DAY – 26 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – POLITY, Subject-wise Test 22, 23 and December 2023 CA

INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Virtual Digital Assets (VDAs): They refer to the information or codes generated through cryptographic means. The Non-fungible tokens are included in the definition of Virtual Digital Assets. All the Non-fungible tokens are independent of the VDA tax provisions. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: A virtual digital asset (VDA) means any information or code or number or token generated through cryptographic means or otherwise, by whatever name called, providing a digital representation of value which is exchanged with or without consideration, with the promise or representation of having inherent value. Statement 2 is correct: Non fungible tokens (NFTs) and other tokens of similar nature are included in the definition of VDAs. Statement 3 is not correct: Government has excluded NFTs which derive value from underlying tangible asset and transaction involves the transfer of the underlying tangible asset. Hence, not all NFTs entirely are not subject to VDA tax provisions or independent. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: A virtual digital asset (VDA) means any information or code or number or token generated through cryptographic means or otherwise, by whatever name called, providing a digital representation of value which is exchanged with or without consideration, with the promise or representation of having inherent value. Statement 2 is correct: Non fungible tokens (NFTs) and other tokens of similar nature are included in the definition of VDAs. Statement 3 is not correct: Government has excluded NFTs which derive value from underlying tangible asset and transaction involves the transfer of the underlying tangible asset. Hence, not all NFTs entirely are not subject to VDA tax provisions or independent.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Virtual Digital Assets (VDAs):

• They refer to the information or codes generated through cryptographic means.

• The Non-fungible tokens are included in the definition of Virtual Digital Assets.

• All the Non-fungible tokens are independent of the VDA tax provisions.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: A virtual digital asset (VDA) means any information or code or number or token generated through cryptographic means or otherwise, by whatever name called, providing a digital representation of value which is exchanged with or without consideration, with the promise or representation of having inherent value.

Statement 2 is correct: Non fungible tokens (NFTs) and other tokens of similar nature are included in the definition of VDAs.

Statement 3 is not correct: Government has excluded NFTs which derive value from underlying tangible asset and transaction involves the transfer of the underlying tangible asset. Hence, not all NFTs entirely are not subject to VDA tax provisions or independent.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 2 is correct: Non fungible tokens (NFTs) and other tokens of similar nature are included in the definition of VDAs.

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Arsenic is a naturally occurring semi-metallic element. Inorganic arsenic compounds do not contain carbon. Arsenic can be a component of air pollution. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Arsenic is a naturally occurring, semimetallic element widely distributed in the Earth’s crust. Arsenic levels in the environment can vary by locality, and it is found in water, air, and soil. Statement 2 is correct: There are two general forms of arsenic: Organic arsenic compounds contain carbon. Inorganic arsenic compounds do not contain carbon. Statement 3 is correct: Arsenic may be a component of air pollution. The most common source of arsenic in people is contaminated drinking water. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Arsenic is a naturally occurring, semimetallic element widely distributed in the Earth’s crust. Arsenic levels in the environment can vary by locality, and it is found in water, air, and soil. Statement 2 is correct: There are two general forms of arsenic: Organic arsenic compounds contain carbon. Inorganic arsenic compounds do not contain carbon. Statement 3 is correct: Arsenic may be a component of air pollution. The most common source of arsenic in people is contaminated drinking water.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Arsenic is a naturally occurring semi-metallic element.

• Inorganic arsenic compounds do not contain carbon.

• Arsenic can be a component of air pollution.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Arsenic is a naturally occurring, semimetallic element widely distributed in the Earth’s crust. Arsenic levels in the environment can vary by locality, and it is found in water, air, and soil.

Statement 2 is correct: There are two general forms of arsenic:

• Organic arsenic compounds contain carbon.

• Inorganic arsenic compounds do not contain carbon.

Statement 3 is correct: Arsenic may be a component of air pollution. The most common source of arsenic in people is contaminated drinking water.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 2 is correct: There are two general forms of arsenic:

• Organic arsenic compounds contain carbon.

• Inorganic arsenic compounds do not contain carbon.

Statement 3 is correct: Arsenic may be a component of air pollution. The most common source of arsenic in people is contaminated drinking water.

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Vertical Farming uses less pesticides but requires more water than the traditional agricultural methods. The crops under vertical farming are not subject to seasons and hence give high productivity year-round. How many of the statements given above is/are *not correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: A Explanation: In vertical farming, crops are grown indoors, under artificial conditions of light and temperature. Crops are grown indoors, under artificial conditions of light and temperature. It aims at higher productivity in smaller spaces. It uses soil-less methods such as hydroponics, aquaponics and aeroponics. Statement 1 is not correct: Vertical farming uses significantly less water and pesticides than traditional agricultural methods. Statement 2 is correct: Being indoor, the crops aren’t subject to seasons and hence give high productivity year-round. Lettuces, tomatoes and green crops can be produced through this practice. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: In vertical farming, crops are grown indoors, under artificial conditions of light and temperature. Crops are grown indoors, under artificial conditions of light and temperature. It aims at higher productivity in smaller spaces. It uses soil-less methods such as hydroponics, aquaponics and aeroponics. Statement 1 is not correct: Vertical farming uses significantly less water and pesticides than traditional agricultural methods. Statement 2 is correct:* Being indoor, the crops aren’t subject to seasons and hence give high productivity year-round. Lettuces, tomatoes and green crops can be produced through this practice.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Vertical Farming uses less pesticides but requires more water than the traditional agricultural methods.

• The crops under vertical farming are not subject to seasons and hence give high productivity year-round.

How many of the statements given above is/are *not* correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Explanation:

In vertical farming, crops are grown indoors, under artificial conditions of light and temperature.

Crops are grown indoors, under artificial conditions of light and temperature. It aims at higher productivity in smaller spaces. It uses soil-less methods such as hydroponics, aquaponics and aeroponics.

Statement 1 is not correct: Vertical farming uses significantly less water and pesticides than traditional agricultural methods.

Statement 2 is correct: Being indoor, the crops aren’t subject to seasons and hence give high productivity year-round. Lettuces, tomatoes and green crops can be produced through this practice.

Answer: A

Explanation:

In vertical farming, crops are grown indoors, under artificial conditions of light and temperature.

Statement 1 is not correct: Vertical farming uses significantly less water and pesticides than traditional agricultural methods.

Statement 2 is correct: Being indoor, the crops aren’t subject to seasons and hence give high productivity year-round. Lettuces, tomatoes and green crops can be produced through this practice.

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Ionosphere: It overlaps the mesosphere, thermosphere as well as the exosphere. It grows and shrinks depending on the energy it absorbs from the sun. It obstructs the daily communications and navigation systems of the Earth. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The ionosphere overlaps the mesosphere, thermosphere, and exosphere. Statement 2 is correct: The ionosphere is a very active part of the atmosphere, and it grows and shrinks depending on the energy it absorbs from the Sun. The name ionosphere comes from the fact that gases in these layers are excited by solar radiation to form ions, which have an electrical charge. Statement 3 is not correct: The ionosphere also plays a role in our everyday communications and navigation systems. Radio and GPS signals travel through this layer of the atmosphere, or rely on bouncing off the ionosphere to reach their destinations. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The ionosphere overlaps the mesosphere, thermosphere, and exosphere. Statement 2 is correct: The ionosphere is a very active part of the atmosphere, and it grows and shrinks depending on the energy it absorbs from the Sun. The name ionosphere comes from the fact that gases in these layers are excited by solar radiation to form ions, which have an electrical charge. Statement 3 is not correct: The ionosphere also plays a role in our everyday communications and navigation systems. Radio and GPS signals travel through this layer of the atmosphere, or rely on bouncing off the ionosphere to reach their destinations.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Ionosphere:

• It overlaps the mesosphere, thermosphere as well as the exosphere.

• It grows and shrinks depending on the energy it absorbs from the sun.

• It obstructs the daily communications and navigation systems of the Earth.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 1 and 2 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The ionosphere overlaps the mesosphere, thermosphere, and exosphere.

Statement 2 is correct: The ionosphere is a very active part of the atmosphere, and it grows and shrinks depending on the energy it absorbs from the Sun.

The name ionosphere comes from the fact that gases in these layers are excited by solar radiation to form ions, which have an electrical charge.

Statement 3 is not correct: The ionosphere also plays a role in our everyday communications and navigation systems. Radio and GPS signals travel through this layer of the atmosphere, or rely on bouncing off the ionosphere to reach their destinations.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The ionosphere overlaps the mesosphere, thermosphere, and exosphere.

Statement 2 is correct: The ionosphere is a very active part of the atmosphere, and it grows and shrinks depending on the energy it absorbs from the Sun.

The name ionosphere comes from the fact that gases in these layers are excited by solar radiation to form ions, which have an electrical charge.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points The “Project PRAYAS” has been recently launched to – (a) Facilitate orderly and responsible migration and mobility of people. (b) Strengthen interventions for women's security and empowerment. (c) Reduce carbon footprints of thermal power generation in India. (d) Provide seats for scheduled caste students in private residential schools. Correct Answer: A Explanation: Option (a) is correct: To commemorate the International Migrants Day, Project PRAYAS (Promoting Regular & Assisted Migration for Youth and Skilled Professionals) was launched. This International Organisation for Migration (IOM) Development Fund assisted Project envisages development of a roadmap. The project is a joint collaboration between the IOM India and Indian Council of World Affairs (ICWA). Project PRAYAS not only aligns with Government of India’s priorities for the promotion of safe and orderly migration, but also aligns with Goal 10.7 of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) to facilitate orderly, safe, regular, and responsible migration and mobility of people. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Option (a) is correct: To commemorate the International Migrants Day, Project PRAYAS (Promoting Regular & Assisted Migration for Youth and Skilled Professionals) was launched. This International Organisation for Migration (IOM) Development Fund assisted Project envisages development of a roadmap. The project is a joint collaboration between the IOM India and Indian Council of World Affairs (ICWA). Project PRAYAS not only aligns with Government of India’s priorities for the promotion of safe and orderly migration, but also aligns with Goal 10.7 of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) to facilitate orderly, safe, regular, and responsible migration and mobility of people.

#### 5. Question

The “Project PRAYAS” has been recently launched to –

• (a) Facilitate orderly and responsible migration and mobility of people.

• (b) Strengthen interventions for women's security and empowerment.

• (c) Reduce carbon footprints of thermal power generation in India.

• (d) Provide seats for scheduled caste students in private residential schools.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Option (a) is correct: To commemorate the International Migrants Day, Project PRAYAS (Promoting Regular & Assisted Migration for Youth and Skilled Professionals) was launched.

• This International Organisation for Migration (IOM) Development Fund assisted Project envisages development of a roadmap.

• The project is a joint collaboration between the IOM India and Indian Council of World Affairs (ICWA).

• Project PRAYAS not only aligns with Government of India’s priorities for the promotion of safe and orderly migration, but also aligns with Goal 10.7 of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) to facilitate orderly, safe, regular, and responsible migration and mobility of people.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Option (a) is correct: To commemorate the International Migrants Day, Project PRAYAS (Promoting Regular & Assisted Migration for Youth and Skilled Professionals) was launched.

• This International Organisation for Migration (IOM) Development Fund assisted Project envisages development of a roadmap.

• The project is a joint collaboration between the IOM India and Indian Council of World Affairs (ICWA).

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Indian Constitution has prescribed the qualifications of the members of the Election Commission equal to the Judge of the Supreme Court. The Indian Constitution has debarred the retiring election commissioners from further appointment by the government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: D Explanation: Article 324 of the Constitution provides that the power of superintendence, direction and control of elections to parliament, state legislatures, the office of president of India and the office of vice-president of India shall be vested in the election commission. The constitution has sought to safeguard and ensure the independence and impartiality of the Election Commission, some flaws can be noted, viz., Statement 1 is not correct: The Constitution has not prescribed the qualifications (legal, educational, administrative or judicial) of the members of the Election Commission. The Constitution has not specified the term of the members of the Election Commission. Statement 2 is not correct: The Constitution has not debarred the retiring election commissioners from any further appointment by the government. Incorrect Answer: D Explanation: Article 324 of the Constitution provides that the power of superintendence, direction and control of elections to parliament, state legislatures, the office of president of India and the office of vice-president of India shall be vested in the election commission. The constitution has sought to safeguard and ensure the independence and impartiality of the Election Commission, some flaws can be noted, viz., Statement 1 is not correct: The Constitution has not prescribed the qualifications (legal, educational, administrative or judicial) of the members of the Election Commission. The Constitution has not specified the term of the members of the Election Commission. Statement 2 is not correct: The Constitution has not debarred the retiring election commissioners from any further appointment by the government.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Indian Constitution has prescribed the qualifications of the members of the Election Commission equal to the Judge of the Supreme Court.

• The Indian Constitution has debarred the retiring election commissioners from further appointment by the government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Explanation:

Article 324 of the Constitution provides that the power of superintendence, direction and control of elections to parliament, state legislatures, the office of president of India and the office of vice-president of India shall be vested in the election commission.

The constitution has sought to safeguard and ensure the independence and impartiality of the Election Commission, some flaws can be noted, viz.,

Statement 1 is not correct: The Constitution has not prescribed the qualifications (legal, educational, administrative or judicial) of the members of the Election Commission.

The Constitution has not specified the term of the members of the Election Commission.

Statement 2 is not correct: The Constitution has not debarred the retiring election commissioners from any further appointment by the government.

Answer: D

Explanation:

The constitution has sought to safeguard and ensure the independence and impartiality of the Election Commission, some flaws can be noted, viz.,

Statement 1 is not correct: The Constitution has not prescribed the qualifications (legal, educational, administrative or judicial) of the members of the Election Commission.

The Constitution has not specified the term of the members of the Election Commission.

Statement 2 is not correct: The Constitution has not debarred the retiring election commissioners from any further appointment by the government.

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Union Public Service Commission is an independent constitutional body as it has been directly created by the Constitution. The Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission is appointed by the President of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is the central recruiting agency in India. It is an independent constitutional body in the sense that it has been directly created by the Constitution. Articles 315 to 323 in Part XIV of the Constitution contain elaborate provisions regarding the composition, appointment and removal of members along with the independence, powers and functions of the UPSC. Statement 2 is correct: The UPSC consists of a chairman and other members appointed by the president of India. The Constitution, without specifying the strength of the Commission has left the matter to the discretion of the president, who determines its composition. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is the central recruiting agency in India. It is an independent constitutional body in the sense that it has been directly created by the Constitution. Articles 315 to 323 in Part XIV of the Constitution contain elaborate provisions regarding the composition, appointment and removal of members along with the independence, powers and functions of the UPSC. Statement 2 is correct: The UPSC consists of a chairman and other members appointed by the president of India. The Constitution, without specifying the strength of the Commission has left the matter to the discretion of the president, who determines its composition.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Union Public Service Commission is an independent constitutional body as it has been directly created by the Constitution.

• The Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission is appointed by the President of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is the central recruiting agency in India. It is an independent constitutional body in the sense that it has been directly created by the Constitution.

Articles 315 to 323 in Part XIV of the Constitution contain elaborate provisions regarding the composition, appointment and removal of members along with the independence, powers and functions of the UPSC.

Statement 2 is correct: The UPSC consists of a chairman and other members appointed by the president of India.

The Constitution, without specifying the strength of the Commission has left the matter to the discretion of the president, who determines its composition.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 2 is correct: The UPSC consists of a chairman and other members appointed by the president of India.

The Constitution, without specifying the strength of the Commission has left the matter to the discretion of the president, who determines its composition.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the State Public Service Commission (SPSC): The Constitution does not specify the strength of the SPSC but has left the matter entirely to the discretion of the President. Although the members of a SPSC are appointed by the governor, they are removed only by the President. The chairman of a SPSC after having completed his first term is not eligible for reappointment to that office. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: A State Public Service Commission consists of a chairman and other members appointed by the governor of the state. The Constitution does not specify the strength of the Commission but has left the matter to the discretion of the Governor. Statement 2 is correct: Although the chairman and members of a SPSC are appointed by the governor, they can be removed only by the president (and not by the governor). The chairman of a SPSC (on ceasing to hold office) is eligible for appointment as the chairman or a member of the UPSC or as the chairman of any other SPSC, but not for any other employment under the Government of India or a state. Statement 3 is correct: The chairman or a member of a SPSC is (after having completed his first term) not eligible for reappointment to that office (that is, not eligible for second term). Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: A State Public Service Commission consists of a chairman and other members appointed by the governor of the state. The Constitution does not specify the strength of the Commission but has left the matter to the discretion of the Governor. Statement 2 is correct: Although the chairman and members of a SPSC are appointed by the governor, they can be removed only by the president (and not by the governor). The chairman of a SPSC (on ceasing to hold office) is eligible for appointment as the chairman or a member of the UPSC or as the chairman of any other SPSC, but not for any other employment under the Government of India or a state. Statement 3 is correct: The chairman or a member of a SPSC is (after having completed his first term) not eligible for reappointment to that office (that is, not eligible for second term).

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the State Public Service Commission (SPSC):

• The Constitution does not specify the strength of the SPSC but has left the matter entirely to the discretion of the President.

• Although the members of a SPSC are appointed by the governor, they are removed only by the President.

• The chairman of a SPSC after having completed his first term is not eligible for reappointment to that office.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: A State Public Service Commission consists of a chairman and other members appointed by the governor of the state. The Constitution does not specify the strength of the Commission but has left the matter to the discretion of the Governor.

Statement 2 is correct: Although the chairman and members of a SPSC are appointed by the governor, they can be removed only by the president (and not by the governor).

The chairman of a SPSC (on ceasing to hold office) is eligible for appointment as the chairman or a member of the UPSC or as the chairman of any other SPSC, but not for any other employment under the Government of India or a state.

Statement 3 is correct: The chairman or a member of a SPSC is (after having completed his first term) not eligible for reappointment to that office (that is, not eligible for second term).

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 2 is correct: Although the chairman and members of a SPSC are appointed by the governor, they can be removed only by the president (and not by the governor).

Statement 3 is correct: The chairman or a member of a SPSC is (after having completed his first term) not eligible for reappointment to that office (that is, not eligible for second term).

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Joint State Public Service Commission (JSPC): The Indian Constitution has not a provided for the establishment of a JSPC, it is statutory in nature. The chairman and members of a JSPSC are appointed by the president. It can be created by an act of Parliament on the request of the state legislature. How many of the statements given above is/are *not correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: A Explanation: *Statement 1 is not correct: The Constitution makes a provision for the establishment of a Joint State Public Service Commission (JSPSC) for two or more states. Statement 2 is correct: The chairman and members of a JSPSC are appointed by the president. They hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier. They can be suspended or removed by the president. Statement 3 is correct: While the UPSC and the SPSC are created directly by the Constitution, a JSPSC can be created by an act of Parliament on the request of the state legislatures concerned. The two states of Punjab and Haryana had a JSPSC for a short period, after the creation of Haryana out of Punjab in 1966. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: The Constitution makes a provision for the establishment of a Joint State Public Service Commission (JSPSC) for two or more states. Statement 2 is correct: The chairman and members of a JSPSC are appointed by the president. They hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier. They can be suspended or removed by the president. Statement 3 is correct: While the UPSC and the SPSC are created directly by the Constitution, a JSPSC can be created by an act of Parliament on the request of the state legislatures concerned. The two states of Punjab and Haryana had a JSPSC for a short period, after the creation of Haryana out of Punjab in 1966.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Joint State Public Service Commission (JSPC):

• The Indian Constitution has not a provided for the establishment of a JSPC, it is statutory in nature.

• The chairman and members of a JSPSC are appointed by the president.

• It can be created by an act of Parliament on the request of the state legislature.

How many of the statements given above is/are *not* correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: The Constitution makes a provision for the establishment of a Joint State Public Service Commission (JSPSC) for two or more states.

Statement 2 is correct: The chairman and members of a JSPSC are appointed by the president. They hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier. They can be suspended or removed by the president.

Statement 3 is correct: While the UPSC and the SPSC are created directly by the Constitution, a JSPSC can be created by an act of Parliament on the request of the state legislatures concerned.

The two states of Punjab and Haryana had a JSPSC for a short period, after the creation of Haryana out of Punjab in 1966.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: The Constitution makes a provision for the establishment of a Joint State Public Service Commission (JSPSC) for two or more states.

Statement 3 is correct: While the UPSC and the SPSC are created directly by the Constitution, a JSPSC can be created by an act of Parliament on the request of the state legislatures concerned.

The two states of Punjab and Haryana had a JSPSC for a short period, after the creation of Haryana out of Punjab in 1966.

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements on Finance Commission: The Constitution has empowered the Parliament to determine the qualifications of members of the Finance commission and the manner in which they should be selected. The recommendations made by the Finance Commission are only of advisory nature and it is up to the Union government to implement its recommendations. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Constitution authorises the Parliament to determine the qualifications of members of the commission and the manner in which they should be selected. Accordingly, the Parliament has specified the qualifications of the chairman and members of the commission. Statement 2 is correct: It must be clarified here that the recommendations made by the Finance Commission are only of advisory nature and hence, not binding on the government. It is up to the Union government to implement its recommendations on granting money to the states Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Constitution authorises the Parliament to determine the qualifications of members of the commission and the manner in which they should be selected. Accordingly, the Parliament has specified the qualifications of the chairman and members of the commission. Statement 2 is correct: It must be clarified here that the recommendations made by the Finance Commission are only of advisory nature and hence, not binding on the government. It is up to the Union government to implement its recommendations on granting money to the states

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements on Finance Commission:

• The Constitution has empowered the Parliament to determine the qualifications of members of the Finance commission and the manner in which they should be selected.

• The recommendations made by the Finance Commission are only of advisory nature and it is up to the Union government to implement its recommendations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Constitution authorises the Parliament to determine the qualifications of members of the commission and the manner in which they should be selected.

Accordingly, the Parliament has specified the qualifications of the chairman and members of the commission.

Statement 2 is correct: It must be clarified here that the recommendations made by the Finance Commission are only of advisory nature and hence, not binding on the government.

It is up to the Union government to implement its recommendations on granting money to the states

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Constitution authorises the Parliament to determine the qualifications of members of the commission and the manner in which they should be selected.

Accordingly, the Parliament has specified the qualifications of the chairman and members of the commission.

Statement 2 is correct: It must be clarified here that the recommendations made by the Finance Commission are only of advisory nature and hence, not binding on the government.

It is up to the Union government to implement its recommendations on granting money to the states

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Examine the following organizations/bodies in India: The National Commission for Women The State Public Service Commissions The National Human Rights Commission The Inter-State Council How many of the above is/are mentioned in the constitution? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B The National Commission for Women (NCW) is a statutory body established under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990. It is not mentioned in the Constitution of India and thus, is not a constitutional body. The Public Service Commissions, which include the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) at the central level and the State Public Service Commissions at the state level, are constitutional bodies. They are explicitly provided for in the Constitution of India under Article 315 to 323. The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) is not mentioned in the Constitution of India. It was established by an Act of Parliament, specifically, the Protection of Human Rights Act of 1993, and is therefore a statutory body. The Inter-State Council is mentioned under Article 263 of the Constitution of India. The Council is tasked with the duty to inquire into and advise upon disputes between states, as well as investigating and discussing subjects in which some or all of the states, or the Union and one or more of the states, have a common interest. Incorrect Solution: B The National Commission for Women (NCW) is a statutory body established under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990. It is not mentioned in the Constitution of India and thus, is not a constitutional body. The Public Service Commissions, which include the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) at the central level and the State Public Service Commissions at the state level, are constitutional bodies. They are explicitly provided for in the Constitution of India under Article 315 to 323. The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) is not mentioned in the Constitution of India. It was established by an Act of Parliament, specifically, the Protection of Human Rights Act of 1993, and is therefore a statutory body. The Inter-State Council is mentioned under Article 263 of the Constitution of India. The Council is tasked with the duty to inquire into and advise upon disputes between states, as well as investigating and discussing subjects in which some or all of the states, or the Union and one or more of the states, have a common interest.

#### 11. Question

Examine the following organizations/bodies in India:

• The National Commission for Women

• The State Public Service Commissions

• The National Human Rights Commission

• The Inter-State Council

How many of the above is/are mentioned in the constitution?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

The National Commission for Women (NCW) is a statutory body established under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990. It is not mentioned in the Constitution of India and thus, is not a constitutional body.

The Public Service Commissions, which include the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) at the central level and the State Public Service Commissions at the state level, are constitutional bodies. They are explicitly provided for in the Constitution of India under Article 315 to 323.

The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) is not mentioned in the Constitution of India. It was established by an Act of Parliament, specifically, the Protection of Human Rights Act of 1993, and is therefore a statutory body.

The Inter-State Council is mentioned under Article 263 of the Constitution of India. The Council is tasked with the duty to inquire into and advise upon disputes between states, as well as investigating and discussing subjects in which some or all of the states, or the Union and one or more of the states, have a common interest.

Solution: B

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points The ‘Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao’ scheme is implemented by which of the following ministries/bodies? (a) Ministry of Women and Child Development (b) Ministry of Education (c) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (d) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment Correct Solution: A Since coordinated and convergent efforts are needed to ensure survival, protection and empowerment of the girl child, the Government of India launched the *Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) on 22nd January, 2015 at Panipat in Haryana. It was initiated as a tri-ministerial effort of Ministries of Women and Child Development, Health & Family Welfare and Human Resource Development. From 2021-22, the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship and Ministry of Minority Affairs have also been added as partners. However, it is primarily implemented by the Ministry of Women and Child Development. Since 2021-2022, the scheme is subsumed into Mission Shakti – Sambal sub-scheme. Overall Goal Celebrate the Girl Child & Enable her Education The objectives of the Scheme are as under: To prevent gender biased sex selective elimination To ensure survival and protection of the girl child To ensure education and participation of the girl child To increase girl’s participation in the fields of sports Target BBBP scheme aims to achieve the following: Improvement in the Sex Ratio at Birth (SRB) by 2 points every year, Improvement in the percentage of institutional deliveries or sustained at the rate of 95% or above, 1% increase in 1st Trimester ANC Registration per year, and 1% increase in enrolment at secondary education level and skilling of girls/women per year. To check dropout rate among girls at secondary and higher secondary levels. Raising awareness about safe menstrual hygiene management (MHM) https://vikaspedia.in/social-welfare/women-and-child-development/child-development-1/girl-child-welfare/beti-bachao-beti-padhao Incorrect Solution: A Since coordinated and convergent efforts are needed to ensure survival, protection and empowerment of the girl child, the Government of India launched the Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) on 22nd January, 2015 at Panipat in Haryana. It was initiated as a tri-ministerial effort of Ministries of Women and Child Development, Health & Family Welfare and Human Resource Development. From 2021-22, the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship and Ministry of Minority Affairs have also been added as partners. However, it is primarily implemented by the Ministry of Women and Child Development. Since 2021-2022, the scheme is subsumed into Mission Shakti – Sambal sub-scheme. Overall Goal Celebrate the Girl Child & Enable her Education The objectives of the Scheme are as under: To prevent gender biased sex selective elimination To ensure survival and protection of the girl child To ensure education and participation of the girl child To increase girl’s participation in the fields of sports Target* BBBP scheme aims to achieve the following: Improvement in the Sex Ratio at Birth (SRB) by 2 points every year, Improvement in the percentage of institutional deliveries or sustained at the rate of 95% or above, 1% increase in 1st Trimester ANC Registration per year, and 1% increase in enrolment at secondary education level and skilling of girls/women per year. To check dropout rate among girls at secondary and higher secondary levels. Raising awareness about safe menstrual hygiene management (MHM) https://vikaspedia.in/social-welfare/women-and-child-development/child-development-1/girl-child-welfare/beti-bachao-beti-padhao

#### 12. Question

The ‘Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao’ scheme is implemented by which of the following ministries/bodies?

• (a) Ministry of Women and Child Development

• (b) Ministry of Education

• (c) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

• (d) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment

Solution: A

Since coordinated and convergent efforts are needed to ensure survival, protection and empowerment of the girl child, the Government of India launched the *Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP)* on 22nd January, 2015 at Panipat in Haryana. It was initiated as a tri-ministerial effort of Ministries of Women and Child Development, Health & Family Welfare and Human Resource Development. From 2021-22, the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship and Ministry of Minority Affairs have also been added as partners.

However, it is primarily implemented by the Ministry of Women and Child Development.

Since 2021-2022, the scheme is subsumed into Mission Shakti – Sambal sub-scheme.

Overall Goal

Celebrate the Girl Child & Enable her Education

The objectives of the Scheme are as under:

• To prevent gender biased sex selective elimination

• To ensure survival and protection of the girl child

• To ensure education and participation of the girl child

• To increase girl’s participation in the fields of sports

Target

BBBP scheme aims to achieve the following:

• Improvement in the Sex Ratio at Birth (SRB) by 2 points every year,

• Improvement in the percentage of institutional deliveries or sustained at the rate of 95% or above,

• 1% increase in 1st Trimester ANC Registration per year, and

• 1% increase in enrolment at secondary education level and skilling of girls/women per year.

• To check dropout rate among girls at secondary and higher secondary levels.

• Raising awareness about safe menstrual hygiene management (MHM)

https://vikaspedia.in/social-welfare/women-and-child-development/child-development-1/girl-child-welfare/beti-bachao-beti-padhao

Solution: A

However, it is primarily implemented by the Ministry of Women and Child Development.

Since 2021-2022, the scheme is subsumed into Mission Shakti – Sambal sub-scheme.

Overall Goal

Celebrate the Girl Child & Enable her Education

The objectives of the Scheme are as under:

• To prevent gender biased sex selective elimination

• To ensure survival and protection of the girl child

• To ensure education and participation of the girl child

• To increase girl’s participation in the fields of sports

Target

BBBP scheme aims to achieve the following:

• Improvement in the Sex Ratio at Birth (SRB) by 2 points every year,

• Improvement in the percentage of institutional deliveries or sustained at the rate of 95% or above,

• 1% increase in 1st Trimester ANC Registration per year, and

• 1% increase in enrolment at secondary education level and skilling of girls/women per year.

• To check dropout rate among girls at secondary and higher secondary levels.

• Raising awareness about safe menstrual hygiene management (MHM)

https://vikaspedia.in/social-welfare/women-and-child-development/child-development-1/girl-child-welfare/beti-bachao-beti-padhao

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Which one of the following statements regarding the Central Information Commission is *not correct? (a) The Central Information Commission has been conferred the status of a civil court under the Right to Information Act. (b) The Central Information Commission may advise the government on any matters concerning the Right to Information Act, including formulation of its rules and implementation of the RTI Act across public authorities. (c) The decisions of the Central Information Commission are final and cannot be appealed in any court of law. (d) The Central Information Commission submits an annual report to the Central Government on the implementation of the provisions of the Right to Information Act. Correct Solution: C The Central Information Commission (CIC) is a statutory body in India established under the Right to Information Act (RTI), 2005. Its role is to act as an appellate body in case of non-fulfilment of information requests or to adjudicate on matters related to the RTI Act. Under Section 18 of the RTI Act, the CIC has the same powers as a civil court while trying a suit under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, in respect of summoning and enforcing the attendance of persons, requiring the discovery and inspection of documents, receiving evidence on affidavits, and requisitioning any public record or copies from any court or office. While public authorities may consult the CIC for guidance or recommendations, there is no provision under the RTI Act that obliges every public authority to consult the Commission while formulating policies on matters concerning RTI. The decisions of the CIC are not beyond the scope of judicial review. Aggrieved parties can appeal against the decision of the CIC in the High Court under Articles 226 and 227 of the Constitution of India and further to the Supreme Court under Article 32 of the Constitution of India. As per Section 25 of the RTI Act, the CIC is required to prepare a report each year on the implementation of the provisions of the RTI Act and submit it to the Central Government. The annual report covers the number of requests made to each authority, the number of decisions where applicants were not entitled to access the documents requested, the provisions of the act under which these decisions were made, and several other important aspects. Incorrect Solution: C The Central Information Commission (CIC) is a statutory body in India established under the Right to Information Act (RTI), 2005. Its role is to act as an appellate body in case of non-fulfilment of information requests or to adjudicate on matters related to the RTI Act. Under Section 18 of the RTI Act, the CIC has the same powers as a civil court while trying a suit under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, in respect of summoning and enforcing the attendance of persons, requiring the discovery and inspection of documents, receiving evidence on affidavits, and requisitioning any public record or copies from any court or office. While public authorities may consult the CIC for guidance or recommendations, there is no provision under the RTI Act that obliges every public authority to consult the Commission while formulating policies on matters concerning RTI. The decisions of the CIC are not beyond the scope of judicial review. Aggrieved parties can appeal against the decision of the CIC in the High Court under Articles 226 and 227 of the Constitution of India and further to the Supreme Court under Article 32 of the Constitution of India. As per Section 25 of the RTI Act, the CIC is required to prepare a report each year on the implementation of the provisions of the RTI Act and submit it to the Central Government. The annual report covers the number of requests made to each authority, the number of decisions* where applicants were not entitled to access the documents requested, the provisions of the act under which these decisions were made, and several other important aspects.

#### 13. Question

Which one of the following statements regarding the Central Information Commission is *not* correct?

• (a) The Central Information Commission has been conferred the status of a civil court under the Right to Information Act.

• (b) The Central Information Commission may advise the government on any matters concerning the Right to Information Act, including formulation of its rules and implementation of the RTI Act across public authorities.

• (c) The decisions of the Central Information Commission are final and cannot be appealed in any court of law.

• (d) The Central Information Commission submits an annual report to the Central Government on the implementation of the provisions of the Right to Information Act.

Solution: C

The Central Information Commission (CIC) is a statutory body in India established under the Right to Information Act (RTI), 2005. Its role is to act as an appellate body in case of non-fulfilment of information requests or to adjudicate on matters related to the RTI Act.

Under Section 18 of the RTI Act, the CIC has the same powers as a civil court while trying a suit under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, in respect of summoning and enforcing the attendance of persons, requiring the discovery and inspection of documents, receiving evidence on affidavits, and requisitioning any public record or copies from any court or office.

While public authorities may consult the CIC for guidance or recommendations, there is no provision under the RTI Act that obliges every public authority to consult the Commission while formulating policies on matters concerning RTI.

The decisions of the CIC are not beyond the scope of judicial review. Aggrieved parties can appeal against the decision of the CIC in the High Court under Articles 226 and 227 of the Constitution of India and further to the Supreme Court under Article 32 of the Constitution of India.

As per Section 25 of the RTI Act, the CIC is required to prepare a report each year on the implementation of the provisions of the RTI Act and submit it to the Central Government. The annual report covers the number of requests made to each authority, the number of decisions where applicants were not entitled to access the documents requested, the provisions of the act under which these decisions were made, and several other important aspects.

Solution: C

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Who among the following is the chairman of the Monetary Policy Committee of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)? (a) The Governor of the RBI (b) The Finance Secretary of India (c) The Deputy Governor of the RBI, in charge of Monetary Policy (d) A representative of the Indian Statistical Institute Correct Solution: A The composition of the current monetary policy committee is as follows: Governor of the Reserve Bank of India – Chairperson, ex officio – Shaktikanta Das. Deputy Governor of the Bank in charge of monetary policy – Michael Debrata Patra. Executive Director of the Bank in charge of monetary policy – Rajiv Ranjan. Incorrect Solution: A The composition of the current monetary policy committee is as follows: Governor of the Reserve Bank of India – Chairperson, ex officio – Shaktikanta Das. Deputy Governor of the Bank in charge of monetary policy – Michael Debrata Patra. Executive Director of the Bank in charge of monetary policy – Rajiv Ranjan.

#### 14. Question

Who among the following is the chairman of the Monetary Policy Committee of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?

• (a) The Governor of the RBI

• (b) The Finance Secretary of India

• (c) The Deputy Governor of the RBI, in charge of Monetary Policy

• (d) A representative of the Indian Statistical Institute

Solution: A

The composition of the current monetary policy committee is as follows: Governor of the Reserve Bank of India – Chairperson, ex officio – Shaktikanta Das. Deputy Governor of the Bank in charge of monetary policy – Michael Debrata Patra. Executive Director of the Bank in charge of monetary policy – Rajiv Ranjan.

Solution: A

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points The Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) operates under which of the following? (a) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (b) Ministry of Communications (c) Ministry of Home Affairs (d) NITI Aayog Correct Solution: A The Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) is a statutory authority established under the provisions of the Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016 (“Aadhaar Act 2016”) on 12 July 2016 by the Government of India, under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). The Aadhaar Act 2016 has been amended by the Aadhaar and Other Laws (Amendment) Act, 2019 (14 of 2019) w.e.f. 25.07.2019. UIDAI was created to issue Unique Identification numbers (UID), named as “Aadhaar”, to all residents of India. The UID had to be (a) robust enough to eliminate duplicate and fake identities, and (b) verifiable and authenticable in an easy, cost-effective way. As on 29th September 2023, the Authority has generated 138.08 crore Aadhaar numbers to the residents of India. Under the Aadhaar Act 2016, UIDAI is responsible for Aadhaar enrolment and authentication, including operation and management of all stages of Aadhaar life cycle, developing the policy, procedure, and system for issuing Aadhaar numbers to individuals and perform authentication and the security of identity information and authentication records of individuals. https://uidai.gov.in/en/about-uidai/unique-identification-authority-of-india.html Incorrect Solution: A The Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) is a statutory authority established under the provisions of the Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016 (“Aadhaar Act 2016”) on 12 July 2016 by the Government of India, under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). The Aadhaar Act 2016 has been amended by the Aadhaar and Other Laws (Amendment) Act, 2019 (14 of 2019) w.e.f. 25.07.2019. UIDAI was created to issue Unique Identification numbers (UID), named as “Aadhaar”, to all residents of India. The UID had to be (a) robust enough to eliminate duplicate and fake identities, and (b) verifiable and authenticable in an easy, cost-effective way. As on 29th September 2023, the Authority has generated 138.08 crore Aadhaar numbers to the residents of India. Under the Aadhaar Act 2016, UIDAI is responsible for Aadhaar enrolment and authentication, including operation and management of all stages of Aadhaar life cycle, developing the policy, procedure, and system for issuing Aadhaar numbers to individuals and perform authentication and the security of identity information and authentication records of individuals. https://uidai.gov.in/en/about-uidai/unique-identification-authority-of-india.html

#### 15. Question

The Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) operates under which of the following?

• (a) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology

• (b) Ministry of Communications

• (c) Ministry of Home Affairs

• (d) NITI Aayog

Solution: A

The Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) is a statutory authority established under the provisions of the Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016 (“Aadhaar Act 2016”) on 12 July 2016 by the Government of India, under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). The Aadhaar Act 2016 has been amended by the Aadhaar and Other Laws (Amendment) Act, 2019 (14 of 2019) w.e.f. 25.07.2019.

UIDAI was created to issue Unique Identification numbers (UID), named as “Aadhaar”, to all residents of India. The UID had to be (a) robust enough to eliminate duplicate and fake identities, and (b) verifiable and authenticable in an easy, cost-effective way. As on 29th September 2023, the Authority has generated 138.08 crore Aadhaar numbers to the residents of India.

Under the Aadhaar Act 2016, UIDAI is responsible for Aadhaar enrolment and authentication, including operation and management of all stages of Aadhaar life cycle, developing the policy, procedure, and system for issuing Aadhaar numbers to individuals and perform authentication and the security of identity information and authentication records of individuals.

https://uidai.gov.in/en/about-uidai/unique-identification-authority-of-india.html

Solution: A

https://uidai.gov.in/en/about-uidai/unique-identification-authority-of-india.html

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points With reference to Comptroller and Auditor General of India, consider the following statements: He does not audit the accounts related to expenditures from the consolidated fund of union territories having a Legislative Assembly. He is not eligible for further office either under the Government of India or of any state after he ceases to hold his office. He can be removed by the President on same grounds and in the same manner as a judge of the Supreme Court. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: The Constitution (Article 149) authorises the Parliament to prescribe the duties and powers of the CAG in relation to the accounts of the Union and of the states and of any other authority or body. The duties and functions of the CAG as laid down by the Parliament and the Constitution are: Statement 1 is not correct: He audits the accounts related to all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India, consolidated fund of each state and consolidated fund of each union territory having a Legislative Assembly. He audits all expenditure from the Contingency Fund of India and the Public Account of India as well as the contingency fund of each state and the public account of each state. Statement 2 is correct: He is not eligible for further office, either under the Government of India or of any state, after he ceases to hold his office. He holds office for a period of six years or upto the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. He can resign any time from his office by addressing the resignation letter to the president. Statement 3 is correct: He can also be removed by the president on same grounds and in the same manner as a judge of the Supreme Court. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: The Constitution (Article 149) authorises the Parliament to prescribe the duties and powers of the CAG in relation to the accounts of the Union and of the states and of any other authority or body. The duties and functions of the CAG as laid down by the Parliament and the Constitution are: Statement 1 is not correct: He audits the accounts related to all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India, consolidated fund of each state and consolidated fund of each union territory having a Legislative Assembly. He audits all expenditure from the Contingency Fund of India and the Public Account of India as well as the contingency fund of each state and the public account of each state. Statement 2 is correct: He is not eligible for further office, either under the Government of India or of any state, after he ceases to hold his office. He holds office for a period of six years or upto the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. He can resign any time from his office by addressing the resignation letter to the president. Statement 3 is correct: He can also be removed by the president on same grounds and in the same manner as a judge of the Supreme Court.

#### 16. Question

With reference to Comptroller and Auditor General of India, consider the following statements:

• He does not audit the accounts related to expenditures from the consolidated fund of union territories having a Legislative Assembly.

• He is not eligible for further office either under the Government of India or of any state after he ceases to hold his office.

• He can be removed by the President on same grounds and in the same manner as a judge of the Supreme Court.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

The Constitution (Article 149) authorises the Parliament to prescribe the duties and powers of the CAG in relation to the accounts of the Union and of the states and of any other authority or body.

The duties and functions of the CAG as laid down by the Parliament and the Constitution are:

• Statement 1 is not correct: He audits the accounts related to all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India, consolidated fund of each state and consolidated fund of each union territory having a Legislative Assembly.

• He audits all expenditure from the Contingency Fund of India and the Public Account of India as well as the contingency fund of each state and the public account of each state.

Statement 2 is correct: He is not eligible for further office, either under the Government of India or of any state, after he ceases to hold his office.

He holds office for a period of six years or upto the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. He can resign any time from his office by addressing the resignation letter to the president.

Statement 3 is correct: He can also be removed by the president on same grounds and in the same manner as a judge of the Supreme Court.

Answer: B

Explanation:

The Constitution (Article 149) authorises the Parliament to prescribe the duties and powers of the CAG in relation to the accounts of the Union and of the states and of any other authority or body.

The duties and functions of the CAG as laid down by the Parliament and the Constitution are:

• He audits all expenditure from the Contingency Fund of India and the Public Account of India as well as the contingency fund of each state and the public account of each state.

Statement 2 is correct: He is not eligible for further office, either under the Government of India or of any state, after he ceases to hold his office.

He holds office for a period of six years or upto the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. He can resign any time from his office by addressing the resignation letter to the president.

Statement 3 is correct: He can also be removed by the president on same grounds and in the same manner as a judge of the Supreme Court.

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Constitution of India originally did not make any provision with respect to the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities. The Constitution of India does not specify the qualifications and procedure for removal of the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Originally, the Constitution of India did not make any provision with respect to the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities. Later, the States Reorganisation Commission (1953-55) made a recommendation in this regard. Accordingly, the Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 inserted a new Article 350-B in Part XVII of the Constitution Statement 2 is correct: It must be noted here that the Constitution does not specify the qualifications, tenure, salaries and allowances, service conditions and procedure for removal of the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Originally, the Constitution of India did not make any provision with respect to the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities. Later, the States Reorganisation Commission (1953-55) made a recommendation in this regard. Accordingly, the Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 inserted a new Article 350-B in Part XVII of the Constitution Statement 2 is correct: It must be noted here that the Constitution does not specify the qualifications, tenure, salaries and allowances, service conditions and procedure for removal of the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities.

#### 17. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Constitution of India originally did not make any provision with respect to the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities.

• The Constitution of India does not specify the qualifications and procedure for removal of the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Originally, the Constitution of India did not make any provision with respect to the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities.

Later, the States Reorganisation Commission (1953-55) made a recommendation in this regard. Accordingly, the Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 inserted a new Article 350-B in Part XVII of the Constitution

Statement 2 is correct: It must be noted here that the Constitution does not specify the qualifications, tenure, salaries and allowances, service conditions and procedure for removal of the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Originally, the Constitution of India did not make any provision with respect to the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities.

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following statements on the Attorney General (AG) of India: Is appointed by the president and must be a person qualified to be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court. He receives such remuneration as determined by the Parliament. Has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of Parliament and their joint sitting. How many of the statements given above is/are *not correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Attorney General (AG) is appointed by the president. He must be a person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court. Statement 2 is not correct: The remuneration of the AG is not fixed by the Constitution. He receives such remuneration as the president may determine. The term of office of the AG is not fixed by the Constitution. Further, the Constitution does not contain the procedure and grounds for his removal. He holds office during the pleasure of the president. In the performance of his official duties, the Attorney General has the right of audience in all courts in the territory of India. Statement 3 is correct: Further, he has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which he may be named a member, but without a right to vote. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Attorney General (AG) is appointed by the president. He must be a person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court. Statement 2 is not correct: The remuneration of the AG is not fixed by the Constitution. He receives such remuneration as the president may determine. The term of office of the AG is not fixed by the Constitution. Further, the Constitution does not contain the procedure and grounds for his removal. He holds office during the pleasure of the president. In the performance of his official duties, the Attorney General has the right of audience in all courts in the territory of India. Statement 3 is correct:* Further, he has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which he may be named a member, but without a right to vote.

#### 18. Question

Consider the following statements on the Attorney General (AG) of India:

• Is appointed by the president and must be a person qualified to be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court.

• He receives such remuneration as determined by the Parliament.

• Has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of Parliament and their joint sitting.

How many of the statements given above is/are *not* correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Attorney General (AG) is appointed by the president. He must be a person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court.

Statement 2 is not correct: The remuneration of the AG is not fixed by the Constitution. He receives such remuneration as the president may determine.

The term of office of the AG is not fixed by the Constitution. Further, the Constitution does not contain the procedure and grounds for his removal. He holds office during the pleasure of the president.

In the performance of his official duties, the Attorney General has the right of audience in all courts in the territory of India.

Statement 3 is correct: Further, he has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which he may be named a member, but without a right to vote.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Attorney General (AG) is appointed by the president. He must be a person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court.

Statement 2 is not correct: The remuneration of the AG is not fixed by the Constitution. He receives such remuneration as the president may determine.

In the performance of his official duties, the Attorney General has the right of audience in all courts in the territory of India.

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Chief Information Commissioner is appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee consisting of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. The Chief Information Commissioner holds office for a term of 5 years or until they attain the age of 62 years and are not eligible for the reappointment. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: D Explanation: The Commission consists of a Chief Information Commissioner and not more than ten Information Commissioners. Statement 1 is not correct: They are appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee consisting of the Prime Minister as Chairperson, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister Statement 2 is not correct: The Chief Information Commissioner and an Information Commissioner hold office for a term of 5 years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. They are not eligible for reappointment. Incorrect Answer: D Explanation: The Commission consists of a Chief Information Commissioner and not more than ten Information Commissioners. Statement 1 is not correct: They are appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee consisting of the Prime Minister as Chairperson, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister Statement 2 is not correct: The Chief Information Commissioner and an Information Commissioner hold office for a term of 5 years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. They are not eligible for reappointment.

#### 19. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Chief Information Commissioner is appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee consisting of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

• The Chief Information Commissioner holds office for a term of 5 years or until they attain the age of 62 years and are not eligible for the reappointment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Explanation:

The Commission consists of a Chief Information Commissioner and not more than ten Information Commissioners.

Statement 1 is not correct: They are appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee consisting of the Prime Minister as Chairperson, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister

Statement 2 is not correct: The Chief Information Commissioner and an Information Commissioner hold office for a term of 5 years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. They are not eligible for reappointment.

Answer: D

Explanation:

The Commission consists of a Chief Information Commissioner and not more than ten Information Commissioners.

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Central Vigilance Commission: It was established by an executive resolution of the Central government. Its establishment was recommended by the Santhanam Committee. Its jurisdiction extends to the officers of rank of Scale V in Public Sector Banks. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: C Explanation: The Central Vigilance Commission he Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) is the main agency for preventing corruption in the Central government. Statement 1 is correct: It was established in 1964 by an executive resolution of the Central government. Statement 2 is correct: Its establishment was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption (1962–64). Thus, originally the CVC was neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body. Later, in 2003, the Parliament enacted a law conferring statutory status on the CVC. Statement 3 is correct: The jurisdiction of the CVC extends to the- Members of All India Services serving in connection with the affairs of the Union and Group A officers of the Central Government. Officers of the rank of Scale V and above in the Public Sector Banks. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: The Central Vigilance Commission he Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) is the main agency for preventing corruption in the Central government. Statement 1 is correct: It was established in 1964 by an executive resolution of the Central government. Statement 2 is correct: Its establishment was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption (1962–64). Thus, originally the CVC was neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body. Later, in 2003, the Parliament enacted a law conferring statutory status on the CVC. Statement 3 is correct: The jurisdiction of the CVC extends to the- Members of All India Services serving in connection with the affairs of the Union and Group A officers of the Central Government. Officers of the rank of Scale V and above in the Public Sector Banks.

#### 20. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Central Vigilance Commission:

• It was established by an executive resolution of the Central government.

• Its establishment was recommended by the Santhanam Committee.

• Its jurisdiction extends to the officers of rank of Scale V in Public Sector Banks.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: C

Explanation:

The Central Vigilance Commission he Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) is the main agency for preventing corruption in the Central government.

Statement 1 is correct: It was established in 1964 by an executive resolution of the Central government.

Statement 2 is correct: Its establishment was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption (1962–64).

Thus, originally the CVC was neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body. Later, in 2003, the Parliament enacted a law conferring statutory status on the CVC.

Statement 3 is correct: The jurisdiction of the CVC extends to the-

• Members of All India Services serving in connection with the affairs of the Union and Group A officers of the Central Government.

• Officers of the rank of Scale V and above in the Public Sector Banks.

Answer: C

Explanation:

The Central Vigilance Commission he Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) is the main agency for preventing corruption in the Central government.

Statement 1 is correct: It was established in 1964 by an executive resolution of the Central government.

Statement 2 is correct: Its establishment was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption (1962–64).

Thus, originally the CVC was neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body. Later, in 2003, the Parliament enacted a law conferring statutory status on the CVC.

Statement 3 is correct: The jurisdiction of the CVC extends to the-

• Members of All India Services serving in connection with the affairs of the Union and Group A officers of the Central Government.

• Officers of the rank of Scale V and above in the Public Sector Banks.

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Biofortified seeds are bred varieties that a) aim to enhance nutritional content without adverse effects on soil and water ecology b) are grown without the use of chemical fertilisers c) are certified to be used only in fortified and processed foods d) all of the above Correct Solution: a) Justification: The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) has developed 142 biofortified seed varieties, including 124 for field crops and 18 for horticultural crops, since 2014. These varieties cover a range of crops, such as rice, wheat, maize, pearl millet, sweet potato, amaranthus, and more. The biofortified varieties developed by ICAR have demonstrated equal or better yields compared to conventional varieties, with no added cultivation costs. Biofortified seeds are bred varieties that aim to enhance nutritional content without adverse effects on soil and water ecology. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Incorrect Solution: a) Justification: The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) has developed 142 biofortified seed varieties, including 124 for field crops and 18 for horticultural crops, since 2014. These varieties cover a range of crops, such as rice, wheat, maize, pearl millet, sweet potato, amaranthus, and more. The biofortified varieties developed by ICAR have demonstrated equal or better yields compared to conventional varieties, with no added cultivation costs. Biofortified seeds are bred varieties that aim to enhance nutritional content without adverse effects on soil and water ecology. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

#### 21. Question

Biofortified seeds are bred varieties that

• a) aim to enhance nutritional content without adverse effects on soil and water ecology

• b) are grown without the use of chemical fertilisers

• c) are certified to be used only in fortified and processed foods

• d) all of the above

Solution: a)

Justification: The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) has developed 142 biofortified seed varieties, including 124 for field crops and 18 for horticultural crops, since 2014.

• These varieties cover a range of crops, such as rice, wheat, maize, pearl millet, sweet potato, amaranthus, and more.

• The biofortified varieties developed by ICAR have demonstrated equal or better yields compared to conventional varieties, with no added cultivation costs. Biofortified seeds are bred varieties that aim to enhance nutritional content without adverse effects on soil and water ecology.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Solution: a)

Justification: The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) has developed 142 biofortified seed varieties, including 124 for field crops and 18 for horticultural crops, since 2014.

• These varieties cover a range of crops, such as rice, wheat, maize, pearl millet, sweet potato, amaranthus, and more.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Migratory species play a crucial role in ecosystems, offering essential services that mitigate climate change impacts and enhance resilience to climatic hazards. Some such examples include whales aiding nutrient transfer across the ocean antelopes reducing wildlife risks through grazing across large swathes of forest grazing by sea dugong helps maintain clonal richness and genetic diversity in seagrasses How many of the statements above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: c) Justification: Migratory species play a crucial role in ecosystems, offering essential services that mitigate climate change impacts and enhance resilience to climatic hazards. Examples include whales aiding nutrient transfer and storing carbon, and antelopes reducing wildfire risks through grazing. Climate change poses severe threats to migratory species, impacting their habitats, migration patterns, and reproductive success. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: Migratory species play a crucial role in ecosystems, offering essential services that mitigate climate change impacts and enhance resilience to climatic hazards. Examples include whales aiding nutrient transfer and storing carbon, and antelopes reducing wildfire risks through grazing. Climate change poses severe threats to migratory species, impacting their habitats, migration patterns, and reproductive success. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

#### 22. Question

Migratory species play a crucial role in ecosystems, offering essential services that mitigate climate change impacts and enhance resilience to climatic hazards. Some such examples include

• whales aiding nutrient transfer across the ocean

• antelopes reducing wildlife risks through grazing across large swathes of forest

• grazing by sea dugong helps maintain clonal richness and genetic diversity in seagrasses

How many of the statements above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: c)

Justification: Migratory species play a crucial role in ecosystems, offering essential services that mitigate climate change impacts and enhance resilience to climatic hazards. Examples include whales aiding nutrient transfer and storing carbon, and antelopes reducing wildfire risks through grazing. Climate change poses severe threats to migratory species, impacting their habitats, migration patterns, and reproductive success.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Solution: c)

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points The Convention on Migratory Species (CMS) is an environmental treaty of the United Nations (UNEP provides support) that provides a global platform for the conservation and sustainable use of which of these types of migratory animals? Terrestrial Aquatic Avian How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: c) Learning: The Convention on Migratory Species (CMS) (enforced since 1983; HQ: Bonn (Germany), also known as the Bonn Convention, is an environmental treaty of the United Nations (UNEP provides support) that provides a global platform for the conservation and sustainable use of terrestrial, aquatic and avian migratory animals and their habitats. It has 133 members including India. It consists of two appendices: Appendix I (migratory species that are in danger of extinction) and Appendix II (Migratory species that will benefit from conservation). Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Incorrect Solution: c) Learning: The Convention on Migratory Species (CMS) (enforced since 1983; HQ: Bonn (Germany), also known as the Bonn Convention, is an environmental treaty of the United Nations (UNEP provides support) that provides a global platform for the conservation and sustainable use of terrestrial, aquatic and avian migratory animals and their habitats. It has 133 members including India. It consists of two appendices: Appendix I (migratory species that are in danger of extinction) and Appendix II (Migratory species that will benefit from conservation). Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

#### 23. Question

The Convention on Migratory Species (CMS) is an environmental treaty of the United Nations (UNEP provides support) that provides a global platform for the conservation and sustainable use of which of these types of migratory animals?

• Terrestrial

How many of the above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: c)

Learning: The Convention on Migratory Species (CMS) (enforced since 1983; HQ: Bonn (Germany), also known as the Bonn Convention, is an environmental treaty of the United Nations (UNEP provides support) that provides a global platform for the conservation and sustainable use of terrestrial, aquatic and avian migratory animals and their habitats.

It has 133 members including India. It consists of two appendices: Appendix I (migratory species that are in danger of extinction) and Appendix II (Migratory species that will benefit from conservation).

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Solution: c)

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Tax Inspectors Without Borders (TIWB) program is a collaborative effort between the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD). TWIB focuses on the effective use of automatic exchange of information under the Common Reporting Standard (CRS) framework, that is currently restricted to only countries in the European Union and North America. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: a) Justification: Tax Inspectors Without Borders (TIWB) program, a collaborative effort between the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD), was recently launched in Saint Lucia. India has been selected as the Partner Administration and will contribute Tax Experts to the 12-18-month initiative. This marks the seventh TIWB program supported by India through the provision of Tax Experts. The program’s focus is on the effective use of automatic exchange of information under the Common Reporting Standard (CRS) framework. TIWA will facilitate the transfer of tax audit knowledge and skills to developing country tax administrations using a practical, “learning by doing” approach. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Incorrect Solution: a) Justification: Tax Inspectors Without Borders (TIWB) program, a collaborative effort between the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD), was recently launched in Saint Lucia. India has been selected as the Partner Administration and will contribute Tax Experts to the 12-18-month initiative. This marks the seventh TIWB program supported by India through the provision of Tax Experts. The program’s focus is on the effective use of automatic exchange of information under the Common Reporting Standard (CRS) framework. TIWA will facilitate the transfer of tax audit knowledge and skills to developing country tax administrations using a practical, “learning by doing” approach. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

#### 24. Question

Consider the following statements.

• Tax Inspectors Without Borders (TIWB) program is a collaborative effort between the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD).

• TWIB focuses on the effective use of automatic exchange of information under the Common Reporting Standard (CRS) framework, that is currently restricted to only countries in the European Union and North America.

Which of the above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a)

Justification: Tax Inspectors Without Borders (TIWB) program, a collaborative effort between the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD), was recently launched in Saint Lucia. India has been selected as the Partner Administration and will contribute Tax Experts to the 12-18-month initiative. This marks the seventh TIWB program supported by India through the provision of Tax Experts.

The program’s focus is on the effective use of automatic exchange of information under the Common Reporting Standard (CRS) framework. TIWA will facilitate the transfer of tax audit knowledge and skills to developing country tax administrations using a practical, “learning by doing” approach.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Solution: a)

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points The Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) Notification, 2019 was promulgated under which of these acts? a) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 b) Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 c) Biological Diversity Act, 2002 d) The Maritime Zones of India, 1981 Correct Solution: a) Justification: It was promulgated under the Environment (Protection) Act 1986, focusing on conservation and management plans of Ecologically Sensitive Areas (ESAs) like Mangroves, Seagrasses, Sand dunes, Corals, Coral reefs, Turtle nesting grounds, etc. CRZ aims to strike a balance between economic growth and environmental conservation. By implementing CRZ, countries can safeguard fragile ecosystems. CRZ marks a zone around the coast to preserve shorelines along the banks of streams, estuaries, backwaters, and rivers vulnerable to tidal variations. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Incorrect Solution: a) Justification: It was promulgated under the Environment (Protection) Act 1986, focusing on conservation and management plans of Ecologically Sensitive Areas (ESAs) like Mangroves, Seagrasses, Sand dunes, Corals, Coral reefs, Turtle nesting grounds, etc. CRZ aims to strike a balance between economic growth and environmental conservation. By implementing CRZ, countries can safeguard fragile ecosystems. CRZ marks a zone around the coast to preserve shorelines along the banks of streams, estuaries, backwaters, and rivers vulnerable to tidal variations. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

#### 25. Question

The Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) Notification, 2019 was promulgated under which of these acts?

• a) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986

• b) Wildlife Protection Act, 1972

• c) Biological Diversity Act, 2002

• d) The Maritime Zones of India, 1981

Solution: a)

Justification: It was promulgated under the Environment (Protection) Act 1986, focusing on conservation and management plans of Ecologically Sensitive Areas (ESAs) like Mangroves, Seagrasses, Sand dunes, Corals, Coral reefs, Turtle nesting grounds, etc.

CRZ aims to strike a balance between economic growth and environmental conservation. By implementing CRZ, countries can safeguard fragile ecosystems.

CRZ marks a zone around the coast to preserve shorelines along the banks of streams, estuaries, backwaters, and rivers vulnerable to tidal variations.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Solution: a)

CRZ aims to strike a balance between economic growth and environmental conservation. By implementing CRZ, countries can safeguard fragile ecosystems.

CRZ marks a zone around the coast to preserve shorelines along the banks of streams, estuaries, backwaters, and rivers vulnerable to tidal variations.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points The LCM for two prime numbers x and y, (x > y) is 161. The value of (3y – x) : (A) –2 (B) –1 (C) 1 (D) 2 Correct ANSWER A) -2 LCM of x and y = 161 xy = 23 × 7 x = 23; y = 7 3y – x = 3 × 7 – 23 = 21 – 23 = – 2 Incorrect ANSWER A) -2 LCM of x and y = 161 xy = 23 × 7 x = 23; y = 7 3y – x = 3 × 7 – 23 = 21 – 23 = – 2

#### 26. Question

The LCM for two prime numbers x and y, (x > y) is 161. The value of (3y – x) :

ANSWER A) -2

LCM of x and y = 161

xy = 23 × 7

x = 23; y = 7

3y – x = 3 × 7 – 23

= 21 – 23 = – 2

ANSWER A) -2

LCM of x and y = 161

xy = 23 × 7

x = 23; y = 7

3y – x = 3 × 7 – 23

= 21 – 23 = – 2

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points Three electronic devices make a beep after every 48 seconds, 72 seconds and 108 seconds respectively. They beeped together at 10 a.m. The time when they will next make a beep together at the earliest is (A) 10 : 07 : 12 hours (B) 10 : 07 : 24 hours (C) 10 : 07 : 36 hours (D) 10 : 07 : 48 hours Correct ANSWER A) 10 : 07 : 12 hours Required time = LCM of 48, 72 and 108 seconds LCM = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 × 3 = 432 seconds = 7 minutes 12 second Required time = 10 : 07 : 12 hours Incorrect ANSWER A) 10 : 07 : 12 hours Required time = LCM of 48, 72 and 108 seconds LCM = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 × 3 = 432 seconds = 7 minutes 12 second Required time = 10 : 07 : 12 hours

#### 27. Question

Three electronic devices make a beep after every 48 seconds, 72 seconds and 108 seconds respectively. They beeped together at 10 a.m. The time when they will next make a beep together at the earliest is

• (A) 10 : 07 : 12 hours

• (B) 10 : 07 : 24 hours

• (C) 10 : 07 : 36 hours

• (D) 10 : 07 : 48 hours

ANSWER A) 10 : 07 : 12 hours

Required time = LCM of 48, 72 and 108 seconds

LCM = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 × 3

= 432 seconds

= 7 minutes 12 second

Required time = 10 : 07 : 12 hours

ANSWER A) 10 : 07 : 12 hours

Required time = LCM of 48, 72 and 108 seconds

LCM = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 × 3

= 432 seconds

= 7 minutes 12 second

Required time = 10 : 07 : 12 hours

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points Do high levels of GDP necessarily correspond with high levels of development? Not necessarily. Certainly, statistics reveal that the most developed countries are those with the highest GDP per capita. Clearly, though, GDP per capita doesn’t tell the whole story. GDP per capita is calculated by dividing GDP by the population. Growth in GDP per capita could result from growth in the incomes of richer groups in society, with incomes of poorer groups remaining largely unchanged. The relationship between economic growth and poverty is a hotly debated topic, about which people are very divided. Some people highlight the negative effect of growth on low income groups, stressing the need for new approaches to economic development that will allow the poor to benefit more from economic growth than they do at present. Others are more sanguine, believing that the benefits of current models for growth will eventually ‘trickle down’ to poorer groups in society, if they are not already doing so. On the basis of above passage following assumptions have been made: Per capita GDP says nothing about how incomes are distributed or spent. Development is wellbeing oriented economic act Code: A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 & 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: C As claimed it is about average income not the income distribution so per capita income not helpful in understand poverty. Development is about human happiness and advancement. So 2 is correct. Incorrect Answer: C As claimed it is about average income not the income distribution so per capita income not helpful in understand poverty. Development is about human happiness and advancement. So 2 is correct.

#### 28. Question

Do high levels of GDP necessarily correspond with high levels of development? Not necessarily. Certainly, statistics reveal that the most developed countries are those with the highest GDP per capita. Clearly, though, GDP per capita doesn’t tell the whole story. GDP per capita is calculated by dividing GDP by the population. Growth in GDP per capita could result from growth in the incomes of richer groups in society, with incomes of poorer groups remaining largely unchanged. The relationship between economic growth and poverty is a hotly debated topic, about which people are very divided. Some people highlight the negative effect of growth on low income groups, stressing the need for new approaches to economic development that will allow the poor to benefit more from economic growth than they do at present. Others are more sanguine, believing that the benefits of current models for growth will eventually ‘trickle down’ to poorer groups in society, if they are not already doing so.

On the basis of above passage following assumptions have been made:

• Per capita GDP says nothing about how incomes are distributed or spent.

• Development is wellbeing oriented economic act

• C. Both 1 & 2

• D. Neither 1 nor 2

As claimed it is about average income not the income distribution so per capita income not helpful in understand poverty.

Development is about human happiness and advancement. So 2 is correct.

As claimed it is about average income not the income distribution so per capita income not helpful in understand poverty.

Development is about human happiness and advancement. So 2 is correct.

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points Do high levels of GDP necessarily correspond with high levels of development? Not necessarily. Certainly, statistics reveal that the most developed countries are those with the highest GDP per capita. Clearly, though, GDP per capita doesn’t tell the whole story. GDP per capita is calculated by dividing GDP by the population. Growth in GDP per capita could result from growth in the incomes of richer groups in society, with incomes of poorer groups remaining largely unchanged. The relationship between economic growth and poverty is a hotly debated topic, about which people are very divided. Some people highlight the negative effect of growth on low income groups, stressing the need for new approaches to economic development that will allow the poor to benefit more from economic growth than they do at present. Others are more sanguine, believing that the benefits of current models for growth will eventually ‘trickle down’ to poorer groups in society, if they are not already doing so. Which of the following are true in light of the passage? Based on their values and ideals some prefer growth while others prefer development The difference of opinion is about the timing of reducing poverty through growth model of both sides Code: A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: C The growth supporters focus free market ideal and others on wellbeing Growth camp sees poverty after growth, development camp wants it during growth, so when poverty eradicates is a moot point. So both are correct. Incorrect Answer: C The growth supporters focus free market ideal and others on wellbeing Growth camp sees poverty after growth, development camp wants it during growth, so when poverty eradicates is a moot point. So both are correct.

#### 29. Question

Which of the following are true in light of the passage?

• Based on their values and ideals some prefer growth while others prefer development

• The difference of opinion is about the timing of reducing poverty through growth model of both sides

• C. Both 1 and 2

• D. Neither 1 nor 2

• The growth supporters focus free market ideal and others on wellbeing

• Growth camp sees poverty after growth, development camp wants it during growth, so when poverty eradicates is a moot point.

So both are correct.

• The growth supporters focus free market ideal and others on wellbeing

• Growth camp sees poverty after growth, development camp wants it during growth, so when poverty eradicates is a moot point.

So both are correct.

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points Which of the following are the logical and scientific implications from the above passage: GDP per capita measurement holds less significance for Indian economy If focus is on growth, one need to prioritize GDP statistics over HDI statistics. Code: A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 & 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: D India is not a subject matter here Even growth supporters want development but they tell it will happen automatically that does not mean development need not be measured. So both are wrong. D is answer. Incorrect Answer: D India is not a subject matter here Even growth supporters want development but they tell it will happen automatically that does not mean development need not be measured. So both are wrong. D is answer.

#### 30. Question

Which of the following are the logical and scientific implications from the above passage:

• GDP per capita measurement holds less significance for Indian economy

• If focus is on growth, one need to prioritize GDP statistics over HDI statistics.

• C. Both 1 & 2

• D. Neither 1 nor 2

• India is not a subject matter here

• Even growth supporters want development but they tell it will happen automatically that does not mean development need not be measured.

So both are wrong.

D is answer.

• India is not a subject matter here

• Even growth supporters want development but they tell it will happen automatically that does not mean development need not be measured.