DAY – 30 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – GOVERNMENT SCHEMES, ORGANISATIONS & INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS, Subject-wise Test 11, 24 , Textbook-based Test – 13, 14, 29 and January 2024 CA

INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points With reference to Model Code of Conduct (MCC), consider the following statements: Transfer of an election official without prior approval of the Election Commission. Combining official visit with electioneering work by the Prime Minister. Fresh release of funds under MPs Local Area Development Fund. Combining official work with electioneering work by the ministers. How many of the above amounts to the violation of the Model Code of Conduct (MCC)? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: c Explanation: The Model Code of Conduct for the guidance of political parties and candidates is a set of norms which has been evolved with the consensus of political parties who have consented to abide by the principles embodied in the said code and also binds them to respect and observe it in its letter and spirit. The Election Commission ensures its observance by political parties in power, including ruling parties at the Centre and in the States and contesting candidates in the discharge of its constitutional duties for conducting the free, fair and peaceful elections to the Parliament and the State Legislatures under Article 324 of the Constitution of India. It is also ensured that official machinery for the electoral purposes is not misused. Further, it is also ensured that electoral offences, malpractices and corrupt practices such as impersonation, bribing and inducement of voters, threat and intimidation to the voters are prevented by all means. In case of violation, appropriate measures are taken. The Model Code of Conduct is enforced from the date of announcement of election schedule by the Election Commission and is operational until the process of elections is completed. Some of the features of MCC are: There shall be a total ban on the transfer and posting of all officers/officials directly or indirectly connected with the conduct of the election. If any transfer or posting of an officer is considered necessary, prior approval of the Commission shall be obtained. Hence option 1 is correct. The Ministers shall not combine their official visit with electioneering work and shall not also make use of official machinery or personnel during the electioneering work. However, the Commission has exempted the Prime Minister from the operation of the model code of conduct provision pertaining to the combining of an official visit with electioneering visit. The Central Ministers / Chief Minister / Ministers in the States and other political functionaries can attend the Independence Day/Republic Day celebration. However, it will be ensured that no political speeches highlighting the achievements of the party in power are made on the occasions. Fresh release of funds under MPs/MLAs/MLCs Local Area Development Fund of any scheme shall not be made in any area where the election is in progress, till the completion of the election process. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: The Model Code of Conduct for the guidance of political parties and candidates is a set of norms which has been evolved with the consensus of political parties who have consented to abide by the principles embodied in the said code and also binds them to respect and observe it in its letter and spirit. The Election Commission ensures its observance by political parties in power, including ruling parties at the Centre and in the States and contesting candidates in the discharge of its constitutional duties for conducting the free, fair and peaceful elections to the Parliament and the State Legislatures under Article 324 of the Constitution of India. It is also ensured that official machinery for the electoral purposes is not misused. Further, it is also ensured that electoral offences, malpractices and corrupt practices such as impersonation, bribing and inducement of voters, threat and intimidation to the voters are prevented by all means. In case of violation, appropriate measures are taken. The Model Code of Conduct is enforced from the date of announcement of election schedule by the Election Commission and is operational until the process of elections is completed. Some of the features of MCC are: There shall be a total ban on the transfer and posting of all officers/officials directly or indirectly connected with the conduct of the election. If any transfer or posting of an officer is considered necessary, prior approval of the Commission shall be obtained. Hence option 1 is correct. The Ministers shall not combine their official visit with electioneering work and shall not also make use of official machinery or personnel during the electioneering work. However, the Commission has exempted the Prime Minister from the operation of the model code of conduct provision pertaining to the combining of an official visit with electioneering visit. The Central Ministers / Chief Minister / Ministers in the States and other political functionaries can attend the Independence Day/Republic Day celebration. However, it will be ensured that no political speeches highlighting the achievements of the party in power are made on the occasions. Fresh release of funds under MPs/MLAs/MLCs Local Area Development Fund of any scheme shall not be made in any area where the election is in progress, till the completion of the election process. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 1. Question

With reference to Model Code of Conduct (MCC), consider the following statements:

• Transfer of an election official without prior approval of the Election Commission.

• Combining official visit with electioneering work by the Prime Minister.

• Fresh release of funds under MPs Local Area Development Fund.

• Combining official work with electioneering work by the ministers.

How many of the above amounts to the violation of the Model Code of Conduct (MCC)?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

• The Model Code of Conduct for the guidance of political parties and candidates is a set of norms which has been evolved with the consensus of political parties who have consented to abide by the principles embodied in the said code and also binds them to respect and observe it in its letter and spirit.

• The Election Commission ensures its observance by political parties in power, including ruling parties at the Centre and in the States and contesting candidates in the discharge of its constitutional duties for conducting the free, fair and peaceful elections to the Parliament and the State Legislatures under Article 324 of the Constitution of India.

• It is also ensured that official machinery for the electoral purposes is not misused. Further, it is also ensured that electoral offences, malpractices and corrupt practices such as impersonation, bribing and inducement of voters, threat and intimidation to the voters are prevented by all means. In case of violation, appropriate measures are taken.

• The Model Code of Conduct is enforced from the date of announcement of election schedule by the Election Commission and is operational until the process of elections is completed.

Some of the features of MCC are:

• There shall be a total ban on the transfer and posting of all officers/officials directly or indirectly connected with the conduct of the election. If any transfer or posting of an officer is considered necessary, prior approval of the Commission shall be obtained. Hence option 1 is correct.

• The Ministers shall not combine their official visit with electioneering work and shall not also make use of official machinery or personnel during the electioneering work.

• However, the Commission has exempted the Prime Minister from the operation of the model code of conduct provision pertaining to the combining of an official visit with electioneering visit.

• The Central Ministers / Chief Minister / Ministers in the States and other political functionaries can attend the Independence Day/Republic Day celebration. However, it will be ensured that no political speeches highlighting the achievements of the party in power are made on the occasions.

• Fresh release of funds under MPs/MLAs/MLCs Local Area Development Fund of any scheme shall not be made in any area where the election is in progress, till the completion of the election process.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

• The Model Code of Conduct is enforced from the date of announcement of election schedule by the Election Commission and is operational until the process of elections is completed.

Some of the features of MCC are:

• The Ministers shall not combine their official visit with electioneering work and shall not also make use of official machinery or personnel during the electioneering work.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points With reference to Electronics Voting Machines (EVMs), consider the following statements: Provisions for the use of EVMs are provided under the Representation of the People Act, 1950. EVM data is continuously monitored through a centralized storage server. EVMs completely eliminate the possibilities of booth capturing. How many of the above statements are* incorrect? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: c Explanation: Electronic Voting Machine was introduced in India to conduct free and fair elections. Hence, the Indian Parliament amended the Representation of the People Act, 1951 and introduced Section 61-A which lays down the provisions for the use of Electronic Voting Machine by the Election Commission of India to Conduct General and State election in India. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. An Electronic Voting Machine consists of two Units – a Control Unit and a Balloting Unit – joined by a five-meter cable. An EVM is a stand-alone setup, not connected to any network either through wired or wireless technology. The Control Unit is with the Presiding Officer or a Polling Officer and the Balloting Unit is placed inside the voting compartment. Instead of issuing a ballot paper, the Polling Officer in-charge of the Control Unit will press the Ballot Button. This will enable the voter to cast his vote by pressing the blue button on the Balloting Unit against the candidate and symbol of his choice. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Booth-capturing means taking away or damaging of ballot boxes or ballot papers, this cannot be prevented by the use of EVMs as EVMs can also be forcibly taken away or damaged by miscreants. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option(c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Electronic Voting Machine was introduced in India to conduct free and fair elections. Hence, the Indian Parliament amended the Representation of the People Act, 1951 and introduced Section 61-A which lays down the provisions for the use of Electronic Voting Machine by the Election Commission of India to Conduct General and State election in India. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. An Electronic Voting Machine consists of two Units – a Control Unit and a Balloting Unit – joined by a five-meter cable. An EVM is a stand-alone setup, not connected to any network either through wired or wireless technology. The Control Unit is with the Presiding Officer or a Polling Officer and the Balloting Unit is placed inside the voting compartment. Instead of issuing a ballot paper, the Polling Officer in-charge of the Control Unit will press the Ballot Button. This will enable the voter to cast his vote by pressing the blue button on the Balloting Unit against the candidate and symbol of his choice. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Booth-capturing means taking away or damaging of ballot boxes or ballot papers, this cannot be prevented by the use of EVMs as EVMs can also be forcibly taken away or damaged by miscreants. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option(c) is correct. *

#### 2. Question

With reference to Electronics Voting Machines (EVMs), consider the following statements:

• Provisions for the use of EVMs are provided under the Representation of the People Act, 1950.

• EVM data is continuously monitored through a centralized storage server.

• EVMs completely eliminate the possibilities of booth capturing.

How many of the above statements are* incorrect*?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Explanation:

• Electronic Voting Machine was introduced in India to conduct free and fair elections. Hence, the Indian Parliament amended the Representation of the People Act, 1951 and introduced Section 61-A which lays down the provisions for the use of Electronic Voting Machine by the Election Commission of India to Conduct General and State election in India. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• An Electronic Voting Machine consists of two Units – a Control Unit and a Balloting Unit – joined by a five-meter cable. An EVM is a stand-alone setup, not connected to any network either through wired or wireless technology.

• The Control Unit is with the Presiding Officer or a Polling Officer and the Balloting Unit is placed inside the voting compartment. Instead of issuing a ballot paper, the Polling Officer in-charge of the Control Unit will press the Ballot Button. This will enable the voter to cast his vote by pressing the blue button on the Balloting Unit against the candidate and symbol of his choice. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• Booth-capturing means taking away or damaging of ballot boxes or ballot papers, this cannot be prevented by the use of EVMs as EVMs can also be forcibly taken away or damaged by miscreants. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Hence, option(c) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option(c) is correct.

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points In the backdrop of Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Bill, 2019, consider the following statements with reference to the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC): A person who has been a Chief Justice of the High Court is also eligible to be appointed as Chairperson of NHRC. The Chairperson of the National Commission for Minorities has been made an ex-officio member of the commission. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only. b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: d Explanation: The Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Bill, 2019 was introduced in Lok Sabha by the Minister of Home Affairs, Mr. Amit Shah, in 2019. The Bill amends the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. Both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha have passed the amendment bill. Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Bill, 2019, Under the Act, the chairperson of the NHRC is a person who has been a Chief Justice of the Supreme Court. The Bill amends this to provide that a person who has been Chief Justice of the Supreme Court, or a Judge of the Supreme Court will be the chairperson of the NHRC. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. The Act provides for two persons having knowledge of human rights to be appointed as members of the NHRC The Bill amends this to allow three members to be appointed, of which at least one will be a woman. Under the Act, chairpersons of various commissions such as the National Commission for Scheduled Castes, National Commission for Scheduled Tribes, and National Commission for Women were ex-officio members of the NHRC The Bill provides for including the chairpersons of the National Commission for Backward Classes, the National Commission for the Protection of Child Rights, and the Chief Commissioner for Persons with Disabilities as ex officio members of the NHRC. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: The Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Bill, 2019 was introduced in Lok Sabha by the Minister of Home Affairs, Mr. Amit Shah, in 2019. The Bill amends the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. Both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha have passed the amendment bill. Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Bill, 2019, Under the Act, the chairperson of the NHRC is a person who has been a Chief Justice of the Supreme Court. The Bill amends this to provide that a person who has been Chief Justice of the Supreme Court, or a Judge of the Supreme Court will be the chairperson of the NHRC. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. The Act provides for two persons having knowledge of human rights to be appointed as members of the NHRC The Bill amends this to allow three members to be appointed, of which at least one will be a woman. Under the Act, chairpersons of various commissions such as the National Commission for Scheduled Castes, National Commission for Scheduled Tribes, and National Commission for Women were ex-officio members of the NHRC The Bill provides for including the chairpersons of the National Commission for Backward Classes, the National Commission for the Protection of Child Rights, and the Chief Commissioner for Persons with Disabilities as ex officio members of the NHRC. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option (d) is correct.

#### 3. Question

In the backdrop of Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Bill, 2019, consider the following statements with reference to the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC):

• A person who has been a Chief Justice of the High Court is also eligible to be appointed as Chairperson of NHRC.

• The Chairperson of the National Commission for Minorities has been made an ex-officio member of the commission.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• a) 1 only.

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• The Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Bill, 2019 was introduced in Lok Sabha by the Minister of Home Affairs, Mr. Amit Shah, in 2019. The Bill amends the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.

• Both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha have passed the amendment bill.

Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 | Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Bill, 2019,

Under the Act, the chairperson of the NHRC is a person who has been a Chief Justice of the Supreme Court. | The Bill amends this to provide that a person who has been Chief Justice of the Supreme Court, or a Judge of the Supreme Court will be the chairperson of the NHRC. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

The Act provides for two persons having knowledge of human rights to be appointed as members of the NHRC | The Bill amends this to allow three members to be appointed, of which at least one will be a woman.

Under the Act, chairpersons of various commissions such as the National Commission for Scheduled Castes, National Commission for Scheduled Tribes, and National Commission for Women were ex-officio members of the NHRC | The Bill provides for including the chairpersons of the National Commission for Backward Classes, the National Commission for the Protection of Child Rights, and the Chief Commissioner for Persons with Disabilities as ex officio members of the NHRC. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

• Both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha have passed the amendment bill.

Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 | Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Bill, 2019,

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points In the context of Central Information Commission, consider the following statements: Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions is the nodal ministry for Central Information Commission President of India lays the report of Central Information Commission before the Parliament. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: a Explanation: Central Information commission: It is a statutory body constituted under Right to Information Act, 2005. It consists of a Chief Information Commissioner and not more than ten Information Commissioners. Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT) under Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions is the nodal ministry for the Central Information Commission. Hence statement 1 is correct. As per section 25 of the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005, the Central Information Commission is required to prepare an annual report on the implementation of the provisions of the Act during that year. However, it’s the government that is required to lay the report before each House of Parliament, not the President of India. The report is forwarded to the appropriate government, which then lays it before Parliament.Hence statement 2 is not correct. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Central Information commission: It is a statutory body constituted under Right to Information Act, 2005. It consists of a Chief Information Commissioner and not more than ten Information Commissioners. Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT) under Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions is the nodal ministry for the Central Information Commission. Hence statement 1 is correct. As per section 25 of the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005, the Central Information Commission is required to prepare an annual report on the implementation of the provisions of the Act during that year. However, it’s the government that is required to lay the report before each House of Parliament, not the President of India. The report is forwarded to the appropriate government, which then lays it before Parliament.Hence statement 2 is not correct. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 4. Question

In the context of Central Information Commission, consider the following statements:

• Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions is the nodal ministry for Central Information Commission

• President of India lays the report of Central Information Commission before the Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• Central Information commission: It is a statutory body constituted under Right to Information Act, 2005.

• It consists of a Chief Information Commissioner and not more than ten Information Commissioners.

• Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT) under Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions is the nodal ministry for the Central Information Commission. Hence statement 1 is correct.

• As per section 25 of the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005, the Central Information Commission is required to prepare an annual report on the implementation of the provisions of the Act during that year. However, it’s the government that is required to lay the report before each House of Parliament, not the President of India. The report is forwarded to the appropriate government, which then lays it before Parliament.Hence statement 2 is not correct.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• Central Information commission: It is a statutory body constituted under Right to Information Act, 2005.

• It consists of a Chief Information Commissioner and not more than ten Information Commissioners.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points With reference to the office of Lokpal, consider the following statements: The salary, allowances and other conditions of service of the Lokpal chairperson are same as that of the Chief Justice of India. The administrative expenses of the Lokpal are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: c Explanation: Salient features of The Lokpal and Lokayukta Act, 2013: Institutional mechanism: Establishment of Lokpal for the Union and Lokayukta for States to inquire into allegations of corruption against certain public functionaries. Composition: Lokpal will consist of a chairperson and a maximum of eight members, of which 50% shall be judicial members and 50% shall be from SC/ST/OBCs, minorities and women. Appointment process: It is a two-stage process. A search committee which recommends a panel of names to the high-power selection committee. The selection committee comprises the Prime Minister, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, the Leader of the Opposition, the Chief Justice of India (or his nominee) and an eminent jurist (nominated by President based on the recommendation of other members of the panel). President will appoint the recommended names. The Chairperson and every Member hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office or until he attains the age of seventy years, whichever is earlier. Jurisdiction: The jurisdiction of Lokpal extends to Anyone who is or has been Prime Minister, or a Minister in the Union government, or a Member of Parliament, as well as officials of the Union government under Groups A, B, C and D. The chairpersons, members, officers and directors of any board, corporation, society, trust or autonomous body either established by an Act of Parliament or wholly or partly funded by the Centre. Any society or trust or body that receives foreign contribution above ₹10 lakh. Salaries, allowances and service conditions of the Lokpal chairperson will be the same as those for the Chief Justice of India; those for other members will be the same as those for a judge of the Supreme Court. Hence statement 1 is correct. The administrative expenses of the Lokpal, including all salaries, allowances and pensions of the Chairperson, Members or Secretary or other officers or staff of the Lokpal, will be charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India and any fees or other money taken by the Lokpal shall form part of that Fund. Hence statement 2 is correct. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Salient features of The Lokpal and Lokayukta Act, 2013: Institutional mechanism: Establishment of Lokpal for the Union and Lokayukta for States to inquire into allegations of corruption against certain public functionaries. Composition: Lokpal will consist of a chairperson and a maximum of eight members, of which 50% shall be judicial members and 50% shall be from SC/ST/OBCs, minorities and women. Appointment process: It is a two-stage process. A search committee which recommends a panel of names to the high-power selection committee. The selection committee comprises the Prime Minister, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, the Leader of the Opposition, the Chief Justice of India (or his nominee) and an eminent jurist (nominated by President based on the recommendation of other members of the panel). President will appoint the recommended names. The Chairperson and every Member hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office or until he attains the age of seventy years, whichever is earlier. Jurisdiction: The jurisdiction of Lokpal extends to Anyone who is or has been Prime Minister, or a Minister in the Union government, or a Member of Parliament, as well as officials of the Union government under Groups A, B, C and D. The chairpersons, members, officers and directors of any board, corporation, society, trust or autonomous body either established by an Act of Parliament or wholly or partly funded by the Centre. Any society or trust or body that receives foreign contribution above ₹10 lakh. Salaries, allowances and service conditions of the Lokpal chairperson will be the same as those for the Chief Justice of India; those for other members will be the same as those for a judge of the Supreme Court. Hence statement 1 is correct. The administrative expenses of the Lokpal, including all salaries, allowances and pensions of the Chairperson, Members or Secretary or other officers or staff of the Lokpal, will be charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India and any fees or other money taken by the Lokpal shall form part of that Fund. Hence statement 2 is correct. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 5. Question

With reference to the office of Lokpal, consider the following statements:

• The salary, allowances and other conditions of service of the Lokpal chairperson are same as that of the Chief Justice of India.

• The administrative expenses of the Lokpal are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• Salient features of The Lokpal and Lokayukta Act, 2013:

• Institutional mechanism: Establishment of Lokpal for the Union and Lokayukta for States to inquire into allegations of corruption against certain public functionaries.

• Composition: Lokpal will consist of a chairperson and a maximum of eight members, of which 50% shall be judicial members and 50% shall be from SC/ST/OBCs, minorities and women.

• Appointment process: It is a two-stage process.

• A search committee which recommends a panel of names to the high-power selection committee.

• The selection committee comprises the Prime Minister, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, the Leader of the Opposition, the Chief Justice of India (or his nominee) and an eminent jurist (nominated by President based on the recommendation of other members of the panel).

• President will appoint the recommended names.

• The Chairperson and every Member hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office or until he attains the age of seventy years, whichever is earlier.

• Jurisdiction: The jurisdiction of Lokpal extends to

• Anyone who is or has been Prime Minister, or a Minister in the Union government, or a Member of Parliament, as well as officials of the Union government under Groups A, B, C and D.

• The chairpersons, members, officers and directors of any board, corporation, society, trust or autonomous body either established by an Act of Parliament or wholly or partly funded by the Centre.

• Any society or trust or body that receives foreign contribution above ₹10 lakh.

• Salaries, allowances and service conditions of the Lokpal chairperson will be the same as those for the Chief Justice of India; those for other members will be the same as those for a judge of the Supreme Court. Hence statement 1 is correct.

• The administrative expenses of the Lokpal, including all salaries, allowances and pensions of the Chairperson, Members or Secretary or other officers or staff of the Lokpal, will be charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India and any fees or other money taken by the Lokpal shall form part of that Fund. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

• Salient features of The Lokpal and Lokayukta Act, 2013:

• Institutional mechanism: Establishment of Lokpal for the Union and Lokayukta for States to inquire into allegations of corruption against certain public functionaries.

• Composition: Lokpal will consist of a chairperson and a maximum of eight members, of which 50% shall be judicial members and 50% shall be from SC/ST/OBCs, minorities and women.

• Appointment process: It is a two-stage process.

• A search committee which recommends a panel of names to the high-power selection committee.

• President will appoint the recommended names.

• The Chairperson and every Member hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office or until he attains the age of seventy years, whichever is earlier.

• Jurisdiction: The jurisdiction of Lokpal extends to

• Anyone who is or has been Prime Minister, or a Minister in the Union government, or a Member of Parliament, as well as officials of the Union government under Groups A, B, C and D.

• The chairpersons, members, officers and directors of any board, corporation, society, trust or autonomous body either established by an Act of Parliament or wholly or partly funded by the Centre.

• Any society or trust or body that receives foreign contribution above ₹10 lakh.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points According to the Supreme Court, what is the consequence if the government fails to consult UPSC on certain matters related to personnel management? a) The decision of the government is invalidated. b) The aggrieved public servant has no remedy in a court. c) The decision of the government is deemed void ab initio. d) The matter is referred to the President for reconsideration. Correct Answer: b Explanation: The Supreme Court has held that if the government fails to consult UPSC in the matters related to personnel management, the aggrieved public servant has no remedy in a court. In other words, the court held that any irregularity in consultation with the UPSC or acting without consultation does not invalidate the decision of the government. Thus, the provision is directory and not mandatory. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: The Supreme Court has held that if the government fails to consult UPSC in the matters related to personnel management, the aggrieved public servant has no remedy in a court. In other words, the court held that any irregularity in consultation with the UPSC or acting without consultation does not invalidate the decision of the government. Thus, the provision is directory and not mandatory. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 6. Question

According to the Supreme Court, what is the consequence if the government fails to consult UPSC on certain matters related to personnel management?

• a) The decision of the government is invalidated.

• b) The aggrieved public servant has no remedy in a court.

• c) The decision of the government is deemed void ab initio.

• d) The matter is referred to the President for reconsideration.

Explanation:

• The Supreme Court has held that if the government fails to consult UPSC in the matters related to personnel management, the aggrieved public servant has no remedy in a court. In other words, the court held that any irregularity in consultation with the UPSC or acting without consultation does not invalidate the decision of the government. Thus, the provision is directory and not mandatory.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points With reference to the appointment of the Prime Minister, what happens when no party has a clear majority in the Lok Sabha? a) The President must appoint the leader of the largest coalition in the Lok Sabha. b) The President exercises personal discretion in the selection of the Prime Minister. c) The President appoints a caretaker Prime Minister until new elections are held. d) The President dissolves the Lok Sabha and calls for fresh elections. Correct Answer: b Explanation: In accordance with the conventions of the parliamentary system of government, the President has to appoint the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha as the Prime Minister. But, when no party has a clear majority in the Lok Sabha, then the President may exercise his personal discretion in the selection and appointment of the Prime Minister. In such a situation, the President usually (not mandatory) appoints the leader of the largest party or coalition in the Lok Sabha as the Prime Minister and asks him/her to seek a vote of confidence in the House within a month. In the absence of a clear majority, the President is not obligated to appoint the leader of the largest coalition in the Lok Sabha as the Prime Minister. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: In accordance with the conventions of the parliamentary system of government, the President has to appoint the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha as the Prime Minister. But, when no party has a clear majority in the Lok Sabha, then the President may exercise his personal discretion in the selection and appointment of the Prime Minister. In such a situation, the President usually (not mandatory) appoints the leader of the largest party or coalition in the Lok Sabha as the Prime Minister and asks him/her to seek a vote of confidence in the House within a month. In the absence of a clear majority, the President is not obligated to appoint the leader of the largest coalition in the Lok Sabha as the Prime Minister. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 7. Question

With reference to the appointment of the Prime Minister, what happens when no party has a clear majority in the Lok Sabha?

• a) The President must appoint the leader of the largest coalition in the Lok Sabha.

• b) The President exercises personal discretion in the selection of the Prime Minister.

• c) The President appoints a caretaker Prime Minister until new elections are held.

• d) The President dissolves the Lok Sabha and calls for fresh elections.

Explanation:

• In accordance with the conventions of the parliamentary system of government, the President has to appoint the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha as the Prime Minister.

• But, when no party has a clear majority in the Lok Sabha, then the President may exercise his personal discretion in the selection and appointment of the Prime Minister.

• In such a situation, the President usually (not mandatory) appoints the leader of the largest party or coalition in the Lok Sabha as the Prime Minister and asks him/her to seek a vote of confidence in the House within a month.

• In the absence of a clear majority, the President is not obligated to appoint the leader of the largest coalition in the Lok Sabha as the Prime Minister.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• In accordance with the conventions of the parliamentary system of government, the President has to appoint the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha as the Prime Minister.

• But, when no party has a clear majority in the Lok Sabha, then the President may exercise his personal discretion in the selection and appointment of the Prime Minister.

• In the absence of a clear majority, the President is not obligated to appoint the leader of the largest coalition in the Lok Sabha as the Prime Minister.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Consider the following: Money bill Constitution Amendment bill Alteration of boundaries of State How many of the above given types of bills need the prior recommendation of the president before introduction in the Parliament? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: b Explanation: Types of bills which need the prior recommendation of the president before introduction in the Parliament are: Bills that seek to change or alter name, boundaries, area of a state, or form a new state by separation of territory from any state under Article 3 of the Indian constitution. This is essential to preserve the principle of federalism. Money bill under Article 110 and the financial bill under Article 117(I). This is to keep a check on arbitrary state power in matters of taxation. State bills which impose a restriction upon freedom of trade under Article 304. This provision ensures unrestricted trade between states except on reasonable and non-discriminatory grounds. Bill which imposes or varies any tax or duty in which states are interested under Article 274, to ensure financial autonomy of state and fiscal federalism. A bill that would involve expenditure from the consolidated fund of India even though it may not be a money bill. Article 113 (iii) prescribes that no demand for grants can be presented in the Lok Sabha without the President of India’s prior approval It should be noted here the Constitution amendment bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission of the President. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Types of bills which need the prior recommendation of the president before introduction in the Parliament are: Bills that seek to change or alter name, boundaries, area of a state, or form a new state by separation of territory from any state under Article 3 of the Indian constitution. This is essential to preserve the principle of federalism. Money bill under Article 110 and the financial bill under Article 117(I). This is to keep a check on arbitrary state power in matters of taxation. State bills which impose a restriction upon freedom of trade under Article 304. This provision ensures unrestricted trade between states except on reasonable and non-discriminatory grounds. Bill which imposes or varies any tax or duty in which states are interested under Article 274, to ensure financial autonomy of state and fiscal federalism. A bill that would involve expenditure from the consolidated fund of India even though it may not be a money bill. Article 113 (iii) prescribes that no demand for grants can be presented in the Lok Sabha without the President of India’s prior approval It should be noted here the Constitution amendment bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission of the President. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following:

• Money bill

• Constitution Amendment bill

• Alteration of boundaries of State

How many of the above given types of bills need the prior recommendation of the president before introduction in the Parliament?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Explanation:

• Types of bills which need the prior recommendation of the president before introduction in the Parliament are:

• Bills that seek to change or alter name, boundaries, area of a state, or form a new state by separation of territory from any state under Article 3 of the Indian constitution. This is essential to preserve the principle of federalism.

• Money bill under Article 110 and the financial bill under Article 117(I). This is to keep a check on arbitrary state power in matters of taxation.

• State bills which impose a restriction upon freedom of trade under Article 304. This provision ensures unrestricted trade between states except on reasonable and non-discriminatory grounds.

• Bill which imposes or varies any tax or duty in which states are interested under Article 274, to ensure financial autonomy of state and fiscal federalism.

• A bill that would involve expenditure from the consolidated fund of India even though it may not be a money bill.

• Article 113 (iii) prescribes that no demand for grants can be presented in the Lok Sabha without the President of India’s prior approval

• It should be noted here the Constitution amendment bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission of the President.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• Types of bills which need the prior recommendation of the president before introduction in the Parliament are:

• Money bill under Article 110 and the financial bill under Article 117(I). This is to keep a check on arbitrary state power in matters of taxation.

• State bills which impose a restriction upon freedom of trade under Article 304. This provision ensures unrestricted trade between states except on reasonable and non-discriminatory grounds.

• Bill which imposes or varies any tax or duty in which states are interested under Article 274, to ensure financial autonomy of state and fiscal federalism.

• A bill that would involve expenditure from the consolidated fund of India even though it may not be a money bill.

• Article 113 (iii) prescribes that no demand for grants can be presented in the Lok Sabha without the President of India’s prior approval

• It should be noted here the Constitution amendment bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission of the President.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points The office of the ‘Leader of the House’ is provided under: a) Parliamentary Statute b) Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business c) Constitution of India d) Parliamentary conventions Correct Answer: b Explanation: The Rules of Lok Sabha mention, the ‘Leader of the House’ as the prime minister, if he is a member of the Lok Sabha or a minister who is a member of the Lok Sabha and is nominated by the prime minister to function as the Leader of the House. Similarly, under the Rules of Rajya Sabha, there is also a ‘Leader of the House’ in the Rajya Sabha. He is a minister and a member of the Rajya Sabha and is nominated by the prime minister to function as such. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: The Rules of Lok Sabha mention, the ‘Leader of the House’ as the prime minister, if he is a member of the Lok Sabha or a minister who is a member of the Lok Sabha and is nominated by the prime minister to function as the Leader of the House. Similarly, under the Rules of Rajya Sabha, there is also a ‘Leader of the House’ in the Rajya Sabha. He is a minister and a member of the Rajya Sabha and is nominated by the prime minister to function as such. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 9. Question

The office of the ‘Leader of the House’ is provided under:

• a) Parliamentary Statute

• b) Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business

• c) Constitution of India

• d) Parliamentary conventions

Explanation:

• The Rules of Lok Sabha mention, the ‘Leader of the House’ as the prime minister, if he is a member of the Lok Sabha or a minister who is a member of the Lok Sabha and is nominated by the prime minister to function as the Leader of the House.

• Similarly, under the Rules of Rajya Sabha, there is also a ‘Leader of the House’ in the Rajya Sabha. He is a minister and a member of the Rajya Sabha and is nominated by the prime minister to function as such.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Which of the following term in the Preamble best describes the notion that ‘The people of India should behave as if they are members of the same family’? a) Equity b) Unity c) Equality d) Fraternity Correct Answer: d Explanation: Fraternity means a sense of brotherhood. It means ‘All of us should behave as if we are members of the same family. No one should treat a fellow citizen as inferior.’ The citizens need to internalize the principles of equality, justice and liberty to promote fraternity among all, regardless of religious beliefs, regional and local diversity. The Constitution promotes this feeling of fraternity by the system of single Also, the Fundamental Duties (Article 51-A) say that it shall be the duty of every citizen of India to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic, regional or sectional diversities. The Preamble declares that fraternity has to assure two things the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the nation. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: Fraternity means a sense of brotherhood. It means ‘All of us should behave as if we are members of the same family. No one should treat a fellow citizen as inferior.’ The citizens need to internalize the principles of equality, justice and liberty to promote fraternity among all, regardless of religious beliefs, regional and local diversity. The Constitution promotes this feeling of fraternity by the system of single Also, the Fundamental Duties (Article 51-A) say that it shall be the duty of every citizen of India to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic, regional or sectional diversities. The Preamble declares that fraternity has to assure two things the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the nation. Hence, option (d) is correct.

#### 10. Question

Which of the following term in the Preamble best describes the notion that ‘The people of India should behave as if they are members of the same family’?

• c) Equality

• d) Fraternity

Explanation:

• Fraternity means a sense of brotherhood. It means ‘All of us should behave as if we are members of the same family. No one should treat a fellow citizen as inferior.’ The citizens need to internalize the principles of equality, justice and liberty to promote fraternity among all, regardless of religious beliefs, regional and local diversity.

• The Constitution promotes this feeling of fraternity by the system of single Also, the Fundamental Duties (Article 51-A) say that it shall be the duty of every citizen of India to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic, regional or sectional diversities.

• The Preamble declares that fraternity has to assure two things the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the nation.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

• The Preamble declares that fraternity has to assure two things the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the nation.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points What is the primary objective of the Pradhan Mantri Janjati Adivasi Nyaya Maha Abhiyan (PM JANMAN)? (a) To provide employment for urban areas. (b) To address socio-economic challenges faced by Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India. (c) To promote digital literacy among tribal communities. (d) To establish new schools in urban municipalities. Correct Solution: B Pan-India celebrations marked the Jan Jatiya Gaurav Divas on 15th November 2023 to pay tributes to Bhagwan Birsa Munda on his birth anniversary. The day is also dedicated to the memory of brave tribal freedom fighters so that coming generations could know about their sacrifices about the country. India has ST population of 10.45 crore as per 2011 census, out of which 75 communities located in 18 States and the Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands have been categorized as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs). These PVTGs continue to face vulnerability in social, economic and educational fields. As announced in the Budget Speech 2023-24, “to improve socio-economic conditions of the Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs), Pradhan Mantri PVTG of Development Mission will be launched. This will saturate PVTG households and habitations with basic facilities such as safe housing, clean drinking water and sanitation, improved access to education, health and nutrition, road and telecom connectivity, and sustainable livelihood opportunities. An amount of Rs.15,000 crore will be made available to implement the Mission in the next three years under the Development Action Plan for the Scheduled Tribes (DAPST).” The PM-JANMAN (comprising Central Sector and Centrally Sponsored Schemes) to focus on 11 critical interventions through 9 Ministries including Ministry of Tribal Affairs. Incorrect Solution: B Pan-India celebrations marked the Jan Jatiya Gaurav Divas on 15th November 2023 to pay tributes to Bhagwan Birsa Munda on his birth anniversary. The day is also dedicated to the memory of brave tribal freedom fighters so that coming generations could know about their sacrifices about the country. India has ST population of 10.45 crore as per 2011 census, out of which 75 communities located in 18 States and the Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands have been categorized as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs). These PVTGs continue to face vulnerability in social, economic and educational fields. As announced in the Budget Speech 2023-24, “to improve socio-economic conditions of the Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs), Pradhan Mantri PVTG of Development Mission will be launched. This will saturate PVTG households and habitations with basic facilities such as safe housing, clean drinking water and sanitation, improved access to education, health and nutrition, road and telecom connectivity, and sustainable livelihood opportunities. An amount of Rs.15,000 crore will be made available to implement the Mission in the next three years under the Development Action Plan for the Scheduled Tribes (DAPST).” The PM-JANMAN (comprising Central Sector and Centrally Sponsored Schemes) to focus on 11 critical interventions through 9 Ministries including Ministry of Tribal Affairs.

#### 11. Question

What is the primary objective of the Pradhan Mantri Janjati Adivasi Nyaya Maha Abhiyan (PM JANMAN)?

• (a) To provide employment for urban areas.

• (b) To address socio-economic challenges faced by Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India.

• (c) To promote digital literacy among tribal communities.

• (d) To establish new schools in urban municipalities.

Solution: B

Pan-India celebrations marked the Jan Jatiya Gaurav Divas on 15th November 2023 to pay tributes to Bhagwan Birsa Munda on his birth anniversary. The day is also dedicated to the memory of brave tribal freedom fighters so that coming generations could know about their sacrifices about the country.

India has ST population of 10.45 crore as per 2011 census, out of which 75 communities located in 18 States and the Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands have been categorized as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs). These PVTGs continue to face vulnerability in social, economic and educational fields.

As announced in the Budget Speech 2023-24, “to improve socio-economic conditions of the Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs), Pradhan Mantri PVTG of Development Mission will be launched. This will saturate PVTG households and habitations with basic facilities such as safe housing, clean drinking water and sanitation, improved access to education, health and nutrition, road and telecom connectivity, and sustainable livelihood opportunities. An amount of Rs.15,000 crore will be made available to implement the Mission in the next three years under the Development Action Plan for the Scheduled Tribes (DAPST).”

The PM-JANMAN (comprising Central Sector and Centrally Sponsored Schemes) to focus on 11 critical interventions through 9 Ministries including Ministry of Tribal Affairs.

Solution: B

The PM-JANMAN (comprising Central Sector and Centrally Sponsored Schemes) to focus on 11 critical interventions through 9 Ministries including Ministry of Tribal Affairs.

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary: Chinnar WLS is renowned for its population of the endangered Grizzled Giant Squirrel. The sanctuary does not support a significant avian population due to its dry climate. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A Context: A team of researchers in Kerala has identified the presence of the Eurasian Otter (Lutra lutra) in the state for the first time, specifically at Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary in Idukki. Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary (WLS) in the Idukki district of Kerala is indeed renowned for its population of the endangered Grizzled Giant Squirrel. The presence of this species highlights the sanctuary’s rich biodiversity and the conservation efforts in place to protect such endangered species. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Chinnar WLS supports a significant avian population, which is indicated by the recorded 225 bird species. The dry climate of the region, being in the rainshadow area of the Western Ghats, does not preclude the presence of a significant number of bird species. The sanctuary’s location in the Western Ghats, a global biodiversity hotspot, contributes to its rich avian biodiversity despite the lower rainfall in the rainshadow region. The diverse habitats within the sanctuary, such as dry thorn forests, riparian forests, and grasslands, provide suitable conditions for various bird species to thrive. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution: A Context: A team of researchers in Kerala has identified the presence of the Eurasian Otter (Lutra lutra) in the state for the first time, specifically at Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary in Idukki. Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary (WLS) in the Idukki district of Kerala is indeed renowned for its population of the endangered Grizzled Giant Squirrel. The presence of this species highlights the sanctuary’s rich biodiversity and the conservation efforts in place to protect such endangered species. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Chinnar WLS supports a significant avian population, which is indicated by the recorded 225 bird species. The dry climate of the region, being in the rainshadow area of the Western Ghats, does not preclude the presence of a significant number of bird species. The sanctuary’s location in the Western Ghats, a global biodiversity hotspot, contributes to its rich avian biodiversity despite the lower rainfall in the rainshadow region. The diverse habitats within the sanctuary, such as dry thorn forests, riparian forests, and grasslands, provide suitable conditions for various bird species to thrive. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

#### 12. Question

Consider the following statements about Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary:

• Chinnar WLS is renowned for its population of the endangered Grizzled Giant Squirrel.

• The sanctuary does not support a significant avian population due to its dry climate.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

Context: A team of researchers in Kerala has identified the presence of the Eurasian Otter (Lutra lutra) in the state for the first time, specifically at Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary in Idukki.

Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary (WLS) in the Idukki district of Kerala is indeed renowned for its population of the endangered Grizzled Giant Squirrel. The presence of this species highlights the sanctuary’s rich biodiversity and the conservation efforts in place to protect such endangered species.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Chinnar WLS supports a significant avian population, which is indicated by the recorded 225 bird species. The dry climate of the region, being in the rainshadow area of the Western Ghats, does not preclude the presence of a significant number of bird species.

The sanctuary’s location in the Western Ghats, a global biodiversity hotspot, contributes to its rich avian biodiversity despite the lower rainfall in the rainshadow region. The diverse habitats within the sanctuary, such as dry thorn forests, riparian forests, and grasslands, provide suitable conditions for various bird species to thrive.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Solution: A

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Rani Chennamma is celebrated for her role in which significant historical event? (a) The Battle of Plassey (b) The Siege of Seringapatam (c) The Kittur Revolt of 1824 (d) The Revolt of 1857 Correct Solution: C About Rani Chennamma: Rani Chennamma, the Queen of Kittur, led the Kittur revolt of 1824, one of the earliest woman-led anti-colonial struggles against British rule in India. Born in 1778 in present-day Karnataka, she married Raja Mallasarja of Kittur and played a crucial role in defending her kingdom after his death. When the British refused to recognize her adopted son as the successor under the ‘doctrine of lapse’, she led a rebellion against them. Despite initial success, the British eventually captured Kittur Fort in December 1824, leading to Rani Chennamma’s imprisonment and subsequent death in 1829. Her bravery and leadership in resisting colonial oppression have made her a symbol of Karnataka’s political imagination and a significant figure in Indian history Incorrect Solution: C About Rani Chennamma: Rani Chennamma, the Queen of Kittur, led the Kittur revolt of 1824, one of the earliest woman-led anti-colonial struggles against British rule in India. Born in 1778 in present-day Karnataka, she married Raja Mallasarja of Kittur and played a crucial role in defending her kingdom after his death. When the British refused to recognize her adopted son as the successor under the ‘doctrine of lapse’, she led a rebellion against them. Despite initial success, the British eventually captured Kittur Fort in December 1824, leading to Rani Chennamma’s imprisonment and subsequent death in 1829. Her bravery and leadership in resisting colonial oppression have made her a symbol of Karnataka’s political imagination and a significant figure in Indian history

#### 13. Question

Rani Chennamma is celebrated for her role in which significant historical event?

• (a) The Battle of Plassey

• (b) The Siege of Seringapatam

• (c) The Kittur Revolt of 1824

• (d) The Revolt of 1857

Solution: C

About Rani Chennamma:

• Rani Chennamma, the Queen of Kittur, led the Kittur revolt of 1824, one of the earliest woman-led anti-colonial struggles against British rule in India.

• Born in 1778 in present-day Karnataka, she married Raja Mallasarja of Kittur and played a crucial role in defending her kingdom after his death.

• When the British refused to recognize her adopted son as the successor under the ‘doctrine of lapse’, she led a rebellion against them.

• Despite initial success, the British eventually captured Kittur Fort in December 1824, leading to Rani Chennamma’s imprisonment and subsequent death in 1829.

Her bravery and leadership in resisting colonial oppression have made her a symbol of Karnataka’s political imagination and a significant figure in Indian history

Solution: C

About Rani Chennamma:

• Rani Chennamma, the Queen of Kittur, led the Kittur revolt of 1824, one of the earliest woman-led anti-colonial struggles against British rule in India.

• Born in 1778 in present-day Karnataka, she married Raja Mallasarja of Kittur and played a crucial role in defending her kingdom after his death.

• When the British refused to recognize her adopted son as the successor under the ‘doctrine of lapse’, she led a rebellion against them.

• Despite initial success, the British eventually captured Kittur Fort in December 1824, leading to Rani Chennamma’s imprisonment and subsequent death in 1829.

Her bravery and leadership in resisting colonial oppression have made her a symbol of Karnataka’s political imagination and a significant figure in Indian history

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Public Accounts Committee (PAC) in India: PAC was established under the Government of India Act, 1919. The committee is responsible for the examination of annual audit reports of the CAG. PAC comprises members that are exclusively from the Lok Sabha, the lower house of Parliament. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Incorrect Solution: B

#### 14. Question

Consider the following statements about the Public Accounts Committee (PAC) in India:

• PAC was established under the Government of India Act, 1919.

• The committee is responsible for the examination of annual audit reports of the CAG.

• PAC comprises members that are exclusively from the Lok Sabha, the lower house of Parliament.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Which organization launched the Global Initiative on Digital Health (GIDH)? (a) United Nations Children's Fund (UNICEF) (b) World Health Organization (WHO) (c) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) (d) Médecins Sans Frontières (Doctors Without Borders) Correct Solution: B The World Health Organization (WHO) launched the Global Initiative on Digital Health (GIDH) virtually, in line with one of the priority areas agreed upon during India’s G20 presidency in 2023. The initiative aims to facilitate the sharing of knowledge and digital health products among countries. GIDH will prioritize assessing Member States’ needs, evaluating digital health resources, supporting the achievement of strategic objectives, and building capacity for digital health technologies. It will address variability in digital solutions by promoting best practices and standards. It will function as a “Network of Networks,” focusing on four foundational pillars: Country Needs Tracker – facilitating digital health investments to be informed by country priorities; Country Resource Portal – identifying traditional as well as innovative resource opportunities, and promoting transparency, while reducing the risk of duplication for enabling a standards-based prospective and retrospective analysis of resourcing gaps in digital health. Transformation Toolbox – advocating for quality-assured tools and resources that strengthen the country’s capacity and autonomy to manage the national digital health transformation. • Convening and Knowledge Exchange – promoting strengthened collaboration and knowledge exchange across global, regional, and national networks in digital health. Incorrect Solution: B The World Health Organization (WHO) launched the Global Initiative on Digital Health (GIDH) virtually, in line with one of the priority areas agreed upon during India’s G20 presidency in 2023. The initiative aims to facilitate the sharing of knowledge and digital health products among countries. GIDH will prioritize assessing Member States’ needs, evaluating digital health resources, supporting the achievement of strategic objectives, and building capacity for digital health technologies. It will address variability in digital solutions by promoting best practices and standards. It will function as a “Network of Networks,” focusing on four foundational pillars: Country Needs Tracker – facilitating digital health investments to be informed by country priorities; Country Resource Portal – identifying traditional as well as innovative resource opportunities, and promoting transparency, while reducing the risk of duplication for enabling a standards-based prospective and retrospective analysis of resourcing gaps in digital health. Transformation Toolbox – advocating for quality-assured tools and resources that strengthen the country’s capacity and autonomy to manage the national digital health transformation. • Convening and Knowledge Exchange – promoting strengthened collaboration and knowledge exchange across global, regional, and national networks in digital health.

#### 15. Question

Which organization launched the Global Initiative on Digital Health (GIDH)?

• (a) United Nations Children's Fund (UNICEF)

• (b) World Health Organization (WHO)

• (c) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)

• (d) Médecins Sans Frontières (Doctors Without Borders)

Solution: B

The World Health Organization (WHO) launched the Global Initiative on Digital Health (GIDH) virtually, in line with one of the priority areas agreed upon during India’s G20 presidency in 2023.

The initiative aims to facilitate the sharing of knowledge and digital health products among countries.

• GIDH will prioritize assessing Member States’ needs, evaluating digital health resources, supporting the achievement of strategic objectives, and building capacity for digital health technologies.

• It will address variability in digital solutions by promoting best practices and standards.

It will function as a “Network of Networks,” focusing on four foundational pillars:

• Country Needs Tracker – facilitating digital health investments to be informed by country priorities;

• Country Resource Portal – identifying traditional as well as innovative resource opportunities, and promoting transparency, while reducing the risk of duplication for enabling a standards-based prospective and retrospective analysis of resourcing gaps in digital health.

• Transformation Toolbox – advocating for quality-assured tools and resources that strengthen the country’s capacity and autonomy to manage the national digital health transformation.

• Convening and Knowledge Exchange – promoting strengthened collaboration and knowledge exchange across global, regional, and national networks in digital health.

Solution: B

The World Health Organization (WHO) launched the Global Initiative on Digital Health (GIDH) virtually, in line with one of the priority areas agreed upon during India’s G20 presidency in 2023.

The initiative aims to facilitate the sharing of knowledge and digital health products among countries.

• It will address variability in digital solutions by promoting best practices and standards.

It will function as a “Network of Networks,” focusing on four foundational pillars:

• Country Needs Tracker – facilitating digital health investments to be informed by country priorities;

• Transformation Toolbox – advocating for quality-assured tools and resources that strengthen the country’s capacity and autonomy to manage the national digital health transformation.

• Convening and Knowledge Exchange – promoting strengthened collaboration and knowledge exchange across global, regional, and national networks in digital health.

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Minor Forest Produce is a subset of forest produce first defined under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, of 1972. The tribal households depend on the Minor Forest Produce economy more than the non-tribal households. The Minor Forest Produces are a source of non-cash income as they are collected especially during the slack season. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: Minor Forest Produce (MFP) is a subset of forest produce and got a definition only in 2007 when the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, was enacted. The Act defines a Minor Forest Produce (MFP) as all non-timber forest produce of plant origin and includes bamboo, brushwood, stumps, canes, Tusser, cocoon, honey, waxes, Lac, tendu/kendu leaves, medicinal plants and herbs, roots, tuber and the like. Statement 2 is correct: MFPs are especially important for the poorest households living in forested areas, especially women. In Chhattisgarh, the involvement of women in the MFP economy is very high, tribal households depend on the MFP economy more than non-tribal households and poorer households more than comparatively better-off ones. Statement 3 is not correct: MFPs provide essential nutrition to people living in forested areas, and are used for household purposes, thus forming an important part of their non-cash income. For the tribal communities who practice agriculture, MFPs are a source of cash income, especially during slack seasons. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: Minor Forest Produce (MFP) is a subset of forest produce and got a definition only in 2007 when the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, was enacted. The Act defines a Minor Forest Produce (MFP) as all non-timber forest produce of plant origin and includes bamboo, brushwood, stumps, canes, Tusser, cocoon, honey, waxes, Lac, tendu/kendu leaves, medicinal plants and herbs, roots, tuber and the like. Statement 2 is correct: MFPs are especially important for the poorest households living in forested areas, especially women. In Chhattisgarh, the involvement of women in the MFP economy is very high, tribal households depend on the MFP economy more than non-tribal households and poorer households more than comparatively better-off ones. Statement 3 is not correct: MFPs provide essential nutrition to people living in forested areas, and are used for household purposes, thus forming an important part of their non-cash income. For the tribal communities who practice agriculture, MFPs are a source of cash income, especially during slack seasons.

#### 16. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Minor Forest Produce is a subset of forest produce first defined under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, of 1972.

• The tribal households depend on the Minor Forest Produce economy more than the non-tribal households.

• The Minor Forest Produces are a source of non-cash income as they are collected especially during the slack season.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: Minor Forest Produce (MFP) is a subset of forest produce and got a definition only in 2007 when the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, was enacted.

The Act defines a Minor Forest Produce (MFP) as all non-timber forest produce of plant origin and includes bamboo, brushwood, stumps, canes, Tusser, cocoon, honey, waxes, Lac, tendu/kendu leaves, medicinal plants and herbs, roots, tuber and the like.

Statement 2 is correct: MFPs are especially important for the poorest households living in forested areas, especially women. In Chhattisgarh, the involvement of women in the MFP economy is very high, tribal households depend on the MFP economy more than non-tribal households and poorer households more than comparatively better-off ones.

Statement 3 is not correct: MFPs provide essential nutrition to people living in forested areas, and are used for household purposes, thus forming an important part of their non-cash income. For the tribal communities who practice agriculture, MFPs are a source of cash income, especially during slack seasons.

Answer: A

Explanation:

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Snow Leopards: Their geographical range in India encompasses the parts of the western Himalayas. They prefer steep and rugged terrains with rocky outcrops and ravines. They are listed as ‘Vulnerable’ under the IUCN’s Red List of Threatened Species. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Snow leopards live in the mountainous regions of Central and Southern Asia. In India, their geographical range encompasses a large part of the western Himalayas, including the Union Territories of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand and Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh in the eastern Himalayas. Statement 2 is correct: Snow leopards prefer steep, rugged terrains with rocky outcrops and ravines and are usually found at an elevation of 3,000-5,000 metres or higher in the Himalayas. Statement 3 is correct: In the IUCN-World Conservation Union’s Red List of Threatened Species, the snow leopard is listed as Vulnerable. In addition, the snow leopard, like all big cats, is also listed in Appendix I of the Convention on International Trade of Endangered Species (CITES), which makes the trading of animal body parts (i.e., fur, bones and meat) illegal in signatory countries. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Snow leopards live in the mountainous regions of Central and Southern Asia. In India, their geographical range encompasses a large part of the western Himalayas, including the Union Territories of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand and Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh in the eastern Himalayas. Statement 2 is correct: Snow leopards prefer steep, rugged terrains with rocky outcrops and ravines and are usually found at an elevation of 3,000-5,000 metres or higher in the Himalayas. Statement 3 is correct: In the IUCN-World Conservation Union’s Red List of Threatened Species, the snow leopard is listed as Vulnerable. In addition, the snow leopard, like all big cats, is also listed in Appendix I of the Convention on International Trade of Endangered Species (CITES), which makes the trading of animal body parts (i.e., fur, bones and meat) illegal in signatory countries.

#### 17. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Snow Leopards:

• Their geographical range in India encompasses the parts of the western Himalayas.

• They prefer steep and rugged terrains with rocky outcrops and ravines.

• They are listed as ‘Vulnerable’ under the IUCN’s Red List of Threatened Species.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Snow leopards live in the mountainous regions of Central and Southern Asia. In India, their geographical range encompasses a large part of the western Himalayas, including the Union Territories of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand and Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh in the eastern Himalayas.

Statement 2 is correct: Snow leopards prefer steep, rugged terrains with rocky outcrops and ravines and are usually found at an elevation of 3,000-5,000 metres or higher in the Himalayas.

Statement 3 is correct: In the IUCN-World Conservation Union’s Red List of Threatened Species, the snow leopard is listed as Vulnerable.

In addition, the snow leopard, like all big cats, is also listed in Appendix I of the Convention on International Trade of Endangered Species (CITES), which makes the trading of animal body parts (i.e., fur, bones and meat) illegal in signatory countries.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 2 is correct: Snow leopards prefer steep, rugged terrains with rocky outcrops and ravines and are usually found at an elevation of 3,000-5,000 metres or higher in the Himalayas.

Statement 3 is correct: In the IUCN-World Conservation Union’s Red List of Threatened Species, the snow leopard is listed as Vulnerable.

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Hansen’s Disease: It is commonly known as leprosy and is a Neglected Tropical Disease (NTD). It is a chronic infectious disease caused by a combination of bacteria and a virus. It affects the peripheral nerves and mucosa of the upper respiratory tract. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Hansen’s disease, also known as leprosy, is a neglected tropical disease (NTD) which still occurs in more than 120 countries. Statement 2 is not correct: It is a chronic infectious disease which is caused by a type of bacteria called Mycobacterium leprae. The disease affects the skin, the peripheral nerves, mucosa of the upper respiratory tract, and the eyes. Statement 3 is correct: Leprosy is a curable disease. The currently recommended treatment regimen consists of three drugs: dapsone, rifampicin and clofazimine. The combination is referred to as multi-drug therapy (MDT). Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Hansen’s disease, also known as leprosy, is a neglected tropical disease (NTD) which still occurs in more than 120 countries. Statement 2 is not correct: It is a chronic infectious disease which is caused by a type of bacteria called Mycobacterium leprae. The disease affects the skin, the peripheral nerves, mucosa of the upper respiratory tract, and the eyes. Statement 3 is correct: Leprosy is a curable disease. The currently recommended treatment regimen consists of three drugs: dapsone, rifampicin and clofazimine. The combination is referred to as multi-drug therapy (MDT).

#### 18. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Hansen’s Disease:

• It is commonly known as leprosy and is a Neglected Tropical Disease (NTD).

• It is a chronic infectious disease caused by a combination of bacteria and a virus.

• It affects the peripheral nerves and mucosa of the upper respiratory tract.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Hansen’s disease, also known as leprosy, is a neglected tropical disease (NTD) which still occurs in more than 120 countries.

Statement 2 is not correct: It is a chronic infectious disease which is caused by a type of bacteria called Mycobacterium leprae. The disease affects the skin, the peripheral nerves, mucosa of the upper respiratory tract, and the eyes.

Statement 3 is correct: Leprosy is a curable disease. The currently recommended treatment regimen consists of three drugs: dapsone, rifampicin and clofazimine. The combination is referred to as multi-drug therapy (MDT).

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Hansen’s disease, also known as leprosy, is a neglected tropical disease (NTD) which still occurs in more than 120 countries.

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Ratle Hydroelectric Project: The project is situated on River Kishanganga which is a tributary of River Jhelum with an installed capacity of 850 MW. The Project is a Joint Venture of NHPC Limited with the financial assistance of the International Monetary Fund. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: D Explanation: Option (d) is correct: The Ratle Project is being executed by Ratle Hydroelectric Power Corporation Limited (RHPCL), a Joint Venture of NHPC Limited and Government of J&K, with shareholding of 51:49 percent, respectively. Ratle HE project is a Run of River Scheme situated on River Chenab in Kishtwar District of J&K with installed capacity of 850 MW. The sanction of Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs was accorded to the project by the Government of India in January 2021, at a total cost of Rs. 5281.94 crores. Incorrect Answer: D Explanation: Option (d) is correct: The Ratle Project is being executed by Ratle Hydroelectric Power Corporation Limited (RHPCL), a Joint Venture of NHPC Limited and Government of J&K, with shareholding of 51:49 percent, respectively. Ratle HE project is a Run of River Scheme situated on River Chenab in Kishtwar District of J&K with installed capacity of 850 MW. The sanction of Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs was accorded to the project by the Government of India in January 2021, at a total cost of Rs. 5281.94 crores.

#### 19. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Ratle Hydroelectric Project:

• The project is situated on River Kishanganga which is a tributary of River Jhelum with an installed capacity of 850 MW.

• The Project is a Joint Venture of NHPC Limited with the financial assistance of the International Monetary Fund.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Explanation:

Option (d) is correct: The Ratle Project is being executed by Ratle Hydroelectric Power Corporation Limited (RHPCL), a Joint Venture of NHPC Limited and Government of J&K, with shareholding of 51:49 percent, respectively.

Ratle HE project is a Run of River Scheme situated on River Chenab in Kishtwar District of J&K with installed capacity of 850 MW.

The sanction of Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs was accorded to the project by the Government of India in January 2021, at a total cost of Rs. 5281.94 crores.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Ratle HE project is a Run of River Scheme situated on River Chenab in Kishtwar District of J&K with installed capacity of 850 MW.

The sanction of Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs was accorded to the project by the Government of India in January 2021, at a total cost of Rs. 5281.94 crores.

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Vietnam: It is situated along the eastern coast of the Kamchatka Peninsula. It is entirely located in the Eastern Hemisphere of the Earth. It shares the boundary with the Gulf of Tonkin. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: Vietnam is situated in Southeast Asia along the eastern coast of the Indochinese Peninsula. Statement 2 is not correct: It is located in the Northern and Eastern hemispheres of the Earth. Vietnam has land borders with three countries; China to the north, and Cambodia and Laos to the west. Statement 3 is correct: The Gulf of Tonkin with the Island of Hainan Dao (China) lies to the northeast of Vietnam. To the south and east, the country is bordered by the South China Sea, and the Gulf of Thailand lies to the southwest. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: Vietnam is situated in Southeast Asia along the eastern coast of the Indochinese Peninsula. Statement 2 is not correct: It is located in the Northern and Eastern hemispheres of the Earth. Vietnam has land borders with three countries; China to the north, and Cambodia and Laos to the west. Statement 3 is correct: The Gulf of Tonkin with the Island of Hainan Dao (China) lies to the northeast of Vietnam. To the south and east, the country is bordered by the South China Sea, and the Gulf of Thailand lies to the southwest.

#### 20. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Vietnam:

• It is situated along the eastern coast of the Kamchatka Peninsula.

• It is entirely located in the Eastern Hemisphere of the Earth.

• It shares the boundary with the Gulf of Tonkin.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: Vietnam is situated in Southeast Asia along the eastern coast of the Indochinese Peninsula.

Statement 2 is not correct: It is located in the Northern and Eastern hemispheres of the Earth. Vietnam has land borders with three countries; China to the north, and Cambodia and Laos to the west.

Statement 3 is correct: The Gulf of Tonkin with the Island of Hainan Dao (China) lies to the northeast of Vietnam.

To the south and east, the country is bordered by the South China Sea, and the Gulf of Thailand lies to the southwest.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: Vietnam is situated in Southeast Asia along the eastern coast of the Indochinese Peninsula.

Statement 3 is correct: The Gulf of Tonkin with the Island of Hainan Dao (China) lies to the northeast of Vietnam.

To the south and east, the country is bordered by the South China Sea, and the Gulf of Thailand lies to the southwest.

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Consider the following statements comparing the International Court of Justice (ICJ) with the International Criminal Court (ICC). They are both official courts of the United Nations. They both can handle criminal prosecution of individuals. Only the ICJ can handle cases that involve human rights violations of crimes against humanity in general. How many of the above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: d) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/02/CA-30-JAN-2024-MONTHLY.pdf Incorrect Solution: d) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/02/CA-30-JAN-2024-MONTHLY.pdf

#### 21. Question

Consider the following statements comparing the International Court of Justice (ICJ) with the International Criminal Court (ICC).

• They are both official courts of the United Nations.

• They both can handle criminal prosecution of individuals.

• Only the ICJ can handle cases that involve human rights violations of crimes against humanity in general.

How many of the above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: d)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/02/CA-30-JAN-2024-MONTHLY.pdf

Solution: d)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/02/CA-30-JAN-2024-MONTHLY.pdf

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Consider the following about the Sunkanya Samridhi Scheme. Interest earned through the Sukanya Samriddhi Account is tax-free. The accounts under the scheme can be opened in both post offices and banks. There is no maximum deposit limit under the scheme. How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/02/CA-30-JAN-2024-MONTHLY.pdf Incorrect Solution: b) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/02/CA-30-JAN-2024-MONTHLY.pdf

#### 22. Question

Consider the following about the Sunkanya Samridhi Scheme.

• Interest earned through the Sukanya Samriddhi Account is tax-free.

• The accounts under the scheme can be opened in both post offices and banks.

• There is no maximum deposit limit under the scheme.

How many of the above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: b)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/02/CA-30-JAN-2024-MONTHLY.pdf

Solution: b)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/02/CA-30-JAN-2024-MONTHLY.pdf

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about ‘SMART 2.0’ (Scope for Mainstreaming Ayurveda Research among Teaching professionals) program. This initiative aims to foster collaborative clinical studies in priority areas of Ayurveda with academic institutions and hospitals across India. It aims to generate tangible evidence demonstrating the efficacy and safety of Ayurvedic inter- ventions through interdisciplinary research methods, translating the findings into public healthcare. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: c) Justification: The Central Council for Research in Ayurvedic Sciences (CCRAS) and the National Commission for Indian System of Medicine (NCISM) have jointly launched the ‘SMART 2.0’ (Scope for Mainstreaming Ayurveda Research among Teaching professionals) program. This initiative aims to foster collaborative clinical studies in priority areas of Ayurveda with academic institutions and hospitals across India. The goal of ‘SMART 2.0’ is to generate tangible evidence demonstrating the efficacy and safety of Ayurvedic interventions through interdisciplinary research methods, translating the findings into public healthcare. The previous version, ‘SMART 1.0,’ covered around 10 dis- eases with active participation from teaching professionals. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/02/CA-30-JAN-2024-MONTHLY.pdf Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: The Central Council for Research in Ayurvedic Sciences (CCRAS) and the National Commission for Indian System of Medicine (NCISM) have jointly launched the ‘SMART 2.0’ (Scope for Mainstreaming Ayurveda Research among Teaching professionals) program. This initiative aims to foster collaborative clinical studies in priority areas of Ayurveda with academic institutions and hospitals across India. The goal of ‘SMART 2.0’ is to generate tangible evidence demonstrating the efficacy and safety of Ayurvedic interventions through interdisciplinary research methods, translating the findings into public healthcare. The previous version, ‘SMART 1.0,’ covered around 10 dis- eases with active participation from teaching professionals. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/02/CA-30-JAN-2024-MONTHLY.pdf

#### 23. Question

Consider the following statements about ‘SMART 2.0’ (Scope for Mainstreaming Ayurveda Research among Teaching professionals) program.

• This initiative aims to foster collaborative clinical studies in priority areas of Ayurveda with academic institutions and hospitals across India.

• It aims to generate tangible evidence demonstrating the efficacy and safety of Ayurvedic inter- ventions through interdisciplinary research methods, translating the findings into public healthcare.

Which of the above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c)

Justification: The Central Council for Research in Ayurvedic Sciences (CCRAS) and the National Commission for Indian System of Medicine (NCISM) have jointly launched the ‘SMART 2.0’ (Scope for Mainstreaming Ayurveda Research among Teaching professionals) program.

This initiative aims to foster collaborative clinical studies in priority areas of Ayurveda with academic institutions and hospitals across India.

The goal of ‘SMART 2.0’ is to generate tangible evidence demonstrating the efficacy and safety of Ayurvedic interventions through interdisciplinary research methods, translating the findings into public healthcare.

The previous version, ‘SMART 1.0,’ covered around 10 dis- eases with active participation from teaching professionals.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/02/CA-30-JAN-2024-MONTHLY.pdf

Solution: c)

This initiative aims to foster collaborative clinical studies in priority areas of Ayurveda with academic institutions and hospitals across India.

The previous version, ‘SMART 1.0,’ covered around 10 dis- eases with active participation from teaching professionals.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/02/CA-30-JAN-2024-MONTHLY.pdf

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Consider the followins statements about the National Transit Pass System (NTPS). The system replaces the need for merchants and farmers to obtain permits from multiple states for inter-state transportation of goods. The initiative aims to facilitate one-nation-one-pass transportation for forest products, enhancing the ease of doing business for timber merchants and farmers involved in agro-forestry. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: c) Justification: The NTPS operates as a web portal and mobile ap- plication, enabling online filing of applications for permission to transport forest products and obtain no-objection certificates (NOCs). The system replaces the need for merchants and farmers to obtain permits from multiple states for inter-state transportation of forest and agro-forestry products. The QR-coded permits issued by NTPS are machine-readable and can be decoded by any state forest department in the country, streamlining the process and reducing the time taken to obtain permits. The initiative aims to facilitate one-nation-one-pass trans- portation for forest products, enhancing the ease of doing business for timber merchants and farmers involved in agro-forestry. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: The NTPS operates as a web portal and mobile ap- plication, enabling online filing of applications for permission to transport forest products and obtain no-objection certificates (NOCs). The system replaces the need for merchants and farmers to obtain permits from multiple states for inter-state transportation of forest and agro-forestry products. The QR-coded permits issued by NTPS are machine-readable and can be decoded by any state forest department in the country, streamlining the process and reducing the time taken to obtain permits. The initiative aims to facilitate one-nation-one-pass trans- portation for forest products, enhancing the ease of doing business for timber merchants and farmers involved in agro-forestry. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

#### 24. Question

Consider the followins statements about the National Transit Pass System (NTPS).

• The system replaces the need for merchants and farmers to obtain permits from multiple states for inter-state transportation of goods.

• The initiative aims to facilitate one-nation-one-pass transportation for forest products, enhancing the ease of doing business for timber merchants and farmers involved in agro-forestry.

Which of the above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c)

Justification: The NTPS operates as a web portal and mobile ap- plication, enabling online filing of applications for permission to transport forest products and obtain no-objection certificates (NOCs).

• The system replaces the need for merchants and farmers to obtain permits from multiple states for inter-state transportation of forest and agro-forestry products.

• The QR-coded permits issued by NTPS are machine-readable and can be decoded by any state forest department in the country, streamlining the process and reducing the time taken to obtain permits.

The initiative aims to facilitate one-nation-one-pass trans- portation for forest products, enhancing the ease of doing business for timber merchants and farmers involved in agro-forestry.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Solution: c)

• The system replaces the need for merchants and farmers to obtain permits from multiple states for inter-state transportation of forest and agro-forestry products.

• The QR-coded permits issued by NTPS are machine-readable and can be decoded by any state forest department in the country, streamlining the process and reducing the time taken to obtain permits.

The initiative aims to facilitate one-nation-one-pass trans- portation for forest products, enhancing the ease of doing business for timber merchants and farmers involved in agro-forestry.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Article 39A of the Constitution of India emphasizes the need for accessible justice, ensuring free legal aid for the poor and weaker sections of society. Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 gives a statutory base to legal aid programs, ensuring free and competent legal services for various eligible groups. The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) monitors and evaluates the implementation of legal aid programs nationwide. How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: c) Justification: Article 39A emphasizes the need for accessible justice, ensuring free legal aid for the poor and weaker sections of society Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 gives a statutory base to legal aid programs, ensuring free and competent legal services for various eligible groups. NALSA, constituted in 1995, monitors and evaluates the implementation of legal aid programs nationwide. State Legal Services Authorities and District Legal Services Authorities are established to execute NALSA’s policies and provide legal services at the state and district levels. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: Article 39A emphasizes the need for accessible justice, ensuring free legal aid for the poor and weaker sections of society Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 gives a statutory base to legal aid programs, ensuring free and competent legal services for various eligible groups. NALSA, constituted in 1995, monitors and evaluates the implementation of legal aid programs nationwide. State Legal Services Authorities and District Legal Services Authorities are established to execute NALSA’s policies and provide legal services at the state and district levels. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

#### 25. Question

Consider the following statements.

• Article 39A of the Constitution of India emphasizes the need for accessible justice, ensuring free legal aid for the poor and weaker sections of society.

• Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 gives a statutory base to legal aid programs, ensuring free and competent legal services for various eligible groups.

• The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) monitors and evaluates the implementation of legal aid programs nationwide.

How many of the above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: c)

Justification: Article 39A emphasizes the need for accessible justice, ensuring free legal aid for the poor and weaker sections of society

Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 gives a statutory base to legal aid programs, ensuring free and competent legal services for various eligible groups.

NALSA, constituted in 1995, monitors and evaluates the implementation of legal aid programs nationwide.

State Legal Services Authorities and District Legal Services Authorities are established to execute NALSA’s policies and provide legal services at the state and district levels.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Solution: c)

Justification: Article 39A emphasizes the need for accessible justice, ensuring free legal aid for the poor and weaker sections of society

Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 gives a statutory base to legal aid programs, ensuring free and competent legal services for various eligible groups.

NALSA, constituted in 1995, monitors and evaluates the implementation of legal aid programs nationwide.

State Legal Services Authorities and District Legal Services Authorities are established to execute NALSA’s policies and provide legal services at the state and district levels.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points There is rising hue and cry about applying gene editing techniques on humans. The opposition is centered on fear that gene editing will lead to designer babies and that raises many ethical questions. But gene editing involves two categories—somatic and germline editing, in former the effects of editing of a human is not passed to offspring unlike later. There is rising call for educating scientists on using technology without affecting human dignity. While there is need for regulation of gene editing it should be remembered that students should not be forced to learn the moral dimensions of science and technology, and that has to change. Scientists can hop from lab to lab internationally in a way that lawyers cannot because laws are written in many languages and don’t translate easily. It takes a very long time for people to understand each other across the geographical and cultural boundaries and ethical cultures differs with time and space. The critical message conveyed by the author seems to be, A. The meaning of humane use of science would not be same between cultures B. Nations are egoistic to agree to a global guidelines for biotechnology against their local culture values C. Value education and empirical education move in opposite direction D. In regulating technology we are not seeing woods for the trees Correct Answer: A The author is against looking for a moral doctrine that is universally applicable for all countries, because he clearly tells things change culturally and ethically on two sides of border, so the humane guidelines can’t be same for all societies. So A is answer. Incorrect Answer: A The author is against looking for a moral doctrine that is universally applicable for all countries, because he clearly tells things change culturally and ethically on two sides of border, so the humane guidelines can’t be same for all societies. So A is answer.

#### 26. Question

There is rising hue and cry about applying gene editing techniques on humans. The opposition is centered on fear that gene editing will lead to designer babies and that raises many ethical questions. But gene editing involves two categories—somatic and germline editing, in former the effects of editing of a human is not passed to offspring unlike later. There is rising call for educating scientists on using technology without affecting human dignity. While there is need for regulation of gene editing it should be remembered that students should not be forced to learn the moral dimensions of science and technology, and that has to change. Scientists can hop from lab to lab internationally in a way that lawyers cannot because laws are written in many languages and don’t translate easily. It takes a very long time for people to understand each other across the geographical and cultural boundaries and ethical cultures differs with time and space.

The critical message conveyed by the author seems to be,

• A. The meaning of humane use of science would not be same between cultures

• B. Nations are egoistic to agree to a global guidelines for biotechnology against their local culture values

• C. Value education and empirical education move in opposite direction

• D. In regulating technology we are not seeing woods for the trees

The author is against looking for a moral doctrine that is universally applicable for all countries, because he clearly tells things change culturally and ethically on two sides of border, so the humane guidelines can’t be same for all societies. So A is answer.

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points There is rising hue and cry about applying gene editing techniques on humans. The opposition is centered on fear that gene editing will lead to designer babies and that raises many ethical questions. But gene editing involves two categories—somatic and germline editing, in former the effects of editing of a human is not passed to offspring unlike later. There is rising call for educating scientists on using technology without affecting human dignity. While there is need for regulation of gene editing it should be remembered that students should not be forced to learn the moral dimensions of science and technology, and that has to change. Scientists can hop from lab to lab internationally in a way that lawyers cannot because laws are written in many languages and don’t translate easily. It takes a very long time for people to understand each other across the geographical and cultural boundaries and ethical cultures differs with time and space. On the basis of above passage following assumptions have been made: Any deep ethical discussion needs to take into account distinctions within the field of genetic technology Humanity lacks the will, intelligence, or creativity to come up with ways for using technology for good and not ill Which of the above assumptions is/are valid? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 & 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: A The author tells only germ line technology has delirious effects not somatic, so we need to understand distinctions within the field. So 1 is correct. The author does not tell we lack capacity to regulate biotech, so 2 is wrong. Incorrect Answer: A The author tells only germ line technology has delirious effects not somatic, so we need to understand distinctions within the field. So 1 is correct. The author does not tell we lack capacity to regulate biotech, so 2 is wrong.

#### 27. Question

On the basis of above passage following assumptions have been made:

• Any deep ethical discussion needs to take into account distinctions within the field of genetic technology

• Humanity lacks the will, intelligence, or creativity to come up with ways for using technology for good and not ill

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

• C. Both 1 & 2

• D. Neither 1 nor 2

The author tells only germ line technology has delirious effects not somatic, so we need to understand distinctions within the field. So 1 is correct. The author does not tell we lack capacity to regulate biotech, so 2 is wrong.

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points In light of the above passage, the following implication(s) have been considered: Science has a universal language Cancer can be treated with help of gene editing Select the correct ones: A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 & 2 D. Neither 1 nor Correct Answer: A Author tells scientists understand easily each other unlike law or subjects of morality across borders, so science has universal language for author. While cancer treatment with help of gene editing is real world idea, passage can’t help us conclude that, so 2 is wrong and A is answer. Incorrect Answer: A Author tells scientists understand easily each other unlike law or subjects of morality across borders, so science has universal language for author. While cancer treatment with help of gene editing is real world idea, passage can’t help us conclude that, so 2 is wrong and A is answer.

#### 28. Question

In light of the above passage, the following implication(s) have been considered:

• Science has a universal language

• Cancer can be treated with help of gene editing

Select the correct ones:

• C. Both 1 & 2

• D. Neither 1 nor

Author tells scientists understand easily each other unlike law or subjects of morality across borders, so science has universal language for author. While cancer treatment with help of gene editing is real world idea, passage can’t help us conclude that, so 2 is wrong and A is answer.

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points Aarti gave her project assignment to a shopkeeper for binding. There were 19 pages including a cover page, 12 pages of theory and 6 pages of drawings. She told the shopkeeper that the theory pages are in a particular order and the drawing pages can be arranged anywhere provided they are together. If the cover page is always kept first what is the probability that rest of the pages are arranged as per requirement? A. 12C1 × 6! /18! B. 13C1 × 6! /19! C. 13 × 40 / 17! D. 13! × 6! /18! Correct Answer C) . 13 × 40 / 17! Pages = 1 cover page, 12 theory pages, 6 pictures page Except cover page Ways of arranging 12 + 6 pages = 18! Ways of arranging so that the theory pages are in order and drawing pages come together= 13C1 × 6! (As there are 13 gaps between 12 pages where 6 pages can be kept) Probability = 13C1 × 6! / 18! = 13 × 40 / 17! Hence, option C is correct. Incorrect Answer C) . 13 × 40 / 17! Pages = 1 cover page, 12 theory pages, 6 pictures page Except cover page Ways of arranging 12 + 6 pages = 18! Ways of arranging so that the theory pages are in order and drawing pages come together= 13C1 × 6! (As there are 13 gaps between 12 pages where 6 pages can be kept) Probability = 13C1 × 6! / 18! = 13 × 40 / 17! Hence, option C is correct.

#### 29. Question

Aarti gave her project assignment to a shopkeeper for binding. There were 19 pages

including a cover page, 12 pages of theory and 6 pages of drawings. She told the

shopkeeper that the theory pages are in a particular order and the drawing pages can

be arranged anywhere provided they are together. If the cover page is always kept

first what is the probability that rest of the pages are arranged as per requirement?

• A. 12C1 × 6! /18!

• B. 13C1 × 6! /19!

• C. 13 × 40 / 17!

• D. 13! × 6! /18!

Answer C) . 13 × 40 / 17!

Pages = 1 cover page, 12 theory pages, 6 pictures page

Except cover page

Ways of arranging 12 + 6 pages = 18!

Ways of arranging so that the theory pages are in order and drawing pages come together= 13C1 × 6!

(As there are 13 gaps between 12 pages where 6 pages can be kept)

Probability = 13C1 × 6! / 18! = 13 × 40 / 17!

Hence, option C is correct.

Answer C) . 13 × 40 / 17!

Pages = 1 cover page, 12 theory pages, 6 pictures page

Except cover page

Ways of arranging 12 + 6 pages = 18!

Ways of arranging so that the theory pages are in order and drawing pages come together= 13C1 × 6!

(As there are 13 gaps between 12 pages where 6 pages can be kept)

Probability = 13C1 × 6! / 18! = 13 × 40 / 17!

Hence, option C is correct.

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points Five digit numbers divisible by 9 are to be formed by using the digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 7, 8 (without repetition). the total number of such numbers that can be formed is [a] 216 [b] 214 [c] 212 [d] 200 Correct Answer A) 216 Solution Sum of all given numbers = 0 + 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 7 + 8 = 25 Hence we will select only those five numbers whose sum is 18 or 9. But no five numbers will make the sum 9 So we choose the five numbers which make their sum 18 Since the sum of all the seven digits is 25 so we exclude those two digits out of given seven digits whose sum is 7 Thus we exclude either 0, 7 or 3, 4 as both these have sum 7. Hence we have the following two sets [(a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 8, (0, 7 excluded) Therefore, sum = 18 They can be arranged in 5! = 120 ways [(b) 1, 2, 7, 8, (3, 4 excluded) Therefore, sum = 18 They can be arranged in 5! – 4! (0, in beginning) = 120 – 24 = 96 ways T Thus the total number of numbers divisible by 9 is 120 + 96 = 216 Incorrect Answer A) 216 Solution Sum of all given numbers = 0 + 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 7 + 8 = 25 Hence we will select only those five numbers whose sum is 18 or 9. But no five numbers will make the sum 9 So we choose the five numbers which make their sum 18 Since the sum of all the seven digits is 25 so we exclude those two digits out of given seven digits whose sum is 7 Thus we exclude either 0, 7 or 3, 4 as both these have sum 7. Hence we have the following two sets [(a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 8, (0, 7 excluded) Therefore, sum = 18 They can be arranged in 5! = 120 ways [(b) 1, 2, 7, 8, (3, 4 excluded) Therefore, sum = 18 They can be arranged in 5! – 4! (0, in beginning) = 120 – 24 = 96 ways T Thus the total number of numbers divisible by 9 is 120 + 96 = 216

#### 30. Question

Five digit numbers divisible by 9 are to be formed by using the digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 7, 8 (without repetition). the total number of such numbers that can be formed is

Answer A) 216

Sum of all given numbers = 0 + 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 7 + 8 = 25

Hence we will select only those five numbers whose sum is 18 or 9. But no five numbers will make the sum 9 So we choose the five numbers which make their sum 18 Since the sum of all the seven digits is 25 so we exclude those two digits out of given seven digits whose sum is 7 Thus we exclude either 0, 7 or 3, 4 as both these have sum 7. Hence we have the following two sets

[(a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 8, (0, 7 excluded) Therefore, sum = 18

They can be arranged in 5! = 120 ways

[(b) 1, 2, 7, 8, (3, 4 excluded) Therefore, sum = 18

They can be arranged in 5! – 4! (0, in beginning) = 120 – 24 = 96 ways T

Thus the total number of numbers divisible by 9 is 120 + 96 = 216

Answer A) 216

Sum of all given numbers = 0 + 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 7 + 8 = 25

[(a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 8, (0, 7 excluded) Therefore, sum = 18

They can be arranged in 5! = 120 ways

[(b) 1, 2, 7, 8, (3, 4 excluded) Therefore, sum = 18

They can be arranged in 5! – 4! (0, in beginning) = 120 – 24 = 96 ways T

Thus the total number of numbers divisible by 9 is 120 + 96 = 216

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