DAY – 27 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – GOVERNMENT SCHEMES, ORGANISATIONS & INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS, Subject-wise Test 10, 29 , Textbook-based Test – 13 and December 2023 CA
Kartavya Desk Staff
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024
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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Which of the following sectors are covered by mobile-based solution ‘mActionSoft’ for geo-tagging of assets at panchayat level? a) Education and healthcare b) Infrastructure and transportation c) Natural resource and agriculture d) Information technology and telecommunications Correct Answers: c Explanation: Recently, the Ministry of Panchayati Raj introduced “Gram Manchitra,” a Geographic Information System (GIS) app. Additionally, the Ministry launched “mActionSoft,” a mobile-based solution for geo-tagging project assets. Gram Manchitra: The primary goal of Gram Manchitra is to encourage spatial planning initiatives by Gram Panchayats, leveraging the capabilities of geo-spatial technology. The app supports the Gram Panchayat Development Plan (GPDP) by aiding decision-making. Features: Unified GeoSpatial Platform: Gram Manchitra provides a single and unified platform, facilitating the visualisation of developmental projects and activities at the Gram Panchayat level. Sector-Wise Planning: It enables Gram Panchayats to plan and execute developmental works across different sectors, fostering a holistic approach to rural development. Development Plan Tools: Tools include project site identification, asset tracking, cost estimation, and project impact assessment. mActionSoft: mActionSoft is a mobile-based solution, plays a crucial role in capturing geo-tagged photos with GPS coordinates for works with asset outputs. Assets undergo geo-tagging at three stages: before the commencement of work, during the work, and upon completion. This establishes a comprehensive repository of information on various works related to natural resource management, water harvesting, sanitation, agriculture, and more. Features: Geo-Tagging: Panchayats geotag assets created under finance commission funds with photographs, ensuring transparency and accountability. The assets geo-tagged using mActionSoft seamlessly integrate with Gram Manchitra, enriching the visualisation of developmental works in Gram Panchayats. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answers: c Explanation: Recently, the Ministry of Panchayati Raj introduced “Gram Manchitra,” a Geographic Information System (GIS) app. Additionally, the Ministry launched “mActionSoft,” a mobile-based solution for geo-tagging project assets. Gram Manchitra: The primary goal of Gram Manchitra is to encourage spatial planning initiatives by Gram Panchayats, leveraging the capabilities of geo-spatial technology. The app supports the Gram Panchayat Development Plan (GPDP) by aiding decision-making. Features: Unified GeoSpatial Platform: Gram Manchitra provides a single and unified platform, facilitating the visualisation of developmental projects and activities at the Gram Panchayat level. Sector-Wise Planning: It enables Gram Panchayats to plan and execute developmental works across different sectors, fostering a holistic approach to rural development. Development Plan Tools: Tools include project site identification, asset tracking, cost estimation, and project impact assessment. mActionSoft: mActionSoft is a mobile-based solution, plays a crucial role in capturing geo-tagged photos with GPS coordinates for works with asset outputs. Assets undergo geo-tagging at three stages: before the commencement of work, during the work, and upon completion. This establishes a comprehensive repository of information on various works related to natural resource management, water harvesting, sanitation, agriculture, and more. Features: Geo-Tagging: Panchayats geotag assets created under finance commission funds with photographs, ensuring transparency and accountability. The assets geo-tagged using mActionSoft seamlessly integrate with Gram Manchitra, enriching the visualisation of developmental works in Gram Panchayats. Hence, option (c) is correct.
#### 1. Question
Which of the following sectors are covered by mobile-based solution ‘mActionSoft’ for geo-tagging of assets at panchayat level?
• a) Education and healthcare
• b) Infrastructure and transportation
• c) Natural resource and agriculture
• d) Information technology and telecommunications
Answers: c
Explanation:
• Recently, the Ministry of Panchayati Raj introduced “Gram Manchitra,” a Geographic Information System (GIS) app.
• Additionally, the Ministry launched “mActionSoft,” a mobile-based solution for geo-tagging project assets.
• Gram Manchitra:
• The primary goal of Gram Manchitra is to encourage spatial planning initiatives by Gram Panchayats, leveraging the capabilities of geo-spatial technology.
• The app supports the Gram Panchayat Development Plan (GPDP) by aiding decision-making.
• Features:
• Unified GeoSpatial Platform: Gram Manchitra provides a single and unified platform, facilitating the visualisation of developmental projects and activities at the Gram Panchayat level.
• Sector-Wise Planning: It enables Gram Panchayats to plan and execute developmental works across different sectors, fostering a holistic approach to rural development.
• Development Plan Tools: Tools include project site identification, asset tracking, cost estimation, and project impact assessment.
• mActionSoft:
• mActionSoft is a mobile-based solution, plays a crucial role in capturing geo-tagged photos with GPS coordinates for works with asset outputs.
• Assets undergo geo-tagging at three stages: before the commencement of work, during the work, and upon completion.
• This establishes a comprehensive repository of information on various works related to natural resource management, water harvesting, sanitation, agriculture, and more.
• Features:
• Geo-Tagging: Panchayats geotag assets created under finance commission funds with photographs, ensuring transparency and accountability.
• The assets geo-tagged using mActionSoft seamlessly integrate with Gram Manchitra, enriching the visualisation of developmental works in Gram Panchayats.
• Hence, option (c) is correct.
Answers: c
Explanation:
• Recently, the Ministry of Panchayati Raj introduced “Gram Manchitra,” a Geographic Information System (GIS) app.
• Additionally, the Ministry launched “mActionSoft,” a mobile-based solution for geo-tagging project assets.
• Gram Manchitra:
• The primary goal of Gram Manchitra is to encourage spatial planning initiatives by Gram Panchayats, leveraging the capabilities of geo-spatial technology.
• The app supports the Gram Panchayat Development Plan (GPDP) by aiding decision-making.
• Features:
• Unified GeoSpatial Platform: Gram Manchitra provides a single and unified platform, facilitating the visualisation of developmental projects and activities at the Gram Panchayat level.
• Sector-Wise Planning: It enables Gram Panchayats to plan and execute developmental works across different sectors, fostering a holistic approach to rural development.
• Development Plan Tools: Tools include project site identification, asset tracking, cost estimation, and project impact assessment.
• mActionSoft:
• mActionSoft is a mobile-based solution, plays a crucial role in capturing geo-tagged photos with GPS coordinates for works with asset outputs.
• Assets undergo geo-tagging at three stages: before the commencement of work, during the work, and upon completion.
• This establishes a comprehensive repository of information on various works related to natural resource management, water harvesting, sanitation, agriculture, and more.
• Features:
• Geo-Tagging: Panchayats geotag assets created under finance commission funds with photographs, ensuring transparency and accountability.
• The assets geo-tagged using mActionSoft seamlessly integrate with Gram Manchitra, enriching the visualisation of developmental works in Gram Panchayats.
• Hence, option (c) is correct.
• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points How does the PM Vishwakarma Scheme incentivize artisans and craftspeople for using digital transactions? a) By providing free digital transaction services b) By offering a cash reward for each digital transaction c) By reducing the interest rate on loans for digital transactions d) By granting tax exemptions for businesses adopting digital transactions Correct Answer: b Explanation: PM Vishwakarma, a Central Sector Scheme, was launched on 17th September, 2023 by the Prime Minister to provide end-to-end support to artisans and craftspeople who work with their hands and tools. The Scheme covers artisans and craftspeople engaged in 18 trades,(i) Carpenter (Suthar/Badhai); (ii) Boat Maker; (iii) Armourer; (iv) Blacksmith (Lohar); (v) Hammer and Tool Kit Maker; (vi) Locksmith; (vii) Goldsmith (Sonar); (viii) Potter (Kumhaar); (ix) Sculptor (Moortikar, stone carver), Stone breaker; (x) Cobbler (Charmkar)/ Shoesmith/Footwear artisan; (xi) Mason (Rajmistri); (xii) Basket/Mat/Broom Maker/Coir Weaver; (xiii) Doll & Toy Maker (Traditional); (xiv) Barber (Naai); (xv) Garland maker (Malakaar); (xvi) Washerman (Dhobi); (xvii) Tailor (Darzi); and (xviii) Fishing Net Maker. The Scheme envisages provisioning of the following benefits to the artisans and crafts persons: Recognition: Recognition of artisans and craftspeople through PM Vishwakarma certificate and ID card. Skill Upgradation: Basic Training of 5-7 days and Advanced Training of 15 days or more, with a stipend of Rs. 500 per day; Toolkit Incentive: A toolkit incentive of upto Rs. 15,000 in the form of e-vouchers at the beginning of Basic Skill Training Credit Support: Collateral free ‘Enterprise Development Loans’ of upto Rs. 3 lakh in two tranches of Rs. 1 lakh and Rs. 2 lakh with tenures of 18 months and 30 months, respectively, at a concessional rate of interest fixed at 5%, with Government of India subvention to the extent of 8%. Beneficiaries who have completed Basic Training will be eligible to avail the first tranche of credit support of upto Rs. 1 lakh. The second loan tranche will be available to beneficiaries who have availed the 1st tranche and maintained a standard loan account and have adopted digital transactions in their business or have undergone Advanced Training. Incentive for Digital Transaction: An amount of Re. 1 per digital transaction, upto maximum 100 transactions monthly will be credited to the beneficiary’s account for each digital pay-out or receipt. Marketing Support: Marketing support will be provided to the artisans and craftspeople in the form of quality certification, branding, on boarding on e-commerce platforms such as GeM, advertising, publicity and other marketing activities to improve linkage to value chain. Hence, option (b) is correct. Statement 1 is correct: Arsenic is a naturally occurring, semimetallic element widely distributed in the Earth’s crust. Arsenic levels in the environment can vary by locality, and it is found in water, air, and soil. Statement 2 is correct: There are two general forms of arsenic: Organic arsenic compounds contain carbon. Inorganic arsenic compounds do not contain carbon. Statement 3 is correct: Arsenic may be a component of air pollution. The most common source of arsenic in people is contaminated drinking water. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: PM Vishwakarma, a Central Sector Scheme, was launched on 17th September, 2023 by the Prime Minister to provide end-to-end support to artisans and craftspeople who work with their hands and tools. The Scheme covers artisans and craftspeople engaged in 18 trades,(i) Carpenter (Suthar/Badhai); (ii) Boat Maker; (iii) Armourer; (iv) Blacksmith (Lohar); (v) Hammer and Tool Kit Maker; (vi) Locksmith; (vii) Goldsmith (Sonar); (viii) Potter (Kumhaar); (ix) Sculptor (Moortikar, stone carver), Stone breaker; (x) Cobbler (Charmkar)/ Shoesmith/Footwear artisan; (xi) Mason (Rajmistri); (xii) Basket/Mat/Broom Maker/Coir Weaver; (xiii) Doll & Toy Maker (Traditional); (xiv) Barber (Naai); (xv) Garland maker (Malakaar); (xvi) Washerman (Dhobi); (xvii) Tailor (Darzi); and (xviii) Fishing Net Maker. The Scheme envisages provisioning of the following benefits to the artisans and crafts persons: Recognition: Recognition of artisans and craftspeople through PM Vishwakarma certificate and ID card. Skill Upgradation: Basic Training of 5-7 days and Advanced Training of 15 days or more, with a stipend of Rs. 500 per day; Toolkit Incentive: A toolkit incentive of upto Rs. 15,000 in the form of e-vouchers at the beginning of Basic Skill Training Credit Support: Collateral free ‘Enterprise Development Loans’ of upto Rs. 3 lakh in two tranches of Rs. 1 lakh and Rs. 2 lakh with tenures of 18 months and 30 months, respectively, at a concessional rate of interest fixed at 5%, with Government of India subvention to the extent of 8%. Beneficiaries who have completed Basic Training will be eligible to avail the first tranche of credit support of upto Rs. 1 lakh. The second loan tranche will be available to beneficiaries who have availed the 1st tranche and maintained a standard loan account and have adopted digital transactions in their business or have undergone Advanced Training. Incentive for Digital Transaction: An amount of Re. 1 per digital transaction, upto maximum 100 transactions monthly will be credited to the beneficiary’s account for each digital pay-out or receipt. Marketing Support: Marketing support will be provided to the artisans and craftspeople in the form of quality certification, branding, on boarding on e-commerce platforms such as GeM, advertising, publicity and other marketing activities to improve linkage to value chain. Hence, option (b) is correct.
#### 2. Question
How does the PM Vishwakarma Scheme incentivize artisans and craftspeople for using digital transactions?
• a) By providing free digital transaction services
• b) By offering a cash reward for each digital transaction
• c) By reducing the interest rate on loans for digital transactions
• d) By granting tax exemptions for businesses adopting digital transactions
Explanation:
• PM Vishwakarma, a Central Sector Scheme, was launched on 17th September, 2023 by the Prime Minister to provide end-to-end support to artisans and craftspeople who work with their hands and tools.
• The Scheme covers artisans and craftspeople engaged in 18 trades,(i) Carpenter (Suthar/Badhai); (ii) Boat Maker; (iii) Armourer; (iv) Blacksmith (Lohar); (v) Hammer and Tool Kit Maker; (vi) Locksmith; (vii) Goldsmith (Sonar); (viii) Potter (Kumhaar); (ix) Sculptor (Moortikar, stone carver), Stone breaker; (x) Cobbler (Charmkar)/ Shoesmith/Footwear artisan; (xi) Mason (Rajmistri); (xii) Basket/Mat/Broom Maker/Coir Weaver; (xiii) Doll & Toy Maker (Traditional); (xiv) Barber (Naai); (xv) Garland maker (Malakaar); (xvi) Washerman (Dhobi); (xvii) Tailor (Darzi); and (xviii) Fishing Net Maker.
• The Scheme envisages provisioning of the following benefits to the artisans and crafts persons:
• Recognition: Recognition of artisans and craftspeople through PM Vishwakarma certificate and ID card.
• Skill Upgradation: Basic Training of 5-7 days and Advanced Training of 15 days or more, with a stipend of Rs. 500 per day;
• Toolkit Incentive: A toolkit incentive of upto Rs. 15,000 in the form of e-vouchers at the beginning of Basic Skill Training
• Credit Support: Collateral free ‘Enterprise Development Loans’ of upto Rs. 3 lakh in two tranches of Rs. 1 lakh and Rs. 2 lakh with tenures of 18 months and 30 months, respectively, at a concessional rate of interest fixed at 5%, with Government of India subvention to the extent of 8%. Beneficiaries who have completed Basic Training will be eligible to avail the first tranche of credit support of upto Rs. 1 lakh.
• The second loan tranche will be available to beneficiaries who have availed the 1st tranche and maintained a standard loan account and have adopted digital transactions in their business or have undergone Advanced Training.
• Incentive for Digital Transaction: An amount of Re. 1 per digital transaction, upto maximum 100 transactions monthly will be credited to the beneficiary’s account for each digital pay-out or receipt.
• Marketing Support: Marketing support will be provided to the artisans and craftspeople in the form of quality certification, branding, on boarding on e-commerce platforms such as GeM, advertising, publicity and other marketing activities to improve linkage to value chain.
• Hence, option (b) is correct.
Statement 1 is correct: Arsenic is a naturally occurring, semimetallic element widely distributed in the Earth’s crust. Arsenic levels in the environment can vary by locality, and it is found in water, air, and soil.
Statement 2 is correct: There are two general forms of arsenic:
• Organic arsenic compounds contain carbon.
• Inorganic arsenic compounds do not contain carbon.
Statement 3 is correct: Arsenic may be a component of air pollution. The most common source of arsenic in people is contaminated drinking water.
Explanation:
• PM Vishwakarma, a Central Sector Scheme, was launched on 17th September, 2023 by the Prime Minister to provide end-to-end support to artisans and craftspeople who work with their hands and tools.
• The Scheme covers artisans and craftspeople engaged in 18 trades,(i) Carpenter (Suthar/Badhai); (ii) Boat Maker; (iii) Armourer; (iv) Blacksmith (Lohar); (v) Hammer and Tool Kit Maker; (vi) Locksmith; (vii) Goldsmith (Sonar); (viii) Potter (Kumhaar); (ix) Sculptor (Moortikar, stone carver), Stone breaker; (x) Cobbler (Charmkar)/ Shoesmith/Footwear artisan; (xi) Mason (Rajmistri); (xii) Basket/Mat/Broom Maker/Coir Weaver; (xiii) Doll & Toy Maker (Traditional); (xiv) Barber (Naai); (xv) Garland maker (Malakaar); (xvi) Washerman (Dhobi); (xvii) Tailor (Darzi); and (xviii) Fishing Net Maker.
• The Scheme envisages provisioning of the following benefits to the artisans and crafts persons:
• Recognition: Recognition of artisans and craftspeople through PM Vishwakarma certificate and ID card.
• Skill Upgradation: Basic Training of 5-7 days and Advanced Training of 15 days or more, with a stipend of Rs. 500 per day;
• Toolkit Incentive: A toolkit incentive of upto Rs. 15,000 in the form of e-vouchers at the beginning of Basic Skill Training
• Credit Support: Collateral free ‘Enterprise Development Loans’ of upto Rs. 3 lakh in two tranches of Rs. 1 lakh and Rs. 2 lakh with tenures of 18 months and 30 months, respectively, at a concessional rate of interest fixed at 5%, with Government of India subvention to the extent of 8%. Beneficiaries who have completed Basic Training will be eligible to avail the first tranche of credit support of upto Rs. 1 lakh.
• The second loan tranche will be available to beneficiaries who have availed the 1st tranche and maintained a standard loan account and have adopted digital transactions in their business or have undergone Advanced Training.
• Incentive for Digital Transaction: An amount of Re. 1 per digital transaction, upto maximum 100 transactions monthly will be credited to the beneficiary’s account for each digital pay-out or receipt.
• Marketing Support: Marketing support will be provided to the artisans and craftspeople in the form of quality certification, branding, on boarding on e-commerce platforms such as GeM, advertising, publicity and other marketing activities to improve linkage to value chain.
• Hence, option (b) is correct.
• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements with reference to SAMARTH campaign: It seeks to empower rural communities by enabling them to participate in the digital economy and access the benefits of digital transactions. It provides Provides training and awareness on various digital payment modes such as the Aadhaar enabled payment system (AePS), Unified Payments Interface (UPI), Bharat Interface for Money (BHIM) app, Bharat QR code, etc. Which of the above given statements is/are *incorrect? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: d Explanation: The SAMARTH campaign is an initiative launched by the Ministry of Rural Development, Government of India, to promote digital transactions at the Gram Panchayat level in rural areas. Aim: To increase the adoption of digital payment methods, particularly among women, in 50,000 Gram Panchayats across the country. It seeks to empower rural communities by enabling them to participate in the digital economy and access the benefits of digital transactions. Hence, statement 1 is correct. It provides training and awareness on various digital payment modes such as the Aadhaarenabled payment system (AePS), Unified Payments Interface (UPI), Bharat Interface for Money (BHIM) app, Bharat QR code, etc. Hence, statement 2 is correct. It is part of the larger AmritMahotsav celebrations and is being implemented under the AzadiKaAmritMahotsav, which commemorates 75 years of India’s independence. Hence, option c is correct. Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: The SAMARTH campaign is an initiative launched by the Ministry of Rural Development, Government of India, to promote digital transactions at the Gram Panchayat level in rural areas. Aim: To increase the adoption of digital payment methods, particularly among women, in 50,000 Gram Panchayats across the country. It seeks to empower rural communities by enabling them to participate in the digital economy and access the benefits of digital transactions. Hence, statement 1 is correct. It provides training and awareness on various digital payment modes such as the Aadhaarenabled payment system (AePS), Unified Payments Interface (UPI), Bharat Interface for Money (BHIM) app, Bharat QR code, etc. Hence, statement 2 is correct. It is part of the larger AmritMahotsav celebrations and is being implemented under the AzadiKaAmritMahotsav, which commemorates 75 years of India’s independence. Hence, option c is correct. *
#### 3. Question
Consider the following statements with reference to SAMARTH campaign:
• It seeks to empower rural communities by enabling them to participate in the digital economy and access the benefits of digital transactions.
• It provides Provides training and awareness on various digital payment modes such as the Aadhaar enabled payment system (AePS), Unified Payments Interface (UPI), Bharat Interface for Money (BHIM) app, Bharat QR code, etc.
Which of the above given statements is/are *incorrect*?
• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
• The SAMARTH campaign is an initiative launched by the Ministry of Rural Development, Government of India, to promote digital transactions at the Gram Panchayat level in rural areas.
• Aim: To increase the adoption of digital payment methods, particularly among women, in 50,000 Gram Panchayats across the country.
• It seeks to empower rural communities by enabling them to participate in the digital economy and access the benefits of digital transactions. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It provides training and awareness on various digital payment modes such as the Aadhaarenabled payment system (AePS), Unified Payments Interface (UPI), Bharat Interface for Money (BHIM) app, Bharat QR code, etc. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• It is part of the larger AmritMahotsav celebrations and is being implemented under the AzadiKaAmritMahotsav, which commemorates 75 years of India’s independence.
• Hence, option c is correct.
Explanation:
• The SAMARTH campaign is an initiative launched by the Ministry of Rural Development, Government of India, to promote digital transactions at the Gram Panchayat level in rural areas.
• Aim: To increase the adoption of digital payment methods, particularly among women, in 50,000 Gram Panchayats across the country.
• It seeks to empower rural communities by enabling them to participate in the digital economy and access the benefits of digital transactions. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It provides training and awareness on various digital payment modes such as the Aadhaarenabled payment system (AePS), Unified Payments Interface (UPI), Bharat Interface for Money (BHIM) app, Bharat QR code, etc. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• It is part of the larger AmritMahotsav celebrations and is being implemented under the AzadiKaAmritMahotsav, which commemorates 75 years of India’s independence.
• Hence, option c is correct.
• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements with reference to Intensified Mission Indradhanush (IMI 5.0): IMI 5.0 ensures that routine immunization services reach missed-out and dropped-out children and pregnant women across the country. The IMI 5.0 is conducted across all the districts in the country. Every state/UT has been given a target of immunization under IMI 5.0. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: c Explanation: Intensified Mission Indradhanush (IMI 5.0): Launch: 2023. Ministry: Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. Objective: To enhance immunization coverage for all vaccines provided under the Universal Immunization Programme (UIP) as per the National Immunization Schedule (NIS). It is the flagship routine immunization campaign of the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (Mission Indradhanush). Salient Features: The campaign will be conducted across the country during the months of August, September, and October this year. During these three rounds, children of the 0-5 years age group and pregnant women, who have missed any dose of vaccine as per the National Immunization Schedule (NIS), will be vaccinated. Hence, statement 1 is correct. This year, for the first time, the campaign is being conducted across all the districts in the country and includes children up to 5 years of age (previous campaigns included children up to 2 years of age). Hence, statement 2 is correct. The Government of India is committed to achieving the target of Measles-Rubella Elimination (MR Elimination) by December 2023, and the Intensified Mission Indradhanush 5.0 program is a major step toward achieving this goal (India’s plan to eradicate measles and rubella). Every state/UT has been given a target of 95% for both MR doses (MR1, MR2) and 2 per lakh population for Non-Measles Non-Rubella (NMNR) Discard Rate by GOI. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option c is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Intensified Mission Indradhanush (IMI 5.0): Launch: 2023. Ministry: Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. Objective: To enhance immunization coverage for all vaccines provided under the Universal Immunization Programme (UIP) as per the National Immunization Schedule (NIS). It is the flagship routine immunization campaign of the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (Mission Indradhanush). Salient Features: The campaign will be conducted across the country during the months of August, September, and October this year. During these three rounds, children of the 0-5 years age group and pregnant women, who have missed any dose of vaccine as per the National Immunization Schedule (NIS), will be vaccinated. Hence, statement 1 is correct. This year, for the first time, the campaign is being conducted across all the districts in the country and includes children up to 5 years of age (previous campaigns included children up to 2 years of age). Hence, statement 2 is correct. The Government of India is committed to achieving the target of Measles-Rubella Elimination (MR Elimination) by December 2023, and the Intensified Mission Indradhanush 5.0 program is a major step toward achieving this goal (India’s plan to eradicate measles and rubella). Every state/UT has been given a target of 95% for both MR doses (MR1, MR2) and 2 per lakh population for Non-Measles Non-Rubella (NMNR) Discard Rate by GOI. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option c is correct.
#### 4. Question
Consider the following statements with reference to Intensified Mission Indradhanush (IMI 5.0):
• IMI 5.0 ensures that routine immunization services reach missed-out and dropped-out children and pregnant women across the country.
• The IMI 5.0 is conducted across all the districts in the country.
• Every state/UT has been given a target of immunization under IMI 5.0.
How many of the above statements are correct?
• a) Only one
• b) Only two
• c) All three
Explanation:
• Intensified Mission Indradhanush (IMI 5.0):
• Launch: 2023.
• Ministry: Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
• Objective: To enhance immunization coverage for all vaccines provided under the Universal Immunization Programme (UIP) as per the National Immunization Schedule (NIS).
• It is the flagship routine immunization campaign of the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (Mission Indradhanush).
• Salient Features:
• The campaign will be conducted across the country during the months of August, September, and October this year.
• During these three rounds, children of the 0-5 years age group and pregnant women, who have missed any dose of vaccine as per the National Immunization Schedule (NIS), will be vaccinated. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• This year, for the first time, the campaign is being conducted across all the districts in the country and includes children up to 5 years of age (previous campaigns included children up to 2 years of age). Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The Government of India is committed to achieving the target of Measles-Rubella Elimination (MR Elimination) by December 2023, and the Intensified Mission Indradhanush 5.0 program is a major step toward achieving this goal (India’s plan to eradicate measles and rubella).
• Every state/UT has been given a target of 95% for both MR doses (MR1, MR2) and 2 per lakh population for Non-Measles Non-Rubella (NMNR) Discard Rate by GOI. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Hence, option c is correct.
Explanation:
• Intensified Mission Indradhanush (IMI 5.0):
• Launch: 2023.
• Ministry: Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
• Objective: To enhance immunization coverage for all vaccines provided under the Universal Immunization Programme (UIP) as per the National Immunization Schedule (NIS).
• It is the flagship routine immunization campaign of the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (Mission Indradhanush).
• Salient Features:
• The campaign will be conducted across the country during the months of August, September, and October this year.
• During these three rounds, children of the 0-5 years age group and pregnant women, who have missed any dose of vaccine as per the National Immunization Schedule (NIS), will be vaccinated. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• This year, for the first time, the campaign is being conducted across all the districts in the country and includes children up to 5 years of age (previous campaigns included children up to 2 years of age). Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The Government of India is committed to achieving the target of Measles-Rubella Elimination (MR Elimination) by December 2023, and the Intensified Mission Indradhanush 5.0 program is a major step toward achieving this goal (India’s plan to eradicate measles and rubella).
• Every state/UT has been given a target of 95% for both MR doses (MR1, MR2) and 2 per lakh population for Non-Measles Non-Rubella (NMNR) Discard Rate by GOI. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Hence, option c is correct.
• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Which of the following is a nationwide campaign to raise awareness through outreach activities to achieve saturation of schemes of Govt. of India across the country covering all Gram Panchayats, Nagar Panchayats and Urban Local Bodies? a) Nation First, Always First campaign b) Vikasit Bharat Sankalp Yatra c) Puneet Sagar campaign d) Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat initiative Correct Answer: b Explanation: Vikasit Bharat Sankalp Yatra: It is a nationwide campaign to raise awareness through outreach activities to achieve saturation of schemes of Govt. of India across the country covering all Gram Panchayats, Nagar Panchayats and Urban Local Bodies. The campaign is being taken up by adopting a whole of government approach with active involvement of various Ministries/Departments of Government of India, State Governments, Central Govt. Organizations and Institutions. Objectives: Reach out to the vulnerable who are eligible under various schemes but have not availed benefit so far. Dissemination of information and generating awareness about schemes. Interaction with beneficiaries of government schemes through their personal stories/ experience sharing. Enrolment of potential beneficiaries through details ascertained during the Viksit Bharat Sankalp Yatra. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Vikasit Bharat Sankalp Yatra: It is a nationwide campaign to raise awareness through outreach activities to achieve saturation of schemes of Govt. of India across the country covering all Gram Panchayats, Nagar Panchayats and Urban Local Bodies. The campaign is being taken up by adopting a whole of government approach with active involvement of various Ministries/Departments of Government of India, State Governments, Central Govt. Organizations and Institutions. Objectives: Reach out to the vulnerable who are eligible under various schemes but have not availed benefit so far. Dissemination of information and generating awareness about schemes. Interaction with beneficiaries of government schemes through their personal stories/ experience sharing. Enrolment of potential beneficiaries through details ascertained during the Viksit Bharat Sankalp Yatra. Option (a) is correct: To commemorate the International Migrants Day, Project PRAYAS (Promoting Regular & Assisted Migration for Youth and Skilled Professionals) was launched. This International Organisation for Migration (IOM) Development Fund assisted Project envisages development of a roadmap. The project is a joint collaboration between the IOM India and Indian Council of World Affairs (ICWA). Project PRAYAS not only aligns with Government of India’s priorities for the promotion of safe and orderly migration, but also aligns with Goal 10.7 of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) to facilitate orderly, safe, regular, and responsible migration and mobility of people.
#### 5. Question
Which of the following is a nationwide campaign to raise awareness through outreach activities to achieve saturation of schemes of Govt. of India across the country covering all Gram Panchayats, Nagar Panchayats and Urban Local Bodies?
• a) Nation First, Always First campaign
• b) Vikasit Bharat Sankalp Yatra
• c) Puneet Sagar campaign
• d) Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat initiative
Explanation:
Vikasit Bharat Sankalp Yatra:
• It is a nationwide campaign to raise awareness through outreach activities to achieve saturation of schemes of Govt. of India across the country covering all Gram Panchayats, Nagar Panchayats and Urban Local Bodies.
• The campaign is being taken up by adopting a whole of government approach with active involvement of various Ministries/Departments of Government of India, State Governments, Central Govt. Organizations and Institutions.
• Objectives:
• Reach out to the vulnerable who are eligible under various schemes but have not availed benefit so far.
• Dissemination of information and generating awareness about schemes.
• Interaction with beneficiaries of government schemes through their personal stories/ experience sharing.
• Enrolment of potential beneficiaries through details ascertained during the Viksit Bharat Sankalp Yatra.
Explanation:
Vikasit Bharat Sankalp Yatra:
• It is a nationwide campaign to raise awareness through outreach activities to achieve saturation of schemes of Govt. of India across the country covering all Gram Panchayats, Nagar Panchayats and Urban Local Bodies.
• The campaign is being taken up by adopting a whole of government approach with active involvement of various Ministries/Departments of Government of India, State Governments, Central Govt. Organizations and Institutions.
• Objectives:
• Reach out to the vulnerable who are eligible under various schemes but have not availed benefit so far.
• Dissemination of information and generating awareness about schemes.
• Interaction with beneficiaries of government schemes through their personal stories/ experience sharing.
• Enrolment of potential beneficiaries through details ascertained during the Viksit Bharat Sankalp Yatra.
Option (a) is correct: To commemorate the International Migrants Day, Project PRAYAS (Promoting Regular & Assisted Migration for Youth and Skilled Professionals) was launched.
• This International Organisation for Migration (IOM) Development Fund assisted Project envisages development of a roadmap.
• The project is a joint collaboration between the IOM India and Indian Council of World Affairs (ICWA).
• Project PRAYAS not only aligns with Government of India’s priorities for the promotion of safe and orderly migration, but also aligns with Goal 10.7 of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) to facilitate orderly, safe, regular, and responsible migration and mobility of people.
• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: International Criminal Court (ICC), commonly known as the World Court, serves as the principal judicial organ of the United Nations (UN). The Rome Statute established the International Criminal Court to investigate gravest crimes of concern to the international community. Unlike the International Court of Justice, which resolves disputes between states, the ICC prosecutes individuals. How many of the above given statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: b Explanation: About the International Criminal Court (ICC) The ICC is the only permanent international criminal tribunal. The International Court of Justice (ICJ), commonly known as the World Court, serves as the principal judicial organ of the United Nations (UN). Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Background: ICC was established by the 1998 Rome Statute of the International Criminal Court, becoming operational on 1 July 2002 upon the Statute’s entry into force. The ICC investigates and, when warranted, tries individuals charged with the gravest crimes of concern to the international community, including genocide, war crimes, crimes against humanity, and the crime of aggression. Hence, statement 2 is correct. HQ: The ICC is headquartered in The Hague, Netherlands. Members: Currently, 123 nations are States Parties to the Rome Statute and recognize the ICC’s authority, with notable exceptions such as the US, China, Russia, and India. Funding: The Court is funded by contributions from States Parties and voluntary contributions from governments, international organizations, individuals, corporations, and other entities. Composition: The ICC consists of eighteen judges, each from a different member country, elected to nonrenewable nine-year terms. The Court is divided into three judicial divisions: the Pre-Trial Division, the Trial Division, and the Appeals Division. Jurisdiction of ICC: Unlike the International Court of Justice, which resolves disputes between states, the ICC prosecutes individuals. Hence, statement 3 is correct. The ICC may hear a case if the country where the offense occurred is a party to the Rome Statute or if the perpetrator’s country of origin is a party. Jurisdiction is exercised when national courts are unable or unwilling to prosecute crimes. The ICC’s jurisdiction covers offenses committed after the Statute’s entry into force on 1 July 2002. Relation with UN: While not a United Nations organization, the ICC has a cooperation agreement with the UN. The UN Security Council can refer situations outside the ICC’s jurisdiction to the Court, granting it jurisdiction. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: About the International Criminal Court (ICC) The ICC is the only permanent international criminal tribunal. The International Court of Justice (ICJ), commonly known as the World Court, serves as the principal judicial organ of the United Nations (UN). Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Background: ICC was established by the 1998 Rome Statute of the International Criminal Court, becoming operational on 1 July 2002 upon the Statute’s entry into force. The ICC investigates and, when warranted, tries individuals charged with the gravest crimes of concern to the international community, including genocide, war crimes, crimes against humanity, and the crime of aggression. Hence, statement 2 is correct. HQ: The ICC is headquartered in The Hague, Netherlands. Members: Currently, 123 nations are States Parties to the Rome Statute and recognize the ICC’s authority, with notable exceptions such as the US, China, Russia, and India. Funding: The Court is funded by contributions from States Parties and voluntary contributions from governments, international organizations, individuals, corporations, and other entities. Composition: The ICC consists of eighteen judges, each from a different member country, elected to nonrenewable nine-year terms. The Court is divided into three judicial divisions: the Pre-Trial Division, the Trial Division, and the Appeals Division. Jurisdiction of ICC: Unlike the International Court of Justice, which resolves disputes between states, the ICC prosecutes individuals. Hence, statement 3 is correct. The ICC may hear a case if the country where the offense occurred is a party to the Rome Statute or if the perpetrator’s country of origin is a party. Jurisdiction is exercised when national courts are unable or unwilling to prosecute crimes. The ICC’s jurisdiction covers offenses committed after the Statute’s entry into force on 1 July 2002. Relation with UN: While not a United Nations organization, the ICC has a cooperation agreement with the UN. The UN Security Council can refer situations outside the ICC’s jurisdiction to the Court, granting it jurisdiction. Hence, option (b) is correct.
#### 6. Question
Consider the following statements:
• International Criminal Court (ICC), commonly known as the World Court, serves as the principal judicial organ of the United Nations (UN).
• The Rome Statute established the International Criminal Court to investigate gravest crimes of concern to the international community.
• Unlike the International Court of Justice, which resolves disputes between states, the ICC prosecutes individuals.
How many of the above given statements are correct?
• a) Only one
• b) Only two
• c) All three
Explanation:
About the International Criminal Court (ICC)
• The ICC is the only permanent international criminal tribunal.
• The International Court of Justice (ICJ), commonly known as the World Court, serves as the principal judicial organ of the United Nations (UN). Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Background:
• ICC was established by the 1998 Rome Statute of the International Criminal Court, becoming operational on 1 July 2002 upon the Statute’s entry into force.
• The ICC investigates and, when warranted, tries individuals charged with the gravest crimes of concern to the international community, including genocide, war crimes, crimes against humanity, and the crime of aggression. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• HQ: The ICC is headquartered in The Hague, Netherlands.
• Members: Currently, 123 nations are States Parties to the Rome Statute and recognize the ICC’s authority, with notable exceptions such as the US, China, Russia, and India.
• Funding: The Court is funded by contributions from States Parties and voluntary contributions from governments, international organizations, individuals, corporations, and other entities.
• Composition: The ICC consists of eighteen judges, each from a different member country, elected to nonrenewable nine-year terms.
• The Court is divided into three judicial divisions: the Pre-Trial Division, the Trial Division, and the Appeals Division.
• Jurisdiction of ICC: Unlike the International Court of Justice, which resolves disputes between states, the ICC prosecutes individuals. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• The ICC may hear a case if the country where the offense occurred is a party to the Rome Statute or if the perpetrator’s country of origin is a party.
• Jurisdiction is exercised when national courts are unable or unwilling to prosecute crimes.
• The ICC’s jurisdiction covers offenses committed after the Statute’s entry into force on 1 July 2002.
• Relation with UN: While not a United Nations organization, the ICC has a cooperation agreement with the UN.
• The UN Security Council can refer situations outside the ICC’s jurisdiction to the Court, granting it jurisdiction.
• Hence, option (b) is correct.
Explanation:
About the International Criminal Court (ICC)
• The ICC is the only permanent international criminal tribunal.
• The International Court of Justice (ICJ), commonly known as the World Court, serves as the principal judicial organ of the United Nations (UN). Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Background:
• ICC was established by the 1998 Rome Statute of the International Criminal Court, becoming operational on 1 July 2002 upon the Statute’s entry into force.
• The ICC investigates and, when warranted, tries individuals charged with the gravest crimes of concern to the international community, including genocide, war crimes, crimes against humanity, and the crime of aggression. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• HQ: The ICC is headquartered in The Hague, Netherlands.
• Members: Currently, 123 nations are States Parties to the Rome Statute and recognize the ICC’s authority, with notable exceptions such as the US, China, Russia, and India.
• Funding: The Court is funded by contributions from States Parties and voluntary contributions from governments, international organizations, individuals, corporations, and other entities.
• Composition: The ICC consists of eighteen judges, each from a different member country, elected to nonrenewable nine-year terms.
• The Court is divided into three judicial divisions: the Pre-Trial Division, the Trial Division, and the Appeals Division.
• Jurisdiction of ICC: Unlike the International Court of Justice, which resolves disputes between states, the ICC prosecutes individuals. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• The ICC may hear a case if the country where the offense occurred is a party to the Rome Statute or if the perpetrator’s country of origin is a party.
• Jurisdiction is exercised when national courts are unable or unwilling to prosecute crimes.
• The ICC’s jurisdiction covers offenses committed after the Statute’s entry into force on 1 July 2002.
• Relation with UN: While not a United Nations organization, the ICC has a cooperation agreement with the UN.
• The UN Security Council can refer situations outside the ICC’s jurisdiction to the Court, granting it jurisdiction.
• Hence, option (b) is correct.
• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Which of the following is NOT an agenda item currently focused by the Conference on Disarmament (CD)? a) Prevention of an arms race in outer space b) Promotion of nuclear energy for civilian purposes c) Transparency in armaments d) Cessation of the nuclear arms race and nuclear disarmament Correct Answer: b Explanation: Recently, India’s Foreign Secretary and the UN Under Secretary General recently exchanged views on the Conference on Disarmament, where India is poised to assume the first presidency for the 2024 session. The CD was formed in 1979 as the single multilateral disarmament negotiation forum of the international community after agreement was reached among Member States during the first special session of the UN General Assembly (UNGA) devoted to disarmament (1978). It succeeded other Geneva-based negotiating forums, which included the Ten-Nation Committee on Disarmament (1960), the Eighteen-Nation Committee on Disarmament (1962-68), and the Conference of the Committee on Disarmament (1969-78). The CD and its predecessors negotiated major multilateral arms control and disarmament treaties such as: Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT) Convention on the Prohibition of the Development, Production, and Stockpiling of Bacteriological (Biological) and Toxin Weapons and on Their Destruction (BWC) Convention on the Prohibition of the Development, Production, Stockpiling, and Use of Chemical Weapons and on Their Destruction (CWC) Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT). Currently, the CD focuses its work on the following agenda items: Cessation of the nuclear arms race and nuclear disarmament. Prevention of nuclear war, including all related matters. Prevention of an arms race in outer space. Effective international arrangements to assure non-nuclear-weapon states against the use or threat of use of nuclear weapons. New types of weapons of mass destruction and new systems of such weapons; radiological weapons. Comprehensive programme of disarmament. Transparency in armaments. Promotion of nuclear energy for civilian purposes: This is NOT an agenda item currently focused on by the Conference on Disarmament (CD). While the peaceful use of nuclear energy is an important aspect of international cooperation, it falls outside the CD’s mandate, which primarily focuses on disarmament and arms control. Hence, option (b) is correct. Statement 1 is correct: The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is the central recruiting agency in India. It is an independent constitutional body in the sense that it has been directly created by the Constitution. Articles 315 to 323 in Part XIV of the Constitution contain elaborate provisions regarding the composition, appointment and removal of members along with the independence, powers and functions of the UPSC. Statement 2 is correct: The UPSC consists of a chairman and other members appointed by the president of India. The Constitution, without specifying the strength of the Commission has left the matter to the discretion of the president, who determines its composition. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Recently, India’s Foreign Secretary and the UN Under Secretary General recently exchanged views on the Conference on Disarmament, where India is poised to assume the first presidency for the 2024 session. The CD was formed in 1979 as the single multilateral disarmament negotiation forum of the international community after agreement was reached among Member States during the first special session of the UN General Assembly (UNGA) devoted to disarmament (1978). It succeeded other Geneva-based negotiating forums, which included the Ten-Nation Committee on Disarmament (1960), the Eighteen-Nation Committee on Disarmament (1962-68), and the Conference of the Committee on Disarmament (1969-78). The CD and its predecessors negotiated major multilateral arms control and disarmament treaties such as: Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT) Convention on the Prohibition of the Development, Production, and Stockpiling of Bacteriological (Biological) and Toxin Weapons and on Their Destruction (BWC) Convention on the Prohibition of the Development, Production, Stockpiling, and Use of Chemical Weapons and on Their Destruction (CWC) Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT). Currently, the CD focuses its work on the following agenda items: Cessation of the nuclear arms race and nuclear disarmament. Prevention of nuclear war, including all related matters. Prevention of an arms race in outer space. Effective international arrangements to assure non-nuclear-weapon states against the use or threat of use of nuclear weapons. New types of weapons of mass destruction and new systems of such weapons; radiological weapons. Comprehensive programme of disarmament. Transparency in armaments. Promotion of nuclear energy for civilian purposes: This is NOT an agenda item currently focused on by the Conference on Disarmament (CD). While the peaceful use of nuclear energy is an important aspect of international cooperation, it falls outside the CD’s mandate, which primarily focuses on disarmament and arms control. Hence, option (b) is correct.
#### 7. Question
Which of the following is NOT an agenda item currently focused by the Conference on Disarmament (CD)?
• a) Prevention of an arms race in outer space
• b) Promotion of nuclear energy for civilian purposes
• c) Transparency in armaments
• d) Cessation of the nuclear arms race and nuclear disarmament
Explanation:
• Recently, India’s Foreign Secretary and the UN Under Secretary General recently exchanged views on the Conference on Disarmament, where India is poised to assume the first presidency for the 2024 session.
• The CD was formed in 1979 as the single multilateral disarmament negotiation forum of the international community after agreement was reached among Member States during the first special session of the UN General Assembly (UNGA) devoted to disarmament (1978).
• It succeeded other Geneva-based negotiating forums, which included the Ten-Nation Committee on Disarmament (1960), the Eighteen-Nation Committee on Disarmament (1962-68), and the Conference of the Committee on Disarmament (1969-78).
• The CD and its predecessors negotiated major multilateral arms control and disarmament treaties such as:
• Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)
• Convention on the Prohibition of the Development, Production, and Stockpiling of Bacteriological (Biological) and Toxin Weapons and on Their Destruction (BWC)
• Convention on the Prohibition of the Development, Production, Stockpiling, and Use of Chemical Weapons and on Their Destruction (CWC)
• Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT).
• Currently, the CD focuses its work on the following agenda items:
• Cessation of the nuclear arms race and nuclear disarmament.
• Prevention of nuclear war, including all related matters.
• Prevention of an arms race in outer space.
• Effective international arrangements to assure non-nuclear-weapon states against the use or threat of use of nuclear weapons.
• New types of weapons of mass destruction and new systems of such weapons; radiological weapons.
• Comprehensive programme of disarmament.
• Transparency in armaments.
• Promotion of nuclear energy for civilian purposes: This is NOT an agenda item currently focused on by the Conference on Disarmament (CD). While the peaceful use of nuclear energy is an important aspect of international cooperation, it falls outside the CD’s mandate, which primarily focuses on disarmament and arms control.
• Hence, option (b) is correct.
Statement 1 is correct: The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is the central recruiting agency in India. It is an independent constitutional body in the sense that it has been directly created by the Constitution.
Articles 315 to 323 in Part XIV of the Constitution contain elaborate provisions regarding the composition, appointment and removal of members along with the independence, powers and functions of the UPSC.
Statement 2 is correct: The UPSC consists of a chairman and other members appointed by the president of India.
The Constitution, without specifying the strength of the Commission has left the matter to the discretion of the president, who determines its composition.
Explanation:
• Recently, India’s Foreign Secretary and the UN Under Secretary General recently exchanged views on the Conference on Disarmament, where India is poised to assume the first presidency for the 2024 session.
• The CD was formed in 1979 as the single multilateral disarmament negotiation forum of the international community after agreement was reached among Member States during the first special session of the UN General Assembly (UNGA) devoted to disarmament (1978).
• It succeeded other Geneva-based negotiating forums, which included the Ten-Nation Committee on Disarmament (1960), the Eighteen-Nation Committee on Disarmament (1962-68), and the Conference of the Committee on Disarmament (1969-78).
• The CD and its predecessors negotiated major multilateral arms control and disarmament treaties such as:
• Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)
• Convention on the Prohibition of the Development, Production, and Stockpiling of Bacteriological (Biological) and Toxin Weapons and on Their Destruction (BWC)
• Convention on the Prohibition of the Development, Production, Stockpiling, and Use of Chemical Weapons and on Their Destruction (CWC)
• Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT).
• Currently, the CD focuses its work on the following agenda items:
• Cessation of the nuclear arms race and nuclear disarmament.
• Prevention of nuclear war, including all related matters.
• Prevention of an arms race in outer space.
• Effective international arrangements to assure non-nuclear-weapon states against the use or threat of use of nuclear weapons.
• New types of weapons of mass destruction and new systems of such weapons; radiological weapons.
• Comprehensive programme of disarmament.
• Transparency in armaments.
• Promotion of nuclear energy for civilian purposes: This is NOT an agenda item currently focused on by the Conference on Disarmament (CD). While the peaceful use of nuclear energy is an important aspect of international cooperation, it falls outside the CD’s mandate, which primarily focuses on disarmament and arms control.
• Hence, option (b) is correct.
• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points What is the primary purpose of the Bangkok Vision 2030? a) To make BIMSTEC a military superpower in the region b) To make BIMSTEC a prosperous, resilient and open region c) To promote cultural exchanges among BIMSTEC countries d) To enhance political integration among BIMSTEC countries Correct Answer: b Explanation: The Bangkok Vision 2030 was adopted at the end of Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) summit in 2023. About Bangkok Vision 2030:- The Bangkok Vision 2030 was proposed by Thailand. Objective: to propel BIMSTEC towards a prosperous, resilient, and open region, fostering sustainable and balanced growth. It emphasizes sustainable and balanced growth, adapting to rapid changes in regional and global architecture. It aims to further promote BIMSTEC as a region of peace, stability, and economic sustainability. The goals are in line with the United Nations’ Sustainable Development Goals and Thailand’s bio-circular-green economic model. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: The Bangkok Vision 2030 was adopted at the end of Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) summit in 2023. About Bangkok Vision 2030:- The Bangkok Vision 2030 was proposed by Thailand. Objective: to propel BIMSTEC towards a prosperous, resilient, and open region, fostering sustainable and balanced growth. It emphasizes sustainable and balanced growth, adapting to rapid changes in regional and global architecture. It aims to further promote BIMSTEC as a region of peace, stability, and economic sustainability. The goals are in line with the United Nations’ Sustainable Development Goals and Thailand’s bio-circular-green economic model. Hence, option (b) is correct.
#### 8. Question
What is the primary purpose of the Bangkok Vision 2030?
• a) To make BIMSTEC a military superpower in the region
• b) To make BIMSTEC a prosperous, resilient and open region
• c) To promote cultural exchanges among BIMSTEC countries
• d) To enhance political integration among BIMSTEC countries
Explanation:
• The Bangkok Vision 2030 was adopted at the end of Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) summit in 2023.
• About Bangkok Vision 2030:-
• The Bangkok Vision 2030 was proposed by Thailand.
• Objective: to propel BIMSTEC towards a prosperous, resilient, and open region, fostering sustainable and balanced growth.
• It emphasizes sustainable and balanced growth, adapting to rapid changes in regional and global architecture.
• It aims to further promote BIMSTEC as a region of peace, stability, and economic sustainability.
• The goals are in line with the United Nations’ Sustainable Development Goals and Thailand’s bio-circular-green economic model.
• Hence, option (b) is correct.
Explanation:
• The Bangkok Vision 2030 was adopted at the end of Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) summit in 2023.
• About Bangkok Vision 2030:-
• The Bangkok Vision 2030 was proposed by Thailand.
• Objective: to propel BIMSTEC towards a prosperous, resilient, and open region, fostering sustainable and balanced growth.
• It emphasizes sustainable and balanced growth, adapting to rapid changes in regional and global architecture.
• It aims to further promote BIMSTEC as a region of peace, stability, and economic sustainability.
• The goals are in line with the United Nations’ Sustainable Development Goals and Thailand’s bio-circular-green economic model.
• Hence, option (b) is correct.
• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points With reference to the Washington declaration, consider the following statements: Deploying an American nuclear ballistic submarine in the Korean peninsula Forming a nuclear consultative group Providing South Korea with intelligence regarding nuclear advancements Not allowing South Korea to develop its own nuclear arsenal How many of the above measures are outlined in the Washington declaration? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: d Explanation: South Korean President Yoon Suk Yeol visited the U.S. on April 25 to celebrate the 70th anniversary of U.S.-South Korea bilateral relations. During the visit, the two countries signed the “Washington Declaration,” which focuses on nuclear deterrence strategy. Purpose The Washington Declaration is an agreement signed between the United States and South Korea, outlining a joint nuclear deterrence strategy. Measures The declaration specifies several measures that the two countries will take in cooperation towards deterrence, including: · Deployment of an American nuclear ballistic submarine in the Korean peninsula ·Formation of a nuclear consultative group to formulate principles of joint response tactics Strengthening of South Korea’s nuclear deterrence capabilities. It involves sharing intelligence on nuclear advancements to enhance South Korea’s situational awareness and preparedness against potential threats. Non-proliferation The declaration reaffirms that South Korea would not make its own nuclear capabilities and would instead focus on deterrence measures through an alliance-based approach. Nuclear Consultative Group The declaration makes it possible for the US and South Korea to establish a Nuclear Consultative Group (NCG) similar to the one that exists between the US and NATO. Through this group, South Korea can have more control over nuclear response planning and coordination, although the nuclear weapons will be under the exclusive control of the US. Authority The declaration mandates the U.S. President as the only ‘sole authority’ to use the nuclear arsenal of the U.S. in the event of a nuclear confrontation. Significance for India While India is not a direct participant in this agreement, the Washington Declaration reinforces the US commitment to its allies and partners in the Indo-Pacific, including India, and could strengthen the Quad alliance. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: South Korean President Yoon Suk Yeol visited the U.S. on April 25 to celebrate the 70th anniversary of U.S.-South Korea bilateral relations. During the visit, the two countries signed the “Washington Declaration,” which focuses on nuclear deterrence strategy. Purpose The Washington Declaration is an agreement signed between the United States and South Korea, outlining a joint nuclear deterrence strategy. Measures The declaration specifies several measures that the two countries will take in cooperation towards deterrence, including: · Deployment of an American nuclear ballistic submarine in the Korean peninsula ·Formation of a nuclear consultative group to formulate principles of joint response tactics Strengthening of South Korea’s nuclear deterrence capabilities. It involves sharing intelligence on nuclear advancements to enhance South Korea’s situational awareness and preparedness against potential threats. Non-proliferation The declaration reaffirms that South Korea would not make its own nuclear capabilities and would instead focus on deterrence measures through an alliance-based approach. Nuclear Consultative Group The declaration makes it possible for the US and South Korea to establish a Nuclear Consultative Group (NCG) similar to the one that exists between the US and NATO. Through this group, South Korea can have more control over nuclear response planning and coordination, although the nuclear weapons will be under the exclusive control of the US. Authority The declaration mandates the U.S. President as the only ‘sole authority’ to use the nuclear arsenal of the U.S. in the event of a nuclear confrontation. Significance for India While India is not a direct participant in this agreement, the Washington Declaration reinforces the US commitment to its allies and partners in the Indo-Pacific, including India, and could strengthen the Quad alliance. Hence, option (d) is correct.
#### 9. Question
With reference to the Washington declaration, consider the following statements:
• Deploying an American nuclear ballistic submarine in the Korean peninsula
• Forming a nuclear consultative group
• Providing South Korea with intelligence regarding nuclear advancements
• Not allowing South Korea to develop its own nuclear arsenal
How many of the above measures are outlined in the Washington declaration?
• a) Only one
• b) Only two
• c) Only three
• d) All four
Explanation:
• South Korean President Yoon Suk Yeol visited the U.S. on April 25 to celebrate the 70th anniversary of U.S.-South Korea bilateral relations. During the visit, the two countries signed the “Washington Declaration,” which focuses on nuclear deterrence strategy.
|
Purpose | The Washington Declaration is an agreement signed between the United States and South Korea, outlining a joint nuclear deterrence strategy.
Measures | The declaration specifies several measures that the two countries will take in cooperation towards deterrence, including: · Deployment of an American nuclear ballistic submarine in the Korean peninsula ·Formation of a nuclear consultative group to formulate principles of joint response tactics Strengthening of South Korea’s nuclear deterrence capabilities. It involves sharing intelligence on nuclear advancements to enhance South Korea’s situational awareness and preparedness against potential threats.
Non-proliferation | The declaration reaffirms that South Korea would not make its own nuclear capabilities and would instead focus on deterrence measures through an alliance-based approach.
Nuclear Consultative Group | The declaration makes it possible for the US and South Korea to establish a Nuclear Consultative Group (NCG) similar to the one that exists between the US and NATO. Through this group, South Korea can have more control over nuclear response planning and coordination, although the nuclear weapons will be under the exclusive control of the US.
Authority | The declaration mandates the U.S. President as the only ‘sole authority’ to use the nuclear arsenal of the U.S. in the event of a nuclear confrontation.
Significance for India | While India is not a direct participant in this agreement, the Washington Declaration reinforces the US commitment to its allies and partners in the Indo-Pacific, including India, and could strengthen the Quad alliance.
· Deployment of an American nuclear ballistic submarine in the Korean peninsula
·Formation of a nuclear consultative group to formulate principles of joint response tactics
Strengthening of South Korea’s nuclear deterrence capabilities. It involves sharing intelligence on nuclear advancements to enhance South Korea’s situational awareness and preparedness against potential threats.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
Explanation:
• South Korean President Yoon Suk Yeol visited the U.S. on April 25 to celebrate the 70th anniversary of U.S.-South Korea bilateral relations. During the visit, the two countries signed the “Washington Declaration,” which focuses on nuclear deterrence strategy.
|
Purpose | The Washington Declaration is an agreement signed between the United States and South Korea, outlining a joint nuclear deterrence strategy.
Measures | The declaration specifies several measures that the two countries will take in cooperation towards deterrence, including: · Deployment of an American nuclear ballistic submarine in the Korean peninsula ·Formation of a nuclear consultative group to formulate principles of joint response tactics Strengthening of South Korea’s nuclear deterrence capabilities. It involves sharing intelligence on nuclear advancements to enhance South Korea’s situational awareness and preparedness against potential threats.
Non-proliferation | The declaration reaffirms that South Korea would not make its own nuclear capabilities and would instead focus on deterrence measures through an alliance-based approach.
Nuclear Consultative Group | The declaration makes it possible for the US and South Korea to establish a Nuclear Consultative Group (NCG) similar to the one that exists between the US and NATO. Through this group, South Korea can have more control over nuclear response planning and coordination, although the nuclear weapons will be under the exclusive control of the US.
Authority | The declaration mandates the U.S. President as the only ‘sole authority’ to use the nuclear arsenal of the U.S. in the event of a nuclear confrontation.
Significance for India | While India is not a direct participant in this agreement, the Washington Declaration reinforces the US commitment to its allies and partners in the Indo-Pacific, including India, and could strengthen the Quad alliance.
· Deployment of an American nuclear ballistic submarine in the Korean peninsula
·Formation of a nuclear consultative group to formulate principles of joint response tactics
Strengthening of South Korea’s nuclear deterrence capabilities. It involves sharing intelligence on nuclear advancements to enhance South Korea’s situational awareness and preparedness against potential threats.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Which of the following report is NOT published by the International Energy Agency (IEA)? a) World Energy Outlook Report b) World Energy Investment Report c) Global Energy Consumption Report d) Energy Technology Perspectives Correct Answer: c Explanation: International Energy Agency (IEA):- It is an autonomous Intergovernmental Organization. Established: in 1974 HQ: Paris, France. Historical Background: it was established in the wake of the oil crisis of 1973-1974, to help its members respond to major disruptions in oil supply. Objective: it ensures reliable, affordable and clean energy for its member countries and beyond. It focuses on its energy policies, which include economic development, energy security and environmental protection. IEA’s Membership:- It has 30 member countries. It also includes eight association countries. Eligibility Criteria:- A candidate country to the IEA must be a member country of the Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD). A candidate country to the IEA must have: Crude oil and/or product reserves (Strategic Oil Reserves) equivalent to 90 days of the previous year’s net imports. The government must have immediate access (even if it does not own them directly) to use them to address disruptions to the global oil supply. India, which joined the IEA Family as an Association country in 2017, sent a formal request for full membership to IEA ministers in October 2023. India is not yet a full member. Major Reports:- World Energy Outlook Report. World Energy Investment Report. World Energy Statistics. World Energy Balances. Energy Technology Perspectives. India Energy Outlook Report. While the IEA produces reports on energy consumption trends as part of its World Energy Outlook, there is no specific report titled “Global Energy Consumption Report” in their publication portfolio. Hence, option(c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: International Energy Agency (IEA):- It is an autonomous Intergovernmental Organization. Established: in 1974 HQ: Paris, France. Historical Background: it was established in the wake of the oil crisis of 1973-1974, to help its members respond to major disruptions in oil supply. Objective: it ensures reliable, affordable and clean energy for its member countries and beyond. It focuses on its energy policies, which include economic development, energy security and environmental protection. IEA’s Membership:- It has 30 member countries. It also includes eight association countries. Eligibility Criteria:- A candidate country to the IEA must be a member country of the Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD). A candidate country to the IEA must have: Crude oil and/or product reserves (Strategic Oil Reserves) equivalent to 90 days of the previous year’s net imports. The government must have immediate access (even if it does not own them directly) to use them to address disruptions to the global oil supply. India, which joined the IEA Family as an Association country in 2017, sent a formal request for full membership to IEA ministers in October 2023. India is not yet a full member. Major Reports:- World Energy Outlook Report. World Energy Investment Report. World Energy Statistics. World Energy Balances. Energy Technology Perspectives. India Energy Outlook Report. While the IEA produces reports on energy consumption trends as part of its World Energy Outlook, there is no specific report titled “Global Energy Consumption Report” in their publication portfolio. Hence, option(c) is correct.
#### 10. Question
Which of the following report is NOT published by the International Energy Agency (IEA)?
• a) World Energy Outlook Report
• b) World Energy Investment Report
• c) Global Energy Consumption Report
• d) Energy Technology Perspectives
Explanation:
International Energy Agency (IEA):-
• It is an autonomous Intergovernmental Organization.
• Established: in 1974
• HQ: Paris, France.
• Historical Background: it was established in the wake of the oil crisis of 1973-1974, to help its members respond to major disruptions in oil supply.
• Objective: it ensures reliable, affordable and clean energy for its member countries and beyond.
• It focuses on its energy policies, which include economic development, energy security and environmental protection.
• IEA’s Membership:-
• It has 30 member countries.
• It also includes eight association countries.
• Eligibility Criteria:-
• A candidate country to the IEA must be a member country of the Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD).
• A candidate country to the IEA must have:
• Crude oil and/or product reserves (Strategic Oil Reserves) equivalent to 90 days of the previous year’s net imports.
• The government must have immediate access (even if it does not own them directly) to use them to address disruptions to the global oil supply.
• India, which joined the IEA Family as an Association country in 2017, sent a formal request for full membership to IEA ministers in October 2023. India is not yet a full member.
• Major Reports:-
• World Energy Outlook Report.
• World Energy Investment Report.
• World Energy Statistics.
• World Energy Balances.
• Energy Technology Perspectives.
• India Energy Outlook Report.
• While the IEA produces reports on energy consumption trends as part of its World Energy Outlook, there is no specific report titled “Global Energy Consumption Report” in their publication portfolio.
• Hence, option(c) is correct.
Explanation:
International Energy Agency (IEA):-
• It is an autonomous Intergovernmental Organization.
• Established: in 1974
• HQ: Paris, France.
• Historical Background: it was established in the wake of the oil crisis of 1973-1974, to help its members respond to major disruptions in oil supply.
• Objective: it ensures reliable, affordable and clean energy for its member countries and beyond.
• It focuses on its energy policies, which include economic development, energy security and environmental protection.
• IEA’s Membership:-
• It has 30 member countries.
• It also includes eight association countries.
• Eligibility Criteria:-
• A candidate country to the IEA must be a member country of the Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD).
• A candidate country to the IEA must have:
• Crude oil and/or product reserves (Strategic Oil Reserves) equivalent to 90 days of the previous year’s net imports.
• The government must have immediate access (even if it does not own them directly) to use them to address disruptions to the global oil supply.
• India, which joined the IEA Family as an Association country in 2017, sent a formal request for full membership to IEA ministers in October 2023. India is not yet a full member.
• Major Reports:-
• World Energy Outlook Report.
• World Energy Investment Report.
• World Energy Statistics.
• World Energy Balances.
• Energy Technology Perspectives.
• India Energy Outlook Report.
• While the IEA produces reports on energy consumption trends as part of its World Energy Outlook, there is no specific report titled “Global Energy Consumption Report” in their publication portfolio.
• Hence, option(c) is correct.
• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Green deposits refer to the interest-bearing deposits received by the Regulating Entities for a fixed period. The regulated entities for green deposits include Scheduled Commercial Banks and Regional Rural Banks. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: “Green deposit” means an interest-bearing deposit, received by the RE for a fixed period and the proceeds of which are earmarked for being allocated towards green finance; “Green finance” means lending to and/or investing in the activities/projects meeting the requirements that contributes to climate risk mitigation, climate adaptation and resilience, and other climate-related or environmental objectives. Statement 2 is not correct: The following entities are collectively referred to as regulated entities (REs): (a) Scheduled Commercial Banks including Small Finance Banks (excluding Regional Rural Banks, Local Area Banks and Payments Banks) and (b) All Deposit taking Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) registered with the Reserve Bank of India under clause (5) of Section 45IA of The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, including Housing Finance Companies (HFCs) registered under Section 29A of The National Housing Bank Act, 1987. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: “Green deposit” means an interest-bearing deposit, received by the RE for a fixed period and the proceeds of which are earmarked for being allocated towards green finance; “Green finance” means lending to and/or investing in the activities/projects meeting the requirements that contributes to climate risk mitigation, climate adaptation and resilience, and other climate-related or environmental objectives. Statement 2 is not correct: The following entities are collectively referred to as regulated entities (REs): (a) Scheduled Commercial Banks including Small Finance Banks (excluding Regional Rural Banks, Local Area Banks and Payments Banks) and (b) All Deposit taking Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) registered with the Reserve Bank of India under clause (5) of Section 45IA of The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, including Housing Finance Companies (HFCs) registered under Section 29A of The National Housing Bank Act, 1987.
#### 11. Question
Consider the following statements:
• The Green deposits refer to the interest-bearing deposits received by the Regulating Entities for a fixed period.
• The regulated entities for green deposits include Scheduled Commercial Banks and Regional Rural Banks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: “Green deposit” means an interest-bearing deposit, received by the RE for a fixed period and the proceeds of which are earmarked for being allocated towards green finance;
“Green finance” means lending to and/or investing in the activities/projects meeting the requirements that contributes to climate risk mitigation, climate adaptation and resilience, and other climate-related or environmental objectives.
Statement 2 is not correct: The following entities are collectively referred to as regulated entities (REs):
(a) Scheduled Commercial Banks including Small Finance Banks (excluding Regional Rural Banks, Local Area Banks and Payments Banks) and
(b) All Deposit taking Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) registered with the Reserve Bank of India under clause (5) of Section 45IA of The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, including Housing Finance Companies (HFCs) registered under Section 29A of The National Housing Bank Act, 1987.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: “Green deposit” means an interest-bearing deposit, received by the RE for a fixed period and the proceeds of which are earmarked for being allocated towards green finance;
“Green finance” means lending to and/or investing in the activities/projects meeting the requirements that contributes to climate risk mitigation, climate adaptation and resilience, and other climate-related or environmental objectives.
Statement 2 is not correct: The following entities are collectively referred to as regulated entities (REs):
(a) Scheduled Commercial Banks including Small Finance Banks (excluding Regional Rural Banks, Local Area Banks and Payments Banks) and
(b) All Deposit taking Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) registered with the Reserve Bank of India under clause (5) of Section 45IA of The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, including Housing Finance Companies (HFCs) registered under Section 29A of The National Housing Bank Act, 1987.
• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Endosulfan: It is a restricted-use pesticide particularly effective against fruit worms. It is applied directly to plants and soil during its use as a pesticide. Dietary intake is considered as main source of endosulfan exposure. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Endosulfan is a restricted-use pesticide that is particularly effective against aphids, fruit worms, beetles, leafhoppers, moth larvae, and white flies on a wide variety of crops. It is not approved for residential use. Endosulfan can be released into the air, water, and soil in areas where it is applied as a pesticide. Statement 2 is correct: Endosulfan is applied directly to plants and soil during its use as pesticide. In soil, it attaches to soil particles and is not expected to move from soil to groundwater. Statement 3 is correct: Dietary intake is expected as the main source of endosulfan exposure to the general population. Exposure will also occur, although to a much lesser extent, by breathing contaminated air or drinking contaminated water or if you touch fruits or plants that have been sprayed with endosulfan. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Endosulfan is a restricted-use pesticide that is particularly effective against aphids, fruit worms, beetles, leafhoppers, moth larvae, and white flies on a wide variety of crops. It is not approved for residential use. Endosulfan can be released into the air, water, and soil in areas where it is applied as a pesticide. Statement 2 is correct: Endosulfan is applied directly to plants and soil during its use as pesticide. In soil, it attaches to soil particles and is not expected to move from soil to groundwater. Statement 3 is correct: Dietary intake is expected as the main source of endosulfan exposure to the general population. Exposure will also occur, although to a much lesser extent, by breathing contaminated air or drinking contaminated water or if you touch fruits or plants that have been sprayed with endosulfan.
#### 12. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Endosulfan:
• It is a restricted-use pesticide particularly effective against fruit worms.
• It is applied directly to plants and soil during its use as a pesticide.
• Dietary intake is considered as main source of endosulfan exposure.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Endosulfan is a restricted-use pesticide that is particularly effective against aphids, fruit worms, beetles, leafhoppers, moth larvae, and white flies on a wide variety of crops. It is not approved for residential use.
Endosulfan can be released into the air, water, and soil in areas where it is applied as a pesticide.
Statement 2 is correct: Endosulfan is applied directly to plants and soil during its use as pesticide. In soil, it attaches to soil particles and is not expected to move from soil to groundwater.
Statement 3 is correct: Dietary intake is expected as the main source of endosulfan exposure to the general population. Exposure will also occur, although to a much lesser extent, by breathing contaminated air or drinking contaminated water or if you touch fruits or plants that have been sprayed with endosulfan.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Endosulfan is a restricted-use pesticide that is particularly effective against aphids, fruit worms, beetles, leafhoppers, moth larvae, and white flies on a wide variety of crops. It is not approved for residential use.
Endosulfan can be released into the air, water, and soil in areas where it is applied as a pesticide.
Statement 2 is correct: Endosulfan is applied directly to plants and soil during its use as pesticide. In soil, it attaches to soil particles and is not expected to move from soil to groundwater.
Statement 3 is correct: Dietary intake is expected as the main source of endosulfan exposure to the general population. Exposure will also occur, although to a much lesser extent, by breathing contaminated air or drinking contaminated water or if you touch fruits or plants that have been sprayed with endosulfan.
• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Neora Valley National Park: It is located in the Eastern Himalayas region that is included among the Global Hotspots. It links the Pangolakha Wildlife Sanctuary of Sikkim and the Toorsa Strict Reserve of Bhutan. It only consists characteristics of two regions, the features of the Indian Peninsular Sub-region and the Malayan sub-region. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Neora Valley National Park/NVNP which is located in the Eastern Himalayas region that has been included among the Global Hotspots. Statement 2 is correct: It is contiguous with Sikkim and Bhutan at its northern and north-eastern boundaries respectively and links the Pangolakha Wildlife Sanctuary in Sikkim and the Toorsa Strict Reserve of Bhutan. It is also an integral part of the Kanchenjunga Landscape. The southern boundaries of the Park are adjoining to the forests of Jalpaiguri district which have connectivity with the Chapramari Wildlife Sanctuary and the Gorumara National Park. Statement 3 is not correct: NVNP has some floral and faunal similarities with the Palaearctic Region, the adjacent zoogeographic region. Moreover, it consists of the characteristics of all the three sub-regions, namely Himalayan Montane System, Indian Peninsular Sub-region and the Malayan sub-region. Of the mammals present, the Red Panda is the most endangered and unique resident of the Park. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Neora Valley National Park/NVNP which is located in the Eastern Himalayas region that has been included among the Global Hotspots. Statement 2 is correct: It is contiguous with Sikkim and Bhutan at its northern and north-eastern boundaries respectively and links the Pangolakha Wildlife Sanctuary in Sikkim and the Toorsa Strict Reserve of Bhutan. It is also an integral part of the Kanchenjunga Landscape. The southern boundaries of the Park are adjoining to the forests of Jalpaiguri district which have connectivity with the Chapramari Wildlife Sanctuary and the Gorumara National Park. Statement 3 is not correct: NVNP has some floral and faunal similarities with the Palaearctic Region, the adjacent zoogeographic region. Moreover, it consists of the characteristics of all the three sub-regions, namely Himalayan Montane System, Indian Peninsular Sub-region and the Malayan sub-region. Of the mammals present, the Red Panda is the most endangered and unique resident of the Park.
#### 13. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Neora Valley National Park:
• It is located in the Eastern Himalayas region that is included among the Global Hotspots.
• It links the Pangolakha Wildlife Sanctuary of Sikkim and the Toorsa Strict Reserve of Bhutan.
• It only consists characteristics of two regions, the features of the Indian Peninsular Sub-region and the Malayan sub-region.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Neora Valley National Park/NVNP which is located in the Eastern Himalayas region that has been included among the Global Hotspots.
Statement 2 is correct: It is contiguous with Sikkim and Bhutan at its northern and north-eastern boundaries respectively and links the Pangolakha Wildlife Sanctuary in Sikkim and the Toorsa Strict Reserve of Bhutan.
It is also an integral part of the Kanchenjunga Landscape. The southern boundaries of the Park are adjoining to the forests of Jalpaiguri district which have connectivity with the Chapramari Wildlife Sanctuary and the Gorumara National Park.
Statement 3 is not correct: NVNP has some floral and faunal similarities with the Palaearctic Region, the adjacent zoogeographic region. Moreover, it consists of the characteristics of all the three sub-regions, namely Himalayan Montane System, Indian Peninsular Sub-region and the Malayan sub-region.
Of the mammals present, the Red Panda is the most endangered and unique resident of the Park.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Neora Valley National Park/NVNP which is located in the Eastern Himalayas region that has been included among the Global Hotspots.
Statement 2 is correct: It is contiguous with Sikkim and Bhutan at its northern and north-eastern boundaries respectively and links the Pangolakha Wildlife Sanctuary in Sikkim and the Toorsa Strict Reserve of Bhutan.
It is also an integral part of the Kanchenjunga Landscape. The southern boundaries of the Park are adjoining to the forests of Jalpaiguri district which have connectivity with the Chapramari Wildlife Sanctuary and the Gorumara National Park.
Statement 3 is not correct: NVNP has some floral and faunal similarities with the Palaearctic Region, the adjacent zoogeographic region. Moreover, it consists of the characteristics of all the three sub-regions, namely Himalayan Montane System, Indian Peninsular Sub-region and the Malayan sub-region.
Of the mammals present, the Red Panda is the most endangered and unique resident of the Park.
• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Huntington’s disease- Is an inherited disorder that causes nerve cells in parts of the brain to gradually degenerate and die. Attacks areas of the brain that control voluntary movement and leads to disorders including akinesia and dystonia. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Huntington’s disease (HD) is an inherited disorder that causes nerve cells (neurons) in parts of the brain to gradually break down and die. The disease attacks areas of the brain that help to control voluntary (intentional) movement, as well as other areas. People living with HD develop uncontrollable dance-like movements (chorea) and abnormal body postures, as well as problems with behaviour, emotion, thinking, and personality. Statement 2 is correct: In addition to chorea, some individuals have unusual fixed (unchanging) postures, which is known as dystonia. The two movement disorders (akinesia and dystonia) can blend or alternate. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Huntington’s disease (HD) is an inherited disorder that causes nerve cells (neurons) in parts of the brain to gradually break down and die. The disease attacks areas of the brain that help to control voluntary (intentional) movement, as well as other areas. People living with HD develop uncontrollable dance-like movements (chorea) and abnormal body postures, as well as problems with behaviour, emotion, thinking, and personality. Statement 2 is correct: In addition to chorea, some individuals have unusual fixed (unchanging) postures, which is known as dystonia. The two movement disorders (akinesia and dystonia) can blend or alternate.
#### 14. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Huntington’s disease-
• Is an inherited disorder that causes nerve cells in parts of the brain to gradually degenerate and die.
• Attacks areas of the brain that control voluntary movement and leads to disorders including akinesia and dystonia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Huntington’s disease (HD) is an inherited disorder that causes nerve cells (neurons) in parts of the brain to gradually break down and die. The disease attacks areas of the brain that help to control voluntary (intentional) movement, as well as other areas.
People living with HD develop uncontrollable dance-like movements (chorea) and abnormal body postures, as well as problems with behaviour, emotion, thinking, and personality.
Statement 2 is correct: In addition to chorea, some individuals have unusual fixed (unchanging) postures, which is known as dystonia. The two movement disorders (akinesia and dystonia) can blend or alternate.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Huntington’s disease (HD) is an inherited disorder that causes nerve cells (neurons) in parts of the brain to gradually break down and die. The disease attacks areas of the brain that help to control voluntary (intentional) movement, as well as other areas.
People living with HD develop uncontrollable dance-like movements (chorea) and abnormal body postures, as well as problems with behaviour, emotion, thinking, and personality.
Statement 2 is correct: In addition to chorea, some individuals have unusual fixed (unchanging) postures, which is known as dystonia. The two movement disorders (akinesia and dystonia) can blend or alternate.
• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Kuril Islands: These islands are part of the Pacific Ring of Fire. They are located along the Malay Peninsula. They have a climate range of sub-Arctic to temperate. Their entire territory is administered by Indonesia. How many of the statements given above are *not correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Kuril Islands are part of the Pacific Ring of Fire, a region in the Pacific Ocean that experiences frequent earthquakes and volcanic eruptions. Statement 2 is not correct: The Islands are located between the Kamchatka Peninsula and Hokkaido and separate the Pacific Ocean (on the east) and the Sea of Okhotsk on the west. The Kuril island chain has about 100 volcanoes, of which about 35 are active. The islands also contain fumaroles (steam emitting openings on the Earth’s surface) and hot springs. Statement 3 is correct: The archipelago’s climate ranges from sub-Arctic to temperate, with the vegetation ranging from dense larch and spruce forest to tundra. Statement 4 is not correct: Russia administers all the Kuril Islands as part of its easternmost territory. The Kuril Islands are surrounded by some of the most productive waters in the Pacific Ocean. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Kuril Islands are part of the Pacific Ring of Fire, a region in the Pacific Ocean that experiences frequent earthquakes and volcanic eruptions. Statement 2 is not correct: The Islands are located between the Kamchatka Peninsula and Hokkaido and separate the Pacific Ocean (on the east) and the Sea of Okhotsk on the west. The Kuril island chain has about 100 volcanoes, of which about 35 are active. The islands also contain fumaroles (steam emitting openings on the Earth’s surface) and hot springs. Statement 3 is correct: The archipelago’s climate ranges from sub-Arctic to temperate, with the vegetation ranging from dense larch and spruce forest to tundra. Statement 4 is not correct:* Russia administers all the Kuril Islands as part of its easternmost territory. The Kuril Islands are surrounded by some of the most productive waters in the Pacific Ocean.
#### 15. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Kuril Islands:
• These islands are part of the Pacific Ring of Fire.
• They are located along the Malay Peninsula.
• They have a climate range of sub-Arctic to temperate.
• Their entire territory is administered by Indonesia.
How many of the statements given above are *not* correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) Only three
• (d) All four
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Kuril Islands are part of the Pacific Ring of Fire, a region in the Pacific Ocean that experiences frequent earthquakes and volcanic eruptions.
Statement 2 is not correct: The Islands are located between the Kamchatka Peninsula and Hokkaido and separate the Pacific Ocean (on the east) and the Sea of Okhotsk on the west.
The Kuril island chain has about 100 volcanoes, of which about 35 are active. The islands also contain fumaroles (steam emitting openings on the Earth’s surface) and hot springs.
Statement 3 is correct: The archipelago’s climate ranges from sub-Arctic to temperate, with the vegetation ranging from dense larch and spruce forest to tundra.
Statement 4 is not correct: Russia administers all the Kuril Islands as part of its easternmost territory. The Kuril Islands are surrounded by some of the most productive waters in the Pacific Ocean.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Kuril Islands are part of the Pacific Ring of Fire, a region in the Pacific Ocean that experiences frequent earthquakes and volcanic eruptions.
Statement 2 is not correct: The Islands are located between the Kamchatka Peninsula and Hokkaido and separate the Pacific Ocean (on the east) and the Sea of Okhotsk on the west.
The Kuril island chain has about 100 volcanoes, of which about 35 are active. The islands also contain fumaroles (steam emitting openings on the Earth’s surface) and hot springs.
Statement 3 is correct: The archipelago’s climate ranges from sub-Arctic to temperate, with the vegetation ranging from dense larch and spruce forest to tundra.
Statement 4 is not correct: Russia administers all the Kuril Islands as part of its easternmost territory. The Kuril Islands are surrounded by some of the most productive waters in the Pacific Ocean.
• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the UNESCO Creative Cities Network (UCCN): The UCCN was launched in 2004 to promote cooperation among cities that have identified creativity as a strategic factor for sustainable urban development. Jaipur is recognized by the UCCN for its contributions to music. The network covers seven creative fields: Crafts and Folk Art, Design, Film, Gastronomy, Literature, Media Arts, and Music. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The UNESCO Creative Cities Network (UCCN) was created in 2004 to promote cooperation with and among cities that have identified creativity as a strategic factor for sustainable urban development. The 350 cities around the world which currently make up this network work together towards a common objective: placing creativity and cultural industries at the heart of their development plans at the local level and cooperating actively at the international level. The network covers seven creative fields: crafts and folk arts, media arts, film, design, gastronomy, literature and music. Hence, statement 1 and statement 3 are correct. Jaipur is recognized for its contributions to Crafts and Folk Art. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. The Constitution (Article 149) authorises the Parliament to prescribe the duties and powers of the CAG in relation to the accounts of the Union and of the states and of any other authority or body. The duties and functions of the CAG as laid down by the Parliament and the Constitution are: Statement 1 is not correct: He audits the accounts related to all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India, consolidated fund of each state and consolidated fund of each union territory having a Legislative Assembly. He audits all expenditure from the Contingency Fund of India and the Public Account of India as well as the contingency fund of each state and the public account of each state. Statement 2 is correct: He is not eligible for further office, either under the Government of India or of any state, after he ceases to hold his office. He holds office for a period of six years or upto the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. He can resign any time from his office by addressing the resignation letter to the president. Statement 3 is correct: He can also be removed by the president on same grounds and in the same manner as a judge of the Supreme Court. Incorrect Solution: B The UNESCO Creative Cities Network (UCCN) was created in 2004 to promote cooperation with and among cities that have identified creativity as a strategic factor for sustainable urban development. The 350 cities around the world which currently make up this network work together towards a common objective: placing creativity and cultural industries at the heart of their development plans at the local level and cooperating actively at the international level. The network covers seven creative fields: crafts and folk arts, media arts, film, design, gastronomy, literature and music. Hence, statement 1 and statement 3 are correct. Jaipur is recognized for its contributions to Crafts and Folk Art. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
#### 16. Question
Consider the following statements about the UNESCO Creative Cities Network (UCCN):
• The UCCN was launched in 2004 to promote cooperation among cities that have identified creativity as a strategic factor for sustainable urban development.
• Jaipur is recognized by the UCCN for its contributions to music.
• The network covers seven creative fields: Crafts and Folk Art, Design, Film, Gastronomy, Literature, Media Arts, and Music.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Solution: B
The UNESCO Creative Cities Network (UCCN) was created in 2004 to promote cooperation with and among cities that have identified creativity as a strategic factor for sustainable urban development. The 350 cities around the world which currently make up this network work together towards a common objective: placing creativity and cultural industries at the heart of their development plans at the local level and cooperating actively at the international level.
The network covers seven creative fields: crafts and folk arts, media arts, film, design, gastronomy, literature and music.
Hence, statement 1 and statement 3 are correct.
Jaipur is recognized for its contributions to Crafts and Folk Art. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
The Constitution (Article 149) authorises the Parliament to prescribe the duties and powers of the CAG in relation to the accounts of the Union and of the states and of any other authority or body.
The duties and functions of the CAG as laid down by the Parliament and the Constitution are:
• Statement 1 is not correct: He audits the accounts related to all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India, consolidated fund of each state and consolidated fund of each union territory having a Legislative Assembly.
• He audits all expenditure from the Contingency Fund of India and the Public Account of India as well as the contingency fund of each state and the public account of each state.
Statement 2 is correct: He is not eligible for further office, either under the Government of India or of any state, after he ceases to hold his office.
He holds office for a period of six years or upto the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. He can resign any time from his office by addressing the resignation letter to the president.
Statement 3 is correct: He can also be removed by the president on same grounds and in the same manner as a judge of the Supreme Court.
Solution: B
The UNESCO Creative Cities Network (UCCN) was created in 2004 to promote cooperation with and among cities that have identified creativity as a strategic factor for sustainable urban development. The 350 cities around the world which currently make up this network work together towards a common objective: placing creativity and cultural industries at the heart of their development plans at the local level and cooperating actively at the international level.
The network covers seven creative fields: crafts and folk arts, media arts, film, design, gastronomy, literature and music.
Hence, statement 1 and statement 3 are correct.
Jaipur is recognized for its contributions to Crafts and Folk Art. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Which of the following statements about Tantalum is correct? (a) Tantalum is the lightest metal in the periodic table and is primarily used in the aerospace industry for lightweight aircraft materials. (b) Tantalum is highly resistant to corrosion and is extensively used in the chemical industry for making laboratory equipment. (c) Tantalum has a low melting point, making it unsuitable for high-temperature applications such as electronics and capacitors. (d) Tantalum is predominantly found and mined in Scandinavia, which accounts for over 90% of the global supply. Correct Solution: B Tantalum is well-known for its high corrosion resistance, making it ideal for chemical equipment and as a component in alloys. Its use in electronics, particularly in capacitors, takes advantage of its stable electrical properties Lithium, not tantalum, is the lightest metal in the periodic table. Tantalum is used in the aerospace industry, but not as the lightest metal; rather, its high melting point, strength, and resistance to corrosion make it valuable for certain components and coatings. The major sources of tantalum are in Africa, particularly the Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC), as well as in countries like Rwanda, Nigeria, and Brazil. https://www.financialexpress.com/life/science-whats-tantalum-know-all-about-this-rare-metal-just-discovered-in-sutlej-river-sand-bkg-3314035/#:~:text=A%20rare%20metal%20element%2C%20found,Sutlej%20river%20sand%20in%20Punjab. Incorrect Solution: B Tantalum is well-known for its high corrosion resistance, making it ideal for chemical equipment and as a component in alloys. Its use in electronics, particularly in capacitors, takes advantage of its stable electrical properties Lithium, not tantalum, is the lightest metal in the periodic table. Tantalum is used in the aerospace industry, but not as the lightest metal; rather, its high melting point, strength, and resistance to corrosion make it valuable for certain components and coatings. The major sources of tantalum are in Africa, particularly the Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC), as well as in countries like Rwanda, Nigeria, and Brazil. https://www.financialexpress.com/life/science-whats-tantalum-know-all-about-this-rare-metal-just-discovered-in-sutlej-river-sand-bkg-3314035/#:~:text=A%20rare%20metal%20element%2C%20found,Sutlej%20river%20sand%20in%20Punjab.
#### 17. Question
Which of the following statements about Tantalum is correct?
• (a) Tantalum is the lightest metal in the periodic table and is primarily used in the aerospace industry for lightweight aircraft materials.
• (b) Tantalum is highly resistant to corrosion and is extensively used in the chemical industry for making laboratory equipment.
• (c) Tantalum has a low melting point, making it unsuitable for high-temperature applications such as electronics and capacitors.
• (d) Tantalum is predominantly found and mined in Scandinavia, which accounts for over 90% of the global supply.
Solution: B
Tantalum is well-known for its high corrosion resistance, making it ideal for chemical equipment and as a component in alloys. Its use in electronics, particularly in capacitors, takes advantage of its stable electrical properties
Lithium, not tantalum, is the lightest metal in the periodic table. Tantalum is used in the aerospace industry, but not as the lightest metal; rather, its high melting point, strength, and resistance to corrosion make it valuable for certain components and coatings.
The major sources of tantalum are in Africa, particularly the Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC), as well as in countries like Rwanda, Nigeria, and Brazil.
https://www.financialexpress.com/life/science-whats-tantalum-know-all-about-this-rare-metal-just-discovered-in-sutlej-river-sand-bkg-3314035/#:~:text=A%20rare%20metal%20element%2C%20found,Sutlej%20river%20sand%20in%20Punjab.
Solution: B
Tantalum is well-known for its high corrosion resistance, making it ideal for chemical equipment and as a component in alloys. Its use in electronics, particularly in capacitors, takes advantage of its stable electrical properties
Lithium, not tantalum, is the lightest metal in the periodic table. Tantalum is used in the aerospace industry, but not as the lightest metal; rather, its high melting point, strength, and resistance to corrosion make it valuable for certain components and coatings.
The major sources of tantalum are in Africa, particularly the Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC), as well as in countries like Rwanda, Nigeria, and Brazil.
https://www.financialexpress.com/life/science-whats-tantalum-know-all-about-this-rare-metal-just-discovered-in-sutlej-river-sand-bkg-3314035/#:~:text=A%20rare%20metal%20element%2C%20found,Sutlej%20river%20sand%20in%20Punjab.
• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding hunger hotspots: Hunger hotspots are identified based on the low number of people facing acute food insecurity. Haiti and the Sahel region are among the areas identified as hunger hotspots due to critical food shortages. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B Hunger hotspots are identified by organizations like FAO and WFP, focusing on regions with a high number of people facing acute food insecurity, not low. Haiti and the Sahel region, including Burkina Faso and Mali, are correctly identified as hunger hotspots due to critical food shortages and worsening conditions. https://www.wfp.org/publications/hunger-hotspots-fao-wfp-early-warnings-acute-food-insecurity-november-2023-april-2024#:~:text=The%20Hunger%20Hotspots%20report%20by,November%202023%20to%20April%202024. Incorrect Solution: B Hunger hotspots are identified by organizations like FAO and WFP, focusing on regions with a high number of people facing acute food insecurity, not low. Haiti and the Sahel region, including Burkina Faso and Mali, are correctly identified as hunger hotspots due to critical food shortages and worsening conditions. https://www.wfp.org/publications/hunger-hotspots-fao-wfp-early-warnings-acute-food-insecurity-november-2023-april-2024#:~:text=The%20Hunger%20Hotspots%20report%20by,November%202023%20to%20April%202024.
#### 18. Question
Consider the following statements regarding hunger hotspots:
• Hunger hotspots are identified based on the low number of people facing acute food insecurity.
• Haiti and the Sahel region are among the areas identified as hunger hotspots due to critical food shortages.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B Hunger hotspots are identified by organizations like FAO and WFP, focusing on regions with a high number of people facing acute food insecurity, not low. Haiti and the Sahel region, including Burkina Faso and Mali, are correctly identified as hunger hotspots due to critical food shortages and worsening conditions.
https://www.wfp.org/publications/hunger-hotspots-fao-wfp-early-warnings-acute-food-insecurity-november-2023-april-2024#:~:text=The%20Hunger%20Hotspots%20report%20by,November%202023%20to%20April%202024.
Solution: B Hunger hotspots are identified by organizations like FAO and WFP, focusing on regions with a high number of people facing acute food insecurity, not low. Haiti and the Sahel region, including Burkina Faso and Mali, are correctly identified as hunger hotspots due to critical food shortages and worsening conditions.
https://www.wfp.org/publications/hunger-hotspots-fao-wfp-early-warnings-acute-food-insecurity-november-2023-april-2024#:~:text=The%20Hunger%20Hotspots%20report%20by,November%202023%20to%20April%202024.
• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points What is Kambala? (a) A traditional boat race in Kerala (b) A buffalo race in Coastal Karnataka (b) A buffalo race in Coastal Karnataka (d) A desert festival in Rajasthan Correct Solution: B Kambala is a traditional buffalo race that takes place in the coastal districts of Karnataka, India. It is a popular cultural event that involves racing buffaloes through muddy tracks, closely associated with the agricultural practices and festivities of the region. https://www.livemint.com/news/india/kambala-festival-2023-what-is-buffalo-race-event-in-karnataka-11671082288791.html The Commission consists of a Chief Information Commissioner and not more than ten Information Commissioners. Statement 1 is not correct: They are appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee consisting of the Prime Minister as Chairperson, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister Statement 2 is not correct: The Chief Information Commissioner and an Information Commissioner hold office for a term of 5 years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. They are not eligible for reappointment. Incorrect Solution: B Kambala is a traditional buffalo race that takes place in the coastal districts of Karnataka, India. It is a popular cultural event that involves racing buffaloes through muddy tracks, closely associated with the agricultural practices and festivities of the region. https://www.livemint.com/news/india/kambala-festival-2023-what-is-buffalo-race-event-in-karnataka-11671082288791.html The Commission consists of a Chief Information Commissioner and not more than ten Information Commissioners. Statement 1 is not correct: They are appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee consisting of the Prime Minister as Chairperson, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister Statement 2 is not correct: The Chief Information Commissioner and an Information Commissioner hold office for a term of 5 years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. They are not eligible for reappointment.
#### 19. Question
What is Kambala?
• (a) A traditional boat race in Kerala
• (b) A buffalo race in Coastal Karnataka
• (b) A buffalo race in Coastal Karnataka
• (d) A desert festival in Rajasthan
Solution: B
Kambala is a traditional buffalo race that takes place in the coastal districts of Karnataka, India. It is a popular cultural event that involves racing buffaloes through muddy tracks, closely associated with the agricultural practices and festivities of the region.
https://www.livemint.com/news/india/kambala-festival-2023-what-is-buffalo-race-event-in-karnataka-11671082288791.html
The Commission consists of a Chief Information Commissioner and not more than ten Information Commissioners.
Statement 1 is not correct: They are appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee consisting of the Prime Minister as Chairperson, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister
Statement 2 is not correct: The Chief Information Commissioner and an Information Commissioner hold office for a term of 5 years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. They are not eligible for reappointment.
Solution: B
Kambala is a traditional buffalo race that takes place in the coastal districts of Karnataka, India. It is a popular cultural event that involves racing buffaloes through muddy tracks, closely associated with the agricultural practices and festivities of the region.
https://www.livemint.com/news/india/kambala-festival-2023-what-is-buffalo-race-event-in-karnataka-11671082288791.html
The Commission consists of a Chief Information Commissioner and not more than ten Information Commissioners.
Statement 1 is not correct: They are appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee consisting of the Prime Minister as Chairperson, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister
Statement 2 is not correct: The Chief Information Commissioner and an Information Commissioner hold office for a term of 5 years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. They are not eligible for reappointment.
• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Kondaveedu Fort: Kondaveedu Fort, located near the Krishna river, was the capital of the Reddy dynasty for over a century. The fort was captured by Vijayanagara emperor Krishnadevaraya in the 16th century, marking a significant event in the region’s history. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Both statements are correct. Kondaveedu Fort is located south of the Krishna River, and served as the capital of the Reddy dynasty between 1328 and 1482. It was taken by the Vijayanagara emperor Krishnadevaraya in 1516, https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/andhra-pradesh/deep-well-discovered-at-kondaveedu-fort/article34801081.ece The Central Vigilance Commission he Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) is the main agency for preventing corruption in the Central government. Statement 1 is correct: It was established in 1964 by an executive resolution of the Central government. Statement 2 is correct: Its establishment was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption (1962–64). Thus, originally the CVC was neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body. Later, in 2003, the Parliament enacted a law conferring statutory status on the CVC. Statement 3 is correct: The jurisdiction of the CVC extends to the- Members of All India Services serving in connection with the affairs of the Union and Group A officers of the Central Government. Officers of the rank of Scale V and above in the Public Sector Banks. Incorrect Solution: C Both statements are correct. Kondaveedu Fort is located south of the Krishna River, and served as the capital of the Reddy dynasty between 1328 and 1482. It was taken by the Vijayanagara emperor Krishnadevaraya in 1516, https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/andhra-pradesh/deep-well-discovered-at-kondaveedu-fort/article34801081.ece The Central Vigilance Commission he Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) is the main agency for preventing corruption in the Central government. Statement 1 is correct: It was established in 1964 by an executive resolution of the Central government. Statement 2 is correct: Its establishment was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption (1962–64). Thus, originally the CVC was neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body. Later, in 2003, the Parliament enacted a law conferring statutory status on the CVC. Statement 3 is correct: The jurisdiction of the CVC extends to the- Members of All India Services serving in connection with the affairs of the Union and Group A officers of the Central Government. Officers of the rank of Scale V and above in the Public Sector Banks.
#### 20. Question
Consider the following statements about Kondaveedu Fort:
• Kondaveedu Fort, located near the Krishna river, was the capital of the Reddy dynasty for over a century.
• The fort was captured by Vijayanagara emperor Krishnadevaraya in the 16th century, marking a significant event in the region’s history.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
Both statements are correct. Kondaveedu Fort is located south of the Krishna River, and served as the capital of the Reddy dynasty between 1328 and 1482. It was taken by the Vijayanagara emperor Krishnadevaraya in 1516,
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/andhra-pradesh/deep-well-discovered-at-kondaveedu-fort/article34801081.ece
The Central Vigilance Commission he Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) is the main agency for preventing corruption in the Central government.
Statement 1 is correct: It was established in 1964 by an executive resolution of the Central government.
Statement 2 is correct: Its establishment was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption (1962–64).
Thus, originally the CVC was neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body. Later, in 2003, the Parliament enacted a law conferring statutory status on the CVC.
Statement 3 is correct: The jurisdiction of the CVC extends to the-
• Members of All India Services serving in connection with the affairs of the Union and Group A officers of the Central Government.
• Officers of the rank of Scale V and above in the Public Sector Banks.
Solution: C
Both statements are correct. Kondaveedu Fort is located south of the Krishna River, and served as the capital of the Reddy dynasty between 1328 and 1482. It was taken by the Vijayanagara emperor Krishnadevaraya in 1516,
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/andhra-pradesh/deep-well-discovered-at-kondaveedu-fort/article34801081.ece
The Central Vigilance Commission he Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) is the main agency for preventing corruption in the Central government.
Statement 1 is correct: It was established in 1964 by an executive resolution of the Central government.
Statement 2 is correct: Its establishment was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption (1962–64).
Thus, originally the CVC was neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body. Later, in 2003, the Parliament enacted a law conferring statutory status on the CVC.
Statement 3 is correct: The jurisdiction of the CVC extends to the-
• Members of All India Services serving in connection with the affairs of the Union and Group A officers of the Central Government.
• Officers of the rank of Scale V and above in the Public Sector Banks.
• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about phreatomagmatic eruptions: Phreatomagmatic eruptions can occur both underwater and on land, wherever magma encounters water. The explosive release of ash and steam during these eruptions is due to the rapid cooling and fragmentation of magma upon contact with water. Phreatomagmatic eruptions are less dangerous than typical magmatic eruptions since they involve water, which mitigates the explosion’s impact. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Phreatomagmatic eruptions occur when magma comes into contact with water, leading to explosive events either underwater or on land. The explosive nature of these eruptions results from the rapid cooling and fragmentation of magma. Hence, statement 1 and statement 2 are correct. However, the presence of water does not make these eruptions less dangerous; in fact, the rapid expansion of steam can enhance the explosive power of the eruption Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution: B Phreatomagmatic eruptions occur when magma comes into contact with water, leading to explosive events either underwater or on land. The explosive nature of these eruptions results from the rapid cooling and fragmentation of magma. Hence, statement 1 and statement 2 are correct. However, the presence of water does not make these eruptions less dangerous; in fact, the rapid expansion of steam can enhance the explosive power of the eruption Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
#### 21. Question
Consider the following statements about phreatomagmatic eruptions:
• Phreatomagmatic eruptions can occur both underwater and on land, wherever magma encounters water.
• The explosive release of ash and steam during these eruptions is due to the rapid cooling and fragmentation of magma upon contact with water.
• Phreatomagmatic eruptions are less dangerous than typical magmatic eruptions since they involve water, which mitigates the explosion’s impact.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Solution: B
Phreatomagmatic eruptions occur when magma comes into contact with water, leading to explosive events either underwater or on land. The explosive nature of these eruptions results from the rapid cooling and fragmentation of magma.
Hence, statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.
However, the presence of water does not make these eruptions less dangerous; in fact, the rapid expansion of steam can enhance the explosive power of the eruption
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Solution: B
Phreatomagmatic eruptions occur when magma comes into contact with water, leading to explosive events either underwater or on land. The explosive nature of these eruptions results from the rapid cooling and fragmentation of magma.
Hence, statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.
However, the presence of water does not make these eruptions less dangerous; in fact, the rapid expansion of steam can enhance the explosive power of the eruption
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points In which Indian state did Meerabai primarily conduct her devotional practices? (a) Rajasthan (b) Gujarat (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Telangana Correct Solution: C Incorrect Solution: C
#### 22. Question
In which Indian state did Meerabai primarily conduct her devotional practices?
• (a) Rajasthan
• (b) Gujarat
• (c) Uttar Pradesh
• (d) Telangana
Solution: C
Solution: C
• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Treaty on Conventional Armed Forces in Europe (CFE): The CFE Treaty aimed to reduce conventional military equipment in Europe. The CFE Treaty’s goal was nuclear disarmament in Europe. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Terrestrial Aquatic Avian How many of the above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A The Treaty on Conventional Armed Forces in Europe (CFE) was signed in Paris and it was negotiated during the final years of the Cold War. The treaty’s main objective was to reduce the possibility of a surprise armed attack in Europe. The treaty established limits on conventional military equipment in Europe, from the Atlantic to the Urals. It also mandated the destruction of excess weaponry. The CFE Treaty is often referred to as the “cornerstone of European security”. Incorrect Solution: A The Treaty on Conventional Armed Forces in Europe (CFE) was signed in Paris and it was negotiated during the final years of the Cold War. The treaty’s main objective was to reduce the possibility of a surprise armed attack in Europe. The treaty established limits on conventional military equipment in Europe, from the Atlantic to the Urals. It also mandated the destruction of excess weaponry. The CFE Treaty is often referred to as the “cornerstone of European security”.
#### 23. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Treaty on Conventional Armed Forces in Europe (CFE):
• The CFE Treaty aimed to reduce conventional military equipment in Europe.
• The CFE Treaty’s goal was nuclear disarmament in Europe.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• Terrestrial
How many of the above is/are correct?
• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A
The Treaty on Conventional Armed Forces in Europe (CFE) was signed in Paris and it was negotiated during the final years of the Cold War. The treaty’s main objective was to reduce the possibility of a surprise armed attack in Europe. The treaty established limits on conventional military equipment in Europe, from the Atlantic to the Urals. It also mandated the destruction of excess weaponry.
• The CFE Treaty is often referred to as the “cornerstone of European security”.
Solution: A
The Treaty on Conventional Armed Forces in Europe (CFE) was signed in Paris and it was negotiated during the final years of the Cold War. The treaty’s main objective was to reduce the possibility of a surprise armed attack in Europe. The treaty established limits on conventional military equipment in Europe, from the Atlantic to the Urals. It also mandated the destruction of excess weaponry.
• The CFE Treaty is often referred to as the “cornerstone of European security”.
• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Houthi rebels, sometimes seen in news, are based in (a) Saudi Arabia (b) Ethiopia (c) Yemen (d) Nigeria Correct Solution: C Houthi rebels are a Shiite Muslim insurgent group based in Yemen. The Houthis take their name from their founding leader, Hussein Badreddin al-Houthi. They adhere to a branch of Shia Islam known as Zaidism Incorrect Solution: C Houthi rebels are a Shiite Muslim insurgent group based in Yemen. The Houthis take their name from their founding leader, Hussein Badreddin al-Houthi. They adhere to a branch of Shia Islam known as Zaidism
#### 24. Question
Houthi rebels, sometimes seen in news, are based in
• (a) Saudi Arabia
• (b) Ethiopia
• (d) Nigeria
Solution: C
Houthi rebels are a Shiite Muslim insurgent group based in Yemen. The Houthis take their name from their founding leader, Hussein Badreddin al-Houthi. They adhere to a branch of Shia Islam known as Zaidism
Solution: C
Houthi rebels are a Shiite Muslim insurgent group based in Yemen. The Houthis take their name from their founding leader, Hussein Badreddin al-Houthi. They adhere to a branch of Shia Islam known as Zaidism
• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points The ‘AAINA portal’ recently seen in news, was launched by: (a) Ministry of Finance (b) Ministry of Defence (c) Ministry of Statistics and Program implementation (d) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs Correct Solution: D The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) has launched the ‘AAINA Dashboard for Cities’ portal (www.aaina.gov.in). What is the ‘AAINA Dashboard for Cities’? It is a portal that enables Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) to voluntarily submit key data, including audited accounts and performance metrics, on five thematic areas. Political & Administrative Structure Finance Planning Citizen-Centric Governance Delivery of Basic Services. Incorrect Solution: D The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) has launched the ‘AAINA Dashboard for Cities’ portal (www.aaina.gov.in). What is the ‘AAINA Dashboard for Cities’? It is a portal that enables Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) to voluntarily submit key data, including audited accounts and performance metrics, on five thematic areas. Political & Administrative Structure Finance Planning Citizen-Centric Governance Delivery of Basic Services.
#### 25. Question
The ‘AAINA portal’ recently seen in news, was launched by:
• (a) Ministry of Finance
• (b) Ministry of Defence
• (c) Ministry of Statistics and Program implementation
• (d) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
Solution: D
The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) has launched the ‘AAINA Dashboard for Cities’ portal (www.aaina.gov.in).
What is the ‘AAINA Dashboard for Cities’?
It is a portal that enables Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) to voluntarily submit key data, including audited accounts and performance metrics, on five thematic areas.
• Political & Administrative Structure
• Citizen-Centric Governance
• Delivery of Basic Services.
Solution: D
The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) has launched the ‘AAINA Dashboard for Cities’ portal (www.aaina.gov.in).
What is the ‘AAINA Dashboard for Cities’?
It is a portal that enables Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) to voluntarily submit key data, including audited accounts and performance metrics, on five thematic areas.
• Political & Administrative Structure
• Citizen-Centric Governance
• Delivery of Basic Services.
• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points The statement that “the personal is political” was influential in second-wave feminism, shaping the development of social analyses and theories, encouraging new types of activism, and widening the scope of issues that could be defined as “feminist issues.” For example, it was one of the premises underlying the creation of feminist consciousness-raising groups, which met to discuss topics such as careers or parenting, sharing their personal experiences and generating new knowledge based on those experiences. This knowledge was the basis for further activism. The crux of the passage seems to be, A. Interplay of action and theory as a key to development of good theory B. Strong theories emerge from intense discussions C. Women are more concerned about debates than action D. Theory is not worthy unless it can be put to action Correct Answer: A B is wrong because discussion is the central point of author and C is absurd. D seems correct but misleading it is not as important as A. Personal experience based theories becoming successful shows real world event based facts and theory should merge for good theory to emerge. So A is correct. Incorrect Answer: A B is wrong because discussion is the central point of author and C is absurd. D seems correct but misleading it is not as important as A. Personal experience based theories becoming successful shows real world event based facts and theory should merge for good theory to emerge. So A is correct. xy = 23 × 7 x = 23; y = 7 3y – x = 3 × 7 – 23 = 21 – 23 = – 2
#### 26. Question
The statement that “the personal is political” was influential in second-wave feminism, shaping the development of social analyses and theories, encouraging new types of activism, and widening the scope of issues that could be defined as “feminist issues.” For example, it was one of the premises underlying the creation of feminist consciousness-raising groups, which met to discuss topics such as careers or parenting, sharing their personal experiences and generating new knowledge based on those experiences. This knowledge was the basis for further activism.
The crux of the passage seems to be,
• A. Interplay of action and theory as a key to development of good theory
• B. Strong theories emerge from intense discussions
• C. Women are more concerned about debates than action
• D. Theory is not worthy unless it can be put to action
B is wrong because discussion is the central point of author and C is absurd. D seems correct but misleading it is not as important as A. Personal experience based theories becoming successful shows real world event based facts and theory should merge for good theory to emerge. So A is correct.
B is wrong because discussion is the central point of author and C is absurd. D seems correct but misleading it is not as important as A. Personal experience based theories becoming successful shows real world event based facts and theory should merge for good theory to emerge. So A is correct.
xy = 23 × 7
x = 23; y = 7
3y – x = 3 × 7 – 23
= 21 – 23 = – 2
• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points The statement that “the personal is political” was influential in second-wave feminism, shaping the development of social analyses and theories, encouraging new types of activism, and widening the scope of issues that could be defined as “feminist issues.” For example, it was one of the premises underlying the creation of feminist consciousness-raising groups, which met to discuss topics such as careers or parenting, sharing their personal experiences and generating new knowledge based on those experiences. This knowledge was the basis for further activism. On the basis of above passage following assumptions have been made: Personal experiences have more value than science and epistemology tools since they are about immediate reality Abstract theories cannot construe the reality. Code: A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 & 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2. Correct Answer: A The above theory become very practical as per author on basis of her assumption that personal experience would be more valuable Abstract theory which speculate about reality need not be always wrong, nor it is debated by this passage. Thus A is answer. Incorrect Answer: A The above theory become very practical as per author on basis of her assumption that personal experience would be more valuable Abstract theory which speculate about reality need not be always wrong, nor it is debated by this passage. Thus A is answer.
#### 27. Question
The statement that “the personal is political” was influential in second-wave feminism, shaping the development of social analyses and theories, encouraging new types of activism, and widening the scope of issues that could be defined as “feminist issues.” For example, it was one of the premises underlying the creation of feminist consciousness-raising groups, which met to discuss topics such as careers or parenting, sharing their personal experiences and generating new knowledge based on those experiences. This knowledge was the basis for further activism.
On the basis of above passage following assumptions have been made:
• Personal experiences have more value than science and epistemology tools since they are about immediate reality
• Abstract theories cannot construe the reality.
• C. Both 1 & 2
• D. Neither 1 nor 2.
• The above theory become very practical as per author on basis of her assumption that personal experience would be more valuable
• Abstract theory which speculate about reality need not be always wrong, nor it is debated by this passage.
Thus A is answer.
• The above theory become very practical as per author on basis of her assumption that personal experience would be more valuable
• Abstract theory which speculate about reality need not be always wrong, nor it is debated by this passage.
Thus A is answer.
• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points A red light flashes three times per minute and a green light flashes five times in 2 min at regular intervals. If both lights start flashing at the same time, how many times do they flash together in each hour? A. 30 B. 24 C. 20 D. 60 Correct Answer (A) 30 Explanation: A red light flashes three times per minute and a green light flashes five times in 2 min at regular intervals. So red light flashes after every 1/3 min and green light flashes every 2/5 min. LCM of both the fractions is 2 min . Hence they flash together after every 2 min. So in an hour they flash together 30 times . Incorrect Answer (A) 30 Explanation: A red light flashes three times per minute and a green light flashes five times in 2 min at regular intervals. So red light flashes after every 1/3 min and green light flashes every 2/5 min. LCM of both the fractions is 2 min . Hence they flash together after every 2 min. So in an hour they flash together 30 times .
#### 28. Question
A red light flashes three times per minute and a green light flashes five times in 2 min at regular intervals. If both lights start flashing at the same time, how many times do they flash together in each hour?
Answer (A) 30
Explanation:
A red light flashes three times per minute and a green light flashes five times in 2 min at regular intervals. So red light flashes after every 1/3 min and green light flashes every 2/5
min. LCM of both the fractions is 2 min .
Hence they flash together after every 2 min. So in an hour they flash together 30 times .
Answer (A) 30
Explanation:
A red light flashes three times per minute and a green light flashes five times in 2 min at regular intervals. So red light flashes after every 1/3 min and green light flashes every 2/5
min. LCM of both the fractions is 2 min .
Hence they flash together after every 2 min. So in an hour they flash together 30 times .
• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points Find the greatest number which will exactly divide 200 and 320. (A) 10 (B) 20 (C) 16 (D) 40 Correct ANSWER D) 40 Required number = HCF of 200 and 320 = 40 Incorrect ANSWER D) 40 Required number = HCF of 200 and 320 = 40
#### 29. Question
Find the greatest number which will exactly divide 200 and 320.
ANSWER D) 40
Required number = HCF of 200 and 320 = 40
ANSWER D) 40
Required number = HCF of 200 and 320 = 40
• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points 84 Maths books, 90 Physics books and 120 Chemistry books have to be stacked topic wise. How many books will be there in each stack so that each stack will have the same height too ? (A) 12 (B) 18 (C) 6 (D) 21 Correct ANSWER C) 6 As the height of each stack is same, the required number of books in each stack = HCF of 84, 90 and 120 84 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 7 90 = 2 × 3 × 3 × 5 120 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 5 HCF = 2 × 3 = 6 Incorrect ANSWER C) 6 As the height of each stack is same, the required number of books in each stack = HCF of 84, 90 and 120 84 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 7 90 = 2 × 3 × 3 × 5 120 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 5 HCF = 2 × 3 = 6
#### 30. Question
84 Maths books, 90 Physics books and 120 Chemistry books have to be stacked topic wise. How many books will be there in each stack so that each stack will have the same height too ?
ANSWER C) 6
As the height of each stack is same, the required number of books in each stack
= HCF of 84, 90 and 120
84 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 7
90 = 2 × 3 × 3 × 5
120 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 5
HCF = 2 × 3 = 6
ANSWER C) 6
As the height of each stack is same, the required number of books in each stack
= HCF of 84, 90 and 120
84 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 7
90 = 2 × 3 × 3 × 5
120 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 5
HCF = 2 × 3 = 6
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