DAY – 29 : Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2025 : GOVERNMENT SCHEMES

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the “One Nation One Subscription” (ONOS) initiative: It aims to provide uniform digital access to scholarly publications for all government higher education institutions and central R&D centres in India. The scheme intends to exclude institutions located in tier 2 and tier 3 cities to focus on premier research universities. A substantial financial allocation has been made by the government for the implementation of this initiative over a three-year period starting in 2025. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Correct Solution: B The One Nation One Subscription (ONOS) initiative is a proposed scheme by the Government of India aimed at democratizing access to scholarly resources for higher education institutions and research centers across the country. The core idea is to centrally subscribe to a vast collection of e-resources, making them available to a wider academic community. ONOS is designed to offer nationwide access to international scholarly research articles and journal publications to students, faculty, and researchers of all Higher Education Institutions managed by the central and state governments, as well as Research & Development Institutions of the central government. Hence, statement 1 is correct ONOS explicitly aims to include institutions in tier 2 and tier 3 cities, thereby promoting research and innovation across a broader spectrum of educational establishments, not just premier universities. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect The government has allocated approximately ₹6,000 crore for ONOS, covering the three calendar years of 2025, 2026, and 2027. Hence, statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: B The One Nation One Subscription (ONOS) initiative is a proposed scheme by the Government of India aimed at democratizing access to scholarly resources for higher education institutions and research centers across the country. The core idea is to centrally subscribe to a vast collection of e-resources, making them available to a wider academic community. ONOS is designed to offer nationwide access to international scholarly research articles and journal publications to students, faculty, and researchers of all Higher Education Institutions managed by the central and state governments, as well as Research & Development Institutions of the central government. Hence, statement 1 is correct ONOS explicitly aims to include institutions in tier 2 and tier 3 cities, thereby promoting research and innovation across a broader spectrum of educational establishments, not just premier universities. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect The government has allocated approximately ₹6,000 crore for ONOS, covering the three calendar years of 2025, 2026, and 2027. Hence, statement 3 is correct

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the “One Nation One Subscription” (ONOS) initiative:

• It aims to provide uniform digital access to scholarly publications for all government higher education institutions and central R&D centres in India.

• The scheme intends to exclude institutions located in tier 2 and tier 3 cities to focus on premier research universities.

• A substantial financial allocation has been made by the government for the implementation of this initiative over a three-year period starting in 2025.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: B

The One Nation One Subscription (ONOS) initiative is a proposed scheme by the Government of India aimed at democratizing access to scholarly resources for higher education institutions and research centers across the country. The core idea is to centrally subscribe to a vast collection of e-resources, making them available to a wider academic community.

ONOS is designed to offer nationwide access to international scholarly research articles and journal publications to students, faculty, and researchers of all Higher Education Institutions managed by the central and state governments, as well as Research & Development Institutions of the central government.

Hence, statement 1 is correct

ONOS explicitly aims to include institutions in tier 2 and tier 3 cities, thereby promoting research and innovation across a broader spectrum of educational establishments, not just premier universities.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect

The government has allocated approximately ₹6,000 crore for ONOS, covering the three calendar years of 2025, 2026, and 2027.

Hence, statement 3 is correct

Solution: B

Hence, statement 1 is correct

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect

The government has allocated approximately ₹6,000 crore for ONOS, covering the three calendar years of 2025, 2026, and 2027.

Hence, statement 3 is correct

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Which of the following thematic verticals is/are covered under the Government of India’s BioE3 Policy? Precision Biotherapeutics Climate Resilient Agriculture Nuclear Energy Development Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Correct Solution: C The Government of India’s BioE3 (Biotechnology for Economy, Environment, and Employment) Policy, approved by the Union Cabinet on August 24, 2024, aims to foster high-performance biomanufacturing and position India as a global leader in the bioeconomy. The policy identifies six thematic sectors of national importance to achieve technology leadership and address critical societal challenges. Precision Biotherapeutics is one of the strategic sectors identified under the BioE3 Policy. The policy focuses on advancing biotechnological processes to develop targeted and effective therapeutic solutions. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) Climate Resilient Agriculture is another key thematic area under the BioE3 Policy. The policy aims to promote sustainable agricultural practices that can withstand climate variability, ensuring food security and environmental sustainability. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) Nuclear Energy Development is not listed among the thematic verticals of the BioE3 Policy. The policy primarily focuses on biotechnology-driven sectors, and nuclear energy falls outside its purview. (Hence, statement 3 is Incorrect) Incorrect Solution: C The Government of India’s BioE3 (Biotechnology for Economy, Environment, and Employment) Policy, approved by the Union Cabinet on August 24, 2024, aims to foster high-performance biomanufacturing and position India as a global leader in the bioeconomy. The policy identifies six thematic sectors of national importance to achieve technology leadership and address critical societal challenges. Precision Biotherapeutics is one of the strategic sectors identified under the BioE3 Policy. The policy focuses on advancing biotechnological processes to develop targeted and effective therapeutic solutions. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) Climate Resilient Agriculture is another key thematic area under the BioE3 Policy. The policy aims to promote sustainable agricultural practices that can withstand climate variability, ensuring food security and environmental sustainability. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) Nuclear Energy Development is not listed among the thematic verticals of the BioE3 Policy. The policy primarily focuses on biotechnology-driven sectors, and nuclear energy falls outside its purview. (Hence, statement 3 is Incorrect)

#### 2. Question

Which of the following thematic verticals is/are covered under the Government of India’s BioE3 Policy?

• Precision Biotherapeutics

• Climate Resilient Agriculture

• Nuclear Energy Development

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) 1 and 2 only

• (d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: C

• The Government of India’s BioE3 (Biotechnology for Economy, Environment, and Employment) Policy, approved by the Union Cabinet on August 24, 2024, aims to foster high-performance biomanufacturing and position India as a global leader in the bioeconomy.

• The policy identifies six thematic sectors of national importance to achieve technology leadership and address critical societal challenges.

• Precision Biotherapeutics is one of the strategic sectors identified under the BioE3 Policy. The policy focuses on advancing biotechnological processes to develop targeted and effective therapeutic solutions. (Hence, statement 1 is correct)

• Climate Resilient Agriculture is another key thematic area under the BioE3 Policy. The policy aims to promote sustainable agricultural practices that can withstand climate variability, ensuring food security and environmental sustainability. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

• Nuclear Energy Development is not listed among the thematic verticals of the BioE3 Policy. The policy primarily focuses on biotechnology-driven sectors, and nuclear energy falls outside its purview. (Hence, statement 3 is Incorrect)

Solution: C

• The policy identifies six thematic sectors of national importance to achieve technology leadership and address critical societal challenges.

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points The primary objective of the Employment-Linked Incentive (ELI) Scheme announced by the Government of India is to: (a) Provide financial assistance to unemployed graduates. (b) Boost employment generation and enhance workforce training. (c) Offer tax benefits to companies hiring skilled workers. (d) Promote entrepreneurship among rural youth Correct Solution: B The Government of India has introduced various schemes and initiatives to address the critical issue of employment generation and skill development in the country. Understanding the specific objectives of each scheme is crucial for assessing their potential impact. The question asks about the primary objective of the Employment-Linked Incentive (ELI) Scheme. The name Employment-Linked Incentive directly points towards an objective related to increasing employment. Incentives provided under such schemes are typically aimed at encouraging employers to hire more people. Furthermore, recognizing that newly employed individuals might require specific skills, enhancing workforce training often becomes an integral part of such initiatives to ensure the employability and productivity of the new hires. This option aligns well with the likely objectives of an ELI scheme. Incorrect Solution: B The Government of India has introduced various schemes and initiatives to address the critical issue of employment generation and skill development in the country. Understanding the specific objectives of each scheme is crucial for assessing their potential impact. The question asks about the primary objective of the Employment-Linked Incentive (ELI) Scheme. The name Employment-Linked Incentive directly points towards an objective related to increasing employment. Incentives provided under such schemes are typically aimed at encouraging employers to hire more people. Furthermore, recognizing that newly employed individuals might require specific skills, enhancing workforce training often becomes an integral part of such initiatives to ensure the employability and productivity of the new hires. This option aligns well with the likely objectives of an ELI scheme.

#### 3. Question

The primary objective of the Employment-Linked Incentive (ELI) Scheme announced by the Government of India is to:

• (a) Provide financial assistance to unemployed graduates.

• (b) Boost employment generation and enhance workforce training.

• (c) Offer tax benefits to companies hiring skilled workers.

• (d) Promote entrepreneurship among rural youth

Solution: B

The Government of India has introduced various schemes and initiatives to address the critical issue of employment generation and skill development in the country. Understanding the specific objectives of each scheme is crucial for assessing their potential impact. The question asks about the primary objective of the Employment-Linked Incentive (ELI) Scheme.

The name Employment-Linked Incentive directly points towards an objective related to increasing employment. Incentives provided under such schemes are typically aimed at encouraging employers to hire more people. Furthermore, recognizing that newly employed individuals might require specific skills, enhancing workforce training often becomes an integral part of such initiatives to ensure the employability and productivity of the new hires. This option aligns well with the likely objectives of an ELI scheme.

Solution: B

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points The removal of indexation benefits on long-term capital gains from property sales in India is most likely to lead to: (a) A decrease in the tax burden on property sellers. (b) An increase in the tax liability on long-term property investments. (c) A surge in short-term property investments. (d) A simplification of the property taxation process with no significant impact on tax liability. Correct Solution: B In India, long-term capital gains (LTCG) arising from the sale of property are subject to taxation. Previously, the concept of indexation was applied to the cost of acquisition of the property. Indexation adjusted the original purchase price for inflation over the holding period, thereby reducing the capital gains and consequently the tax liability. The removal of this indexation benefit would have direct implications on how LTCG from property sales are calculated and taxed. The removing indexation means that the capital gain will be calculated as the difference between the sale price and the original (unadjusted for inflation) cost of acquisition. Over a long holding period, inflation can significantly erode the real value of money. By not accounting for this inflation through indexation, the calculated capital gain will be inflated, leading to a higher tax amount payable by the seller. This directly increases the tax liability on long-term property investments. Incorrect Solution: B In India, long-term capital gains (LTCG) arising from the sale of property are subject to taxation. Previously, the concept of indexation was applied to the cost of acquisition of the property. Indexation adjusted the original purchase price for inflation over the holding period, thereby reducing the capital gains and consequently the tax liability. The removal of this indexation benefit would have direct implications on how LTCG from property sales are calculated and taxed. The removing indexation means that the capital gain will be calculated as the difference between the sale price and the original (unadjusted for inflation) cost of acquisition. Over a long holding period, inflation can significantly erode the real value of money. By not accounting for this inflation through indexation, the calculated capital gain will be inflated, leading to a higher tax amount payable by the seller. This directly increases the tax liability on long-term property investments.

#### 4. Question

The removal of indexation benefits on long-term capital gains from property sales in India is most likely to lead to:

• (a) A decrease in the tax burden on property sellers.

• (b) An increase in the tax liability on long-term property investments.

• (c) A surge in short-term property investments.

• (d) A simplification of the property taxation process with no significant impact on tax liability.

Solution: B

In India, long-term capital gains (LTCG) arising from the sale of property are subject to taxation. Previously, the concept of indexation was applied to the cost of acquisition of the property. Indexation adjusted the original purchase price for inflation over the holding period, thereby reducing the capital gains and consequently the tax liability. The removal of this indexation benefit would have direct implications on how LTCG from property sales are calculated and taxed.

The removing indexation means that the capital gain will be calculated as the difference between the sale price and the original (unadjusted for inflation) cost of acquisition. Over a long holding period, inflation can significantly erode the real value of money. By not accounting for this inflation through indexation, the calculated capital gain will be inflated, leading to a higher tax amount payable by the seller. This directly increases the tax liability on long-term property investments.

Solution: B

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points A significant change introduced by the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023 compared to the Indian Penal Code 1860 is the: (a) Increase in the minimum age of criminal responsibility. (b) Reintroduction of the offense of sedition with stricter penalties. (c) Removal of sedition as an offense and introduction of a new offense for acts endangering the unity and integrity of India. (d) Expansion of the definition of 'public servant' to include private sector employees. Correct Solution: C The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) 2023 is a landmark legislation enacted by the Parliament of India to overhaul the country’s criminal justice system by replacing the Indian Penal Code (IPC) 1860. This new code introduces several significant changes aimed at modernizing criminal laws and addressing contemporary challenges. The question asks to identify a significant change introduced by the BNS 2023 compared to the IPC 1860 from the given options. This reflects the change introduced by the BNS. The offense of sedition has been removed, and a new provision addressing acts that threaten the nation’s sovereignty and integrity has been established. Incorrect Solution: C The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) 2023 is a landmark legislation enacted by the Parliament of India to overhaul the country’s criminal justice system by replacing the Indian Penal Code (IPC) 1860. This new code introduces several significant changes aimed at modernizing criminal laws and addressing contemporary challenges. The question asks to identify a significant change introduced by the BNS 2023 compared to the IPC 1860 from the given options. This reflects the change introduced by the BNS. The offense of sedition has been removed, and a new provision addressing acts that threaten the nation’s sovereignty and integrity has been established.

#### 5. Question

A significant change introduced by the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023 compared to the Indian Penal Code 1860 is the:

• (a) Increase in the minimum age of criminal responsibility.

• (b) Reintroduction of the offense of sedition with stricter penalties.

• (c) Removal of sedition as an offense and introduction of a new offense for acts endangering the unity and integrity of India.

• (d) Expansion of the definition of 'public servant' to include private sector employees.

Solution: C

The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) 2023 is a landmark legislation enacted by the Parliament of India to overhaul the country’s criminal justice system by replacing the Indian Penal Code (IPC) 1860. This new code introduces several significant changes aimed at modernizing criminal laws and addressing contemporary challenges. The question asks to identify a significant change introduced by the BNS 2023 compared to the IPC 1860 from the given options.

This reflects the change introduced by the BNS. The offense of sedition has been removed, and a new provision addressing acts that threaten the nation’s sovereignty and integrity has been established.

Solution: C

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the PM Vishwakarma scheme: It aims to provide comprehensive support to traditional artisans and craftspeople engaged in manual and tool-based work. The scheme offers collateral-free loans at a concessional interest rate. Only individuals below the age of 18 are eligible to benefit from this scheme. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Correct Solution: A The PM Vishwakarma scheme, launched by the Government of India, aims to provide comprehensive support to traditional artisans and craftspeople. It recognizes and supports individuals engaged in various traditional crafts through skill development, financial assistance, and market linkages. The core objective of the PM Vishwakarma scheme is indeed to provide holistic support to traditional artisans and craftspeople who work with their hands and tools. This includes recognition, skill upgradation, toolkit incentives, credit support, digital transaction incentives, and marketing assistance. Hence, statement 1 is correct The PM Vishwakarma scheme provides collateral-free “Enterprise Development Loans” of up to ₹3 lakh, disbursed in two tranches (₹1 lakh and ₹2 lakh). These loans are offered at a concessional interest rate, fixed at 5% per annum. The Government of India also provides an interest subvention to the lending banks. Hence, statement 2 is correct The eligibility criteria for the PM Vishwakarma scheme clearly state that the minimum age of the beneficiary should be 18 years on the date of registration. The scheme is designed to support adults engaged in traditional crafts. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: A The PM Vishwakarma scheme, launched by the Government of India, aims to provide comprehensive support to traditional artisans and craftspeople. It recognizes and supports individuals engaged in various traditional crafts through skill development, financial assistance, and market linkages. The core objective of the PM Vishwakarma scheme is indeed to provide holistic support to traditional artisans and craftspeople who work with their hands and tools. This includes recognition, skill upgradation, toolkit incentives, credit support, digital transaction incentives, and marketing assistance. Hence, statement 1 is correct The PM Vishwakarma scheme provides collateral-free “Enterprise Development Loans” of up to ₹3 lakh, disbursed in two tranches (₹1 lakh and ₹2 lakh). These loans are offered at a concessional interest rate, fixed at 5% per annum. The Government of India also provides an interest subvention to the lending banks. Hence, statement 2 is correct The eligibility criteria for the PM Vishwakarma scheme clearly state that the minimum age of the beneficiary should be 18 years on the date of registration. The scheme is designed to support adults engaged in traditional crafts. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the PM Vishwakarma scheme:

• It aims to provide comprehensive support to traditional artisans and craftspeople engaged in manual and tool-based work.

• The scheme offers collateral-free loans at a concessional interest rate.

• Only individuals below the age of 18 are eligible to benefit from this scheme.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: A

The PM Vishwakarma scheme, launched by the Government of India, aims to provide comprehensive support to traditional artisans and craftspeople. It recognizes and supports individuals engaged in various traditional crafts through skill development, financial assistance, and market linkages.

The core objective of the PM Vishwakarma scheme is indeed to provide holistic support to traditional artisans and craftspeople who work with their hands and tools. This includes recognition, skill upgradation, toolkit incentives, credit support, digital transaction incentives, and marketing assistance.

Hence, statement 1 is correct

The PM Vishwakarma scheme provides collateral-free “Enterprise Development Loans” of up to ₹3 lakh, disbursed in two tranches (₹1 lakh and ₹2 lakh). These loans are offered at a concessional interest rate, fixed at 5% per annum. The Government of India also provides an interest subvention to the lending banks.

Hence, statement 2 is correct

The eligibility criteria for the PM Vishwakarma scheme clearly state that the minimum age of the beneficiary should be 18 years on the date of registration. The scheme is designed to support adults engaged in traditional crafts.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect

Solution: A

Hence, statement 1 is correct

Hence, statement 2 is correct

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points The PM eBus Seva scheme primarily focuses on: (a) Promoting the manufacturing of electric vehicles for personal use. (b) Deploying electric buses to enhance public transportation in urban areas. (c) Providing subsidies for the purchase of electric two-wheelers. (d) Establishing charging infrastructure for electric vehicles on national highways Correct Solution: B The PM eBus Sewa Scheme is a significant initiative by the Government of India aimed at enhancing urban public transportation through the deployment of electric buses. Launched in August 2023, the scheme focuses on augmenting city bus operations, particularly in cities lacking organized bus services, by introducing 10,000 electric buses across various urban areas. The scheme aims to augment city bus operations by deploying electric buses, particularly in cities with a population of three lakh and above, including capital cities of Union Territories, the North Eastern Region, and Hill States, with a priority for cities lacking organized bus services. The objective is to modernize urban transportation, reduce pollution, and provide efficient and clean public transit. Incorrect Solution: B The PM eBus Sewa Scheme is a significant initiative by the Government of India aimed at enhancing urban public transportation through the deployment of electric buses. Launched in August 2023, the scheme focuses on augmenting city bus operations, particularly in cities lacking organized bus services, by introducing 10,000 electric buses across various urban areas. The scheme aims to augment city bus operations by deploying electric buses, particularly in cities with a population of three lakh and above, including capital cities of Union Territories, the North Eastern Region, and Hill States, with a priority for cities lacking organized bus services. The objective is to modernize urban transportation, reduce pollution, and provide efficient and clean public transit.

#### 7. Question

The PM eBus Seva scheme primarily focuses on:

• (a) Promoting the manufacturing of electric vehicles for personal use.

• (b) Deploying electric buses to enhance public transportation in urban areas.

• (c) Providing subsidies for the purchase of electric two-wheelers.

• (d) Establishing charging infrastructure for electric vehicles on national highways

Solution: B

The PM eBus Sewa Scheme is a significant initiative by the Government of India aimed at enhancing urban public transportation through the deployment of electric buses. Launched in August 2023, the scheme focuses on augmenting city bus operations, particularly in cities lacking organized bus services, by introducing 10,000 electric buses across various urban areas.

The scheme aims to augment city bus operations by deploying electric buses, particularly in cities with a population of three lakh and above, including capital cities of Union Territories, the North Eastern Region, and Hill States, with a priority for cities lacking organized bus services. The objective is to modernize urban transportation, reduce pollution, and provide efficient and clean public transit.

Solution: B

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Agnipath Scheme: It is a recruitment scheme for individuals below the rank of officer in the Indian Armed Forces for a four-year tenure. Agniveers recruited under this scheme are entitled to receive pension benefits similar to regular soldiers. The scheme aims to bring about a youthful profile in the armed forces. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Correct Solution: B The Agnipath Scheme was launched by the Government of India in 2022 to transform recruitment processes for the Indian Armed Forces (Army, Navy, and Air Force). It primarily targets recruitment of non-officer ranks for short-term service, aiming to create a younger and more technologically adept military. Under the Agnipath Scheme, personnel known as Agniveers are recruited specifically for a four-year tenure in the Indian Armed Forces (Army, Navy, Air Force) for ranks below commissioned officers. Hence, statement 1is correct Agniveers do not receive pension benefits similar to regular soldiers. Instead, they receive a consolidated package and, upon completion of four years, a one-time Seva Nidhi package. They do not have pension or gratuity benefits like regular soldiers. Hence, statement 2 is Incorrect One of the primary objectives of the Agnipath Scheme is to lower the average age profile of the Armed Forces, making them younger, fitter, and more agile, aligning with modern warfare requirements. Hence, statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: B The Agnipath Scheme was launched by the Government of India in 2022 to transform recruitment processes for the Indian Armed Forces (Army, Navy, and Air Force). It primarily targets recruitment of non-officer ranks for short-term service, aiming to create a younger and more technologically adept military. Under the Agnipath Scheme, personnel known as Agniveers are recruited specifically for a four-year tenure in the Indian Armed Forces (Army, Navy, Air Force) for ranks below commissioned officers. Hence, statement 1is correct Agniveers do not receive pension benefits similar to regular soldiers. Instead, they receive a consolidated package and, upon completion of four years, a one-time Seva Nidhi package. They do not have pension or gratuity benefits like regular soldiers. Hence, statement 2 is Incorrect One of the primary objectives of the Agnipath Scheme is to lower the average age profile of the Armed Forces, making them younger, fitter, and more agile, aligning with modern warfare requirements. Hence, statement 3 is correct

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Agnipath Scheme:

• It is a recruitment scheme for individuals below the rank of officer in the Indian Armed Forces for a four-year tenure.

• Agniveers recruited under this scheme are entitled to receive pension benefits similar to regular soldiers.

• The scheme aims to bring about a youthful profile in the armed forces.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: B

The Agnipath Scheme was launched by the Government of India in 2022 to transform recruitment processes for the Indian Armed Forces (Army, Navy, and Air Force). It primarily targets recruitment of non-officer ranks for short-term service, aiming to create a younger and more technologically adept military.

Under the Agnipath Scheme, personnel known as Agniveers are recruited specifically for a four-year tenure in the Indian Armed Forces (Army, Navy, Air Force) for ranks below commissioned officers.

Hence, statement 1is correct

Agniveers do not receive pension benefits similar to regular soldiers. Instead, they receive a consolidated package and, upon completion of four years, a one-time Seva Nidhi package. They do not have pension or gratuity benefits like regular soldiers.

Hence, statement 2 is Incorrect

One of the primary objectives of the Agnipath Scheme is to lower the average age profile of the Armed Forces, making them younger, fitter, and more agile, aligning with modern warfare requirements.

Hence, statement 3 is correct

Solution: B

Under the Agnipath Scheme, personnel known as Agniveers are recruited specifically for a four-year tenure in the Indian Armed Forces (Army, Navy, Air Force) for ranks below commissioned officers.

Hence, statement 1is correct

Hence, statement 2 is Incorrect

One of the primary objectives of the Agnipath Scheme is to lower the average age profile of the Armed Forces, making them younger, fitter, and more agile, aligning with modern warfare requirements.

Hence, statement 3 is correct

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points The Amrit Bharat Station Scheme primarily aims to: (a) Introduce high-speed rail corridors across India. (b) Modernize railway stations and enhance passenger amenities. (c) Promote tourism by developing railway infrastructure in remote areas. (d) Convert all railway tracks to electric traction. Correct Solution: B The Amrit Bharat Station Scheme is a significant initiative launched by the Ministry of Railways in India. It focuses on the comprehensive development of railway stations across the country. Understanding the primary objectives of this scheme is crucial to comprehending its intended impact on the railway infrastructure and passenger experience. The scheme aims at the modernization and upgradation of railway stations across India. This includes improving various passenger amenities such as better waiting areas, improved accessibility (lifts, escalators), clean and hygienic toilets, free Wi-Fi, better signage, comfortable seating, and integrated passenger information systems. The focus is on creating a more comfortable, convenient, and modern experience for railway passengers. Incorrect Solution: B The Amrit Bharat Station Scheme is a significant initiative launched by the Ministry of Railways in India. It focuses on the comprehensive development of railway stations across the country. Understanding the primary objectives of this scheme is crucial to comprehending its intended impact on the railway infrastructure and passenger experience. The scheme aims at the modernization and upgradation of railway stations across India. This includes improving various passenger amenities such as better waiting areas, improved accessibility (lifts, escalators), clean and hygienic toilets, free Wi-Fi, better signage, comfortable seating, and integrated passenger information systems. The focus is on creating a more comfortable, convenient, and modern experience for railway passengers.

#### 9. Question

The Amrit Bharat Station Scheme primarily aims to:

• (a) Introduce high-speed rail corridors across India.

• (b) Modernize railway stations and enhance passenger amenities.

• (c) Promote tourism by developing railway infrastructure in remote areas.

• (d) Convert all railway tracks to electric traction.

Solution: B

The Amrit Bharat Station Scheme is a significant initiative launched by the Ministry of Railways in India. It focuses on the comprehensive development of railway stations across the country. Understanding the primary objectives of this scheme is crucial to comprehending its intended impact on the railway infrastructure and passenger experience.

The scheme aims at the modernization and upgradation of railway stations across India. This includes improving various passenger amenities such as better waiting areas, improved accessibility (lifts, escalators), clean and hygienic toilets, free Wi-Fi, better signage, comfortable seating, and integrated passenger information systems. The focus is on creating a more comfortable, convenient, and modern experience for railway passengers.

Solution: B

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points which of the following is a key procedural change introduced by the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita 2023? (a) Making all offenses bailable. (b) Mandating forensic investigation for offenses punishable with seven years of imprisonment or more. (c) Abolishing the provision for anticipatory bail. (d) Increasing the maximum period of police custody to 30 days. Correct Solution: B The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) 2023 is a new criminal procedure code enacted by the Parliament of India to replace the existing Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.It introduces several significant procedural changes aimed at modernizing the criminal justice system, enhancing efficiency, and ensuring fair trials. The BNSS mandates that for offenses punishable with imprisonment of seven years or more, forensic investigation at the scene of the crime shall be compulsory for the police. This includes the collection of forensic evidence and the recording of the process through audio-visual means. This is a substantial step towards leveraging scientific methods in criminal investigations. Incorrect Solution: B The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) 2023 is a new criminal procedure code enacted by the Parliament of India to replace the existing Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.It introduces several significant procedural changes aimed at modernizing the criminal justice system, enhancing efficiency, and ensuring fair trials. The BNSS mandates that for offenses punishable with imprisonment of seven years or more, forensic investigation at the scene of the crime shall be compulsory for the police. This includes the collection of forensic evidence and the recording of the process through audio-visual means. This is a substantial step towards leveraging scientific methods in criminal investigations.

#### 10. Question

which of the following is a key procedural change introduced by the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita 2023?

• (a) Making all offenses bailable.

• (b) Mandating forensic investigation for offenses punishable with seven years of imprisonment or more.

• (c) Abolishing the provision for anticipatory bail.

• (d) Increasing the maximum period of police custody to 30 days.

Solution: B

The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) 2023 is a new criminal procedure code enacted by the Parliament of India to replace the existing Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.It introduces several significant procedural changes aimed at modernizing the criminal justice system, enhancing efficiency, and ensuring fair trials.

The BNSS mandates that for offenses punishable with imprisonment of seven years or more, forensic investigation at the scene of the crime shall be compulsory for the police. This includes the collection of forensic evidence and the recording of the process through audio-visual means. This is a substantial step towards leveraging scientific methods in criminal investigations.

Solution: B

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The World Telecommunication Standardisation Assembly (WTSA) is a quadrennial event that functions as the governing conference of the International Telecommunication Union (ITU). WTSA 2024 focused on promotion of 6G and Big Data. ITU was originally established as the International Telegraph Union. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 only Correct Solution: C The World Telecommunication Standardisation Assembly was recently (2024) inaugurated at Bharat Mandapam in New Delhi for the first time. It is a quadrennial event that functions as the governing conference of the International Telecommunication Union (ITU). It is one of the three world conferences organised by the International Telecommunication Union. It focuses on 6G, AI, big data, cyber security, machine to machine communications, IoT and Quantum Technologies. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct ITU was founded in 1865 as the International Telegraph Union; it became a specialised agency of the United Nations in 1947. It coordinates Global standardisation and development of Telecommunication and ICT services. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: C The World Telecommunication Standardisation Assembly was recently (2024) inaugurated at Bharat Mandapam in New Delhi for the first time. It is a quadrennial event that functions as the governing conference of the International Telecommunication Union (ITU). It is one of the three world conferences organised by the International Telecommunication Union. It focuses on 6G, AI, big data, cyber security, machine to machine communications, IoT and Quantum Technologies. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct ITU was founded in 1865 as the International Telegraph Union; it became a specialised agency of the United Nations in 1947. It coordinates Global standardisation and development of Telecommunication and ICT services. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 11. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The World Telecommunication Standardisation Assembly (WTSA) is a quadrennial event that functions as the governing conference of the International Telecommunication Union (ITU).

• WTSA 2024 focused on promotion of 6G and Big Data.

• ITU was originally established as the International Telegraph Union.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3

• (d) 1 and 2 only

Solution: C

• The World Telecommunication Standardisation Assembly was recently (2024) inaugurated at Bharat Mandapam in New Delhi for the first time.

• It is a quadrennial event that functions as the governing conference of the International Telecommunication Union (ITU).

• It is one of the three world conferences organised by the International Telecommunication Union.

• It focuses on 6G, AI, big data, cyber security, machine to machine communications, IoT and Quantum Technologies.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

• ITU was founded in 1865 as the International Telegraph Union; it became a specialised agency of the United Nations in 1947.

• It coordinates Global standardisation and development of Telecommunication and ICT services.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: C

• The World Telecommunication Standardisation Assembly was recently (2024) inaugurated at Bharat Mandapam in New Delhi for the first time.

• It is a quadrennial event that functions as the governing conference of the International Telecommunication Union (ITU).

• It is one of the three world conferences organised by the International Telecommunication Union.

• It focuses on 6G, AI, big data, cyber security, machine to machine communications, IoT and Quantum Technologies.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

• ITU was founded in 1865 as the International Telegraph Union; it became a specialised agency of the United Nations in 1947.

• It coordinates Global standardisation and development of Telecommunication and ICT services.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Group of Five (G5) countries include Brazil, China, India, Mexico and South Africa. Along with the United States and United Kingdom, the G5 countries have formed the Group of Seven or G7 countries. The Group of Seven Countries along with Russia formed the Group of Eight or G8 Countries. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (c) All three Correct Solution: B The G5 countries include Brazil, China, India, Mexico and South Africa. These Nations have joined together to form an active role in rapidly evolving international order. These Nations work to promote dialogue and understanding between developing and developed countries. Hence statement 1 is correct The G7 countries include UK, Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan and the US. The group is an intergovernmental organisation formed in 1975 It meets annually to discuss issues of common interest like Global economic governance, energy policy and International Security. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Russia was formally inducted as a member in the G7 group in 1998 which led G7 to become G8 Due to several issues, the nations of the group decided to suspend Russia from the G8 and as a consequence, the group became G7 again in 2014. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: B The G5 countries include Brazil, China, India, Mexico and South Africa. These Nations have joined together to form an active role in rapidly evolving international order. These Nations work to promote dialogue and understanding between developing and developed countries. Hence statement 1 is correct The G7 countries include UK, Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan and the US. The group is an intergovernmental organisation formed in 1975 It meets annually to discuss issues of common interest like Global economic governance, energy policy and International Security. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Russia was formally inducted as a member in the G7 group in 1998 which led G7 to become G8 Due to several issues, the nations of the group decided to suspend Russia from the G8 and as a consequence, the group became G7 again in 2014. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 12. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Group of Five (G5) countries include Brazil, China, India, Mexico and South Africa.

• Along with the United States and United Kingdom, the G5 countries have formed the Group of Seven or G7 countries.

• The Group of Seven Countries along with Russia formed the Group of Eight or G8 Countries.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• The G5 countries include Brazil, China, India, Mexico and South Africa.

• These Nations have joined together to form an active role in rapidly evolving international order.

• These Nations work to promote dialogue and understanding between developing and developed countries.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The G7 countries include UK, Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan and the US.

• The group is an intergovernmental organisation formed in 1975

• It meets annually to discuss issues of common interest like Global economic governance, energy policy and International Security.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Russia was formally inducted as a member in the G7 group in 1998 which led G7 to become G8

• Due to several issues, the nations of the group decided to suspend Russia from the G8 and as a consequence, the group became G7 again in 2014.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: B

• The G5 countries include Brazil, China, India, Mexico and South Africa.

• These Nations have joined together to form an active role in rapidly evolving international order.

• These Nations work to promote dialogue and understanding between developing and developed countries.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The G7 countries include UK, Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan and the US.

• The group is an intergovernmental organisation formed in 1975

• It meets annually to discuss issues of common interest like Global economic governance, energy policy and International Security.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Russia was formally inducted as a member in the G7 group in 1998 which led G7 to become G8

• Due to several issues, the nations of the group decided to suspend Russia from the G8 and as a consequence, the group became G7 again in 2014.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement -I: The International Criminal Court (ICC) is the court of last resort for the most serious crimes against humanity. Statement -II: ICC can exercise its jurisdiction over any country where crime against international community has occurred. Statement -III: ICC can arrest individuals convicted of genocide. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement- II and Statement -III are correct and both of them explain Statement- I (b) Both Statement- II and Statement-III are correct but only one of them explains Statement- I (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement- I (d) Neither Statement- II nor Statement-III is correct Correct Solution: D International Criminal Court located at the Hague, is the court of Last resort for prosecution of genocide, war crimes and crime against humanity. It investigates and where warranted, tries individuals charged with the gravest crimes of concern to the international community. The ICC has the jurisdiction to prosecute individuals for international crimes of genocide, crimes against humanity and war crimes. However, it is intended to complement existing National judicial system and may therefore exercise its jurisdiction only when certain conditions are met, such as when national courts are unwilling or unable to prosecute criminals or when the United Nations Security Council or individual States refer situations to the court. ICC lacks universal jurisdiction and may only investigate and prosecute crimes committed within member states, crimes committed by nationals of member states or crimes in situations referred to it by the UN Security Council. The court does not have the capacity to arrest suspects and depend on member states for their cooperation. Hence option D is correct Incorrect Solution: D International Criminal Court located at the Hague, is the court of Last resort for prosecution of genocide, war crimes and crime against humanity. It investigates and where warranted, tries individuals charged with the gravest crimes of concern to the international community. The ICC has the jurisdiction to prosecute individuals for international crimes of genocide, crimes against humanity and war crimes. However, it is intended to complement existing National judicial system and may therefore exercise its jurisdiction only when certain conditions are met, such as when national courts are unwilling or unable to prosecute criminals or when the United Nations Security Council or individual States refer situations to the court. ICC lacks universal jurisdiction and may only investigate and prosecute crimes committed within member states, crimes committed by nationals of member states or crimes in situations referred to it by the UN Security Council. The court does not have the capacity to arrest suspects and depend on member states for their cooperation. Hence option D is correct

#### 13. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement -I: The International Criminal Court (ICC) is the court of last resort for the most serious crimes against humanity.

Statement -II: ICC can exercise its jurisdiction over any country where crime against international community has occurred.

Statement -III: ICC can arrest individuals convicted of genocide.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement- II and Statement -III are correct and both of them explain Statement- I

• (b) Both Statement- II and Statement-III are correct but only one of them explains Statement- I

• (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement- I

• (d) Neither Statement- II nor Statement-III is correct

Solution: D

• International Criminal Court located at the Hague, is the court of Last resort for prosecution of genocide, war crimes and crime against humanity.

• It investigates and where warranted, tries individuals charged with the gravest crimes of concern to the international community.

• The ICC has the jurisdiction to prosecute individuals for international crimes of genocide, crimes against humanity and war crimes.

• However, it is intended to complement existing National judicial system and may therefore exercise its jurisdiction only when certain conditions are met, such as when national courts are unwilling or unable to prosecute criminals or when the United Nations Security Council or individual States refer situations to the court.

• ICC lacks universal jurisdiction and may only investigate and prosecute crimes committed within member states, crimes committed by nationals of member states or crimes in situations referred to it by the UN Security Council.

• The court does not have the capacity to arrest suspects and depend on member states for their cooperation.

Hence option D is correct

Solution: D

• International Criminal Court located at the Hague, is the court of Last resort for prosecution of genocide, war crimes and crime against humanity.

• It investigates and where warranted, tries individuals charged with the gravest crimes of concern to the international community.

• The ICC has the jurisdiction to prosecute individuals for international crimes of genocide, crimes against humanity and war crimes.

• The court does not have the capacity to arrest suspects and depend on member states for their cooperation.

Hence option D is correct

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The UN Commission on Narcotic Drugs (CND) was established by a resolution of the Security Council. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime provides for Secretariat of the CND. All member states of CND are elected by the UN Economic and Social Council. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The Commission on Narcotic Drugs was established by Economic and Social Council in 1946 to assist it in supervising application of the international drug control treaties. In 1991 the United Nations General Assembly expanded mandate of the CND to function as governing body of United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime. It’s agenda has two segments- one for discharging Treaty based functions and another for exercising the role as governing body of UNODC. It reviews and analyses the Global drug situation, considering supply and demand reduction. Hence statements 1 is incorrect The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime provides for Secretariat of the CND. Hence statement 2 is correct CND has 53 member states that are elected by ECOSOC. It is chaired by a Bureau including one member per regional group. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: B The Commission on Narcotic Drugs was established by Economic and Social Council in 1946 to assist it in supervising application of the international drug control treaties. In 1991 the United Nations General Assembly expanded mandate of the CND to function as governing body of United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime. It’s agenda has two segments- one for discharging Treaty based functions and another for exercising the role as governing body of UNODC. It reviews and analyses the Global drug situation, considering supply and demand reduction. Hence statements 1 is incorrect The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime provides for Secretariat of the CND. Hence statement 2 is correct CND has 53 member states that are elected by ECOSOC. It is chaired by a Bureau including one member per regional group. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 14. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The UN Commission on Narcotic Drugs (CND) was established by a resolution of the Security Council.

• The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime provides for Secretariat of the CND.

• All member states of CND are elected by the UN Economic and Social Council.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• The Commission on Narcotic Drugs was established by Economic and Social Council in 1946 to assist it in supervising application of the international drug control treaties.

• In 1991 the United Nations General Assembly expanded mandate of the CND to function as governing body of United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime.

• It’s agenda has two segments- one for discharging Treaty based functions and another for exercising the role as governing body of UNODC.

• It reviews and analyses the Global drug situation, considering supply and demand reduction. Hence statements 1 is incorrect

• The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime provides for Secretariat of the CND. Hence statement 2 is correct

• CND has 53 member states that are elected by ECOSOC.

• It is chaired by a Bureau including one member per regional group. Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: B

• The Commission on Narcotic Drugs was established by Economic and Social Council in 1946 to assist it in supervising application of the international drug control treaties.

• In 1991 the United Nations General Assembly expanded mandate of the CND to function as governing body of United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime.

• It’s agenda has two segments- one for discharging Treaty based functions and another for exercising the role as governing body of UNODC.

• It reviews and analyses the Global drug situation, considering supply and demand reduction. Hence statements 1 is incorrect

• The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime provides for Secretariat of the CND. Hence statement 2 is correct

• CND has 53 member states that are elected by ECOSOC.

• It is chaired by a Bureau including one member per regional group. Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding PM Vidyalaxmi Scheme: Under it collateral-free and guarantor-free education loans of up to Rs.10 lakhs will be provided to one girl child from families with an annual income below Rs. 2.5 lakhs. Only students admitted to top 860 higher educational institutions of India according to National Institutional Ranking Framework are eligible for financial assistance. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B Recently the Union Cabinet approved the PM Vidyalakshmi scheme, aimed at providing financial support to meritorious students ensuring that financial challenges do not hinder anyone in India from pursuing quality higher education. The scheme offers collateral free, guarantor-free education loans with a user-friendly digital application process. The government provides a 75% credit guarantee on loans up to Rs. 7.5 lakhs supporting banks in loan expansion For families with an annual income up to Rs.8 lakhs, a 3% interest subvention is provided on loan up to Rs.10 lakh Full interest subvention is available to students with family income up to Rs.4.5 lakh under PM-USP scheme. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The scheme is available for students admitted to talk 860 higher educational institutes in India as per NIRF rankings, covering over 22 lakh students annually. Hence statement 2 is correct Incorrect Solution: B Recently the Union Cabinet approved the PM Vidyalakshmi scheme, aimed at providing financial support to meritorious students ensuring that financial challenges do not hinder anyone in India from pursuing quality higher education. The scheme offers collateral free, guarantor-free education loans with a user-friendly digital application process. The government provides a 75% credit guarantee on loans up to Rs. 7.5 lakhs supporting banks in loan expansion For families with an annual income up to Rs.8 lakhs, a 3% interest subvention is provided on loan up to Rs.10 lakh Full interest subvention is available to students with family income up to Rs.4.5 lakh under PM-USP scheme. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The scheme is available for students admitted to talk 860 higher educational institutes in India as per NIRF rankings, covering over 22 lakh students annually. Hence statement 2 is correct

#### 15. Question

Consider the following statements regarding PM Vidyalaxmi Scheme:

• Under it collateral-free and guarantor-free education loans of up to Rs.10 lakhs will be provided to one girl child from families with an annual income below Rs. 2.5 lakhs.

• Only students admitted to top 860 higher educational institutions of India according to National Institutional Ranking Framework are eligible for financial assistance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

• Recently the Union Cabinet approved the PM Vidyalakshmi scheme, aimed at providing financial support to meritorious students ensuring that financial challenges do not hinder anyone in India from pursuing quality higher education.

• The scheme offers collateral free, guarantor-free education loans with a user-friendly digital application process.

• The government provides a 75% credit guarantee on loans up to Rs. 7.5 lakhs supporting banks in loan expansion

• For families with an annual income up to Rs.8 lakhs, a 3% interest subvention is provided on loan up to Rs.10 lakh

• Full interest subvention is available to students with family income up to Rs.4.5 lakh under PM-USP scheme.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The scheme is available for students admitted to talk 860 higher educational institutes in India as per NIRF rankings, covering over 22 lakh students annually.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Solution: B

• The scheme offers collateral free, guarantor-free education loans with a user-friendly digital application process.

• The government provides a 75% credit guarantee on loans up to Rs. 7.5 lakhs supporting banks in loan expansion

• For families with an annual income up to Rs.8 lakhs, a 3% interest subvention is provided on loan up to Rs.10 lakh

• Full interest subvention is available to students with family income up to Rs.4.5 lakh under PM-USP scheme.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The scheme is available for students admitted to talk 860 higher educational institutes in India as per NIRF rankings, covering over 22 lakh students annually.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points ‘Country Partnership Framework’ has been launched by: (a) United Nation Security Council (b) BRICS (c) World Bank (d) World Trade organisation Correct Solution: C Country Partnership Framework has been launched by the World Bank. The CPF guides the World Bank Group’s support to a member country. It serves as a roadmap for the World Bank Group to support a member country in achieving its development goals focusing on ending extreme poverty and promoting shared prosperity. The Framework deals with association of the World Bank Group in line with its mission to end extreme poverty and boost shared prosperity on a liveable planet; the model seeks to maximize the impact of the Group support to these goals, by contributing over time to high level outcomes consistent with a country’s development goals. The high-level outcomes are typically achieved over a time horizon that extends beyond a single Country Engagement Cycle are set at a higher level than the Framework objectives and typically result from the combined effort of multiple partners. Hence option C is correct Incorrect Solution: C Country Partnership Framework has been launched by the World Bank. The CPF guides the World Bank Group’s support to a member country. It serves as a roadmap for the World Bank Group to support a member country in achieving its development goals focusing on ending extreme poverty and promoting shared prosperity. The Framework deals with association of the World Bank Group in line with its mission to end extreme poverty and boost shared prosperity on a liveable planet; the model seeks to maximize the impact of the Group support to these goals, by contributing over time to high level outcomes consistent with a country’s development goals. The high-level outcomes are typically achieved over a time horizon that extends beyond a single Country Engagement Cycle are set at a higher level than the Framework objectives and typically result from the combined effort of multiple partners. Hence option C is correct

#### 16. Question

‘Country Partnership Framework’ has been launched by:

• (a) United Nation Security Council

• (c) World Bank

• (d) World Trade organisation

Solution: C

• Country Partnership Framework has been launched by the World Bank.

• The CPF guides the World Bank Group’s support to a member country.

• It serves as a roadmap for the World Bank Group to support a member country in achieving its development goals focusing on ending extreme poverty and promoting shared prosperity.

• The Framework deals with association of the World Bank Group in line with its mission to end extreme poverty and boost shared prosperity on a liveable planet; the model seeks to maximize the impact of the Group support to these goals, by contributing over time to high level outcomes consistent with a country’s development goals.

• The high-level outcomes are typically achieved over a time horizon that extends beyond a single Country Engagement Cycle are set at a higher level than the Framework objectives and typically result from the combined effort of multiple partners.

Hence option C is correct

Solution: C

• Country Partnership Framework has been launched by the World Bank.

• The CPF guides the World Bank Group’s support to a member country.

• It serves as a roadmap for the World Bank Group to support a member country in achieving its development goals focusing on ending extreme poverty and promoting shared prosperity.

Hence option C is correct

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The United Nations Disengagement Observer Force (UNDOF) was established by a Security Council resolution as the only peacekeeping mission in the Middle East. India is one of the contributors of military personnel to the UNDOF. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B The United Nations Disengagement Observer Force was established on 31 may 1974 by Security Council resolution 350 following the agreed disengagement of the Israeli and Syrian forces in the Golan. Since then, the force has remained in the area to maintain ceasefire between the Israeli and Syrian forces and to supervise the implementation of disengagement agreement. During the Syrian conflict however, there were violations of the ceasefire with escalation of military in the area of separation patrolled by UNDOF peacekeepers. Set up in 1948, the UN Truce Supervision Organisation (UNTSP) was the first ever peacekeeping operation established by the United Nations and since then, it’s observers have remained in the Middle East to monitor ceasefire supervise answers agreements and prevent isolated incidents from escalating. UN Interim Force in Lebanon is another peacekeeping mission in the Middle East. Hence statement 1 is incorrect India is a significant troop and police contributing country to the UNDOF and has a long history of participating in peacekeeping missions of the United Nations. Hence statement 2 is correct Incorrect Solution: B The United Nations Disengagement Observer Force was established on 31 may 1974 by Security Council resolution 350 following the agreed disengagement of the Israeli and Syrian forces in the Golan. Since then, the force has remained in the area to maintain ceasefire between the Israeli and Syrian forces and to supervise the implementation of disengagement agreement. During the Syrian conflict however, there were violations of the ceasefire with escalation of military in the area of separation patrolled by UNDOF peacekeepers. Set up in 1948, the UN Truce Supervision Organisation (UNTSP) was the first ever peacekeeping operation established by the United Nations and since then, it’s observers have remained in the Middle East to monitor ceasefire supervise answers agreements and prevent isolated incidents from escalating. UN Interim Force in Lebanon is another peacekeeping mission in the Middle East. Hence statement 1 is incorrect India is a significant troop and police contributing country to the UNDOF and has a long history of participating in peacekeeping missions of the United Nations. Hence statement 2 is correct

#### 17. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The United Nations Disengagement Observer Force (UNDOF) was established by a Security Council resolution as the only peacekeeping mission in the Middle East.

• India is one of the contributors of military personnel to the UNDOF.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

• The United Nations Disengagement Observer Force was established on 31 may 1974 by Security Council resolution 350 following the agreed disengagement of the Israeli and Syrian forces in the Golan.

• Since then, the force has remained in the area to maintain ceasefire between the Israeli and Syrian forces and to supervise the implementation of disengagement agreement.

• During the Syrian conflict however, there were violations of the ceasefire with escalation of military in the area of separation patrolled by UNDOF peacekeepers.

• Set up in 1948, the UN Truce Supervision Organisation (UNTSP) was the first ever peacekeeping operation established by the United Nations and since then, it’s observers have remained in the Middle East to monitor ceasefire supervise answers agreements and prevent isolated incidents from escalating.

• UN Interim Force in Lebanon is another peacekeeping mission in the Middle East.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• India is a significant troop and police contributing country to the UNDOF and has a long history of participating in peacekeeping missions of the United Nations.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Solution: B

• The United Nations Disengagement Observer Force was established on 31 may 1974 by Security Council resolution 350 following the agreed disengagement of the Israeli and Syrian forces in the Golan.

• Since then, the force has remained in the area to maintain ceasefire between the Israeli and Syrian forces and to supervise the implementation of disengagement agreement.

• During the Syrian conflict however, there were violations of the ceasefire with escalation of military in the area of separation patrolled by UNDOF peacekeepers.

• UN Interim Force in Lebanon is another peacekeeping mission in the Middle East.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• India is a significant troop and police contributing country to the UNDOF and has a long history of participating in peacekeeping missions of the United Nations.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Viksit Bharat Initiative for Student Innovation and Outreach Network (VISION) Portal: It provides for mentorship and training for underprivileged students from remote areas. It has been launched by NITI Aayog. It facilitates access to start-up opportunities in IT and biotechnology sectors. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: A The VISION Portal has been launched for nurturing education, skill development and innovation among underprivileged children According to the Government, reaching out to these underprivileged young children helps to democratize startup skills. It provides mentorship and training for students from remote areas. The scheme facilitate access to startup opportunities across sectors like IT, agriculture and biotechnology. It aligns with India’s aspirations for Vision India 2047, promoting economic growth and sustainability. Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct It has been launched and is being operated under the ministry of Science and Technology. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: A The VISION Portal has been launched for nurturing education, skill development and innovation among underprivileged children According to the Government, reaching out to these underprivileged young children helps to democratize startup skills. It provides mentorship and training for students from remote areas. The scheme facilitate access to startup opportunities across sectors like IT, agriculture and biotechnology. It aligns with India’s aspirations for Vision India 2047, promoting economic growth and sustainability. Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct It has been launched and is being operated under the ministry of Science and Technology. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

#### 18. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Viksit Bharat Initiative for Student Innovation and Outreach Network (VISION) Portal:

• It provides for mentorship and training for underprivileged students from remote areas.

• It has been launched by NITI Aayog.

• It facilitates access to start-up opportunities in IT and biotechnology sectors.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 2 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

• The VISION Portal has been launched for nurturing education, skill development and innovation among underprivileged children

• According to the Government, reaching out to these underprivileged young children helps to democratize startup skills.

• It provides mentorship and training for students from remote areas.

• The scheme facilitate access to startup opportunities across sectors like IT, agriculture and biotechnology.

• It aligns with India’s aspirations for Vision India 2047, promoting economic growth and sustainability.

Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct

• It has been launched and is being operated under the ministry of Science and Technology.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Solution: A

• The VISION Portal has been launched for nurturing education, skill development and innovation among underprivileged children

• According to the Government, reaching out to these underprivileged young children helps to democratize startup skills.

• It provides mentorship and training for students from remote areas.

• The scheme facilitate access to startup opportunities across sectors like IT, agriculture and biotechnology.

• It aligns with India’s aspirations for Vision India 2047, promoting economic growth and sustainability.

Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct

• It has been launched and is being operated under the ministry of Science and Technology.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes the Crossroads of Peace initiative? (a) An initiative for promoting peace agreement to end the Russia-Ukraine War (b) A platform for debate among government ministers and officials on Asia’ developing security challenges (c) An initiative to promote regional transport connectivity between Armenia and its neighbouring countries (d) A Forum for political, military and industry leaders to discuss the most effective ways to build defence capacity in the Euro-Atlantic region Correct Solution: C The Crossroads of Peace initiative was started by Armenia’s Prime minister at the Tbilisi Silk Road Forum in October 2023. It is a regional Transport proposal which intends to connect Armenia with its neighbouring countries Azerbaijan, Iran, Georgia and Turkey. It seeks to develop crucial infrastructure- road, railways, pipelines, cable and electricity lines to facilitate the flow of goods, energy and people across these countries. It aims to connect Caspian Sea to the Mediterranean Sea and the Persian Gulf to the Black Sea through easier and more efficient transportation links. Hence option C is correct Incorrect Solution: C The Crossroads of Peace initiative was started by Armenia’s Prime minister at the Tbilisi Silk Road Forum in October 2023. It is a regional Transport proposal which intends to connect Armenia with its neighbouring countries Azerbaijan, Iran, Georgia and Turkey. It seeks to develop crucial infrastructure- road, railways, pipelines, cable and electricity lines to facilitate the flow of goods, energy and people across these countries. It aims to connect Caspian Sea to the Mediterranean Sea and the Persian Gulf to the Black Sea through easier and more efficient transportation links. Hence option C is correct

#### 19. Question

Which of the following best describes the Crossroads of Peace initiative?

• (a) An initiative for promoting peace agreement to end the Russia-Ukraine War

• (b) A platform for debate among government ministers and officials on Asia’ developing security challenges

• (c) An initiative to promote regional transport connectivity between Armenia and its neighbouring countries

• (d) A Forum for political, military and industry leaders to discuss the most effective ways to build defence capacity in the Euro-Atlantic region

Solution: C

• The Crossroads of Peace initiative was started by Armenia’s Prime minister at the Tbilisi Silk Road Forum in October 2023.

• It is a regional Transport proposal which intends to connect Armenia with its neighbouring countries Azerbaijan, Iran, Georgia and Turkey.

• It seeks to develop crucial infrastructure- road, railways, pipelines, cable and electricity lines to facilitate the flow of goods, energy and people across these countries.

• It aims to connect Caspian Sea to the Mediterranean Sea and the Persian Gulf to the Black Sea through easier and more efficient transportation links. Hence option C is correct

Solution: C

• The Crossroads of Peace initiative was started by Armenia’s Prime minister at the Tbilisi Silk Road Forum in October 2023.

• It is a regional Transport proposal which intends to connect Armenia with its neighbouring countries Azerbaijan, Iran, Georgia and Turkey.

• It seeks to develop crucial infrastructure- road, railways, pipelines, cable and electricity lines to facilitate the flow of goods, energy and people across these countries.

• It aims to connect Caspian Sea to the Mediterranean Sea and the Persian Gulf to the Black Sea through easier and more efficient transportation links. Hence option C is correct

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the PM Internship Scheme 2025: The scheme is open to graduates from premier institutions such as IITs, IIMs, and National Law Universities. The internship offers a monthly stipend along with a one-time benefit to selected candidates. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect: Graduates from premier institutions like IITs, IIMs, and NLUs are not eligible for the scheme. Statement 2 is correct: Selected interns receive a monthly stipend of ₹5,000 and a one-time benefit of ₹6,000. Key Features of the Scheme: Objective: Offer grassroots administrative training through internships in various ministries and departments. Eligibility: Open to graduates excluding those from elite institutions such as IITs, IIMs, NLUs, IISc, etc. Stipend Structure: ₹5,000 per month stipend One-time allowance of ₹6,000 Duration: Typically, 2–6 months, with flexible joining windows. Mentorship: Interns work under the supervision of senior officials to understand policy implementation. Selection Process: Merit-based screening and evaluation, focused on inclusivity and diversity. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect: Graduates from premier institutions like IITs, IIMs, and NLUs are not eligible for the scheme. Statement 2 is correct: Selected interns receive a monthly stipend of ₹5,000 and a one-time benefit of ₹6,000. Key Features of the Scheme: Objective: Offer grassroots administrative training through internships in various ministries and departments. Eligibility: Open to graduates excluding those from elite institutions such as IITs, IIMs, NLUs, IISc, etc. Stipend Structure: ₹5,000 per month stipend One-time allowance of ₹6,000 Duration: Typically, 2–6 months, with flexible joining windows. Mentorship: Interns work under the supervision of senior officials to understand policy implementation. Selection Process: Merit-based screening and evaluation, focused on inclusivity and diversity.

#### 20. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the PM Internship Scheme 2025:

• The scheme is open to graduates from premier institutions such as IITs, IIMs, and National Law Universities.

• The internship offers a monthly stipend along with a one-time benefit to selected candidates.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

Statement 1 is incorrect: Graduates from premier institutions like IITs, IIMs, and NLUs are not eligible for the scheme.

Statement 2 is correct: Selected interns receive a monthly stipend of ₹5,000 and a one-time benefit of ₹6,000.

Key Features of the Scheme:

• Objective: Offer grassroots administrative training through internships in various ministries and departments.

• Eligibility: Open to graduates excluding those from elite institutions such as IITs, IIMs, NLUs, IISc, etc.

• Stipend Structure: ₹5,000 per month stipend One-time allowance of ₹6,000

• ₹5,000 per month stipend

• One-time allowance of ₹6,000

• Duration: Typically, 2–6 months, with flexible joining windows.

• Mentorship: Interns work under the supervision of senior officials to understand policy implementation.

• Selection Process: Merit-based screening and evaluation, focused on inclusivity and diversity.

Solution: B

Statement 1 is incorrect: Graduates from premier institutions like IITs, IIMs, and NLUs are not eligible for the scheme.

Statement 2 is correct: Selected interns receive a monthly stipend of ₹5,000 and a one-time benefit of ₹6,000.

Key Features of the Scheme:

• Objective: Offer grassroots administrative training through internships in various ministries and departments.

• Eligibility: Open to graduates excluding those from elite institutions such as IITs, IIMs, NLUs, IISc, etc.

• Stipend Structure: ₹5,000 per month stipend One-time allowance of ₹6,000

• ₹5,000 per month stipend

• One-time allowance of ₹6,000

• Duration: Typically, 2–6 months, with flexible joining windows.

• Mentorship: Interns work under the supervision of senior officials to understand policy implementation.

• Selection Process: Merit-based screening and evaluation, focused on inclusivity and diversity.

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI) It accounts for more than 50% of the weight of the Index of Industrial Production (IIP). It is released monthly by the Office of the Economic Adviser under the Ministry of Commerce & Industry. Its current base year is 2011–12. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI): The Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI) measures the performance of eight key infrastructure sectors: Coal, Crude Oil, Natural Gas, Refinery Products, Fertilizers, Steel, Cement, and Electricity. These eight sectors together account for approximately 40.27% of the total weight of the Index of Industrial Production (IIP). (Hence, statement 1 is incorrect) The ICI is released monthly by the Office of the Economic Adviser (OEA), which functions under the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), in the Ministry of Commerce & Industry. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) The current base year for the ICI is 2011–12, which aligns with the base year used for many other national indices such as the IIP and GDP series. (Hence, statement 3 is correct) The ICI serves as a lead indicator of the IIP and a barometer of industrial performance in the economy, especially in infrastructure-heavy sectors. It provides early signals on the production performance of core sectors before the IIP data is published, aiding in short-term economic analysis and forecasting. https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_international/issues/101724/OPS/G7JDC8VPD.1+G75DDBQ1D.1.html Incorrect Solution: B Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI): The Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI) measures the performance of eight key infrastructure sectors: Coal, Crude Oil, Natural Gas, Refinery Products, Fertilizers, Steel, Cement, and Electricity. These eight sectors together account for approximately 40.27% of the total weight of the Index of Industrial Production (IIP). (Hence, statement 1 is incorrect) The ICI is released monthly by the Office of the Economic Adviser (OEA), which functions under the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), in the Ministry of Commerce & Industry. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) The current base year for the ICI is 2011–12, which aligns with the base year used for many other national indices such as the IIP and GDP series. (Hence, statement 3 is correct) The ICI serves as a lead indicator of the IIP and a barometer of industrial performance in the economy, especially in infrastructure-heavy sectors. It provides early signals on the production performance of core sectors before the IIP data is published, aiding in short-term economic analysis and forecasting. https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_international/issues/101724/OPS/G7JDC8VPD.1+G75DDBQ1D.1.html

#### 21. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI)

• It accounts for more than 50% of the weight of the Index of Industrial Production (IIP).

• It is released monthly by the Office of the Economic Adviser under the Ministry of Commerce & Industry.

• Its current base year is 2011–12.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI):

• The Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI) measures the performance of eight key infrastructure sectors: Coal, Crude Oil, Natural Gas, Refinery Products, Fertilizers, Steel, Cement, and Electricity.

• These eight sectors together account for approximately 40.27% of the total weight of the Index of Industrial Production (IIP). (Hence, statement 1 is incorrect)

• The ICI is released monthly by the Office of the Economic Adviser (OEA), which functions under the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), in the Ministry of Commerce & Industry. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

• The current base year for the ICI is 2011–12, which aligns with the base year used for many other national indices such as the IIP and GDP series. (Hence, statement 3 is correct)

• The ICI serves as a lead indicator of the IIP and a barometer of industrial performance in the economy, especially in infrastructure-heavy sectors.

• It provides early signals on the production performance of core sectors before the IIP data is published, aiding in short-term economic analysis and forecasting.

https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_international/issues/101724/OPS/G7JDC8VPD.1+G75DDBQ1D.1.html

Solution: B

Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI):

• These eight sectors together account for approximately 40.27% of the total weight of the Index of Industrial Production (IIP). (Hence, statement 1 is incorrect)

• The current base year for the ICI is 2011–12, which aligns with the base year used for many other national indices such as the IIP and GDP series. (Hence, statement 3 is correct)

• The ICI serves as a lead indicator of the IIP and a barometer of industrial performance in the economy, especially in infrastructure-heavy sectors.

• It provides early signals on the production performance of core sectors before the IIP data is published, aiding in short-term economic analysis and forecasting.

https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_international/issues/101724/OPS/G7JDC8VPD.1+G75DDBQ1D.1.html

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points With reference to the Cruise Bharat Mission, consider the following statements: The mission seeks to integrate cruise tourism with India’s inland water transport network under the National Waterways Act. It targets the development of cruise terminals only at major ports notified under the Major Port Authorities Act, 2021. The mission’s objectives are aligned with India’s maritime vision to promote coastal economic zones and port-led development. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All three Correct Solution: B Cruise Bharat Mission: Cruise Bharat Mission is a national initiative launched by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways to transform India into a global hub for cruise tourism, encompassing both coastal and inland waterway sectors. The mission includes the expansion of river cruise terminals and integration of cruise tourism with the National Waterways network, which is governed under the National Waterways Act, 2016. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) It does not limit cruise terminal development only to major ports under the Major Port Authorities Act, 2021. The mission covers both major and non-major ports, including public–private participation and state-level terminals to enhance coastal and inland connectivity. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect) The Cruise Bharat Mission is aligned with India’s broader Maritime India Vision 2030, which promotes port-led development, coastal economic zones (CEZs), and multimodal logistics integration. This includes cruise infrastructure, job creation, and tourism growth. (Hence, statement 3 is correct) Key targets by 2029 include: Increasing cruise passenger traffic to 1 million Tripling river cruise passengers from 0.5 million to 1.5 million Increasing international cruise terminals from 2 to 10 and river cruise terminals from 50 to 100 Generating 4 lakh employment opportunities The mission is being implemented in three phases (2024–2029), focusing on infrastructure, connectivity, cruise circuits, and ecosystem development. https://www.business-standard.com/economy/news/cruise-bharat-mission-centre-aims-1-million-sea-cruise-passengers-by-2029-124093001095_1.html Incorrect Solution: B Cruise Bharat Mission: Cruise Bharat Mission is a national initiative launched by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways to transform India into a global hub for cruise tourism, encompassing both coastal and inland waterway sectors. The mission includes the expansion of river cruise terminals and integration of cruise tourism with the National Waterways network, which is governed under the National Waterways Act, 2016. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) It does not limit cruise terminal development only to major ports under the Major Port Authorities Act, 2021. The mission covers both major and non-major ports, including public–private participation and state-level terminals to enhance coastal and inland connectivity. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect) The Cruise Bharat Mission is aligned with India’s broader Maritime India Vision 2030, which promotes port-led development, coastal economic zones (CEZs), and multimodal logistics integration. This includes cruise infrastructure, job creation, and tourism growth. (Hence, statement 3 is correct) Key targets by 2029 include: Increasing cruise passenger traffic to 1 million Tripling river cruise passengers from 0.5 million to 1.5 million Increasing international cruise terminals from 2 to 10 and river cruise terminals from 50 to 100 Generating 4 lakh employment opportunities The mission is being implemented in three phases (2024–2029), focusing on infrastructure, connectivity, cruise circuits, and ecosystem development. https://www.business-standard.com/economy/news/cruise-bharat-mission-centre-aims-1-million-sea-cruise-passengers-by-2029-124093001095_1.html

#### 22. Question

With reference to the Cruise Bharat Mission, consider the following statements:

• The mission seeks to integrate cruise tourism with India’s inland water transport network under the National Waterways Act.

• It targets the development of cruise terminals only at major ports notified under the Major Port Authorities Act, 2021.

• The mission’s objectives are aligned with India’s maritime vision to promote coastal economic zones and port-led development.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) All three

Solution: B

Cruise Bharat Mission:

• Cruise Bharat Mission is a national initiative launched by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways to transform India into a global hub for cruise tourism, encompassing both coastal and inland waterway sectors.

• The mission includes the expansion of river cruise terminals and integration of cruise tourism with the National Waterways network, which is governed under the National Waterways Act, 2016. (Hence, statement 1 is correct)

• It does not limit cruise terminal development only to major ports under the Major Port Authorities Act, 2021. The mission covers both major and non-major ports, including public–private participation and state-level terminals to enhance coastal and inland connectivity. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect)

• The Cruise Bharat Mission is aligned with India’s broader Maritime India Vision 2030, which promotes port-led development, coastal economic zones (CEZs), and multimodal logistics integration. This includes cruise infrastructure, job creation, and tourism growth. (Hence, statement 3 is correct)

• Key targets by 2029 include: Increasing cruise passenger traffic to 1 million Tripling river cruise passengers from 0.5 million to 1.5 million Increasing international cruise terminals from 2 to 10 and river cruise terminals from 50 to 100 Generating 4 lakh employment opportunities

• Increasing cruise passenger traffic to 1 million

• Tripling river cruise passengers from 0.5 million to 1.5 million

• Increasing international cruise terminals from 2 to 10 and river cruise terminals from 50 to 100

• Generating 4 lakh employment opportunities

• The mission is being implemented in three phases (2024–2029), focusing on infrastructure, connectivity, cruise circuits, and ecosystem development.

https://www.business-standard.com/economy/news/cruise-bharat-mission-centre-aims-1-million-sea-cruise-passengers-by-2029-124093001095_1.html

Solution: B

Cruise Bharat Mission:

• Increasing cruise passenger traffic to 1 million

• Tripling river cruise passengers from 0.5 million to 1.5 million

• Increasing international cruise terminals from 2 to 10 and river cruise terminals from 50 to 100

• Generating 4 lakh employment opportunities

• The mission is being implemented in three phases (2024–2029), focusing on infrastructure, connectivity, cruise circuits, and ecosystem development.

https://www.business-standard.com/economy/news/cruise-bharat-mission-centre-aims-1-million-sea-cruise-passengers-by-2029-124093001095_1.html

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points With reference to the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI), consider the following statements: The IBBI was established under the Companies Act, 2013 to regulate insolvency proceedings for corporate entities only. It regulates insolvency professionals, information utilities, and sets eligibility criteria for insolvency exams. The Board includes representatives from the Ministry of Finance, Ministry of Law, and the Reserve Bank of India. The Chairperson and non-ex-officio members of the Board can serve a maximum tenure of five years or until 65 years of age, whichever is earlier. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI): Establishment: The IBBI was established on 1st October 2016 under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), 2016. It is a statutory body under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs. It was not established under the Companies Act, 2013 and does not deal only with corporate insolvency — it covers individuals, partnership firms, and corporate persons. (Hence, statement 1 is incorrect) Functions: It regulates Insolvency Professionals (IPs), Insolvency Professional Agencies (IPAs), and Information Utilities (IUs). Sets eligibility criteria, exam structure, and code of conduct for IPs. Oversees corporate insolvency resolution, liquidation, and bankruptcy of individuals and firms. Maintains and publishes data related to all registered insolvency and bankruptcy cases. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) Composition of the Board: Includes a chairperson appointed by the Central Government. Three ex-officio members representing: Ministry of Finance Ministry of Corporate Affairs Ministry of Law and Justice One member nominated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) (ex-officio). Five additional members, of which at least three must be full-time members. (Hence, statement 3 is correct) Tenure: The Chairperson and non-ex-officio members of IBBI hold office for five years or until they attain the age of 65, whichever is earlier. (Hence, statement 4 is correct) Powers and Authority: IBBI has powers to frame and enforce regulations under the IBC. It can conduct investigations, issue binding directions, and take disciplinary action against professionals/entities. Works in coordination with NCLT, NCLAT, and other regulatory authorities. Significance: IBBI ensures time-bound resolution of insolvency. Plays a vital role in improving credit culture, reducing NPAs, and supporting financial sector stability. Contributed significantly to India’s Ease of Doing Business ranking. https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2060974#:~:text=The%20Insolvency%20and%20Bankruptcy%20Board,occasion%20as%20the%20Chief%20Guest.%20 Incorrect Solution: C Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI): Establishment: The IBBI was established on 1st October 2016 under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), 2016. It is a statutory body under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs. It was not established under the Companies Act, 2013 and does not deal only with corporate insolvency — it covers individuals, partnership firms, and corporate persons. (Hence, statement 1 is incorrect) Functions: It regulates Insolvency Professionals (IPs), Insolvency Professional Agencies (IPAs), and Information Utilities (IUs). Sets eligibility criteria, exam structure, and code of conduct for IPs. Oversees corporate insolvency resolution, liquidation, and bankruptcy of individuals and firms. Maintains and publishes data related to all registered insolvency and bankruptcy cases. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) Composition of the Board: Includes a chairperson appointed by the Central Government. Three ex-officio members representing: Ministry of Finance Ministry of Corporate Affairs Ministry of Law and Justice One member nominated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) (ex-officio). Five additional members, of which at least three must be full-time members. (Hence, statement 3 is correct) Tenure: The Chairperson and non-ex-officio members of IBBI hold office for five years or until they attain the age of 65, whichever is earlier. (Hence, statement 4 is correct) Powers and Authority: IBBI has powers to frame and enforce regulations under the IBC. It can conduct investigations, issue binding directions, and take disciplinary action against professionals/entities. Works in coordination with NCLT, NCLAT, and other regulatory authorities. Significance: IBBI ensures time-bound resolution of insolvency. Plays a vital role in improving credit culture, reducing NPAs, and supporting financial sector stability. Contributed significantly to India’s Ease of Doing Business ranking. https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2060974#:~:text=The%20Insolvency%20and%20Bankruptcy%20Board,occasion%20as%20the%20Chief%20Guest.%20

#### 23. Question

With reference to the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI), consider the following statements:

• The IBBI was established under the Companies Act, 2013 to regulate insolvency proceedings for corporate entities only.

• It regulates insolvency professionals, information utilities, and sets eligibility criteria for insolvency exams.

• The Board includes representatives from the Ministry of Finance, Ministry of Law, and the Reserve Bank of India.

• The Chairperson and non-ex-officio members of the Board can serve a maximum tenure of five years or until 65 years of age, whichever is earlier.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI):

• Establishment: The IBBI was established on 1st October 2016 under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), 2016. It is a statutory body under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs. It was not established under the Companies Act, 2013 and does not deal only with corporate insolvency — it covers individuals, partnership firms, and corporate persons. (Hence, statement 1 is incorrect)

• The IBBI was established on 1st October 2016 under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), 2016.

• It is a statutory body under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.

• It was not established under the Companies Act, 2013 and does not deal only with corporate insolvency — it covers individuals, partnership firms, and corporate persons. (Hence, statement 1 is incorrect)

• Functions: It regulates Insolvency Professionals (IPs), Insolvency Professional Agencies (IPAs), and Information Utilities (IUs). Sets eligibility criteria, exam structure, and code of conduct for IPs. Oversees corporate insolvency resolution, liquidation, and bankruptcy of individuals and firms. Maintains and publishes data related to all registered insolvency and bankruptcy cases. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

• It regulates Insolvency Professionals (IPs), Insolvency Professional Agencies (IPAs), and Information Utilities (IUs).

• Sets eligibility criteria, exam structure, and code of conduct for IPs.

• Oversees corporate insolvency resolution, liquidation, and bankruptcy of individuals and firms.

• Maintains and publishes data related to all registered insolvency and bankruptcy cases. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

• Composition of the Board: Includes a chairperson appointed by the Central Government. Three ex-officio members representing: Ministry of Finance Ministry of Corporate Affairs Ministry of Law and Justice One member nominated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) (ex-officio). Five additional members, of which at least three must be full-time members. (Hence, statement 3 is correct)

• Includes a chairperson appointed by the Central Government.

• Three ex-officio members representing: Ministry of Finance Ministry of Corporate Affairs Ministry of Law and Justice

• Ministry of Finance

• Ministry of Corporate Affairs

• Ministry of Law and Justice

• One member nominated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) (ex-officio).

• Five additional members, of which at least three must be full-time members. (Hence, statement 3 is correct)

• Tenure: The Chairperson and non-ex-officio members of IBBI hold office for five years or until they attain the age of 65, whichever is earlier. (Hence, statement 4 is correct)

• The Chairperson and non-ex-officio members of IBBI hold office for five years or until they attain the age of 65, whichever is earlier. (Hence, statement 4 is correct)

• Powers and Authority: IBBI has powers to frame and enforce regulations under the IBC. It can conduct investigations, issue binding directions, and take disciplinary action against professionals/entities. Works in coordination with NCLT, NCLAT, and other regulatory authorities.

• IBBI has powers to frame and enforce regulations under the IBC.

• It can conduct investigations, issue binding directions, and take disciplinary action against professionals/entities.

• Works in coordination with NCLT, NCLAT, and other regulatory authorities.

• Significance: IBBI ensures time-bound resolution of insolvency. Plays a vital role in improving credit culture, reducing NPAs, and supporting financial sector stability. Contributed significantly to India’s Ease of Doing Business ranking.

• IBBI ensures time-bound resolution of insolvency.

• Plays a vital role in improving credit culture, reducing NPAs, and supporting financial sector stability.

• Contributed significantly to India’s Ease of Doing Business ranking.

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2060974#:~:text=The%20Insolvency%20and%20Bankruptcy%20Board,occasion%20as%20the%20Chief%20Guest.%20