DAY – 28 : Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2025 : GOVERNMENT SCHEMES

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the ZooWIN Platform: It is a digital platform primarily focused on the real-time monitoring of wildlife populations across India. The platform specifically tracks the availability and distribution of anti-rabies vaccines and anti-snake venom stocks nationwide. It is managed by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A ZooWIN is a recently launched digital initiative by the Government of India aimed at addressing the critical health challenges posed by rabies and snakebite envenoming in the country. India faces a significant burden from these conditions, with the country accounting for approximately 36% of global rabies deaths (around 60,000 annually) and approximately 50,000 fatalities due to snakebites each year. ZooWIN is not designed to monitor wildlife populations. Instead, it is specifically created for tracking and managing vaccine and antivenom supplies. The platform focuses on healthcare delivery related to rabies and snakebite cases, not wildlife monitoring. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. ZooWIN has been developed specifically for real-time monitoring of anti-rabies vaccine (ARV), anti-rabies serum (ARS), and anti-snake venom (ASV) stocks throughout the country. It enables tracking of vaccine stocks and ensures timely administration to victims of animal bites and snake bites. Hence, statement 2 is correct. ZooWIN has been developed by the National Centre for Disease Control (NCDC) through its Centre for One Health, with technical support from the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP). It operates under the Union Health Ministry’s initiatives, not the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution: A ZooWIN is a recently launched digital initiative by the Government of India aimed at addressing the critical health challenges posed by rabies and snakebite envenoming in the country. India faces a significant burden from these conditions, with the country accounting for approximately 36% of global rabies deaths (around 60,000 annually) and approximately 50,000 fatalities due to snakebites each year. ZooWIN is not designed to monitor wildlife populations. Instead, it is specifically created for tracking and managing vaccine and antivenom supplies. The platform focuses on healthcare delivery related to rabies and snakebite cases, not wildlife monitoring. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. ZooWIN has been developed specifically for real-time monitoring of anti-rabies vaccine (ARV), anti-rabies serum (ARS), and anti-snake venom (ASV) stocks throughout the country. It enables tracking of vaccine stocks and ensures timely administration to victims of animal bites and snake bites. Hence, statement 2 is correct. ZooWIN has been developed by the National Centre for Disease Control (NCDC) through its Centre for One Health, with technical support from the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP). It operates under the Union Health Ministry’s initiatives, not the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the ZooWIN Platform:

• It is a digital platform primarily focused on the real-time monitoring of wildlife populations across India.

• The platform specifically tracks the availability and distribution of anti-rabies vaccines and anti-snake venom stocks nationwide.

• It is managed by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

ZooWIN is a recently launched digital initiative by the Government of India aimed at addressing the critical health challenges posed by rabies and snakebite envenoming in the country. India faces a significant burden from these conditions, with the country accounting for approximately 36% of global rabies deaths (around 60,000 annually) and approximately 50,000 fatalities due to snakebites each year.

ZooWIN is not designed to monitor wildlife populations. Instead, it is specifically created for tracking and managing vaccine and antivenom supplies. The platform focuses on healthcare delivery related to rabies and snakebite cases, not wildlife monitoring.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

ZooWIN has been developed specifically for real-time monitoring of anti-rabies vaccine (ARV), anti-rabies serum (ARS), and anti-snake venom (ASV) stocks throughout the country. It enables tracking of vaccine stocks and ensures timely administration to victims of animal bites and snake bites.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

ZooWIN has been developed by the National Centre for Disease Control (NCDC) through its Centre for One Health, with technical support from the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP). It operates under the Union Health Ministry’s initiatives, not the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution: A

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points The “Triple Elimination Initiative” recently seen in the news primarily aims to eliminate mother-to-child transmission of which of the following diseases? (a) HIV, Tuberculosis, and Malaria (b) HIV, Syphilis, and Hepatitis B (c) Syphilis, Hepatitis C, and Rubella (d) Hepatitis B, Rubella, and Polio Correct Solution: B The Triple Elimination Initiative represents a significant global health strategy aimed at addressing multiple infectious diseases through an integrated approach. This initiative has gained prominence in recent years as countries worldwide adopt comprehensive measures to improve maternal and child health outcomes. What is the Triple Elimination Initiative? The Triple Elimination Initiative is a strategic health program that encourages countries to simultaneously commit to eliminating mother-to-child transmission (EMTCT) of three specific infectious diseases. The initiative promotes an integrated service delivery approach that leverages existing healthcare platforms to address these diseases collectively rather than in isolation The initiative recognizes that these diseases share similar transmission routes and that linking interventions for them improves uptake and optimizes the use of limited resources, particularly in low- and middle-income countries. It represents a shift from single-disease approaches to more comprehensive maternal and child health protection strategies. Target Diseases of the Triple Elimination Initiative Triple Elimination Initiative specifically targets the mother-to-child transmission of: Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) Syphilis Hepatitis B Virus (HBV) Incorrect Solution: B The Triple Elimination Initiative represents a significant global health strategy aimed at addressing multiple infectious diseases through an integrated approach. This initiative has gained prominence in recent years as countries worldwide adopt comprehensive measures to improve maternal and child health outcomes. What is the Triple Elimination Initiative? The Triple Elimination Initiative is a strategic health program that encourages countries to simultaneously commit to eliminating mother-to-child transmission (EMTCT) of three specific infectious diseases. The initiative promotes an integrated service delivery approach that leverages existing healthcare platforms to address these diseases collectively rather than in isolation The initiative recognizes that these diseases share similar transmission routes and that linking interventions for them improves uptake and optimizes the use of limited resources, particularly in low- and middle-income countries. It represents a shift from single-disease approaches to more comprehensive maternal and child health protection strategies. Target Diseases of the Triple Elimination Initiative Triple Elimination Initiative specifically targets the mother-to-child transmission of: Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) Syphilis Hepatitis B Virus (HBV)

#### 2. Question

The “Triple Elimination Initiative” recently seen in the news primarily aims to eliminate mother-to-child transmission of which of the following diseases?

• (a) HIV, Tuberculosis, and Malaria

• (b) HIV, Syphilis, and Hepatitis B

• (c) Syphilis, Hepatitis C, and Rubella

• (d) Hepatitis B, Rubella, and Polio

Solution: B

The Triple Elimination Initiative represents a significant global health strategy aimed at addressing multiple infectious diseases through an integrated approach. This initiative has gained prominence in recent years as countries worldwide adopt comprehensive measures to improve maternal and child health outcomes.

What is the Triple Elimination Initiative?

The Triple Elimination Initiative is a strategic health program that encourages countries to simultaneously commit to eliminating mother-to-child transmission (EMTCT) of three specific infectious diseases. The initiative promotes an integrated service delivery approach that leverages existing healthcare platforms to address these diseases collectively rather than in isolation

The initiative recognizes that these diseases share similar transmission routes and that linking interventions for them improves uptake and optimizes the use of limited resources, particularly in low- and middle-income countries. It represents a shift from single-disease approaches to more comprehensive maternal and child health protection strategies.

Target Diseases of the Triple Elimination Initiative

Triple Elimination Initiative specifically targets the mother-to-child transmission of:

• Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

• Hepatitis B Virus (HBV)

Solution: B

What is the Triple Elimination Initiative?

Target Diseases of the Triple Elimination Initiative

Triple Elimination Initiative specifically targets the mother-to-child transmission of:

• Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

• Hepatitis B Virus (HBV)

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Prime Minister Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana: The scheme emphasizes crop diversification and promotion of sustainable agricultural practices. It intends to improve post-harvest storage infrastructure at the Panchayat and Block level. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Both statements are correct. The Prime Minister Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana (PMDKY) is a significant agricultural program introduced by the Government of India in the Union Budget 2025-26, announced on February 1, 2025, by Finance Minister. This initiative aims to transform agricultural practices and boost rural prosperity across the country, particularly in regions facing agricultural challenges. One of the primary objectives of PMDKY is promoting crop diversification – encouraging farmers to grow multiple crops for better income stability. The scheme also focuses on sustainable and climate-resilient agricultural practices. As mentioned in the search results, PMDKY aims to incorporate technology-driven solutions to support sustainable farming methods. PMDKY aims to strengthen post-harvest infrastructure by establishing storage and processing units specifically at the Panchayat and Block levels. This localized approach aims to reduce food wastage and help farmers receive better prices for their produce by improving accessibility to storage facilities at the grassroots level. Incorrect Solution: C Both statements are correct. The Prime Minister Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana (PMDKY) is a significant agricultural program introduced by the Government of India in the Union Budget 2025-26, announced on February 1, 2025, by Finance Minister. This initiative aims to transform agricultural practices and boost rural prosperity across the country, particularly in regions facing agricultural challenges. One of the primary objectives of PMDKY is promoting crop diversification – encouraging farmers to grow multiple crops for better income stability. The scheme also focuses on sustainable and climate-resilient agricultural practices. As mentioned in the search results, PMDKY aims to incorporate technology-driven solutions to support sustainable farming methods. PMDKY aims to strengthen post-harvest infrastructure by establishing storage and processing units specifically at the Panchayat and Block levels. This localized approach aims to reduce food wastage and help farmers receive better prices for their produce by improving accessibility to storage facilities at the grassroots level.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Prime Minister Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana:

• The scheme emphasizes crop diversification and promotion of sustainable agricultural practices.

• It intends to improve post-harvest storage infrastructure at the Panchayat and Block level.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

Both statements are correct.

• The Prime Minister Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana (PMDKY) is a significant agricultural program introduced by the Government of India in the Union Budget 2025-26, announced on February 1, 2025, by Finance Minister.

• This initiative aims to transform agricultural practices and boost rural prosperity across the country, particularly in regions facing agricultural challenges.

• One of the primary objectives of PMDKY is promoting crop diversification – encouraging farmers to grow multiple crops for better income stability.

• The scheme also focuses on sustainable and climate-resilient agricultural practices. As mentioned in the search results, PMDKY aims to incorporate technology-driven solutions to support sustainable farming methods.

• PMDKY aims to strengthen post-harvest infrastructure by establishing storage and processing units specifically at the Panchayat and Block levels.

• This localized approach aims to reduce food wastage and help farmers receive better prices for their produce by improving accessibility to storage facilities at the grassroots level.

Solution: C

Both statements are correct.

• This initiative aims to transform agricultural practices and boost rural prosperity across the country, particularly in regions facing agricultural challenges.

• One of the primary objectives of PMDKY is promoting crop diversification – encouraging farmers to grow multiple crops for better income stability.

• PMDKY aims to strengthen post-harvest infrastructure by establishing storage and processing units specifically at the Panchayat and Block levels.

• This localized approach aims to reduce food wastage and help farmers receive better prices for their produce by improving accessibility to storage facilities at the grassroots level.

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Unified Waqf Management, Empowerment, Efficiency and Development (UMEED) Act, 1995: It retains the concept of “Waqf by user,” allowing properties to be recognized as Waqf based on long-term continuous use by the Muslim community. The Act mandates the online registration of all Waqf properties, including those registered before the commencement of the amended Act. The composition of the Central Waqf Council will now include non-Muslim members nominated by the Union Government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Correct Solution: B The Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2025 received Presidential assent on April 5, 2025, renaming the existing Act as the Unified Waqf Management, Empowerment, Efficiency and Development (UMEED) Act, 1995. Key Changes Introduced in UMEED Act “Waqf by User” Abolished The Act removes the earlier provision allowing properties to be declared waqf based on long-term religious use. *Note: Already registered waqf-by-user properties remain valid unless under dispute with the government. (Hence, Statement 1is Incorrect) Digital Registration Mandate (Section 3-B) All waqf properties must be filed on a central online portal and database within 6 months. (Hence, Statement 2 is Correct) Inclusive Board Composition Mandates representation of Muslim women and non-Muslims in Central Waqf Council and State Waqf Boards for diversity. (Hence, statement 3 is Correct) Other Salient Features of UMEED Act: Definition of Waqf Only a Muslim practicing Islam for at least 5 years and owning the property can create waqf. Protection of Women’s Inheritance Prevents waqf-alal-aulad from overriding legal inheritance rights of women. Survey Responsibility Shifted District Collector or Deputy Collector level officer to act as the Survey Commissioner. Dispute Resolution Mechanism Property disputes between waqf and government to be decided by a senior government official. Appeal Provision Introduces appeals to High Court within 90 days against Waqf Tribunal decisions (which were earlier final). Incorrect Solution: B The Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2025 received Presidential assent on April 5, 2025, renaming the existing Act as the Unified Waqf Management, Empowerment, Efficiency and Development (UMEED) Act, 1995. Key Changes Introduced in UMEED Act “Waqf by User” Abolished The Act removes the earlier provision allowing properties to be declared waqf based on long-term religious use. Note: Already registered waqf-by-user properties remain valid unless under dispute with the government. (Hence, Statement 1is Incorrect) Digital Registration Mandate (Section 3-B) All waqf properties must be filed on a central online portal and database within 6 months. (Hence, Statement 2 is Correct) Inclusive Board Composition Mandates representation of Muslim women and non-Muslims in Central Waqf Council and State Waqf Boards for diversity. (Hence, statement 3 is Correct) Other Salient Features of UMEED Act: Definition of Waqf Only a Muslim practicing Islam for at least 5 years and owning the property can create waqf. Protection of Women’s Inheritance Prevents waqf-alal-aulad from overriding legal inheritance rights of women. Survey Responsibility Shifted District Collector or Deputy Collector level officer to act as the Survey Commissioner. Dispute Resolution Mechanism Property disputes between waqf and government to be decided by a senior government official. Appeal Provision Introduces appeals to High Court* within 90 days against Waqf Tribunal decisions (which were earlier final).

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Unified Waqf Management, Empowerment, Efficiency and Development (UMEED) Act, 1995:

• It retains the concept of “Waqf by user,” allowing properties to be recognized as Waqf based on long-term continuous use by the Muslim community.

• The Act mandates the online registration of all Waqf properties, including those registered before the commencement of the amended Act.

• The composition of the Central Waqf Council will now include non-Muslim members nominated by the Union Government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 2 only

• (d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: B

The Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2025 received Presidential assent on April 5, 2025, renaming the existing Act as the Unified Waqf Management, Empowerment, Efficiency and Development (UMEED) Act, 1995.

Key Changes Introduced in UMEED Act

• “Waqf by User” Abolished The Act removes the earlier provision allowing properties to be declared waqf based on long-term religious use. *Note: Already registered waqf-by-user properties remain valid unless under dispute with the government. (Hence, Statement 1is Incorrect)*

• Digital Registration Mandate (Section 3-B) All waqf properties must be filed on a central online portal and database within 6 months. (Hence, Statement 2 is Correct)

• Inclusive Board Composition Mandates representation of Muslim women and non-Muslims in Central Waqf Council and State Waqf Boards for diversity. (Hence, statement 3 is Correct)

Other Salient Features of UMEED Act:

• Definition of Waqf Only a Muslim practicing Islam for at least 5 years and owning the property can create waqf.

• Protection of Women’s Inheritance Prevents waqf-alal-aulad from overriding legal inheritance rights of women.

• Survey Responsibility Shifted District Collector or Deputy Collector level officer to act as the Survey Commissioner.

• Dispute Resolution Mechanism Property disputes between waqf and government to be decided by a senior government official.

• Appeal Provision Introduces appeals to High Court within 90 days against Waqf Tribunal decisions (which were earlier final).

Solution: B

Key Changes Introduced in UMEED Act

• Digital Registration Mandate (Section 3-B) All waqf properties must be filed on a central online portal and database within 6 months. (Hence, Statement 2 is Correct)

• Inclusive Board Composition Mandates representation of Muslim women and non-Muslims in Central Waqf Council and State Waqf Boards for diversity. (Hence, statement 3 is Correct)

Other Salient Features of UMEED Act:

• Definition of Waqf Only a Muslim practicing Islam for at least 5 years and owning the property can create waqf.

• Protection of Women’s Inheritance Prevents waqf-alal-aulad from overriding legal inheritance rights of women.

• Survey Responsibility Shifted District Collector or Deputy Collector level officer to act as the Survey Commissioner.

• Dispute Resolution Mechanism Property disputes between waqf and government to be decided by a senior government official.

• Appeal Provision Introduces appeals to High Court within 90 days against Waqf Tribunal decisions (which were earlier final).

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points The Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) scheme is a joint initiative of which of the following ministries? Ministry of Women and Child Development Ministry of Health and Family Welfare Ministry of Education Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: D The Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) scheme is a tri-ministerial effort of the Ministry of Women and Child Development, the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, and the Ministry of Education. The scheme addresses the declining Child Sex Ratio (CSR) and related issues of women empowerment over a life-cycle continuum. Incorrect Solution: D The Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) scheme is a tri-ministerial effort of the Ministry of Women and Child Development, the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, and the Ministry of Education. The scheme addresses the declining Child Sex Ratio (CSR) and related issues of women empowerment over a life-cycle continuum.

#### 5. Question

The Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) scheme is a joint initiative of which of the following ministries?

• Ministry of Women and Child Development

• Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

• Ministry of Education

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

The Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) scheme is a tri-ministerial effort of the Ministry of Women and Child Development, the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, and the Ministry of Education. The scheme addresses the declining Child Sex Ratio (CSR) and related issues of women empowerment over a life-cycle continuum.

Solution: D

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Assertion (A): The PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan aims to bring together various ministries and departments to ensure integrated planning and coordinated execution of infrastructure connectivity projects. Reason (R): Lack of coordination and fragmented planning often lead to delays and cost overruns in infrastructure development projects. In the context of the above, which of the following is correct? (a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. Correct Solution: A The PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan represents a significant shift in India’s approach to infrastructure development. Launched in October 2021, this digital platform aims to transform the planning and implementation of infrastructure projects through coordinated efforts among various government ministries and departments. Prime Minister launched PM Gati Shakti – National Master Plan for Multi-modal Connectivity, essentially a digital platform to bring 16 Ministries including Railways and Roadways together for integrated planning and coordinated implementation of infrastructure connectivity projects. The initiative specifically focuses on breaking departmental silos through a centralized portal that provides visibility across all departments and ministries involved in infrastructure development. A lack of coordination across levels of government allowed for an inefficient combination of project specific planning approaches, isolated project evaluation and top-down execution systems to co-exist Hence, both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). Incorrect Solution: A The PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan represents a significant shift in India’s approach to infrastructure development. Launched in October 2021, this digital platform aims to transform the planning and implementation of infrastructure projects through coordinated efforts among various government ministries and departments. Prime Minister launched PM Gati Shakti – National Master Plan for Multi-modal Connectivity, essentially a digital platform to bring 16 Ministries including Railways and Roadways together for integrated planning and coordinated implementation of infrastructure connectivity projects. The initiative specifically focuses on breaking departmental silos through a centralized portal that provides visibility across all departments and ministries involved in infrastructure development. A lack of coordination across levels of government allowed for an inefficient combination of project specific planning approaches, isolated project evaluation and top-down execution systems to co-exist Hence, both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

#### 6. Question

Assertion (A): The PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan aims to bring together various ministries and departments to ensure integrated planning and coordinated execution of infrastructure connectivity projects.

Reason (R): Lack of coordination and fragmented planning often lead to delays and cost overruns in infrastructure development projects.

In the context of the above, which of the following is correct?

• (a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

• (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

• (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

• (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Solution: A

• The PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan represents a significant shift in India’s approach to infrastructure development.

• Launched in October 2021, this digital platform aims to transform the planning and implementation of infrastructure projects through coordinated efforts among various government ministries and departments.

• Prime Minister launched PM Gati Shakti – National Master Plan for Multi-modal Connectivity, essentially a digital platform to bring 16 Ministries including Railways and Roadways together for integrated planning and coordinated implementation of infrastructure connectivity projects.

• The initiative specifically focuses on breaking departmental silos through a centralized portal that provides visibility across all departments and ministries involved in infrastructure development.

• A lack of coordination across levels of government allowed for an inefficient combination of project specific planning approaches, isolated project evaluation and top-down execution systems to co-exist

Hence, both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Solution: A

• The PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan represents a significant shift in India’s approach to infrastructure development.

Hence, both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Mission for Advancement in High-Impact Areas -Electric Vehicle (MAHA- EV) Mission: It focuses solely on establishing charging infrastructure to support electric vehicles across India. It was launched by Ministry of Heavy Industries. One of its verticals includes the development of tropical climate-optimized EV batteries and power electronics. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is Incorrect: The MAHA-EV Mission does not focus solely on establishing charging infrastructure. It addresses three critical technology verticals: Tropical EV Batteries and Battery Cells Power Electronics, Machines, and Drives (PEMD) Electric Vehicle Charging Infrastructure Statement 2 is Incorrect: The MAHA-EV Mission was launched by the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF), not the Ministry of Heavy Industries. Statement 3 is Correct: One of the mission’s verticals includes the development of tropical climate-optimized EV batteries and power electronics. Value addition: Institutional Background: o Launched by the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF) under the Department of Science and Technology. o Part of ANRF’s flagship MAHA (Mission for Advancement in High-Impact Areas) Program. · Core Objectives: o Strengthen domestic R&D capacity in critical EV technologies. o Reduce import dependency on advanced battery cells and power electronics. o Establish India as a global innovation hub in electric mobility. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is Incorrect: The MAHA-EV Mission does not focus solely on establishing charging infrastructure. It addresses three critical technology verticals: Tropical EV Batteries and Battery Cells Power Electronics, Machines, and Drives (PEMD) Electric Vehicle Charging Infrastructure Statement 2 is Incorrect: The MAHA-EV Mission was launched by the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF), not the Ministry of Heavy Industries. Statement 3 is Correct: One of the mission’s verticals includes the development of tropical climate-optimized EV batteries and power electronics. Value addition: Institutional Background: o Launched by the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF) under the Department of Science and Technology. o Part of ANRF’s flagship MAHA (Mission for Advancement in High-Impact Areas) Program. · Core Objectives: o Strengthen domestic R&D capacity in critical EV technologies. o Reduce import dependency on advanced battery cells and power electronics. o Establish India as a global innovation hub in electric mobility.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Mission for Advancement in High-Impact Areas -Electric Vehicle (MAHA- EV) Mission:

• It focuses solely on establishing charging infrastructure to support electric vehicles across India.

• It was launched by Ministry of Heavy Industries.

• One of its verticals includes the development of tropical climate-optimized EV batteries and power electronics.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

Statement 1 is Incorrect: The MAHA-EV Mission does not focus solely on establishing charging infrastructure. It addresses three critical technology verticals:

• Tropical EV Batteries and Battery Cells

• Power Electronics, Machines, and Drives (PEMD)

• Electric Vehicle Charging Infrastructure

Statement 2 is Incorrect: The MAHA-EV Mission was launched by the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF), not the Ministry of Heavy Industries.

Statement 3 is Correct: One of the mission’s verticals includes the development of tropical climate-optimized EV batteries and power electronics.

Value addition:

Institutional Background:

o Launched by the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF) under the Department of Science and Technology.

o Part of ANRF’s flagship MAHA (Mission for Advancement in High-Impact Areas) Program.

· Core Objectives:

o Strengthen domestic R&D capacity in critical EV technologies.

o Reduce import dependency on advanced battery cells and power electronics.

o Establish India as a global innovation hub in electric mobility.

Solution: A

Statement 1 is Incorrect: The MAHA-EV Mission does not focus solely on establishing charging infrastructure. It addresses three critical technology verticals:

• Tropical EV Batteries and Battery Cells

• Power Electronics, Machines, and Drives (PEMD)

• Electric Vehicle Charging Infrastructure

Statement 2 is Incorrect: The MAHA-EV Mission was launched by the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF), not the Ministry of Heavy Industries.

Statement 3 is Correct: One of the mission’s verticals includes the development of tropical climate-optimized EV batteries and power electronics.

Value addition:

Institutional Background:

o Launched by the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF) under the Department of Science and Technology.

o Part of ANRF’s flagship MAHA (Mission for Advancement in High-Impact Areas) Program.

· Core Objectives:

o Strengthen domestic R&D capacity in critical EV technologies.

o Reduce import dependency on advanced battery cells and power electronics.

o Establish India as a global innovation hub in electric mobility.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the APAAR ID (Automated Permanent Academic Account Registry): It is a unique identification number assigned to teachers across all levels of education. The primary purpose is to track the academic progress of school students throughout their educational journey. It aims to integrate all professional performances of a teacher into a single digital platform. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is Incorrect – APAAR ID is not assigned to teachers. It is a unique 12-digit ID for students under the One Nation, One Student ID initiative. Statement 2 is Correct – The primary aim of APAAR is to track and store the academic progress of school and college students across their educational journey. Statement 3 is Incorrect – APAAR does not integrate teacher performance data. It is exclusively meant for students’ academic records and co-curricular achievements. The Government of India has launched the Automated Permanent Academic Account Registry (APAAR) under the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 to create a unified and lifelong digital academic identity for students. What is APAAR ID? APAAR stands for Automated Permanent Academic Account Registry. It is part of the ‘One Nation, One Student ID’ initiative. It assigns a unique 12-digit lifelong ID to every student in India—from pre-primary to higher education. Objective of APAAR To build a centralized, digital academic identity for students. To track and manage their academic progress, credits, and achievements seamlessly. To simplify record-keeping, transfers, and admissions across institutions. Integration with Other Platforms DigiLocker: Students can store and access verified mark sheets, degrees, and certificates. Academic Bank of Credits (ABC): Enables flexible credit transfer between institutions under the Choice-Based Credit System (CBCS). Key Features of APAAR 12-Digit Unique ID: Acts as a permanent academic passport for students across India. Digital Repository: Stores mark sheets, degrees, diplomas, skill certifications, and co-curricular records. Seamless Mobility: Eases migration between schools, colleges, and universities. Paperless Verification: Reduces dependency on physical documents for exams, scholarships, and job applications. Forgery-Resistant: Enhances security and prevents misuse or duplication of credentials. Hence, statement 1 and statement 3 are incorrect, while statement 2 is correct. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is Incorrect – APAAR ID is not assigned to teachers. It is a unique 12-digit ID for students under the One Nation, One Student ID initiative. Statement 2 is Correct – The primary aim of APAAR is to track and store the academic progress of school and college students across their educational journey. Statement 3 is Incorrect – APAAR does not integrate teacher performance data. It is exclusively meant for students’ academic records and co-curricular achievements. The Government of India has launched the Automated Permanent Academic Account Registry (APAAR) under the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 to create a unified and lifelong digital academic identity for students. What is APAAR ID? APAAR stands for Automated Permanent Academic Account Registry. It is part of the ‘One Nation, One Student ID’ initiative. It assigns a unique 12-digit lifelong ID to every student in India—from pre-primary to higher education. Objective of APAAR To build a centralized, digital academic identity for students. To track and manage their academic progress, credits, and achievements seamlessly. To simplify record-keeping, transfers, and admissions across institutions. Integration with Other Platforms DigiLocker: Students can store and access verified mark sheets, degrees, and certificates. Academic Bank of Credits (ABC): Enables flexible credit transfer between institutions under the Choice-Based Credit System (CBCS). Key Features of APAAR 12-Digit Unique ID: Acts as a permanent academic passport for students across India. Digital Repository: Stores mark sheets, degrees, diplomas, skill certifications, and co-curricular records. Seamless Mobility: Eases migration between schools, colleges, and universities. Paperless Verification: Reduces dependency on physical documents for exams, scholarships, and job applications. Forgery-Resistant: Enhances security and prevents misuse or duplication of credentials. Hence, statement 1 and statement 3 are incorrect, while statement 2 is correct.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the APAAR ID (Automated Permanent Academic Account Registry):

• It is a unique identification number assigned to teachers across all levels of education.

• The primary purpose is to track the academic progress of school students throughout their educational journey.

• It aims to integrate all professional performances of a teacher into a single digital platform.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

Statement 1 is Incorrect – APAAR ID is not assigned to teachers. It is a unique 12-digit ID for students under the One Nation, One Student ID initiative.

Statement 2 is Correct – The primary aim of APAAR is to track and store the academic progress of school and college students across their educational journey.

Statement 3 is Incorrect – APAAR does not integrate teacher performance data. It is exclusively meant for students’ academic records and co-curricular achievements.

The Government of India has launched the Automated Permanent Academic Account Registry (APAAR) under the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 to create a unified and lifelong digital academic identity for students.

What is APAAR ID?

• APAAR stands for Automated Permanent Academic Account Registry.

• It is part of the ‘One Nation, One Student ID’ initiative.

• It assigns a unique 12-digit lifelong ID to every student in India—from pre-primary to higher education.

Objective of APAAR

• To build a centralized, digital academic identity for students.

• To track and manage their academic progress, credits, and achievements seamlessly.

• To simplify record-keeping, transfers, and admissions across institutions.

Integration with Other Platforms

• DigiLocker: Students can store and access verified mark sheets, degrees, and certificates.

• Academic Bank of Credits (ABC): Enables flexible credit transfer between institutions under the Choice-Based Credit System (CBCS).

Key Features of APAAR

• 12-Digit Unique ID: Acts as a permanent academic passport for students across India.

• Digital Repository: Stores mark sheets, degrees, diplomas, skill certifications, and co-curricular records.

• Seamless Mobility: Eases migration between schools, colleges, and universities.

• Paperless Verification: Reduces dependency on physical documents for exams, scholarships, and job applications.

• Forgery-Resistant: Enhances security and prevents misuse or duplication of credentials.

Hence, statement 1 and statement 3 are incorrect, while statement 2 is correct.

Solution: A

Statement 1 is Incorrect – APAAR ID is not assigned to teachers. It is a unique 12-digit ID for students under the One Nation, One Student ID initiative.

Statement 2 is Correct – The primary aim of APAAR is to track and store the academic progress of school and college students across their educational journey.

Statement 3 is Incorrect – APAAR does not integrate teacher performance data. It is exclusively meant for students’ academic records and co-curricular achievements.

What is APAAR ID?

• APAAR stands for Automated Permanent Academic Account Registry.

• It is part of the ‘One Nation, One Student ID’ initiative.

• It assigns a unique 12-digit lifelong ID to every student in India—from pre-primary to higher education.

Objective of APAAR

• To build a centralized, digital academic identity for students.

• To track and manage their academic progress, credits, and achievements seamlessly.

• To simplify record-keeping, transfers, and admissions across institutions.

Integration with Other Platforms

• DigiLocker: Students can store and access verified mark sheets, degrees, and certificates.

• Academic Bank of Credits (ABC): Enables flexible credit transfer between institutions under the Choice-Based Credit System (CBCS).

Key Features of APAAR

• 12-Digit Unique ID: Acts as a permanent academic passport for students across India.

• Digital Repository: Stores mark sheets, degrees, diplomas, skill certifications, and co-curricular records.

• Seamless Mobility: Eases migration between schools, colleges, and universities.

• Paperless Verification: Reduces dependency on physical documents for exams, scholarships, and job applications.

• Forgery-Resistant: Enhances security and prevents misuse or duplication of credentials.

Hence, statement 1 and statement 3 are incorrect, while statement 2 is correct.

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Which of the following is a key objective of the PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana? (a) To provide free electricity connections to all Below Poverty Line (BPL) families. (b) To promote the setting up of large-scale solar power plants by private companies. (c) To provide free electricity up to a certain limit per month to a significant number of households by promoting rooftop solar adoption. (d) To offer subsidized electricity tariffs for agricultural pump sets. Correct Solution: C The PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana (Rooftop Solarisation Scheme) represents a significant initiative by the Government of India in its pursuit of renewable energy adoption and sustainable development. Launched on February 15, 2024, this ambitious scheme aims to transform the energy landscape of India by making solar power accessible to millions of households across the country. The PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana is designed to promote the installation of rooftop solar systems for residential users. With a substantial outlay of ₹75,021 crore, the scheme will be implemented until March 31, 2027. It represents the world’s largest rooftop solar initiative and subsumes the earlier Grid Connected Rooftop Solar Phase II Programme that had been in operation since 2019 Key Objectives of the Scheme According to the official guidelines, the PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana has several well-defined objectives: To achieve 1 crore (10 million) rooftop solar system installations in the residential sector by March 2027 To provide free/low-cost electricity to 1 crore households up to 300 units per month through rooftop solar installations To produce renewable electricity of 1,000 billion units, resulting in a reduction of 720 million tons of CO2 equivalent emissions over the 25-year lifetime of these projects. To develop the necessary ecosystem for rooftop solar projects, including regulatory support, manufacturing facilities, supply chain, vendor networks, and maintenance infrastructure To boost the local economy and generate employment while enhancing energy security To contribute to India’s climate commitments by installing 30 GW of solar capacity through rooftop solar by 2026-27 Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Solution: C The PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana (Rooftop Solarisation Scheme) represents a significant initiative by the Government of India in its pursuit of renewable energy adoption and sustainable development. Launched on February 15, 2024, this ambitious scheme aims to transform the energy landscape of India by making solar power accessible to millions of households across the country. The PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana is designed to promote the installation of rooftop solar systems for residential users. With a substantial outlay of ₹75,021 crore, the scheme will be implemented until March 31, 2027. It represents the world’s largest rooftop solar initiative and subsumes the earlier Grid Connected Rooftop Solar Phase II Programme that had been in operation since 2019 Key Objectives of the Scheme According to the official guidelines, the PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana has several well-defined objectives: To achieve 1 crore (10 million) rooftop solar system installations in the residential sector by March 2027 To provide free/low-cost electricity to 1 crore households up to 300 units per month through rooftop solar installations To produce renewable electricity of 1,000 billion units, resulting in a reduction of 720 million tons of CO2 equivalent emissions over the 25-year lifetime of these projects. To develop the necessary ecosystem for rooftop solar projects, including regulatory support, manufacturing facilities, supply chain, vendor networks, and maintenance infrastructure To boost the local economy and generate employment while enhancing energy security To contribute to India’s climate commitments by installing 30 GW of solar capacity through rooftop solar by 2026-27 Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 9. Question

Which of the following is a key objective of the PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana?

• (a) To provide free electricity connections to all Below Poverty Line (BPL) families.

• (b) To promote the setting up of large-scale solar power plants by private companies.

• (c) To provide free electricity up to a certain limit per month to a significant number of households by promoting rooftop solar adoption.

• (d) To offer subsidized electricity tariffs for agricultural pump sets.

Solution: C

• The PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana (Rooftop Solarisation Scheme) represents a significant initiative by the Government of India in its pursuit of renewable energy adoption and sustainable development.

• Launched on February 15, 2024, this ambitious scheme aims to transform the energy landscape of India by making solar power accessible to millions of households across the country.

• The PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana is designed to promote the installation of rooftop solar systems for residential users. With a substantial outlay of ₹75,021 crore, the scheme will be implemented until March 31, 2027.

• It represents the world’s largest rooftop solar initiative and subsumes the earlier Grid Connected Rooftop Solar Phase II Programme that had been in operation since 2019

• Key Objectives of the Scheme

• According to the official guidelines, the PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana has several well-defined objectives:

• To achieve 1 crore (10 million) rooftop solar system installations in the residential sector by March 2027

• To provide free/low-cost electricity to 1 crore households up to 300 units per month through rooftop solar installations

• To produce renewable electricity of 1,000 billion units, resulting in a reduction of 720 million tons of CO2 equivalent emissions over the 25-year lifetime of these projects.

• To develop the necessary ecosystem for rooftop solar projects, including regulatory support, manufacturing facilities, supply chain, vendor networks, and maintenance infrastructure

• To boost the local economy and generate employment while enhancing energy security

• To contribute to India’s climate commitments by installing 30 GW of solar capacity through rooftop solar by 2026-27

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Solution: C

• Launched on February 15, 2024, this ambitious scheme aims to transform the energy landscape of India by making solar power accessible to millions of households across the country.

• It represents the world’s largest rooftop solar initiative and subsumes the earlier Grid Connected Rooftop Solar Phase II Programme that had been in operation since 2019

• Key Objectives of the Scheme

• According to the official guidelines, the PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana has several well-defined objectives:

• To achieve 1 crore (10 million) rooftop solar system installations in the residential sector by March 2027

• To provide free/low-cost electricity to 1 crore households up to 300 units per month through rooftop solar installations

• To produce renewable electricity of 1,000 billion units, resulting in a reduction of 720 million tons of CO2 equivalent emissions over the 25-year lifetime of these projects.

• To develop the necessary ecosystem for rooftop solar projects, including regulatory support, manufacturing facilities, supply chain, vendor networks, and maintenance infrastructure

• To boost the local economy and generate employment while enhancing energy security

• To contribute to India’s climate commitments by installing 30 GW of solar capacity through rooftop solar by 2026-27

Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points The Credit Guarantee Scheme for MSMEs in the Manufacturing Sector aims to: (a) Provide direct financial assistance in the form of grants to MSMEs. (b) Offer insurance coverage against business losses faced by MSMEs. (c) Facilitate access to credit for MSMEs by providing guarantees to lending institutions. (d) Subsidize the cost of raw materials for MSMEs in the manufacturing sector. Correct Solution: C The Credit Guarantee Scheme for MSMEs in the Manufacturing Sector represents a significant initiative by the Government of India to strengthen the Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) sector, which plays a crucial role in the country’s economy. With MSMEs contributing approximately 17% to India’s GDP and employing over 27.3 million workers, this scheme addresses one of the most critical challenges faced by these enterprises – access to adequate and timely credit. The scheme, officially known as the Mutual Credit Guarantee Scheme for MSMEs (MCGS-MSME), was approved by the government on January 29, 2025, and later launched as part of the initiatives announced in the Union Budget 2025-26. This program is designed to support the manufacturing sector in line with the “Make in India, Make for the World” vision that aims to increase manufacturing’s contribution to 25% of GDP. Key Features of the Scheme The Credit Guarantee Scheme provides 60% guarantee coverage through the National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company Limited (NCGTC) to Member Lending Institutions (MLIs) for loans up to Rs 100 crore. To be eligible for the scheme, businesses must: Be an MSME with a valid Udyam Registration Number Seek loans primarily for equipment and machinery (at least 75% of the project cost) Use the funds for modernizing their manufacturing operations For loans of Rs 50 crore or less, the borrowers can repay over a maximum period of 8 years. The scheme will remain applicable for four years from the date of issue of operational guidelines or until cumulative guarantees of Rs 7 lakh crore are issued, whichever comes first Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Solution: C The Credit Guarantee Scheme for MSMEs in the Manufacturing Sector represents a significant initiative by the Government of India to strengthen the Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) sector, which plays a crucial role in the country’s economy. With MSMEs contributing approximately 17% to India’s GDP and employing over 27.3 million workers, this scheme addresses one of the most critical challenges faced by these enterprises – access to adequate and timely credit. The scheme, officially known as the Mutual Credit Guarantee Scheme for MSMEs (MCGS-MSME), was approved by the government on January 29, 2025, and later launched as part of the initiatives announced in the Union Budget 2025-26. This program is designed to support the manufacturing sector in line with the “Make in India, Make for the World” vision that aims to increase manufacturing’s contribution to 25% of GDP. Key Features of the Scheme The Credit Guarantee Scheme provides 60% guarantee coverage through the National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company Limited (NCGTC) to Member Lending Institutions (MLIs) for loans up to Rs 100 crore. To be eligible for the scheme, businesses must: Be an MSME with a valid Udyam Registration Number Seek loans primarily for equipment and machinery (at least 75% of the project cost) Use the funds for modernizing their manufacturing operations For loans of Rs 50 crore or less, the borrowers can repay over a maximum period of 8 years. The scheme will remain applicable for four years from the date of issue of operational guidelines or until cumulative guarantees of Rs 7 lakh crore are issued, whichever comes first Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 10. Question

The Credit Guarantee Scheme for MSMEs in the Manufacturing Sector aims to:

• (a) Provide direct financial assistance in the form of grants to MSMEs.

• (b) Offer insurance coverage against business losses faced by MSMEs.

• (c) Facilitate access to credit for MSMEs by providing guarantees to lending institutions.

• (d) Subsidize the cost of raw materials for MSMEs in the manufacturing sector.

Solution: C

• The Credit Guarantee Scheme for MSMEs in the Manufacturing Sector represents a significant initiative by the Government of India to strengthen the Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) sector, which plays a crucial role in the country’s economy.

• With MSMEs contributing approximately 17% to India’s GDP and employing over 27.3 million workers, this scheme addresses one of the most critical challenges faced by these enterprises – access to adequate and timely credit.

• The scheme, officially known as the Mutual Credit Guarantee Scheme for MSMEs (MCGS-MSME), was approved by the government on January 29, 2025, and later launched as part of the initiatives announced in the Union Budget 2025-26.

• This program is designed to support the manufacturing sector in line with the “Make in India, Make for the World” vision that aims to increase manufacturing’s contribution to 25% of GDP.

• Key Features of the Scheme The Credit Guarantee Scheme provides 60% guarantee coverage through the National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company Limited (NCGTC) to Member Lending Institutions (MLIs) for loans up to Rs 100 crore.

• The Credit Guarantee Scheme provides 60% guarantee coverage through the National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company Limited (NCGTC) to Member Lending Institutions (MLIs) for loans up to Rs 100 crore.

• To be eligible for the scheme, businesses must:

• Be an MSME with a valid Udyam Registration Number Seek loans primarily for equipment and machinery (at least 75% of the project cost) Use the funds for modernizing their manufacturing operations

• Be an MSME with a valid Udyam Registration Number

• Seek loans primarily for equipment and machinery (at least 75% of the project cost)

• Use the funds for modernizing their manufacturing operations

• For loans of Rs 50 crore or less, the borrowers can repay over a maximum period of 8 years. The scheme will remain applicable for four years from the date of issue of operational guidelines or until cumulative guarantees of Rs 7 lakh crore are issued, whichever comes first

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Solution: C

• This program is designed to support the manufacturing sector in line with the “Make in India, Make for the World” vision that aims to increase manufacturing’s contribution to 25% of GDP.

• To be eligible for the scheme, businesses must:

• Be an MSME with a valid Udyam Registration Number Seek loans primarily for equipment and machinery (at least 75% of the project cost) Use the funds for modernizing their manufacturing operations

• Be an MSME with a valid Udyam Registration Number

• Seek loans primarily for equipment and machinery (at least 75% of the project cost)

• Use the funds for modernizing their manufacturing operations

Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Economic and Social Commission for Asia and Pacific (ESCAP) is the only regional commission of the UN Economic and Social Council for sustainable development in the Asia and Pacific region. The Asia-Pacific Research and Training Network on Trade (ARTNeT) works under ESCAP. ESCAP has launched the UN Language Programme to preserve ancient language scripts from the Asia and Pacific region. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The Economic and Social Commission for Asia and Pacific is the most inclusive intergovernmental platform for the Asia-Pacific region. It promotes cooperation among its 53 member states and 9 associate members to deal with sustainable development challenges It is one of the five regional commissions of the United Nations. UN Economic and Social Council has 5 regional commissions; ESCAP is the only one for Asia and the Pacific region. Hence statement 1 is correct ARTNeT is concerned with leveraging trade, investment and innovation as powerful engines for growth and sustainable development in the Asia and Pacific. Its Secretariat is provided by the Trade Investment and Innovation division of the ESCAP. Hence statement 2 is correct The UN Language Programme aims to promote multilingualism within the United Nations and to enhance the language capability of its staff as mandated by the General Assembly resolution. For the Asia and Pacific region, ESCAP (based in Bangkok), offers UN Language Programme for personnel working in various UN entities. Hence statement 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: B The Economic and Social Commission for Asia and Pacific is the most inclusive intergovernmental platform for the Asia-Pacific region. It promotes cooperation among its 53 member states and 9 associate members to deal with sustainable development challenges It is one of the five regional commissions of the United Nations. UN Economic and Social Council has 5 regional commissions; ESCAP is the only one for Asia and the Pacific region. Hence statement 1 is correct ARTNeT is concerned with leveraging trade, investment and innovation as powerful engines for growth and sustainable development in the Asia and Pacific. Its Secretariat is provided by the Trade Investment and Innovation division of the ESCAP. Hence statement 2 is correct The UN Language Programme aims to promote multilingualism within the United Nations and to enhance the language capability of its staff as mandated by the General Assembly resolution. For the Asia and Pacific region, ESCAP (based in Bangkok), offers UN Language Programme for personnel working in various UN entities. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

#### 11. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Economic and Social Commission for Asia and Pacific (ESCAP) is the only regional commission of the UN Economic and Social Council for sustainable development in the Asia and Pacific region.

• The Asia-Pacific Research and Training Network on Trade (ARTNeT) works under ESCAP.

• ESCAP has launched the UN Language Programme to preserve ancient language scripts from the Asia and Pacific region.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• The Economic and Social Commission for Asia and Pacific is the most inclusive intergovernmental platform for the Asia-Pacific region.

• It promotes cooperation among its 53 member states and 9 associate members to deal with sustainable development challenges

• It is one of the five regional commissions of the United Nations.

• UN Economic and Social Council has 5 regional commissions; ESCAP is the only one for Asia and the Pacific region.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• ARTNeT is concerned with leveraging trade, investment and innovation as powerful engines for growth and sustainable development in the Asia and Pacific.

• Its Secretariat is provided by the Trade Investment and Innovation division of the ESCAP. Hence statement 2 is correct

• The UN Language Programme aims to promote multilingualism within the United Nations and to enhance the language capability of its staff as mandated by the General Assembly resolution.

• For the Asia and Pacific region, ESCAP (based in Bangkok), offers UN Language Programme for personnel working in various UN entities.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution: B

• The Economic and Social Commission for Asia and Pacific is the most inclusive intergovernmental platform for the Asia-Pacific region.

• It promotes cooperation among its 53 member states and 9 associate members to deal with sustainable development challenges

• It is one of the five regional commissions of the United Nations.

• UN Economic and Social Council has 5 regional commissions; ESCAP is the only one for Asia and the Pacific region.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• ARTNeT is concerned with leveraging trade, investment and innovation as powerful engines for growth and sustainable development in the Asia and Pacific.

• Its Secretariat is provided by the Trade Investment and Innovation division of the ESCAP. Hence statement 2 is correct

• The UN Language Programme aims to promote multilingualism within the United Nations and to enhance the language capability of its staff as mandated by the General Assembly resolution.

• For the Asia and Pacific region, ESCAP (based in Bangkok), offers UN Language Programme for personnel working in various UN entities.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes the Five Eyes Alliance, often seen in news? (a) A core group within the NATO group for sharing of Defence Technologies (b) A group of Five developed countries that aims to promote nuclear disarmament (c) A partnership of five Nations formed for sharing of intelligence information (d) An Alliance formed to develop road transport between Central Asian countries Correct Solution: C The Five Eyes is made up of Britain, United States, Canada, Australia and New Zealand which originally evolved from a secret World War Two Alliance between British and US Cypher and code breaking teams In 1946 a signals intelligence agreement was signed between Britain and the US which was later extended to the other three countries. The members describe it as the oldest and most significant intelligence Alliance working on a basis of high level of trust. It operates on a presumption that all signals intelligence would be shared with other partners and that withholding information would be viewed as an exception. Hence option C is correct Incorrect Solution: C The Five Eyes is made up of Britain, United States, Canada, Australia and New Zealand which originally evolved from a secret World War Two Alliance between British and US Cypher and code breaking teams In 1946 a signals intelligence agreement was signed between Britain and the US which was later extended to the other three countries. The members describe it as the oldest and most significant intelligence Alliance working on a basis of high level of trust. It operates on a presumption that all signals intelligence would be shared with other partners and that withholding information would be viewed as an exception. Hence option C is correct

#### 12. Question

Which of the following best describes the Five Eyes Alliance, often seen in news?

• (a) A core group within the NATO group for sharing of Defence Technologies

• (b) A group of Five developed countries that aims to promote nuclear disarmament

• (c) A partnership of five Nations formed for sharing of intelligence information

• (d) An Alliance formed to develop road transport between Central Asian countries

Solution: C

• The Five Eyes is made up of Britain, United States, Canada, Australia and New Zealand which originally evolved from a secret World War Two Alliance between British and US Cypher and code breaking teams

• In 1946 a signals intelligence agreement was signed between Britain and the US which was later extended to the other three countries.

• The members describe it as the oldest and most significant intelligence Alliance working on a basis of high level of trust.

• It operates on a presumption that all signals intelligence would be shared with other partners and that withholding information would be viewed as an exception.

Hence option C is correct

Solution: C

• In 1946 a signals intelligence agreement was signed between Britain and the US which was later extended to the other three countries.

• The members describe it as the oldest and most significant intelligence Alliance working on a basis of high level of trust.

• It operates on a presumption that all signals intelligence would be shared with other partners and that withholding information would be viewed as an exception.

Hence option C is correct

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Global Operation and Network of Anti- corruption Law Enforcement Authorities (GlobE Network): It was established by the G20 group at the United Nations General Assembly special session. India is a member of the Steering Committee of the Network. The UN Office on Drugs and Crime functions as its Secretariat. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C GlobE Network is a G20 initiative that was established in 2021 during a special event at the UN General Assembly special session against corruption It is governed by its members and supported by the UN Office on Drugs and Crime which provides its secretariat. It has recently 121 member countries and 219 authorities. It facilitates the sharing of intelligence and best practices crucial for addressing Cross border financial crimes. Recently India has been elected to the 15-member steering committee of the GlobE Network Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct Incorrect Solution: C GlobE Network is a G20 initiative that was established in 2021 during a special event at the UN General Assembly special session against corruption It is governed by its members and supported by the UN Office on Drugs and Crime which provides its secretariat. It has recently 121 member countries and 219 authorities. It facilitates the sharing of intelligence and best practices crucial for addressing Cross border financial crimes. Recently India has been elected to the 15-member steering committee of the GlobE Network Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct

#### 13. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Global Operation and Network of Anti- corruption Law Enforcement Authorities (GlobE Network):

• It was established by the G20 group at the United Nations General Assembly special session.

• India is a member of the Steering Committee of the Network.

• The UN Office on Drugs and Crime functions as its Secretariat.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

• GlobE Network is a G20 initiative that was established in 2021 during a special event at the UN General Assembly special session against corruption

• It is governed by its members and supported by the UN Office on Drugs and Crime which provides its secretariat.

• It has recently 121 member countries and 219 authorities.

• It facilitates the sharing of intelligence and best practices crucial for addressing Cross border financial crimes.

• Recently India has been elected to the 15-member steering committee of the GlobE Network

Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Solution: C

• GlobE Network is a G20 initiative that was established in 2021 during a special event at the UN General Assembly special session against corruption

• It is governed by its members and supported by the UN Office on Drugs and Crime which provides its secretariat.

• It has recently 121 member countries and 219 authorities.

• It facilitates the sharing of intelligence and best practices crucial for addressing Cross border financial crimes.

• Recently India has been elected to the 15-member steering committee of the GlobE Network

Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Consider the following statements with reference to Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay Sanrakshan Abhiyan (PM-AASHA): Under its Central Nodal Agencies will procure pulses, oilseeds and copra conforming to the Fair Average Quality of crops. Crops will be procured at MSP from pre-registered farmers. Upto 100% of oilseeds produced will be procured for the next 5 years to reduce import dependence. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The central government recently approved the continuation of the integrated PM AASHA scheme during the 15th finance commission cycle up to 2025-26. It is administered to bring in more effectiveness in the implementation of procurement operations that would not only help in providing remunerative prices to the farmers for their produce but also control price volatility of essential commodities by ensuring their availability at afordable prices to the consumers. Under the scheme procurement of notified pulses, oilseeds and copra conforming to the prescribed fair average quality is undertaken by central nodal agencies at MSP directly from pre-registered farmers through state level Agencies. Hence statement 1 and 2 are correct The government has also made an announcement in Budget 2025 that procurement of Tur, Urad and Masoor up to 100% of the production of the state will be continued for another 4 years through Central nodal Agencies to achieve self-sufficiency in pulses. Hence statement 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: B The central government recently approved the continuation of the integrated PM AASHA scheme during the 15th finance commission cycle up to 2025-26. It is administered to bring in more effectiveness in the implementation of procurement operations that would not only help in providing remunerative prices to the farmers for their produce but also control price volatility of essential commodities by ensuring their availability at afordable prices to the consumers. Under the scheme procurement of notified pulses, oilseeds and copra conforming to the prescribed fair average quality is undertaken by central nodal agencies at MSP directly from pre-registered farmers through state level Agencies. Hence statement 1 and 2 are correct The government has also made an announcement in Budget 2025 that procurement of Tur, Urad and Masoor up to 100% of the production of the state will be continued for another 4 years through Central nodal Agencies to achieve self-sufficiency in pulses. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

#### 14. Question

Consider the following statements with reference to Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay Sanrakshan Abhiyan (PM-AASHA):

• Under its Central Nodal Agencies will procure pulses, oilseeds and copra conforming to the Fair Average Quality of crops.

• Crops will be procured at MSP from pre-registered farmers.

• Upto 100% of oilseeds produced will be procured for the next 5 years to reduce import dependence.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• The central government recently approved the continuation of the integrated PM AASHA scheme during the 15th finance commission cycle up to 2025-26.

• It is administered to bring in more effectiveness in the implementation of procurement operations that would not only help in providing remunerative prices to the farmers for their produce but also control price volatility of essential commodities by ensuring their availability at afordable prices to the consumers.

• Under the scheme procurement of notified pulses, oilseeds and copra conforming to the prescribed fair average quality is undertaken by central nodal agencies at MSP directly from pre-registered farmers through state level Agencies.

Hence statement 1 and 2 are correct

• The government has also made an announcement in Budget 2025 that procurement of Tur, Urad and Masoor up to 100% of the production of the state will be continued for another 4 years through Central nodal Agencies to achieve self-sufficiency in pulses.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution: B

• The central government recently approved the continuation of the integrated PM AASHA scheme during the 15th finance commission cycle up to 2025-26.

Hence statement 1 and 2 are correct

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Vanbandhu Kalyan Yojana (PMVKY): It encompasses the Pradhan Mantri Adi Aadarsh Gram Yojana for development of telecom connectivity and education among tribal communities. Undit it, Pre-Matric and Post- Matric scholarships will be provided only to all girls from tribal communities in tribal areas of Northeast India. The scheme provides for establishment of Eklavya Model Residential schools for tribals in all states. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 2 only Correct Solution: B The PMVKY incompasses several steps aimed at different facets of tribal welfare; The Pradhan Mantri Adi Aadarsh Gram Yojana is one of them. It revamps the existing Central assistance to Tribal sub-plan which focuses on integrated Village Development with significant tribal population. This initiative targets critical sectors like road and telecom connectivity, education, health services and sanitation to raise living standards of tribal communities. Hence statement 1 is correct The scheme encompasses Pre- matric and Post -matric scholarships for supporting tribal students in their educational pursuits. Pre-Matric and Post- Matric scholarships will be provided to students in Grades IX and X and beyond Class X respectively. These scholarships are available for students with a parental income of up to Rs.2.50 lakhs. Hence statement 2 is incorrect The Eklavya model residential school scheme has been established to provide quality education to Scheduled Tribes students from classes VI to XII. Eklavya Model Residential School Scheme is not under PMVKY. Hence statement 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: B The PMVKY incompasses several steps aimed at different facets of tribal welfare; The Pradhan Mantri Adi Aadarsh Gram Yojana is one of them. It revamps the existing Central assistance to Tribal sub-plan which focuses on integrated Village Development with significant tribal population. This initiative targets critical sectors like road and telecom connectivity, education, health services and sanitation to raise living standards of tribal communities. Hence statement 1 is correct The scheme encompasses Pre- matric and Post -matric scholarships for supporting tribal students in their educational pursuits. Pre-Matric and Post- Matric scholarships will be provided to students in Grades IX and X and beyond Class X respectively. These scholarships are available for students with a parental income of up to Rs.2.50 lakhs. Hence statement 2 is incorrect The Eklavya model residential school scheme has been established to provide quality education to Scheduled Tribes students from classes VI to XII. Eklavya Model Residential School Scheme is not under PMVKY. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

#### 15. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Vanbandhu Kalyan Yojana (PMVKY):

• It encompasses the Pradhan Mantri Adi Aadarsh Gram Yojana for development of telecom connectivity and education among tribal communities.

• Undit it, Pre-Matric and Post- Matric scholarships will be provided only to all girls from tribal communities in tribal areas of Northeast India.

• The scheme provides for establishment of Eklavya Model Residential schools for tribals in all states.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 1 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (d) 2 only

Solution: B

• The PMVKY incompasses several steps aimed at different facets of tribal welfare; The Pradhan Mantri Adi Aadarsh Gram Yojana is one of them.

• It revamps the existing Central assistance to Tribal sub-plan which focuses on integrated Village Development with significant tribal population.

• This initiative targets critical sectors like road and telecom connectivity, education, health services and sanitation to raise living standards of tribal communities.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The scheme encompasses Pre- matric and Post -matric scholarships for supporting tribal students in their educational pursuits.

• Pre-Matric and Post- Matric scholarships will be provided to students in Grades IX and X and beyond Class X respectively.

• These scholarships are available for students with a parental income of up to Rs.2.50 lakhs.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• The Eklavya model residential school scheme has been established to provide quality education to Scheduled Tribes students from classes VI to XII.

• Eklavya Model Residential School Scheme is not under PMVKY.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution: B

• The PMVKY incompasses several steps aimed at different facets of tribal welfare; The Pradhan Mantri Adi Aadarsh Gram Yojana is one of them.

• It revamps the existing Central assistance to Tribal sub-plan which focuses on integrated Village Development with significant tribal population.

• This initiative targets critical sectors like road and telecom connectivity, education, health services and sanitation to raise living standards of tribal communities.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The scheme encompasses Pre- matric and Post -matric scholarships for supporting tribal students in their educational pursuits.

• Pre-Matric and Post- Matric scholarships will be provided to students in Grades IX and X and beyond Class X respectively.

• These scholarships are available for students with a parental income of up to Rs.2.50 lakhs.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• The Eklavya model residential school scheme has been established to provide quality education to Scheduled Tribes students from classes VI to XII.

• Eklavya Model Residential School Scheme is not under PMVKY.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Sampoornata Abhiyan was started to provide immunization of children, nutrition for mothers along with other Key indicators in Aspirational Districts and Aspirational Blocks; it was launched by: (a) NITI Aayog (b) Ministry of Women and Child Development (c) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (d) Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution Correct Solution: A Sampoornata Abhiyan was launched by NITI Aayog as a 3-month campaign in 2024 to Undertake sustained effort to achieve saturation of 6 key indicators in Aspirational Districts and 6 key indicators in Aspirational Blocks across the country. The Abhiyan focused on : Soil health card distribution Schools with functional electricity Immunization of children Registration of pregnant women in the first trimester Pregnant women taking ICDS supplementary nutrition Schools providing text books within one month of session starting Hence option A is correct Incorrect Solution: A Sampoornata Abhiyan was launched by NITI Aayog as a 3-month campaign in 2024 to Undertake sustained effort to achieve saturation of 6 key indicators in Aspirational Districts and 6 key indicators in Aspirational Blocks across the country. The Abhiyan focused on : Soil health card distribution Schools with functional electricity Immunization of children Registration of pregnant women in the first trimester Pregnant women taking ICDS supplementary nutrition Schools providing text books within one month of session starting Hence option A is correct

#### 16. Question

Sampoornata Abhiyan was started to provide immunization of children, nutrition for mothers along with other Key indicators in Aspirational Districts and Aspirational Blocks; it was launched by:

• (a) NITI Aayog

• (b) Ministry of Women and Child Development

• (c) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

• (d) Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution

Solution: A

• Sampoornata Abhiyan was launched by NITI Aayog as a 3-month campaign in 2024 to Undertake sustained effort to achieve saturation of 6 key indicators in Aspirational Districts and 6 key indicators in Aspirational Blocks across the country. The Abhiyan focused on :

• Soil health card distribution

• Schools with functional electricity

• Immunization of children

• Registration of pregnant women in the first trimester

• Pregnant women taking ICDS supplementary nutrition

• Schools providing text books within one month of session starting

Hence option A is correct

Solution: A

• Soil health card distribution

• Schools with functional electricity

• Immunization of children

• Registration of pregnant women in the first trimester

• Pregnant women taking ICDS supplementary nutrition

• Schools providing text books within one month of session starting

Hence option A is correct

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Mineral Security Finance Network (MSFN) is a part of the Mineral Security Partnership launched by the United States. The MSFN brings together Development Finance Institutions and Export Credit Agencies for the purpose of achieving Clean Energy transition. The International Energy Agency provides Secretariat to the MSFN. India is a member of MSFN. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C MSFN is a new initiative that stems from Mineral Security Partnership (MSP), a Framework established by the United States in 2022. It aims to strengthen cooperation among the members to secure supply chain for critical minerals. This new partnership brings together development finance institutions and export credit agencies from participating Nations to create synergies and increase impact. Under this new initiative, signatory Nations acknowledge that the scope and scale of meeting the rapidly increasing Global demand for critical minerals to achieve the proposed Clean Energy transition was beyond the purview of any single institution and that the public sector and private sector in member countries required to work together and deploy capital into new and existing market in this sector. The participating DFIs and ECAs discussed including with representatives from private sector, how they can work together to meet this challenge. India is now formally a part of the MSFN; India was formally inducted to the MSP in June 2023. Hence statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct The Mineral Security Finance Network is not a part of the International Energy Agency. IEA is not involved in any way with MSFN. Hence statement 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: C MSFN is a new initiative that stems from Mineral Security Partnership (MSP), a Framework established by the United States in 2022. It aims to strengthen cooperation among the members to secure supply chain for critical minerals. This new partnership brings together development finance institutions and export credit agencies from participating Nations to create synergies and increase impact. Under this new initiative, signatory Nations acknowledge that the scope and scale of meeting the rapidly increasing Global demand for critical minerals to achieve the proposed Clean Energy transition was beyond the purview of any single institution and that the public sector and private sector in member countries required to work together and deploy capital into new and existing market in this sector. The participating DFIs and ECAs discussed including with representatives from private sector, how they can work together to meet this challenge. India is now formally a part of the MSFN; India was formally inducted to the MSP in June 2023. Hence statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct The Mineral Security Finance Network is not a part of the International Energy Agency. IEA is not involved in any way with MSFN. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

#### 17. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Mineral Security Finance Network (MSFN) is a part of the Mineral Security Partnership launched by the United States.

• The MSFN brings together Development Finance Institutions and Export Credit Agencies for the purpose of achieving Clean Energy transition.

• The International Energy Agency provides Secretariat to the MSFN.

• India is a member of MSFN.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

• MSFN is a new initiative that stems from Mineral Security Partnership (MSP), a Framework established by the United States in 2022.

• It aims to strengthen cooperation among the members to secure supply chain for critical minerals.

• This new partnership brings together development finance institutions and export credit agencies from participating Nations to create synergies and increase impact.

• Under this new initiative, signatory Nations acknowledge that the scope and scale of meeting the rapidly increasing Global demand for critical minerals to achieve the proposed Clean Energy transition was beyond the purview of any single institution and that the public sector and private sector in member countries required to work together and deploy capital into new and existing market in this sector.

• The participating DFIs and ECAs discussed including with representatives from private sector, how they can work together to meet this challenge.

• India is now formally a part of the MSFN; India was formally inducted to the MSP in June 2023.

Hence statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct

• The Mineral Security Finance Network is not a part of the International Energy Agency.

• IEA is not involved in any way with MSFN.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution: C

• MSFN is a new initiative that stems from Mineral Security Partnership (MSP), a Framework established by the United States in 2022.

• It aims to strengthen cooperation among the members to secure supply chain for critical minerals.

• This new partnership brings together development finance institutions and export credit agencies from participating Nations to create synergies and increase impact.

• The participating DFIs and ECAs discussed including with representatives from private sector, how they can work together to meet this challenge.

• India is now formally a part of the MSFN; India was formally inducted to the MSP in June 2023.

Hence statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct

• The Mineral Security Finance Network is not a part of the International Energy Agency.

• IEA is not involved in any way with MSFN.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Global Learning and Development Framework has been launched by the World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA). WADA is an independent agency founded by the International Olympic Committee. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C The Global Learning and Development Framework was created by the World Anti-Doping Agency. It was created to support WADA anti-doping commitment through specific standardised training for a range of anti-doping roles to be developed and made available for anti-doping organisations and others stakeholders globally within the anti-doping Ecosystem. WADA was form in 1999 as an independent international agency funded equally by the governments and the sports community. It was founded by the International Olympic Committee to lead the fight against doping in sports It is headquartered in Montreal, Canada. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct Incorrect Solution: C The Global Learning and Development Framework was created by the World Anti-Doping Agency. It was created to support WADA anti-doping commitment through specific standardised training for a range of anti-doping roles to be developed and made available for anti-doping organisations and others stakeholders globally within the anti-doping Ecosystem. WADA was form in 1999 as an independent international agency funded equally by the governments and the sports community. It was founded by the International Olympic Committee to lead the fight against doping in sports It is headquartered in Montreal, Canada. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

#### 18. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Global Learning and Development Framework has been launched by the World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA).

• WADA is an independent agency founded by the International Olympic Committee.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

• The Global Learning and Development Framework was created by the World Anti-Doping Agency.

• It was created to support WADA anti-doping commitment through specific standardised training for a range of anti-doping roles to be developed and made available for anti-doping organisations and others stakeholders globally within the anti-doping Ecosystem.

• WADA was form in 1999 as an independent international agency funded equally by the governments and the sports community.

• It was founded by the International Olympic Committee to lead the fight against doping in sports

• It is headquartered in Montreal, Canada.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

Solution: C

• The Global Learning and Development Framework was created by the World Anti-Doping Agency.

• WADA was form in 1999 as an independent international agency funded equally by the governments and the sports community.

• It was founded by the International Olympic Committee to lead the fight against doping in sports

• It is headquartered in Montreal, Canada.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points The Phewa Dialogue, recently in news, has been launched by: (a) India and Nepal (b) Japan and South Korea (c) Bhutan and Bangladesh (d) Nepal and China Correct Solution: D Phewa Dialogue has been launched by the government of Nepal and China as a part of a collaborative effort to formulate regional prosperity and peace policies. The Initiative was held in Pokhara, Nepal Its name has been derived from the Phewa lake in Nepal. The dialogue is being hosted by Sichuan University’s China Centre for South Asian studies and Department of International Relations and Diplomacy, Tribhuvan University. Phewa is a famous lake in Nepal and the biggest lake in Pokhara. Hence option D is correct Incorrect Solution: D Phewa Dialogue has been launched by the government of Nepal and China as a part of a collaborative effort to formulate regional prosperity and peace policies. The Initiative was held in Pokhara, Nepal Its name has been derived from the Phewa lake in Nepal. The dialogue is being hosted by Sichuan University’s China Centre for South Asian studies and Department of International Relations and Diplomacy, Tribhuvan University. Phewa is a famous lake in Nepal and the biggest lake in Pokhara. Hence option D is correct

#### 19. Question

The Phewa Dialogue, recently in news, has been launched by:

• (a) India and Nepal

• (b) Japan and South Korea

• (c) Bhutan and Bangladesh

• (d) Nepal and China

Solution: D

• Phewa Dialogue has been launched by the government of Nepal and China as a part of a collaborative effort to formulate regional prosperity and peace policies.

• The Initiative was held in Pokhara, Nepal

• Its name has been derived from the Phewa lake in Nepal.

• The dialogue is being hosted by Sichuan University’s China Centre for South Asian studies and Department of International Relations and Diplomacy, Tribhuvan University.

• Phewa is a famous lake in Nepal and the biggest lake in Pokhara.

Hence option D is correct

Solution: D

• Phewa Dialogue has been launched by the government of Nepal and China as a part of a collaborative effort to formulate regional prosperity and peace policies.

• The Initiative was held in Pokhara, Nepal

• Its name has been derived from the Phewa lake in Nepal.

• The dialogue is being hosted by Sichuan University’s China Centre for South Asian studies and Department of International Relations and Diplomacy, Tribhuvan University.

• Phewa is a famous lake in Nepal and the biggest lake in Pokhara.

Hence option D is correct

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Commission on Crime Prevention and Criminal Justice (CCPCJ) has been established for making recommendations related to cases to the International Court of Justice. CCPCJ functions as governing body of the United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime. CCPCJ works in close association with the INTERPOL. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The CCPCJ was established by the Economic and Social Council of the United Nations upon request of General Assembly as one of its functional Commissions. The commission acts as the principal policy making body of the United Nations in the field of crime prevention and criminal justice. It is not related to the International Court of Justice. Hence statement 1 is incorrect In 2006, the UNGA adopted resolution 61/252 which further expanded the mandate of the CCPCJ to enable it to function as the governing body of the United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime, and to approve the budget of the United Nations Crime Prevention and Criminal Justice Fund. Hence statement 2 is correct CCPCJ works in collaboration with INTERPOL, especially in matters of transnational crime, cybercrime, trafficking, and international law enforcement cooperation. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: B The CCPCJ was established by the Economic and Social Council of the United Nations upon request of General Assembly as one of its functional Commissions. The commission acts as the principal policy making body of the United Nations in the field of crime prevention and criminal justice. It is not related to the International Court of Justice. Hence statement 1 is incorrect In 2006, the UNGA adopted resolution 61/252 which further expanded the mandate of the CCPCJ to enable it to function as the governing body of the United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime, and to approve the budget of the United Nations Crime Prevention and Criminal Justice Fund. Hence statement 2 is correct CCPCJ works in collaboration with INTERPOL, especially in matters of transnational crime, cybercrime, trafficking, and international law enforcement cooperation. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 20. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Commission on Crime Prevention and Criminal Justice (CCPCJ) has been established for making recommendations related to cases to the International Court of Justice.

• CCPCJ functions as governing body of the United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime.

• CCPCJ works in close association with the INTERPOL.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• The CCPCJ was established by the Economic and Social Council of the United Nations upon request of General Assembly as one of its functional Commissions.

• The commission acts as the principal policy making body of the United Nations in the field of crime prevention and criminal justice.

• It is not related to the International Court of Justice.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• In 2006, the UNGA adopted resolution 61/252 which further expanded the mandate of the CCPCJ to enable it to function as the governing body of the United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime, and to approve the budget of the United Nations Crime Prevention and Criminal Justice Fund.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• CCPCJ works in collaboration with INTERPOL, especially in matters of transnational crime, cybercrime, trafficking, and international law enforcement cooperation.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: B

• The CCPCJ was established by the Economic and Social Council of the United Nations upon request of General Assembly as one of its functional Commissions.

• The commission acts as the principal policy making body of the United Nations in the field of crime prevention and criminal justice.

• It is not related to the International Court of Justice.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

Hence statement 2 is correct

• CCPCJ works in collaboration with INTERPOL, especially in matters of transnational crime, cybercrime, trafficking, and international law enforcement cooperation.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points With reference to the United Nations Interim Force in Lebanon (UNIFIL), consider the following statements UNIFIL was established in response to the South Lebanon Conflict following an Israeli invasion in 1978. Its current mandate includes monitoring the cessation of hostilities between Hezbollah and Israel. India contributes the largest number of troops to UNIFIL among all countries. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All three Correct Solution: B United Nations Interim Force in Lebanon (UNIFIL):m The United Nations Interim Force in Lebanon (UNIFIL) was established by the UN Security Council through Resolutions 425 and 426 in March 1978 following the Israeli invasion of southern Lebanon during the South Lebanon Conflict; its original mandate was to confirm Israeli withdrawal, restore peace and security, and assist the Lebanese government in reasserting its authority in the area. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) In response to the 34-day war between Hezbollah and Israel in 2006, where over 1,100 Lebanese civilians were killed, the Security Council adopted Resolution 1701, expanding UNIFIL’s mandate to include monitoring the cessation of hostilities, supporting Lebanese armed forces deployed in southern Lebanon, and facilitating humanitarian access and civilian protection along the Blue Line, the de facto border between Israel and Lebanon. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) UNIFIL currently comprises approximately 10,500 peacekeepers from 48 troop-contributing countries; while India, Italy, Nepal, and China are among the largest contributors, the largest single troop contribution comes from Indonesia, not India, as confirmed in current UN Peacekeeping data. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect) UNIFIL is part of the UN Peacekeeping framework, with its funding provided through a separate annual budget approved by the UN General Assembly, distinct from the regular UN budget; this ensures operational independence and resource allocation specific to the mission. UNIFIL’s rules of engagement restrict the use of force strictly to self-defense or when required to carry out its mandate, consistent with the broader principles of international peacekeeping missions. UNIFIL operates in a region of high geopolitical tension between Israel and Hezbollah; its presence remains critical to preventing escalation and maintaining stability along the volatile Blue Line, especially in coordination with the Lebanese Armed Forces. https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-global/who-are-the-un-peacekeepers-at-lebanons-border-with-israel-9615962/ Incorrect Solution: B United Nations Interim Force in Lebanon (UNIFIL):m The United Nations Interim Force in Lebanon (UNIFIL) was established by the UN Security Council through Resolutions 425 and 426 in March 1978 following the Israeli invasion of southern Lebanon during the South Lebanon Conflict; its original mandate was to confirm Israeli withdrawal, restore peace and security, and assist the Lebanese government in reasserting its authority in the area. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) In response to the 34-day war between Hezbollah and Israel in 2006, where over 1,100 Lebanese civilians were killed, the Security Council adopted Resolution 1701, expanding UNIFIL’s mandate to include monitoring the cessation of hostilities, supporting Lebanese armed forces deployed in southern Lebanon, and facilitating humanitarian access and civilian protection along the Blue Line, the de facto border between Israel and Lebanon. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) UNIFIL currently comprises approximately 10,500 peacekeepers from 48 troop-contributing countries; while India, Italy, Nepal, and China are among the largest contributors, the largest single troop contribution comes from Indonesia, not India, as confirmed in current UN Peacekeeping data. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect) UNIFIL is part of the UN Peacekeeping framework, with its funding provided through a separate annual budget approved by the UN General Assembly, distinct from the regular UN budget; this ensures operational independence and resource allocation specific to the mission. UNIFIL’s rules of engagement restrict the use of force strictly to self-defense or when required to carry out its mandate, consistent with the broader principles of international peacekeeping missions. UNIFIL operates in a region of high geopolitical tension between Israel and Hezbollah; its presence remains critical to preventing escalation and maintaining stability along the volatile Blue Line, especially in coordination with the Lebanese Armed Forces. https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-global/who-are-the-un-peacekeepers-at-lebanons-border-with-israel-9615962/

#### 21. Question

With reference to the United Nations Interim Force in Lebanon (UNIFIL), consider the following statements

• UNIFIL was established in response to the South Lebanon Conflict following an Israeli invasion in 1978.

• Its current mandate includes monitoring the cessation of hostilities between Hezbollah and Israel.

• India contributes the largest number of troops to UNIFIL among all countries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only 1

• (b) 1 and 2 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) All three

Solution: B

United Nations Interim Force in Lebanon (UNIFIL):m

• The United Nations Interim Force in Lebanon (UNIFIL) was established by the UN Security Council through Resolutions 425 and 426 in March 1978 following the Israeli invasion of southern Lebanon during the South Lebanon Conflict; its original mandate was to confirm Israeli withdrawal, restore peace and security, and assist the Lebanese government in reasserting its authority in the area. (Hence, statement 1 is correct)

• In response to the 34-day war between Hezbollah and Israel in 2006, where over 1,100 Lebanese civilians were killed, the Security Council adopted Resolution 1701, expanding UNIFIL’s mandate to include monitoring the cessation of hostilities, supporting Lebanese armed forces deployed in southern Lebanon, and facilitating humanitarian access and civilian protection along the Blue Line, the de facto border between Israel and Lebanon. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

• UNIFIL currently comprises approximately 10,500 peacekeepers from 48 troop-contributing countries; while India, Italy, Nepal, and China are among the largest contributors, the largest single troop contribution comes from Indonesia, not India, as confirmed in current UN Peacekeeping data. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect)

• UNIFIL is part of the UN Peacekeeping framework, with its funding provided through a separate annual budget approved by the UN General Assembly, distinct from the regular UN budget; this ensures operational independence and resource allocation specific to the mission.

• UNIFIL’s rules of engagement restrict the use of force strictly to self-defense or when required to carry out its mandate, consistent with the broader principles of international peacekeeping missions.

• UNIFIL operates in a region of high geopolitical tension between Israel and Hezbollah; its presence remains critical to preventing escalation and maintaining stability along the volatile Blue Line, especially in coordination with the Lebanese Armed Forces.

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-global/who-are-the-un-peacekeepers-at-lebanons-border-with-israel-9615962/

Solution: B

United Nations Interim Force in Lebanon (UNIFIL):m

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-global/who-are-the-un-peacekeepers-at-lebanons-border-with-israel-9615962/

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points With reference to the Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU), consider the following statements: It is a UN agency headquartered in Geneva. It promotes global cooperation among parliaments and protects the rights of parliamentarians. All decisions of the IPU are binding on its member parliaments. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 2 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All three Correct Solution: A Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU): Recently, Lok Sabha Speaker, leading an Indian Parliamentary Delegation at the 149th Assembly of the Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU) in Geneva, emphasised the importance of multilateralism in his address. The Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU) is an independent international organization of national parliaments; it is not a UN agency, although it works in close partnership with the United Nations and shares several thematic goals. It was founded in 1889 in Paris as the first multilateral political organization in the world promoting representative democracy and world peace. (Hence, statement 1 is incorrect) The IPU is headquartered in Geneva since 1921, and it supports parliamentary diplomacy, facilitates cooperation between legislatures, and strengthens parliamentary institutions across the globe to make them more democratic, gender-balanced, youth-inclusive, and diverse. It actively promotes global cooperation among parliaments and also defends the human rights of parliamentarians through a dedicated committee composed of sitting MPs. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) IPU decisions are not legally binding; it is not a treaty-based body, and its resolutions or declarations are based on political consensus and are voluntarily implemented by national parliaments. It serves as a platform for dialogue, not enforcement. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect) The IPU is funded primarily by its members through public funds, based on a scale of assessment similar to the UN. The IPU Assembly is the principal body that expresses the organization’s political positions and studies major international issues. It brings together members to adopt resolutions and promote action. The Governing Council is the policymaking body comprising three representatives per member parliament; it sets the annual programme and budget and elects key positions. https://www.newindianexpress.com/nation/2024/Oct/14/om-birla-highlights-indias-push-for-multilateralism-innovation-at-ipu-assembly-in-geneva Incorrect Solution: A Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU): Recently, Lok Sabha Speaker, leading an Indian Parliamentary Delegation at the 149th Assembly of the Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU) in Geneva, emphasised the importance of multilateralism in his address. The Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU) is an independent international organization of national parliaments; it is not a UN agency, although it works in close partnership with the United Nations and shares several thematic goals. It was founded in 1889 in Paris as the first multilateral political organization in the world promoting representative democracy and world peace. (Hence, statement 1 is incorrect) The IPU is headquartered in Geneva since 1921, and it supports parliamentary diplomacy, facilitates cooperation between legislatures, and strengthens parliamentary institutions across the globe to make them more democratic, gender-balanced, youth-inclusive, and diverse. It actively promotes global cooperation among parliaments and also defends the human rights of parliamentarians through a dedicated committee composed of sitting MPs. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) IPU decisions are not legally binding; it is not a treaty-based body, and its resolutions or declarations are based on political consensus and are voluntarily implemented by national parliaments. It serves as a platform for dialogue, not enforcement. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect) The IPU is funded primarily by its members through public funds, based on a scale of assessment similar to the UN. The IPU Assembly is the principal body that expresses the organization’s political positions and studies major international issues. It brings together members to adopt resolutions and promote action. The Governing Council is the policymaking body comprising three representatives per member parliament; it sets the annual programme and budget and elects key positions. https://www.newindianexpress.com/nation/2024/Oct/14/om-birla-highlights-indias-push-for-multilateralism-innovation-at-ipu-assembly-in-geneva

#### 22. Question

With reference to the Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU), consider the following statements:

• It is a UN agency headquartered in Geneva.

• It promotes global cooperation among parliaments and protects the rights of parliamentarians.

• All decisions of the IPU are binding on its member parliaments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only 2

• (b) 1 and 2 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) All three

Solution: A

Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU):

• Recently, Lok Sabha Speaker, leading an Indian Parliamentary Delegation at the 149th Assembly of the Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU) in Geneva, emphasised the importance of multilateralism in his address.

• The Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU) is an independent international organization of national parliaments; it is not a UN agency, although it works in close partnership with the United Nations and shares several thematic goals.

• It was founded in 1889 in Paris as the first multilateral political organization in the world promoting representative democracy and world peace. (Hence, statement 1 is incorrect)

• The IPU is headquartered in Geneva since 1921, and it supports parliamentary diplomacy, facilitates cooperation between legislatures, and strengthens parliamentary institutions across the globe to make them more democratic, gender-balanced, youth-inclusive, and diverse. It actively promotes global cooperation among parliaments and also defends the human rights of parliamentarians through a dedicated committee composed of sitting MPs. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

• IPU decisions are not legally binding; it is not a treaty-based body, and its resolutions or declarations are based on political consensus and are voluntarily implemented by national parliaments. It serves as a platform for dialogue, not enforcement. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect)

• The IPU is funded primarily by its members through public funds, based on a scale of assessment similar to the UN.

• The IPU Assembly is the principal body that expresses the organization’s political positions and studies major international issues. It brings together members to adopt resolutions and promote action.

• The Governing Council is the policymaking body comprising three representatives per member parliament; it sets the annual programme and budget and elects key positions.

https://www.newindianexpress.com/nation/2024/Oct/14/om-birla-highlights-indias-push-for-multilateralism-innovation-at-ipu-assembly-in-geneva

Solution: A

Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU):

• It was founded in 1889 in Paris as the first multilateral political organization in the world promoting representative democracy and world peace. (Hence, statement 1 is incorrect)

• The IPU is funded primarily by its members through public funds, based on a scale of assessment similar to the UN.

• The Governing Council is the policymaking body comprising three representatives per member parliament; it sets the annual programme and budget and elects key positions.

https://www.newindianexpress.com/nation/2024/Oct/14/om-birla-highlights-indias-push-for-multilateralism-innovation-at-ipu-assembly-in-geneva

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: India hosted the World Telecommunication Standardization Assembly (WTSA) 2024, marking the first time the event was held in the Asia-Pacific region. Statement-II: WTSA is a governing body of the International Telecommunication Union (ITU) that sets global telecommunication standards once every year. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: C World Telecommunication Standardization Assembly (WTSA): The World Telecommunication Standardization Assembly (WTSA) is the governing conference of the ITU Telecommunication Standardization Sector (ITU-T). It defines the structure of study groups, work programs, and methods for the standardization of global telecom technologies. (Hence, statement II is incorrect) WTSA is held once every four years, not annually. It is a quadrennial event, with the first assembly held in 2002. It plays a key role in shaping global standards for the telecom and ICT ecosystem. (Hence, statement II is incorrect) India hosted WTSA 2024 from October 14–24, 2024, at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi. This was the first time the assembly was held in the Asia-Pacific region, reflecting India’s increasing leadership in global digital and telecom standardization diplomacy. (Hence, statement I is correct) WTSA 2024 focused on frontier issues including 6G, artificial intelligence (AI), Internet of Things (IoT), big data, quantum communications, machine-to-machine interfaces, and cybersecurity, setting the direction for future global telecom interoperability and innovation. The ITU (International Telecommunication Union) is a UN specialized agency responsible for global coordination of information and communication technologies. It comprises three sectors: ITU-T (Standardization), ITU-R (Radiocommunication), and ITU-D (Development). WTSA resolutions are not binding but serve as globally recognized references for harmonizing standards, enabling interoperability, reducing technical trade barriers, and fostering secure and inclusive digital infrastructure. https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2064716#:~:text=Prime%20Minister%20Shri%20Narendra%20Modi,Congress%202024%20during%20the%20programme Incorrect Solution: C World Telecommunication Standardization Assembly (WTSA): The World Telecommunication Standardization Assembly (WTSA) is the governing conference of the ITU Telecommunication Standardization Sector (ITU-T). It defines the structure of study groups, work programs, and methods for the standardization of global telecom technologies. (Hence, statement II is incorrect) WTSA is held once every four years, not annually. It is a quadrennial event, with the first assembly held in 2002. It plays a key role in shaping global standards for the telecom and ICT ecosystem. (Hence, statement II is incorrect) India hosted WTSA 2024 from October 14–24, 2024, at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi. This was the first time the assembly was held in the Asia-Pacific region, reflecting India’s increasing leadership in global digital and telecom standardization diplomacy. (Hence, statement I is correct) WTSA 2024 focused on frontier issues including 6G, artificial intelligence (AI), Internet of Things (IoT), big data, quantum communications, machine-to-machine interfaces, and cybersecurity, setting the direction for future global telecom interoperability and innovation. The ITU (International Telecommunication Union) is a UN specialized agency responsible for global coordination of information and communication technologies. It comprises three sectors: ITU-T (Standardization), ITU-R (Radiocommunication), and ITU-D (Development). WTSA resolutions are not binding but serve as globally recognized references for harmonizing standards, enabling interoperability, reducing technical trade barriers, and fostering secure and inclusive digital infrastructure. https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2064716#:~:text=Prime%20Minister%20Shri%20Narendra%20Modi,Congress%202024%20during%20the%20programme

#### 23. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: India hosted the World Telecommunication Standardization Assembly (WTSA) 2024, marking the first time the event was held in the Asia-Pacific region.

Statement-II: WTSA is a governing body of the International Telecommunication Union (ITU) that sets global telecommunication standards once every year.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: C

World Telecommunication Standardization Assembly (WTSA):

• The World Telecommunication Standardization Assembly (WTSA) is the governing conference of the ITU Telecommunication Standardization Sector (ITU-T). It defines the structure of study groups, work programs, and methods for the standardization of global telecom technologies. (Hence, statement II is incorrect)

• WTSA is held once every four years, not annually. It is a quadrennial event, with the first assembly held in 2002. It plays a key role in shaping global standards for the telecom and ICT ecosystem. (Hence, statement II is incorrect)

• India hosted WTSA 2024 from October 14–24, 2024, at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi. This was the first time the assembly was held in the Asia-Pacific region, reflecting India’s increasing leadership in global digital and telecom standardization diplomacy. (Hence, statement I is correct)

• WTSA 2024 focused on frontier issues including 6G, artificial intelligence (AI), Internet of Things (IoT), big data, quantum communications, machine-to-machine interfaces, and cybersecurity, setting the direction for future global telecom interoperability and innovation.

• The ITU (International Telecommunication Union) is a UN specialized agency responsible for global coordination of information and communication technologies. It comprises three sectors: ITU-T (Standardization), ITU-R (Radiocommunication), and ITU-D (Development).

• WTSA resolutions are not binding but serve as globally recognized references for harmonizing standards, enabling interoperability, reducing technical trade barriers, and fostering secure and inclusive digital infrastructure.

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2064716#:~:text=Prime%20Minister%20Shri%20Narendra%20Modi,Congress%202024%20during%20the%20programme

Solution: C

World Telecommunication Standardization Assembly (WTSA):

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2064716#:~:text=Prime%20Minister%20Shri%20Narendra%20Modi,Congress%202024%20during%20the%20programme

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points The ‘Kazan Declaration’, recently seen in news, is associated with which of the following? (a) Global South Summit on Sustainable Agriculture (b) BRICS Summit's commitment to multilateralism and global security (c) UN Climate Change Conference (COP) declaration on climate finance (d) G20 resolution on digital public infrastructure Correct Solution: B Kazan Declaration: The Kazan Declaration was adopted at the 16th BRICS Summit, underscoring the group’s united stance on strengthening multilateralism, promoting a just global development order, and enhancing collective security frameworks. (Hence, option (b) is correct) The declaration emphasized reform of global governance institutions, especially the UN Security Council, to reflect the realities of the 21st century and better represent developing countries and the Global South. It called for enhanced cooperation among BRICS nations on issues such as sustainable development, inclusive growth, climate resilience, digital transformation, AI governance, and counter-terrorism. The summit was held under the chairmanship of Russia, and the declaration takes its name from Kazan, the host city for the 2024 BRICS Summit. The Kazan Declaration reaffirmed the BRICS commitment to upholding international law, sovereign equality of states, and non-interference in internal affairs, reflecting a counter-narrative to unipolar global frameworks. It also stressed the need for a multipolar world order, increased use of national currencies in trade, and reforms in global financial architecture including the IMF and World Bank. The declaration aligns with BRICS’ broader objective to act as a platform for South-South cooperation, with emphasis on technology sharing, energy transition, and institutional development in emerging economies. https://www.mea.gov.in/bilateral-documents.htm?dtl/38450/Kazan_Declaration__Strengthening_Multilateralism_For_Just_Global__Development_And_Security Incorrect Solution: B Kazan Declaration: The Kazan Declaration was adopted at the 16th BRICS Summit, underscoring the group’s united stance on strengthening multilateralism, promoting a just global development order, and enhancing collective security frameworks. (Hence, option (b) is correct) The declaration emphasized reform of global governance institutions, especially the UN Security Council, to reflect the realities of the 21st century and better represent developing countries and the Global South. It called for enhanced cooperation among BRICS nations on issues such as sustainable development, inclusive growth, climate resilience, digital transformation, AI governance, and counter-terrorism. The summit was held under the chairmanship of Russia, and the declaration takes its name from Kazan, the host city for the 2024 BRICS Summit. The Kazan Declaration reaffirmed the BRICS commitment to upholding international law, sovereign equality of states, and non-interference in internal affairs, reflecting a counter-narrative to unipolar global frameworks. It also stressed the need for a multipolar world order, increased use of national currencies in trade, and reforms in global financial architecture including the IMF and World Bank. The declaration aligns with BRICS’ broader objective to act as a platform for South-South cooperation, with emphasis on technology sharing, energy transition, and institutional development in emerging economies. https://www.mea.gov.in/bilateral-documents.htm?dtl/38450/Kazan_Declaration__Strengthening_Multilateralism_For_Just_Global__Development_And_Security

#### 24. Question

The ‘Kazan Declaration’, recently seen in news, is associated with which of the following?

• (a) Global South Summit on Sustainable Agriculture

• (b) BRICS Summit's commitment to multilateralism and global security

• (c) UN Climate Change Conference (COP) declaration on climate finance

• (d) G20 resolution on digital public infrastructure

Solution: B

Kazan Declaration:

• The Kazan Declaration was adopted at the 16th BRICS Summit, underscoring the group’s united stance on strengthening multilateralism, promoting a just global development order, and enhancing collective security frameworks. (Hence, option (b) is correct)

• The declaration emphasized reform of global governance institutions, especially the UN Security Council, to reflect the realities of the 21st century and better represent developing countries and the Global South.

• It called for enhanced cooperation among BRICS nations on issues such as sustainable development, inclusive growth, climate resilience, digital transformation, AI governance, and counter-terrorism.

• The summit was held under the chairmanship of Russia, and the declaration takes its name from Kazan, the host city for the 2024 BRICS Summit.

• The Kazan Declaration reaffirmed the BRICS commitment to upholding international law, sovereign equality of states, and non-interference in internal affairs, reflecting a counter-narrative to unipolar global frameworks.

• It also stressed the need for a multipolar world order, increased use of national currencies in trade, and reforms in global financial architecture including the IMF and World Bank.

• The declaration aligns with BRICS’ broader objective to act as a platform for South-South cooperation, with emphasis on technology sharing, energy transition, and institutional development in emerging economies.

https://www.mea.gov.in/bilateral-documents.htm?dtl/38450/Kazan_Declaration__Strengthening_Multilateralism_For_Just_Global__Development_And_Security

Solution: B

Kazan Declaration:

• The summit was held under the chairmanship of Russia, and the declaration takes its name from Kazan, the host city for the 2024 BRICS Summit.

• It also stressed the need for a multipolar world order, increased use of national currencies in trade, and reforms in global financial architecture including the IMF and World Bank.

https://www.mea.gov.in/bilateral-documents.htm?dtl/38450/Kazan_Declaration__Strengthening_Multilateralism_For_Just_Global__Development_And_Security

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points With reference to the Bima Sugam platform, consider the following statements: It is being developed under the supervision of the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) as part of the broader “Bima Trinity” strategy. It aims to function as a unified digital platform enabling policy purchase, claims settlement, portability, and grievance redressal for life and health insurance products only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A Bima Sugam: Bima Sugam is a digital insurance infrastructure initiative being developed under the supervision of the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI), which operates under the Ministry of Finance. It is one of the three core components of the “Bima Trinity”, along with Bima Vistaar and Bima Vahak, aimed at transforming the insurance ecosystem in India through digitization and inclusivity. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) The platform is designed to function as a unified digital marketplace for all major insurance categories — including life, health, and general insurance (e.g., motor, property). It allows for policy purchase, portability, claims processing, renewal, and grievance redressal across the entire insurance sector, not just life and health. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect) The goal is to streamline, simplify, and digitize the insurance experience for consumers, improve transparency, prevent mis-selling, and bring all insurers onto a single tech platform, with access to product comparison, claim tracking, and policy portability features. Bima Sugam is also expected to integrate with Aadhaar and government databases, enable e-KYC, and function as a paperless, interoperable insurance ecosystem. It will also host a special interface for Bima Vahaks (women-led local intermediaries) and support the rollout of Bima Vistaar (a bundled rural insurance product), thus aligning with India’s broader goals of financial inclusion and insurance for all by 2047. Incorrect Solution: A Bima Sugam: Bima Sugam is a digital insurance infrastructure initiative being developed under the supervision of the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI), which operates under the Ministry of Finance. It is one of the three core components of the “Bima Trinity”, along with Bima Vistaar and Bima Vahak, aimed at transforming the insurance ecosystem in India through digitization and inclusivity. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) The platform is designed to function as a unified digital marketplace for all major insurance categories — including life, health, and general insurance (e.g., motor, property). It allows for policy purchase, portability, claims processing, renewal, and grievance redressal across the entire insurance sector, not just life and health. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect) The goal is to streamline, simplify, and digitize the insurance experience for consumers, improve transparency, prevent mis-selling, and bring all insurers onto a single tech platform, with access to product comparison, claim tracking, and policy portability features. Bima Sugam is also expected to integrate with Aadhaar and government databases, enable e-KYC, and function as a paperless, interoperable insurance ecosystem. It will also host a special interface for Bima Vahaks (women-led local intermediaries) and support the rollout of Bima Vistaar (a bundled rural insurance product), thus aligning with India’s broader goals of financial inclusion and insurance for all by 2047.

#### 25. Question

With reference to the Bima Sugam platform, consider the following statements:

• It is being developed under the supervision of the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) as part of the broader “Bima Trinity” strategy.

• It aims to function as a unified digital platform enabling policy purchase, claims settlement, portability, and grievance redressal for life and health insurance products only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

Bima Sugam:

• Bima Sugam is a digital insurance infrastructure initiative being developed under the supervision of the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI), which operates under the Ministry of Finance. It is one of the three core components of the “Bima Trinity”, along with Bima Vistaar and Bima Vahak, aimed at transforming the insurance ecosystem in India through digitization and inclusivity. (Hence, statement 1 is correct)

• The platform is designed to function as a unified digital marketplace for all major insurance categories — including life, health, and general insurance (e.g., motor, property). It allows for policy purchase, portability, claims processing, renewal, and grievance redressal across the entire insurance sector, not just life and health. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect)

• The goal is to streamline, simplify, and digitize the insurance experience for consumers, improve transparency, prevent mis-selling, and bring all insurers onto a single tech platform, with access to product comparison, claim tracking, and policy portability features.

• Bima Sugam is also expected to integrate with Aadhaar and government databases, enable e-KYC, and function as a paperless, interoperable insurance ecosystem.

• It will also host a special interface for Bima Vahaks (women-led local intermediaries) and support the rollout of Bima Vistaar (a bundled rural insurance product), thus aligning with India’s broader goals of financial inclusion and insurance for all by 2047.

Solution: A

Bima Sugam:

• Bima Sugam is also expected to integrate with Aadhaar and government databases, enable e-KYC, and function as a paperless, interoperable insurance ecosystem.

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points In the past, people tended to have only one career for all of their working life until they retired. Now this is changing, and many people switch careers halfway through and train themselves to undertake a completely different job. It has been predicted that in the future the average person will have three careers in their lifetime. There are a few reasons for this. One is that, with technology, society is evolving rapidly, and certain types of jobs are appearing and disappearing so fast that people are compelled to change their professions to adapt to the changes around them. For example, due to the arrival of digital cameras, cameras that use film have almost become obsolete due to which traditional professional photographers and developers are no longer in demand, but many more jobs in the world of digital photography have opened up. Technology can also come and go quickly. The sheer number of video shops which opened in the 1980s shut down within a period of 20 years, and virtually no one uses a fax machine any more. These were industries that died away. However, as industries disappear, new ones open in their place, and the populace has to be flexible enough to fill in the new job roles that arise as a result. Another reason is that people are living longer, and as a result, their working lives are also getting extended. Apart from job roles disappearing over a period of 50 years which compels one to change their job, it can also be exciting and stimulating to try something new. The negative side of job changes like this is that people usually do not have any income while they are retraining, and it can be stressful for many people to make the change. On the positive side, people’s working lives become richer and more dynamic, and there seems to be no lack of new jobs for people to move into if they get the right training. Which of the following statements best captures the essence of the passage? a) Changing technology and AI leads to people’s jobs becoming redundant. b) Changing careers can take a huge toll on savings. c) The future will see people becoming more flexible about changing careers. d) All of the above Correct Correct Option: C Justification: The passage talks about the increasing commonality of people changing careers. Whether this is due to changes in industry or increased lifespan, people are learning to embrace flexibility and adapt to change. This is only likely to increase in the future as technology changes at a more rapid pace and can be exciting for people who get a chance to learn and experience new things. Hence, C. Incorrect Correct Option: C Justification: The passage talks about the increasing commonality of people changing careers. Whether this is due to changes in industry or increased lifespan, people are learning to embrace flexibility and adapt to change. This is only likely to increase in the future as technology changes at a more rapid pace and can be exciting for people who get a chance to learn and experience new things. Hence, C.

#### 26. Question

In the past, people tended to have only one career for all of their working life until they retired. Now this is changing, and many people switch careers halfway through and train themselves to undertake a completely different job. It has been predicted that in the future the average person will have three careers in their lifetime. There are a few reasons for this.

One is that, with technology, society is evolving rapidly, and certain types of jobs are appearing and disappearing so fast that people are compelled to change their professions to adapt to the changes around them. For example, due to the arrival of digital cameras, cameras that use film have almost become obsolete due to which traditional professional photographers and developers are no longer in demand, but many more jobs in the world of digital photography have opened up. Technology can also come and go quickly. The sheer number of video shops which opened in the 1980s shut down within a period of 20 years, and virtually no one uses a fax machine any more. These were industries that died away. However, as industries disappear, new ones open in their place, and the populace has to be flexible enough to fill in the new job roles that arise as a result.

Another reason is that people are living longer, and as a result, their working lives are also getting extended. Apart from job roles disappearing over a period of 50 years which compels one to change their job, it can also be exciting and stimulating to try something new.

The negative side of job changes like this is that people usually do not have any income while they are retraining, and it can be stressful for many people to make the change. On the positive side, people’s working lives become richer and more dynamic, and there seems to be no lack of new jobs for people to move into if they get the right training.

Which of the following statements best captures the essence of the passage?

• a) Changing technology and AI leads to people’s jobs becoming redundant.

• b) Changing careers can take a huge toll on savings.

• c) The future will see people becoming more flexible about changing careers.

• d) All of the above

Correct Option: C

Justification:

The passage talks about the increasing commonality of people changing careers. Whether this is due to changes in industry or increased lifespan, people are learning to embrace flexibility and adapt to change. This is only likely to increase in the future as technology changes at a more rapid pace and can be exciting for people who get a chance to learn and experience new things. Hence, C.

Correct Option: C

Justification:

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points The LCM of two numbers is 210 and their ratio is 2: 3. The sum of these numbers is: a) 210 b) 175 c) 315 d) Can't be determined Correct Correct Option: B Justification: Explanation 210 = 2 3 5 7 Therefore, N1 / N2 = (2K 5 7)/ (3K 5 7) Since, N1: N2 = 2:3 Therefore, N1 = 70 and N2 = 105 N1 + N2 = 70 + 105 = 175 Incorrect Correct Option: B Justification: Explanation 210 = 2 3 5 7 Therefore, N1 / N2 = (2K 5 7)/ (3K 5 7) Since, N1: N2 = 2:3 Therefore, N1 = 70 and N2 = 105 N1 + N2 = 70 + 105 = 175

#### 27. Question

The LCM of two numbers is 210 and their ratio is 2: 3. The sum of these numbers is:

• d) Can't be determined

Correct Option: B

Justification:

Explanation

210 = 2 3 5 * 7

Therefore, N1 / N2 = (2K 5 7)/ (3K 5 7)

Since, N1: N2 = 2:3

Therefore, N1 = 70 and N2 = 105

N1 + N2 = 70 + 105 = 175

Correct Option: B

Justification:

Explanation

210 = 2 3 5 * 7

Therefore, N1 / N2 = (2K 5 7)/ (3K 5 7)

Since, N1: N2 = 2:3

Therefore, N1 = 70 and N2 = 105

N1 + N2 = 70 + 105 = 175

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points Find the highest four-digit number that is divisible by each of the numbers 24, 36, 45 and 60? a) 9990 b) 9360 c) 9420 d) 9720 Correct Solution: D Justification: use prime factorizations: 24 = 2³ × 3 36 = 2² × 3² 45 = 3² × 5 60 = 2² × 3 × 5 Now, take the highest powers of each prime: 2³ 3² 5¹ So, LCM=23×32×5= 8×9×5 = 72×5=360 Now, find the highest 4-digit number divisible by 360 We need to find the greatest multiple of 360 ≤ 9999 i.e., 9999/ 360 = 27 27 360 = 9720 Incorrect Solution: D Justification: use prime factorizations: 24 = 2³ × 3 36 = 2² × 3² 45 = 3² × 5 60 = 2² × 3 × 5 Now, take the highest powers of each prime: 2³ 3² 5¹ So, LCM=23×32×5= 8×9×5 = 72×5=360 Now, find the highest 4-digit number divisible by 360 We need to find the greatest multiple of 360 ≤ 9999 i.e., 9999/ 360 = 27 27 360 = 9720

#### 28. Question

Find the highest four-digit number that is divisible by each of the numbers 24, 36, 45 and 60?

Solution: D

Justification:

use prime factorizations:

• 24 = 2³ × 3

• 36 = 2² × 3²

• 45 = 3² × 5

• 60 = 2² × 3 × 5

Now, take the highest powers of each prime:

LCM=23×32×5= 8×9×5 = 72×5=360

Now, find the highest 4-digit number divisible by 360

We need to find the greatest multiple of 360 ≤ 9999

i.e., 9999/ 360 = 27

27 360 = 9720*

Solution: D

Justification:

use prime factorizations:

• 24 = 2³ × 3

• 36 = 2² × 3²

• 45 = 3² × 5

• 60 = 2² × 3 × 5

Now, take the highest powers of each prime:

LCM=23×32×5= 8×9×5 = 72×5=360

Now, find the highest 4-digit number divisible by 360

We need to find the greatest multiple of 360 ≤ 9999

i.e., 9999/ 360 = 27

27 360 = 9720*

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points Three bells toll at intervals of 36 sec, 40 sec, and 48 sec respectively. They start singing together at a particular time. When will they toll next together? a) 6 minutes b) 12 minutes c) 18 minutes d) 24 minutes Correct Solution: B Bell intervals: 36 sec, 40 sec, 48 sec Find prime factorization: 36 = 2² × 3² 40 = 2³ × 5 48 = 2⁴ × 3 Then find LCM = Take the highest powers LCM = 2⁴ × 3² × 5 = 16 × 9 × 5 = 720 seconds Now convert to minutes: 720 ÷ 60 = 12 minutes Incorrect Solution: B Bell intervals: 36 sec, 40 sec, 48 sec Find prime factorization: 36 = 2² × 3² 40 = 2³ × 5 48 = 2⁴ × 3 Then find LCM = Take the highest powers LCM = 2⁴ × 3² × 5 = 16 × 9 × 5 = 720 seconds Now convert to minutes: 720 ÷ 60 = 12 minutes

#### 29. Question

Three bells toll at intervals of 36 sec, 40 sec, and 48 sec respectively. They start singing together at a particular time. When will they toll next together?

• a) 6 minutes

• b) 12 minutes

• c) 18 minutes

• d) 24 minutes

Solution: B

Bell intervals: 36 sec, 40 sec, 48 sec

Find prime factorization:

• 36 = 2² × 3²

• 40 = 2³ × 5

• 48 = 2⁴ × 3

Then find LCM = Take the highest powers

LCM = 2⁴ × 3² × 5 = 16 × 9 × 5 = 720 seconds

Now convert to minutes: 720 ÷ 60 = 12 minutes

Solution: B

Bell intervals: 36 sec, 40 sec, 48 sec

Find prime factorization:

• 36 = 2² × 3²

• 40 = 2³ × 5

• 48 = 2⁴ × 3

Then find LCM = Take the highest powers

LCM = 2⁴ × 3² × 5 = 16 × 9 × 5 = 720 seconds

Now convert to minutes: 720 ÷ 60 = 12 minutes

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points In a meet, persons from five different places have assembled in Insights High School. From the five places the persons come to represent are 42,60,210,90 and 84. What is the minimum number of rooms that would be required to accommodate so that each room has the same number of occupants and occupants are all from the same places? a) 44 b) 62 c) 81 d) 96 Correct Solution: C Find the HCF of all the group sizes: HCF of 42, 60, 210, 90, and 84 is 6 Then, divide each group by 6 to find number of rooms needed 42 ÷ 6 = 7 60 ÷ 6 = 10 210 ÷ 6 = 35 90 ÷ 6 = 15 84 ÷ 6 = 14 Now add them up: 7 + 10 + 35 + 15 + 14 = 81 rooms Incorrect Solution: C Find the HCF of all the group sizes: HCF of 42, 60, 210, 90, and 84 is 6 Then, divide each group by 6 to find number of rooms needed 42 ÷ 6 = 7 60 ÷ 6 = 10 210 ÷ 6 = 35 90 ÷ 6 = 15 84 ÷ 6 = 14 Now add them up: 7 + 10 + 35 + 15 + 14 = 81 rooms

#### 30. Question

In a meet, persons from five different places have assembled in Insights High School. From the five places the persons come to represent are 42,60,210,90 and 84. What is the minimum number of rooms that would be required to accommodate so that each room has the same number of occupants and occupants are all from the same places?

Solution: C

Find the HCF of all the group sizes:

• HCF of 42, 60, 210, 90, and 84 is 6

Then, divide each group by 6 to find number of rooms needed

• 42 ÷ 6 = 7

• 60 ÷ 6 = 10

• 210 ÷ 6 = 35

• 90 ÷ 6 = 15

• 84 ÷ 6 = 14

Now add them up: 7 + 10 + 35 + 15 + 14 = 81 rooms

Solution: C

Find the HCF of all the group sizes:

• HCF of 42, 60, 210, 90, and 84 is 6

Then, divide each group by 6 to find number of rooms needed

• 42 ÷ 6 = 7

• 60 ÷ 6 = 10

• 210 ÷ 6 = 35

• 90 ÷ 6 = 15

• 84 ÷ 6 = 14

Now add them up: 7 + 10 + 35 + 15 + 14 = 81 rooms

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