DAY – 28 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – GOVERNMENT SCHEMES, ORGANISATIONS & INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS, Subject-wise Test 11, 24 , Textbook-based Test – 14 and January 2024 CA

INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points With reference to Tele-Manas scheme, consider the following statements: It aims to provide free tele-maternal health services all over the country, particularly catering to women of reproductive age. The services will be available 24×7 on Toll Free Number, allowing callers to select the language of choice for availing services. It’s an initiative of Union Ministry of Women and Child Development. How many of the above given statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: a Explanation: Recently, the union health ministry said the Tele-Manas helpline under the National Tele Mental Health Programme has received over 200,000 calls since its launch in October 2022. Tele Mental Health Assistance and Networking across States (Tele-MANAS) initiative was launched on occasion of World Mental Health Day (October 10th) in 2022. Tele-MANAS aims to provide free tele-mental health services all over the country, particularly catering to people in remote or under-served areas. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. NIMHANS will be the nodal center while National Health Systems Resource Centre (NHRSC), IIT Bengaluru and IIITB will provide technology support. The services will be available 24×7 on Toll Free Number– 14416, allowing callers to select the language of choice for availing services. Hence, statement 2 is correct. At least One Tele-MANAS Cell to be established in each State/UT. Tele-MANAS will be organized in two tier system; Tier 1 comprises of state Tele-MANAS cells which include trained counsellors and mental health specialists. Tier 2 will comprise of specialists at District Mental Health Programme (DMHP)/Medical College resources for physical consultation and/or e-Sanjeevani for audio visual consultation. It’s an initiative of Union Ministry of Health & Family Welfare. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. National Mental Health Programme (NMHP): The Government of India has launched the National Mental Health Programme (NMHP) in 1982, with the following objectives: To ensure the availability and accessibility of minimum mental healthcare for all in the foreseeable future, particularly to the most vulnerable and underprivileged sections of the population; To encourage the application of mental health knowledge in general healthcare and in social development; To promote community participation in the mental health service development and to stimulate efforts towards self-help in the community. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Recently, the union health ministry said the Tele-Manas helpline under the National Tele Mental Health Programme has received over 200,000 calls since its launch in October 2022. Tele Mental Health Assistance and Networking across States (Tele-MANAS) initiative was launched on occasion of World Mental Health Day (October 10th) in 2022. Tele-MANAS aims to provide free tele-mental health services all over the country, particularly catering to people in remote or under-served areas. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. NIMHANS will be the nodal center while National Health Systems Resource Centre (NHRSC), IIT Bengaluru and IIITB will provide technology support. The services will be available 24×7 on Toll Free Number– 14416, allowing callers to select the language of choice for availing services. Hence, statement 2 is correct. At least One Tele-MANAS Cell to be established in each State/UT. Tele-MANAS will be organized in two tier system; Tier 1 comprises of state Tele-MANAS cells which include trained counsellors and mental health specialists. Tier 2 will comprise of specialists at District Mental Health Programme (DMHP)/Medical College resources for physical consultation and/or e-Sanjeevani for audio visual consultation. It’s an initiative of Union Ministry of Health & Family Welfare. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. National Mental Health Programme (NMHP): The Government of India has launched the National Mental Health Programme (NMHP) in 1982, with the following objectives: To ensure the availability and accessibility of minimum mental healthcare for all in the foreseeable future, particularly to the most vulnerable and underprivileged sections of the population; To encourage the application of mental health knowledge in general healthcare and in social development; To promote community participation in the mental health service development and to stimulate efforts towards self-help in the community. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 1. Question

With reference to Tele-Manas scheme, consider the following statements:

• It aims to provide free tele-maternal health services all over the country, particularly catering to women of reproductive age.

• The services will be available 24×7 on Toll Free Number, allowing callers to select the language of choice for availing services.

• It’s an initiative of Union Ministry of Women and Child Development.

How many of the above given statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Explanation:

• Recently, the union health ministry said the Tele-Manas helpline under the National Tele Mental Health Programme has received over 200,000 calls since its launch in October 2022.

• Tele Mental Health Assistance and Networking across States (Tele-MANAS) initiative was launched on occasion of World Mental Health Day (October 10th) in 2022.

• Tele-MANAS aims to provide free tele-mental health services all over the country, particularly catering to people in remote or under-served areas. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• NIMHANS will be the nodal center while National Health Systems Resource Centre (NHRSC), IIT Bengaluru and IIITB will provide technology support.

• The services will be available 24×7 on Toll Free Number– 14416, allowing callers to select the language of choice for availing services. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• At least One Tele-MANAS Cell to be established in each State/UT.

• Tele-MANAS will be organized in two tier system; Tier 1 comprises of state Tele-MANAS cells which include trained counsellors and mental health specialists. Tier 2 will comprise of specialists at District Mental Health Programme (DMHP)/Medical College resources for physical consultation and/or e-Sanjeevani for audio visual consultation.

• It’s an initiative of Union Ministry of Health & Family Welfare. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• National Mental Health Programme (NMHP):

• The Government of India has launched the National Mental Health Programme (NMHP) in 1982, with the following objectives:

• To ensure the availability and accessibility of minimum mental healthcare for all in the foreseeable future, particularly to the most vulnerable and underprivileged sections of the population;

• To encourage the application of mental health knowledge in general healthcare and in social development;

• To promote community participation in the mental health service development and to stimulate efforts towards self-help in the community.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• Recently, the union health ministry said the Tele-Manas helpline under the National Tele Mental Health Programme has received over 200,000 calls since its launch in October 2022.

• Tele Mental Health Assistance and Networking across States (Tele-MANAS) initiative was launched on occasion of World Mental Health Day (October 10th) in 2022.

• Tele-MANAS aims to provide free tele-mental health services all over the country, particularly catering to people in remote or under-served areas. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• NIMHANS will be the nodal center while National Health Systems Resource Centre (NHRSC), IIT Bengaluru and IIITB will provide technology support.

• The services will be available 24×7 on Toll Free Number– 14416, allowing callers to select the language of choice for availing services. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• At least One Tele-MANAS Cell to be established in each State/UT.

• It’s an initiative of Union Ministry of Health & Family Welfare. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• National Mental Health Programme (NMHP):

• The Government of India has launched the National Mental Health Programme (NMHP) in 1982, with the following objectives:

• To ensure the availability and accessibility of minimum mental healthcare for all in the foreseeable future, particularly to the most vulnerable and underprivileged sections of the population;

• To encourage the application of mental health knowledge in general healthcare and in social development;

• To promote community participation in the mental health service development and to stimulate efforts towards self-help in the community.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points What is the primary goal of the ‘SMART 2.0’ initiative? a) To foster collaborative clinical studies in priority areas of Ayurveda. b) To support and collaborate with technology innovators and start-ups in the medical technology sector. c) To restructure existing schemes of capacity building of teachers. d) To foster growth of AI and Machine Learning among college students. Correct Answer: a Explanation: ‘SMART 2.0’ (Scope for Mainstreaming Ayurveda Research among Teaching professionals) program The Central Council for Research in Ayurvedic Sciences (CCRAS) and the National Commission for Indian System of Medicine (NCISM) have jointly launched the ‘SMART 2.0’ (Scope for Mainstreaming Ayurveda Research among Teaching professionals) program. CCRAS is an apex organization for the formulation, co-ordination, development and promotion of research on scientific lines in Ayurveda, functioning under the Ministry of Ayush. This initiative aims to foster collaborative clinical studies in priority areas of Ayurveda with academic institutions and hospitals across India. The goal of ‘SMART 2.0’ is to generate tangible evidence demonstrating the efficacy and safety of Ayurvedic interventions through interdisciplinary research methods, translating the findings into public healthcare. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: ‘SMART 2.0’ (Scope for Mainstreaming Ayurveda Research among Teaching professionals) program The Central Council for Research in Ayurvedic Sciences (CCRAS) and the National Commission for Indian System of Medicine (NCISM) have jointly launched the ‘SMART 2.0’ (Scope for Mainstreaming Ayurveda Research among Teaching professionals) program. CCRAS is an apex organization for the formulation, co-ordination, development and promotion of research on scientific lines in Ayurveda, functioning under the Ministry of Ayush. This initiative aims to foster collaborative clinical studies in priority areas of Ayurveda with academic institutions and hospitals across India. The goal of ‘SMART 2.0’ is to generate tangible evidence demonstrating the efficacy and safety of Ayurvedic interventions through interdisciplinary research methods, translating the findings into public healthcare. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 2. Question

What is the primary goal of the ‘SMART 2.0’ initiative?

• a) To foster collaborative clinical studies in priority areas of Ayurveda.

• b) To support and collaborate with technology innovators and start-ups in the medical technology sector.

• c) To restructure existing schemes of capacity building of teachers.

• d) To foster growth of AI and Machine Learning among college students.

Explanation:

• ‘SMART 2.0’ (Scope for Mainstreaming Ayurveda Research among Teaching professionals) program

• The Central Council for Research in Ayurvedic Sciences (CCRAS) and the National Commission for Indian System of Medicine (NCISM) have jointly launched the ‘SMART 2.0’ (Scope for Mainstreaming Ayurveda Research among Teaching professionals) program.

• CCRAS is an apex organization for the formulation, co-ordination, development and promotion of research on scientific lines in Ayurveda, functioning under the Ministry of Ayush.

• This initiative aims to foster collaborative clinical studies in priority areas of Ayurveda with academic institutions and hospitals across India.

• The goal of ‘SMART 2.0’ is to generate tangible evidence demonstrating the efficacy and safety of Ayurvedic interventions through interdisciplinary research methods, translating the findings into public healthcare.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• ‘SMART 2.0’ (Scope for Mainstreaming Ayurveda Research among Teaching professionals) program

• CCRAS is an apex organization for the formulation, co-ordination, development and promotion of research on scientific lines in Ayurveda, functioning under the Ministry of Ayush.

• This initiative aims to foster collaborative clinical studies in priority areas of Ayurveda with academic institutions and hospitals across India.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points What does ‘APAAR’ stand for in the context of the education system in India? a) Academic Performance Assessment and Registration b) Automated Permanent Academic Account Registry c) Academic Profile Access and Registration d) All-India Performance Assessment and Records Correct Answer: b Explanation: Automated Permanent Academic Account Registry or ‘APAAR’ card : The Union Education Ministry has introduced the concept of ‘One Nation, One Student ID,‘ referred to as APAAR ID, in alignment with the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020. The APAAR ID, which stands for ‘Automated Permanent Academic Account Registry,’ is a digital identification system for students in India. Highlights: The APAAR ID is an education ecosystem registry system known as ‘EduLocker’ for students across all states in India. It will digitally store academic qualifications, credit scores, certificates, and other academic data for students from pre-primary to higher education. To enroll in the APAAR ID system, students must obtain their parent’s consent, and the states have been directed to initiate this process. The unique 12-digit APAAR ID will be used for admissions and other academic activities, making it convenient for students. This initiative aims to create a unified educational system, enhance security, and make academic data easily accessible for students. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Automated Permanent Academic Account Registry or ‘APAAR’ card : The Union Education Ministry has introduced the concept of ‘One Nation, One Student ID,‘ referred to as APAAR ID, in alignment with the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020. The APAAR ID, which stands for ‘Automated Permanent Academic Account Registry,’ is a digital identification system for students in India. Highlights: The APAAR ID is an education ecosystem registry system known as ‘EduLocker’ for students across all states in India. It will digitally store academic qualifications, credit scores, certificates, and other academic data for students from pre-primary to higher education. To enroll in the APAAR ID system, students must obtain their parent’s consent, and the states have been directed to initiate this process. The unique 12-digit APAAR ID will be used for admissions and other academic activities, making it convenient for students. This initiative aims to create a unified educational system, enhance security, and make academic data easily accessible for students. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 3. Question

What does ‘APAAR’ stand for in the context of the education system in India?

• a) Academic Performance Assessment and Registration

• b) Automated Permanent Academic Account Registry

• c) Academic Profile Access and Registration

• d) All-India Performance Assessment and Records

Explanation:

• Automated Permanent Academic Account Registry or ‘APAAR’ card :

• The Union Education Ministry has introduced the concept of ‘One Nation, One Student ID,‘ referred to as APAAR ID, in alignment with the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020.

• The APAAR ID, which stands for ‘Automated Permanent Academic Account Registry,’ is a digital identification system for students in India.

• Highlights:

• The APAAR ID is an education ecosystem registry system known as ‘EduLocker’ for students across all states in India.

• It will digitally store academic qualifications, credit scores, certificates, and other academic data for students from pre-primary to higher education.

• To enroll in the APAAR ID system, students must obtain their parent’s consent, and the states have been directed to initiate this process.

• The unique 12-digit APAAR ID will be used for admissions and other academic activities, making it convenient for students.

• This initiative aims to create a unified educational system, enhance security, and make academic data easily accessible for students.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• Automated Permanent Academic Account Registry or ‘APAAR’ card :

• The Union Education Ministry has introduced the concept of ‘One Nation, One Student ID,‘ referred to as APAAR ID, in alignment with the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020.

• The APAAR ID, which stands for ‘Automated Permanent Academic Account Registry,’ is a digital identification system for students in India.

• Highlights:

• The APAAR ID is an education ecosystem registry system known as ‘EduLocker’ for students across all states in India.

• It will digitally store academic qualifications, credit scores, certificates, and other academic data for students from pre-primary to higher education.

• To enroll in the APAAR ID system, students must obtain their parent’s consent, and the states have been directed to initiate this process.

• The unique 12-digit APAAR ID will be used for admissions and other academic activities, making it convenient for students.

• This initiative aims to create a unified educational system, enhance security, and make academic data easily accessible for students.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Which of the following is one of the key components of the NIPUN Bharat Programme aimed at reducing dropouts and improving transition rates? a) Providing free textbooks to all students b) Introducing smart learning techniques at the primary level c) Foundational skills development to keep children in class d) Developing a holistic approach that ensures a fair assessment of students Correct Answer: c Explanation: NIPUN stands for the National Initiative for Proficiency in Reading with Understanding and Numeracy. The Programme is an initiative of the Ministry of Education. It will be implemented by the Department of School Education and Literacy. Target: It has been envisioned for ensuring that every child in the country necessarily attains foundational literacy and numeracy by the end of Grade 3, by 2026-27. It will cover the learning needs of children in the age group of 3 to 9 years. Implementation: A five-tier implementation mechanism will be set up at the National- State- District- BlockSchool level in all States and UTs, under the aegis of the centrally sponsored scheme of Samagra Shiksha. Focus areas: The mission focuses on different domains of development like physical and motor development, socio-emotional development, literacy and numeracy development, cognitive development, life skills etc. for Holistic development of the child. It is envisaged to support and encourage students, along with their schools, teachers, parents, and communities, in every way possible, to help realize the true potential of children and propel the country to new heights. Key components and expected outcomes of NIPUN Bharat Mission: Foundational skills enable to keep children in class thereby reducing the dropouts and improve transition rate from primary to upper primary and secondary stages. Activity based learning and a conducive learning environment will improve the quality of education. Innovative pedagogies such as toy-based and experiential learning will be used in classroom transactions thereby making learning a joyful and engaging activity. Intensive capacity building of teachers will make them empowered and provide greater autonomy for choosing the pedagogy. Hence, option(c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: NIPUN stands for the National Initiative for Proficiency in Reading with Understanding and Numeracy. The Programme is an initiative of the Ministry of Education. It will be implemented by the Department of School Education and Literacy. Target: It has been envisioned for ensuring that every child in the country necessarily attains foundational literacy and numeracy by the end of Grade 3, by 2026-27. It will cover the learning needs of children in the age group of 3 to 9 years. Implementation: A five-tier implementation mechanism will be set up at the National- State- District- BlockSchool level in all States and UTs, under the aegis of the centrally sponsored scheme of Samagra Shiksha. Focus areas: The mission focuses on different domains of development like physical and motor development, socio-emotional development, literacy and numeracy development, cognitive development, life skills etc. for Holistic development of the child. It is envisaged to support and encourage students, along with their schools, teachers, parents, and communities, in every way possible, to help realize the true potential of children and propel the country to new heights. Key components and expected outcomes of NIPUN Bharat Mission: Foundational skills enable to keep children in class thereby reducing the dropouts and improve transition rate from primary to upper primary and secondary stages. Activity based learning and a conducive learning environment will improve the quality of education. Innovative pedagogies such as toy-based and experiential learning will be used in classroom transactions thereby making learning a joyful and engaging activity. Intensive capacity building of teachers will make them empowered and provide greater autonomy for choosing the pedagogy. Hence, option(c) is correct.

#### 4. Question

Which of the following is one of the key components of the NIPUN Bharat Programme aimed at reducing dropouts and improving transition rates?

• a) Providing free textbooks to all students

• b) Introducing smart learning techniques at the primary level

• c) Foundational skills development to keep children in class

• d) Developing a holistic approach that ensures a fair assessment of students

Explanation:

• NIPUN stands for the National Initiative for Proficiency in Reading with Understanding and Numeracy.

• The Programme is an initiative of the Ministry of Education.

• It will be implemented by the Department of School Education and Literacy.

• Target: It has been envisioned for ensuring that every child in the country necessarily attains foundational literacy and numeracy by the end of Grade 3, by 2026-27.

• It will cover the learning needs of children in the age group of 3 to 9 years.

• Implementation:

• A five-tier implementation mechanism will be set up at the National- State- District- BlockSchool level in all States and UTs, under the aegis of the centrally sponsored scheme of Samagra Shiksha.

• Focus areas:

• The mission focuses on different domains of development like physical and motor development, socio-emotional development, literacy and numeracy development, cognitive development, life skills etc. for Holistic development of the child.

• It is envisaged to support and encourage students, along with their schools, teachers, parents, and communities, in every way possible, to help realize the true potential of children and propel the country to new heights.

• Key components and expected outcomes of NIPUN Bharat Mission:

• Foundational skills enable to keep children in class thereby reducing the dropouts and improve transition rate from primary to upper primary and secondary stages.

• Activity based learning and a conducive learning environment will improve the quality of education.

• Innovative pedagogies such as toy-based and experiential learning will be used in classroom transactions thereby making learning a joyful and engaging activity.

• Intensive capacity building of teachers will make them empowered and provide greater autonomy for choosing the pedagogy.

• Hence, option(c) is correct.

Explanation:

• NIPUN stands for the National Initiative for Proficiency in Reading with Understanding and Numeracy.

• The Programme is an initiative of the Ministry of Education.

• It will be implemented by the Department of School Education and Literacy.

• Target: It has been envisioned for ensuring that every child in the country necessarily attains foundational literacy and numeracy by the end of Grade 3, by 2026-27.

• It will cover the learning needs of children in the age group of 3 to 9 years.

• Implementation:

• Focus areas:

• Key components and expected outcomes of NIPUN Bharat Mission:

• Foundational skills enable to keep children in class thereby reducing the dropouts and improve transition rate from primary to upper primary and secondary stages.

• Activity based learning and a conducive learning environment will improve the quality of education.

• Innovative pedagogies such as toy-based and experiential learning will be used in classroom transactions thereby making learning a joyful and engaging activity.

• Intensive capacity building of teachers will make them empowered and provide greater autonomy for choosing the pedagogy.

• Hence, option(c) is correct.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements with reference to Palna Scheme: Formerly known as the National Creche Scheme, Palna Scheme is a centrally sponsored initiative under the Ministry of Women and Child Development. Targeting children aged 6 months to 6 years, Palna Scheme primarily caters to the offspring of working women in both rural and urban areas. Which of the above statements is/are *incorrect? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: d Explanation: The Union Women and Child Development Ministry aims to establish 17,000 creches in Anganwadi Centres across the country. This is being done as part of Palna Scheme. Nodal Ministry Ministry of Women and Child Development Earlier Name National Creche Scheme Type Centrally Sponsored Scheme. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Aim 1) To address the urgent need for quality day-care facilities /creches for the children of working women. 2) To improve nutrition and health status of children. Focus of the scheme The scheme focuses on two types of creches 1) Anganwadi-cum-Crèches: These centers combine existing Anganwadi services with dedicated crèche facilities. This approach aims to holistically address the needs of both mothers and children in one convenient location. 2) Stand-alone creches: The crèches which were running under the erstwhile National Creche Scheme have been included as Stand Alone Creches. Target Group The scheme focuses on children of 6 months to 6 years, of working women in rural and urban areas who are employed for a minimum period of 15 days in a month, or six months in a year. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: The Union Women and Child Development Ministry aims to establish 17,000 creches in Anganwadi Centres across the country. This is being done as part of Palna Scheme. Nodal Ministry Ministry of Women and Child Development Earlier Name National Creche Scheme Type Centrally Sponsored Scheme. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Aim 1) To address the urgent need for quality day-care facilities /creches for the children of working women. 2) To improve nutrition and health status of children. Focus of the scheme The scheme focuses on two types of creches 1) Anganwadi-cum-Crèches: These centers combine existing Anganwadi services with dedicated crèche facilities. This approach aims to holistically address the needs of both mothers and children in one convenient location. 2) Stand-alone creches: The crèches which were running under the erstwhile National Creche Scheme have been included as Stand Alone Creches. Target Group The scheme focuses on children of 6 months to 6 years, of working women in rural and urban areas who are employed for a minimum period of 15 days in a month, or six months in a year. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Hence, option (d) is correct. *

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements with reference to Palna Scheme:

• Formerly known as the National Creche Scheme, Palna Scheme is a centrally sponsored initiative under the Ministry of Women and Child Development.

• Targeting children aged 6 months to 6 years, Palna Scheme primarily caters to the offspring of working women in both rural and urban areas.

Which of the above statements is/are *incorrect*?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• The Union Women and Child Development Ministry aims to establish 17,000 creches in Anganwadi Centres across the country. This is being done as part of Palna Scheme.

Nodal Ministry | Ministry of Women and Child Development

Earlier Name | National Creche Scheme

Type | Centrally Sponsored Scheme. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Aim | 1) To address the urgent need for quality day-care facilities /creches for the children of working women. 2) To improve nutrition and health status of children.

Focus of the scheme | The scheme focuses on two types of creches 1) Anganwadi-cum-Crèches: These centers combine existing Anganwadi services with dedicated crèche facilities. This approach aims to holistically address the needs of both mothers and children in one convenient location. 2) Stand-alone creches: The crèches which were running under the erstwhile National Creche Scheme have been included as Stand Alone Creches.

Target Group | The scheme focuses on children of 6 months to 6 years, of working women in rural and urban areas who are employed for a minimum period of 15 days in a month, or six months in a year. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

• The Union Women and Child Development Ministry aims to establish 17,000 creches in Anganwadi Centres across the country. This is being done as part of Palna Scheme.

Nodal Ministry | Ministry of Women and Child Development

Earlier Name | National Creche Scheme

Type | Centrally Sponsored Scheme. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Aim | 1) To address the urgent need for quality day-care facilities /creches for the children of working women. 2) To improve nutrition and health status of children.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) resolutions carry only political weight and are not legally binding on member countries. The International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR) is a multilateral treaty adopted by the United Nations Security Council (UNSC). Article 2 of the UN charter gives the power to the Secretary-General to bring matters concerning international peace to the Security Council’s attention. How many of the above statements with reference to UN are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: A Explanation: UN General Assembly (UNGA): popularly known as the parliament of the world, where all the 193 UN member states are represented, the UNGA is the deliberative, policymaking and representative organ of the UN. Roles and functions: Takes a decision on important matters such as peace and security, discusses various global issues and budgetary matters. Decides on matters such as the admission of new members. Each of the 193 Member States in the Assembly has one vote. Votes taken on designated important issues – such as recommendations on peace and security, the election of Security Council and Economic and Social Council members, and budgetary questions – require a two-thirds majority of Member States, but other questions are decided by a simple majority. In recent years, an effort has been made to achieve consensus on issues, rather than deciding by a formal vote, thus strengthening support for the Assembly’s decisions. The President, after having consulted and reached agreement with delegations, can propose that a resolution be adopted without a vote. The Assembly has no binding votes or veto powers like the UN Security Council. The UNGA can express world opinion, promote international cooperation in various fields and make recommendations to the UNSC and elect the Security Council’s non-permanent members. Resolutions passed by the UNGA are considered non-binding recommendations and carry political weight rather than legal obligations. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR) is a multilateral treaty adopted by the United Nations General Assembly. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. The covenant commits its parties to respect the civil and political rights of individuals, including the right to life, freedom of religion, freedom of speech, freedom of assembly, electoral rights and rights to due process and a fair trial. The ICCPR is part of the International Bill of Human Rights, along with the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (ICESCR) and the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR). The ICCPR is monitored by the United Nations Human Rights Committee. Article 99 allows the Secretary-General to bring matters threatening international peace to the Security Council’s attention. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Due to military attacks in Gaza, UN Secretary-General Antonio Guterres had invoked Article 99 of the UN Charter to establish a ceasefire. The provision has been rarely invoked. Past examples include the upheaval in the Republic of the Congo in 1960 following the end of Belgium’s colonial rule and a complaint by Tunisia in 1961 against France’s naval and air forces launching an attack. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: UN General Assembly (UNGA): popularly known as the parliament of the world, where all the 193 UN member states are represented, the UNGA is the deliberative, policymaking and representative organ of the UN. Roles and functions: Takes a decision on important matters such as peace and security, discusses various global issues and budgetary matters. Decides on matters such as the admission of new members. Each of the 193 Member States in the Assembly has one vote. Votes taken on designated important issues – such as recommendations on peace and security, the election of Security Council and Economic and Social Council members, and budgetary questions – require a two-thirds majority of Member States, but other questions are decided by a simple majority. In recent years, an effort has been made to achieve consensus on issues, rather than deciding by a formal vote, thus strengthening support for the Assembly’s decisions. The President, after having consulted and reached agreement with delegations, can propose that a resolution be adopted without a vote. The Assembly has no binding votes or veto powers like the UN Security Council. The UNGA can express world opinion, promote international cooperation in various fields and make recommendations to the UNSC and elect the Security Council’s non-permanent members. Resolutions passed by the UNGA are considered non-binding recommendations and carry political weight rather than legal obligations. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR) is a multilateral treaty adopted by the United Nations General Assembly. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. The covenant commits its parties to respect the civil and political rights of individuals, including the right to life, freedom of religion, freedom of speech, freedom of assembly, electoral rights and rights to due process and a fair trial. The ICCPR is part of the International Bill of Human Rights, along with the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (ICESCR) and the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR). The ICCPR is monitored by the United Nations Human Rights Committee. Article 99 allows the Secretary-General to bring matters threatening international peace to the Security Council’s attention. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Due to military attacks in Gaza, UN Secretary-General Antonio Guterres had invoked Article 99 of the UN Charter to establish a ceasefire. The provision has been rarely invoked. Past examples include the upheaval in the Republic of the Congo in 1960 following the end of Belgium’s colonial rule and a complaint by Tunisia in 1961 against France’s naval and air forces launching an attack. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) resolutions carry only political weight and are not legally binding on member countries.

• The International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR) is a multilateral treaty adopted by the United Nations Security Council (UNSC).

• Article 2 of the UN charter gives the power to the Secretary-General to bring matters concerning international peace to the Security Council’s attention.

How many of the above statements with reference to UN are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Explanation:

• UN General Assembly (UNGA): popularly known as the parliament of the world, where all the 193 UN member states are represented, the UNGA is the deliberative, policymaking and representative organ of the UN.

• Roles and functions:

• Takes a decision on important matters such as peace and security, discusses various global issues and budgetary matters.

• Decides on matters such as the admission of new members.

• Each of the 193 Member States in the Assembly has one vote. Votes taken on designated important issues – such as recommendations on peace and security, the election of Security Council and Economic and Social Council members, and budgetary questions – require a two-thirds majority of Member States, but other questions are decided by a simple majority.

• In recent years, an effort has been made to achieve consensus on issues, rather than deciding by a formal vote, thus strengthening support for the Assembly’s decisions. The President, after having consulted and reached agreement with delegations, can propose that a resolution be adopted without a vote.

• The Assembly has no binding votes or veto powers like the UN Security Council.

• The UNGA can express world opinion, promote international cooperation in various fields and make recommendations to the UNSC and elect the Security Council’s non-permanent members.

• Resolutions passed by the UNGA are considered non-binding recommendations and carry political weight rather than legal obligations. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR) is a multilateral treaty adopted by the United Nations General Assembly. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• The covenant commits its parties to respect the civil and political rights of individuals, including the right to life, freedom of religion, freedom of speech, freedom of assembly, electoral rights and rights to due process and a fair trial.

• The ICCPR is part of the International Bill of Human Rights, along with the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (ICESCR) and the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR).

• The ICCPR is monitored by the United Nations Human Rights Committee.

• Article 99 allows the Secretary-General to bring matters threatening international peace to the Security Council’s attention. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Due to military attacks in Gaza, UN Secretary-General Antonio Guterres had invoked Article 99 of the UN Charter to establish a ceasefire. The provision has been rarely invoked. Past examples include the upheaval in the Republic of the Congo in 1960 following the end of Belgium’s colonial rule and a complaint by Tunisia in 1961 against France’s naval and air forces launching an attack.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• Roles and functions:

• Takes a decision on important matters such as peace and security, discusses various global issues and budgetary matters.

• Decides on matters such as the admission of new members.

• The Assembly has no binding votes or veto powers like the UN Security Council.

• The UNGA can express world opinion, promote international cooperation in various fields and make recommendations to the UNSC and elect the Security Council’s non-permanent members.

• Resolutions passed by the UNGA are considered non-binding recommendations and carry political weight rather than legal obligations. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR) is a multilateral treaty adopted by the United Nations General Assembly. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• The ICCPR is monitored by the United Nations Human Rights Committee.

• Article 99 allows the Secretary-General to bring matters threatening international peace to the Security Council’s attention. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Which of the following statements about SWIFT is correct? a) SWIFT directly facilitates funds transfer between financial institutions. b) Each financial organization in SWIFT is assigned a random code for identification. c) SWIFT ensures the secure transmission of information through a standardized system of codes. d) SWIFT does not require correspondent accounts for settling payment orders. Correct Answer: c Explanation: Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication (SWIFT): It is a messaging network that financial institutions use to securely transmit information and instructions through a standardized system of codes. Under SWIFT, each financial organization has a unique code which is used to send and receive payments. The Belgium-headquartered SWIFT connects more than 11,000 banking and securities organizations in over 200 countries and territories. It was started in 1973. Functions: SWIFT does not facilitate funds transfer: SWIFT does not directly facilitate funds transfer but rather sends payment orders between financial institutions. Hence, statement (a) is incorrect. Financial organizations in SWIFT are assigned unique codes known as the SWIFT/BIC (Bank Identifier Code) for identification, not random codes. Hence, statement (b) is incorrect. The SWIFT is a secure financial message carrier. SWIFT ensures the secure transmission of information through a standardized system of codes. SWIFT indeed provides a secure transmission channel for financial messages using standardized codes. Hence, statement (c) is correct. Correspondent accounts are necessary for settling payment orders sent through SWIFT. Hence, statement (d) is incorrect. Hence, option(c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication (SWIFT): It is a messaging network that financial institutions use to securely transmit information and instructions through a standardized system of codes. Under SWIFT, each financial organization has a unique code which is used to send and receive payments. The Belgium-headquartered SWIFT connects more than 11,000 banking and securities organizations in over 200 countries and territories. It was started in 1973. Functions: SWIFT does not facilitate funds transfer: SWIFT does not directly facilitate funds transfer but rather sends payment orders between financial institutions. Hence, statement (a) is incorrect. Financial organizations in SWIFT are assigned unique codes known as the SWIFT/BIC (Bank Identifier Code) for identification, not random codes. Hence, statement (b) is incorrect. The SWIFT is a secure financial message carrier. SWIFT ensures the secure transmission of information through a standardized system of codes. SWIFT indeed provides a secure transmission channel for financial messages using standardized codes. Hence, statement (c) is correct. Correspondent accounts are necessary for settling payment orders sent through SWIFT. Hence, statement (d) is incorrect. Hence, option(c) is correct.

#### 7. Question

Which of the following statements about SWIFT is correct?

• a) SWIFT directly facilitates funds transfer between financial institutions.

• b) Each financial organization in SWIFT is assigned a random code for identification.

• c) SWIFT ensures the secure transmission of information through a standardized system of codes.

• d) SWIFT does not require correspondent accounts for settling payment orders.

Explanation:

• Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication (SWIFT):

• It is a messaging network that financial institutions use to securely transmit information and instructions through a standardized system of codes. Under SWIFT, each financial organization has a unique code which is used to send and receive payments.

• The Belgium-headquartered SWIFT connects more than 11,000 banking and securities organizations in over 200 countries and territories. It was started in 1973.

• Functions:

• SWIFT does not facilitate funds transfer: SWIFT does not directly facilitate funds transfer but rather sends payment orders between financial institutions. Hence, statement (a) is incorrect.

• Financial organizations in SWIFT are assigned unique codes known as the SWIFT/BIC (Bank Identifier Code) for identification, not random codes. Hence, statement (b) is incorrect.

• The SWIFT is a secure financial message carrier. SWIFT ensures the secure transmission of information through a standardized system of codes. SWIFT indeed provides a secure transmission channel for financial messages using standardized codes. Hence, statement (c) is correct.

• Correspondent accounts are necessary for settling payment orders sent through SWIFT. Hence, statement (d) is incorrect.

Hence, option(c) is correct.

Explanation:

• Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication (SWIFT):

• The Belgium-headquartered SWIFT connects more than 11,000 banking and securities organizations in over 200 countries and territories. It was started in 1973.

• Functions:

• Financial organizations in SWIFT are assigned unique codes known as the SWIFT/BIC (Bank Identifier Code) for identification, not random codes. Hence, statement (b) is incorrect.

• Correspondent accounts are necessary for settling payment orders sent through SWIFT. Hence, statement (d) is incorrect.

Hence, option(c) is correct.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Which one of the following best describes the concept of ‘Stand by Arrangements’ of IMF? a) It is a concessional financing provided to low income countries facing balance of payments needs caused by sudden and exogenous shocks. b) It is a protection measure allowed for developing countries to take contingency restrictions against agricultural imports that are causing injuries to domestic farmers. c) It is an emergency account that IMF members can access without agreeing to conditions or paying a service fee. d) It is a financial assistance provided to help countries address short-term balance of payment problems where disbursements are made conditional on achieving certain targets set by IMF. Correct Answer: d Explanation: Stand by Arrangements are non-concessional IMF assistance designed to help countries address short-term balance of payments Program targets are designed to address these problems and disbursements are made conditional on achieving these targets (‘conditionality’). The length of a SBA is typically 12–24 months, but no more than 36 months and repayment is due within 3¼-5 years of disbursement. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: Stand by Arrangements are non-concessional IMF assistance designed to help countries address short-term balance of payments Program targets are designed to address these problems and disbursements are made conditional on achieving these targets (‘conditionality’). The length of a SBA is typically 12–24 months, but no more than 36 months and repayment is due within 3¼-5 years of disbursement. Hence, option (d) is correct.

#### 8. Question

Which one of the following best describes the concept of ‘Stand by Arrangements’ of IMF?

• a) It is a concessional financing provided to low income countries facing balance of payments needs caused by sudden and exogenous shocks.

• b) It is a protection measure allowed for developing countries to take contingency restrictions against agricultural imports that are causing injuries to domestic farmers.

• c) It is an emergency account that IMF members can access without agreeing to conditions or paying a service fee.

• d) It is a financial assistance provided to help countries address short-term balance of payment problems where disbursements are made conditional on achieving certain targets set by IMF.

Explanation:

• Stand by Arrangements are non-concessional IMF assistance designed to help countries address short-term balance of payments Program targets are designed to address these problems and disbursements are made conditional on achieving these targets (‘conditionality’). The length of a SBA is typically 12–24 months, but no more than 36 months and repayment is due within 3¼-5 years of disbursement.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Consider the following: Fiscal Monitor World Economic Outlook Global Financial Stability Report External Sector Report How many of the above reports are published by the IMF? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: d Explanation: IMF publications: World Economic Outlook- Twice a year Global Financial Stability Report-Twice a year Fiscal Monitor-Twice a year External Sector Report- yearly Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: IMF publications: World Economic Outlook- Twice a year Global Financial Stability Report-Twice a year Fiscal Monitor-Twice a year External Sector Report- yearly Hence, option (d) is correct.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following:

• Fiscal Monitor

• World Economic Outlook

• Global Financial Stability Report

• External Sector Report

How many of the above reports are published by the IMF?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

IMF publications:

• World Economic Outlook- Twice a year

• Global Financial Stability Report-Twice a year

• Fiscal Monitor-Twice a year

• External Sector Report- yearly

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

IMF publications:

• World Economic Outlook- Twice a year

• Global Financial Stability Report-Twice a year

• Fiscal Monitor-Twice a year

• External Sector Report- yearly

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Consider the following: National Hydrology Project The National Rural Livelihoods Project Eastern Dedicated Freight Corridor PM-KISAN How many of the above are *not funded by the World Bank? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Answer: a Explanation: National Hydrology Project-Total Project Cost: US $ 350 million. World Bank Support: US $ 175 million. The National Rural Livelihoods Project-Total Project Cost: US $ 1171 million. World Bank Support: US $ 1000 Million Eastern Dedicated Freight Corridor phase 3-Total Project Cost: US $ 1107 million. World Bank Support: US $ 650 Million. PM-KISAN is fully financed by the Central Government. It is not funded by the World Bank. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: National Hydrology Project-Total Project Cost: US $ 350 million. World Bank Support: US $ 175 million. The National Rural Livelihoods Project-Total Project Cost: US $ 1171 million. World Bank Support: US $ 1000 Million Eastern Dedicated Freight Corridor phase 3-Total Project Cost: US $ 1107 million. World Bank Support: US $ 650 Million. PM-KISAN is fully financed by the Central Government. It is not funded by the World Bank. Hence, option (a) is correct. *

#### 10. Question

Consider the following:

• National Hydrology Project

• The National Rural Livelihoods Project

• Eastern Dedicated Freight Corridor

How many of the above are *not* funded by the World Bank?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Explanation:

• National Hydrology Project-Total Project Cost: US $ 350 million. World Bank Support: US $ 175 million.

• The National Rural Livelihoods Project-Total Project Cost: US $ 1171 million. World Bank Support: US $ 1000 Million

• Eastern Dedicated Freight Corridor phase 3-Total Project Cost: US $ 1107 million. World Bank Support: US $ 650 Million.

• PM-KISAN is fully financed by the Central Government. It is not funded by the World Bank.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• National Hydrology Project-Total Project Cost: US $ 350 million. World Bank Support: US $ 175 million.

• The National Rural Livelihoods Project-Total Project Cost: US $ 1171 million. World Bank Support: US $ 1000 Million

• Eastern Dedicated Freight Corridor phase 3-Total Project Cost: US $ 1107 million. World Bank Support: US $ 650 Million.

• PM-KISAN is fully financed by the Central Government. It is not funded by the World Bank.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points At COP28, a landmark decision was made to establish a loss and damage fund. What is the primary purpose of this fund? (a) To invest in clean energy projects in developed countries (b) To provide financial assistance to developing countries affected by climate disasters (c) To subsidize carbon offset schemes globally (d) To finance industrialization in emerging economies Correct Solution: B The Loss and Damage fund, established during the COP28 climate conference, is designed to address a crucial aspect of climate change — the adverse effects and aftermath of climate disasters that disproportionately impact developing nations. These countries often lack the robust infrastructure and financial resilience to manage the immediate and long-term consequences of climate-related events such as floods, droughts, and hurricanes. The fund is an acknowledgment by the international community of the need for financial mechanisms that can aid recovery and offer support to those most vulnerable to climate impacts. Purpose and Significance: The fund’s primary purpose is to provide financial support to developing countries that are grappling with the loss and damage caused by extreme weather events and other climate-related disasters. This includes but is not limited to: Rebuilding and repairing infrastructure damaged by natural disasters. Supporting communities that have lost their homes, livelihoods, and access to essential services. Assisting with the immediate humanitarian needs post-disaster, like providing food, water, and medical aid. Facilitating the recovery of economies by providing funds to restore agricultural productivity, rebuild markets, and compensate for lost trade and revenue. The concept of ‘loss and damage’ encompasses not only economic losses, such as damaged infrastructure and lost income, but also non-economic losses, like the loss of biodiversity, cultural heritage, and displacement of communities. Incorrect Solution: B The Loss and Damage fund, established during the COP28 climate conference, is designed to address a crucial aspect of climate change — the adverse effects and aftermath of climate disasters that disproportionately impact developing nations. These countries often lack the robust infrastructure and financial resilience to manage the immediate and long-term consequences of climate-related events such as floods, droughts, and hurricanes. The fund is an acknowledgment by the international community of the need for financial mechanisms that can aid recovery and offer support to those most vulnerable to climate impacts. Purpose and Significance: The fund’s primary purpose is to provide financial support to developing countries that are grappling with the loss and damage caused by extreme weather events and other climate-related disasters. This includes but is not limited to: Rebuilding and repairing infrastructure damaged by natural disasters. Supporting communities that have lost their homes, livelihoods, and access to essential services. Assisting with the immediate humanitarian needs post-disaster, like providing food, water, and medical aid. Facilitating the recovery of economies by providing funds to restore agricultural productivity, rebuild markets, and compensate for lost trade and revenue. The concept of ‘loss and damage’ encompasses not only economic losses, such as damaged infrastructure and lost income, but also non-economic losses, like the loss of biodiversity, cultural heritage, and displacement of communities.

#### 11. Question

At COP28, a landmark decision was made to establish a loss and damage fund. What is the primary purpose of this fund?

• (a) To invest in clean energy projects in developed countries

• (b) To provide financial assistance to developing countries affected by climate disasters

• (c) To subsidize carbon offset schemes globally

• (d) To finance industrialization in emerging economies

Solution: B

The Loss and Damage fund, established during the COP28 climate conference, is designed to address a crucial aspect of climate change — the adverse effects and aftermath of climate disasters that disproportionately impact developing nations. These countries often lack the robust infrastructure and financial resilience to manage the immediate and long-term consequences of climate-related events such as floods, droughts, and hurricanes. The fund is an acknowledgment by the international community of the need for financial mechanisms that can aid recovery and offer support to those most vulnerable to climate impacts.

Purpose and Significance: The fund’s primary purpose is to provide financial support to developing countries that are grappling with the loss and damage caused by extreme weather events and other climate-related disasters. This includes but is not limited to:

• Rebuilding and repairing infrastructure damaged by natural disasters.

• Supporting communities that have lost their homes, livelihoods, and access to essential services.

• Assisting with the immediate humanitarian needs post-disaster, like providing food, water, and medical aid.

• Facilitating the recovery of economies by providing funds to restore agricultural productivity, rebuild markets, and compensate for lost trade and revenue.

The concept of ‘loss and damage’ encompasses not only economic losses, such as damaged infrastructure and lost income, but also non-economic losses, like the loss of biodiversity, cultural heritage, and displacement of communities.

Solution: B

• Rebuilding and repairing infrastructure damaged by natural disasters.

• Supporting communities that have lost their homes, livelihoods, and access to essential services.

• Assisting with the immediate humanitarian needs post-disaster, like providing food, water, and medical aid.

• Facilitating the recovery of economies by providing funds to restore agricultural productivity, rebuild markets, and compensate for lost trade and revenue.

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points What is the primary function of Article 99 of the United Nations Charter? (a) It allows any member state to veto resolutions in the Security Council. (b) It grants the UN Secretary-General the authority to refer matters of international peace and security to the Security Council. (c) It outlines the procedures for electing the Secretary-General of the United Nations. (d) It provides a framework for military intervention by UN forces. Correct Solution: B The primary function of Article 99 of the United Nations Charter is to empower the UN Secretary-General to act as a kind of global watchdog with respect to threats to international peace and security. Under Article 99, the Secretary-General has the unique authority to bring to the attention of the Security Council any matter that, in his or her opinion, may threaten the maintenance of international peace and security. Detail on the Operational Mechanism of Article 99: Initiative: The Secretary-General can invoke Article 99 at his own initiative. This means he does not need the prompting of a member state to act. Scope and Discretion: The matters that may be brought before the Security Council are not limited by geography, scale, or nature—they can be any issues that the Secretary-General deems a threat. This gives the Secretary-General significant discretionary power. Preventive Diplomacy: One of the key intentions behind this article is to allow the Secretary-General to engage in preventive diplomacy. By alerting the Security Council early on potential issues, the aim is to prevent conflicts from escalating or even starting. Procedure: When the Secretary-General invokes Article 99, it does not require a formal meeting of the Security Council. The matter can be brought to the attention of the Council through a variety of means, such as a letter, a report, or a briefing. Outcome: The invocation of Article 99 does not automatically lead to a particular action by the Security Council. Once informed, the Council may then decide whether to take up the issue, how to address it, and what measures or resolutions to pass, if any. Historical Use and Importance: Rare Use: Article 99 has been rarely invoked in the history of the UN, reflecting the gravity and sensitivity of stepping beyond the diplomatic norm where the Security Council typically awaits a member state to raise issues. Significance: When invoked, it signifies a situation of significant concern and usually garners immediate international attention and a degree of urgency. The power granted by Article 99 is a vital tool in the Secretary-General’s arsenal for maintaining global peace and stability and reflects the responsibility vested in the office to act on behalf of the international community when peace is imperilled. https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/article-99-un-invoke-israel-gaza-explained-9058381/ Incorrect Solution: B The primary function of Article 99 of the United Nations Charter is to empower the UN Secretary-General to act as a kind of global watchdog with respect to threats to international peace and security. Under Article 99, the Secretary-General has the unique authority to bring to the attention of the Security Council any matter that, in his or her opinion, may threaten the maintenance of international peace and security. Detail on the Operational Mechanism of Article 99: Initiative: The Secretary-General can invoke Article 99 at his own initiative. This means he does not need the prompting of a member state to act. Scope and Discretion: The matters that may be brought before the Security Council are not limited by geography, scale, or nature—they can be any issues that the Secretary-General deems a threat. This gives the Secretary-General significant discretionary power. Preventive Diplomacy: One of the key intentions behind this article is to allow the Secretary-General to engage in preventive diplomacy. By alerting the Security Council early on potential issues, the aim is to prevent conflicts from escalating or even starting. Procedure: When the Secretary-General invokes Article 99, it does not require a formal meeting of the Security Council. The matter can be brought to the attention of the Council through a variety of means, such as a letter, a report, or a briefing. Outcome: The invocation of Article 99 does not automatically lead to a particular action by the Security Council. Once informed, the Council may then decide whether to take up the issue, how to address it, and what measures or resolutions to pass, if any. Historical Use and Importance: Rare Use: Article 99 has been rarely invoked in the history of the UN, reflecting the gravity and sensitivity of stepping beyond the diplomatic norm where the Security Council typically awaits a member state to raise issues. Significance: When invoked, it signifies a situation of significant concern and usually garners immediate international attention and a degree of urgency. The power granted by Article 99 is a vital tool in the Secretary-General’s arsenal for maintaining global peace and stability and reflects the responsibility vested in the office to act on behalf of the international community when peace is imperilled. https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/article-99-un-invoke-israel-gaza-explained-9058381/

#### 12. Question

What is the primary function of Article 99 of the United Nations Charter?

• (a) It allows any member state to veto resolutions in the Security Council.

• (b) It grants the UN Secretary-General the authority to refer matters of international peace and security to the Security Council.

• (c) It outlines the procedures for electing the Secretary-General of the United Nations.

• (d) It provides a framework for military intervention by UN forces.

Solution: B

The primary function of Article 99 of the United Nations Charter is to empower the UN Secretary-General to act as a kind of global watchdog with respect to threats to international peace and security. Under Article 99, the Secretary-General has the unique authority to bring to the attention of the Security Council any matter that, in his or her opinion, may threaten the maintenance of international peace and security.

Detail on the Operational Mechanism of Article 99:

• Initiative: The Secretary-General can invoke Article 99 at his own initiative. This means he does not need the prompting of a member state to act.

• Scope and Discretion: The matters that may be brought before the Security Council are not limited by geography, scale, or nature—they can be any issues that the Secretary-General deems a threat. This gives the Secretary-General significant discretionary power.

• Preventive Diplomacy: One of the key intentions behind this article is to allow the Secretary-General to engage in preventive diplomacy. By alerting the Security Council early on potential issues, the aim is to prevent conflicts from escalating or even starting.

• Procedure: When the Secretary-General invokes Article 99, it does not require a formal meeting of the Security Council. The matter can be brought to the attention of the Council through a variety of means, such as a letter, a report, or a briefing.

• Outcome: The invocation of Article 99 does not automatically lead to a particular action by the Security Council. Once informed, the Council may then decide whether to take up the issue, how to address it, and what measures or resolutions to pass, if any.

Historical Use and Importance:

• Rare Use: Article 99 has been rarely invoked in the history of the UN, reflecting the gravity and sensitivity of stepping beyond the diplomatic norm where the Security Council typically awaits a member state to raise issues.

• Significance: When invoked, it signifies a situation of significant concern and usually garners immediate international attention and a degree of urgency.

The power granted by Article 99 is a vital tool in the Secretary-General’s arsenal for maintaining global peace and stability and reflects the responsibility vested in the office to act on behalf of the international community when peace is imperilled.

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/article-99-un-invoke-israel-gaza-explained-9058381/

Solution: B

Detail on the Operational Mechanism of Article 99:

• Initiative: The Secretary-General can invoke Article 99 at his own initiative. This means he does not need the prompting of a member state to act.

Historical Use and Importance:

• Significance: When invoked, it signifies a situation of significant concern and usually garners immediate international attention and a degree of urgency.

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/article-99-un-invoke-israel-gaza-explained-9058381/

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points What aspect of the EU’s new AI legislation requires strict adherence and transparency from AI systems? (a) The use of encryption algorithms. (b) The source code of AI applications. (c) The data and methodologies used for training algorithms. (d) The pricing model of AI services. Correct Solution: C The European Union’s new AI legislation focuses on establishing a legal framework that governs the use of Artificial Intelligence (AI) across member states. This legislation is particularly stringent about the transparency of AI systems. By mandating transparency in the data and methodologies used for training algorithms, the legislation aims to prevent the emergence and perpetuation of bias, ensure the protection of personal data, and foster trust in AI technologies. Companies are expected to provide clear documentation of their AI systems’ decision-making processes, which includes detailing the datasets used for training, the choices made during the development of algorithms, and the testing procedures to validate the system’s outputs. https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/columns/a-penal-code-for-ai-9216837/#:~:text=The%20EU%20says%20that%20the,The%20new%20law%20seeks%20to Incorrect Solution: C The European Union’s new AI legislation focuses on establishing a legal framework that governs the use of Artificial Intelligence (AI) across member states. This legislation is particularly stringent about the transparency of AI systems. By mandating transparency in the data and methodologies used for training algorithms, the legislation aims to prevent the emergence and perpetuation of bias, ensure the protection of personal data, and foster trust in AI technologies. Companies are expected to provide clear documentation of their AI systems’ decision-making processes, which includes detailing the datasets used for training, the choices made during the development of algorithms, and the testing procedures to validate the system’s outputs. https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/columns/a-penal-code-for-ai-9216837/#:~:text=The%20EU%20says%20that%20the,The%20new%20law%20seeks%20to

#### 13. Question

What aspect of the EU’s new AI legislation requires strict adherence and transparency from AI systems?

• (a) The use of encryption algorithms.

• (b) The source code of AI applications.

• (c) The data and methodologies used for training algorithms.

• (d) The pricing model of AI services.

Solution: C

The European Union’s new AI legislation focuses on establishing a legal framework that governs the use of Artificial Intelligence (AI) across member states. This legislation is particularly stringent about the transparency of AI systems.

By mandating transparency in the data and methodologies used for training algorithms, the legislation aims to prevent the emergence and perpetuation of bias, ensure the protection of personal data, and foster trust in AI technologies. Companies are expected to provide clear documentation of their AI systems’ decision-making processes, which includes detailing the datasets used for training, the choices made during the development of algorithms, and the testing procedures to validate the system’s outputs.

https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/columns/a-penal-code-for-ai-9216837/#:~:text=The%20EU%20says%20that%20the,The%20new%20law%20seeks%20to

Solution: C

https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/columns/a-penal-code-for-ai-9216837/#:~:text=The%20EU%20says%20that%20the,The%20new%20law%20seeks%20to

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Pompe Disease: Pompe disease is a type of genetic disorder that affects muscle and respiratory functions. It is caused by mutations in the GAA gene, which affects the production of the enzyme acid alpha-glucosidase. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Both statements are correct. Pompe Disease is a rare genetic disorder. It falls within a group of metabolic disorders known as glycogen storage diseases, characterized by an accumulation of glycogen in the body’s cells. The primary reason for this accumulation is the malfunctioning of the enzyme responsible for breaking down glycogen – acid alpha-glucosidase (GAA). This leads to progressive muscle weakness, which affects both skeletal muscles, responsible for movement, and respiratory muscles, needed for breathing. Individuals with Pompe Disease may have difficulty with mobility due to muscle weakness and experience respiratory complications, such as difficulty breathing and an increased risk of respiratory infections. https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/mumbai/being-nidhis-parents-a-24-year-journey-of-joy-and-struggles-with-indias-first-pompe-disease-patient-9055760 Incorrect Solution: C Both statements are correct. Pompe Disease is a rare genetic disorder. It falls within a group of metabolic disorders known as glycogen storage diseases, characterized by an accumulation of glycogen in the body’s cells. The primary reason for this accumulation is the malfunctioning of the enzyme responsible for breaking down glycogen – acid alpha-glucosidase (GAA). This leads to progressive muscle weakness, which affects both skeletal muscles, responsible for movement, and respiratory muscles, needed for breathing. Individuals with Pompe Disease may have difficulty with mobility due to muscle weakness and experience respiratory complications, such as difficulty breathing and an increased risk of respiratory infections. https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/mumbai/being-nidhis-parents-a-24-year-journey-of-joy-and-struggles-with-indias-first-pompe-disease-patient-9055760

#### 14. Question

Consider the following statements about Pompe Disease:

• Pompe disease is a type of genetic disorder that affects muscle and respiratory functions.

• It is caused by mutations in the GAA gene, which affects the production of the enzyme acid alpha-glucosidase.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

Both statements are correct.

Pompe Disease is a rare genetic disorder. It falls within a group of metabolic disorders known as glycogen storage diseases, characterized by an accumulation of glycogen in the body’s cells. The primary reason for this accumulation is the malfunctioning of the enzyme responsible for breaking down glycogen – acid alpha-glucosidase (GAA). This leads to progressive muscle weakness, which affects both skeletal muscles, responsible for movement, and respiratory muscles, needed for breathing. Individuals with Pompe Disease may have difficulty with mobility due to muscle weakness and experience respiratory complications, such as difficulty breathing and an increased risk of respiratory infections.

https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/mumbai/being-nidhis-parents-a-24-year-journey-of-joy-and-struggles-with-indias-first-pompe-disease-patient-9055760

Solution: C

Both statements are correct.

https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/mumbai/being-nidhis-parents-a-24-year-journey-of-joy-and-struggles-with-indias-first-pompe-disease-patient-9055760

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Advocates (Amendment) Act, 2023: It prescribes six years’ imprisonment for persons illegally practicing in courts and before other authorities. It enables every High Court and district judge to frame and publish lists of touts Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B What does The Advocates (Amendment) Act, 2023, say? The 2023 Act amends the 1961 Act by inserting a new provision after Section 45, which prescribes six months’ imprisonment for persons illegally practicing in courts and before other authorities. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. The new provision, Section 45A, enables every High Court and district judge to frame and publish lists of touts. However, no person’s name will be included in any such list until they have had an opportunity to show cause against such inclusion. Hence, statement 2 is correct. If proven to be a tout, the person’s name will be included in the list of touts that will be published by the authority, and displayed in every court. The court or judge may exclude any person whose name is included in any such list from the court’s vicinity. Additionally, this provision punishes any one acting as a tout “while his name is included in any such list” with imprisonment up to three months, a fine that may extend to five hundred rupees or both. Incorrect Solution: B What does The Advocates (Amendment) Act, 2023, say? The 2023 Act amends the 1961 Act by inserting a new provision after Section 45, which prescribes six months’ imprisonment for persons illegally practicing in courts and before other authorities. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. The new provision, Section 45A, enables every High Court and district judge to frame and publish lists of touts. However, no person’s name will be included in any such list until they have had an opportunity to show cause against such inclusion. Hence, statement 2 is correct. If proven to be a tout, the person’s name will be included in the list of touts that will be published by the authority, and displayed in every court. The court or judge may exclude any person whose name is included in any such list from the court’s vicinity. Additionally, this provision punishes any one acting as a tout “while his name is included in any such list” with imprisonment up to three months, a fine that may extend to five hundred rupees or both.

#### 15. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Advocates (Amendment) Act, 2023:

• It prescribes six years’ imprisonment for persons illegally practicing in courts and before other authorities.

• It enables every High Court and district judge to frame and publish lists of touts

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

What does The Advocates (Amendment) Act, 2023, say?

The 2023 Act amends the 1961 Act by inserting a new provision after Section 45, which prescribes six months’ imprisonment for persons illegally practicing in courts and before other authorities.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

The new provision, Section 45A, enables every High Court and district judge to frame and publish lists of touts. However, no person’s name will be included in any such list until they have had an opportunity to show cause against such inclusion.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

If proven to be a tout, the person’s name will be included in the list of touts that will be published by the authority, and displayed in every court. The court or judge may exclude any person whose name is included in any such list from the court’s vicinity.

Additionally, this provision punishes any one acting as a tout “while his name is included in any such list” with imprisonment up to three months, a fine that may extend to five hundred rupees or both.

Solution: B

What does The Advocates (Amendment) Act, 2023, say?

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Thankga Paintings: These are scroll paintings depicting events of spiritual significance of Buddha. The base in the painting is in the form of a ground layer- gesso and chalk. These paintings can only be painted by the Buddhist Lamas and monks. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Apart from the spiritual element, Buddhism inspired and promoted art and culture throughout the sub-continent and it enthused artists to create aesthetic marvels in the form of paintings, architecture, and sculptures. Statement 1 is correct: Thangkas are mainly sacred scroll paintings depicting Buddhist deities, events of spiritual significance from the lives of Buddha, monks, and masters, or even compositions of mandala designs that have a symbolic relevance and aid in meditation. Statement 2 is correct: During the initial stages of preparing a Thangka painting, a cloth is strung and stretched across a bamboo/wooden frame to provide a uniform base and avoid slackening. The base is in the form of a ground layer- gesso (glue) and chalk. In some cases, a light pigment is applied. These paintings are part of a living and practised tradition and hence highly revered among the Buddhist communities. The iconography and structural composition play an equally important role in making these paintings divine. Statement 3 is not correct: The pictorial composition of a Thangka painting is complicated and includes a number of elements that need to be executed with perfection and precision. Initially, these were painted by the Buddhist Lamas and monks and the art was passed to the lay artists much later. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Apart from the spiritual element, Buddhism inspired and promoted art and culture throughout the sub-continent and it enthused artists to create aesthetic marvels in the form of paintings, architecture, and sculptures. Statement 1 is correct: Thangkas are mainly sacred scroll paintings depicting Buddhist deities, events of spiritual significance from the lives of Buddha, monks, and masters, or even compositions of mandala designs that have a symbolic relevance and aid in meditation. Statement 2 is correct: During the initial stages of preparing a Thangka painting, a cloth is strung and stretched across a bamboo/wooden frame to provide a uniform base and avoid slackening. The base is in the form of a ground layer- gesso (glue) and chalk. In some cases, a light pigment is applied. These paintings are part of a living and practised tradition and hence highly revered among the Buddhist communities. The iconography and structural composition play an equally important role in making these paintings divine. Statement 3 is not correct: The pictorial composition of a Thangka painting is complicated and includes a number of elements that need to be executed with perfection and precision. Initially, these were painted by the Buddhist Lamas and monks and the art was passed to the lay artists much later.

#### 16. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Thankga Paintings:

• These are scroll paintings depicting events of spiritual significance of Buddha.

• The base in the painting is in the form of a ground layer- gesso and chalk.

• These paintings can only be painted by the Buddhist Lamas and monks.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

Apart from the spiritual element, Buddhism inspired and promoted art and culture throughout the sub-continent and it enthused artists to create aesthetic marvels in the form of paintings, architecture, and sculptures.

Statement 1 is correct: Thangkas are mainly sacred scroll paintings depicting Buddhist deities, events of spiritual significance from the lives of Buddha, monks, and masters, or even compositions of mandala designs that have a symbolic relevance and aid in meditation.

Statement 2 is correct: During the initial stages of preparing a Thangka painting, a cloth is strung and stretched across a bamboo/wooden frame to provide a uniform base and avoid slackening. The base is in the form of a ground layer- gesso (glue) and chalk. In some cases, a light pigment is applied.

These paintings are part of a living and practised tradition and hence highly revered among the Buddhist communities. The iconography and structural composition play an equally important role in making these paintings divine.

Statement 3 is not correct: The pictorial composition of a Thangka painting is complicated and includes a number of elements that need to be executed with perfection and precision. Initially, these were painted by the Buddhist Lamas and monks and the art was passed to the lay artists much later.

Answer: B

Explanation:

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID) is a group of rare disorders caused by mutations in different genes involved in the development of infection-fighting immune cells. Statement-II: The best-known autosomal recessive SCID is caused by the adenosine deaminase deficiency, in which infants lack the ADA enzyme necessary for T-cell survival. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-l is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement I is correct: Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) is a group of rare disorders caused by mutations in different genes involved in the development and function of infection-fighting immune cells. Infants with SCID appear healthy at birth but are highly susceptible to severe infections. The condition is fatal, usually within the first year or two of life, unless infants receive immune-restoring treatments, such as transplants of blood-forming stem cells, gene therapy, or enzyme therapy. Statement II is correct but not the correct explanation for Statement-I: The best-known form of autosomal recessive SCID is caused by adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency, in which infants lack the ADA enzyme necessary for T-cell survival. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement I is correct: Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) is a group of rare disorders caused by mutations in different genes involved in the development and function of infection-fighting immune cells. Infants with SCID appear healthy at birth but are highly susceptible to severe infections. The condition is fatal, usually within the first year or two of life, unless infants receive immune-restoring treatments, such as transplants of blood-forming stem cells, gene therapy, or enzyme therapy. Statement II is correct but not the correct explanation for Statement-I: The best-known form of autosomal recessive SCID is caused by adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency, in which infants lack the ADA enzyme necessary for T-cell survival.

#### 17. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:

The Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID) is a group of rare disorders caused by mutations in different genes involved in the development of infection-fighting immune cells.

Statement-II:

The best-known autosomal recessive SCID is caused by the adenosine deaminase deficiency, in which infants lack the ADA enzyme necessary for T-cell survival.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-l is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement I is correct: Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) is a group of rare disorders caused by mutations in different genes involved in the development and function of infection-fighting immune cells.

Infants with SCID appear healthy at birth but are highly susceptible to severe infections.

The condition is fatal, usually within the first year or two of life, unless infants receive immune-restoring treatments, such as transplants of blood-forming stem cells, gene therapy, or enzyme therapy.

Statement II is correct but not the correct explanation for Statement-I: The best-known form of autosomal recessive SCID is caused by adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency, in which infants lack the ADA enzyme necessary for T-cell survival.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Infants with SCID appear healthy at birth but are highly susceptible to severe infections.

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID) is a group of rare disorders caused by mutations in different genes involved in the development of infection-fighting immune cells. Statement-II: The best-known autosomal recessive SCID is caused by the adenosine deaminase deficiency, in which infants lack the ADA enzyme necessary for T-cell survival. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-l is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement I is correct: Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) is a group of rare disorders caused by mutations in different genes involved in the development and function of infection-fighting immune cells. Infants with SCID appear healthy at birth but are highly susceptible to severe infections. The condition is fatal, usually within the first year or two of life, unless infants receive immune-restoring treatments, such as transplants of blood-forming stem cells, gene therapy, or enzyme therapy. Statement II is correct but not the correct explanation for Statement-I: The best-known form of autosomal recessive SCID is caused by adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency, in which infants lack the ADA enzyme necessary for T-cell survival. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement I is correct: Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) is a group of rare disorders caused by mutations in different genes involved in the development and function of infection-fighting immune cells. Infants with SCID appear healthy at birth but are highly susceptible to severe infections. The condition is fatal, usually within the first year or two of life, unless infants receive immune-restoring treatments, such as transplants of blood-forming stem cells, gene therapy, or enzyme therapy. Statement II is correct but not the correct explanation for Statement-I: The best-known form of autosomal recessive SCID is caused by adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency, in which infants lack the ADA enzyme necessary for T-cell survival.

#### 18. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:

The Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID) is a group of rare disorders caused by mutations in different genes involved in the development of infection-fighting immune cells.

Statement-II:

The best-known autosomal recessive SCID is caused by the adenosine deaminase deficiency, in which infants lack the ADA enzyme necessary for T-cell survival.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-l is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: B

Explanation:

Infants with SCID appear healthy at birth but are highly susceptible to severe infections.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Infants with SCID appear healthy at birth but are highly susceptible to severe infections.

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Giffen Goods: These are low-income products for which demand decreases as the price increases. They have a demand curve which is contrary to the fundamental laws of demand, i.e downward sloping demand curve. Their demand is influenced by a lack of close substitutes and income pressures. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: Giffen good is a low-income, non-luxury product for which demand increases as the price increases and vice versa. Statement 2 is correct: A Giffen good has an upward-sloping demand curve which is contrary to the fundamental laws of demand which are based on a downward sloping demand curve. Statement 3 is correct: Demand for Giffen goods is heavily influenced by a lack of close substitutes and income pressures. Veblen goods are similar to Giffen goods but with a focus on luxury items. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: Giffen good is a low-income, non-luxury product for which demand increases as the price increases and vice versa. Statement 2 is correct: A Giffen good has an upward-sloping demand curve which is contrary to the fundamental laws of demand which are based on a downward sloping demand curve. Statement 3 is correct: Demand for Giffen goods is heavily influenced by a lack of close substitutes and income pressures. Veblen goods are similar to Giffen goods but with a focus on luxury items.

#### 19. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Giffen Goods:

• These are low-income products for which demand decreases as the price increases.

• They have a demand curve which is contrary to the fundamental laws of demand, i.e downward sloping demand curve.

• Their demand is influenced by a lack of close substitutes and income pressures.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: Giffen good is a low-income, non-luxury product for which demand increases as the price increases and vice versa.

Statement 2 is correct: A Giffen good has an upward-sloping demand curve which is contrary to the fundamental laws of demand which are based on a downward sloping demand curve.

Statement 3 is correct: Demand for Giffen goods is heavily influenced by a lack of close substitutes and income pressures.

Veblen goods are similar to Giffen goods but with a focus on luxury items.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: Giffen good is a low-income, non-luxury product for which demand increases as the price increases and vice versa.

Statement 2 is correct: A Giffen good has an upward-sloping demand curve which is contrary to the fundamental laws of demand which are based on a downward sloping demand curve.

Statement 3 is correct: Demand for Giffen goods is heavily influenced by a lack of close substitutes and income pressures.

Veblen goods are similar to Giffen goods but with a focus on luxury items.

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Which one of the following Protected Areas borders the Sessa orchid sanctuary and the Pakke Tiger Reserve? (a) The Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary (b) The Laokhowa Wildlife Sanctuary (c) The Sakteng Wildlife Sanctuary (d) The Pabitora Wildlife Sanctuary Correct Answer: A Explanation: Option (a) is correct: The Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary is in the West Kameng district of Arunachal Pradesh, India. The total area of the sanctuary is 217 Sq.km bordering Sessa orchid sanctuary in Northeast and Pakke TR on Eastern boundary. The area has steep uphill mountainous range with deep valley along the Kameng River with clear flying sky. Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary is in the Eastern Himalaya Biodiversity Hotspot and globally renowned for its rich biodiversity. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Option (a) is correct: The Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary is in the West Kameng district of Arunachal Pradesh, India. The total area of the sanctuary is 217 Sq.km bordering Sessa orchid sanctuary in Northeast and Pakke TR on Eastern boundary. The area has steep uphill mountainous range with deep valley along the Kameng River with clear flying sky. Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary is in the Eastern Himalaya Biodiversity Hotspot and globally renowned for its rich biodiversity.

#### 20. Question

Which one of the following Protected Areas borders the Sessa orchid sanctuary and the Pakke Tiger Reserve?

• (a) The Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary

• (b) The Laokhowa Wildlife Sanctuary

• (c) The Sakteng Wildlife Sanctuary

• (d) The Pabitora Wildlife Sanctuary

Answer: A

Explanation:

Option (a) is correct: The Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary is in the West Kameng district of Arunachal Pradesh, India.

• The total area of the sanctuary is 217 Sq.km bordering Sessa orchid sanctuary in Northeast and Pakke TR on Eastern boundary.

• The area has steep uphill mountainous range with deep valley along the Kameng River with clear flying sky.

• Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary is in the Eastern Himalaya Biodiversity Hotspot and globally renowned for its rich biodiversity.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Option (a) is correct: The Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary is in the West Kameng district of Arunachal Pradesh, India.

• The total area of the sanctuary is 217 Sq.km bordering Sessa orchid sanctuary in Northeast and Pakke TR on Eastern boundary.

• The area has steep uphill mountainous range with deep valley along the Kameng River with clear flying sky.

• Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary is in the Eastern Himalaya Biodiversity Hotspot and globally renowned for its rich biodiversity.

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act of 1999 identifies which of these kinds of GI products? Manufactured goods Natural goods Agricultural goods How many of the above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: c) Learning: A Geographical Indication (GI) is a designation used on products with a specific geographical origin, indicating qualities or reputation linked to that origin. In India, GI registration is governed by the Geographical Indi- cations of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act of 1999. Administered by the Registrar of Geographical Indications (RGI), it identifies agricultural, natural, or manufactured goods, providing legal protection for 10 years, renewable. The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade, Ministry of Commerce and Industry, oversees GI registration, offering protection against unauthorized use, promoting exports, and ensuring quality and distinctiveness. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Incorrect Solution: c) Learning: A Geographical Indication (GI) is a designation used on products with a specific geographical origin, indicating qualities or reputation linked to that origin. In India, GI registration is governed by the Geographical Indi- cations of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act of 1999. Administered by the Registrar of Geographical Indications (RGI), it identifies agricultural, natural, or manufactured goods, providing legal protection for 10 years, renewable. The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade, Ministry of Commerce and Industry, oversees GI registration, offering protection against unauthorized use, promoting exports, and ensuring quality and distinctiveness. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

#### 21. Question

Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act of 1999 identifies which of these kinds of GI products?

• Manufactured goods

• Natural goods

• Agricultural goods

How many of the above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: c)

Learning: A Geographical Indication (GI) is a designation used on products with a specific geographical origin, indicating qualities or reputation linked to that origin.

In India, GI registration is governed by the Geographical Indi- cations of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act of 1999. Administered by the Registrar of Geographical Indications (RGI), it identifies agricultural, natural, or manufactured goods, providing legal protection for 10 years, renewable.

The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade, Ministry of Commerce and Industry, oversees GI registration, offering protection against unauthorized use, promoting exports, and ensuring quality and distinctiveness.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Solution: c)

Learning: A Geographical Indication (GI) is a designation used on products with a specific geographical origin, indicating qualities or reputation linked to that origin.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Consider the following matches of certain straits with the water bodies that they connect: *Strait: Water Bodies Malacca Strait: The Andaman Sea and South China Sea Taiwan Strait: Yellow Sea and South China Sea Strait of Hormuz : Persian Gulf and Gulf of Oman How many of the matches above are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Justification: The Strait of Hormuz is a crucial maritime transit point, connecting the Persian Gulf and Gulf of Oman. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/02/CA-30-JAN-2024-MONTHLY.pdf Incorrect Solution: b) Justification: The Strait of Hormuz is a crucial maritime transit point, connecting the Persian Gulf and Gulf of Oman. Q Source:* https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/02/CA-30-JAN-2024-MONTHLY.pdf

#### 22. Question

Consider the following matches of certain straits with the water bodies that they connect:

*Strait: Water Bodies *

• Malacca Strait: The Andaman Sea and South China Sea

• Taiwan Strait: Yellow Sea and South China Sea

• Strait of Hormuz : Persian Gulf and Gulf of Oman

How many of the matches above are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: b)

Justification: The Strait of Hormuz is a crucial maritime transit point, connecting the Persian Gulf and Gulf of Oman.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/02/CA-30-JAN-2024-MONTHLY.pdf

Solution: b)

Justification: The Strait of Hormuz is a crucial maritime transit point, connecting the Persian Gulf and Gulf of Oman.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/02/CA-30-JAN-2024-MONTHLY.pdf

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points National Cancer Grid (NCG) is a network of major cancer centres, research institutes, patient groups and charitable institutions across India to address better prevention, diagnosis and treatment of cancer. It was established by the a) Department of Atomic Energy b) NITI Aayog c) Department of Health and Family Affairs d) None of the above Correct Solution: a) Justification: National Cancer Grid (NCG) is a network of major cancer centres, research institutes, patient groups and charitable institutions across India with the mandate of establishing uniform standards of patient care for the prevention, diagnosis, and treatment of cancer, providing specialized training and education in oncology and facilitating collaborative basic, translational and clinical research in cancer. It was established in 2012 by the Department of Atomic Energy and with the grant support of Tata Memorial Centre. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/02/CA-30-JAN-2024-MONTHLY.pdf Incorrect Solution: a) Justification: National Cancer Grid (NCG) is a network of major cancer centres, research institutes, patient groups and charitable institutions across India with the mandate of establishing uniform standards of patient care for the prevention, diagnosis, and treatment of cancer, providing specialized training and education in oncology and facilitating collaborative basic, translational and clinical research in cancer. It was established in 2012 by the Department of Atomic Energy and with the grant support of Tata Memorial Centre. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/02/CA-30-JAN-2024-MONTHLY.pdf

#### 23. Question

National Cancer Grid (NCG) is a network of major cancer centres, research institutes, patient groups and charitable institutions across India to address better prevention, diagnosis and treatment of cancer. It was established by the

• a) Department of Atomic Energy

• b) NITI Aayog

• c) Department of Health and Family Affairs

• d) None of the above

Solution: a)

Justification: National Cancer Grid (NCG) is a network of major cancer centres, research institutes, patient groups and charitable institutions across India with the mandate of establishing uniform standards of patient care for the prevention, diagnosis, and treatment of cancer, providing specialized training and education in oncology and facilitating collaborative basic, translational and clinical research in cancer.

It was established in 2012 by the Department of Atomic Energy and with the grant support of Tata Memorial Centre.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/02/CA-30-JAN-2024-MONTHLY.pdf

Solution: a)

It was established in 2012 by the Department of Atomic Energy and with the grant support of Tata Memorial Centre.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/02/CA-30-JAN-2024-MONTHLY.pdf

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Kutia Kondh tribal community, recently seen in news. They speak neither Dravidian nor any Indo-European languages. They are considered a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) in Odisha. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: b) Justification: The Kutia Kondh community is located in the Belaghara area of Kandhamal district in Odisha. The Kutia Kandha are a major section of the Kandha tribe who speak Kui, a Dravidian language. They are known for their buffalo sacrifice ritual, called “Kedu” to worship their Earth Goddess”. Two individuals from the Kutia Kondh community, considered one of the Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in Odisha, were invited as special guests to attend the Republic Day parade in New Delhi on 26 January 2024. Every year, representatives from PVTGs are invited by the Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs for Republic Day events. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Incorrect Solution: b) Justification: The Kutia Kondh community is located in the Belaghara area of Kandhamal district in Odisha. The Kutia Kandha are a major section of the Kandha tribe who speak Kui, a Dravidian language. They are known for their buffalo sacrifice ritual, called “Kedu” to worship their Earth Goddess”. Two individuals from the Kutia Kondh community, considered one of the Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in Odisha, were invited as special guests to attend the Republic Day parade in New Delhi on 26 January 2024. Every year, representatives from PVTGs are invited by the Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs for Republic Day events. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

#### 24. Question

Consider the following statements about the Kutia Kondh tribal community, recently seen in news.

• They speak neither Dravidian nor any Indo-European languages.

• They are considered a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) in Odisha.

Which of the above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b)

Justification: The Kutia Kondh community is located in the Belaghara area of Kandhamal district in Odisha. The Kutia Kandha are a major section of the Kandha tribe who speak Kui, a Dravidian language. They are known for their buffalo sacrifice ritual, called “Kedu” to worship their Earth Goddess”.

Two individuals from the Kutia Kondh community, considered one of the Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in Odisha, were invited as special guests to attend the Republic Day parade in New Delhi on 26 January 2024.

Every year, representatives from PVTGs are invited by the Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs for Republic Day events.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Solution: b)

Every year, representatives from PVTGs are invited by the Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs for Republic Day events.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points The Polar Science and Cryosphere Research (PACER) comprises of research in which of these regions? Antarctica Arctic Southern Ocean How many of the above are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: c) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

#### 25. Question

The Polar Science and Cryosphere Research (PACER) comprises of research in which of these regions?

• Antarctica

• Southern Ocean

How many of the above are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: c)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Solution: c)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points Three tankers contain 403 litres, 434 litres, 465 litres of diesel respectively. Then the maximum capacity of a container that can measure the diesel of the three containers exact number of times is (A) 31 litres (B) 62 litres (C) 41 litres (D) 84 litres Correct ANSWER A) 31 litres Greatest capacity of measuring vessel = HCF of 403 litres, 434 litres and 465 litres = 31 litres Incorrect ANSWER A) 31 litres Greatest capacity of measuring vessel = HCF of 403 litres, 434 litres and 465 litres = 31 litres

#### 26. Question

Three tankers contain 403 litres, 434 litres, 465 litres of diesel respectively. Then the maximum capacity of a container that can measure the diesel of the three containers exact number of times is

• (A) 31 litres

• (B) 62 litres

• (C) 41 litres

• (D) 84 litres

ANSWER A) 31 litres

Greatest capacity of measuring vessel

= HCF of 403 litres, 434 litres and 465 litres

= 31 litres

ANSWER A) 31 litres

Greatest capacity of measuring vessel

= HCF of 403 litres, 434 litres and 465 litres

= 31 litres

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points There are 24 peaches, 36 apricots and 60 bananas and they have to be arranged in several rows in such a way that every row contains the same number of fruits of only one type. What is the minimum number of rows required for this to happen ? (A) 12 (B) 9 (C) 10 (D) 6 Correct ANSWER C) 10 Minimum number of rows = Maximum number of fruits in each row HCF of 24, 36 and 60 = 12 Minimum number of rows = 24 /12 + 36/ 12 + 60/ 12 = 2 + 3 + 5 = 10 Incorrect ANSWER C) 10 Minimum number of rows = Maximum number of fruits in each row HCF of 24, 36 and 60 = 12 Minimum number of rows = 24 /12 + 36/ 12 + 60/ 12 = 2 + 3 + 5 = 10

#### 27. Question

There are 24 peaches, 36 apricots and 60 bananas and they have to be arranged in several rows in such a way that every row contains the same number of fruits of only one type. What is the minimum number of rows required for this to happen ?

ANSWER C) 10

Minimum number of rows = Maximum number of fruits in each row

HCF of 24, 36 and 60 = 12

Minimum number of rows = 24 /12 + 36/ 12 + 60/ 12

= 2 + 3 + 5 = 10

ANSWER C) 10

Minimum number of rows = Maximum number of fruits in each row

HCF of 24, 36 and 60 = 12

Minimum number of rows = 24 /12 + 36/ 12 + 60/ 12

= 2 + 3 + 5 = 10

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points One of the crucial goals of education is to make the learners into creators. Such creation requires ‘deep work’. EdTech apps can deliver content that caters to multiple learning styles, learning curves and pace of learning. Compelling shift to online education, has shown that traditional teacher and brick-and-mortar schools may become obsolete if radical pedagogical changes do not follow. However, over-reliance on technology comes at a cost. For example, social media forces you to scroll mindlessly rather than contemplate or engage meaningfully. Entertainment channels create addictive content that makes you suspend reality till all the seasons are done. And with the pandemic shutting down schools, children have lost all personal contact with their social group and parents are forced to rely upon technology to provide their children constant gratification to keep them engaged. The crux of the above passage is best described by, A. There is a need to develop oversight over emotional aspects of online education system B. Technology tools are forcing human beings to remain consumers rather than become creators C. Creativity is an outcome of human condition integrated with social and emotional networks D. Rote learning does not end even with arrival of digital learning platforms Correct Answer: B The passage tells that online education makes us scrollers of knowledge without active engagement like a school, yet schools have some issues that needs to be overcome. So, technology in form of online education may just keep us consumers of knowledge not creators. So B is correct answer. Incorrect Answer: B The passage tells that online education makes us scrollers of knowledge without active engagement like a school, yet schools have some issues that needs to be overcome. So, technology in form of online education may just keep us consumers of knowledge not creators. So B is correct answer.

#### 28. Question

One of the crucial goals of education is to make the learners into creators. Such creation requires ‘deep work’. EdTech apps can deliver content that caters to multiple learning styles, learning curves and pace of learning. Compelling shift to online education, has shown that traditional teacher and brick-and-mortar schools may become obsolete if radical pedagogical changes do not follow. However, over-reliance on technology comes at a cost. For example, social media forces you to scroll mindlessly rather than contemplate or engage meaningfully. Entertainment channels create addictive content that makes you suspend reality till all the seasons are done. And with the pandemic shutting down schools, children have lost all personal contact with their social group and parents are forced to rely upon technology to provide their children constant gratification to keep them engaged.

The crux of the above passage is best described by,

• A. There is a need to develop oversight over emotional aspects of online education system

• B. Technology tools are forcing human beings to remain consumers rather than become creators

• C. Creativity is an outcome of human condition integrated with social and emotional networks

• D. Rote learning does not end even with arrival of digital learning platforms

The passage tells that online education makes us scrollers of knowledge without active engagement like a school, yet schools have some issues that needs to be overcome. So, technology in form of online education may just keep us consumers of knowledge not creators.

So B is correct answer.

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points One of the crucial goals of education is to make the learners into creators. Such creation requires ‘deep work’. EdTech apps can deliver content that caters to multiple learning styles, learning curves and pace of learning. Compelling shift to online education, has shown that traditional teacher and brick-and-mortar schools may become obsolete if radical pedagogical changes do not follow. However, over-reliance on technology comes at a cost. For example, social media forces you to scroll mindlessly rather than contemplate or engage meaningfully. Entertainment channels create addictive content that makes you suspend reality till all the seasons are done. And with the pandemic shutting down schools, children have lost all personal contact with their social group and parents are forced to rely upon technology to provide their children constant gratification to keep them engaged. On the basis of above passage following assumptions have been made: Out of school education involves so many distractions from so-called deep work There is a need to retrain our teachers who are trained for traditional systems Which of the above assumptions is/are valid? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 & 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: C The passage indicates addictive content online is a problem, so out of school education has distractions for deep work so 1 is correct. The passage indicates that traditional system will soon become obsolete, so we need to retrain teachers and every element, so 2 is also correct. Thus C is the answer. Incorrect Answer: C The passage indicates addictive content online is a problem, so out of school education has distractions for deep work so 1 is correct. The passage indicates that traditional system will soon become obsolete, so we need to retrain teachers and every element, so 2 is also correct. Thus C is the answer.

#### 29. Question

On the basis of above passage following assumptions have been made:

• Out of school education involves so many distractions from so-called deep work

• There is a need to retrain our teachers who are trained for traditional systems

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

• C. Both 1 & 2

• D. Neither 1 nor 2

The passage indicates addictive content online is a problem, so out of school education has distractions for deep work so 1 is correct.

The passage indicates that traditional system will soon become obsolete, so we need to retrain teachers and every element, so 2 is also correct.

Thus C is the answer.

The passage indicates addictive content online is a problem, so out of school education has distractions for deep work so 1 is correct.

The passage indicates that traditional system will soon become obsolete, so we need to retrain teachers and every element, so 2 is also correct.

Thus C is the answer.

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points The logical and practical corollary/corollaries made by the passage is/are, Technology can partially replace social and emotional engagement We need to reverse the individualistic tendencies of children and develop bonds with relatives and wider society to build national fraternity Code: A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 & 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: D The passage is strictly against online platform that disengages us from all including parents, so 1 is wrong The passage has nothing to do with national fraternity so 2 is wrong. Thus both are wrong. Incorrect Answer: D The passage is strictly against online platform that disengages us from all including parents, so 1 is wrong The passage has nothing to do with national fraternity so 2 is wrong. Thus both are wrong.

#### 30. Question

The logical and practical corollary/corollaries made by the passage is/are,

• Technology can partially replace social and emotional engagement

• We need to reverse the individualistic tendencies of children and develop bonds with relatives and wider society to build national fraternity

• C. Both 1 & 2

• D. Neither 1 nor 2

The passage is strictly against online platform that disengages us from all including parents, so 1 is wrong

The passage has nothing to do with national fraternity so 2 is wrong.

Thus both are wrong.

The passage is strictly against online platform that disengages us from all including parents, so 1 is wrong