.

• d) He has hesitancy in his speech.

Correct Option: A

Justification:

The author clearly states that he has hesitancy in speech and this has taught him the economy of words and has naturally formed the habit of restraining his thoughts. Therefore option (b) (c)(d) are valid reasons.

The author observes that so many people impatient to talk and when given a chance they waste the time. This is his observation and not a reason for thoughtfulness. Hence option (a) is not valid and the correct answer.

Correct Option: A

Justification:

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points Three dice are thrown together. Find the probability of getting a total of at least 6? a) 103/216 b) 103/208 c) 103/108 d) 36/103 Correct Correct Option: C Justification: Since one die can be thrown in six ways to obtain any one of the six numbers marked on its six faces ⇒ Total number of elementary events = 6 x 6 x 6 = 216 Let A be the event of getting a total of at least 6. Then Ā denotes the event of getting a total of less than 6 i.e. 3, 4, 5. ⇒ Ā = {(1,1,1), (1,1,2), (1,2,1), (2,1,1), (1,1,3), (1,3,1), (3,1,1), (1,2,2), (2,1,2), (2,2,1) } So, favourable number of cases = 10 ⇒ P(Ā) = 10/ 216 ⇒ 1 – P (A) = 10/ 216 ⇒ P(A) = 1 – 10/216 = 103/108 Hence, option (C) is correct. Incorrect Correct Option: C Justification: Since one die can be thrown in six ways to obtain any one of the six numbers marked on its six faces ⇒ Total number of elementary events = 6 x 6 x 6 = 216 Let A be the event of getting a total of at least 6. Then Ā denotes the event of getting a total of less than 6 i.e. 3, 4, 5. ⇒ Ā = {(1,1,1), (1,1,2), (1,2,1), (2,1,1), (1,1,3), (1,3,1), (3,1,1), (1,2,2), (2,1,2), (2,2,1) } So, favourable number of cases = 10 ⇒ P(Ā) = 10/ 216 ⇒ 1 – P (A) = 10/ 216 ⇒ P(A) = 1 – 10/216 = 103/108 Hence, option (C) is correct.

#### 27. Question

Three dice are thrown together. Find the probability of getting a total of at least 6?

• a) 103/216

• b) 103/208

• c) 103/108

Correct Option: C

Justification:

Since one die can be thrown in six ways to obtain any one of the six numbers marked on its six faces

⇒ Total number of elementary events = 6 x 6 x 6 = 216

Let A be the event of getting a total of at least 6. Then Ā denotes the event of getting a total of less than 6 i.e. 3, 4, 5.

⇒ Ā = {(1,1,1), (1,1,2), (1,2,1), (2,1,1), (1,1,3), (1,3,1), (3,1,1), (1,2,2), (2,1,2), (2,2,1) }

So, favourable number of cases = 10

⇒ P(Ā) = 10/ 216

⇒ 1 – P (A) = 10/ 216

⇒ P(A) = 1 – 10/216

Hence, option (C) is correct.

Correct Option: C

Justification:

Since one die can be thrown in six ways to obtain any one of the six numbers marked on its six faces

⇒ Total number of elementary events = 6 x 6 x 6 = 216

Let A be the event of getting a total of at least 6. Then Ā denotes the event of getting a total of less than 6 i.e. 3, 4, 5.

⇒ Ā = {(1,1,1), (1,1,2), (1,2,1), (2,1,1), (1,1,3), (1,3,1), (3,1,1), (1,2,2), (2,1,2), (2,2,1) }

So, favourable number of cases = 10

⇒ P(Ā) = 10/ 216

⇒ 1 – P (A) = 10/ 216

⇒ P(A) = 1 – 10/216

Hence, option (C) is correct.

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points A word consists of 9 letters; 5 consonants and 4 vowels. Three letters are chosen at random. What is the probability that more than one vowel will be selected? a) 13/42 b) 17/42 c) 5/42 d) 3/14 Correct Correct Option: B Justification: 3 letters can be chosen out of 9 letters in 9C3 ways More than one vowel (2 vowels + 1 consonant or 3 vowels) can be chosen in (4C2 5C1)+4C3 ways Hence, required probability =[(4C25C1)+ 4C3 ]/ 9C3= 17/42 Incorrect Correct Option: B Justification: 3 letters can be chosen out of 9 letters in 9C3 ways More than one vowel (2 vowels + 1 consonant or 3 vowels) can be chosen in (4C2 5C1)+4C3 ways Hence, required probability =[(4C25C1)+ 4C3 ]/ 9C3= 17/42

#### 28. Question

A word consists of 9 letters; 5 consonants and 4 vowels. Three letters are chosen at random. What is the probability that more than one vowel will be selected?

Correct Option: B

Justification:

3 letters can be chosen out of 9 letters in 9C3 ways

More than one vowel (2 vowels + 1 consonant or 3 vowels) can be chosen in

(4C2 * 5C1)+4C3 ways

Hence, required probability =[(4C2*5C1)+ 4C3 ]/ 9C3= 17/42

Correct Option: B

Justification:

3 letters can be chosen out of 9 letters in 9C3 ways

More than one vowel (2 vowels + 1 consonant or 3 vowels) can be chosen in

(4C2 * 5C1)+4C3 ways

Hence, required probability =[(4C2*5C1)+ 4C3 ]/ 9C3= 17/42

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points Five people out of whom only two can drive are to be seated in a five-seater car with two seats in front and three in the rear. The people who know driving don’t sit together. Only someone who knows driving can sit on the driver’s seat. Find the number of ways the five people can be seated a) 40 b) 60 c) 48 d) 36 Correct Correct Option: D Justification: Number of people who can drive = 2 Number of ways of selecting driver = 2C1 The other person who knows driving can be seated only in the rear three seats in 3 ways Total number of ways of seating the two persons = 2C1 × 3 Number of ways of seating remaining = 3! Total number of all five can be seated = 2C1 × 3 × 3! = 36 Hence, correct answer is 36 Hence, option D is correct. Incorrect Correct Option: D Justification: Number of people who can drive = 2 Number of ways of selecting driver = 2C1 The other person who knows driving can be seated only in the rear three seats in 3 ways Total number of ways of seating the two persons = 2C1 × 3 Number of ways of seating remaining = 3! Total number of all five can be seated = 2C1 × 3 × 3! = 36 Hence, correct answer is 36 Hence, option D is correct.

#### 29. Question

Five people out of whom only two can drive are to be seated in a five-seater car with two seats in front and three in the rear. The people who know driving don’t sit together. Only someone who knows driving can sit on the driver’s seat. Find the number of ways the five people can be seated

Correct Option: D

Justification:

Number of people who can drive = 2

Number of ways of selecting driver = 2C1

The other person who knows driving can be seated only in the rear three seats in 3 ways

Total number of ways of seating the two persons = 2C1 × 3

Number of ways of seating remaining = 3!

Total number of all five can be seated = 2C1 × 3 × 3! = 36

Hence, correct answer is 36

Hence, option D is correct.

Correct Option: D

Justification:

Number of people who can drive = 2

Number of ways of selecting driver = 2C1

The other person who knows driving can be seated only in the rear three seats in 3 ways

Total number of ways of seating the two persons = 2C1 × 3

Number of ways of seating remaining = 3!

Total number of all five can be seated = 2C1 × 3 × 3! = 36

Hence, correct answer is 36

Hence, option D is correct.

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points The blood groups of 200 people is distributed as follows: 50 have type A blood, 65 have B blood type, 70 have O blood type and 15 have type AB blood. If a person from this group is selected at random, what is the probability that this person has O blood type? a) 0.25 b) 0.35 c) 0.45 d) 0.65 Correct Correct Option: B Justification: We construct a table of frequencies for the blood groups as follows group frequency A 50 B 65 O 70 AB 15 We use the empirical formula of the probability P(E) = Frequency for O blood / Total frequencies = 70 / 200 = 0.35 Incorrect Correct Option: B Justification: We construct a table of frequencies for the blood groups as follows group frequency A 50 B 65 O 70 AB 15 We use the empirical formula of the probability P(E) = Frequency for O blood / Total frequencies = 70 / 200 = 0.35

#### 30. Question

The blood groups of 200 people is distributed as follows: 50 have type A blood, 65 have B blood type, 70 have O blood type and 15 have type AB blood. If a person from this group is selected at random, what is the probability that this person has O blood type?

Correct Option: B

Justification:

We construct a table of frequencies for the blood groups as follows

group frequency

We use the empirical formula of the probability

P(E) = Frequency for O blood / Total frequencies

= 70 / 200 = 0.35

Correct Option: B

Justification:

We construct a table of frequencies for the blood groups as follows

group frequency

We use the empirical formula of the probability

P(E) = Frequency for O blood / Total frequencies

= 70 / 200 = 0.35

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