DAY – 27 : Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2025 : GOVERNMENT SCHEMES

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Janjatiya Vikas Mission (PMJVM): It is a Central Sector Scheme with 100% funding from the Government of India. TRIFED is the nodal agency at the central level for the implementation of the scheme. The scheme aims to promote livelihood opportunities and entrepreneurship among the tribal population through value addition and marketing of tribal products. How many of the statements given above are *in*correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: D The Pradhan Mantri Janjatiya Vikas Mission (PMJVM) is indeed a Central Sector Scheme where 100% grant-in-aid is provided by the Government of India. The Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India (TRIFED) serves as the nodal agency at the central level for its implementation. The primary objective of the mission is to facilitate and promote livelihood opportunities and entrepreneurship for the tribal population by establishing an efficient mechanism for the production, procurement, processing, and marketing of tribal produce and products. Incorrect Solution: D The Pradhan Mantri Janjatiya Vikas Mission (PMJVM) is indeed a Central Sector Scheme where 100% grant-in-aid is provided by the Government of India. The Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India (TRIFED) serves as the nodal agency at the central level for its implementation. The primary objective of the mission is to facilitate and promote livelihood opportunities and entrepreneurship for the tribal population by establishing an efficient mechanism for the production, procurement, processing, and marketing of tribal produce and products.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Janjatiya Vikas Mission (PMJVM):

• It is a Central Sector Scheme with 100% funding from the Government of India.

• TRIFED is the nodal agency at the central level for the implementation of the scheme.

• The scheme aims to promote livelihood opportunities and entrepreneurship among the tribal population through value addition and marketing of tribal products.

How many of the statements given above are *in*correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: D

The Pradhan Mantri Janjatiya Vikas Mission (PMJVM) is indeed a Central Sector Scheme where 100% grant-in-aid is provided by the Government of India. The Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India (TRIFED) serves as the nodal agency at the central level for its implementation. The primary objective of the mission is to facilitate and promote livelihood opportunities and entrepreneurship for the tribal population by establishing an efficient mechanism for the production, procurement, processing, and marketing of tribal produce and products.

Solution: D

The Pradhan Mantri Janjatiya Vikas Mission (PMJVM) is indeed a Central Sector Scheme where 100% grant-in-aid is provided by the Government of India. The Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India (TRIFED) serves as the nodal agency at the central level for its implementation. The primary objective of the mission is to facilitate and promote livelihood opportunities and entrepreneurship for the tribal population by establishing an efficient mechanism for the production, procurement, processing, and marketing of tribal produce and products.

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Which of the following criteria must be met for a village to be eligible under the Pradhan Mantri Adi Adarsh Gram Yojana (PMAAGY)? (a) The village should have a minimum population of 1000, with at least 40% belonging to Scheduled Tribes. (b) The village should have at least 50% of its population belonging to Scheduled Tribes and a minimum of 500 ST residents. (c) The village should be located in a district identified as an 'Aspirational District' by NITI Aayog. (d) The village should have a significant presence of traditional forest dwellers and be recognized under the Forest Rights Act, 2006. Correct Solution: B The Pradhan Mantri Adi Adarsh Gram Yojana (PMAAGY) targets villages with a significant tribal population, specifically those with at least 50% Scheduled Tribe (ST) population and a minimum of 500 ST residents. The scheme aims for the integrated socio-economic development of these villages by converging central and state schemes and addressing gaps in essential infrastructure and services. Incorrect Solution: B The Pradhan Mantri Adi Adarsh Gram Yojana (PMAAGY) targets villages with a significant tribal population, specifically those with at least 50% Scheduled Tribe (ST) population and a minimum of 500 ST residents. The scheme aims for the integrated socio-economic development of these villages by converging central and state schemes and addressing gaps in essential infrastructure and services.

#### 2. Question

Which of the following criteria must be met for a village to be eligible under the Pradhan Mantri Adi Adarsh Gram Yojana (PMAAGY)?

• (a) The village should have a minimum population of 1000, with at least 40% belonging to Scheduled Tribes.

• (b) The village should have at least 50% of its population belonging to Scheduled Tribes and a minimum of 500 ST residents.

• (c) The village should be located in a district identified as an 'Aspirational District' by NITI Aayog.

• (d) The village should have a significant presence of traditional forest dwellers and be recognized under the Forest Rights Act, 2006.

Solution: B

The Pradhan Mantri Adi Adarsh Gram Yojana (PMAAGY) targets villages with a significant tribal population, specifically those with at least 50% Scheduled Tribe (ST) population and a minimum of 500 ST residents. The scheme aims for the integrated socio-economic development of these villages by converging central and state schemes and addressing gaps in essential infrastructure and services.

Solution: B

The Pradhan Mantri Adi Adarsh Gram Yojana (PMAAGY) targets villages with a significant tribal population, specifically those with at least 50% Scheduled Tribe (ST) population and a minimum of 500 ST residents. The scheme aims for the integrated socio-economic development of these villages by converging central and state schemes and addressing gaps in essential infrastructure and services.

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Mission Shakti, an umbrella scheme for women empowerment, has two sub-schemes. What are they? (a) Samman and Swabhimaan (b) Sambal and Samarthya (c) Shakti and Pragati (d) Nari and Utthan Correct Solution: B Mission Shakti, launched by the Ministry of Women and Child Development, has two sub-schemes: ‘Sambal’ and ‘Samarthya’. ‘Sambal’ focuses on the safety and security of women and includes schemes like One Stop Centre (OSC), Women Helpline, and Beti Bachao Beti Padhao. ‘Samarthya’ is for the empowerment of women and includes schemes like Swadhar Greh, Ujjawala, and Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY). Incorrect Solution: B Mission Shakti, launched by the Ministry of Women and Child Development, has two sub-schemes: ‘Sambal’ and ‘Samarthya’. ‘Sambal’ focuses on the safety and security of women and includes schemes like One Stop Centre (OSC), Women Helpline, and Beti Bachao Beti Padhao. ‘Samarthya’ is for the empowerment of women and includes schemes like Swadhar Greh, Ujjawala, and Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY).

#### 3. Question

Mission Shakti, an umbrella scheme for women empowerment, has two sub-schemes. What are they?

• (a) Samman and Swabhimaan

• (b) Sambal and Samarthya

• (c) Shakti and Pragati

• (d) Nari and Utthan

Solution: B

Mission Shakti, launched by the Ministry of Women and Child Development, has two sub-schemes: ‘Sambal’ and ‘Samarthya’. ‘Sambal’ focuses on the safety and security of women and includes schemes like One Stop Centre (OSC), Women Helpline, and Beti Bachao Beti Padhao. ‘Samarthya’ is for the empowerment of women and includes schemes like Swadhar Greh, Ujjawala, and Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY).

Solution: B

Mission Shakti, launched by the Ministry of Women and Child Development, has two sub-schemes: ‘Sambal’ and ‘Samarthya’. ‘Sambal’ focuses on the safety and security of women and includes schemes like One Stop Centre (OSC), Women Helpline, and Beti Bachao Beti Padhao. ‘Samarthya’ is for the empowerment of women and includes schemes like Swadhar Greh, Ujjawala, and Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY).

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Legal Services Authorities in India provide free legal services to certain categories of citizens. Which of the following is an eligibility criterion for availing these services? (a) All women, irrespective of their income. (b) Any person with an annual income of less than ₹ 5,00,000. (c) Members of Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes. (d) All senior citizens above the age of 60 years. Correct Solution: C Legal Services Authorities provide free legal services to members of Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes, among other categories like women, children, persons with disabilities, and those with an annual income below a certain threshold (which varies by state but is often below ₹ 1,00,000). Incorrect Solution: C Legal Services Authorities provide free legal services to members of Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes, among other categories like women, children, persons with disabilities, and those with an annual income below a certain threshold (which varies by state but is often below ₹ 1,00,000).

#### 4. Question

Legal Services Authorities in India provide free legal services to certain categories of citizens. Which of the following is an eligibility criterion for availing these services?

• (a) All women, irrespective of their income.

• (b) Any person with an annual income of less than ₹ 5,00,000.

• (c) Members of Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes.

• (d) All senior citizens above the age of 60 years.

Solution: C

Legal Services Authorities provide free legal services to members of Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes, among other categories like women, children, persons with disabilities, and those with an annual income below a certain threshold (which varies by state but is often below ₹ 1,00,000).

Solution: C

Legal Services Authorities provide free legal services to members of Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes, among other categories like women, children, persons with disabilities, and those with an annual income below a certain threshold (which varies by state but is often below ₹ 1,00,000).

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points The Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) scheme is a joint initiative of which of the following ministries? Ministry of Women and Child Development Ministry of Health and Family Welfare Ministry of Education Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: D The Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) scheme is a tri-ministerial effort of the Ministry of Women and Child Development, the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, and the Ministry of Education. The scheme addresses the declining Child Sex Ratio (CSR) and related issues of women empowerment over a life-cycle continuum. Incorrect Solution: D The Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) scheme is a tri-ministerial effort of the Ministry of Women and Child Development, the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, and the Ministry of Education. The scheme addresses the declining Child Sex Ratio (CSR) and related issues of women empowerment over a life-cycle continuum.

#### 5. Question

The Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) scheme is a joint initiative of which of the following ministries?

• Ministry of Women and Child Development

• Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

• Ministry of Education

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

The Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) scheme is a tri-ministerial effort of the Ministry of Women and Child Development, the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, and the Ministry of Education. The scheme addresses the declining Child Sex Ratio (CSR) and related issues of women empowerment over a life-cycle continuum.

Solution: D

The Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) scheme is a tri-ministerial effort of the Ministry of Women and Child Development, the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, and the Ministry of Education. The scheme addresses the declining Child Sex Ratio (CSR) and related issues of women empowerment over a life-cycle continuum.

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points As per the current guidelines, the Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY) also provides benefits for the second child under which condition? (a) If the age of the mother is above 35 years. (b) If the second child is also a girl. (c) If the family belongs to an economically weaker section. (d) If the delivery occurs in a government health facility. Correct Solution: B The Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY) is a flagship maternity benefit program launched by the Government of India on January 1, 2017, under the Ministry of Women and Child Development. It aims to provide financial assistance to pregnant and lactating mothers from economically and socially disadvantaged sections to compensate for wage loss during pregnancy and ensure proper nutrition and healthcare for both mother and child With effect from 1.4.2022, the PMMVY scheme has been extended to cover the second child as well, provided that the second child is a girl. In such cases, a benefit of ₹ 6,000 is provided in one installment after the birth. Incorrect Solution: B The Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY) is a flagship maternity benefit program launched by the Government of India on January 1, 2017, under the Ministry of Women and Child Development. It aims to provide financial assistance to pregnant and lactating mothers from economically and socially disadvantaged sections to compensate for wage loss during pregnancy and ensure proper nutrition and healthcare for both mother and child With effect from 1.4.2022, the PMMVY scheme has been extended to cover the second child as well, provided that the second child is a girl. In such cases, a benefit of ₹ 6,000 is provided in one installment after the birth.

#### 6. Question

As per the current guidelines, the Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY) also provides benefits for the second child under which condition?

• (a) If the age of the mother is above 35 years.

• (b) If the second child is also a girl.

• (c) If the family belongs to an economically weaker section.

• (d) If the delivery occurs in a government health facility.

Solution: B

The Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY) is a flagship maternity benefit program launched by the Government of India on January 1, 2017, under the Ministry of Women and Child Development. It aims to provide financial assistance to pregnant and lactating mothers from economically and socially disadvantaged sections to compensate for wage loss during pregnancy and ensure proper nutrition and healthcare for both mother and child

With effect from 1.4.2022, the PMMVY scheme has been extended to cover the second child as well, provided that the second child is a girl. In such cases, a benefit of ₹ 6,000 is provided in one installment after the birth.

Solution: B

The Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY) is a flagship maternity benefit program launched by the Government of India on January 1, 2017, under the Ministry of Women and Child Development. It aims to provide financial assistance to pregnant and lactating mothers from economically and socially disadvantaged sections to compensate for wage loss during pregnancy and ensure proper nutrition and healthcare for both mother and child

With effect from 1.4.2022, the PMMVY scheme has been extended to cover the second child as well, provided that the second child is a girl. In such cases, a benefit of ₹ 6,000 is provided in one installment after the birth.

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points The Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY) provides health coverage up to ₹ 5 lakh per family per year for secondary and tertiary care hospitalization. This scheme primarily targets: (a) All citizens of India. (b) Families belonging to the Below Poverty Line (BPL). (c) Economically weaker sections as identified based on deprivation criteria. (d) Senior citizens and pensioners. Correct Solution: C Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY) The Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY), also known as Ayushman Bharat, is the world’s largest government-funded health insurance scheme. Launched on September 23, 2018, it aims to provide affordable healthcare to India’s economically weaker sections, ensuring universal health coverage. Key Features Coverage: Provides ₹5 lakh per family per year for secondary and tertiary hospitalization. Covers approximately 10.74 crore families (around 50 crore beneficiaries), targeting the bottom 40% of India’s population based on the Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) 2011 data Includes expenses for pre-hospitalization, treatment, post-hospitalization care (up to 15 days), diagnostics, medicines, and medical consumables Cashless Services: Beneficiaries can avail of cashless healthcare services at empanelled public and private hospitals across India Eligibility: Families identified in SECC-2011 are eligible. Rural beneficiaries include households meeting deprivation criteria such as lack of housing or income sources. Urban beneficiaries include workers in specified occupations like domestic help, street vendors, and construction workers. Exclusions: Families owning mechanized farming equipment, earning above ₹10,000 monthly, or possessing assets like refrigerators or landlines are excluded Portability: The scheme is portable across India, enabling beneficiaries to access healthcare services at empanelled hospitals nationwide Pre-existing Conditions: All pre-existing diseases are covered from day one of enrollment The Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY) provides health coverage to about 10.74 crore poor and vulnerable families based on SECC 2011 data, which are identified based on deprivation and occupational criteria across rural and urban areas. Incorrect Solution: C Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY) The Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY), also known as Ayushman Bharat, is the world’s largest government-funded health insurance scheme. Launched on September 23, 2018, it aims to provide affordable healthcare to India’s economically weaker sections, ensuring universal health coverage. Key Features Coverage: Provides ₹5 lakh per family per year for secondary and tertiary hospitalization. Covers approximately 10.74 crore families (around 50 crore beneficiaries), targeting the bottom 40% of India’s population based on the Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) 2011 data Includes expenses for pre-hospitalization, treatment, post-hospitalization care (up to 15 days), diagnostics, medicines, and medical consumables Cashless Services: Beneficiaries can avail of cashless healthcare services at empanelled public and private hospitals across India Eligibility: Families identified in SECC-2011 are eligible. Rural beneficiaries include households meeting deprivation criteria such as lack of housing or income sources. Urban beneficiaries include workers in specified occupations like domestic help, street vendors, and construction workers. Exclusions: Families owning mechanized farming equipment, earning above ₹10,000 monthly, or possessing assets like refrigerators or landlines are excluded Portability: The scheme is portable across India, enabling beneficiaries to access healthcare services at empanelled hospitals nationwide Pre-existing Conditions: All pre-existing diseases are covered from day one of enrollment The Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY) provides health coverage to about 10.74 crore poor and vulnerable families based on SECC 2011 data, which are identified based on deprivation and occupational criteria across rural and urban areas.

#### 7. Question

The Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY) provides health coverage up to ₹ 5 lakh per family per year for secondary and tertiary care hospitalization. This scheme primarily targets:

• (a) All citizens of India.

• (b) Families belonging to the Below Poverty Line (BPL).

• (c) Economically weaker sections as identified based on deprivation criteria.

• (d) Senior citizens and pensioners.

Solution: C

Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY)

The Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY), also known as Ayushman Bharat, is the world’s largest government-funded health insurance scheme. Launched on September 23, 2018, it aims to provide affordable healthcare to India’s economically weaker sections, ensuring universal health coverage.

Key Features

• Coverage: Provides ₹5 lakh per family per year for secondary and tertiary hospitalization. Covers approximately 10.74 crore families (around 50 crore beneficiaries), targeting the bottom 40% of India’s population based on the Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) 2011 data Includes expenses for pre-hospitalization, treatment, post-hospitalization care (up to 15 days), diagnostics, medicines, and medical consumables

• Provides ₹5 lakh per family per year for secondary and tertiary hospitalization.

• Covers approximately 10.74 crore families (around 50 crore beneficiaries), targeting the bottom 40% of India’s population based on the Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) 2011 data

• Includes expenses for pre-hospitalization, treatment, post-hospitalization care (up to 15 days), diagnostics, medicines, and medical consumables

• Cashless Services: Beneficiaries can avail of cashless healthcare services at empanelled public and private hospitals across India

• Beneficiaries can avail of cashless healthcare services at empanelled public and private hospitals across India

• Eligibility: Families identified in SECC-2011 are eligible. Rural beneficiaries include households meeting deprivation criteria such as lack of housing or income sources. Urban beneficiaries include workers in specified occupations like domestic help, street vendors, and construction workers. Exclusions: Families owning mechanized farming equipment, earning above ₹10,000 monthly, or possessing assets like refrigerators or landlines are excluded

• Families identified in SECC-2011 are eligible.

• Rural beneficiaries include households meeting deprivation criteria such as lack of housing or income sources.

• Urban beneficiaries include workers in specified occupations like domestic help, street vendors, and construction workers.

• Exclusions: Families owning mechanized farming equipment, earning above ₹10,000 monthly, or possessing assets like refrigerators or landlines are excluded

• Portability: The scheme is portable across India, enabling beneficiaries to access healthcare services at empanelled hospitals nationwide

• The scheme is portable across India, enabling beneficiaries to access healthcare services at empanelled hospitals nationwide

• Pre-existing Conditions: All pre-existing diseases are covered from day one of enrollment

• All pre-existing diseases are covered from day one of enrollment

The Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY) provides health coverage to about 10.74 crore poor and vulnerable families based on SECC 2011 data, which are identified based on deprivation and occupational criteria across rural and urban areas.

Solution: C

Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY)

The Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY), also known as Ayushman Bharat, is the world’s largest government-funded health insurance scheme. Launched on September 23, 2018, it aims to provide affordable healthcare to India’s economically weaker sections, ensuring universal health coverage.

Key Features

• Coverage: Provides ₹5 lakh per family per year for secondary and tertiary hospitalization. Covers approximately 10.74 crore families (around 50 crore beneficiaries), targeting the bottom 40% of India’s population based on the Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) 2011 data Includes expenses for pre-hospitalization, treatment, post-hospitalization care (up to 15 days), diagnostics, medicines, and medical consumables

• Provides ₹5 lakh per family per year for secondary and tertiary hospitalization.

• Covers approximately 10.74 crore families (around 50 crore beneficiaries), targeting the bottom 40% of India’s population based on the Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) 2011 data

• Includes expenses for pre-hospitalization, treatment, post-hospitalization care (up to 15 days), diagnostics, medicines, and medical consumables

• Cashless Services: Beneficiaries can avail of cashless healthcare services at empanelled public and private hospitals across India

• Beneficiaries can avail of cashless healthcare services at empanelled public and private hospitals across India

• Eligibility: Families identified in SECC-2011 are eligible. Rural beneficiaries include households meeting deprivation criteria such as lack of housing or income sources. Urban beneficiaries include workers in specified occupations like domestic help, street vendors, and construction workers. Exclusions: Families owning mechanized farming equipment, earning above ₹10,000 monthly, or possessing assets like refrigerators or landlines are excluded

• Families identified in SECC-2011 are eligible.

• Rural beneficiaries include households meeting deprivation criteria such as lack of housing or income sources.

• Urban beneficiaries include workers in specified occupations like domestic help, street vendors, and construction workers.

• Exclusions: Families owning mechanized farming equipment, earning above ₹10,000 monthly, or possessing assets like refrigerators or landlines are excluded

• Portability: The scheme is portable across India, enabling beneficiaries to access healthcare services at empanelled hospitals nationwide

• The scheme is portable across India, enabling beneficiaries to access healthcare services at empanelled hospitals nationwide

• Pre-existing Conditions: All pre-existing diseases are covered from day one of enrollment

• All pre-existing diseases are covered from day one of enrollment

The Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY) provides health coverage to about 10.74 crore poor and vulnerable families based on SECC 2011 data, which are identified based on deprivation and occupational criteria across rural and urban areas.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points The Unnat Bharat Abhiyan (UBA) program is aimed at: (a) Promoting digital literacy in rural India. (b) Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges. (c) Providing financial assistance for infrastructure development in backward regions. (d) Enhancing the skill sets of rural youth for better employment opportunities. Correct Solution: B Unnat Bharat Abhiyan (UBA) The Unnat Bharat Abhiyan (UBA) is a flagship program launched by the Ministry of Education (formerly Ministry of Human Resource Development) on November 11, 2014, with the vision of leveraging higher educational institutions (HEIs) to address rural development challenges. The program seeks to foster a transformational change in rural India by utilizing the knowledge and resources of HEIs to improve the quality of life in villages. Key Features Collaborative Approach: HEIs are required to adopt at least five villages and work directly with local communities to identify and solve development challenges using eco-friendly and sustainable technologies The program emphasizes a cluster approach, with faculty and student involvement for effective implementation National Coordination: The Indian Institute of Technology Delhi (IIT Delhi) serves as the National Coordinating Institute (NCI) for UBA, overseeing execution, monitoring, and guidance Technological Interventions: UBA facilitates innovations in areas such as: Sustainable agriculture. Water resource management. Rural energy systems. Basic infrastructure and amenities. Livelihood enhancement for artisans Phased Implementation: UBA 1.0 (Invitation Mode): Participating institutions were invited to join the program. UBA 2.0 (Challenge Mode): Launched in April 2018, HEIs voluntarily adopt villages and implement sustainable development plans Incorrect Solution: B Unnat Bharat Abhiyan (UBA) The Unnat Bharat Abhiyan (UBA) is a flagship program launched by the Ministry of Education (formerly Ministry of Human Resource Development) on November 11, 2014, with the vision of leveraging higher educational institutions (HEIs) to address rural development challenges. The program seeks to foster a transformational change in rural India by utilizing the knowledge and resources of HEIs to improve the quality of life in villages. Key Features Collaborative Approach: HEIs are required to adopt at least five villages and work directly with local communities to identify and solve development challenges using eco-friendly and sustainable technologies The program emphasizes a cluster approach, with faculty and student involvement for effective implementation National Coordination: The Indian Institute of Technology Delhi (IIT Delhi) serves as the National Coordinating Institute (NCI) for UBA, overseeing execution, monitoring, and guidance Technological Interventions: UBA facilitates innovations in areas such as: Sustainable agriculture. Water resource management. Rural energy systems. Basic infrastructure and amenities. Livelihood enhancement for artisans Phased Implementation: UBA 1.0 (Invitation Mode): Participating institutions were invited to join the program. UBA 2.0 (Challenge Mode): Launched in April 2018, HEIs voluntarily adopt villages and implement sustainable development plans

#### 8. Question

The Unnat Bharat Abhiyan (UBA) program is aimed at:

• (a) Promoting digital literacy in rural India.

• (b) Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges.

• (c) Providing financial assistance for infrastructure development in backward regions.

• (d) Enhancing the skill sets of rural youth for better employment opportunities.

Solution: B

Unnat Bharat Abhiyan (UBA)

The Unnat Bharat Abhiyan (UBA) is a flagship program launched by the Ministry of Education (formerly Ministry of Human Resource Development) on November 11, 2014, with the vision of leveraging higher educational institutions (HEIs) to address rural development challenges. The program seeks to foster a transformational change in rural India by utilizing the knowledge and resources of HEIs to improve the quality of life in villages.

Key Features

• Collaborative Approach: HEIs are required to adopt at least five villages and work directly with local communities to identify and solve development challenges using eco-friendly and sustainable technologies The program emphasizes a cluster approach, with faculty and student involvement for effective implementation

• HEIs are required to adopt at least five villages and work directly with local communities to identify and solve development challenges using eco-friendly and sustainable technologies

• The program emphasizes a cluster approach, with faculty and student involvement for effective implementation

• National Coordination: The Indian Institute of Technology Delhi (IIT Delhi) serves as the National Coordinating Institute (NCI) for UBA, overseeing execution, monitoring, and guidance

• The Indian Institute of Technology Delhi (IIT Delhi) serves as the National Coordinating Institute (NCI) for UBA, overseeing execution, monitoring, and guidance

• Technological Interventions: UBA facilitates innovations in areas such as: Sustainable agriculture. Water resource management. Rural energy systems. Basic infrastructure and amenities. Livelihood enhancement for artisans

• UBA facilitates innovations in areas such as: Sustainable agriculture. Water resource management. Rural energy systems. Basic infrastructure and amenities. Livelihood enhancement for artisans

• Sustainable agriculture.

• Water resource management.

• Rural energy systems.

• Basic infrastructure and amenities.

• Livelihood enhancement for artisans

• Phased Implementation: UBA 1.0 (Invitation Mode): Participating institutions were invited to join the program. UBA 2.0 (Challenge Mode): Launched in April 2018, HEIs voluntarily adopt villages and implement sustainable development plans

• UBA 1.0 (Invitation Mode): Participating institutions were invited to join the program.

• UBA 2.0 (Challenge Mode): Launched in April 2018, HEIs voluntarily adopt villages and implement sustainable development plans

Solution: B

Unnat Bharat Abhiyan (UBA)

The Unnat Bharat Abhiyan (UBA) is a flagship program launched by the Ministry of Education (formerly Ministry of Human Resource Development) on November 11, 2014, with the vision of leveraging higher educational institutions (HEIs) to address rural development challenges. The program seeks to foster a transformational change in rural India by utilizing the knowledge and resources of HEIs to improve the quality of life in villages.

Key Features

• Collaborative Approach: HEIs are required to adopt at least five villages and work directly with local communities to identify and solve development challenges using eco-friendly and sustainable technologies The program emphasizes a cluster approach, with faculty and student involvement for effective implementation

• HEIs are required to adopt at least five villages and work directly with local communities to identify and solve development challenges using eco-friendly and sustainable technologies

• The program emphasizes a cluster approach, with faculty and student involvement for effective implementation

• National Coordination: The Indian Institute of Technology Delhi (IIT Delhi) serves as the National Coordinating Institute (NCI) for UBA, overseeing execution, monitoring, and guidance

• The Indian Institute of Technology Delhi (IIT Delhi) serves as the National Coordinating Institute (NCI) for UBA, overseeing execution, monitoring, and guidance

• Technological Interventions: UBA facilitates innovations in areas such as: Sustainable agriculture. Water resource management. Rural energy systems. Basic infrastructure and amenities. Livelihood enhancement for artisans

• UBA facilitates innovations in areas such as: Sustainable agriculture. Water resource management. Rural energy systems. Basic infrastructure and amenities. Livelihood enhancement for artisans

• Sustainable agriculture.

• Water resource management.

• Rural energy systems.

• Basic infrastructure and amenities.

• Livelihood enhancement for artisans

• Phased Implementation: UBA 1.0 (Invitation Mode): Participating institutions were invited to join the program. UBA 2.0 (Challenge Mode): Launched in April 2018, HEIs voluntarily adopt villages and implement sustainable development plans

• UBA 1.0 (Invitation Mode): Participating institutions were invited to join the program.

• UBA 2.0 (Challenge Mode): Launched in April 2018, HEIs voluntarily adopt villages and implement sustainable development plans

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) is a flagship initiative of the Government of India under which of the following organizations? (a) Department of Science and Technology (b) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (c) NITI Aayog (d) Ministry of Education Correct Solution: C Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM), launched in 2016 by NITI Aayog, is a flagship initiative of the Government of India aimed at fostering a culture of innovation and entrepreneurship across the country. It seeks to create an enabling ecosystem for innovation at various levels, from schools to startups and industries. Objectives Promote Innovation: Encourage problem-solving and inventive thinking in schools. Support technology-driven solutions addressing national challenges. Strengthen Entrepreneurship: Provide mentorship, funding, and infrastructure for startups and entrepreneurs. Build a robust entrepreneurial ecosystem in universities, research institutions, and MSMEs. Expand Collaboration: Serve as a platform for partnerships among government, academia, industry, and communities. The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) is a flagship initiative set up by the NITI Aayog to promote a culture of innovation and entrepreneurship across the country. Incorrect Solution: C Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM), launched in 2016 by NITI Aayog, is a flagship initiative of the Government of India aimed at fostering a culture of innovation and entrepreneurship across the country. It seeks to create an enabling ecosystem for innovation at various levels, from schools to startups and industries. Objectives Promote Innovation: Encourage problem-solving and inventive thinking in schools. Support technology-driven solutions addressing national challenges. Strengthen Entrepreneurship: Provide mentorship, funding, and infrastructure for startups and entrepreneurs. Build a robust entrepreneurial ecosystem in universities, research institutions, and MSMEs. Expand Collaboration: Serve as a platform for partnerships among government, academia, industry, and communities. The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) is a flagship initiative set up by the NITI Aayog to promote a culture of innovation and entrepreneurship across the country.

#### 9. Question

The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) is a flagship initiative of the Government of India under which of the following organizations?

• (a) Department of Science and Technology

• (b) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship

• (c) NITI Aayog

• (d) Ministry of Education

Solution: C

Atal Innovation Mission (AIM)

The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM), launched in 2016 by NITI Aayog, is a flagship initiative of the Government of India aimed at fostering a culture of innovation and entrepreneurship across the country. It seeks to create an enabling ecosystem for innovation at various levels, from schools to startups and industries.

Objectives

• Promote Innovation: Encourage problem-solving and inventive thinking in schools. Support technology-driven solutions addressing national challenges.

• Encourage problem-solving and inventive thinking in schools.

• Support technology-driven solutions addressing national challenges.

• Strengthen Entrepreneurship: Provide mentorship, funding, and infrastructure for startups and entrepreneurs. Build a robust entrepreneurial ecosystem in universities, research institutions, and MSMEs.

• Provide mentorship, funding, and infrastructure for startups and entrepreneurs.

• Build a robust entrepreneurial ecosystem in universities, research institutions, and MSMEs.

• Expand Collaboration: Serve as a platform for partnerships among government, academia, industry, and communities.

• Serve as a platform for partnerships among government, academia, industry, and communities.

The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) is a flagship initiative set up by the NITI Aayog to promote a culture of innovation and entrepreneurship across the country.

Solution: C

Atal Innovation Mission (AIM)

The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM), launched in 2016 by NITI Aayog, is a flagship initiative of the Government of India aimed at fostering a culture of innovation and entrepreneurship across the country. It seeks to create an enabling ecosystem for innovation at various levels, from schools to startups and industries.

Objectives

• Promote Innovation: Encourage problem-solving and inventive thinking in schools. Support technology-driven solutions addressing national challenges.

• Encourage problem-solving and inventive thinking in schools.

• Support technology-driven solutions addressing national challenges.

• Strengthen Entrepreneurship: Provide mentorship, funding, and infrastructure for startups and entrepreneurs. Build a robust entrepreneurial ecosystem in universities, research institutions, and MSMEs.

• Provide mentorship, funding, and infrastructure for startups and entrepreneurs.

• Build a robust entrepreneurial ecosystem in universities, research institutions, and MSMEs.

• Expand Collaboration: Serve as a platform for partnerships among government, academia, industry, and communities.

• Serve as a platform for partnerships among government, academia, industry, and communities.

The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) is a flagship initiative set up by the NITI Aayog to promote a culture of innovation and entrepreneurship across the country.

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points The National Career Service (NCS) portal is an initiative by the Government of India primarily aimed at: (a) Providing financial aid to unemployed youth. (b) Offering a platform for job seekers and employers to connect. (c) Imparting vocational training and skill development programs. (d) Conducting nationwide recruitment drives for government jobs. Correct Solution: B The National Career Service (NCS) is a government initiative launched on July 20, 2015, by the Ministry of Labour and Employment. It serves as a one-stop digital platform to connect job seekers, employers, skill providers, and career counselors, aiming to bridge the gap between talent and opportunities in India. Key Features Comprehensive Career Services: Dynamic job matching between job seekers and employers. Career counseling services for students and professionals. Information on skill development courses, internships, and vocational guidance. Psychometric and aptitude tests to guide individuals toward suitable career paths. IT-Enabled Career Centers: Transforms traditional employment exchanges into modern career centers. Offers workshops, training sessions, and job fairs to improve employability. Free of Cost: All services provided by the NCS portal are completely free for users, including registration, job applications, and interview processes. Wide Accessibility: Accessible through multiple channels such as online platforms, mobile devices, Common Service Centers (CSCs), and multilingual call centers. Local Services: Provides information about local service providers for household needs like carpentry, plumbing, and driving. Objectives Employment Generation: Facilitate job opportunities across sectors for youth and other job seekers. Skill Development: Provide access to skill training programs to enhance employability. Career Guidance: Offer counseling services to help individuals make informed career decisions. Transparency: Ensure a user-friendly and transparent process for job matching. Incorrect Solution: B The National Career Service (NCS) is a government initiative launched on July 20, 2015, by the Ministry of Labour and Employment. It serves as a one-stop digital platform to connect job seekers, employers, skill providers, and career counselors, aiming to bridge the gap between talent and opportunities in India. Key Features Comprehensive Career Services: Dynamic job matching between job seekers and employers. Career counseling services for students and professionals. Information on skill development courses, internships, and vocational guidance. Psychometric and aptitude tests to guide individuals toward suitable career paths. IT-Enabled Career Centers: Transforms traditional employment exchanges into modern career centers. Offers workshops, training sessions, and job fairs to improve employability. Free of Cost: All services provided by the NCS portal are completely free for users, including registration, job applications, and interview processes. Wide Accessibility: Accessible through multiple channels such as online platforms, mobile devices, Common Service Centers (CSCs), and multilingual call centers. Local Services: Provides information about local service providers for household needs like carpentry, plumbing, and driving. Objectives Employment Generation: Facilitate job opportunities across sectors for youth and other job seekers. Skill Development: Provide access to skill training programs to enhance employability. Career Guidance: Offer counseling services to help individuals make informed career decisions. Transparency: Ensure a user-friendly and transparent process for job matching.

#### 10. Question

The National Career Service (NCS) portal is an initiative by the Government of India primarily aimed at:

• (a) Providing financial aid to unemployed youth.

• (b) Offering a platform for job seekers and employers to connect.

• (c) Imparting vocational training and skill development programs.

• (d) Conducting nationwide recruitment drives for government jobs.

Solution: B

The National Career Service (NCS) is a government initiative launched on July 20, 2015, by the Ministry of Labour and Employment. It serves as a one-stop digital platform to connect job seekers, employers, skill providers, and career counselors, aiming to bridge the gap between talent and opportunities in India.

Key Features

• Comprehensive Career Services: Dynamic job matching between job seekers and employers. Career counseling services for students and professionals. Information on skill development courses, internships, and vocational guidance. Psychometric and aptitude tests to guide individuals toward suitable career paths.

• Dynamic job matching between job seekers and employers.

• Career counseling services for students and professionals.

• Information on skill development courses, internships, and vocational guidance.

• Psychometric and aptitude tests to guide individuals toward suitable career paths.

• IT-Enabled Career Centers: Transforms traditional employment exchanges into modern career centers. Offers workshops, training sessions, and job fairs to improve employability.

• Transforms traditional employment exchanges into modern career centers.

• Offers workshops, training sessions, and job fairs to improve employability.

• Free of Cost: All services provided by the NCS portal are completely free for users, including registration, job applications, and interview processes.

• All services provided by the NCS portal are completely free for users, including registration, job applications, and interview processes.

• Wide Accessibility: Accessible through multiple channels such as online platforms, mobile devices, Common Service Centers (CSCs), and multilingual call centers.

• Accessible through multiple channels such as online platforms, mobile devices, Common Service Centers (CSCs), and multilingual call centers.

• Local Services: Provides information about local service providers for household needs like carpentry, plumbing, and driving.

• Provides information about local service providers for household needs like carpentry, plumbing, and driving.

Objectives

• Employment Generation: Facilitate job opportunities across sectors for youth and other job seekers.

• Facilitate job opportunities across sectors for youth and other job seekers.

• Skill Development: Provide access to skill training programs to enhance employability.

• Provide access to skill training programs to enhance employability.

• Career Guidance: Offer counseling services to help individuals make informed career decisions.

• Offer counseling services to help individuals make informed career decisions.

• Transparency: Ensure a user-friendly and transparent process for job matching.

• Ensure a user-friendly and transparent process for job matching.

Solution: B

The National Career Service (NCS) is a government initiative launched on July 20, 2015, by the Ministry of Labour and Employment. It serves as a one-stop digital platform to connect job seekers, employers, skill providers, and career counselors, aiming to bridge the gap between talent and opportunities in India.

Key Features

• Comprehensive Career Services: Dynamic job matching between job seekers and employers. Career counseling services for students and professionals. Information on skill development courses, internships, and vocational guidance. Psychometric and aptitude tests to guide individuals toward suitable career paths.

• Dynamic job matching between job seekers and employers.

• Career counseling services for students and professionals.

• Information on skill development courses, internships, and vocational guidance.

• Psychometric and aptitude tests to guide individuals toward suitable career paths.

• IT-Enabled Career Centers: Transforms traditional employment exchanges into modern career centers. Offers workshops, training sessions, and job fairs to improve employability.

• Transforms traditional employment exchanges into modern career centers.

• Offers workshops, training sessions, and job fairs to improve employability.

• Free of Cost: All services provided by the NCS portal are completely free for users, including registration, job applications, and interview processes.

• All services provided by the NCS portal are completely free for users, including registration, job applications, and interview processes.

• Wide Accessibility: Accessible through multiple channels such as online platforms, mobile devices, Common Service Centers (CSCs), and multilingual call centers.

• Accessible through multiple channels such as online platforms, mobile devices, Common Service Centers (CSCs), and multilingual call centers.

• Local Services: Provides information about local service providers for household needs like carpentry, plumbing, and driving.

• Provides information about local service providers for household needs like carpentry, plumbing, and driving.

Objectives

• Employment Generation: Facilitate job opportunities across sectors for youth and other job seekers.

• Facilitate job opportunities across sectors for youth and other job seekers.

• Skill Development: Provide access to skill training programs to enhance employability.

• Provide access to skill training programs to enhance employability.

• Career Guidance: Offer counseling services to help individuals make informed career decisions.

• Offer counseling services to help individuals make informed career decisions.

• Transparency: Ensure a user-friendly and transparent process for job matching.

• Ensure a user-friendly and transparent process for job matching.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding India Development and Economic Assistance Scheme (IDEAS): It was originally launched as India Development initiative. Under it, the Lines of credits are extended to countries of the South East Asia under India’s Act East policy. It is supported by the Exim Bank. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The India Development and Economic Assistance scheme was launched in 2003-04 as the India Development Initiative and was later renamed as the IDEA Scheme. It is administered by the Ministry of external Affairs with support from the Exim Bank. Projects funded are typically recommended by the Ministry and are aimed at promoting socio-economic economic development in partner countries Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct Under the IDEAS, lines of credit card extended to countries in Asia (including Nepal, Bhutan and Bangladesh) along with Africa and other countries as decided by the government of India. Lines of credit are provided to developing countries for projects like infrastructure, water, education and other key sectors. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: B The India Development and Economic Assistance scheme was launched in 2003-04 as the India Development Initiative and was later renamed as the IDEA Scheme. It is administered by the Ministry of external Affairs with support from the Exim Bank. Projects funded are typically recommended by the Ministry and are aimed at promoting socio-economic economic development in partner countries Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct Under the IDEAS, lines of credit card extended to countries in Asia (including Nepal, Bhutan and Bangladesh) along with Africa and other countries as decided by the government of India. Lines of credit are provided to developing countries for projects like infrastructure, water, education and other key sectors. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

#### 11. Question

Consider the following statements regarding India Development and Economic Assistance Scheme (IDEAS):

• It was originally launched as India Development initiative.

• Under it, the Lines of credits are extended to countries of the South East Asia under India’s Act East policy.

• It is supported by the Exim Bank.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• The India Development and Economic Assistance scheme was launched in 2003-04 as the India Development Initiative and was later renamed as the IDEA Scheme.

• It is administered by the Ministry of external Affairs with support from the Exim Bank.

• Projects funded are typically recommended by the Ministry and are aimed at promoting socio-economic economic development in partner countries

Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct

• Under the IDEAS, lines of credit card extended to countries in Asia (including Nepal, Bhutan and Bangladesh) along with Africa and other countries as decided by the government of India.

• Lines of credit are provided to developing countries for projects like infrastructure, water, education and other key sectors.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Solution: B

• The India Development and Economic Assistance scheme was launched in 2003-04 as the India Development Initiative and was later renamed as the IDEA Scheme.

• It is administered by the Ministry of external Affairs with support from the Exim Bank.

• Projects funded are typically recommended by the Ministry and are aimed at promoting socio-economic economic development in partner countries

Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct

• Under the IDEAS, lines of credit card extended to countries in Asia (including Nepal, Bhutan and Bangladesh) along with Africa and other countries as decided by the government of India.

• Lines of credit are provided to developing countries for projects like infrastructure, water, education and other key sectors.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The World Summit on Information Society (WSIS) was arranged for the first time under Resolution of the United Nations General Assembly. WSIS Forums are annually organised, being hosted by the International Telecommunication Union. The AI for Good Global Summit, the leading United Nations platform to promote AI in inclusive prosperity, is organised by the ITU. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C The United Nations General Assembly resolution in December 2001 endorsed the holding of the World Summit on the Information Society in two phases the first phase took place in Geneva in December 2003 and the second phase in Tunis in November 2005 It is aimed to create an evolving multi- stakeholder platform to address issues raised by Information and communication Technologies through a structured and inclusive approach at the national, regional and international levels. Hence statement 1 is correct WSIS forums are organised each year hosted by the International Telecommunication Union, co-organised by ITU, UNESCO, UNCTAD and UNDP. In 2015 the UNGA Overall Review resolved to hold WSIS Forums on annual basis till 2025. Hence statement 2 is correct The AI for good Global Summit is the leading action oriented United Nations platform promoting AI to advance health, climate, gender, inclusive prosperity, sustainable infrastructure, and other Global development priorities. it is organised by the International Telecommunication Union, the UN specialised agency for information and communication technology in partnership with 40 UN sister agencies and co convened with the Government of Switzerland. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: C The United Nations General Assembly resolution in December 2001 endorsed the holding of the World Summit on the Information Society in two phases the first phase took place in Geneva in December 2003 and the second phase in Tunis in November 2005 It is aimed to create an evolving multi- stakeholder platform to address issues raised by Information and communication Technologies through a structured and inclusive approach at the national, regional and international levels. Hence statement 1 is correct WSIS forums are organised each year hosted by the International Telecommunication Union, co-organised by ITU, UNESCO, UNCTAD and UNDP. In 2015 the UNGA Overall Review resolved to hold WSIS Forums on annual basis till 2025. Hence statement 2 is correct The AI for good Global Summit is the leading action oriented United Nations platform promoting AI to advance health, climate, gender, inclusive prosperity, sustainable infrastructure, and other Global development priorities. it is organised by the International Telecommunication Union, the UN specialised agency for information and communication technology in partnership with 40 UN sister agencies and co convened with the Government of Switzerland. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 12. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The World Summit on Information Society (WSIS) was arranged for the first time under Resolution of the United Nations General Assembly.

• WSIS Forums are annually organised, being hosted by the International Telecommunication Union.

• The AI for Good Global Summit, the leading United Nations platform to promote AI in inclusive prosperity, is organised by the ITU.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

• The United Nations General Assembly resolution in December 2001 endorsed the holding of the World Summit on the Information Society in two phases

• the first phase took place in Geneva in December 2003 and the second phase in Tunis in November 2005

• It is aimed to create an evolving multi- stakeholder platform to address issues raised by Information and communication Technologies through a structured and inclusive approach at the national, regional and international levels.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• WSIS forums are organised each year hosted by the International Telecommunication Union, co-organised by ITU, UNESCO, UNCTAD and UNDP.

• In 2015 the UNGA Overall Review resolved to hold WSIS Forums on annual basis till 2025.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• The AI for good Global Summit is the leading action oriented United Nations platform promoting AI to advance health, climate, gender, inclusive prosperity, sustainable infrastructure, and other Global development priorities.

• it is organised by the International Telecommunication Union, the UN specialised agency for information and communication technology in partnership with 40 UN sister agencies and co convened with the Government of Switzerland.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: C

• The United Nations General Assembly resolution in December 2001 endorsed the holding of the World Summit on the Information Society in two phases

• the first phase took place in Geneva in December 2003 and the second phase in Tunis in November 2005

• It is aimed to create an evolving multi- stakeholder platform to address issues raised by Information and communication Technologies through a structured and inclusive approach at the national, regional and international levels.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• WSIS forums are organised each year hosted by the International Telecommunication Union, co-organised by ITU, UNESCO, UNCTAD and UNDP.

• In 2015 the UNGA Overall Review resolved to hold WSIS Forums on annual basis till 2025.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• The AI for good Global Summit is the leading action oriented United Nations platform promoting AI to advance health, climate, gender, inclusive prosperity, sustainable infrastructure, and other Global development priorities.

• it is organised by the International Telecommunication Union, the UN specialised agency for information and communication technology in partnership with 40 UN sister agencies and co convened with the Government of Switzerland.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement -I: Holders of H1B Visa can apply for Green Card in the United States. Statement -II: H1B is an immigrant visa for hiring foreign workers by US employers. Statement -III: H1B Visa period can be extended for infinite number of times for 3 years time period each time. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement- II and Statement -III are correct and both of them explain Statement- I (b) Both Statement- II and Statement-III are correct but only one of them explains Statement- I (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement- I (d) Neither Statement- II nor Statement-III is correct Correct Solution: D H1B is a non-immigrant visa that has dual intent- holders of this visa can apply for permanent residency in the United States (green card). Hence statement 1 is correct H1B is a non- immigrant visa allowing US employers to hire skilled foreign workers for specialised occupations. It aims to bridge the skill gap by employing foreign talent in industries like Information Technology, Research, healthcare and Engineering. A candidate should be at least holder of a bachelor’s degree or equivalent for this visa. This visa is issued for an initial period of 3 years which can be extendable up to 6 years. Hence statements 2 and 3 are incorrect Incorrect Solution: D H1B is a non-immigrant visa that has dual intent- holders of this visa can apply for permanent residency in the United States (green card). Hence statement 1 is correct H1B is a non- immigrant visa allowing US employers to hire skilled foreign workers for specialised occupations. It aims to bridge the skill gap by employing foreign talent in industries like Information Technology, Research, healthcare and Engineering. A candidate should be at least holder of a bachelor’s degree or equivalent for this visa. This visa is issued for an initial period of 3 years which can be extendable up to 6 years. Hence statements 2 and 3 are incorrect

#### 13. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement -I:

Holders of H1B Visa can apply for Green Card in the United States.

Statement -II:

H1B is an immigrant visa for hiring foreign workers by US employers.

Statement -III:

H1B Visa period can be extended for infinite number of times for 3 years time period each time.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement- II and Statement -III are correct and both of them explain Statement- I

• (b) Both Statement- II and Statement-III are correct but only one of them explains Statement- I

• (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement- I

• (d) Neither Statement- II nor Statement-III is correct

Solution: D

• H1B is a non-immigrant visa that has dual intent- holders of this visa can apply for permanent residency in the United States (green card).

Hence statement 1 is correct

• H1B is a non- immigrant visa allowing US employers to hire skilled foreign workers for specialised occupations.

• It aims to bridge the skill gap by employing foreign talent in industries like Information Technology, Research, healthcare and Engineering.

• A candidate should be at least holder of a bachelor’s degree or equivalent for this visa.

• This visa is issued for an initial period of 3 years which can be extendable up to 6 years.

Hence statements 2 and 3 are incorrect

Solution: D

• H1B is a non-immigrant visa that has dual intent- holders of this visa can apply for permanent residency in the United States (green card).

Hence statement 1 is correct

• H1B is a non- immigrant visa allowing US employers to hire skilled foreign workers for specialised occupations.

• It aims to bridge the skill gap by employing foreign talent in industries like Information Technology, Research, healthcare and Engineering.

• A candidate should be at least holder of a bachelor’s degree or equivalent for this visa.

• This visa is issued for an initial period of 3 years which can be extendable up to 6 years.

Hence statements 2 and 3 are incorrect

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Recently India has signed a Mutual Recognition Agreement for Organic products with which of the following countries? (a) Australia (b) Argentina (c) Taiwan (d) Turkmenistan Correct Solution: C Recently India and Taiwan have implemented a Mutual Recognition Agreement for Organic products. It is the first bilateral agreement for organic product between two Nations It involves the Agriculture and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority of India and the Agriculture and Food Agency of Taiwan. Under this agreement organic products are produced according to India’s National Programme for Organic Production and certified by an accredited body can be sold in Taiwan with the ‘India organic’ logo This will facilitate export of key Indian Organic products like rice, herbal tea, medicinal products, etc. to Taiwan. Hence option C is correct Incorrect Solution: C Recently India and Taiwan have implemented a Mutual Recognition Agreement for Organic products. It is the first bilateral agreement for organic product between two Nations It involves the Agriculture and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority of India and the Agriculture and Food Agency of Taiwan. Under this agreement organic products are produced according to India’s National Programme for Organic Production and certified by an accredited body can be sold in Taiwan with the ‘India organic’ logo This will facilitate export of key Indian Organic products like rice, herbal tea, medicinal products, etc. to Taiwan. Hence option C is correct

#### 14. Question

Recently India has signed a Mutual Recognition Agreement for Organic products with which of the following countries?

• (a) Australia

• (b) Argentina

• (c) Taiwan

• (d) Turkmenistan

Solution: C

• Recently India and Taiwan have implemented a Mutual Recognition Agreement for Organic products.

• It is the first bilateral agreement for organic product between two Nations

• It involves the Agriculture and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority of India and the Agriculture and Food Agency of Taiwan.

• Under this agreement organic products are produced according to India’s National Programme for Organic Production and certified by an accredited body can be sold in Taiwan with the ‘India organic’ logo

• This will facilitate export of key Indian Organic products like rice, herbal tea, medicinal products, etc. to Taiwan.

Hence option C is correct

Solution: C

• Recently India and Taiwan have implemented a Mutual Recognition Agreement for Organic products.

• It is the first bilateral agreement for organic product between two Nations

• It involves the Agriculture and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority of India and the Agriculture and Food Agency of Taiwan.

• Under this agreement organic products are produced according to India’s National Programme for Organic Production and certified by an accredited body can be sold in Taiwan with the ‘India organic’ logo

• This will facilitate export of key Indian Organic products like rice, herbal tea, medicinal products, etc. to Taiwan.

Hence option C is correct

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points The Global Alliance against Hunger and Poverty has been launched by: (a) G20 (b) FAO (c) Quad (d) UNICEF Correct Solution: A The Global Alliance against Hunger and Poverty was established as a proposal from the Brazilian presidency of the G20 to support and accelerate efforts to eradicate hunger and poverty (Sustainable Development Goals 1 and 2), while reducing inequality (SDG 10). The core of the alliance is the policy basket-a menu of rigorously evaluated policy instruments ensuring that donor investments are directed towards cost effective, high impact initiatives. The alliance builds partnership and mobilizes financial and knowledge resources to implement these policy instruments. Membership in the alliance is open to governments, International Organisations, knowledge Institutions, development funds and banks as well as philanthropic Institutions. Hence option A is correct Incorrect Solution: A The Global Alliance against Hunger and Poverty was established as a proposal from the Brazilian presidency of the G20 to support and accelerate efforts to eradicate hunger and poverty (Sustainable Development Goals 1 and 2), while reducing inequality (SDG 10). The core of the alliance is the policy basket-a menu of rigorously evaluated policy instruments ensuring that donor investments are directed towards cost effective, high impact initiatives. The alliance builds partnership and mobilizes financial and knowledge resources to implement these policy instruments. Membership in the alliance is open to governments, International Organisations, knowledge Institutions, development funds and banks as well as philanthropic Institutions. Hence option A is correct

#### 15. Question

The Global Alliance against Hunger and Poverty has been launched by:

• (d) UNICEF

Solution: A

• The Global Alliance against Hunger and Poverty was established as a proposal from the Brazilian presidency of the G20 to support and accelerate efforts to eradicate hunger and poverty (Sustainable Development Goals 1 and 2), while reducing inequality (SDG 10).

• The core of the alliance is the policy basket-a menu of rigorously evaluated policy instruments ensuring that donor investments are directed towards cost effective, high impact initiatives.

• The alliance builds partnership and mobilizes financial and knowledge resources to implement these policy instruments.

• Membership in the alliance is open to governments, International Organisations, knowledge Institutions, development funds and banks as well as philanthropic Institutions.

Hence option A is correct

Solution: A

• The Global Alliance against Hunger and Poverty was established as a proposal from the Brazilian presidency of the G20 to support and accelerate efforts to eradicate hunger and poverty (Sustainable Development Goals 1 and 2), while reducing inequality (SDG 10).

• The core of the alliance is the policy basket-a menu of rigorously evaluated policy instruments ensuring that donor investments are directed towards cost effective, high impact initiatives.

• The alliance builds partnership and mobilizes financial and knowledge resources to implement these policy instruments.

• Membership in the alliance is open to governments, International Organisations, knowledge Institutions, development funds and banks as well as philanthropic Institutions.

Hence option A is correct

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements UN Peacekeeping: The budget for Peacekeeping operations under UN Security Council resolution is subject to approval of the General Assembly. Under Security Council mandate, Peacekeeping Missions arrange mutual dialogues between main parties to the conflict and refrain from use of force by any means. Peacekeeping intelligence activities are monitorned by National intelligence system of the host nation where operation is being conducted. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A If the Security Council determines that deploying UN Peace operation is the most appropriate step to take in a conflict situation, it will formally authorise this by adopting a resolution The resolution sets out the operation’s mandate and size and details the task it will be responsible for performing The budget and resources are then subject to General Assembly approval. Hence statement 1 is correct UN peacekeeping operations are not an enforcement tool ; however they may use force at the tactical level with authorisation of the Security Council if acting in self-defence and defence of the mandate Robust Peacekeeping involves the use of force at the tactical level with authorisation of the Security Council and consent of the host nation and the main parties to the conflict. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Peacekeeping intelligence activities are undertaken in line with Security Council mandates, the Charter of the United Nations and relevant legal frameworks. Peacekeeping intelligence activities must be independent from any national intelligence system. Hence statement 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: A If the Security Council determines that deploying UN Peace operation is the most appropriate step to take in a conflict situation, it will formally authorise this by adopting a resolution The resolution sets out the operation’s mandate and size and details the task it will be responsible for performing The budget and resources are then subject to General Assembly approval. Hence statement 1 is correct UN peacekeeping operations are not an enforcement tool ; however they may use force at the tactical level with authorisation of the Security Council if acting in self-defence and defence of the mandate Robust Peacekeeping involves the use of force at the tactical level with authorisation of the Security Council and consent of the host nation and the main parties to the conflict. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Peacekeeping intelligence activities are undertaken in line with Security Council mandates, the Charter of the United Nations and relevant legal frameworks. Peacekeeping intelligence activities must be independent from any national intelligence system. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

#### 16. Question

Consider the following statements UN Peacekeeping:

• The budget for Peacekeeping operations under UN Security Council resolution is subject to approval of the General Assembly.

• Under Security Council mandate, Peacekeeping Missions arrange mutual dialogues between main parties to the conflict and refrain from use of force by any means.

• Peacekeeping intelligence activities are monitorned by National intelligence system of the host nation where operation is being conducted.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• If the Security Council determines that deploying UN Peace operation is the most appropriate step to take in a conflict situation, it will formally authorise this by adopting a resolution

• The resolution sets out the operation’s mandate and size and details the task it will be responsible for performing

• The budget and resources are then subject to General Assembly approval.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• UN peacekeeping operations are not an enforcement tool ; however they may use force at the tactical level with authorisation of the Security Council if acting in self-defence and defence of the mandate

• Robust Peacekeeping involves the use of force at the tactical level with authorisation of the Security Council and consent of the host nation and the main parties to the conflict.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Peacekeeping intelligence activities are undertaken in line with Security Council mandates, the Charter of the United Nations and relevant legal frameworks.

• Peacekeeping intelligence activities must be independent from any national intelligence system.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution: A

• If the Security Council determines that deploying UN Peace operation is the most appropriate step to take in a conflict situation, it will formally authorise this by adopting a resolution

• The resolution sets out the operation’s mandate and size and details the task it will be responsible for performing

• The budget and resources are then subject to General Assembly approval.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• UN peacekeeping operations are not an enforcement tool ; however they may use force at the tactical level with authorisation of the Security Council if acting in self-defence and defence of the mandate

• Robust Peacekeeping involves the use of force at the tactical level with authorisation of the Security Council and consent of the host nation and the main parties to the conflict.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Peacekeeping intelligence activities are undertaken in line with Security Council mandates, the Charter of the United Nations and relevant legal frameworks.

• Peacekeeping intelligence activities must be independent from any national intelligence system.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Scheme for Capacity Building in Textile Sector: It intends to provide employment in Textile Sector, compliant with National Skills Qualification Framework, excluding in spinning and weaving. Under it 10 lakh persons will be skilled in both organised and traditional sectors through Agencies including NGOs and Start-ups. It includes Adhaar enabled biometric attendance system. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: D The Scheme for Capacity Building in Textile Sector or the Samarth scheme seeks to skill youth for gainfull and sustainable employment in the textile sector. It aims to provide demand driven placement oriented National Skills Qualification Framework complient scaling programs to incentivise and supplement the efforts of the industry in creating jobs in organised textile and related sectors, covering the entire value chain of textile excluding spinning and weaving. Hence statement 1 is correct The scheme would target to train 10 lakh persons 9 lakh in organised and 1 lakh in traditional sector. The Skilling programs would be implemented through: Textile industry Institutions, organisation of the Ministry of Textiles, state government having training infrastructure Reputed training institutions /NGOs/ Societies/Trust / Organisations/ Companies/ start-up /Entrepreneurs active in textile sector having placement tie up with textile industry Hence statement 2 is correct The scheme adopts Adhaar enabled biometric attendance system with minimum 80% attendance for assessment. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: D The Scheme for Capacity Building in Textile Sector or the Samarth scheme seeks to skill youth for gainfull and sustainable employment in the textile sector. It aims to provide demand driven placement oriented National Skills Qualification Framework complient scaling programs to incentivise and supplement the efforts of the industry in creating jobs in organised textile and related sectors, covering the entire value chain of textile excluding spinning and weaving. Hence statement 1 is correct The scheme would target to train 10 lakh persons 9 lakh in organised and 1 lakh in traditional sector. The Skilling programs would be implemented through: Textile industry Institutions, organisation of the Ministry of Textiles, state government having training infrastructure Reputed training institutions /NGOs/ Societies/Trust / Organisations/ Companies/ start-up /Entrepreneurs active in textile sector having placement tie up with textile industry Hence statement 2 is correct The scheme adopts Adhaar enabled biometric attendance system with minimum 80% attendance for assessment. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 17. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Scheme for Capacity Building in Textile Sector:

• It intends to provide employment in Textile Sector, compliant with National Skills Qualification Framework, excluding in spinning and weaving.

• Under it 10 lakh persons will be skilled in both organised and traditional sectors through Agencies including NGOs and Start-ups.

• It includes Adhaar enabled biometric attendance system.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) 1 and 2 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

• The Scheme for Capacity Building in Textile Sector or the Samarth scheme seeks to skill youth for gainfull and sustainable employment in the textile sector.

• It aims to provide demand driven placement oriented National Skills Qualification Framework complient scaling programs to incentivise and supplement the efforts of the industry in creating jobs in organised textile and related sectors, covering the entire value chain of textile excluding spinning and weaving.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The scheme would target to train 10 lakh persons 9 lakh in organised and 1 lakh in traditional sector.

The Skilling programs would be implemented through:

• Textile industry

• Institutions, organisation of the Ministry of Textiles, state government having training infrastructure

• Reputed training institutions /NGOs/ Societies/Trust / Organisations/ Companies/ start-up /Entrepreneurs active in textile sector having placement tie up with textile industry

Hence statement 2 is correct

• The scheme adopts Adhaar enabled biometric attendance system with minimum 80% attendance for assessment.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: D

• The Scheme for Capacity Building in Textile Sector or the Samarth scheme seeks to skill youth for gainfull and sustainable employment in the textile sector.

• It aims to provide demand driven placement oriented National Skills Qualification Framework complient scaling programs to incentivise and supplement the efforts of the industry in creating jobs in organised textile and related sectors, covering the entire value chain of textile excluding spinning and weaving.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The scheme would target to train 10 lakh persons 9 lakh in organised and 1 lakh in traditional sector.

The Skilling programs would be implemented through:

• Textile industry

• Institutions, organisation of the Ministry of Textiles, state government having training infrastructure

• Reputed training institutions /NGOs/ Societies/Trust / Organisations/ Companies/ start-up /Entrepreneurs active in textile sector having placement tie up with textile industry

Hence statement 2 is correct

• The scheme adopts Adhaar enabled biometric attendance system with minimum 80% attendance for assessment.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Manama Dialogue promotes security architecture in the Middle East. The Manama dialogue is organised by the Arab League along with Horn of Africa countries. The efforts of India to address issues across the Middle East has been highlighted in the recent Manama dialogue of 2024. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The Manama Dialogue was initiated in 2004 in the kingdom of Bahrain. It is a unique forum for ministers, policy makers and decision makers to debate the Middle East’s most pressing foreign policy, defence and security challenges. It includes participants from the Middle East, North America, Europe, Asia and Africa. Hence statement 1 is correct The Manama dialogue is organised by the International Institute for Strategic Studies, in collaboration with Ministry of Foreign Affairs, Bahrain. Hence statement 2 is incorrect The External Affairs Minister of India, S. Jaishankar, attended the 20th Manama Dialogue in Bahrain, highlighting India’s diplomatic efforts in addressing challenges across Middle East from Gaza to Syria. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: B The Manama Dialogue was initiated in 2004 in the kingdom of Bahrain. It is a unique forum for ministers, policy makers and decision makers to debate the Middle East’s most pressing foreign policy, defence and security challenges. It includes participants from the Middle East, North America, Europe, Asia and Africa. Hence statement 1 is correct The Manama dialogue is organised by the International Institute for Strategic Studies, in collaboration with Ministry of Foreign Affairs, Bahrain. Hence statement 2 is incorrect The External Affairs Minister of India, S. Jaishankar, attended the 20th Manama Dialogue in Bahrain, highlighting India’s diplomatic efforts in addressing challenges across Middle East from Gaza to Syria. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 18. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Manama Dialogue promotes security architecture in the Middle East.

• The Manama dialogue is organised by the Arab League along with Horn of Africa countries.

• The efforts of India to address issues across the Middle East has been highlighted in the recent Manama dialogue of 2024.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• The Manama Dialogue was initiated in 2004 in the kingdom of Bahrain.

• It is a unique forum for ministers, policy makers and decision makers to debate the Middle East’s most pressing foreign policy, defence and security challenges.

• It includes participants from the Middle East, North America, Europe, Asia and Africa.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The Manama dialogue is organised by the International Institute for Strategic Studies, in collaboration with Ministry of Foreign Affairs, Bahrain.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• The External Affairs Minister of India, S. Jaishankar, attended the 20th Manama Dialogue in Bahrain, highlighting India’s diplomatic efforts in addressing challenges across Middle East from Gaza to Syria.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: B

• The Manama Dialogue was initiated in 2004 in the kingdom of Bahrain.

• It is a unique forum for ministers, policy makers and decision makers to debate the Middle East’s most pressing foreign policy, defence and security challenges.

• It includes participants from the Middle East, North America, Europe, Asia and Africa.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The Manama dialogue is organised by the International Institute for Strategic Studies, in collaboration with Ministry of Foreign Affairs, Bahrain.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• The External Affairs Minister of India, S. Jaishankar, attended the 20th Manama Dialogue in Bahrain, highlighting India’s diplomatic efforts in addressing challenges across Middle East from Gaza to Syria.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Colombo Security Conclave (CSC) was originally established by India, Sri Lanka and Maldives to enhance security in Indian Ocean region. The Colombo Process deals with rules of mutual trade between members of the Colombo Security Conclave. Seychelles is the only observer nation of the CSC. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: A The Colombo security conclave is a regional security grouping established in 2020 when India, Sri Lanka and Maldives agreed to expand the scope of their trilateral meeting on a Maritime cooperation. It was an initiative of Sri Lanka to enhance Maritime security in the Indian Ocean region. Mauritius joined the conclave at the 5th meeting in March 2022. Hence statement 1 is correct The Colombo Process, established in 2003 is a regional consultative process on management of overseas employment and contractual labour for countries of origin in Asia The 11 member countries for the process are Afghanistan, Bangladesh, China, India, Indonesia, Nepal, Pakistan, Philippines, Sri Lanka, Thailand and Vietnam and 8 destination country participants are Bahrain, Italy, Kuwait, Malaysia, Qatar, Republic of Korea, Saudi Arabia and UAE. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Seychelles is the only observer nation of the Colombo Security Conclave. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: A The Colombo security conclave is a regional security grouping established in 2020 when India, Sri Lanka and Maldives agreed to expand the scope of their trilateral meeting on a Maritime cooperation. It was an initiative of Sri Lanka to enhance Maritime security in the Indian Ocean region. Mauritius joined the conclave at the 5th meeting in March 2022. Hence statement 1 is correct The Colombo Process, established in 2003 is a regional consultative process on management of overseas employment and contractual labour for countries of origin in Asia The 11 member countries for the process are Afghanistan, Bangladesh, China, India, Indonesia, Nepal, Pakistan, Philippines, Sri Lanka, Thailand and Vietnam and 8 destination country participants are Bahrain, Italy, Kuwait, Malaysia, Qatar, Republic of Korea, Saudi Arabia and UAE. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Seychelles is the only observer nation of the Colombo Security Conclave. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 19. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Colombo Security Conclave (CSC) was originally established by India, Sri Lanka and Maldives to enhance security in Indian Ocean region.

• The Colombo Process deals with rules of mutual trade between members of the Colombo Security Conclave.

• Seychelles is the only observer nation of the CSC.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) 1 and 2 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

• The Colombo security conclave is a regional security grouping established in 2020 when India, Sri Lanka and Maldives agreed to expand the scope of their trilateral meeting on a Maritime cooperation.

• It was an initiative of Sri Lanka to enhance Maritime security in the Indian Ocean region.

• Mauritius joined the conclave at the 5th meeting in March 2022.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The Colombo Process, established in 2003 is a regional consultative process on management of overseas employment and contractual labour for countries of origin in Asia

• The 11 member countries for the process are Afghanistan, Bangladesh, China, India, Indonesia, Nepal, Pakistan, Philippines, Sri Lanka, Thailand and Vietnam and 8 destination country participants are Bahrain, Italy, Kuwait, Malaysia, Qatar, Republic of Korea, Saudi Arabia and UAE.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Seychelles is the only observer nation of the Colombo Security Conclave.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: A

• The Colombo security conclave is a regional security grouping established in 2020 when India, Sri Lanka and Maldives agreed to expand the scope of their trilateral meeting on a Maritime cooperation.

• It was an initiative of Sri Lanka to enhance Maritime security in the Indian Ocean region.

• Mauritius joined the conclave at the 5th meeting in March 2022.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The Colombo Process, established in 2003 is a regional consultative process on management of overseas employment and contractual labour for countries of origin in Asia

• The 11 member countries for the process are Afghanistan, Bangladesh, China, India, Indonesia, Nepal, Pakistan, Philippines, Sri Lanka, Thailand and Vietnam and 8 destination country participants are Bahrain, Italy, Kuwait, Malaysia, Qatar, Republic of Korea, Saudi Arabia and UAE.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Seychelles is the only observer nation of the Colombo Security Conclave.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The United Nations Office for the Coordination of Humanitarian Affairs (OCHA) is the primary United Nations agency for dealing with rights of refugees globally. OCHA is a part of the United Nations Secretariat. OCHA acts as the substantive Secretariat for organisation of the annual United Nations Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) Humanitarian Affairs Segment to discuss challenges related to humanitarian assistance. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 only Correct Solution: B The OCHA is responsible for coordinating human actors in emergency response. Its mandate includes mobilizing aids, sharing information, supporting humanitarian efforts and advocating for crisis affected communities. It doesn’t have a specific mandate solely focused on refugees but it plays a crucial role in coordinating humanitarian responses including those involving refugees by working with other United Nations agencies like United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees. UNHCR is the United Nations agency mandated to help and protect refugees, forcibly displaced communities and stateless people. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The OCHA was established in 1998 with its headquarter in Geneva, Switzerland. It was formerly known as the United Nations Department of Humanitarian Affairs. It is a part of the United Nations Secretariat. Hence statement 2 is correct OCHA acts as the substantive secretariat for the organisation of the annual ECOSOC Humanitarian Affairs Segment, a forum where member states and humanitarian actors discuss current and future challenges related to humanitarian assistance. The ECOSOC High level panels and side events are attended by representatives from the governments, NGOs, UN, partners and academia Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: B The OCHA is responsible for coordinating human actors in emergency response. Its mandate includes mobilizing aids, sharing information, supporting humanitarian efforts and advocating for crisis affected communities. It doesn’t have a specific mandate solely focused on refugees but it plays a crucial role in coordinating humanitarian responses including those involving refugees by working with other United Nations agencies like United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees. UNHCR is the United Nations agency mandated to help and protect refugees, forcibly displaced communities and stateless people. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The OCHA was established in 1998 with its headquarter in Geneva, Switzerland. It was formerly known as the United Nations Department of Humanitarian Affairs. It is a part of the United Nations Secretariat. Hence statement 2 is correct OCHA acts as the substantive secretariat for the organisation of the annual ECOSOC Humanitarian Affairs Segment, a forum where member states and humanitarian actors discuss current and future challenges related to humanitarian assistance. The ECOSOC High level panels and side events are attended by representatives from the governments, NGOs, UN, partners and academia Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 20. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The United Nations Office for the Coordination of Humanitarian Affairs (OCHA) is the primary United Nations agency for dealing with rights of refugees globally.

• OCHA is a part of the United Nations Secretariat.

• OCHA acts as the substantive Secretariat for organisation of the annual United Nations Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) Humanitarian Affairs Segment to discuss challenges related to humanitarian assistance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3

• (d) 2 only

Solution: B

• The OCHA is responsible for coordinating human actors in emergency response.

• Its mandate includes mobilizing aids, sharing information, supporting humanitarian efforts and advocating for crisis affected communities.

• It doesn’t have a specific mandate solely focused on refugees but it plays a crucial role in coordinating humanitarian responses including those involving refugees by working with other United Nations agencies like United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees.

• UNHCR is the United Nations agency mandated to help and protect refugees, forcibly displaced communities and stateless people.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The OCHA was established in 1998 with its headquarter in Geneva, Switzerland.

• It was formerly known as the United Nations Department of Humanitarian Affairs.

• It is a part of the United Nations Secretariat.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• OCHA acts as the substantive secretariat for the organisation of the annual ECOSOC Humanitarian Affairs Segment, a forum where member states and humanitarian actors discuss current and future challenges related to humanitarian assistance.

• The ECOSOC High level panels and side events are attended by representatives from the governments, NGOs, UN, partners and academia

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: B

• The OCHA is responsible for coordinating human actors in emergency response.

• Its mandate includes mobilizing aids, sharing information, supporting humanitarian efforts and advocating for crisis affected communities.

• It doesn’t have a specific mandate solely focused on refugees but it plays a crucial role in coordinating humanitarian responses including those involving refugees by working with other United Nations agencies like United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees.

• UNHCR is the United Nations agency mandated to help and protect refugees, forcibly displaced communities and stateless people.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The OCHA was established in 1998 with its headquarter in Geneva, Switzerland.

• It was formerly known as the United Nations Department of Humanitarian Affairs.

• It is a part of the United Nations Secretariat.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• OCHA acts as the substantive secretariat for the organisation of the annual ECOSOC Humanitarian Affairs Segment, a forum where member states and humanitarian actors discuss current and future challenges related to humanitarian assistance.

• The ECOSOC High level panels and side events are attended by representatives from the governments, NGOs, UN, partners and academia

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Consider the following statements with reference to Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel He was conferred the title “Sardar” by Mahatma Gandhi for his leadership during the Kheda Satyagraha. He headed the Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights and the Provincial Constitution Committee of the Constituent Assembly. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B Sardar Patel: Title “Sardar”: Vallabhbhai Patel was conferred the title “Sardar” by the women of Bardoli, not by Mahatma Gandhi, and not during the Kheda Satyagraha. The title was given in 1928 after his successful leadership in the Bardoli Satyagraha, where he led a non-violent movement of farmers against an unjust increase in land revenue in Gujarat. (Hence, statement 1 is incorrect) Role in Constituent Assembly: Sardar Patel headed key committees in the Constituent Assembly of India, including: The Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities, and Tribal and Excluded Areas. The Provincial Constitution Committee. These committees played a vital role in shaping the framework of India’s Constitution, including provisions for civil liberties, minority safeguards, and provincial structure. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) Patel’s broader contribution includes his role as India’s first Home Minister and Deputy Prime Minister, where he led the integration of over 560 princely states into the Indian Union and laid the foundation of All India Services. Though he participated in the Kheda Satyagraha (1918), his iconic recognition as “Sardar” came a decade later during the Bardoli movement, due to his firm and popular leadership. https://www.newsonair.gov.in/govt-launches-two-year-nationwide-celebration-for-sardar-patels-150th-birth-anniversary/ Incorrect Solution: B Sardar Patel: Title “Sardar”: Vallabhbhai Patel was conferred the title “Sardar” by the women of Bardoli, not by Mahatma Gandhi, and not during the Kheda Satyagraha. The title was given in 1928 after his successful leadership in the Bardoli Satyagraha, where he led a non-violent movement of farmers against an unjust increase in land revenue in Gujarat. (Hence, statement 1 is incorrect) Role in Constituent Assembly: Sardar Patel headed key committees in the Constituent Assembly of India, including: The Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities, and Tribal and Excluded Areas. The Provincial Constitution Committee. These committees played a vital role in shaping the framework of India’s Constitution, including provisions for civil liberties, minority safeguards, and provincial structure. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) Patel’s broader contribution includes his role as India’s first Home Minister and Deputy Prime Minister, where he led the integration of over 560 princely states into the Indian Union and laid the foundation of All India Services. Though he participated in the Kheda Satyagraha (1918), his iconic recognition as “Sardar” came a decade later during the Bardoli movement, due to his firm and popular leadership. https://www.newsonair.gov.in/govt-launches-two-year-nationwide-celebration-for-sardar-patels-150th-birth-anniversary/

#### 21. Question

Consider the following statements with reference to Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

• He was conferred the title “Sardar” by Mahatma Gandhi for his leadership during the Kheda Satyagraha.

• He headed the Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights and the Provincial Constitution Committee of the Constituent Assembly.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

Sardar Patel:

• Title “Sardar”: Vallabhbhai Patel was conferred the title “Sardar” by the women of Bardoli, not by Mahatma Gandhi, and not during the Kheda Satyagraha. The title was given in 1928 after his successful leadership in the Bardoli Satyagraha, where he led a non-violent movement of farmers against an unjust increase in land revenue in Gujarat. (Hence, statement 1 is incorrect)

• Role in Constituent Assembly: Sardar Patel headed key committees in the Constituent Assembly of India, including: The Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities, and Tribal and Excluded Areas. The Provincial Constitution Committee. These committees played a vital role in shaping the framework of India’s Constitution, including provisions for civil liberties, minority safeguards, and provincial structure. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

• The Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities, and Tribal and Excluded Areas.

• The Provincial Constitution Committee. These committees played a vital role in shaping the framework of India’s Constitution, including provisions for civil liberties, minority safeguards, and provincial structure. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

• Patel’s broader contribution includes his role as India’s first Home Minister and Deputy Prime Minister, where he led the integration of over 560 princely states into the Indian Union and laid the foundation of All India Services.

• Though he participated in the Kheda Satyagraha (1918), his iconic recognition as “Sardar” came a decade later during the Bardoli movement, due to his firm and popular leadership.

https://www.newsonair.gov.in/govt-launches-two-year-nationwide-celebration-for-sardar-patels-150th-birth-anniversary/

Solution: B

Sardar Patel:

• Title “Sardar”: Vallabhbhai Patel was conferred the title “Sardar” by the women of Bardoli, not by Mahatma Gandhi, and not during the Kheda Satyagraha. The title was given in 1928 after his successful leadership in the Bardoli Satyagraha, where he led a non-violent movement of farmers against an unjust increase in land revenue in Gujarat. (Hence, statement 1 is incorrect)

• Role in Constituent Assembly: Sardar Patel headed key committees in the Constituent Assembly of India, including: The Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities, and Tribal and Excluded Areas. The Provincial Constitution Committee. These committees played a vital role in shaping the framework of India’s Constitution, including provisions for civil liberties, minority safeguards, and provincial structure. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

• The Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities, and Tribal and Excluded Areas.

• The Provincial Constitution Committee. These committees played a vital role in shaping the framework of India’s Constitution, including provisions for civil liberties, minority safeguards, and provincial structure. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

• Patel’s broader contribution includes his role as India’s first Home Minister and Deputy Prime Minister, where he led the integration of over 560 princely states into the Indian Union and laid the foundation of All India Services.

• Though he participated in the Kheda Satyagraha (1918), his iconic recognition as “Sardar” came a decade later during the Bardoli movement, due to his firm and popular leadership.

https://www.newsonair.gov.in/govt-launches-two-year-nationwide-celebration-for-sardar-patels-150th-birth-anniversary/

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution: It empowers the Governor to alter the boundaries of Autonomous Districts and Regions without a constitutional amendment. District Councils under the Sixth Schedule can make laws on land, forests, and inheritance, but these laws require the Governor’s assent. The Sixth Schedule allows Parliament to legislate on tribal areas without any modifications or exceptions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: A Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution: The Sixth Schedule, under Article 244(2) of the Constitution, provides for administration of tribal areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram through Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) and Regional Councils. The Governor has powers under the Sixth Schedule to create, alter, or abolish Autonomous Districts and Regions by executive order, without requiring a constitutional amendment. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) District and Regional Councils under the Sixth Schedule are empowered to make laws on specific subjects such as: Land (including allotment, use, and transfer), Forests (other than reserved forests), Inheritance of property, marriage and social customs, etc. However, any such law requires the Governor’s assent before it can come into effect. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) Laws enacted by the Parliament or State Legislature do not automatically apply to areas under the Sixth Schedule. Their application is subject to modifications or exceptions as specified by the Governor through public notification. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect) https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/what-special-status-is-ladakh-seeking-explained/article68709451.ece Incorrect Solution: A Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution: The Sixth Schedule, under Article 244(2) of the Constitution, provides for administration of tribal areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram through Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) and Regional Councils. The Governor has powers under the Sixth Schedule to create, alter, or abolish Autonomous Districts and Regions by executive order, without requiring a constitutional amendment. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) District and Regional Councils under the Sixth Schedule are empowered to make laws on specific subjects such as: Land (including allotment, use, and transfer), Forests (other than reserved forests), Inheritance of property, marriage and social customs, etc. However, any such law requires the Governor’s assent before it can come into effect. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) Laws enacted by the Parliament or State Legislature do not automatically apply to areas under the Sixth Schedule. Their application is subject to modifications or exceptions as specified by the Governor through public notification. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect) https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/what-special-status-is-ladakh-seeking-explained/article68709451.ece

#### 22. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution:

• It empowers the Governor to alter the boundaries of Autonomous Districts and Regions without a constitutional amendment.

• District Councils under the Sixth Schedule can make laws on land, forests, and inheritance, but these laws require the Governor’s assent.

• The Sixth Schedule allows Parliament to legislate on tribal areas without any modifications or exceptions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution:

• The Sixth Schedule, under Article 244(2) of the Constitution, provides for administration of tribal areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram through Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) and Regional Councils.

• The Governor has powers under the Sixth Schedule to create, alter, or abolish Autonomous Districts and Regions by executive order, without requiring a constitutional amendment. (Hence, statement 1 is correct)

• District and Regional Councils under the Sixth Schedule are empowered to make laws on specific subjects such as: Land (including allotment, use, and transfer), Forests (other than reserved forests), Inheritance of property, marriage and social customs, etc. However, any such law requires the Governor’s assent before it can come into effect. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

• Land (including allotment, use, and transfer),

• Forests (other than reserved forests),

• Inheritance of property, marriage and social customs, etc. However, any such law requires the Governor’s assent before it can come into effect. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

• Laws enacted by the Parliament or State Legislature do not automatically apply to areas under the Sixth Schedule. Their application is subject to modifications or exceptions as specified by the Governor through public notification. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect)

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/what-special-status-is-ladakh-seeking-explained/article68709451.ece

Solution: A

Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution:

• The Sixth Schedule, under Article 244(2) of the Constitution, provides for administration of tribal areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram through Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) and Regional Councils.

• The Governor has powers under the Sixth Schedule to create, alter, or abolish Autonomous Districts and Regions by executive order, without requiring a constitutional amendment. (Hence, statement 1 is correct)

• District and Regional Councils under the Sixth Schedule are empowered to make laws on specific subjects such as: Land (including allotment, use, and transfer), Forests (other than reserved forests), Inheritance of property, marriage and social customs, etc. However, any such law requires the Governor’s assent before it can come into effect. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

• Land (including allotment, use, and transfer),

• Forests (other than reserved forests),

• Inheritance of property, marriage and social customs, etc. However, any such law requires the Governor’s assent before it can come into effect. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

• Laws enacted by the Parliament or State Legislature do not automatically apply to areas under the Sixth Schedule. Their application is subject to modifications or exceptions as specified by the Governor through public notification. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect)

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/what-special-status-is-ladakh-seeking-explained/article68709451.ece

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Swachh Bharat Mission (Urban) is implemented by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs and its current phase continues till 2026. Statement-II: The Swachh Bharat Mission (Urban) provides for single-window safety and welfare services for sanitation workers under the initiative ‘SafaiMitra Suraksha Shivir’. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: B Swachh Bharat Mission (Urban): Swachh Bharat Mission (Urban) is one of the two sub-missions of the Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM), launched on 2nd October 2014. It is implemented by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA). (Hence, Statement-I is correct) The current phase, known as SBM (Urban) 2.0, was launched in 2021 and is under implementation till 2026. It focuses on: Sustainable sanitation (including faecal sludge and wastewater management), Garbage-Free Cities (GFCs), Improved solid waste management systems. (Hence, Statement-I is correct) As part of the 10th anniversary of SBM in 2024, a campaign was launched with the theme ‘Swabhav Swachhata, Sanskaar Swachhata’, built around three core pillars: Swachhata Ki Bhaagidari – promoting public participation, Sampoorna Swachhata – cleanliness drives at challenging locations, SafaiMitra Suraksha Shivir – welfare and safety initiative for sanitation workers. (Hence, Statement-II is correct) SafaiMitra Suraksha Shivir is a single-window platform for providing: Safety gear and protective equipment, Health check-ups, Access to welfare schemes, Training on mechanized sanitation, Legal awareness and recognition. (Hence, Statement-II is correct) However, Statement-II (regarding welfare services) is not the explanation for Statement-I (which concerns implementing authority and phase duration). The two are factually correct but unrelated. (Hence, Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I) https://www.business-standard.com/amp/economy/news/swachh-bharat-mission-marks-a-decade-achievements-and-ongoing-challenges-124100101365_1.html Incorrect Solution: B Swachh Bharat Mission (Urban): Swachh Bharat Mission (Urban) is one of the two sub-missions of the Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM), launched on 2nd October 2014. It is implemented by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA). (Hence, Statement-I is correct) The current phase, known as SBM (Urban) 2.0, was launched in 2021 and is under implementation till 2026. It focuses on: Sustainable sanitation (including faecal sludge and wastewater management), Garbage-Free Cities (GFCs), Improved solid waste management systems. (Hence, Statement-I is correct) As part of the 10th anniversary of SBM in 2024, a campaign was launched with the theme ‘Swabhav Swachhata, Sanskaar Swachhata’, built around three core pillars: Swachhata Ki Bhaagidari – promoting public participation, Sampoorna Swachhata – cleanliness drives at challenging locations, SafaiMitra Suraksha Shivir – welfare and safety initiative for sanitation workers. (Hence, Statement-II is correct) SafaiMitra Suraksha Shivir is a single-window platform for providing: Safety gear and protective equipment, Health check-ups, Access to welfare schemes, Training on mechanized sanitation, Legal awareness and recognition. (Hence, Statement-II is correct) However, Statement-II (regarding welfare services) is not the explanation for Statement-I (which concerns implementing authority and phase duration). The two are factually correct but unrelated. (Hence, Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I) https://www.business-standard.com/amp/economy/news/swachh-bharat-mission-marks-a-decade-achievements-and-ongoing-challenges-124100101365_1.html

#### 23. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Swachh Bharat Mission (Urban) is implemented by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs and its current phase continues till 2026.

Statement-II: The Swachh Bharat Mission (Urban) provides for single-window safety and welfare services for sanitation workers under the initiative ‘SafaiMitra Suraksha Shivir’.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: B

Swachh Bharat Mission (Urban):

• Swachh Bharat Mission (Urban) is one of the two sub-missions of the Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM), launched on 2nd October 2014. It is implemented by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA). (Hence, Statement-I is correct)

• The current phase, known as SBM (Urban) 2.0, was launched in 2021 and is under implementation till 2026. It focuses on: Sustainable sanitation (including faecal sludge and wastewater management), Garbage-Free Cities (GFCs), Improved solid waste management systems. (Hence, Statement-I is correct)

• Sustainable sanitation (including faecal sludge and wastewater management),

• Garbage-Free Cities (GFCs),

• Improved solid waste management systems. (Hence, Statement-I is correct)

• As part of the 10th anniversary of SBM in 2024, a campaign was launched with the theme ‘Swabhav Swachhata, Sanskaar Swachhata’, built around three core pillars:

• Swachhata Ki Bhaagidari – promoting public participation,

• Sampoorna Swachhata – cleanliness drives at challenging locations,

• SafaiMitra Suraksha Shivir – welfare and safety initiative for sanitation workers. (Hence, Statement-II is correct)

• SafaiMitra Suraksha Shivir is a single-window platform for providing:

• Safety gear and protective equipment, Health check-ups, Access to welfare schemes, Training on mechanized sanitation, Legal awareness and recognition. (Hence, Statement-II is correct)

• Safety gear and protective equipment,

• Health check-ups,

• Access to welfare schemes,

• Training on mechanized sanitation,

• Legal awareness and recognition. (Hence, Statement-II is correct)

However, Statement-II (regarding welfare services) is not the explanation for Statement-I (which concerns implementing authority and phase duration). The two are factually correct but unrelated. (Hence, Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I)

https://www.business-standard.com/amp/economy/news/swachh-bharat-mission-marks-a-decade-achievements-and-ongoing-challenges-124100101365_1.html

Solution: B

Swachh Bharat Mission (Urban):

• Swachh Bharat Mission (Urban) is one of the two sub-missions of the Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM), launched on 2nd October 2014. It is implemented by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA). (Hence, Statement-I is correct)

• The current phase, known as SBM (Urban) 2.0, was launched in 2021 and is under implementation till 2026. It focuses on: Sustainable sanitation (including faecal sludge and wastewater management), Garbage-Free Cities (GFCs), Improved solid waste management systems. (Hence, Statement-I is correct)

• Sustainable sanitation (including faecal sludge and wastewater management),

• Garbage-Free Cities (GFCs),

• Improved solid waste management systems. (Hence, Statement-I is correct)

• As part of the 10th anniversary of SBM in 2024, a campaign was launched with the theme ‘Swabhav Swachhata, Sanskaar Swachhata’, built around three core pillars:

• Swachhata Ki Bhaagidari – promoting public participation,

• Sampoorna Swachhata – cleanliness drives at challenging locations,

• SafaiMitra Suraksha Shivir – welfare and safety initiative for sanitation workers. (Hence, Statement-II is correct)

• SafaiMitra Suraksha Shivir is a single-window platform for providing:

• Safety gear and protective equipment, Health check-ups, Access to welfare schemes, Training on mechanized sanitation, Legal awareness and recognition. (Hence, Statement-II is correct)

• Safety gear and protective equipment,

• Health check-ups,

• Access to welfare schemes,

• Training on mechanized sanitation,

• Legal awareness and recognition. (Hence, Statement-II is correct)

However, Statement-II (regarding welfare services) is not the explanation for Statement-I (which concerns implementing authority and phase duration). The two are factually correct but unrelated. (Hence, Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I)

https://www.business-standard.com/amp/economy/news/swachh-bharat-mission-marks-a-decade-achievements-and-ongoing-challenges-124100101365_1.html

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Census in India: The first synchronous and nationwide Census in India was conducted in 1881 under the supervision of W.C. Plowden. The legal authority for conducting the Census in India is derived from the Census Act of 1948, which was introduced by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel. The subject of Census is listed under the Concurrent List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: A Census in India: Historical background: The first non-synchronous nationwide census in India was conducted in 1872 during the viceroyalty of Lord Mayo. It was not conducted on the same date across the country. The first synchronous and nationwide census was conducted in 1881 under the supervision of W.C. Plowden, who was appointed as the first Census Commissioner of India. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) Legal Framework: The Census in India is governed by the Census Act of 1948, which provides the legal authority for conducting population census operations. The Act was introduced by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, who was then the Home Minister. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) Constitutional Position: The subject of Census is a Union subject, not a Concurrent List. It is listed under Entry 69 of the Union List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, and falls under the exclusive jurisdiction of the Parliament as per Article 246. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect) Administrative Authority: The Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, under the Ministry of Home Affairs, is responsible for organizing and conducting the Census in India. https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/census-delimitation-women-quota-parliament-9645201/ Incorrect Solution: A Census in India: Historical background: The first non-synchronous nationwide census in India was conducted in 1872 during the viceroyalty of Lord Mayo. It was not conducted on the same date across the country. The first synchronous and nationwide census was conducted in 1881 under the supervision of W.C. Plowden, who was appointed as the first Census Commissioner of India. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) Legal Framework: The Census in India is governed by the Census Act of 1948, which provides the legal authority for conducting population census operations. The Act was introduced by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, who was then the Home Minister. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) Constitutional Position: The subject of Census is a Union subject, not a Concurrent List. It is listed under Entry 69 of the Union List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, and falls under the exclusive jurisdiction of the Parliament as per Article 246. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect) Administrative Authority: The Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, under the Ministry of Home Affairs, is responsible for organizing and conducting the Census in India. https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/census-delimitation-women-quota-parliament-9645201/

#### 24. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Census in India:

• The first synchronous and nationwide Census in India was conducted in 1881 under the supervision of W.C. Plowden.

• The legal authority for conducting the Census in India is derived from the Census Act of 1948, which was introduced by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.

• The subject of Census is listed under the Concurrent List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

Census in India:

• Historical background: The first non-synchronous nationwide census in India was conducted in 1872 during the viceroyalty of Lord Mayo. It was not conducted on the same date across the country. The first synchronous and nationwide census was conducted in 1881 under the supervision of W.C. Plowden, who was appointed as the first Census Commissioner of India. (Hence, statement 1 is correct)

• The first non-synchronous nationwide census in India was conducted in 1872 during the viceroyalty of Lord Mayo. It was not conducted on the same date across the country.

• The first synchronous and nationwide census was conducted in 1881 under the supervision of W.C. Plowden, who was appointed as the first Census Commissioner of India. (Hence, statement 1 is correct)

• Legal Framework: The Census in India is governed by the Census Act of 1948, which provides the legal authority for conducting population census operations. The Act was introduced by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, who was then the Home Minister. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

• The Census in India is governed by the Census Act of 1948, which provides the legal authority for conducting population census operations.

• The Act was introduced by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, who was then the Home Minister. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

• Constitutional Position: The subject of Census is a Union subject, not a Concurrent List. It is listed under Entry 69 of the Union List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, and falls under the exclusive jurisdiction of the Parliament as per Article 246. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect)

• The subject of Census is a Union subject, not a Concurrent List.

• It is listed under Entry 69 of the Union List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, and falls under the exclusive jurisdiction of the Parliament as per Article 246. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect)

• Administrative Authority: The Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, under the Ministry of Home Affairs, is responsible for organizing and conducting the Census in India.

• The Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, under the Ministry of Home Affairs, is responsible for organizing and conducting the Census in India.

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/census-delimitation-women-quota-parliament-9645201/

Solution: A

Census in India:

• Historical background: The first non-synchronous nationwide census in India was conducted in 1872 during the viceroyalty of Lord Mayo. It was not conducted on the same date across the country. The first synchronous and nationwide census was conducted in 1881 under the supervision of W.C. Plowden, who was appointed as the first Census Commissioner of India. (Hence, statement 1 is correct)

• The first non-synchronous nationwide census in India was conducted in 1872 during the viceroyalty of Lord Mayo. It was not conducted on the same date across the country.

• The first synchronous and nationwide census was conducted in 1881 under the supervision of W.C. Plowden, who was appointed as the first Census Commissioner of India. (Hence, statement 1 is correct)

• Legal Framework: The Census in India is governed by the Census Act of 1948, which provides the legal authority for conducting population census operations. The Act was introduced by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, who was then the Home Minister. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

• The Census in India is governed by the Census Act of 1948, which provides the legal authority for conducting population census operations.

• The Act was introduced by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, who was then the Home Minister. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

• Constitutional Position: The subject of Census is a Union subject, not a Concurrent List. It is listed under Entry 69 of the Union List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, and falls under the exclusive jurisdiction of the Parliament as per Article 246. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect)

• The subject of Census is a Union subject, not a Concurrent List.

• It is listed under Entry 69 of the Union List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, and falls under the exclusive jurisdiction of the Parliament as per Article 246. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect)

• Administrative Authority: The Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, under the Ministry of Home Affairs, is responsible for organizing and conducting the Census in India.

• The Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, under the Ministry of Home Affairs, is responsible for organizing and conducting the Census in India.

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/census-delimitation-women-quota-parliament-9645201/

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes ‘Operation Northern Arrows’ recently seen in news? (a) A joint maritime security exercise between Israel and Mediterranean allies. (b) An Israeli military operation targeting Hezbollah positions along the Lebanon border. (c) An UN-led humanitarian operation for displaced civilians in Gaza. (d) A cyber-surveillance initiative launched by NATO to monitor West Asian conflicts. Correct Solution: B Operation Northern Arrows: Launch and Objective: Operation Northern Arrows was launched by the Israel Defense Forces (IDF) to neutralize Hezbollah’s military infrastructure along the Israel–Lebanon border. (Hence, option B is correct) Nature of Operation: It is a localized ground operation involving IDF commandos. Supported by artillery and air cover. Targets were selected based on precise intelligence inputs. Strategic Context: The operation was conducted simultaneously with other ongoing military operations in Gaza. It was a response to cross-border threats posed by Hezbollah to northern Israeli communities. https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/world/middle-east/operation-northern-arrows-israel-begins-ground-invasion-in-lebanon-eye-on-hezbollah-strongholds/articleshowprint/113832576.cms Incorrect Solution: B Operation Northern Arrows: Launch and Objective: Operation Northern Arrows was launched by the Israel Defense Forces (IDF) to neutralize Hezbollah’s military infrastructure along the Israel–Lebanon border. (Hence, option B is correct) Nature of Operation: It is a localized ground operation involving IDF commandos. Supported by artillery and air cover. Targets were selected based on precise intelligence inputs. Strategic Context: The operation was conducted simultaneously with other ongoing military operations in Gaza. It was a response to cross-border threats posed by Hezbollah to northern Israeli communities. https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/world/middle-east/operation-northern-arrows-israel-begins-ground-invasion-in-lebanon-eye-on-hezbollah-strongholds/articleshowprint/113832576.cms

#### 25. Question

Which of the following best describes ‘Operation Northern Arrows’ recently seen in news?

• (a) A joint maritime security exercise between Israel and Mediterranean allies.

• (b) An Israeli military operation targeting Hezbollah positions along the Lebanon border.

• (c) An UN-led humanitarian operation for displaced civilians in Gaza.

• (d) A cyber-surveillance initiative launched by NATO to monitor West Asian conflicts.

Solution: B

Operation Northern Arrows:

• Launch and Objective: Operation Northern Arrows was launched by the Israel Defense Forces (IDF) to neutralize Hezbollah’s military infrastructure along the Israel–Lebanon border. (Hence, option B is correct)

• Nature of Operation: It is a localized ground operation involving IDF commandos. Supported by artillery and air cover. Targets were selected based on precise intelligence inputs.

• It is a localized ground operation involving IDF commandos.

• Supported by artillery and air cover.

• Targets were selected based on precise intelligence inputs.

• Strategic Context: The operation was conducted simultaneously with other ongoing military operations in Gaza. It was a response to cross-border threats posed by Hezbollah to northern Israeli communities.

• The operation was conducted simultaneously with other ongoing military operations in Gaza.

• It was a response to cross-border threats posed by Hezbollah to northern Israeli communities.

https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/world/middle-east/operation-northern-arrows-israel-begins-ground-invasion-in-lebanon-eye-on-hezbollah-strongholds/articleshowprint/113832576.cms

Solution: B

Operation Northern Arrows:

• Launch and Objective: Operation Northern Arrows was launched by the Israel Defense Forces (IDF) to neutralize Hezbollah’s military infrastructure along the Israel–Lebanon border. (Hence, option B is correct)

• Nature of Operation: It is a localized ground operation involving IDF commandos. Supported by artillery and air cover. Targets were selected based on precise intelligence inputs.

• It is a localized ground operation involving IDF commandos.

• Supported by artillery and air cover.

• Targets were selected based on precise intelligence inputs.

• Strategic Context: The operation was conducted simultaneously with other ongoing military operations in Gaza. It was a response to cross-border threats posed by Hezbollah to northern Israeli communities.

• The operation was conducted simultaneously with other ongoing military operations in Gaza.

• It was a response to cross-border threats posed by Hezbollah to northern Israeli communities.

https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/world/middle-east/operation-northern-arrows-israel-begins-ground-invasion-in-lebanon-eye-on-hezbollah-strongholds/articleshowprint/113832576.cms

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points Cloud seeding is a method to enhance rainfall by introducing particles into clouds to induce precipitation. In Dubai, recent record floods have led to speculation about cloud seeding’s role. However, experts suggest that while cloud seeding may have had a minor impact, the extreme weather was mainly caused by a “cut-off” low-pressure system. This system drew in warm, moist air and blocked other weather patterns, leading to heavy rainfall. Additionally, climate change likely intensified the downpours by increasing atmospheric moisture. Cloud seeding is typically used when natural conditions for rain are insufficient, and it’s unlikely to have been the primary cause of the floods. The UAE faces challenges in managing extreme rainfall due to its urbanization and limited drainage infrastructure. Adaptation measures are crucial to mitigate the impacts of increasingly intense rainfall events. Which of the following statements regarding cloud seeding and its impact on recent floods in Dubai is most accurately supported by the passage? a) Cloud seeding is a universally accepted solution for managing extreme rainfall events b) Experts unanimously agree that cloud seeding had a significant impact on inducing heavy rainfall in Dubai. c) The "cut off" low-pressure system, combined with climate change, primarily contributed to the extreme weather and record floods in Dubai. d) Cloud seeding is often used in Dubai as a supplementary measure when natural conditions for rain are insufficient, but it is unlikely to be the main cause of floods Correct Correct Option: C Justification: The correct answer is C): This answer is supported by the passage because it states that experts suggest the recent floods in Dubai were mainly caused by a “cut off” low-pressure system, which drew in warm, moist air and blocked other weather patterns, leading to heavy rainfall. Additionally, the passage mentions that climate change likely intensified the downpours by increasing atmospheric moisture. Option A is incorrect: Cloud seeding is a method to enhance rainfall, and not for managing extreme rainfall events. Option B is incorrect: Experts suggest that while cloud seeding may have had a minor impact, the extreme weather was mainly caused by a “cut-off” low-pressure system Option D is incorrect: Read the statement, “In Dubai, recent record floods have led to speculation about cloud seeding’s role”. The passage doesn’t say that Cloud seeding is OFTEN used in Dubai. There is only speculation that the recent flood may have been induced by Cloud seeding. Incorrect Correct Option: C Justification: The correct answer is C): This answer is supported by the passage because it states that experts suggest the recent floods in Dubai were mainly caused by a “cut off” low-pressure system, which drew in warm, moist air and blocked other weather patterns, leading to heavy rainfall. Additionally, the passage mentions that climate change likely intensified the downpours by increasing atmospheric moisture. Option A is incorrect: Cloud seeding is a method to enhance rainfall, and not for managing extreme rainfall events. Option B is incorrect: Experts suggest that while cloud seeding may have had a minor impact, the extreme weather was mainly caused by a “cut-off” low-pressure system Option D is incorrect: Read the statement, “In Dubai, recent record floods have led to speculation about cloud seeding’s role”. The passage doesn’t say that Cloud seeding is OFTEN used in Dubai. There is only speculation that the recent flood may have been induced by Cloud seeding.

#### 26. Question

Cloud seeding is a method to enhance rainfall by introducing particles into clouds to induce precipitation. In Dubai, recent record floods have led to speculation about cloud seeding’s role. However, experts suggest that while cloud seeding may have had a minor impact, the extreme weather was mainly caused by a “cut-off” low-pressure system. This system drew in warm, moist air and blocked other weather patterns, leading to heavy rainfall. Additionally, climate change likely intensified the downpours by increasing atmospheric moisture. Cloud seeding is typically used when natural conditions for rain are insufficient, and it’s unlikely to have been the primary cause of the floods. The UAE faces challenges in managing extreme rainfall due to its urbanization and limited drainage infrastructure. Adaptation measures are crucial to mitigate the impacts of increasingly intense rainfall events.

Which of the following statements regarding cloud seeding and its impact on recent floods in Dubai is most accurately supported by the passage?

• a) Cloud seeding is a universally accepted solution for managing extreme rainfall events

• b) Experts unanimously agree that cloud seeding had a significant impact on inducing heavy rainfall in Dubai.

• c) The "cut off" low-pressure system, combined with climate change, primarily contributed to the extreme weather and record floods in Dubai.

• d) Cloud seeding is often used in Dubai as a supplementary measure when natural conditions for rain are insufficient, but it is unlikely to be the main cause of floods

Correct Option: C

Justification:

The correct answer is C): This answer is supported by the passage because it states that experts suggest the recent floods in Dubai were mainly caused by a “cut off” low-pressure system, which drew in warm, moist air and blocked other weather patterns, leading to heavy rainfall. Additionally, the passage mentions that climate change likely intensified the downpours by increasing atmospheric moisture.

Option A is incorrect: Cloud seeding is a method to enhance rainfall, and not for managing extreme rainfall events.

Option B is incorrect: Experts suggest that while cloud seeding may have had a minor impact, the extreme weather was mainly caused by a “cut-off” low-pressure system

Option D is incorrect: Read the statement, “In Dubai, recent record floods have led to speculation about cloud seeding’s role”. The passage doesn’t say that Cloud seeding is OFTEN used in Dubai. There is only speculation that the recent flood may have been induced by Cloud seeding.

Correct Option: C

Justification:

The correct answer is C): This answer is supported by the passage because it states that experts suggest the recent floods in Dubai were mainly caused by a “cut off” low-pressure system, which drew in warm, moist air and blocked other weather patterns, leading to heavy rainfall. Additionally, the passage mentions that climate change likely intensified the downpours by increasing atmospheric moisture.

Option A is incorrect: Cloud seeding is a method to enhance rainfall, and not for managing extreme rainfall events.

Option B is incorrect: Experts suggest that while cloud seeding may have had a minor impact, the extreme weather was mainly caused by a “cut-off” low-pressure system

Option D is incorrect: Read the statement, “In Dubai, recent record floods have led to speculation about cloud seeding’s role”. The passage doesn’t say that Cloud seeding is OFTEN used in Dubai. There is only speculation that the recent flood may have been induced by Cloud seeding.

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points What is the minimum number of square marbles required to tile a floor of length 2 meters 8cm and width 2 meters 86 cm? a) 100 b) 88 c) 76 d) 98 Correct Correct Option: B Justification: If there is a requirement for a minimum number of tiles, we must take the maximum size of the side. The side of square tile required to tile a floor of length 208cm & 286cm =HCF (208,286) = 26cm. So, the area of 1 square tile = 26cm ×26cm & Area of the floor = 208cm×286cm. So, number of tiles = Area of floor/ area of 1 tile = (208cm×286cm)/(26cm ×26cm) = 8 × 11 =88. Incorrect Correct Option: B Justification: If there is a requirement for a minimum number of tiles, we must take the maximum size of the side. The side of square tile required to tile a floor of length 208cm & 286cm =HCF (208,286) = 26cm. So, the area of 1 square tile = 26cm ×26cm & Area of the floor = 208cm×286cm. So, number of tiles = Area of floor/ area of 1 tile = (208cm×286cm)/(26cm ×26cm) = 8 × 11 =88.

#### 27. Question

What is the minimum number of square marbles required to tile a floor of length 2 meters 8cm and width 2 meters 86 cm?

Correct Option: B

Justification:

If there is a requirement for a minimum number of tiles, we must take the maximum size of the side.

The side of square tile required to tile a floor of length 208cm & 286cm =HCF (208,286) = 26cm.

So, the area of 1 square tile = 26cm ×26cm & Area of the floor = 208cm×286cm.

So, number of tiles = Area of floor/ area of 1 tile

= (208cm×286cm)/(26cm ×26cm)

= 8 × 11 =88.

Correct Option: B

Justification:

If there is a requirement for a minimum number of tiles, we must take the maximum size of the side.

The side of square tile required to tile a floor of length 208cm & 286cm =HCF (208,286) = 26cm.

So, the area of 1 square tile = 26cm ×26cm & Area of the floor = 208cm×286cm.

So, number of tiles = Area of floor/ area of 1 tile

= (208cm×286cm)/(26cm ×26cm)

= 8 × 11 =88.

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points Find the maximum number of students among whom 182 chocolates and 247 candies can be distributed such that each student gets the same number of each. a) 13 b) 14 c) 15 d) 16 Correct Correct Option: A Justification: We need to find the HCF of the number of chocolates and candies available, which would give us the number of students. HCF (182, 247) = 13 So, there can be 13 students. the maximum number of students are 13. Incorrect Correct Option: A Justification: We need to find the HCF of the number of chocolates and candies available, which would give us the number of students. HCF (182, 247) = 13 So, there can be 13 students. the maximum number of students are 13.

#### 28. Question

Find the maximum number of students among whom 182 chocolates and 247 candies can be distributed such that each student gets the same number of each.

Correct Option: A

Justification:

We need to find the HCF of the number of chocolates and candies available, which would give us the number of students.

HCF (182, 247) = 13

So, there can be 13 students.

the maximum number of students are 13.

Correct Option: A

Justification:

We need to find the HCF of the number of chocolates and candies available, which would give us the number of students.

HCF (182, 247) = 13

So, there can be 13 students.

the maximum number of students are 13.

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points 6 different sweet varieties of count 32, 216, 136, 88, 184, 120 were ordered for a particular occasion. They need to be packed in such a way that each box has the same variety of sweet and the number of sweets in each box is also the same. What is the minimum number of boxes required to pack? a) 129 b) 64 c) 48 d) 97 Correct Correct Option: D Justification: Find HCF and divide total sweets by that! All sweets need to packed and each box has the same variety. This implies the number of sweets in each box should be HCF of different count of sweets HCF of 32, 216, 136, 88, 184, 120 = 23 = 8 Minimum number of boxes = (32 + 216 + 136 + 88 + 184 + 120) / 8 = 97 The question is “What is the minimum number of boxes required to pack?” Hence the answer is “97 boxes” Choice D is the correct answer. Incorrect Correct Option: D Justification: Find HCF and divide total sweets by that! All sweets need to packed and each box has the same variety. This implies the number of sweets in each box should be HCF of different count of sweets HCF of 32, 216, 136, 88, 184, 120 = 23 = 8 Minimum number of boxes = (32 + 216 + 136 + 88 + 184 + 120) / 8 = 97 The question is “What is the minimum number of boxes required to pack?” Hence the answer is “97 boxes” Choice D is the correct answer.

#### 29. Question

6 different sweet varieties of count 32, 216, 136, 88, 184, 120 were ordered for a particular occasion. They need to be packed in such a way that each box has the same variety of sweet and the number of sweets in each box is also the same. What is the minimum number of boxes required to pack?

Correct Option: D

Justification:

Find HCF and divide total sweets by that!

All sweets need to packed and each box has the same variety.

This implies the number of sweets in each box should be HCF of different count of sweets

HCF of 32, 216, 136, 88, 184, 120 = 23 = 8

Minimum number of boxes = (32 + 216 + 136 + 88 + 184 + 120) / 8 = 97

The question is “What is the minimum number of boxes required to pack?”

Hence the answer is “97 boxes”

Choice D is the correct answer.

Correct Option: D

Justification:

Find HCF and divide total sweets by that!

All sweets need to packed and each box has the same variety.

This implies the number of sweets in each box should be HCF of different count of sweets

HCF of 32, 216, 136, 88, 184, 120 = 23 = 8

Minimum number of boxes = (32 + 216 + 136 + 88 + 184 + 120) / 8 = 97

The question is “What is the minimum number of boxes required to pack?”

Hence the answer is “97 boxes”

Choice D is the correct answer.

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points One page is torn from a booklet whose pages are numbered in the usual manner starting from the first page as 1. The sum of the numbers on the remaining pages is 195. The torn page contains which of the following numbers? a) 5, 6 b) 7, 8 c) 9, 10 d) 11, 12 Correct Solution: B Justification: Each sheet of paper contains 2 consecutive page numbers (e.g., pages 1 & 2, 3 & 4, etc.). If one sheet is torn, it removes two-page numbers — say, x and x+1. We are told that the sum of remaining page numbers = 195 Let total number of pages be ‘n’ Then, the sum of all page numbers from 1 to n is: One page is torn ⇒ Two pages gone ⇒ So: Try n = 20 (so total pages = 20): ⇒210−(missing pages) =195⇒Missing pages sum=15⇒2x+1=15⇒x=7 So, the torn pages are 7 and 8 Incorrect Solution: B Justification: Each sheet of paper contains 2 consecutive page numbers (e.g., pages 1 & 2, 3 & 4, etc.). If one sheet is torn, it removes two-page numbers — say, x and x+1. We are told that the sum of remaining page numbers = 195 Let total number of pages be ‘n’ Then, the sum of all page numbers from 1 to n is: One page is torn ⇒ Two pages gone ⇒ So: Try n = 20 (so total pages = 20): ⇒210−(missing pages) =195⇒Missing pages sum=15⇒2x+1=15⇒x=7 So, the torn pages are 7 and 8

#### 30. Question

One page is torn from a booklet whose pages are numbered in the usual manner starting from the first page as 1. The sum of the numbers on the remaining pages is 195. The torn page contains which of the following numbers?

Solution: B

Justification:

Each sheet of paper contains 2 consecutive page numbers (e.g., pages 1 & 2, 3 & 4, etc.).

If one sheet is torn, it removes two-page numbers — say, x and x+1.

We are told that the sum of remaining page numbers = 195

Let total number of pages be ‘n’

Then, the sum of all page numbers from 1 to n is:

One page is torn ⇒ Two pages gone ⇒ So:

Try n = 20 (so total pages = 20):

⇒210−(missing pages) =195⇒Missing pages sum=15⇒2x+1=15⇒x=7

So, the torn pages are 7 and 8

Solution: B

Justification:

Each sheet of paper contains 2 consecutive page numbers (e.g., pages 1 & 2, 3 & 4, etc.).

If one sheet is torn, it removes two-page numbers — say, x and x+1.

We are told that the sum of remaining page numbers = 195

Let total number of pages be ‘n’

Then, the sum of all page numbers from 1 to n is:

One page is torn ⇒ Two pages gone ⇒ So:

Try n = 20 (so total pages = 20):

⇒210−(missing pages) =195⇒Missing pages sum=15⇒2x+1=15⇒x=7

So, the torn pages are 7 and 8

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