DAY – 25 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – POLITY, Subject-wise Test 8, 9 and December 2023 CA

INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points In the context of the State Executive, consider the following statements: The Advocate General of a State is appointed by the Governor The Advocate General holds office during the pleasure of the President of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A The Advocate General of a State is a Constitutional post and authority duly appointed as per Article 165 of the Constitution of India. The authority and function of Advocate General is also specified in the Constitution of India under Article 165 and 177. Article 165: Advocate General for the State The Governor of each State shall appoint a person who is qualified to be appointed as a Judge of a High Court to be Advocate General for the State. Hence, statement 1 is correct. It shall be the duty of the Advocate General to give advice to the Government of concerned State upon such legal matters and to perform such other duties of a legal character; as may from time to time be referred or assigned to him by the Governor and to discharge the functions conferred on him by or under this constitution or any other law for the time being in force. The Advocate General shall hold office during the pleasure of the Governor, and shall receive such remuneration as the governor may determine. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution: A The Advocate General of a State is a Constitutional post and authority duly appointed as per Article 165 of the Constitution of India. The authority and function of Advocate General is also specified in the Constitution of India under Article 165 and 177. Article 165: Advocate General for the State The Governor of each State shall appoint a person who is qualified to be appointed as a Judge of a High Court to be Advocate General for the State. Hence, statement 1 is correct. It shall be the duty of the Advocate General to give advice to the Government of concerned State upon such legal matters and to perform such other duties of a legal character; as may from time to time be referred or assigned to him by the Governor and to discharge the functions conferred on him by or under this constitution or any other law for the time being in force. The Advocate General shall hold office during the pleasure of the Governor, and shall receive such remuneration as the governor may determine. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

#### 1. Question

In the context of the State Executive, consider the following statements:

• The Advocate General of a State is appointed by the Governor

• The Advocate General holds office during the pleasure of the President of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

The Advocate General of a State is a Constitutional post and authority duly appointed as per Article 165 of the Constitution of India. The authority and function of Advocate General is also specified in the Constitution of India under Article 165 and 177.

Article 165: Advocate General for the State

• The Governor of each State shall appoint a person who is qualified to be appointed as a Judge of a High Court to be Advocate General for the State. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• It shall be the duty of the Advocate General to give advice to the Government of concerned State upon such legal matters and to perform such other duties of a legal character; as may from time to time be referred or assigned to him by the Governor and to discharge the functions conferred on him by or under this constitution or any other law for the time being in force.

• The Advocate General shall hold office during the pleasure of the Governor, and shall receive such remuneration as the governor may determine. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Solution: A

Article 165: Advocate General for the State

• The Governor of each State shall appoint a person who is qualified to be appointed as a Judge of a High Court to be Advocate General for the State. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The Advocate General shall hold office during the pleasure of the Governor, and shall receive such remuneration as the governor may determine. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Regarding the composition of the State Legislative Assembly, consider the following statements: The members of the Legislative Assembly are directly elected by the people on the basis of adult suffrage. The Legislative Assembly of a State cannot have more than 500 members. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Both statements are correct. Composition of the Legislative Assemblies Subject to the provisions of article 333, the Legislative Assembly of each State shall consist of not more than five hundred, and not less than sixty, members chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the State. Incorrect Solution: C Both statements are correct. Composition of the Legislative Assemblies Subject to the provisions of article 333, the Legislative Assembly of each State shall consist of not more than five hundred, and not less than sixty, members chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the State.

#### 2. Question

Regarding the composition of the State Legislative Assembly, consider the following statements:

• The members of the Legislative Assembly are directly elected by the people on the basis of adult suffrage.

• The Legislative Assembly of a State cannot have more than 500 members.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

Both statements are correct.

Composition of the Legislative Assemblies

• Subject to the provisions of article 333, the Legislative Assembly of each State shall consist of not more than five hundred, and not less than sixty, members chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the State.

Solution: C

Both statements are correct.

Composition of the Legislative Assemblies

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Legislative Council in a State: The Legislative Council is a permanent body and not subject to dissolution, but one-third of its members retire every two years. A Money Bill cannot be introduced in the Legislative Council. The Chairman of the Legislative Council is appointed by the Governor. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad) is a permanent body that cannot be dissolved, and one-third of its members retire every two years. Money Bills cannot be introduced in the Legislative Council. Hence, statement 1 and statement 2 are correct. The Chairman of the Legislative Council is not appointed by the Governor; they are elected by the Council itself. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution: B The Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad) is a permanent body that cannot be dissolved, and one-third of its members retire every two years. Money Bills cannot be introduced in the Legislative Council. Hence, statement 1 and statement 2 are correct. The Chairman of the Legislative Council is not appointed by the Governor; they are elected by the Council itself. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Legislative Council in a State:

• The Legislative Council is a permanent body and not subject to dissolution, but one-third of its members retire every two years.

• A Money Bill cannot be introduced in the Legislative Council.

• The Chairman of the Legislative Council is appointed by the Governor.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

The Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad) is a permanent body that cannot be dissolved, and one-third of its members retire every two years.

Money Bills cannot be introduced in the Legislative Council.

Hence, statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.

The Chairman of the Legislative Council is not appointed by the Governor; they are elected by the Council itself.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution: B

The Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad) is a permanent body that cannot be dissolved, and one-third of its members retire every two years.

Money Bills cannot be introduced in the Legislative Council.

Hence, statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.

The Chairman of the Legislative Council is not appointed by the Governor; they are elected by the Council itself.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the powers and functions of the State Legislature: A Bill pending in the Legislative Council which has not been passed by the Legislative Assembly shall not lapse on dissolution of the Assembly. A resolution passed by the Legislative Assembly of a State is required for the State to impose taxes on the consumption of electricity. The Legislative Assembly of a State can delegate its legislative powers to the Governor. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: A A bill pending in the Legislative Council does not lapse upon the dissolution of the Legislative Assembly. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The power to impose taxes on the consumption of electricity is within the purview of the State Legislature. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. The Legislative Assembly cannot delegate its legislative powers to the Governor. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution: A A bill pending in the Legislative Council does not lapse upon the dissolution of the Legislative Assembly. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The power to impose taxes on the consumption of electricity is within the purview of the State Legislature. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. The Legislative Assembly cannot delegate its legislative powers to the Governor. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the powers and functions of the State Legislature:

• A Bill pending in the Legislative Council which has not been passed by the Legislative Assembly shall not lapse on dissolution of the Assembly.

• A resolution passed by the Legislative Assembly of a State is required for the State to impose taxes on the consumption of electricity.

• The Legislative Assembly of a State can delegate its legislative powers to the Governor.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: A

A bill pending in the Legislative Council does not lapse upon the dissolution of the Legislative Assembly.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The power to impose taxes on the consumption of electricity is within the purview of the State Legislature.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

The Legislative Assembly cannot delegate its legislative powers to the Governor.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution: A

A bill pending in the Legislative Council does not lapse upon the dissolution of the Legislative Assembly.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The power to impose taxes on the consumption of electricity is within the purview of the State Legislature.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

The Legislative Assembly cannot delegate its legislative powers to the Governor.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points consider the following statements: A person shall not be qualified to be chosen to fill a seat in the Legislative Assembly of a State if he is less than 25 years of age. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly, once appointed, remains in office until the dissolution of the Assembly. All Legislative Proposals are required to be introduced as a Bill in the Legislative Assembly. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C All the statements given above are correct. The age qualification for a member of the Legislative Assembly is indeed not less than 25 years of age. The Speaker, once elected, holds the office till the Assembly is dissolved, or he/she resigns or is removed by a resolution passed by the Assembly. All legislative proposals need to be introduced as a Bill in the Legislative Assembly. Incorrect Solution: C All the statements given above are correct. The age qualification for a member of the Legislative Assembly is indeed not less than 25 years of age. The Speaker, once elected, holds the office till the Assembly is dissolved, or he/she resigns or is removed by a resolution passed by the Assembly. All legislative proposals need to be introduced as a Bill in the Legislative Assembly.

#### 5. Question

consider the following statements:

• A person shall not be qualified to be chosen to fill a seat in the Legislative Assembly of a State if he is less than 25 years of age.

• The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly, once appointed, remains in office until the dissolution of the Assembly.

• All Legislative Proposals are required to be introduced as a Bill in the Legislative Assembly.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

All the statements given above are correct.

• The age qualification for a member of the Legislative Assembly is indeed not less than 25 years of age.

• The Speaker, once elected, holds the office till the Assembly is dissolved, or he/she resigns or is removed by a resolution passed by the Assembly.

• All legislative proposals need to be introduced as a Bill in the Legislative Assembly.

Solution: C

All the statements given above are correct.

• The age qualification for a member of the Legislative Assembly is indeed not less than 25 years of age.

• The Speaker, once elected, holds the office till the Assembly is dissolved, or he/she resigns or is removed by a resolution passed by the Assembly.

• All legislative proposals need to be introduced as a Bill in the Legislative Assembly.

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points In the context of the powers of the State Legislative Council, consider the following statements: The Legislative Council has the power to initiate legislation and amend or reject bills, except Money Bills. Members of the Legislative Council are partially elected by the members of the Legislative Assembly. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Both the statements are correct. The Legislative Council has the power to review and suggest amendments to legislation proposed by the Legislative Assembly, but it cannot initiate Money Bills. Members of the Legislative Council are partially elected by the members of the Legislative Assembly, among other elected members from various constituencies. Incorrect Solution: C Both the statements are correct. The Legislative Council has the power to review and suggest amendments to legislation proposed by the Legislative Assembly, but it cannot initiate Money Bills. Members of the Legislative Council are partially elected by the members of the Legislative Assembly, among other elected members from various constituencies.

#### 6. Question

In the context of the powers of the State Legislative Council, consider the following statements:

• The Legislative Council has the power to initiate legislation and amend or reject bills, except Money Bills.

• Members of the Legislative Council are partially elected by the members of the Legislative Assembly.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

Both the statements are correct.

The Legislative Council has the power to review and suggest amendments to legislation proposed by the Legislative Assembly, but it cannot initiate Money Bills.

Members of the Legislative Council are partially elected by the members of the Legislative Assembly, among other elected members from various constituencies.

Solution: C

Both the statements are correct.

The Legislative Council has the power to review and suggest amendments to legislation proposed by the Legislative Assembly, but it cannot initiate Money Bills.

Members of the Legislative Council are partially elected by the members of the Legislative Assembly, among other elected members from various constituencies.

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Regarding the functions of the Chief Minister in relation to the State Legislature, consider the following statements: The Governor has the authority to call for special sessions of the State Legislature. The Chief Minister is responsible for communicating all decisions of the Council of Ministers to the Governor. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Both the statements are correct. The Governor shall from time to time summon the House or each House of the Legislature of the State to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit, but six months shall not intervene between its last sitting in one session and the date appointed for its first sitting in the next session. (2) The Governor may from time to time— (a) prorogue the House or either House; (b) dissolve the Legislative Assembly. Article 167. Duties of Chief Minister as respects the furnishing of information to Governor etc. : .It shall be the duty of the Chief Minister of each State— (a) to communicate to the Governor of the State all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the State and proposals for legislation; (b) to furnish such information relating to the administration of the affairs of the State and proposals for legislation as the Governor may call for; and (c) if the Governor so requires, to submit for the consideration of the Council of Ministers any matter on which a decision has been taken by a Minister but which has not been considered by the Council. Incorrect Solution: C Both the statements are correct. The Governor shall from time to time summon the House or each House of the Legislature of the State to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit, but six months shall not intervene between its last sitting in one session and the date appointed for its first sitting in the next session. (2) The Governor may from time to time— (a) prorogue the House or either House; (b) dissolve the Legislative Assembly. Article 167. Duties of Chief Minister as respects the furnishing of information to Governor etc. : .It shall be the duty of the Chief Minister of each State— (a) to communicate to the Governor of the State all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the State and proposals for legislation; (b) to furnish such information relating to the administration of the affairs of the State and proposals for legislation as the Governor may call for; and (c) if the Governor so requires, to submit for the consideration of the Council of Ministers any matter on which a decision has been taken by a Minister but which has not been considered by the Council.

#### 7. Question

Regarding the functions of the Chief Minister in relation to the State Legislature, consider the following statements:

• The Governor has the authority to call for special sessions of the State Legislature.

• The Chief Minister is responsible for communicating all decisions of the Council of Ministers to the Governor.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

Both the statements are correct.

The Governor shall from time to time summon the House or each House of the Legislature of the State to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit, but six months shall not intervene between its last sitting in one session and the date appointed for its first sitting in the next session. (2) The Governor may from time to time— (a) prorogue the House or either House; (b) dissolve the Legislative Assembly.

Article 167. Duties of Chief Minister as respects the furnishing of information to Governor etc. : .It shall be the duty of the Chief Minister of each State— (a) to communicate to the Governor of the State all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the State and proposals for legislation; (b) to furnish such information relating to the administration of the affairs of the State and proposals for legislation as the Governor may call for; and (c) if the Governor so requires, to submit for the consideration of the Council of Ministers any matter on which a decision has been taken by a Minister but which has not been considered by the Council.

Solution: C

Both the statements are correct.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the appointment of the Governor of a State: The Governor is appointed by the President and holds office during the President’s pleasure. A Governor can be transferred from one State to another by the President. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Both statements are correct. Term of office of Governor The Governor shall hold office during the pleasure of the President. The Governor may, by writing under his hand addressed to the President, resign his office. Subject to the foregoing provisions of this article, a Governor shall hold for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office: Provided that a Governor shall, notwithstanding the expiration of his term, continue to hold office until his successor enters upon his office. The President also has the power to transfer a Governor from one State to another. Incorrect Solution: C Both statements are correct. Term of office of Governor The Governor shall hold office during the pleasure of the President. The Governor may, by writing under his hand addressed to the President, resign his office. Subject to the foregoing provisions of this article, a Governor shall hold for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office: Provided that a Governor shall, notwithstanding the expiration of his term, continue to hold office until his successor enters upon his office. The President also has the power to transfer a Governor from one State to another.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the appointment of the Governor of a State:

• The Governor is appointed by the President and holds office during the President’s pleasure.

• A Governor can be transferred from one State to another by the President.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

Both statements are correct.

Term of office of Governor

The Governor shall hold office during the pleasure of the President. The Governor may, by writing under his hand addressed to the President, resign his office. Subject to the foregoing provisions of this article, a Governor shall hold for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office: Provided that a Governor shall, notwithstanding the expiration of his term, continue to hold office until his successor enters upon his office.

The President also has the power to transfer a Governor from one State to another.

Solution: C

Both statements are correct.

Term of office of Governor

The President also has the power to transfer a Governor from one State to another.

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points With reference to the powers of the Advocate General of a State, consider the following statements: The Advocate General is allowed to participate in the proceedings of the Legislature but cannot vote. The Advocate General can be removed from office only through a process similar to the impeachment of a Judge of the Supreme Court. The Advocate General must be a person who is qualified to be appointed as a Judge of the High Court. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: B Every Minister and the Advocate-General for a State shall have the right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of, the Legislative Assembly of the State or, in the case of a State having a Legislative Council, both Houses, and to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of, any committee of the Legislature of which he may be named a member, but shall not, by virtue of this article, be entitled to vote. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The Advocate General can be removed by the Governor and does not go through an impeachment process. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Article 165: (1) The Governor of each State shall appoint a person who is qualified to be appointed a Judge of a High Court to be Advocate-General for the State. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution: B Every Minister and the Advocate-General for a State shall have the right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of, the Legislative Assembly of the State or, in the case of a State having a Legislative Council, both Houses, and to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of, any committee of the Legislature of which he may be named a member, but shall not, by virtue of this article, be entitled to vote. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The Advocate General can be removed by the Governor and does not go through an impeachment process. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Article 165: (1) The Governor of each State shall appoint a person who is qualified to be appointed a Judge of a High Court to be Advocate-General for the State. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

#### 9. Question

With reference to the powers of the Advocate General of a State, consider the following statements:

• The Advocate General is allowed to participate in the proceedings of the Legislature but cannot vote.

• The Advocate General can be removed from office only through a process similar to the impeachment of a Judge of the Supreme Court.

• The Advocate General must be a person who is qualified to be appointed as a Judge of the High Court.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: B

Every Minister and the Advocate-General for a State shall have the right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of, the Legislative Assembly of the State or, in the case of a State having a Legislative Council, both Houses, and to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of, any committee of the Legislature of which he may be named a member, but shall not, by virtue of this article, be entitled to vote.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The Advocate General can be removed by the Governor and does not go through an impeachment process.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Article 165:

(1) The Governor of each State shall appoint a person who is qualified to be appointed a Judge of a High Court to be Advocate-General for the State.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution: B

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The Advocate General can be removed by the Governor and does not go through an impeachment process.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Article 165:

(1) The Governor of each State shall appoint a person who is qualified to be appointed a Judge of a High Court to be Advocate-General for the State.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points In the context of the State Finance Commission, consider the following statements: The Governor constitutes the State Finance Commission every five years. The Commission is required to address the financial relations between the Municipal Corporations and the State Government. The recommendations made by the State Finance Commission are binding on the State Government. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Article 243I in Constitution of India 243I. Constitution of Finance Commissions to review financial position (1) The Governor of a State shall, as soon as may be within one year from the commencement of the Constitution (Seventy-third Amendment) Act, 1992, and thereafter at the expiration of every fifth year, constitute a Finance Commission to review the financial position of the Panchayats and to make recommendations to the Governor as to– (a) the principles which should govern– (i) the distribution between the State and the Panchayats of the net proceeds of the taxes, duties, tolls and fees leviable by the State, which may be ided between them under this Part and the allocation between the Panchayats at all levels of their respective shares of such proceeds; (ii) the determination of the taxes, duties, tolls and fees which may be assigned to, or appropriated by, the Panchayats; (iii) the grants-in-aid to the Panchayats from the Consolidated Fund of the State; (b) the measures needed to improve the financial position of the Panchayats; (c) any other matter referred to the Finance Commission by the Governor in the interests of sound finance of the Panchayats. (2) The Legislature of a State may, by law, provide for the composition of the Commission, the qualifications which shall be requisite for appointment as members thereof and the manner in which they shall be selected. (3) The Commission shall determine their procedure and shall have such powers in the performance of their functions as the Legislature of the State may, by law, confer on them, (4) The Governor shall cause every recommendation made by the Commission under this article together with an explanatory memorandum as to the action taken thereon to be laid before the Legislature of the State. Hence, statement 1 and statement 2 are correct. However, the recommendations made by the State Finance Commission are advisory and not binding on the State Government. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution: B Article 243I in Constitution of India 243I. Constitution of Finance Commissions to review financial position (1) The Governor of a State shall, as soon as may be within one year from the commencement of the Constitution (Seventy-third Amendment) Act, 1992, and thereafter at the expiration of every fifth year, constitute a Finance Commission to review the financial position of the Panchayats and to make recommendations to the Governor as to– (a) the principles which should govern– (i) the distribution between the State and the Panchayats of the net proceeds of the taxes, duties, tolls and fees leviable by the State, which may be ided between them under this Part and the allocation between the Panchayats at all levels of their respective shares of such proceeds; (ii) the determination of the taxes, duties, tolls and fees which may be assigned to, or appropriated by, the Panchayats; (iii) the grants-in-aid to the Panchayats from the Consolidated Fund of the State; (b) the measures needed to improve the financial position of the Panchayats; (c) any other matter referred to the Finance Commission by the Governor in the interests of sound finance of the Panchayats. (2) The Legislature of a State may, by law, provide for the composition of the Commission, the qualifications which shall be requisite for appointment as members thereof and the manner in which they shall be selected. (3) The Commission shall determine their procedure and shall have such powers in the performance of their functions as the Legislature of the State may, by law, confer on them, (4) The Governor shall cause every recommendation made by the Commission under this article together with an explanatory memorandum as to the action taken thereon to be laid before the Legislature of the State. Hence, statement 1 and statement 2 are correct. However, the recommendations made by the State Finance Commission are advisory and not binding on the State Government. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

#### 10. Question

In the context of the State Finance Commission, consider the following statements:

• The Governor constitutes the State Finance Commission every five years.

• The Commission is required to address the financial relations between the Municipal Corporations and the State Government.

• The recommendations made by the State Finance Commission are binding on the State Government.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Article 243I in Constitution of India

243I. Constitution of Finance Commissions to review financial position

(1) The Governor of a State shall, as soon as may be within one year from the commencement of the Constitution (Seventy-third Amendment) Act, 1992, and thereafter at the expiration of every fifth year, constitute a Finance Commission to review the financial position of the Panchayats and to make recommendations to the Governor as to–

(a) the principles which should govern–

(i) the distribution between the State and the Panchayats of the net proceeds of the taxes, duties, tolls and fees leviable by the State, which may be ided between them under this Part and the allocation between the Panchayats at all levels of their respective shares of such proceeds;

(ii) the determination of the taxes, duties, tolls and fees which may be assigned to, or appropriated by, the Panchayats;

(iii) the grants-in-aid to the Panchayats from the Consolidated Fund of the State;

(b) the measures needed to improve the financial position of the Panchayats;

(c) any other matter referred to the Finance Commission by the Governor in the interests of sound finance of the Panchayats.

(2) The Legislature of a State may, by law, provide for the composition of the Commission, the qualifications which shall be requisite for appointment as members thereof and the manner in which they shall be selected.

(3) The Commission shall determine their procedure and shall have such powers in the performance of their functions as the Legislature of the State may, by law, confer on them,

(4) The Governor shall cause every recommendation made by the Commission under this article together with an explanatory memorandum as to the action taken thereon to be laid before the Legislature of the State.

Hence, statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.

However, the recommendations made by the State Finance Commission are advisory and not binding on the State Government.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution: B

Article 243I in Constitution of India

243I. Constitution of Finance Commissions to review financial position

(a) the principles which should govern–

(ii) the determination of the taxes, duties, tolls and fees which may be assigned to, or appropriated by, the Panchayats;

(iii) the grants-in-aid to the Panchayats from the Consolidated Fund of the State;

(b) the measures needed to improve the financial position of the Panchayats;

(c) any other matter referred to the Finance Commission by the Governor in the interests of sound finance of the Panchayats.

(3) The Commission shall determine their procedure and shall have such powers in the performance of their functions as the Legislature of the State may, by law, confer on them,

Hence, statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.

However, the recommendations made by the State Finance Commission are advisory and not binding on the State Government.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The quorum to constitute a meeting of the Legislative Assembly is one-tenth of the total number of members of the Assembly. The Legislative Assembly can alter the boundary of the State without the approval of the Parliament of India. The State Legislature can make laws on any subject in the Concurrent List without the assent of the President. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The quorum for a meeting of the Legislative Assembly is one-tenth of the total number of its members, according to Article 189 of the Indian Constitution. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The Legislative Assembly cannot alter the boundary of the State without the approval of Parliament—this requires a constitutional amendment. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Regarding the Concurrent List, while the State Legislature can make laws on these subjects in normal circumstances. Only if it conflicts with a Union law, the Union law prevails, and presidential assent can be crucial in certain situations. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution: B The quorum for a meeting of the Legislative Assembly is one-tenth of the total number of its members, according to Article 189 of the Indian Constitution. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The Legislative Assembly cannot alter the boundary of the State without the approval of Parliament—this requires a constitutional amendment. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Regarding the Concurrent List, while the State Legislature can make laws on these subjects in normal circumstances. Only if it conflicts with a Union law, the Union law prevails, and presidential assent can be crucial in certain situations. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

#### 11. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The quorum to constitute a meeting of the Legislative Assembly is one-tenth of the total number of members of the Assembly.

• The Legislative Assembly can alter the boundary of the State without the approval of the Parliament of India.

• The State Legislature can make laws on any subject in the Concurrent List without the assent of the President.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

The quorum for a meeting of the Legislative Assembly is one-tenth of the total number of its members, according to Article 189 of the Indian Constitution.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The Legislative Assembly cannot alter the boundary of the State without the approval of Parliament—this requires a constitutional amendment.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Regarding the Concurrent List, while the State Legislature can make laws on these subjects in normal circumstances. Only if it conflicts with a Union law, the Union law prevails, and presidential assent can be crucial in certain situations.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution: B

The quorum for a meeting of the Legislative Assembly is one-tenth of the total number of its members, according to Article 189 of the Indian Constitution.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The Legislative Assembly cannot alter the boundary of the State without the approval of Parliament—this requires a constitutional amendment.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Considering the Emergency provisions with respect to State Legislatures, consider the following statements: During the period of National Emergency, the Parliament can make laws on the subjects enumerated in the State List. The President can dissolve the State Legislative Assembly under the proclamation of Financial Emergency. The Governor cannot promulgate Ordinances during the period of National Emergency. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A During a National Emergency, Parliament can legislate on subjects in the State List, as provided under Article 250 of the Indian Constitution. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The President cannot dissolve the State Legislative Assembly during a Financial Emergency; that power is exercised during a proclamation of State Emergency under Article 356. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Governors can promulgate ordinances during a National Emergency, provided the President’s permission is obtained if the legislative assembly is not in session. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution: A During a National Emergency, Parliament can legislate on subjects in the State List, as provided under Article 250 of the Indian Constitution. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The President cannot dissolve the State Legislative Assembly during a Financial Emergency; that power is exercised during a proclamation of State Emergency under Article 356. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Governors can promulgate ordinances during a National Emergency, provided the President’s permission is obtained if the legislative assembly is not in session. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

#### 12. Question

Considering the Emergency provisions with respect to State Legislatures, consider the following statements:

• During the period of National Emergency, the Parliament can make laws on the subjects enumerated in the State List.

• The President can dissolve the State Legislative Assembly under the proclamation of Financial Emergency.

• The Governor cannot promulgate Ordinances during the period of National Emergency.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

During a National Emergency, Parliament can legislate on subjects in the State List, as provided under Article 250 of the Indian Constitution.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The President cannot dissolve the State Legislative Assembly during a Financial Emergency; that power is exercised during a proclamation of State Emergency under Article 356.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Governors can promulgate ordinances during a National Emergency, provided the President’s permission is obtained if the legislative assembly is not in session.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution: A

During a National Emergency, Parliament can legislate on subjects in the State List, as provided under Article 250 of the Indian Constitution.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The President cannot dissolve the State Legislative Assembly during a Financial Emergency; that power is exercised during a proclamation of State Emergency under Article 356.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Governors can promulgate ordinances during a National Emergency, provided the President’s permission is obtained if the legislative assembly is not in session.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points The term ‘Amicus Curiae’ is used in the legal context to refer to: (a) A friend of the court, typically a lawyer, who assists in a case he or she is not directly involved in (b) A legal advisor to the President of India (c) The head of the legal department in a private corporation (d) A public prosecutor appointed in criminal cases Correct Solution: A ‘Amicus Curiae’, which is Latin for ‘friend of the court’, refers to someone, often a lawyer, who is not a party to a case but is invited to assist a court by offering information, expertise, or insight that has a bearing on the issues in the case. Incorrect Solution: A ‘Amicus Curiae’, which is Latin for ‘friend of the court’, refers to someone, often a lawyer, who is not a party to a case but is invited to assist a court by offering information, expertise, or insight that has a bearing on the issues in the case.

#### 13. Question

The term ‘Amicus Curiae’ is used in the legal context to refer to:

• (a) A friend of the court, typically a lawyer, who assists in a case he or she is not directly involved in

• (b) A legal advisor to the President of India

• (c) The head of the legal department in a private corporation

• (d) A public prosecutor appointed in criminal cases

Solution: A

‘Amicus Curiae’, which is Latin for ‘friend of the court’, refers to someone, often a lawyer, who is not a party to a case but is invited to assist a court by offering information, expertise, or insight that has a bearing on the issues in the case.

Solution: A

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Which of the following is correct regarding the appointment of judges to the Supreme Court of India, (a) The judges are appointed by the President after consultation with the Chief Justice of India. (b) The judges are elected by the Parliament of India. (c) The judges are appointed by the Law Ministry of India. (d) The judges are selected by a vote amongst existing Supreme Court judges. Correct Solution: A Judges of the Supreme Court of India are appointed by the President after consultation with members of the judiciary as stipulated in the Constitution of India. Incorrect Solution: A Judges of the Supreme Court of India are appointed by the President after consultation with members of the judiciary as stipulated in the Constitution of India.

#### 14. Question

Which of the following is correct regarding the appointment of judges to the Supreme Court of India,

• (a) The judges are appointed by the President after consultation with the Chief Justice of India.

• (b) The judges are elected by the Parliament of India.

• (c) The judges are appointed by the Law Ministry of India.

• (d) The judges are selected by a vote amongst existing Supreme Court judges.

Solution: A

Judges of the Supreme Court of India are appointed by the President after consultation with members of the judiciary as stipulated in the Constitution of India.

Solution: A

Judges of the Supreme Court of India are appointed by the President after consultation with members of the judiciary as stipulated in the Constitution of India.

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points With reference to the legal profession in India, consider the following statements: The Advocates Act, 1961 empowers the Bar Council of India to regulate legal practice in the country. A “Senior Advocate” designation is granted only by the Supreme Court of India and not High court of a state. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A The Advocates Act, 1961, indeed authorizes the Bar Council of India to regulate legal practice in the country, including the power to confer the designation of ‘Senior Advocate’ to worthy candidates. Hence, statement 1 is correct. It is the Supreme Court or High Courts that grant the designation, through recognition of distinction and merit Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution: A The Advocates Act, 1961, indeed authorizes the Bar Council of India to regulate legal practice in the country, including the power to confer the designation of ‘Senior Advocate’ to worthy candidates. Hence, statement 1 is correct. It is the Supreme Court or High Courts that grant the designation, through recognition of distinction and merit Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

#### 15. Question

With reference to the legal profession in India, consider the following statements:

• The Advocates Act, 1961 empowers the Bar Council of India to regulate legal practice in the country.

• A “Senior Advocate” designation is granted only by the Supreme Court of India and not High court of a state.

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

The Advocates Act, 1961, indeed authorizes the Bar Council of India to regulate legal practice in the country, including the power to confer the designation of ‘Senior Advocate’ to worthy candidates.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

It is the Supreme Court or High Courts that grant the designation, through recognition of distinction and merit

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Solution: A

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

It is the Supreme Court or High Courts that grant the designation, through recognition of distinction and merit

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Codex Alimentarius Commission: It is an intergovernmental body established by the World Health Organisation and the Food and Agriculture Organisation. Its standards are recognized by the Food and Agriculture Organisation to resolve food-related trade disputes. The standards developed by the Commission are voluntary which the member countries adopt as reference standards. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Codex Alimentarius Commission (CAC), jointly established by FAO and WHO, is an international, intergovernmental body with membership of over 194 countries, which is based in Rome and is tasked with formulating internationally accepted standards pertaining to human food. The CAC conducts its work through various Codex committees, including the CCSCH, hosted by different member countries. Statement 2 is not correct: The standards of CAC are recognized by the WTO as international reference points for the resolution of trade disputes concerning food safety and consumer protection. Statement 3 is correct: The standards developed by the Committees under the CAC, including the CCSCH, are voluntary in nature, which the member countries of the CAC adopt and use as reference standards to align their national standards. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Codex Alimentarius Commission (CAC), jointly established by FAO and WHO, is an international, intergovernmental body with membership of over 194 countries, which is based in Rome and is tasked with formulating internationally accepted standards pertaining to human food. The CAC conducts its work through various Codex committees, including the CCSCH, hosted by different member countries. Statement 2 is not correct: The standards of CAC are recognized by the WTO as international reference points for the resolution of trade disputes concerning food safety and consumer protection. Statement 3 is correct: The standards developed by the Committees under the CAC, including the CCSCH, are voluntary in nature, which the member countries of the CAC adopt and use as reference standards to align their national standards.

#### 16. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Codex Alimentarius Commission:

• It is an intergovernmental body established by the World Health Organisation and the Food and Agriculture Organisation.

• Its standards are recognized by the Food and Agriculture Organisation to resolve food-related trade disputes.

• The standards developed by the Commission are voluntary which the member countries adopt as reference standards.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Codex Alimentarius Commission (CAC), jointly established by FAO and WHO, is an international, intergovernmental body with membership of over 194 countries, which is based in Rome and is tasked with formulating internationally accepted standards pertaining to human food.

The CAC conducts its work through various Codex committees, including the CCSCH, hosted by different member countries.

Statement 2 is not correct: The standards of CAC are recognized by the WTO as international reference points for the resolution of trade disputes concerning food safety and consumer protection.

Statement 3 is correct: The standards developed by the Committees under the CAC, including the CCSCH, are voluntary in nature, which the member countries of the CAC adopt and use as reference standards to align their national standards.

Answer: B

Explanation:

The CAC conducts its work through various Codex committees, including the CCSCH, hosted by different member countries.

Statement 2 is not correct: The standards of CAC are recognized by the WTO as international reference points for the resolution of trade disputes concerning food safety and consumer protection.

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Banni Grasslands: The Banni Grasslands are located along the northern border of Kachchh region in the state of Gujarat. Consisting of two ecosystems in juxtaposition of wetlands and grasslands, these are traditionally managed by rotational grazing. These are threatened due to excessive livestock grazing and soil salinity leading to invasion of Prosopis juliflora. How many of the statements given above are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None of the above Correct Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Banni grasslands, located along the northern border of Kachchh district in the state of Gujarat, are among the largest stretches of contiguous grassland in India. Statement 2 is correct: Consisting of two ecosystems in juxtaposition, viz., wetlands and grasslands, Bannis fall under Dichahnthium-Cenchrus-Lasiurus type of grass cover. These grasslands harbor a rich array of flora and fauna including 192 species of plants, 262 species of birds, several species of mammals, reptiles and amphibians. Traditionally, Banni grasslands were managed following a system of rotational grazing. Statement 3 is correct: With the disintegration of traditional management practices, these grasslands are degrading rapidly due to excessive pressure from livestock grazing and increased soil salinity leading to invasion of Prosopis juliflora. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Banni grasslands, located along the northern border of Kachchh district in the state of Gujarat, are among the largest stretches of contiguous grassland in India. Statement 2 is correct: Consisting of two ecosystems in juxtaposition, viz., wetlands and grasslands, Bannis fall under Dichahnthium-Cenchrus-Lasiurus type of grass cover. These grasslands harbor a rich array of flora and fauna including 192 species of plants, 262 species of birds, several species of mammals, reptiles and amphibians. Traditionally, Banni grasslands were managed following a system of rotational grazing. Statement 3 is correct: With the disintegration of traditional management practices, these grasslands are degrading rapidly due to excessive pressure from livestock grazing and increased soil salinity leading to invasion of Prosopis juliflora.

#### 17. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Banni Grasslands:

• The Banni Grasslands are located along the northern border of Kachchh region in the state of Gujarat.

• Consisting of two ecosystems in juxtaposition of wetlands and grasslands, these are traditionally managed by rotational grazing.

• These are threatened due to excessive livestock grazing and soil salinity leading to invasion of Prosopis juliflora.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

• d) None of the above

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Banni grasslands, located along the northern border of Kachchh district in the state of Gujarat, are among the largest stretches of contiguous grassland in India.

Statement 2 is correct: Consisting of two ecosystems in juxtaposition, viz., wetlands and grasslands, Bannis fall under Dichahnthium-Cenchrus-Lasiurus type of grass cover.

These grasslands harbor a rich array of flora and fauna including 192 species of plants, 262 species of birds, several species of mammals, reptiles and amphibians.

Traditionally, Banni grasslands were managed following a system of rotational grazing.

Statement 3 is correct: With the disintegration of traditional management practices, these grasslands are degrading rapidly due to excessive pressure from livestock grazing and increased soil salinity leading to invasion of Prosopis juliflora.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Banni grasslands, located along the northern border of Kachchh district in the state of Gujarat, are among the largest stretches of contiguous grassland in India.

Statement 2 is correct: Consisting of two ecosystems in juxtaposition, viz., wetlands and grasslands, Bannis fall under Dichahnthium-Cenchrus-Lasiurus type of grass cover.

These grasslands harbor a rich array of flora and fauna including 192 species of plants, 262 species of birds, several species of mammals, reptiles and amphibians.

Traditionally, Banni grasslands were managed following a system of rotational grazing.

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the commonly used Meftal Drug: Its major constituent is non-steroidal in nature. It is a generic drug available without the doctor’s prescription. It can induce allergic reactions including the DRESS syndrome. How many of the statements given above is/are *not correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Mefenamic acid in Meftal is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug used to treat mild to moderate pain. Statement 2 is not correct: It may also be used to treat menstrual cramps and other conditions as determined by a doctor, and is available only with a doctor’s prescription. Statement 3 is correct: The Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission (IPC) has issued a drug safety alert about the common painkiller, saying its constituent, mefenamic acid, triggers severe allergic reactions like the DRESS syndrome. DRESS syndrome (Drug Rash with Eosinophilia and Systemic Symptoms) is a severe allergic reaction affecting around 10 per cent of individuals, potentially deadly and caused by certain medications. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Mefenamic acid in Meftal is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug used to treat mild to moderate pain. Statement 2 is not correct: It may also be used to treat menstrual cramps and other conditions as determined by a doctor, and is available only with a doctor’s prescription. Statement 3 is correct:* The Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission (IPC) has issued a drug safety alert about the common painkiller, saying its constituent, mefenamic acid, triggers severe allergic reactions like the DRESS syndrome. DRESS syndrome (Drug Rash with Eosinophilia and Systemic Symptoms) is a severe allergic reaction affecting around 10 per cent of individuals, potentially deadly and caused by certain medications.

#### 18. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the commonly used Meftal Drug:

• Its major constituent is non-steroidal in nature.

• It is a generic drug available without the doctor’s prescription.

• It can induce allergic reactions including the DRESS syndrome.

How many of the statements given above is/are *not* correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Mefenamic acid in Meftal is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug used to treat mild to moderate pain.

Statement 2 is not correct: It may also be used to treat menstrual cramps and other conditions as determined by a doctor, and is available only with a doctor’s prescription.

Statement 3 is correct: The Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission (IPC) has issued a drug safety alert about the common painkiller, saying its constituent, mefenamic acid, triggers severe allergic reactions like the DRESS syndrome.

DRESS syndrome (Drug Rash with Eosinophilia and Systemic Symptoms) is a severe allergic reaction affecting around 10 per cent of individuals, potentially deadly and caused by certain medications.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Mefenamic acid in Meftal is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug used to treat mild to moderate pain.

Statement 2 is not correct: It may also be used to treat menstrual cramps and other conditions as determined by a doctor, and is available only with a doctor’s prescription.

DRESS syndrome (Drug Rash with Eosinophilia and Systemic Symptoms) is a severe allergic reaction affecting around 10 per cent of individuals, potentially deadly and caused by certain medications.

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Green Credit Initiative was launched by India on the side-lines of Conference of Parties 28 (COP). The Green Credit Rules, 2023 has been notified under the Environment Protection Act 1986. The generation of Green Credits in Green Credit Rules, 2023 is a part of Carbon Credit Trading Scheme 2023. How many of the statements given above is/are *not correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Green Credit Initiative was launched by the Prime Minister of India on the side-lines of COP 28. It is an initiative within the governments Lifestyle for Environment or LIFE movement. Statement 2 is correct: The Green Credit Rules, 2023, has been notified on 12th October 2023 under the Environment Protection Act 1986. These rules put in place a mechanism to encourage voluntary environmental positive actions resulting in issuance of green credits. In its initial phase, voluntary tree plantation is envisaged on degraded land, waste land, watershed area etc. under the control and management of Forest departments. Statement 3 is not correct: The generation of Green Credit under Green Credit Rules, 2023 is independent of the carbon credit under Carbon Credit Trading Scheme 2023. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Green Credit Initiative was launched by the Prime Minister of India on the side-lines of COP 28. It is an initiative within the governments Lifestyle for Environment or LIFE movement. Statement 2 is correct: The Green Credit Rules, 2023, has been notified on 12th October 2023 under the Environment Protection Act 1986. These rules put in place a mechanism to encourage voluntary environmental positive actions resulting in issuance of green credits. In its initial phase, voluntary tree plantation is envisaged on degraded land, waste land, watershed area etc. under the control and management of Forest departments. Statement 3 is not correct:* The generation of Green Credit under Green Credit Rules, 2023 is independent of the carbon credit under Carbon Credit Trading Scheme 2023.

#### 19. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Green Credit Initiative was launched by India on the side-lines of Conference of Parties 28 (COP).

• The Green Credit Rules, 2023 has been notified under the Environment Protection Act 1986.

• The generation of Green Credits in Green Credit Rules, 2023 is a part of Carbon Credit Trading Scheme 2023.

How many of the statements given above is/are *not* correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Green Credit Initiative was launched by the Prime Minister of India on the side-lines of COP 28.

It is an initiative within the governments Lifestyle for Environment or LIFE movement.

Statement 2 is correct: The Green Credit Rules, 2023, has been notified on 12th October 2023 under the Environment Protection Act 1986.

These rules put in place a mechanism to encourage voluntary environmental positive actions resulting in issuance of green credits.

In its initial phase, voluntary tree plantation is envisaged on degraded land, waste land, watershed area etc. under the control and management of Forest departments.

Statement 3 is not correct: The generation of Green Credit under Green Credit Rules, 2023 is independent of the carbon credit under Carbon Credit Trading Scheme 2023.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Green Credit Initiative was launched by the Prime Minister of India on the side-lines of COP 28.

It is an initiative within the governments Lifestyle for Environment or LIFE movement.

Statement 2 is correct: The Green Credit Rules, 2023, has been notified on 12th October 2023 under the Environment Protection Act 1986.

These rules put in place a mechanism to encourage voluntary environmental positive actions resulting in issuance of green credits.

In its initial phase, voluntary tree plantation is envisaged on degraded land, waste land, watershed area etc. under the control and management of Forest departments.

Statement 3 is not correct: The generation of Green Credit under Green Credit Rules, 2023 is independent of the carbon credit under Carbon Credit Trading Scheme 2023.

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Koya Tribe: The Koyas are among the exclusive tribes of Odisha. The Koyas belong to the family of ‘Austric’. The chief of every Koya village is called ‘Disari’. The ‘Dhemsa’ dance is the popular dance of this tribe. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Answer: B Explanation: Malkangiri District has the unique distinction of having the largest concentration of colourful tribes. Statement 1 is not correct: The Koyas are an important tribe among the 62 tribes of Odisha. Except Malkangiri of Odisha they are also found mainly in Andhra Pradesh and Chhatisgarh. Statement 2 is correct: The Koyas belong to the family of “Austric’ and they speak a Dravidian dialect. Statement 3 is not correct: The chief of every Koya village is called “Peda’. The chief priest of the village deity “Disari’ who is a key person of the village, plays a vital role in the life of the Koyas. Statement 4 is correct: Dance, song and the music are the part of the koya’s aesthetic life. “Dhemsa’ dance is the popular dance of the koya tribe. Like other tribes marriage within the clan is prohibited in Koya society. Monogamy is the rule, although in the exceptional cases polygamy is practiced. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Malkangiri District has the unique distinction of having the largest concentration of colourful tribes. Statement 1 is not correct: The Koyas are an important tribe among the 62 tribes of Odisha. Except Malkangiri of Odisha they are also found mainly in Andhra Pradesh and Chhatisgarh. Statement 2 is correct: The Koyas belong to the family of “Austric’ and they speak a Dravidian dialect. Statement 3 is not correct: The chief of every Koya village is called “Peda’. The chief priest of the village deity “Disari’ who is a key person of the village, plays a vital role in the life of the Koyas. Statement 4 is correct: Dance, song and the music are the part of the koya’s aesthetic life. “Dhemsa’ dance is the popular dance of the koya tribe. Like other tribes marriage within the clan is prohibited in Koya society. Monogamy is the rule, although in the exceptional cases polygamy is practiced.

#### 20. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Koya Tribe:

• The Koyas are among the exclusive tribes of Odisha.

• The Koyas belong to the family of ‘Austric’.

• The chief of every Koya village is called ‘Disari’.

• The ‘Dhemsa’ dance is the popular dance of this tribe.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Answer: B

Explanation:

Malkangiri District has the unique distinction of having the largest concentration of colourful tribes.

Statement 1 is not correct: The Koyas are an important tribe among the 62 tribes of Odisha. Except Malkangiri of Odisha they are also found mainly in Andhra Pradesh and Chhatisgarh.

Statement 2 is correct: The Koyas belong to the family of “Austric’ and they speak a Dravidian dialect.

Statement 3 is not correct: The chief of every Koya village is called “Peda’. The chief priest of the village deity “Disari’ who is a key person of the village, plays a vital role in the life of the Koyas.

Statement 4 is correct: Dance, song and the music are the part of the koya’s aesthetic life. “Dhemsa’ dance is the popular dance of the koya tribe.

Like other tribes marriage within the clan is prohibited in Koya society. Monogamy is the rule, although in the exceptional cases polygamy is practiced.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Malkangiri District has the unique distinction of having the largest concentration of colourful tribes.

Statement 1 is not correct: The Koyas are an important tribe among the 62 tribes of Odisha. Except Malkangiri of Odisha they are also found mainly in Andhra Pradesh and Chhatisgarh.

Statement 2 is correct: The Koyas belong to the family of “Austric’ and they speak a Dravidian dialect.

Statement 4 is correct: Dance, song and the music are the part of the koya’s aesthetic life. “Dhemsa’ dance is the popular dance of the koya tribe.

Like other tribes marriage within the clan is prohibited in Koya society. Monogamy is the rule, although in the exceptional cases polygamy is practiced.

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points The Global Cooling Watch 2023 report by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) highlights pathways to achieve near-zero emissions from cooling, including passive cooling. Passive cooling can be achieved by a) using the architectural design of building components rather than mechanical systems to dissipate heat b) using cooling methods that require low or no energy consumption c) improving indoor thermal insulation d) all of the above Correct Solution: d) Justification: Passive cooling is a building design approach that focuses on heat gain control and heat dissipation in a building in order to improve the indoor thermal comfort with low or no energy consumption. This approach works either by preventing heat from entering the interior (heat gain prevention) or by removing heat from the building (natural cooling). Natural cooling utilizes on-site energy, available from the natural environment, combined with the architectural design of building components (e.g. building envelope), rather than mechanical systems to dissipate heat. Therefore, natural cooling depends not only on the architectural design of the building but on how the site’s natural resources are used as heat sinks (i.e. everything that absorbs or dissipates heat). Examples of on-site heat sinks are the upper atmosphere (night sky), the outdoor air (wind), and the earth/soil. See more at https://climatechampions.unfccc.int/cooling-pathway/ Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Incorrect Solution: d) Justification: Passive cooling is a building design approach that focuses on heat gain control and heat dissipation in a building in order to improve the indoor thermal comfort with low or no energy consumption. This approach works either by preventing heat from entering the interior (heat gain prevention) or by removing heat from the building (natural cooling). Natural cooling utilizes on-site energy, available from the natural environment, combined with the architectural design of building components (e.g. building envelope), rather than mechanical systems to dissipate heat. Therefore, natural cooling depends not only on the architectural design of the building but on how the site’s natural resources are used as heat sinks (i.e. everything that absorbs or dissipates heat). Examples of on-site heat sinks are the upper atmosphere (night sky), the outdoor air (wind), and the earth/soil. See more at https://climatechampions.unfccc.int/cooling-pathway/ Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

#### 21. Question

The Global Cooling Watch 2023 report by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) highlights pathways to achieve near-zero emissions from cooling, including passive cooling. Passive cooling can be achieved by

• a) using the architectural design of building components rather than mechanical systems to dissipate heat

• b) using cooling methods that require low or no energy consumption

• c) improving indoor thermal insulation

• d) all of the above

Solution: d)

Justification: Passive cooling is a building design approach that focuses on heat gain control and heat dissipation in a building in order to improve the indoor thermal comfort with low or no energy consumption.

This approach works either by preventing heat from entering the interior (heat gain prevention) or by removing heat from the building (natural cooling).

Natural cooling utilizes on-site energy, available from the natural environment, combined with the architectural design of building components (e.g. building envelope), rather than mechanical systems to dissipate heat. Therefore, natural cooling depends not only on the architectural design of the building but on how the site’s natural resources are used as heat sinks (i.e. everything that absorbs or dissipates heat). Examples of on-site heat sinks are the upper atmosphere (night sky), the outdoor air (wind), and the earth/soil.

See more at https://climatechampions.unfccc.int/cooling-pathway/

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Solution: d)

This approach works either by preventing heat from entering the interior (heat gain prevention) or by removing heat from the building (natural cooling).

See more at https://climatechampions.unfccc.int/cooling-pathway/

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Consider the following about certain government programmes that have a bearing on achieving greater ethanol blending with petrol in India. Ethanol blending program aims to achieve a target of 50 per cent ethanol blending in petrol by 2025. PM JI-VAN YOJANA for providing financial support for setting up second-generation (2G) ethanol projects. The E-100 Project aims to establish a pan-India ethanol production and distribution network. How many of the statements above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Justification: The government programme for ethanol blending: National Policy on Biofuels (2018); Ethanol blending Program (target of 20 per cent ethanol blending in petrol by 2025); PM JI-VAN YOJANA for providing financial support for setting up second-generation (2G) ethanol projects; E100 Pilot project; Repurpose Used Cooking Oil (RUCO) The E-100 Project is an enormous initiative by the Government of India that aims to establish a pan-India ethanol production and distribution network. Under this programme, oil marketing companies will need to prepare for the anticipated demand for ethanol storage, handling, blending, and dispensing infrastructure. Read more here https://www.livemint.com/news/india/pm-modi-launches-e-100-project-to-produce-distribute-ethanol-across-india-11622886227525.html Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Incorrect Solution: b) Justification: The government programme for ethanol blending: National Policy on Biofuels (2018); Ethanol blending Program (target of 20 per cent ethanol blending in petrol by 2025); PM JI-VAN YOJANA for providing financial support for setting up second-generation (2G) ethanol projects; E100 Pilot project; Repurpose Used Cooking Oil (RUCO) The E-100 Project is an enormous initiative by the Government of India that aims to establish a pan-India ethanol production and distribution network. Under this programme, oil marketing companies will need to prepare for the anticipated demand for ethanol storage, handling, blending, and dispensing infrastructure. Read more here https://www.livemint.com/news/india/pm-modi-launches-e-100-project-to-produce-distribute-ethanol-across-india-11622886227525.html Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

#### 22. Question

Consider the following about certain government programmes that have a bearing on achieving greater ethanol blending with petrol in India.

• Ethanol blending program aims to achieve a target of 50 per cent ethanol blending in petrol by 2025.

• PM JI-VAN YOJANA for providing financial support for setting up second-generation (2G) ethanol projects.

• The E-100 Project aims to establish a pan-India ethanol production and distribution network.

How many of the statements above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: b)

Justification: The government programme for ethanol blending:

• National Policy on Biofuels (2018);

• Ethanol blending Program (target of 20 per cent ethanol blending in petrol by 2025);

• PM JI-VAN YOJANA for providing financial support for setting up second-generation (2G) ethanol projects;

• E100 Pilot project;

• Repurpose Used Cooking Oil (RUCO)

The E-100 Project is an enormous initiative by the Government of India that aims to establish a pan-India ethanol production and distribution network. Under this programme, oil marketing companies will need to prepare for the anticipated demand for ethanol storage, handling, blending, and dispensing infrastructure. Read more here https://www.livemint.com/news/india/pm-modi-launches-e-100-project-to-produce-distribute-ethanol-across-india-11622886227525.html

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Solution: b)

Justification: The government programme for ethanol blending:

• National Policy on Biofuels (2018);

• Ethanol blending Program (target of 20 per cent ethanol blending in petrol by 2025);

• PM JI-VAN YOJANA for providing financial support for setting up second-generation (2G) ethanol projects;

• E100 Pilot project;

• Repurpose Used Cooking Oil (RUCO)

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Which of the following species of cotton is grown in India? America Upland Cotton Egyptian Cotton Asian Cotton How many of the statements above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: c) Learning: India is currently the second-largest cotton producer with the largest cultivation area, and need to enhance productivity, following the model of countries like Australia. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Incorrect Solution: c) Learning: India is currently the second-largest cotton producer with the largest cultivation area, and need to enhance productivity, following the model of countries like Australia. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

#### 23. Question

Which of the following species of cotton is grown in India?

• America Upland Cotton

• Egyptian Cotton

• Asian Cotton

How many of the statements above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: c)

Learning: India is currently the second-largest cotton producer with the largest cultivation area, and need to enhance productivity, following the model of countries like Australia.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Solution: c)

Learning: India is currently the second-largest cotton producer with the largest cultivation area, and need to enhance productivity, following the model of countries like Australia.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points The ASPEX (Aditya Solar Wind Particle Experiment) instrument of the ISRO onboard the Aditya L1 Spacecraft will help the scientific community to understand the impact of space weather on power grids on earth neutrino spread in space communication systems on earth Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: c) Justification: ISRO’s Aditya L1 spacecraft, launched in September to explore the Sun, has activated its second instrument, ASPEX (Aditya Solar Wind Particle Experiment). ASPEX, or the Aditya Solar Wind Particle Experiment, is a scientific instrument on ISRO’s Aditya L1 spacecraft de- signed to study solar wind particles. It comprises tools such as the ‘Solar Wind Ion Spectrometer’ (SWIS) and the ‘Supra- thermal and Energetic Particle Spectrometer’ (STEPS). SWIS measures charged particles (ions) from the Sun, offering a broad view, while STEPS focuses on studying high-energy particles emitted by the Sun. ASPEX plays a crucial role in understanding space weather and its potential impact on communication systems and power grids on Earth Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: ISRO’s Aditya L1 spacecraft, launched in September to explore the Sun, has activated its second instrument, ASPEX (Aditya Solar Wind Particle Experiment). ASPEX, or the Aditya Solar Wind Particle Experiment, is a scientific instrument on ISRO’s Aditya L1 spacecraft de- signed to study solar wind particles. It comprises tools such as the ‘Solar Wind Ion Spectrometer’ (SWIS) and the ‘Supra- thermal and Energetic Particle Spectrometer’ (STEPS). SWIS measures charged particles (ions) from the Sun, offering a broad view, while STEPS focuses on studying high-energy particles emitted by the Sun. ASPEX plays a crucial role in understanding space weather and its potential impact on communication systems and power grids on Earth Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

#### 24. Question

The ASPEX (Aditya Solar Wind Particle Experiment) instrument of the ISRO onboard the Aditya L1 Spacecraft will help the scientific community to understand the impact of space weather on

• power grids on earth

• neutrino spread in space

• communication systems on earth

Which of the above is/are correct?

• a) 1 and 2 only

• b) 2 and 3 only

• c) 1 and 3 only

• d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: c)

Justification: ISRO’s Aditya L1 spacecraft, launched in September to explore the Sun, has activated its second instrument, ASPEX (Aditya Solar Wind Particle Experiment).

ASPEX, or the Aditya Solar Wind Particle Experiment, is a scientific instrument on ISRO’s Aditya L1 spacecraft de- signed to study solar wind particles.

It comprises tools such as the ‘Solar Wind Ion Spectrometer’ (SWIS) and the ‘Supra- thermal and Energetic Particle Spectrometer’ (STEPS). SWIS measures charged particles (ions) from the Sun, offering a broad view, while STEPS focuses on studying high-energy particles emitted by the Sun.

ASPEX plays a crucial role in understanding space weather and its potential impact on communication systems and power grids on Earth

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Solution: c)

Justification: ISRO’s Aditya L1 spacecraft, launched in September to explore the Sun, has activated its second instrument, ASPEX (Aditya Solar Wind Particle Experiment).

ASPEX, or the Aditya Solar Wind Particle Experiment, is a scientific instrument on ISRO’s Aditya L1 spacecraft de- signed to study solar wind particles.

ASPEX plays a crucial role in understanding space weather and its potential impact on communication systems and power grids on Earth

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. The Santiago Network is a collaborative framework to assist vulnerable developing countries in managing climate-induced loss and damage. The Santiago Network was established as part of the Warsaw International Mechanism for Loss and Damage (WIM). Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: c) Justification: The Santiago Network was established at COP 25 in Madrid as part of the Warsaw International Mechanism for Loss and Damage (WIM). The network’s objective is to connect vulnerable developing countries with technical assistance, knowledge, and re- sources. The resources are needed to address climate risks, such as rising sea levels, melting glaciers, storms, and floods. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: The Santiago Network was established at COP 25 in Madrid as part of the Warsaw International Mechanism for Loss and Damage (WIM). The network’s objective is to connect vulnerable developing countries with technical assistance, knowledge, and re- sources. The resources are needed to address climate risks, such as rising sea levels, melting glaciers, storms, and floods. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

#### 25. Question

Consider the following statements.

• The Santiago Network is a collaborative framework to assist vulnerable developing countries in managing climate-induced loss and damage.

• The Santiago Network was established as part of the Warsaw International Mechanism for Loss and Damage (WIM).

Which of the above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c)

Justification: The Santiago Network was established at COP 25 in Madrid as part of the Warsaw International Mechanism for Loss and Damage (WIM).

The network’s objective is to connect vulnerable developing countries with technical assistance, knowledge, and re- sources. The resources are needed to address climate risks, such as rising sea levels, melting glaciers, storms, and floods.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Solution: c)

Justification: The Santiago Network was established at COP 25 in Madrid as part of the Warsaw International Mechanism for Loss and Damage (WIM).

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/01/CA-30-DEC-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points Mega cities, state capitals, metropolitan cities and smaller cities have all been hit by extremely heavy downpours, in many cases in an unprecedented manner. Invariably, they have exceeded the capacity of cities and towns to drain this water out, culminating in huge waterlogging. The results at the city level have been loss of economy, employment and infrastructure. Two maladies relevant here are: lack of proactive engagement of cities with fresh infrastructure, utter neglect of the role of maintaining what has been already constructed. Secondly, population addition demands space for every incoming individual. With reference to the above passage following implications are considered: Chennai, Patna and Mumbai corporations building smart cities with good bariatrics Centre and state cooperation in reversing migration Code: A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 & 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: D Both statements are absurd because no mention of real world facts like Chennai or Centre or State is given in the passage. So D is answer. Incorrect Answer: D Both statements are absurd because no mention of real world facts like Chennai or Centre or State is given in the passage. So D is answer.

#### 26. Question

Mega cities, state capitals, metropolitan cities and smaller cities have all been hit by extremely heavy downpours, in many cases in an unprecedented manner. Invariably, they have exceeded the capacity of cities and towns to drain this water out, culminating in huge waterlogging. The results at the city level have been loss of economy, employment and infrastructure. Two maladies relevant here are: lack of proactive engagement of cities with fresh infrastructure, utter neglect of the role of maintaining what has been already constructed. Secondly, population addition demands space for every incoming individual.

With reference to the above passage following implications are considered:

• Chennai, Patna and Mumbai corporations building smart cities with good bariatrics

• Centre and state cooperation in reversing migration

• C. Both 1 & 2

• D. Neither 1 nor 2

Both statements are absurd because no mention of real world facts like Chennai or Centre or State is given in the passage. So D is answer.

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points Mega cities, state capitals, metropolitan cities and smaller cities have all been hit by extremely heavy downpours, in many cases in an unprecedented manner. Invariably, they have exceeded the capacity of cities and towns to drain this water out, culminating in huge waterlogging. The results at the city level have been loss of economy, employment and infrastructure. Two maladies relevant here are: lack of proactive engagement of cities with fresh infrastructure, utter neglect of the role of maintaining what has been already constructed. Secondly, population addition demands space for every incoming individual. The author seems to argue, A. In favour of disincentivising more population density B. Against disincentivising migrants without social security C. In favour of more robust urban governance D. Against investing in new infrastructure instead of maintenance of old ones. Correct Answer: A The papaage finds two core problems in city floods: no new infrastructure built, old one not maintained well, more population. So D is against the passage. C is too generic and B is not relevant. A is correct since reducing human footprint can save cities. Incorrect Answer: A The papaage finds two core problems in city floods: no new infrastructure built, old one not maintained well, more population. So D is against the passage. C is too generic and B is not relevant. A is correct since reducing human footprint can save cities.

#### 27. Question

The author seems to argue,

• A. In favour of disincentivising more population density

• B. Against disincentivising migrants without social security

• C. In favour of more robust urban governance

• D. Against investing in new infrastructure instead of maintenance of old ones.

The papaage finds two core problems in city floods: no new infrastructure built, old one not maintained well, more population.

So D is against the passage. C is too generic and B is not relevant. A is correct since reducing human footprint can save cities.

The papaage finds two core problems in city floods: no new infrastructure built, old one not maintained well, more population.

So D is against the passage. C is too generic and B is not relevant. A is correct since reducing human footprint can save cities.

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points Anil, Sunil, and Ravi run along a circular path of length 3 km, starting from the same point at the same time, and going in the clockwise direction. If they run at speeds of 15 km/hr, 10 km/hr, and 8 km/hr, respectively, how much distance in km will Ravi have run when Anil and Sunil meet again for the first time at the starting point? A 4.8 km B 4.6 km C 5.2 km D 4.2 km Correct Answer A) 4.8 km Anil and Sunil will meet at a first point after LCM (3/15 , 3/10 ) = 3/5 hr In the mean time, distance travelled by Ravi = 8 3/5 = 4.8 km Incorrect Answer A) 4.8 km Anil and Sunil will meet at a first point after LCM (3/15 , 3/10 ) = 3/5 hr In the mean time, distance travelled by Ravi = 8 3/5 = 4.8 km

#### 28. Question

Anil, Sunil, and Ravi run along a circular path of length 3 km, starting from the same point at the same time, and going in the clockwise direction. If they run at speeds of 15 km/hr, 10 km/hr, and 8 km/hr, respectively, how much distance in km will Ravi have run when Anil and Sunil meet again for the first time at the starting point?

Answer A) 4.8 km

Anil and Sunil will meet at a first point after LCM (3/15 , 3/10 ) = 3/5 hr

In the mean time, distance travelled by Ravi = 8 * 3/5 = 4.8 km

Answer A) 4.8 km

Anil and Sunil will meet at a first point after LCM (3/15 , 3/10 ) = 3/5 hr

In the mean time, distance travelled by Ravi = 8 * 3/5 = 4.8 km

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points A, B, C start running at the same time and at the same point in the same direction in a circular stadium. A completes a round in 252 seconds, B in 308 seconds and C in 198 seconds. After what time will they meet again at the starting point ? (A) 26 minutes 18 seconds (B) 42 minutes 36 seconds (C) 45 minutes (D) 46 minutes 12 seconds Correct ANSWER (D) 46 minutes 12 seconds Required time = LCM of 252, 308 and 198 seconds LCM = 2 × 2 × 7 × 9 × 11 = 2772 seconds = 46 minutes 12 seconds Incorrect ANSWER (D) 46 minutes 12 seconds Required time = LCM of 252, 308 and 198 seconds LCM = 2 × 2 × 7 × 9 × 11 = 2772 seconds = 46 minutes 12 seconds

#### 29. Question

A, B, C start running at the same time and at the same point in the same direction in a circular stadium. A completes a round in 252 seconds, B in 308 seconds and C in 198 seconds. After what time will they meet again at the starting point ?

• (A) 26 minutes 18 seconds

• (B) 42 minutes 36 seconds

• (C) 45 minutes

• (D) 46 minutes 12 seconds

ANSWER (D) 46 minutes 12 seconds

Required time = LCM of 252, 308 and 198 seconds

LCM = 2 × 2 × 7 × 9 × 11

= 2772 seconds

= 46 minutes 12 seconds

ANSWER (D) 46 minutes 12 seconds

Required time = LCM of 252, 308 and 198 seconds

LCM = 2 × 2 × 7 × 9 × 11

= 2772 seconds

= 46 minutes 12 seconds

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points Let the least number of six digits which when divided by 4, 6, 10, 15 leaves in each case same remainder 2 be N. The sum of digits in N is : A. 3 B. 5 C. 4 D. 6 Correct ANSWER (B) 5 LCM of 4, 6, 10, 15 = 60 Least number of 6 digits = 100000 The least number of 6 digits which is exactly divisible by 60 = 100000 + (60 – 40) = 100020 Required number (N) = 100020 + 2 = 100022 Hence, the sum of digits = 1 + 0 + 0 + 0 + 2 + 2 = 5 Incorrect ANSWER (B) 5 LCM of 4, 6, 10, 15 = 60 Least number of 6 digits = 100000 The least number of 6 digits which is exactly divisible by 60 = 100000 + (60 – 40) = 100020 Required number (N) = 100020 + 2 = 100022 Hence, the sum of digits = 1 + 0 + 0 + 0 + 2 + 2 = 5

#### 30. Question

Let the least number of six digits which when divided by 4, 6, 10, 15 leaves in each case same

remainder 2 be N. The sum of digits in N is :

ANSWER (B) 5

LCM of 4, 6, 10, 15 = 60

Least number of 6 digits = 100000

The least number of 6 digits which

is exactly divisible by 60 = 100000 + (60 – 40) = 100020

Required number (N)

= 100020 + 2 = 100022

Hence, the sum of digits = 1 + 0 + 0 + 0 + 2 + 2 = 5

ANSWER (B) 5

LCM of 4, 6, 10, 15 = 60

Least number of 6 digits = 100000

The least number of 6 digits which

is exactly divisible by 60 = 100000 + (60 – 40) = 100020

Required number (N)

= 100020 + 2 = 100022

Hence, the sum of digits = 1 + 0 + 0 + 0 + 2 + 2 = 5

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