DAY – 29 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – GOVERNMENT SCHEMES, ORGANISATIONS & INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS, Subject-wise Test 10, 29 , Textbook-based Test – 29 and January 2024 CA

INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024

#### Quiz-summary

0 of 30 questions completed

Questions:

#### Information

Read about Insights IAS INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Prelims – 2024 [ HERE ] :

DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(GS) [HERE] :

DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(CSAT) [HERE] :

Download MITRA booklet (My Insta Tests Revision and Assessment) – It’s for to track your daily progress while following Insta 75 Days plan. [ CLICK HERE ] :

Wish you Good Luck! 🙂

You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.

Quiz is loading...

You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.

You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:

0 of 30 questions answered correctly

Your time:

Time has elapsed

You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)

Average score |

Your score |

#### Categories

• Not categorized 0%

Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result

Table is loading

No data available

| | | |

• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements with reference to National Geospatial Policy, 2022: All geospatial data produced using public funds shall be made easily accessible for scientific, economic, and developmental purposes. Ministry of Earth Sciences is responsible for promoting the use and reuse of geospatial data under the National Geospatial Policy. It sets a target for India to achieve a coherent national location data framework by 2040. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: a Explanation: The National Geospatial Policy, 2022 is a citizen-centric policy that liberalizes the geospatial sector and democratizes the datasets generated by the use of public funds. It recognizes that the citizens, communities, government, local bodies, businesses, and academia in India need to be empowered with freely available Geospatial data, services, and solutions. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The Policy spells out the vision, and goals and also outlines the approach and strategy for the holistic development of the geospatial ecosystem in our country. It aims to develop the Geospatial Infrastructures and also seeks to strengthen the national and sub-national arrangements for the generation and management of geospatial information. Department of Science and Technology (DST) intends to promote the use/reuse of geospatial data/products/solutions/services by providing open data/services/solutions through a network of Geospatial Platforms at national and sub-national levels. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. India will have a coherent national location data framework by 2030. The framework will assist the country to move towards e-economies, e-service, and e-Commerce and improve services to citizens. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Valuable Geospatial data that currently remains locked in silos will be easily accessible and combined securely to create new insights, new services, and new businesses that are almost unimaginable today. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: The National Geospatial Policy, 2022 is a citizen-centric policy that liberalizes the geospatial sector and democratizes the datasets generated by the use of public funds. It recognizes that the citizens, communities, government, local bodies, businesses, and academia in India need to be empowered with freely available Geospatial data, services, and solutions. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The Policy spells out the vision, and goals and also outlines the approach and strategy for the holistic development of the geospatial ecosystem in our country. It aims to develop the Geospatial Infrastructures and also seeks to strengthen the national and sub-national arrangements for the generation and management of geospatial information. Department of Science and Technology (DST) intends to promote the use/reuse of geospatial data/products/solutions/services by providing open data/services/solutions through a network of Geospatial Platforms at national and sub-national levels. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. India will have a coherent national location data framework by 2030. The framework will assist the country to move towards e-economies, e-service, and e-Commerce and improve services to citizens. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Valuable Geospatial data that currently remains locked in silos will be easily accessible and combined securely to create new insights, new services, and new businesses that are almost unimaginable today. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements with reference to National Geospatial Policy, 2022:

• All geospatial data produced using public funds shall be made easily accessible for scientific, economic, and developmental purposes.

• Ministry of Earth Sciences is responsible for promoting the use and reuse of geospatial data under the National Geospatial Policy.

• It sets a target for India to achieve a coherent national location data framework by 2040.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Explanation:

• The National Geospatial Policy, 2022 is a citizen-centric policy that liberalizes the geospatial sector and democratizes the datasets generated by the use of public funds. It recognizes that the citizens, communities, government, local bodies, businesses, and academia in India need to be empowered with freely available Geospatial data, services, and solutions. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The Policy spells out the vision, and goals and also outlines the approach and strategy for the holistic development of the geospatial ecosystem in our country.

• It aims to develop the Geospatial Infrastructures and also seeks to strengthen the national and sub-national arrangements for the generation and management of geospatial information.

• Department of Science and Technology (DST) intends to promote the use/reuse of geospatial data/products/solutions/services by providing open data/services/solutions through a network of Geospatial Platforms at national and sub-national levels. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• India will have a coherent national location data framework by 2030. The framework will assist the country to move towards e-economies, e-service, and e-Commerce and improve services to citizens. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Valuable Geospatial data that currently remains locked in silos will be easily accessible and combined securely to create new insights, new services, and new businesses that are almost unimaginable today.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• The Policy spells out the vision, and goals and also outlines the approach and strategy for the holistic development of the geospatial ecosystem in our country.

• It aims to develop the Geospatial Infrastructures and also seeks to strengthen the national and sub-national arrangements for the generation and management of geospatial information.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Consider the following: The Earth system Oceans Weather patterns Atmosphere The PRITHvi VIgyan scheme of the Ministry of Earth Sciences aims to conduct studies on how many of the above given areas? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: d Explanation: The Indian government, has launched “PRITHvi VIgyan” scheme for the Ministry of Earth Sciences. The scheme, to be implemented between 2021-26, aims to study the atmosphere, ocean, weather, and Earth system sciences. The objectives include enhancing long-term observations of the Earth System, developing modelling systems for weather prediction, exploring polar and high seas regions, and developing technology for oceanic resource harnessing. It encompasses five ongoing sub-schemes: ACROSS, O-SMART, PACER, SAGE, and REACHOUT. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: The Indian government, has launched “PRITHvi VIgyan” scheme for the Ministry of Earth Sciences. The scheme, to be implemented between 2021-26, aims to study the atmosphere, ocean, weather, and Earth system sciences. The objectives include enhancing long-term observations of the Earth System, developing modelling systems for weather prediction, exploring polar and high seas regions, and developing technology for oceanic resource harnessing. It encompasses five ongoing sub-schemes: ACROSS, O-SMART, PACER, SAGE, and REACHOUT. Hence, option (d) is correct.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following:

• The Earth system

• Weather patterns

• Atmosphere

The PRITHvi VIgyan scheme of the Ministry of Earth Sciences aims to conduct studies on how many of the above given areas?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

• The Indian government, has launched “PRITHvi VIgyan” scheme for the Ministry of Earth Sciences.

• The scheme, to be implemented between 2021-26, aims to study the atmosphere, ocean, weather, and Earth system sciences.

• The objectives include enhancing long-term observations of the Earth System, developing modelling systems for weather prediction, exploring polar and high seas regions, and developing technology for oceanic resource harnessing.

• It encompasses five ongoing sub-schemes: ACROSS, O-SMART, PACER, SAGE, and REACHOUT.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

• The Indian government, has launched “PRITHvi VIgyan” scheme for the Ministry of Earth Sciences.

• The scheme, to be implemented between 2021-26, aims to study the atmosphere, ocean, weather, and Earth system sciences.

• It encompasses five ongoing sub-schemes: ACROSS, O-SMART, PACER, SAGE, and REACHOUT.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points The Gramodyog Vikas Yojana (GVY) aims to promote and develop the village industries through common facilities, technological modernization, training etc. With reference to Gramodyog Vikas Yojana, consider the following: Agro-Based & Food Processing Industry Service Industry Plastic Industry Cosmetics Industry Mineral-Based Industry How many of the above given industries are covered under Gramodyog Vikas Yojana? a) Only two b) Only three c) Only four d) All five Correct Answer: d Explanation: Recently, the Lieutenant Governor of Delhi distributed Honeybee-Boxes and Toolkits to 130 recipients as part of the Gramodyog Vikas Yojana (GVY) program. Gramodyog Vikas Yojana (GVY): It was launched in March 2020. It is one of the two components of the Khadi Gramodyog Vikas Yojana which is a Central Sector Scheme (CSS). The other component of Khadi Gramodyog Vikas Yojana is the Khadi Vikas Yojana (KVY) which includes two new components such as Rozgar Yukt Gaon, Design House (DH). GVY aims to promote and develop the village industries through common facilities, technological modernization, training etc. Included Activities: Agro-Based & Food Processing Industry (ABFPI) Mineral-Based Industry (MBI) Wellness & Cosmetics Industry (WCI) Handmade Paper, Leather & Plastic Industry (HPLPI) Rural Engineering & New Technology Industry (RENTI) Service Industry Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: Recently, the Lieutenant Governor of Delhi distributed Honeybee-Boxes and Toolkits to 130 recipients as part of the Gramodyog Vikas Yojana (GVY) program. Gramodyog Vikas Yojana (GVY): It was launched in March 2020. It is one of the two components of the Khadi Gramodyog Vikas Yojana which is a Central Sector Scheme (CSS). The other component of Khadi Gramodyog Vikas Yojana is the Khadi Vikas Yojana (KVY) which includes two new components such as Rozgar Yukt Gaon, Design House (DH). GVY aims to promote and develop the village industries through common facilities, technological modernization, training etc. Included Activities: Agro-Based & Food Processing Industry (ABFPI) Mineral-Based Industry (MBI) Wellness & Cosmetics Industry (WCI) Handmade Paper, Leather & Plastic Industry (HPLPI) Rural Engineering & New Technology Industry (RENTI) Service Industry Hence, option (d) is correct.

#### 3. Question

The Gramodyog Vikas Yojana (GVY) aims to promote and develop the village industries through common facilities, technological modernization, training etc. With reference to Gramodyog Vikas Yojana, consider the following:

• Agro-Based & Food Processing Industry

• Service Industry

• Plastic Industry

• Cosmetics Industry

• Mineral-Based Industry

How many of the above given industries are covered under Gramodyog Vikas Yojana?

• a) Only two

• b) Only three

• c) Only four

• d) All five

Explanation:

• Recently, the Lieutenant Governor of Delhi distributed Honeybee-Boxes and Toolkits to 130 recipients as part of the Gramodyog Vikas Yojana (GVY) program.

• Gramodyog Vikas Yojana (GVY):

• It was launched in March 2020. It is one of the two components of the Khadi Gramodyog Vikas Yojana which is a Central Sector Scheme (CSS).

• The other component of Khadi Gramodyog Vikas Yojana is the Khadi Vikas Yojana (KVY) which includes two new components such as Rozgar Yukt Gaon, Design House (DH).

• GVY aims to promote and develop the village industries through common facilities, technological modernization, training etc.

• Included Activities:

• Agro-Based & Food Processing Industry (ABFPI)

• Mineral-Based Industry (MBI)

• Wellness & Cosmetics Industry (WCI)

• Handmade Paper, Leather & Plastic Industry (HPLPI)

• Rural Engineering & New Technology Industry (RENTI)

• Service Industry

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

• Recently, the Lieutenant Governor of Delhi distributed Honeybee-Boxes and Toolkits to 130 recipients as part of the Gramodyog Vikas Yojana (GVY) program.

• Gramodyog Vikas Yojana (GVY):

• It was launched in March 2020. It is one of the two components of the Khadi Gramodyog Vikas Yojana which is a Central Sector Scheme (CSS).

• The other component of Khadi Gramodyog Vikas Yojana is the Khadi Vikas Yojana (KVY) which includes two new components such as Rozgar Yukt Gaon, Design House (DH).

• GVY aims to promote and develop the village industries through common facilities, technological modernization, training etc.

• Included Activities:

• Agro-Based & Food Processing Industry (ABFPI)

• Mineral-Based Industry (MBI)

• Wellness & Cosmetics Industry (WCI)

• Handmade Paper, Leather & Plastic Industry (HPLPI)

• Rural Engineering & New Technology Industry (RENTI)

• Service Industry

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points What is the main objective of the MPLADS e-SAKSHI Mobile Application ? a) To facilitate communication between MPs and their constituents. b) To streamline the process of communication between MPs and government officials. c) To revolutionize management of developmental projects in constituencies. d) To provide real-time updates on parliamentary proceedings. Correct Answer: c Explanation: The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), launched the MPLADS e SAKSHI Mobile Application for the revised fund flow procedure under the MPLAD Scheme. The Mobile Application aims to revolutionize how Members of Parliament (MPs) engage with and manage development projects in their constituencies. Features: It provides convenience, accessibility, and real-time access for MPs to propose, track, and oversee projects, enhancing decision-making processes and enabling swift responses to emerging needs or issues. The application promotes transparency by providing instant updates on the status and progress of proposed projects, fostering accountability and public trust in MPLADS fund allocation and utilization. The mobile app also includes features for budget management, allowing MPs to monitor expenditures. Under the Revised MPLADS Guidelines, 2023, Members of Parliament have been given the flexibility in choosing the works that can be taken up under MPLAD Scheme provided it leads to creation of durable public assets for larger public good of the society. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), launched the MPLADS e SAKSHI Mobile Application for the revised fund flow procedure under the MPLAD Scheme. The Mobile Application aims to revolutionize how Members of Parliament (MPs) engage with and manage development projects in their constituencies. Features: It provides convenience, accessibility, and real-time access for MPs to propose, track, and oversee projects, enhancing decision-making processes and enabling swift responses to emerging needs or issues. The application promotes transparency by providing instant updates on the status and progress of proposed projects, fostering accountability and public trust in MPLADS fund allocation and utilization. The mobile app also includes features for budget management, allowing MPs to monitor expenditures. Under the Revised MPLADS Guidelines, 2023, Members of Parliament have been given the flexibility in choosing the works that can be taken up under MPLAD Scheme provided it leads to creation of durable public assets for larger public good of the society. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 4. Question

What is the main objective of the MPLADS e-SAKSHI Mobile Application

• a) To facilitate communication between MPs and their constituents.

• b) To streamline the process of communication between MPs and government officials.

• c) To revolutionize management of developmental projects in constituencies.

• d) To provide real-time updates on parliamentary proceedings.

Explanation:

• The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), launched the MPLADS e SAKSHI Mobile Application for the revised fund flow procedure under the MPLAD Scheme.

• The Mobile Application aims to revolutionize how Members of Parliament (MPs) engage with and manage development projects in their constituencies.

• It provides convenience, accessibility, and real-time access for MPs to propose, track, and oversee projects, enhancing decision-making processes and enabling swift responses to emerging needs or issues.

• The application promotes transparency by providing instant updates on the status and progress of proposed projects, fostering accountability and public trust in MPLADS fund allocation and utilization.

• The mobile app also includes features for budget management, allowing MPs to monitor expenditures.

• Under the Revised MPLADS Guidelines, 2023, Members of Parliament have been given the flexibility in choosing the works that can be taken up under MPLAD Scheme provided it leads to creation of durable public assets for larger public good of the society.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

• The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), launched the MPLADS e SAKSHI Mobile Application for the revised fund flow procedure under the MPLAD Scheme.

• The Mobile Application aims to revolutionize how Members of Parliament (MPs) engage with and manage development projects in their constituencies.

• The mobile app also includes features for budget management, allowing MPs to monitor expenditures.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points What is the main objective of NAMASTE initiative? a) To provide financial assistance to urban local bodies (ULBs). b) To standardize terms and technologies used in alternative medicines. c) To ensure that no sanitation workers lose their lives while working. d) To promote cleanliness and better facilities in the tourism sector. Correct Answer: c Explanation: Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment has also formulated “National Action for Mechanised Sanitation Ecosystem” (NAMASTE) particularly to stop deaths of Sewers and Septic Tank Workers (SSWs) and to promote mechanisation of cleaning operations with a vision to reduce hazardous cleaning and ensure safety of sanitation workers. National Action for Mechanized Sanitation Ecosystem” (NAMASTE) for cleaning sewers, and septic tanks (implementation from 2022 to 2026) Aim: It aims to achieve outcomes like zero fatalities in sanitation work in India, no sanitation workers come in direct contact with human faecal matter and all Sewer and Septic tank sanitation workers have access to alternative livelihood. It replaced the previous scheme: Self Employment Scheme for Rehabilitation of Manual Scavengers. Skill Development and training of Safai Mitras are being taken up with the support of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment through the National Safai Karamchari Finance Development Corporation. The scheme is to be implemented in all 4800+ Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) of the country. Hence, option (c) is correct. Note: There is also NAMASTE Portal (under the Ministry of Ayush) to standardize the various terms and technologies used in alternative medicines. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment has also formulated “National Action for Mechanised Sanitation Ecosystem” (NAMASTE) particularly to stop deaths of Sewers and Septic Tank Workers (SSWs) and to promote mechanisation of cleaning operations with a vision to reduce hazardous cleaning and ensure safety of sanitation workers. National Action for Mechanized Sanitation Ecosystem” (NAMASTE) for cleaning sewers, and septic tanks (implementation from 2022 to 2026) Aim: It aims to achieve outcomes like zero fatalities in sanitation work in India, no sanitation workers come in direct contact with human faecal matter and all Sewer and Septic tank sanitation workers have access to alternative livelihood. It replaced the previous scheme: Self Employment Scheme for Rehabilitation of Manual Scavengers. Skill Development and training of Safai Mitras are being taken up with the support of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment through the National Safai Karamchari Finance Development Corporation. The scheme is to be implemented in all 4800+ Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) of the country. Hence, option (c) is correct. Note: There is also NAMASTE Portal (under the Ministry of Ayush) to standardize the various terms and technologies used in alternative medicines.

#### 5. Question

What is the main objective of NAMASTE initiative?

• a) To provide financial assistance to urban local bodies (ULBs).

• b) To standardize terms and technologies used in alternative medicines.

• c) To ensure that no sanitation workers lose their lives while working.

• d) To promote cleanliness and better facilities in the tourism sector.

Explanation:

• Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment has also formulated “National Action for Mechanised Sanitation Ecosystem” (NAMASTE) particularly to stop deaths of Sewers and Septic Tank Workers (SSWs) and to promote mechanisation of cleaning operations with a vision to reduce hazardous cleaning and ensure safety of sanitation workers.

• National Action for Mechanized Sanitation Ecosystem” (NAMASTE) for cleaning sewers, and septic tanks (implementation from 2022 to 2026)

• Aim: It aims to achieve outcomes like zero fatalities in sanitation work in India, no sanitation workers come in direct contact with human faecal matter and all Sewer and Septic tank sanitation workers have access to alternative livelihood.

• It replaced the previous scheme: Self Employment Scheme for Rehabilitation of Manual Scavengers.

• Skill Development and training of Safai Mitras are being taken up with the support of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment through the National Safai Karamchari Finance Development Corporation.

• The scheme is to be implemented in all 4800+ Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) of the country.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Note: There is also NAMASTE Portal (under the Ministry of Ayush) to standardize the various terms and technologies used in alternative medicines.

Explanation:

• National Action for Mechanized Sanitation Ecosystem” (NAMASTE) for cleaning sewers, and septic tanks (implementation from 2022 to 2026)

• It replaced the previous scheme: Self Employment Scheme for Rehabilitation of Manual Scavengers.

• The scheme is to be implemented in all 4800+ Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) of the country.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Note: There is also NAMASTE Portal (under the Ministry of Ayush) to standardize the various terms and technologies used in alternative medicines.

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Consider the following: Statement-I: The National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG), has launched the Global River Cities Alliance (GRCA) during G-20 summit in New Delhi. Statement-II: The GRCA is an international coalition of cities and countries dedicated to the conservation and protection of river systems worldwide. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Answer: d Explanation: The River Cities Alliance (RCA) is a joint initiative of the Ministry of Jal Shakti (MoJS) & the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA), with a vision to connect river cities and focus on sustainable river centric development. The National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG), has launched the Global River Cities Alliance (GRCA) at COP28 in Dubai, United Arab Emirates. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. The GRCA is an international coalition of cities and countries dedicated to the conservation, sustainable management, and protection of river systems worldwide. The alliance encompasses a diverse array of countries and river cities, fostering partnerships among key nations like India, Egypt, Netherlands, Denmark, Ghana, Australia, Bhutan, Cambodia, Japan, and others. GRCA’s membership extends to cover 275+ river-cities across 11 countries, demonstrating a substantial global reach and influence. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: The River Cities Alliance (RCA) is a joint initiative of the Ministry of Jal Shakti (MoJS) & the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA), with a vision to connect river cities and focus on sustainable river centric development. The National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG), has launched the Global River Cities Alliance (GRCA) at COP28 in Dubai, United Arab Emirates. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. The GRCA is an international coalition of cities and countries dedicated to the conservation, sustainable management, and protection of river systems worldwide. The alliance encompasses a diverse array of countries and river cities, fostering partnerships among key nations like India, Egypt, Netherlands, Denmark, Ghana, Australia, Bhutan, Cambodia, Japan, and others. GRCA’s membership extends to cover 275+ river-cities across 11 countries, demonstrating a substantial global reach and influence. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Hence, option (d) is correct.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following:

Statement-I:

The National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG), has launched the Global River Cities Alliance (GRCA) during G-20 summit in New Delhi.

Statement-II:

The GRCA is an international coalition of cities and countries dedicated to the conservation and protection of river systems worldwide.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Explanation:

• The River Cities Alliance (RCA) is a joint initiative of the Ministry of Jal Shakti (MoJS) & the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA), with a vision to connect river cities and focus on sustainable river centric development.

• The National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG), has launched the Global River Cities Alliance (GRCA) at COP28 in Dubai, United Arab Emirates. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• The GRCA is an international coalition of cities and countries dedicated to the conservation, sustainable management, and protection of river systems worldwide.

• The alliance encompasses a diverse array of countries and river cities, fostering partnerships among key nations like India, Egypt, Netherlands, Denmark, Ghana, Australia, Bhutan, Cambodia, Japan, and others. GRCA’s membership extends to cover 275+ river-cities across 11 countries, demonstrating a substantial global reach and influence. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

• The National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG), has launched the Global River Cities Alliance (GRCA) at COP28 in Dubai, United Arab Emirates. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• The GRCA is an international coalition of cities and countries dedicated to the conservation, sustainable management, and protection of river systems worldwide.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points With reference to the World Bank Group, consider the following: International Bank for Reconstruction and Development. International Development Association. The International Finance Corporation. The Multilateral Guarantee Agency. The International Centre for the Settlement of Investment Disputes. Which of the above organisation/organisations *does not have India as a member? a) 5 only b) 4 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 2,3 and 4 only Correct Answer: a Explanation: The World Bank Group consists of; International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) International Development Association (IDA) The International Finance Corporation (IFC). The Multilateral Guarantee Agency (MIGA) The International Centre for the Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID). International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID) was established in 1966 by the Convention on the Settlement of Investment Disputes between States and Nationals of Other States (the ICSID Convention). ICSID has 163 member countries. India is not a member of ICSID. India was one of the forty-four original signatoriesto the agreements reached at Bretton Woods that established the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) and the International Monetary Fund (IMF). It was also one of the founding members of the IFC in 1956 and the IDA in 1960. India became a member of the MIGA in 1994. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: The World Bank Group consists of; International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) International Development Association (IDA) The International Finance Corporation (IFC). The Multilateral Guarantee Agency (MIGA) The International Centre for the Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID). International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID) was established in 1966 by the Convention on the Settlement of Investment Disputes between States and Nationals of Other States (the ICSID Convention). ICSID has 163 member countries. India is not a member of ICSID. India was one of the forty-four original signatoriesto the agreements reached at Bretton Woods that established the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) and the International Monetary Fund (IMF). It was also one of the founding members of the IFC in 1956 and the IDA in 1960. India became a member of the MIGA in 1994. Hence, option (a) is correct.*

#### 7. Question

With reference to the World Bank Group, consider the following:

• International Bank for Reconstruction and Development.

• International Development Association.

• The International Finance Corporation.

• The Multilateral Guarantee Agency.

• The International Centre for the Settlement of Investment Disputes.

Which of the above organisation/organisations *does not* have India as a member?

• c) 2 and 3 only

• d) 2,3 and 4 only

Explanation:

• The World Bank Group consists of;

• International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)

• International Development Association (IDA)

• The International Finance Corporation (IFC).

• The Multilateral Guarantee Agency (MIGA)

• The International Centre for the Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID).

• International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID) was established in 1966 by the Convention on the Settlement of Investment Disputes between States and Nationals of Other States (the ICSID Convention). ICSID has 163 member countries. India is not a member of ICSID.

• India was one of the forty-four original signatoriesto the agreements reached at Bretton Woods that established the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) and the International Monetary Fund (IMF).

• It was also one of the founding members of the IFC in 1956 and the IDA in 1960. India became a member of the MIGA in 1994.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• The World Bank Group consists of;

• International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)

• International Development Association (IDA)

• The International Finance Corporation (IFC).

• The Multilateral Guarantee Agency (MIGA)

• The International Centre for the Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID).

• It was also one of the founding members of the IFC in 1956 and the IDA in 1960. India became a member of the MIGA in 1994.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) only finances sovereign governments directly or projects backed by sovereign governments. International Development Association (IDA) provides interest free long term loans to very poor countries. International Finance Corporation (IFC) is the private-sector arm of the World Bank Group. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: c Explanation: International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) founded in 1944 was originally intended to rebuild countries devastated by World War II. In time, the focus shifted from reconstruction to development, with a heavy emphasis on socio-economic development. IBRD only finances sovereign governments directly or projects backed by sovereign governments. IBRD focuses its services on middle-income countries or countries where the per capita income ranges from $1,026 to $12,475 per year Hence, statement 1 is correct. International Development Association (IDA) established in 1960 puts greater emphasis on the poorest countries. It provides long term interest free loans of 25 to 40 years. Hence, statement 2 is correct. International Finance Corporation (IFC) established in 1956 is focused exclusively on the private sector in developing countries. It is the private-sector arm of the World Bank Group, to advance economic development by investing in for-profit and commercial projects for poverty reduction and promoting development. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) founded in 1944 was originally intended to rebuild countries devastated by World War II. In time, the focus shifted from reconstruction to development, with a heavy emphasis on socio-economic development. IBRD only finances sovereign governments directly or projects backed by sovereign governments. IBRD focuses its services on middle-income countries or countries where the per capita income ranges from $1,026 to $12,475 per year Hence, statement 1 is correct. International Development Association (IDA) established in 1960 puts greater emphasis on the poorest countries. It provides long term interest free loans of 25 to 40 years. Hence, statement 2 is correct. International Finance Corporation (IFC) established in 1956 is focused exclusively on the private sector in developing countries. It is the private-sector arm of the World Bank Group, to advance economic development by investing in for-profit and commercial projects for poverty reduction and promoting development. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements:

• International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) only finances sovereign governments directly or projects backed by sovereign governments.

• International Development Association (IDA) provides interest free long term loans to very poor countries.

• International Finance Corporation (IFC) is the private-sector arm of the World Bank Group.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Explanation:

• International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) founded in 1944 was originally intended to rebuild countries devastated by World War II. In time, the focus shifted from reconstruction to development, with a heavy emphasis on socio-economic development.

• IBRD only finances sovereign governments directly or projects backed by sovereign governments. IBRD focuses its services on middle-income countries or countries where the per capita income ranges from $1,026 to $12,475 per year Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• International Development Association (IDA) established in 1960 puts greater emphasis on the poorest countries. It provides long term interest free loans of 25 to 40 years. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• International Finance Corporation (IFC) established in 1956 is focused exclusively on the private sector in developing countries. It is the private-sector arm of the World Bank Group, to advance economic development by investing in for-profit and commercial projects for poverty reduction and promoting development. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points With reference to the Free movement agreement between India and Myanmar, consider the following: Insurgency Activities Impact on cultural identity China’s growing influence in Myanmar Environmental Degradation How many of the above are probable reasons for Government of India’s decision to scrap the free movement regime? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: d Explanation: Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) has decided to scrap the Free Movement Regime (FMR) between India and Myanmar. FMR was implemented in 2018, the Free Movement Regime (FMR) permits residents on both sides of the 1,643 km India-Myanmar border to travel up to 16 km into each other’s territory without a visa. This requires a border pass with one-year validity, allowing a two-week stay. The border spans four states: Mizoram, Manipur, Nagaland, and Arunachal Pradesh. It aimed to facilitate local border trade, improve access to education and healthcare for border residents, and strengthen diplomatic ties. Potential Reasons for Reconsidering the FMR: Security Concerns: Increased Infiltration: Concerns have arisen about the influx of illegal immigrants, particularly the Chin, Naga communities and Rohingyas from Myanmar, potentially straining resources and impacting local demographics. Drug Trafficking and Arms Smuggling: The porous border facilitates the illegal movement of drugs and weapons, posing a threat to internal security to India and fuelling crime.In 2022, Manipur witnessed 500 cases filed and 625 individuals arrested under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act, as per data from the Chief Minister’s Office. Insurgency Activities: The FMR has been misused by insurgent groups operating in north-eastern India, allowing them to cross the border easily and evade capture. g. Kuki National Organisation (KNO) and Kangleipak Communist Party-Lamphel (KCP-Lamphel) in Manipur. Socio-economic and Regional Issues: Impact on cultural identity: Concerns exist about the preservation of indigenous culture and traditions in border areas, potentially threatened by increased migration. Environmental Degradation: Deforestation and illegal resource extraction along the border are attributed to unregulated cross-border movement. Regional Dynamics: China’s growing influence in Myanmar and its potential impact on border security add another layer of complexity to the situation. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) has decided to scrap the Free Movement Regime (FMR) between India and Myanmar. FMR was implemented in 2018, the Free Movement Regime (FMR) permits residents on both sides of the 1,643 km India-Myanmar border to travel up to 16 km into each other’s territory without a visa. This requires a border pass with one-year validity, allowing a two-week stay. The border spans four states: Mizoram, Manipur, Nagaland, and Arunachal Pradesh. It aimed to facilitate local border trade, improve access to education and healthcare for border residents, and strengthen diplomatic ties. Potential Reasons for Reconsidering the FMR: Security Concerns: Increased Infiltration: Concerns have arisen about the influx of illegal immigrants, particularly the Chin, Naga communities and Rohingyas from Myanmar, potentially straining resources and impacting local demographics. Drug Trafficking and Arms Smuggling: The porous border facilitates the illegal movement of drugs and weapons, posing a threat to internal security to India and fuelling crime.In 2022, Manipur witnessed 500 cases filed and 625 individuals arrested under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act, as per data from the Chief Minister’s Office. Insurgency Activities: The FMR has been misused by insurgent groups operating in north-eastern India, allowing them to cross the border easily and evade capture. g. Kuki National Organisation (KNO) and Kangleipak Communist Party-Lamphel (KCP-Lamphel) in Manipur. Socio-economic and Regional Issues: Impact on cultural identity: Concerns exist about the preservation of indigenous culture and traditions in border areas, potentially threatened by increased migration. Environmental Degradation: Deforestation and illegal resource extraction along the border are attributed to unregulated cross-border movement. Regional Dynamics: China’s growing influence in Myanmar and its potential impact on border security add another layer of complexity to the situation. Hence, option (d) is correct.

#### 9. Question

With reference to the Free movement agreement between India and Myanmar, consider the following:

• Insurgency Activities

• Impact on cultural identity

• China’s growing influence in Myanmar

• Environmental Degradation

How many of the above are probable reasons for Government of India’s decision to scrap the free movement regime?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

• Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) has decided to scrap the Free Movement Regime (FMR) between India and Myanmar.

• FMR was implemented in 2018, the Free Movement Regime (FMR) permits residents on both sides of the 1,643 km India-Myanmar border to travel up to 16 km into each other’s territory without a visa.

• This requires a border pass with one-year validity, allowing a two-week stay.

• The border spans four states: Mizoram, Manipur, Nagaland, and Arunachal Pradesh.

• It aimed to facilitate local border trade, improve access to education and healthcare for border residents, and strengthen diplomatic ties.

Potential Reasons for Reconsidering the FMR:

• Security Concerns:

• Increased Infiltration: Concerns have arisen about the influx of illegal immigrants, particularly the Chin, Naga communities and Rohingyas from Myanmar, potentially straining resources and impacting local demographics.

• Drug Trafficking and Arms Smuggling: The porous border facilitates the illegal movement of drugs and weapons, posing a threat to internal security to India and fuelling crime.In 2022, Manipur witnessed 500 cases filed and 625 individuals arrested under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act, as per data from the Chief Minister’s Office.

• Insurgency Activities: The FMR has been misused by insurgent groups operating in north-eastern India, allowing them to cross the border easily and evade capture.

• g. Kuki National Organisation (KNO) and Kangleipak Communist Party-Lamphel (KCP-Lamphel) in Manipur.

• Socio-economic and Regional Issues:

• Impact on cultural identity: Concerns exist about the preservation of indigenous culture and traditions in border areas, potentially threatened by increased migration.

• Environmental Degradation: Deforestation and illegal resource extraction along the border are attributed to unregulated cross-border movement.

• Regional Dynamics: China’s growing influence in Myanmar and its potential impact on border security add another layer of complexity to the situation.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

• Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) has decided to scrap the Free Movement Regime (FMR) between India and Myanmar.

• This requires a border pass with one-year validity, allowing a two-week stay.

• The border spans four states: Mizoram, Manipur, Nagaland, and Arunachal Pradesh.

• It aimed to facilitate local border trade, improve access to education and healthcare for border residents, and strengthen diplomatic ties.

Potential Reasons for Reconsidering the FMR:

• Security Concerns:

• Insurgency Activities: The FMR has been misused by insurgent groups operating in north-eastern India, allowing them to cross the border easily and evade capture.

• g. Kuki National Organisation (KNO) and Kangleipak Communist Party-Lamphel (KCP-Lamphel) in Manipur.

• Socio-economic and Regional Issues:

• Impact on cultural identity: Concerns exist about the preservation of indigenous culture and traditions in border areas, potentially threatened by increased migration.

• Environmental Degradation: Deforestation and illegal resource extraction along the border are attributed to unregulated cross-border movement.

• Regional Dynamics: China’s growing influence in Myanmar and its potential impact on border security add another layer of complexity to the situation.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Gelephu Smart city Project is being undertaken by which country? a) Bhutan b) Myanmar c) China d) Nepal Correct Answer: a Explanation: Bhutan’s King has unveiled the ‘Gelephu Smart city Project,’ a mega international city near the Indian border covering 1,000 square kilometres. The project aims to create an economic corridor connecting South Asia with Southeast Asia via India’s north-eastern states, particularly Assam. The Gelephu Special Administrative Region (SAR) will have different laws to attract foreign investment and include plans for an international airport. The project involves an India-Bhutan railway line to Gelephu and aims to connect Bhutan to Myanmar, Thailand, Cambodia, and Singapore. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Bhutan’s King has unveiled the ‘Gelephu Smart city Project,’ a mega international city near the Indian border covering 1,000 square kilometres. The project aims to create an economic corridor connecting South Asia with Southeast Asia via India’s north-eastern states, particularly Assam. The Gelephu Special Administrative Region (SAR) will have different laws to attract foreign investment and include plans for an international airport. The project involves an India-Bhutan railway line to Gelephu and aims to connect Bhutan to Myanmar, Thailand, Cambodia, and Singapore. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 10. Question

Gelephu Smart city Project is being undertaken by which country?

• b) Myanmar

Explanation:

• Bhutan’s King has unveiled the ‘Gelephu Smart city Project,’ a mega international city near the Indian border covering 1,000 square kilometres.

• The project aims to create an economic corridor connecting South Asia with Southeast Asia via India’s north-eastern states, particularly Assam.

• The Gelephu Special Administrative Region (SAR) will have different laws to attract foreign investment and include plans for an international airport.

• The project involves an India-Bhutan railway line to Gelephu and aims to connect Bhutan to Myanmar, Thailand, Cambodia, and Singapore.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• Bhutan’s King has unveiled the ‘Gelephu Smart city Project,’ a mega international city near the Indian border covering 1,000 square kilometres.

• The project aims to create an economic corridor connecting South Asia with Southeast Asia via India’s north-eastern states, particularly Assam.

• The Gelephu Special Administrative Region (SAR) will have different laws to attract foreign investment and include plans for an international airport.

• The project involves an India-Bhutan railway line to Gelephu and aims to connect Bhutan to Myanmar, Thailand, Cambodia, and Singapore.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points What was the outcome of the COP28 with respect to India’s stance on new coal-fired power plants? (a) India committed to a total phase-out of coal-fired power plants. (b) India agreed to transition away from fossil fuels but allowed certain coal projects to continue. (c) India decided to increase its coal-fired power capacity without any restrictions. (d) India did not participate in the COP28 discussions on coal-fired power plants. Correct Solution: B The COP28 climate conference featured intense discussions on the phase-out of fossil fuels, particularly coal, which is a significant contributor to greenhouse gas emissions and climate change. India, along with other countries that still heavily rely on coal for their energy needs, faced a contentious issue regarding the transition away from coal. While there was a general push for a “phase-out” of coal, a compromise was reached. This compromise recognized the practical needs of countries like India, which still require coal for their energy security and developmental needs. The agreement allowed for the continuation of certain coal projects, especially those that were already under construction, while maintaining a broader commitment to transitioning to cleaner energy sources. Incorrect Solution: B The COP28 climate conference featured intense discussions on the phase-out of fossil fuels, particularly coal, which is a significant contributor to greenhouse gas emissions and climate change. India, along with other countries that still heavily rely on coal for their energy needs, faced a contentious issue regarding the transition away from coal. While there was a general push for a “phase-out” of coal, a compromise was reached. This compromise recognized the practical needs of countries like India, which still require coal for their energy security and developmental needs. The agreement allowed for the continuation of certain coal projects, especially those that were already under construction, while maintaining a broader commitment to transitioning to cleaner energy sources.

#### 11. Question

What was the outcome of the COP28 with respect to India’s stance on new coal-fired power plants?

• (a) India committed to a total phase-out of coal-fired power plants.

• (b) India agreed to transition away from fossil fuels but allowed certain coal projects to continue.

• (c) India decided to increase its coal-fired power capacity without any restrictions.

• (d) India did not participate in the COP28 discussions on coal-fired power plants.

Solution: B

The COP28 climate conference featured intense discussions on the phase-out of fossil fuels, particularly coal, which is a significant contributor to greenhouse gas emissions and climate change. India, along with other countries that still heavily rely on coal for their energy needs, faced a contentious issue regarding the transition away from coal.

While there was a general push for a “phase-out” of coal, a compromise was reached. This compromise recognized the practical needs of countries like India, which still require coal for their energy security and developmental needs. The agreement allowed for the continuation of certain coal projects, especially those that were already under construction, while maintaining a broader commitment to transitioning to cleaner energy sources.

Solution: B

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the New Delhi declaration on Artificial Intelligence (AI): It was endorsed by the Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence (GPAI). 2. The declaration emphasizes the balance between the innovation and regulation of AI technology. The declaration was a result of the AI summit held in the United Kingdom. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C All statements are correct. Incorrect Solution: C All statements are correct.

#### 12. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the New Delhi declaration on Artificial Intelligence (AI):

• It was endorsed by the Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence (GPAI). 2. The declaration emphasizes the balance between the innovation and regulation of AI technology.

• The declaration was a result of the AI summit held in the United Kingdom.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

All statements are correct.

Solution: C

All statements are correct.

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Which of the following statements accurately reflects the operations of India’s Arctic Research Station at Ny-Ålesund? (a) It is operational only during the summer months due to extreme weather conditions. (b) It operates throughout the year, facilitating continuous research. (c) It is the northernmost permanent civilian settlement in the world. (d) It is exclusively dedicated to climate change research. Correct Solution: B India’s Arctic Research Station at Ny-Ålesund is operational throughout the year. Researchers are able to continue their work even during the challenging winter months, as highlighted by the fact that India has joined a small group of countries that maintain their Arctic research bases through the winter. The settlement in the Svalbard region, Longyearbyen, is the northernmost permanent civilian settlement in the world. The research encompasses a wider range of studies. Scientists from four different institutions, including the fields of atmospheric physics and glaciology, among others, work at the station, indicating that its purpose is not exclusively dedicated to climate change research but rather to a broad spectrum of earth sciences and related fields. https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/india-arctic-year-round-manning-expedition-9072693/ Incorrect Solution: B India’s Arctic Research Station at Ny-Ålesund is operational throughout the year. Researchers are able to continue their work even during the challenging winter months, as highlighted by the fact that India has joined a small group of countries that maintain their Arctic research bases through the winter. The settlement in the Svalbard region, Longyearbyen, is the northernmost permanent civilian settlement in the world. The research encompasses a wider range of studies. Scientists from four different institutions, including the fields of atmospheric physics and glaciology, among others, work at the station, indicating that its purpose is not exclusively dedicated to climate change research but rather to a broad spectrum of earth sciences and related fields. https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/india-arctic-year-round-manning-expedition-9072693/

#### 13. Question

Which of the following statements accurately reflects the operations of India’s Arctic Research Station at Ny-Ålesund?

• (a) It is operational only during the summer months due to extreme weather conditions.

• (b) It operates throughout the year, facilitating continuous research.

• (c) It is the northernmost permanent civilian settlement in the world.

• (d) It is exclusively dedicated to climate change research.

Solution: B

India’s Arctic Research Station at Ny-Ålesund is operational throughout the year. Researchers are able to continue their work even during the challenging winter months, as highlighted by the fact that India has joined a small group of countries that maintain their Arctic research bases through the winter.

The settlement in the Svalbard region, Longyearbyen, is the northernmost permanent civilian settlement in the world.

The research encompasses a wider range of studies. Scientists from four different institutions, including the fields of atmospheric physics and glaciology, among others, work at the station, indicating that its purpose is not exclusively dedicated to climate change research but rather to a broad spectrum of earth sciences and related fields.

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/india-arctic-year-round-manning-expedition-9072693/

Solution: B

The settlement in the Svalbard region, Longyearbyen, is the northernmost permanent civilian settlement in the world.

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/india-arctic-year-round-manning-expedition-9072693/

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points The concept of a ‘carbon footprint’ is central to discussions on environmental impact. What does it specifically refer to? (a) The amount of green space a corporation maintains. (b) The total set of greenhouse gas emissions caused directly and indirectly by an individual, organization, event, or product. (c) The impact that deforestation has on carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere. (d) The carbon offset achieved by planting trees. Correct Solution: B A carbon footprint is a calculated value or index that makes it possible to compare the total amount of greenhouse gases that an activity, product, company or country adds to the atmosphere. Carbon footprints are usually reported in tonnes of emissions per unit of comparison. Incorrect Solution: B A carbon footprint is a calculated value or index that makes it possible to compare the total amount of greenhouse gases that an activity, product, company or country adds to the atmosphere. Carbon footprints are usually reported in tonnes of emissions per unit of comparison.

#### 14. Question

The concept of a ‘carbon footprint’ is central to discussions on environmental impact. What does it specifically refer to?

• (a) The amount of green space a corporation maintains.

• (b) The total set of greenhouse gas emissions caused directly and indirectly by an individual, organization, event, or product.

• (c) The impact that deforestation has on carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere.

• (d) The carbon offset achieved by planting trees.

Solution: B

A carbon footprint is a calculated value or index that makes it possible to compare the total amount of greenhouse gases that an activity, product, company or country adds to the atmosphere. Carbon footprints are usually reported in tonnes of emissions per unit of comparison.

Solution: B

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs: Barak 8 – Surface-to-surface missile Trishul – Surface-to-air missiles BrahMos – Subsonic cruise missile Nirbhay – Supersonic cruise missile How many of the above pairs are matched correctly? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: A Barak 8, also known as LR-SAM or MR-SAM, is an Indo-Israeli jointly developed surface-to-air missile system, designed to defend against any type of airborne threat including aircraft, helicopters, anti-ship missiles, and UAVs as well as ballistic missiles, cruise missiles and combat jets. Hence, pair 1 is incorrectly matched Trishul is a low-level quick-reaction short range surface-to-air missile developed in India by Defence Research and Development Organisation as part of the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched The BrahMos is a medium-range ramjet supersonic cruise missile that can be launched from submarines, ships, fighter aircraft or TEL. It is a joint venture between the Indian Defence Research and Development Organisation and the Russian Federation’s NPO Mashinostroyeniya, who together have formed BrahMos Aerospace. Hence, pair 3 is incorrectly matched Nirbhay is a long range, all-weather, subsonic Cruise Missile designed and developed in India by the Aeronautical Development Establishment which is under Defence Research and Development Organisation. The missile can be Launched from Multiple Platforms and is capable of carrying conventional and nuclear warheads. Hence, pair 4 is incorrectly matched. Incorrect Solution: A Barak 8, also known as LR-SAM or MR-SAM, is an Indo-Israeli jointly developed surface-to-air missile system, designed to defend against any type of airborne threat including aircraft, helicopters, anti-ship missiles, and UAVs as well as ballistic missiles, cruise missiles and combat jets. Hence, pair 1 is incorrectly matched Trishul is a low-level quick-reaction short range surface-to-air missile developed in India by Defence Research and Development Organisation as part of the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched The BrahMos is a medium-range ramjet supersonic cruise missile that can be launched from submarines, ships, fighter aircraft or TEL. It is a joint venture between the Indian Defence Research and Development Organisation and the Russian Federation’s NPO Mashinostroyeniya, who together have formed BrahMos Aerospace. Hence, pair 3 is incorrectly matched Nirbhay is a long range, all-weather, subsonic Cruise Missile designed and developed in India by the Aeronautical Development Establishment which is under Defence Research and Development Organisation. The missile can be Launched from Multiple Platforms and is capable of carrying conventional and nuclear warheads. Hence, pair 4 is incorrectly matched.

#### 15. Question

Consider the following pairs:

• Barak 8 – Surface-to-surface missile

• Trishul – Surface-to-air missiles

• BrahMos – Subsonic cruise missile

• Nirbhay – Supersonic cruise missile

How many of the above pairs are matched correctly?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: A

Barak 8, also known as LR-SAM or MR-SAM, is an Indo-Israeli jointly developed surface-to-air missile system, designed to defend against any type of airborne threat including aircraft, helicopters, anti-ship missiles, and UAVs as well as ballistic missiles, cruise missiles and combat jets.

Hence, pair 1 is incorrectly matched

Trishul is a low-level quick-reaction short range surface-to-air missile developed in India by Defence Research and Development Organisation as part of the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme.

Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched

The BrahMos is a medium-range ramjet supersonic cruise missile that can be launched from submarines, ships, fighter aircraft or TEL. It is a joint venture between the Indian Defence Research and Development Organisation and the Russian Federation’s NPO Mashinostroyeniya, who together have formed BrahMos Aerospace.

Hence, pair 3 is incorrectly matched

Nirbhay is a long range, all-weather, subsonic Cruise Missile designed and developed in India by the Aeronautical Development Establishment which is under Defence Research and Development Organisation. The missile can be Launched from Multiple Platforms and is capable of carrying conventional and nuclear warheads.

Hence, pair 4 is incorrectly matched.

Solution: A

Hence, pair 1 is incorrectly matched

Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched

Hence, pair 3 is incorrectly matched

Hence, pair 4 is incorrectly matched.

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The potential applications of photonic crystals include the range from gas sensing to optical filters and inkless printing to reflective flat displays. Statement-II: Photonic crystals are highly ordered materials with modulated dielectric constant with properties of controlling the propagation of light. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-l is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Answer: A Explanation: Statement-I is correct: Because of the unique characteristics, the potential applications of photonic crystals are highly prospective, ranging from gas sensing to optical filters, photonic papers, inkless printing, and reflective flat displays. Statement-II is correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I: Photonic crystals are highly ordered materials that possess a periodically modulated dielectric constant, with the properties of confining and controlling the propagation of light owing to the existence of photonic band gap, a band of frequencies in which light propagation in the photonic crystal is forbidden. Therefore, photonic crystals are also known as photonic band gap materials. Photonic crystals have been the subject of numerous investigations since the original work of Yablonoviteh (1987) and John (1987). Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Statement-I is correct: Because of the unique characteristics, the potential applications of photonic crystals are highly prospective, ranging from gas sensing to optical filters, photonic papers, inkless printing, and reflective flat displays. Statement-II is correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I: Photonic crystals are highly ordered materials that possess a periodically modulated dielectric constant, with the properties of confining and controlling the propagation of light owing to the existence of photonic band gap, a band of frequencies in which light propagation in the photonic crystal is forbidden. Therefore, photonic crystals are also known as photonic band gap materials. Photonic crystals have been the subject of numerous investigations since the original work of Yablonoviteh (1987) and John (1987).

#### 16. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:

The potential applications of photonic crystals include the range from gas sensing to optical filters and inkless printing to reflective flat displays.

Statement-II:

Photonic crystals are highly ordered materials with modulated dielectric constant with properties of controlling the propagation of light.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-l is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement-I is correct: Because of the unique characteristics, the potential applications of photonic crystals are highly prospective, ranging from gas sensing to optical filters, photonic papers, inkless printing, and reflective flat displays.

Statement-II is correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I: Photonic crystals are highly ordered materials that possess a periodically modulated dielectric constant, with the properties of confining and controlling the propagation of light owing to the existence of photonic band gap, a band of frequencies in which light propagation in the photonic crystal is forbidden.

Therefore, photonic crystals are also known as photonic band gap materials. Photonic crystals have been the subject of numerous investigations since the original work of Yablonoviteh (1987) and John (1987).

Answer: A

Explanation:

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Default Bail: It is a right to bail that accrues when the police fail to complete investigation within a specified period in respect of a person in judicial custody. It is not enshrined in the Code of Criminal Procedure and hence it cannot be claimed as a statutory right regardless of the nature of the crime. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Default bail also known as statutory bail, this is a right to bail that accrues when the police fail to complete investigation within a specified period in respect of a person in judicial custody. Statement 2 is not correct: This is enshrined in Section 167(2) of the Code of Criminal Procedure where it is not possible for the police to complete an investigation in 24 hours, the police produce the suspect in court and seek orders for either police or judicial custody. This section concerns the total period up to which a person may be remanded in custody prior to filing of charge sheet. Default or statutory bail is a right, regardless of the nature of the crime. The stipulated period within which the charge sheet has to be filed begins from the day the accused is remanded for the first time. It includes days undergone in both police and judicial custody, but not days spent in house-arrest. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Default bail also known as statutory bail, this is a right to bail that accrues when the police fail to complete investigation within a specified period in respect of a person in judicial custody. Statement 2 is not correct: This is enshrined in Section 167(2) of the Code of Criminal Procedure where it is not possible for the police to complete an investigation in 24 hours, the police produce the suspect in court and seek orders for either police or judicial custody. This section concerns the total period up to which a person may be remanded in custody prior to filing of charge sheet. Default or statutory bail is a right, regardless of the nature of the crime. The stipulated period within which the charge sheet has to be filed begins from the day the accused is remanded for the first time. It includes days undergone in both police and judicial custody, but not days spent in house-arrest.

#### 17. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Default Bail:

• It is a right to bail that accrues when the police fail to complete investigation within a specified period in respect of a person in judicial custody.

• It is not enshrined in the Code of Criminal Procedure and hence it cannot be claimed as a statutory right regardless of the nature of the crime.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Default bail also known as statutory bail, this is a right to bail that accrues when the police fail to complete investigation within a specified period in respect of a person in judicial custody.

Statement 2 is not correct: This is enshrined in Section 167(2) of the Code of Criminal Procedure where it is not possible for the police to complete an investigation in 24 hours, the police produce the suspect in court and seek orders for either police or judicial custody.

This section concerns the total period up to which a person may be remanded in custody prior to filing of charge sheet.

Default or statutory bail is a right, regardless of the nature of the crime. The stipulated period within which the charge sheet has to be filed begins from the day the accused is remanded for the first time.

It includes days undergone in both police and judicial custody, but not days spent in house-arrest.

Answer: A

Explanation:

This section concerns the total period up to which a person may be remanded in custody prior to filing of charge sheet.

It includes days undergone in both police and judicial custody, but not days spent in house-arrest.

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points With reference to the Solid-State Batteries, consider the following statements: They use liquid electrolytes which have separators that keep the positive electrode from coming in contact with the negative electrode. They can hold more energy than liquid lithium-ion batteries, enabling an easy switch from gasoline vehicles to Electric vehicles. They are more stable than lithium-ion batteries in which the electrolyte is volatile and flammable at high temperatures. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: Solid-state batteries use thin layers of solid electrolytes, which carry lithium ions between electrodes. Lithium-ion (li-ion) batteries use liquid electrolytes and have separators that keep the positive electrode from coming in contact with the negative electrode. Statement 2 is correct: They can hold more energy than liquid li-ion batteries, helping speed up a switch from gasoline vehicles to EVs because drivers would not need to stop as often to charge their cars. Statement 3 is correct: They are likely to be safer and more stable than liquid lithium-ion batteries in which the electrolyte is volatile and flammable at high temperatures. This makes electric vehicles that use li-ion batteries more vulnerable to fires and chemical leaks. Currently, solid-state batteries are used in devices such as pacemakers and smart watches. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: Solid-state batteries use thin layers of solid electrolytes, which carry lithium ions between electrodes. Lithium-ion (li-ion) batteries use liquid electrolytes and have separators that keep the positive electrode from coming in contact with the negative electrode. Statement 2 is correct: They can hold more energy than liquid li-ion batteries, helping speed up a switch from gasoline vehicles to EVs because drivers would not need to stop as often to charge their cars. Statement 3 is correct: They are likely to be safer and more stable than liquid lithium-ion batteries in which the electrolyte is volatile and flammable at high temperatures. This makes electric vehicles that use li-ion batteries more vulnerable to fires and chemical leaks. Currently, solid-state batteries are used in devices such as pacemakers and smart watches.

#### 18. Question

With reference to the Solid-State Batteries, consider the following statements:

• They use liquid electrolytes which have separators that keep the positive electrode from coming in contact with the negative electrode.

• They can hold more energy than liquid lithium-ion batteries, enabling an easy switch from gasoline vehicles to Electric vehicles.

• They are more stable than lithium-ion batteries in which the electrolyte is volatile and flammable at high temperatures.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: Solid-state batteries use thin layers of solid electrolytes, which carry lithium ions between electrodes.

Lithium-ion (li-ion) batteries use liquid electrolytes and have separators that keep the positive electrode from coming in contact with the negative electrode.

Statement 2 is correct: They can hold more energy than liquid li-ion batteries, helping speed up a switch from gasoline vehicles to EVs because drivers would not need to stop as often to charge their cars.

Statement 3 is correct: They are likely to be safer and more stable than liquid lithium-ion batteries in which the electrolyte is volatile and flammable at high temperatures.

This makes electric vehicles that use li-ion batteries more vulnerable to fires and chemical leaks. Currently, solid-state batteries are used in devices such as pacemakers and smart watches.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: Solid-state batteries use thin layers of solid electrolytes, which carry lithium ions between electrodes.

Lithium-ion (li-ion) batteries use liquid electrolytes and have separators that keep the positive electrode from coming in contact with the negative electrode.

Statement 3 is correct: They are likely to be safer and more stable than liquid lithium-ion batteries in which the electrolyte is volatile and flammable at high temperatures.

This makes electric vehicles that use li-ion batteries more vulnerable to fires and chemical leaks. Currently, solid-state batteries are used in devices such as pacemakers and smart watches.

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points With reference to the Baltic Sea, consider the following statements: It is a part of the Atlantic Ocean situated in Northern Europe. It is bordered by Denmark and Sweden towards the west. Its coastline is shared by Germany and Russia. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Baltic Sea is part of the North Atlantic Ocean, situated in Northern Europe. Statement 2 is correct: The Baltic countries share the southeast coastline while the North European Plains are on the southwest. Denmark and Sweden border the sea to the west, while Finland is on the northeast. Statement 3 is correct: It has a coastline of approximately 8,000 km, shared by several countries, including Sweden, Poland, Lithuania, Latvia, Finland, Estonia, Germany, Denmark, and Russia. It drains into the Kattegat via the Danish Strait. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Baltic Sea is part of the North Atlantic Ocean, situated in Northern Europe. Statement 2 is correct: The Baltic countries share the southeast coastline while the North European Plains are on the southwest. Denmark and Sweden border the sea to the west, while Finland is on the northeast. Statement 3 is correct: It has a coastline of approximately 8,000 km, shared by several countries, including Sweden, Poland, Lithuania, Latvia, Finland, Estonia, Germany, Denmark, and Russia. It drains into the Kattegat via the Danish Strait.

#### 19. Question

With reference to the Baltic Sea, consider the following statements:

• It is a part of the Atlantic Ocean situated in Northern Europe.

• It is bordered by Denmark and Sweden towards the west.

• Its coastline is shared by Germany and Russia.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Baltic Sea is part of the North Atlantic Ocean, situated in Northern Europe.

Statement 2 is correct: The Baltic countries share the southeast coastline while the North European Plains are on the southwest. Denmark and Sweden border the sea to the west, while Finland is on the northeast.

Statement 3 is correct: It has a coastline of approximately 8,000 km, shared by several countries, including Sweden, Poland, Lithuania, Latvia, Finland, Estonia, Germany, Denmark, and Russia.

It drains into the Kattegat via the Danish Strait.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Baltic Sea is part of the North Atlantic Ocean, situated in Northern Europe.

Statement 3 is correct: It has a coastline of approximately 8,000 km, shared by several countries, including Sweden, Poland, Lithuania, Latvia, Finland, Estonia, Germany, Denmark, and Russia.

It drains into the Kattegat via the Danish Strait.

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Kudavolai System of voting process is a precursor of modern constitutional democracy which originated during the Chola Period. The Panchayat System flourished under the Cholas’ Reign and the Uttaramerur inscriptions have mentioned about the Kudavolai process. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Kudavolai System of voting Process is a precursor of today’s Constitutional democracy dates back to Chola Period (900 CE) of Tami Nadu. The Chola administration was functioning on the principles of democracy and the panchayat system flourished during their reign. Statement 2 is correct: Uttaramerur inscriptions talk about Kudavolai system which is very notable and unique feature of the village administration of the Chola Dynasty at the Tamil Nadu. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Kudavolai System of voting Process is a precursor of today’s Constitutional democracy dates back to Chola Period (900 CE) of Tami Nadu. The Chola administration was functioning on the principles of democracy and the panchayat system flourished during their reign. Statement 2 is correct: Uttaramerur inscriptions talk about Kudavolai system which is very notable and unique feature of the village administration of the Chola Dynasty at the Tamil Nadu.

#### 20. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Kudavolai System of voting process is a precursor of modern constitutional democracy which originated during the Chola Period.

• The Panchayat System flourished under the Cholas’ Reign and the Uttaramerur inscriptions have mentioned about the Kudavolai process.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Kudavolai System of voting Process is a precursor of today’s Constitutional democracy dates back to Chola Period (900 CE) of Tami Nadu.

The Chola administration was functioning on the principles of democracy and the panchayat system flourished during their reign.

Statement 2 is correct: Uttaramerur inscriptions talk about Kudavolai system which is very notable and unique feature of the village administration of the Chola Dynasty at the Tamil Nadu.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Kudavolai System of voting Process is a precursor of today’s Constitutional democracy dates back to Chola Period (900 CE) of Tami Nadu.

The Chola administration was functioning on the principles of democracy and the panchayat system flourished during their reign.

Statement 2 is correct: Uttaramerur inscriptions talk about Kudavolai system which is very notable and unique feature of the village administration of the Chola Dynasty at the Tamil Nadu.

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points A recent report of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) highlights financial challenges faced by Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs). Consider the following about it. Nearly 95% of Panchayats’ revenues come in the form of grants from higher government levels, limiting their financial autonomy Revenue expenditure of panchayats is less than 1% of the gross state domestic product for all states. Revenue through local tax collection by panchayats forms a majority of their total revenue. How many of the above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: b) Learning: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/02/CA-30-JAN-2024-MONTHLY.pdf Incorrect Solution: b) Learning: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/02/CA-30-JAN-2024-MONTHLY.pdf

#### 21. Question

A recent report of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) highlights financial challenges faced by Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs). Consider the following about it.

• Nearly 95% of Panchayats’ revenues come in the form of grants from higher government levels, limiting their financial autonomy

• Revenue expenditure of panchayats is less than 1% of the gross state domestic product for all states.

• Revenue through local tax collection by panchayats forms a majority of their total revenue.

How many of the above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: b)

Learning:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/02/CA-30-JAN-2024-MONTHLY.pdf

Solution: b)

Learning:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/02/CA-30-JAN-2024-MONTHLY.pdf

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Consider the following about the Panchayat Empowerment and Accountability Incentive Scheme (PEAIS). It is a Central Sector Plan Scheme and 100% centrally funded. It aims at incentivizing states for devolving funds, functions and functionaries (3Fs) to Panchayats. Under PEAIS, state governments/UTs are ranked on a Devolution Index which measures the extent to which they have empowered panchayats. How many of the above are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: c) Justification: Panchayat Empowerment and Accountability Incentive Scheme (PEAIS) is a Central Sector Plan Scheme aimed at (i) incentivization of States for devolving funds, functions and functionaries (3Fs) to Panchayats and (ii) incentivization of Panchayats to put in place accountability systems to make their functioning transparent and efficient. The scheme is 100% centrally funded. Under PEAIS, State Governments/UTs are ranked on a Devolution Index which measures the extent of devolution of 3Fs by States to Panchayats. States are ranked on the DI through a study conducted by an independent organization. Since 2011-12, best performing Panchayats in the country have also been incentivized. Read more here https://pib.gov.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=93829 Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/02/CA-30-JAN-2024-MONTHLY.pdf Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: Panchayat Empowerment and Accountability Incentive Scheme (PEAIS) is a Central Sector Plan Scheme aimed at (i) incentivization of States for devolving funds, functions and functionaries (3Fs) to Panchayats and (ii) incentivization of Panchayats to put in place accountability systems to make their functioning transparent and efficient. The scheme is 100% centrally funded. Under PEAIS, State Governments/UTs are ranked on a Devolution Index which measures the extent of devolution of 3Fs by States to Panchayats. States are ranked on the DI through a study conducted by an independent organization. Since 2011-12, best performing Panchayats in the country have also been incentivized. Read more here https://pib.gov.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=93829 Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/02/CA-30-JAN-2024-MONTHLY.pdf

#### 22. Question

Consider the following about the Panchayat Empowerment and Accountability Incentive Scheme (PEAIS).

• It is a Central Sector Plan Scheme and 100% centrally funded.

• It aims at incentivizing states for devolving funds, functions and functionaries (3Fs) to Panchayats.

• Under PEAIS, state governments/UTs are ranked on a Devolution Index which measures the extent to which they have empowered panchayats.

How many of the above are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: c)

Justification: Panchayat Empowerment and Accountability Incentive Scheme (PEAIS) is a Central Sector Plan Scheme aimed at (i) incentivization of States for devolving funds, functions and functionaries (3Fs) to Panchayats and (ii) incentivization of Panchayats to put in place accountability systems to make their functioning transparent and efficient. The scheme is 100% centrally funded.

Under PEAIS, State Governments/UTs are ranked on a Devolution Index which measures the extent of devolution of 3Fs by States to Panchayats. States are ranked on the DI through a study conducted by an independent organization. Since 2011-12, best performing Panchayats in the country have also been incentivized.

Read more here https://pib.gov.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=93829

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/02/CA-30-JAN-2024-MONTHLY.pdf

Solution: c)

Read more here https://pib.gov.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=93829

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/02/CA-30-JAN-2024-MONTHLY.pdf

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Before the enactment of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), insolvency cases were primarily settled in a) Lok Adalats b) Debt Recovery Tribunals c) High Courts d) both (a) and (b) Correct Solution: d) Justification: The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), enacted in 2016, is a comprehensive legal framework in India that re- placed existing laws related to insolvency and bankruptcy. It provides a uniform procedure for resolving financial distress, addressing Non-performing Assets (NPAs), and managing debt defaults. The primary goal of the IBC is to streamline and expedite the resolution of insolvency and bankruptcy disputes in a time-bound manner. The IBC has initiated a cultural shift in the dynamics between lender and borrower, promoter and creditor. It played a critical role in reshaping the behaviour of borrowers. a. Before the enactment of the IBC, the recovery mechanisms available to lenders were through Lok Adalat, the Debt Recovery Tribunal and the SARFAESI Act. While the earlier mechanisms resulted in a low average recovery of 23%, the recoveries have risen to 43% under the IBC regime. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/02/CA-30-JAN-2024-MONTHLY.pdf Incorrect Solution: d) Justification: The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), enacted in 2016, is a comprehensive legal framework in India that re- placed existing laws related to insolvency and bankruptcy. It provides a uniform procedure for resolving financial distress, addressing Non-performing Assets (NPAs), and managing debt defaults. The primary goal of the IBC is to streamline and expedite the resolution of insolvency and bankruptcy disputes in a time-bound manner. The IBC has initiated a cultural shift in the dynamics between lender and borrower, promoter and creditor. It played a critical role in reshaping the behaviour of borrowers. a. Before the enactment of the IBC, the recovery mechanisms available to lenders were through Lok Adalat, the Debt Recovery Tribunal and the SARFAESI Act. While the earlier mechanisms resulted in a low average recovery of 23%, the recoveries have risen to 43% under the IBC regime. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/02/CA-30-JAN-2024-MONTHLY.pdf

#### 23. Question

Before the enactment of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), insolvency cases were primarily settled in

• a) Lok Adalats

• b) Debt Recovery Tribunals

• c) High Courts

• d) both (a) and (b)

Solution: d)

Justification: The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), enacted in 2016, is a comprehensive legal framework in India that re- placed existing laws related to insolvency and bankruptcy. It provides a uniform procedure for resolving financial distress, addressing Non-performing Assets (NPAs), and managing debt defaults. The primary goal of the IBC is to streamline and expedite the resolution of insolvency and bankruptcy disputes in a time-bound manner.

The IBC has initiated a cultural shift in the dynamics between lender and borrower, promoter and creditor. It played a critical role in reshaping the behaviour of borrowers. a. Before the enactment of the IBC, the recovery mechanisms available to lenders were through Lok Adalat, the Debt Recovery Tribunal and the SARFAESI Act.

While the earlier mechanisms resulted in a low average recovery of 23%, the recoveries have risen to 43% under the IBC regime.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/02/CA-30-JAN-2024-MONTHLY.pdf

Solution: d)

While the earlier mechanisms resulted in a low average recovery of 23%, the recoveries have risen to 43% under the IBC regime.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/02/CA-30-JAN-2024-MONTHLY.pdf

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points The Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay SanraksHan Abhiyan (PM-AASHA) is an umbrella scheme aimed at ensuring remunerative prices to the farmers for their produce. It ensures this via Physical procurement of pulses and oilseeds by Central Nodal Agencies with proactive role of State governments Direct payment of the difference between the MSP and the selling/modal price of the crops involved, to pre-registered farmers selling their produce in the notified market yard through a transparent auction process Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: c) Justification: The new Umbrella Scheme includes the mechanism of ensuring remunerative prices to the farmers and is comprised of Price Support Scheme (PSS) – In Price Support Scheme (PSS), physical procurement of pulses, oilseeds and Copra will be done by Central Nodal Agencies with proactive role of State governments. It is also decided that in addition to NAFED, Food Cooperation of India (FCI) will take up PSS operations in states /districts. The procurement expenditure and losses due to procurement will be borne by Central Government as per norms. To read the complete guidelines, click here. Price Deficiency Payment Scheme (PDPS)- Under Price Deficiency Payment Scheme this scheme (PDPS), it is proposed to cover all oilseeds for which MSP is notified. In this direct payment of the difference between the MSP and the selling/modal price will be made to pre-registered farmers selling his produce in the notified market yard through a transparent auction process. All payment will be done directly into registered bank account of the farmer. This scheme does not involve any physical procurement of crops as farmers are paid the difference between the MSP price and Sale/modal price on disposal in notified market. The support of central government for PDPS will be given as per norms. Pilot of Private Procurement & Stockist Scheme (PPPS): It has also been decided that participation of private sector in procurement operation needs to piloted so that on the basis of learnings the ambit of private participation in procurement operations may be increased. Therefore in addition to PDPS, it has been decided that for oilseeds, states have the option to roll out Private Procurement Stockist Scheme (PPSS) on pilot basis in selected district/APMC(s) of district involving the participation of private stockiest. The pilot district/selected APMC(s) of district will cover one or more crop of oilseeds for which MSP is notified. Since this is akin to PSS, in that in involves physical procurement of the notified commodity, it shall substitute PSS/PDPS in the pilot districts. The selected private agency shall procure the commodity at MSP in the notified markets during the notified period from the registered farmers in consonance with the PPSS Guidelines, whenever the prices in the market fall below the notified MSP and whenever authorized by the state/UT government to enter the market and maximum service charges up to 15% of the notified MSP will be payable. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf https://vikaspedia.in/agriculture/policies-and-schemes/crops-related/pradhan-mantri-annadata-aay-sanrakshan-abhiyan# Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: The new Umbrella Scheme includes the mechanism of ensuring remunerative prices to the farmers and is comprised of Price Support Scheme (PSS) – In Price Support Scheme (PSS), physical procurement of pulses, oilseeds and Copra will be done by Central Nodal Agencies with proactive role of State governments. It is also decided that in addition to NAFED, Food Cooperation of India (FCI) will take up PSS operations in states /districts. The procurement expenditure and losses due to procurement will be borne by Central Government as per norms. To read the complete guidelines, click here. Price Deficiency Payment Scheme (PDPS)- Under Price Deficiency Payment Scheme this scheme (PDPS), it is proposed to cover all oilseeds for which MSP is notified. In this direct payment of the difference between the MSP and the selling/modal price will be made to pre-registered farmers selling his produce in the notified market yard through a transparent auction process. All payment will be done directly into registered bank account of the farmer. This scheme does not involve any physical procurement of crops as farmers are paid the difference between the MSP price and Sale/modal price on disposal in notified market. The support of central government for PDPS will be given as per norms. Pilot of Private Procurement & Stockist Scheme (PPPS): It has also been decided that participation of private sector in procurement operation needs to piloted so that on the basis of learnings the ambit of private participation in procurement operations may be increased. Therefore in addition to PDPS, it has been decided that for oilseeds, states have the option to roll out Private Procurement Stockist Scheme (PPSS) on pilot basis in selected district/APMC(s) of district involving the participation of private stockiest. The pilot district/selected APMC(s) of district will cover one or more crop of oilseeds for which MSP is notified. Since this is akin to PSS, in that in involves physical procurement of the notified commodity, it shall substitute PSS/PDPS in the pilot districts. The selected private agency shall procure the commodity at MSP in the notified markets during the notified period from the registered farmers in consonance with the PPSS Guidelines, whenever the prices in the market fall below the notified MSP and whenever authorized by the state/UT government to enter the market and maximum service charges up to 15% of the notified MSP will be payable. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf https://vikaspedia.in/agriculture/policies-and-schemes/crops-related/pradhan-mantri-annadata-aay-sanrakshan-abhiyan#

#### 24. Question

The Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay SanraksHan Abhiyan (PM-AASHA) is an umbrella scheme aimed at ensuring remunerative prices to the farmers for their produce. It ensures this via

• Physical procurement of pulses and oilseeds by Central Nodal Agencies with proactive role of State governments

• Direct payment of the difference between the MSP and the selling/modal price of the crops involved, to pre-registered farmers selling their produce in the notified market yard through a transparent auction process

Which of the above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c)

Justification: The new Umbrella Scheme includes the mechanism of ensuring remunerative prices to the farmers and is comprised of

• Price Support Scheme (PSS) – In Price Support Scheme (PSS), physical procurement of pulses, oilseeds and Copra will be done by Central Nodal Agencies with proactive role of State governments. It is also decided that in addition to NAFED, Food Cooperation of India (FCI) will take up PSS operations in states /districts. The procurement expenditure and losses due to procurement will be borne by Central Government as per norms. To read the complete guidelines, click here.

• Price Deficiency Payment Scheme (PDPS)- Under Price Deficiency Payment Scheme this scheme (PDPS), it is proposed to cover all oilseeds for which MSP is notified. In this direct payment of the difference between the MSP and the selling/modal price will be made to pre-registered farmers selling his produce in the notified market yard through a transparent auction process. All payment will be done directly into registered bank account of the farmer. This scheme does not involve any physical procurement of crops as farmers are paid the difference between the MSP price and Sale/modal price on disposal in notified market. The support of central government for PDPS will be given as per norms.

• Pilot of Private Procurement & Stockist Scheme (PPPS): It has also been decided that participation of private sector in procurement operation needs to piloted so that on the basis of learnings the ambit of private participation in procurement operations may be increased.

Therefore in addition to PDPS, it has been decided that for oilseeds, states have the option to roll out Private Procurement Stockist Scheme (PPSS) on pilot basis in selected district/APMC(s) of district involving the participation of private stockiest. The pilot district/selected APMC(s) of district will cover one or more crop of oilseeds for which MSP is notified. Since this is akin to PSS, in that in involves physical procurement of the notified commodity, it shall substitute PSS/PDPS in the pilot districts.

The selected private agency shall procure the commodity at MSP in the notified markets during the notified period from the registered farmers in consonance with the PPSS Guidelines, whenever the prices in the market fall below the notified MSP and whenever authorized by the state/UT government to enter the market and maximum service charges up to 15% of the notified MSP will be payable.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

https://vikaspedia.in/agriculture/policies-and-schemes/crops-related/pradhan-mantri-annadata-aay-sanrakshan-abhiyan#

Solution: c)

Justification: The new Umbrella Scheme includes the mechanism of ensuring remunerative prices to the farmers and is comprised of

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

https://vikaspedia.in/agriculture/policies-and-schemes/crops-related/pradhan-mantri-annadata-aay-sanrakshan-abhiyan#

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Which of the following are considered as initiatives towards Climate-Smart Agriculture? Zero tillage Permaculture Organic farming How many of the above are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: c) Justification: Climate-Smart Agriculture, is an approach that in- corporates a set of agricultural practices and technologies. Its goals are to boost productivity (e.g., precision farming, smart crops), enhance resilience (e.g., zero budget natural farming, agroforestry), and reduce greenhouse gas emissions (e.g., zero tillage, permaculture, organic farming). Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: Climate-Smart Agriculture, is an approach that in- corporates a set of agricultural practices and technologies. Its goals are to boost productivity (e.g., precision farming, smart crops), enhance resilience (e.g., zero budget natural farming, agroforestry), and reduce greenhouse gas emissions (e.g., zero tillage, permaculture, organic farming). Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

#### 25. Question

Which of the following are considered as initiatives towards Climate-Smart Agriculture?

• Zero tillage

• Permaculture

• Organic farming

How many of the above are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: c)

Justification: Climate-Smart Agriculture, is an approach that in- corporates a set of agricultural practices and technologies.

Its goals are to boost productivity (e.g., precision farming, smart crops), enhance resilience (e.g., zero budget natural farming, agroforestry), and reduce greenhouse gas emissions (e.g., zero tillage, permaculture, organic farming).

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Solution: c)

Justification: Climate-Smart Agriculture, is an approach that in- corporates a set of agricultural practices and technologies.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points Intensive agriculture has succeeded in feeding many starving sections but its dependence on singular crops, heavy ploughing machinery, fossil-fuel based fertilizers and pesticides is degrading our soils wildlife and nutrient cycles, and contributing a quarter of the planet’s unwanted extra heat. Nature and technological innovation are tackling these problems head on — and if the solutions they’re offering are incorporated on a large scale and used together, a new agricultural revolution could be on its way. Farming that mimics the interactions and cycles of plants, animals and nutrients in the natural world — as a path to sustainable food. In this livestock can also be integrated with crops. This may seem counter-intuitive given the livestock sector being inefficient land user and high emitter. But the truth is, grassland captures Carbon dioxide , then animals eat the grass, and then return that carbon to the soil as excrement. The nutrients in the excrement and the continuous grazing of grass both help new grass roots to grow, increasing the capacity of the land to capture carbon. On the basis of above passage following assumptions have been made: Humans are disempowered in handling the unsustainable aspects of agriculture Having a small number of animals grazing land doesn’t have to accelerate global heating Which of the above assumptions is/are valid? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 & 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: B Passage tells how technology can help us overcome agricultural issues, so we are not disempowered, we are rather empowered, so 1 is wrong. Since passage is not against livestock usage, as far as it is sustainable, 2 is correct. So B is answer. Incorrect Answer: B Passage tells how technology can help us overcome agricultural issues, so we are not disempowered, we are rather empowered, so 1 is wrong. Since passage is not against livestock usage, as far as it is sustainable, 2 is correct. So B is answer.

#### 26. Question

Intensive agriculture has succeeded in feeding many starving sections but its dependence on singular crops, heavy ploughing machinery, fossil-fuel based fertilizers and pesticides is degrading our soils wildlife and nutrient cycles, and contributing a quarter of the planet’s unwanted extra heat. Nature and technological innovation are tackling these problems head on — and if the solutions they’re offering are incorporated on a large scale and used together, a new agricultural revolution could be on its way. Farming that mimics the interactions and cycles of plants, animals and nutrients in the natural world — as a path to sustainable food. In this livestock can also be integrated with crops. This may seem counter-intuitive given the livestock sector being inefficient land user and high emitter. But the truth is, grassland captures Carbon dioxide , then animals eat the grass, and then return that carbon to the soil as excrement. The nutrients in the excrement and the continuous grazing of grass both help new grass roots to grow, increasing the capacity of the land to capture carbon.

On the basis of above passage following assumptions have been made:

• Humans are disempowered in handling the unsustainable aspects of agriculture

• Having a small number of animals grazing land doesn’t have to accelerate global heating

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

• C. Both 1 & 2

• D. Neither 1 nor 2

Passage tells how technology can help us overcome agricultural issues, so we are not disempowered, we are rather empowered, so 1 is wrong.

Since passage is not against livestock usage, as far as it is sustainable, 2 is correct. So B is answer.

Passage tells how technology can help us overcome agricultural issues, so we are not disempowered, we are rather empowered, so 1 is wrong.

Since passage is not against livestock usage, as far as it is sustainable, 2 is correct. So B is answer.

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points Intensive agriculture has succeeded in feeding many starving sections but its dependence on singular crops, heavy ploughing machinery, fossil-fuel based fertilizers and pesticides is degrading our soils wildlife and nutrient cycles, and contributing a quarter of the planet’s unwanted extra heat. Nature and technological innovation are tackling these problems head on — and if the solutions they’re offering are incorporated on a large scale and used together, a new agricultural revolution could be on its way. Farming that mimics the interactions and cycles of plants, animals and nutrients in the natural world — as a path to sustainable food. In this livestock can also be integrated with crops. This may seem counter-intuitive given the livestock sector being inefficient land user and high emitter. But the truth is, grassland captures Carbon dioxide , then animals eat the grass, and then return that carbon to the soil as excrement. The nutrients in the excrement and the continuous grazing of grass both help new grass roots to grow, increasing the capacity of the land to capture carbon. In light of the above passage, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct: Intensive agriculture may be nourishing most of the Earth’s inhabitants, but it’s doing the opposite to earth itself Right now agriculture does not do sequestration of carbon Code: A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 & 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: A Obviously, passage is against intensive commercial synthetic system of agriculture since it is degrading earth so 1 is correct. While livestock needs changes to sequester more carbon, we can’t tell there is no sequestration by agriculture. So 2 is wrong and A is answer. Incorrect Answer: A Obviously, passage is against intensive commercial synthetic system of agriculture since it is degrading earth so 1 is correct. While livestock needs changes to sequester more carbon, we can’t tell there is no sequestration by agriculture. So 2 is wrong and A is answer.

#### 27. Question

In light of the above passage, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct:

• Intensive agriculture may be nourishing most of the Earth’s inhabitants, but it’s doing the opposite to earth itself

• Right now agriculture does not do sequestration of carbon

• C. Both 1 & 2

• D. Neither 1 nor 2

Obviously, passage is against intensive commercial synthetic system of agriculture since it is degrading earth so 1 is correct. While livestock needs changes to sequester more carbon, we can’t tell there is no sequestration by agriculture. So 2 is wrong and A is answer.

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points In how many ways 11 identical toys be placed in 3 distinct boxes such that no box is empty? a) 72 b) 54 c) 45 d) 36 Correct Answer C) 45 This is nothing but the number of ways of having a, b, c such that a + b + c = 11, where a, b, c are natural numbers. By having them to be natural numbers, we ensure that no box can be empty. (no zeroes) The question is similar to the previous one. 10C2 = 45 ways Hence the answer is “45” Choice C is the correct answer. Incorrect Answer C) 45 This is nothing but the number of ways of having a, b, c such that a + b + c = 11, where a, b, c are natural numbers. By having them to be natural numbers, we ensure that no box can be empty. (no zeroes) The question is similar to the previous one. 10C2 = 45 ways Hence the answer is “45” Choice C is the correct answer.

#### 28. Question

In how many ways 11 identical toys be placed in 3 distinct boxes such that no box is empty?

Answer C) 45

This is nothing but the number of ways of having a, b, c such that a + b + c = 11, where a, b, c are natural numbers. By having them to be natural numbers, we ensure that no box can be empty. (no zeroes)

The question is similar to the previous one. 10C2 = 45 ways

Hence the answer is “45”

Choice C is the correct answer.

Answer C) 45

The question is similar to the previous one. 10C2 = 45 ways

Hence the answer is “45”

Choice C is the correct answer.

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points The names of 5 students from section A, 6 students from section B and 7 students from section C were selected. The age of all the 18 students were different. Again, one name was selected from them and it was found that it was of section B. What was the probability that it was the youngest student of section B? A. 1/18 B. 1/15 C. 1/6 D. 1/12 Correct Answer C) 1/6 The total number of students = 18 When 1 name was selected from 18 names, the probability that he was of section B = 6/18 = 1/ 3 But from the question, there are 6 students from the section B and the age of all 6 are different therefore, the probability of selecting one i.e. youngest student from 6 students will be 1/6 Hence, option C is correct. Incorrect Answer C) 1/6 The total number of students = 18 When 1 name was selected from 18 names, the probability that he was of section B = 6/18 = 1/ 3 But from the question, there are 6 students from the section B and the age of all 6 are different therefore, the probability of selecting one i.e. youngest student from 6 students will be 1/6 Hence, option C is correct.

#### 29. Question

The names of 5 students from section A, 6 students from section B and 7 students from section C were selected. The age of all the 18 students were different. Again, one name was selected from them and it was found that it was of section B. What was the probability that it was the youngest student of section B?

Answer C) 1/6

The total number of students = 18

When 1 name was selected from 18 names, the probability that he was of section B

= 6/18 = 1/ 3

But from the question, there are 6 students from the section B and the age of all 6 are different

therefore, the probability of selecting one i.e. youngest student from 6 students will be 1/6

Hence, option C is correct.

Answer C) 1/6

The total number of students = 18

When 1 name was selected from 18 names, the probability that he was of section B

= 6/18 = 1/ 3

But from the question, there are 6 students from the section B and the age of all 6 are different

therefore, the probability of selecting one i.e. youngest student from 6 students will be 1/6

Hence, option C is correct.

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points a, b, c are three distinct integers from 2 to 10 (both inclusive). Exactly one of ab, bc and ca is odd. abc is a multiple of 4. The arithmetic mean of a and b is an integer and so is the arithmetic mean of a, b and c. How many such triplets are possible (unordered triplets)? a) 8 b) 6 c) 2 d) 4 Correct Answer D) 4 Exactly one of ab, bc and ca is odd => Two are odd and one is even. abc is a multiple of 4 => the even number is a multiple of 4. The arithmetic mean of a and b is an integer => a and b are odd. and so is the arithmetic mean of a, b and c. => a + b + c is a multiple of 3. c can be 4 or 8. c = 4; a, b can be 3, 5 or 5, 9 c = 8; a, b can be 3, 7 or 7, 9 Four triplets are possible. Hence the answer is “4” Choice D is the correct answer. Incorrect Answer D) 4 Exactly one of ab, bc and ca is odd => Two are odd and one is even. abc is a multiple of 4 => the even number is a multiple of 4. The arithmetic mean of a and b is an integer => a and b are odd. and so is the arithmetic mean of a, b and c. => a + b + c is a multiple of 3. c can be 4 or 8. c = 4; a, b can be 3, 5 or 5, 9 c = 8; a, b can be 3, 7 or 7, 9 Four triplets are possible. Hence the answer is “4” Choice D is the correct answer.

#### 30. Question

a, b, c are three distinct integers from 2 to 10 (both inclusive). Exactly one of ab, bc and ca is odd. abc is a multiple of 4. The arithmetic mean of a and b is an integer and so is the arithmetic mean of a, b and c. How many such triplets are possible (unordered triplets)?

Answer D) 4

Exactly one of ab, bc and ca is odd => Two are odd and one is even.

abc is a multiple of 4 => the even number is a multiple of 4.

The arithmetic mean of a and b is an integer => a and b are odd.

and so is the arithmetic mean of a, b and c. => a + b + c is a multiple of 3.

c can be 4 or 8.

c = 4; a, b can be 3, 5 or 5, 9

c = 8; a, b can be 3, 7 or 7, 9

Four triplets are possible.

Hence the answer is “4”

Choice D is the correct answer.

Answer D) 4

Exactly one of ab, bc and ca is odd => Two are odd and one is even.

abc is a multiple of 4 => the even number is a multiple of 4.

The arithmetic mean of a and b is an integer => a and b are odd.

and so is the arithmetic mean of a, b and c. => a + b + c is a multiple of 3.

c can be 4 or 8.

c = 4; a, b can be 3, 5 or 5, 9

c = 8; a, b can be 3, 7 or 7, 9

Four triplets are possible.

Hence the answer is “4”

Choice D is the correct answer.

Join our Official Telegram Channel HERE

Please subscribe to Our podcast channel HERE

Follow our Twitter Account HERE

Follow our Instagram ID HERE