DAY – 24 : Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2025 : AGRICULTURE

Read about Insights IAS INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Prelims – 2025 [ HERE ] :

DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(GS) [HERE] :

DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(CSAT) [HERE] :

Download MITRA booklet (My Insta Tests Revision and Assessment) – It’s for to track your daily progress while following Insta 75 Days plan. [ CLICK HERE ] :

#### Quiz-summary

0 of 30 questions completed

Questions:

#### Information

Wish you Good Luck! 🙂

You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.

Quiz is loading...

You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.

You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:

0 of 30 questions answered correctly

Your time:

Time has elapsed

You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)

Average score |

Your score |

#### Categories

• Not categorized 0%

Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result

Table is loading

No data available

| | | |

• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points With reference to the Minimum Support Price (MSP) mechanism in India, consider the following statements: The procurement of oilseeds under Price Support Scheme (PSS) is triggered only when market prices fall below MSP. NAFED is the designated central nodal agency for procuring pulses under MSP operations. The C2 cost formula, as recommended by the Swaminathan Committee, includes both paid-out costs and imputed value of family labor. MSP for minor forest produce is fixed by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs. Which of the statements given above are correct? a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 1, 2 and 4 only c) 2, 3 and 4 only d) 1, 3 and 4 only Correct Solution: B The Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a form of market intervention by the Government of India to ensure price support to farmers. It acts as a safety net for farmers against any sharp fall in farm prices. MSPs are announced at the beginning of the sowing season for certain crops, and the government procures these crops at the announced price if the market prices fall below it. Statement 1 is correct: The Price Support Scheme (PSS) is implemented by the government to procure oilseeds, copra, and cotton. Procurement under PSS is generally triggered when the market prices fall below the MSP to protect the farmers’ interests. Statement 2 is correct: The National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India (NAFED) is the designated central nodal agency for procuring pulses and oilseeds under the MSP operations. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Swaminathan Committee recommended the C2+50% formula for MSP, where C2 includes the imputed value of family labor along with paid-out costs. However, the question states that C2 includes both, which is true by definition of C2. The government currently uses different cost concepts like A2, A2+FL, and C2 for calculating MSP, but the MSP is not necessarily fixed based on the C2 formula recommended by the Swaminathan Committee. The statement itself is factually correct about what C2 includes. Statement 4 is correct: The MSP for minor forest produce (MFP) is fixed by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs. Incorrect Solution: B The Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a form of market intervention by the Government of India to ensure price support to farmers. It acts as a safety net for farmers against any sharp fall in farm prices. MSPs are announced at the beginning of the sowing season for certain crops, and the government procures these crops at the announced price if the market prices fall below it. Statement 1 is correct: The Price Support Scheme (PSS) is implemented by the government to procure oilseeds, copra, and cotton. Procurement under PSS is generally triggered when the market prices fall below the MSP to protect the farmers’ interests. Statement 2 is correct: The National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India (NAFED) is the designated central nodal agency for procuring pulses and oilseeds under the MSP operations. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Swaminathan Committee recommended the C2+50% formula for MSP, where C2 includes the imputed value of family labor along with paid-out costs. However, the question states that C2 includes both, which is true by definition of C2. The government currently uses different cost concepts like A2, A2+FL, and C2 for calculating MSP, but the MSP is not necessarily fixed based on the C2 formula recommended by the Swaminathan Committee. The statement itself is factually correct about what C2 includes. Statement 4 is correct: The MSP for minor forest produce (MFP) is fixed by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.

#### 1. Question

With reference to the Minimum Support Price (MSP) mechanism in India, consider the following statements:

• The procurement of oilseeds under Price Support Scheme (PSS) is triggered only when market prices fall below MSP.

• NAFED is the designated central nodal agency for procuring pulses under MSP operations.

• The C2 cost formula, as recommended by the Swaminathan Committee, includes both paid-out costs and imputed value of family labor.

• MSP for minor forest produce is fixed by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• a) 1, 2 and 3 only

• b) 1, 2 and 4 only

• c) 2, 3 and 4 only

• d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Solution: B

The Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a form of market intervention by the Government of India to ensure price support to farmers. It acts as a safety net for farmers against any sharp fall in farm prices. MSPs are announced at the beginning of the sowing season for certain crops, and the government procures these crops at the announced price if the market prices fall below it.

• Statement 1 is correct: The Price Support Scheme (PSS) is implemented by the government to procure oilseeds, copra, and cotton. Procurement under PSS is generally triggered when the market prices fall below the MSP to protect the farmers’ interests.

• Statement 2 is correct: The National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India (NAFED) is the designated central nodal agency for procuring pulses and oilseeds under the MSP operations.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: The Swaminathan Committee recommended the C2+50% formula for MSP, where C2 includes the imputed value of family labor along with paid-out costs. However, the question states that C2 includes both, which is true by definition of C2. The government currently uses different cost concepts like A2, A2+FL, and C2 for calculating MSP, but the MSP is not necessarily fixed based on the C2 formula recommended by the Swaminathan Committee. The statement itself is factually correct about what C2 includes.

• Statement 4 is correct: The MSP for minor forest produce (MFP) is fixed by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.

Solution: B

• Statement 4 is correct: The MSP for minor forest produce (MFP) is fixed by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points The concept of ‘climate-smart agriculture’ primarily aims to achieve which of the following objectives? (a) Maximizing agricultural productivity through the intensive use of chemical inputs. (b) Enhancing food security while simultaneously mitigating and adapting to climate change. (c) Promoting monoculture cropping systems for increased efficiency. (d) Focusing solely on increasing the income of small and marginal farmers, irrespective of environmental impacts. Correct Solution: B Climate-smart agriculture (CSA) is an approach that helps to guide actions needed to transform and reorient agricultural systems to effectively support development and ensure food security in a changing climate. The core objective of climate-smart agriculture is to sustainably increase agricultural productivity and incomes, adapt and build resilience to climate change, and reduce and/or remove greenhouse gas emissions, where possible. Option (b) directly reflects this comprehensive aim by focusing on both enhancing food security and addressing climate change through mitigation and adaptation. Option (a) contradicts the principles of CSA, which often promotes sustainable practices over the intensive use of chemical inputs that can have negative environmental impacts. Option (c) is incorrect as CSA generally encourages crop diversification for resilience rather than promoting monoculture, which can be vulnerable to climate-related risks. Option (d) is too narrow in its focus. While increasing farmers’ income is an important aspect, CSA also emphasizes environmental sustainability and food security. Incorrect Solution: B Climate-smart agriculture (CSA) is an approach that helps to guide actions needed to transform and reorient agricultural systems to effectively support development and ensure food security in a changing climate. The core objective of climate-smart agriculture is to sustainably increase agricultural productivity and incomes, adapt and build resilience to climate change, and reduce and/or remove greenhouse gas emissions, where possible. Option (b) directly reflects this comprehensive aim by focusing on both enhancing food security and addressing climate change through mitigation and adaptation. Option (a) contradicts the principles of CSA, which often promotes sustainable practices over the intensive use of chemical inputs that can have negative environmental impacts. Option (c) is incorrect as CSA generally encourages crop diversification for resilience rather than promoting monoculture, which can be vulnerable to climate-related risks. Option (d) is too narrow in its focus. While increasing farmers’ income is an important aspect, CSA also emphasizes environmental sustainability and food security.

#### 2. Question

The concept of ‘climate-smart agriculture’ primarily aims to achieve which of the following objectives?

• (a) Maximizing agricultural productivity through the intensive use of chemical inputs.

• (b) Enhancing food security while simultaneously mitigating and adapting to climate change.

• (c) Promoting monoculture cropping systems for increased efficiency.

• (d) Focusing solely on increasing the income of small and marginal farmers, irrespective of environmental impacts.

Solution: B

Climate-smart agriculture (CSA) is an approach that helps to guide actions needed to transform and reorient agricultural systems to effectively support development and ensure food security in a changing climate.

The core objective of climate-smart agriculture is to sustainably increase agricultural productivity and incomes, adapt and build resilience to climate change, and reduce and/or remove greenhouse gas emissions, where possible. Option (b) directly reflects this comprehensive aim by focusing on both enhancing food security and addressing climate change through mitigation and adaptation.

Option (a) contradicts the principles of CSA, which often promotes sustainable practices over the intensive use of chemical inputs that can have negative environmental impacts.

Option (c) is incorrect as CSA generally encourages crop diversification for resilience rather than promoting monoculture, which can be vulnerable to climate-related risks.

Option (d) is too narrow in its focus. While increasing farmers’ income is an important aspect, CSA also emphasizes environmental sustainability and food security.

Solution: B

Option (a) contradicts the principles of CSA, which often promotes sustainable practices over the intensive use of chemical inputs that can have negative environmental impacts.

Option (c) is incorrect as CSA generally encourages crop diversification for resilience rather than promoting monoculture, which can be vulnerable to climate-related risks.

Option (d) is too narrow in its focus. While increasing farmers’ income is an important aspect, CSA also emphasizes environmental sustainability and food security.

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points The National Mission on Edible Oils – Oilseeds (NMEO-Oilseeds) seeks to achieve self-reliance in edible oils. Which of the following strategies is most likely to be a key component of this mission? (a) Imposing high tariffs on imported edible oils to discourage their consumption. (b) Providing subsidies for the cultivation of oil palm and other oilseed crops, along with investments in processing infrastructure. (c) Shifting the focus from oilseed crops to other high-value commercial crops to increase farmers' income. (d) Promoting the consumption of animal fats as a healthy alternative to vegetable oils. Correct Solution: B The NMEO-Oilseeds was approved by the Union Cabinet with the aim of boosting domestic oilseed production and achieving self-reliance in edible oils. The most direct and effective strategy for increasing domestic production of edible oils and achieving self-reliance is to incentivize the cultivation of oilseed crops and invest in the necessary infrastructure to process them. Option (b) aligns with this objective by mentioning subsidies for oil palm and other oilseed crops, along with investments in processing infrastructure. Option (a) might reduce consumption of imported oils but doesn’t directly address increasing domestic production. It could also lead to higher prices for consumers. Option (c) is counterproductive to the mission’s goal of achieving self-reliance in edible oils. Option (d) is related to dietary choices and health, not directly to increasing the domestic production of oilseeds. Incorrect Solution: B The NMEO-Oilseeds was approved by the Union Cabinet with the aim of boosting domestic oilseed production and achieving self-reliance in edible oils. The most direct and effective strategy for increasing domestic production of edible oils and achieving self-reliance is to incentivize the cultivation of oilseed crops and invest in the necessary infrastructure to process them. Option (b) aligns with this objective by mentioning subsidies for oil palm and other oilseed crops, along with investments in processing infrastructure. Option (a) might reduce consumption of imported oils but doesn’t directly address increasing domestic production. It could also lead to higher prices for consumers. Option (c) is counterproductive to the mission’s goal of achieving self-reliance in edible oils. Option (d) is related to dietary choices and health, not directly to increasing the domestic production of oilseeds.

#### 3. Question

The National Mission on Edible Oils – Oilseeds (NMEO-Oilseeds) seeks to achieve self-reliance in edible oils. Which of the following strategies is most likely to be a key component of this mission?

• (a) Imposing high tariffs on imported edible oils to discourage their consumption.

• (b) Providing subsidies for the cultivation of oil palm and other oilseed crops, along with investments in processing infrastructure.

• (c) Shifting the focus from oilseed crops to other high-value commercial crops to increase farmers' income.

• (d) Promoting the consumption of animal fats as a healthy alternative to vegetable oils.

Solution: B

The NMEO-Oilseeds was approved by the Union Cabinet with the aim of boosting domestic oilseed production and achieving self-reliance in edible oils.

The most direct and effective strategy for increasing domestic production of edible oils and achieving self-reliance is to incentivize the cultivation of oilseed crops and invest in the necessary infrastructure to process them. Option (b) aligns with this objective by mentioning subsidies for oil palm and other oilseed crops, along with investments in processing infrastructure.

• Option (a) might reduce consumption of imported oils but doesn’t directly address increasing domestic production. It could also lead to higher prices for consumers.

• Option (c) is counterproductive to the mission’s goal of achieving self-reliance in edible oils.

• Option (d) is related to dietary choices and health, not directly to increasing the domestic production of oilseeds.

Solution: B

The NMEO-Oilseeds was approved by the Union Cabinet with the aim of boosting domestic oilseed production and achieving self-reliance in edible oils.

• Option (a) might reduce consumption of imported oils but doesn’t directly address increasing domestic production. It could also lead to higher prices for consumers.

• Option (c) is counterproductive to the mission’s goal of achieving self-reliance in edible oils.

• Option (d) is related to dietary choices and health, not directly to increasing the domestic production of oilseeds.

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the recent emphasis on millets (Shree Anna) in India: India spearheaded the proposal for the United Nations to declare 2023 as the International Year of Millets. Millets are inherently less water-intensive compared to crops like rice and wheat. The Government of India has increased the Minimum Support Price (MSP) for all millet varieties significantly in the last two years. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 Only (b) 2 and 3 Only (c) 1 and 3 Only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Correct Solution: D Millets, often referred to as Shree Anna in India, are a group of small-seeded grasses that are highly nutritious and climate-resilient. The Government of India has been actively promoting their cultivation and consumption. Statement 1 is correct: India played a leading role in proposing to the United Nations to declare 2023 as the International Year of Millets, which was subsequently adopted. Statement 2 is correct: Millets are generally known to be less water-intensive crops compared to major cereals like rice and wheat, making them suitable for regions with water scarcity. Statement 3 is correct: The government has been increasing the MSP for nutri-cereals, including millets, to encourage farmers to grow them and diversify cropping patterns. There has been a focus on ensuring a return of at least 50 percent over the cost of production for these crops. Incorrect Solution: D Millets, often referred to as Shree Anna in India, are a group of small-seeded grasses that are highly nutritious and climate-resilient. The Government of India has been actively promoting their cultivation and consumption. Statement 1 is correct: India played a leading role in proposing to the United Nations to declare 2023 as the International Year of Millets, which was subsequently adopted. Statement 2 is correct: Millets are generally known to be less water-intensive crops compared to major cereals like rice and wheat, making them suitable for regions with water scarcity. Statement 3 is correct: The government has been increasing the MSP for nutri-cereals, including millets, to encourage farmers to grow them and diversify cropping patterns. There has been a focus on ensuring a return of at least 50 percent over the cost of production for these crops.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the recent emphasis on millets (Shree Anna) in India:

• India spearheaded the proposal for the United Nations to declare 2023 as the International Year of Millets.

• Millets are inherently less water-intensive compared to crops like rice and wheat.

• The Government of India has increased the Minimum Support Price (MSP) for all millet varieties significantly in the last two years.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 Only

• (b) 2 and 3 Only

• (c) 1 and 3 Only

• (d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: D

Millets, often referred to as Shree Anna in India, are a group of small-seeded grasses that are highly nutritious and climate-resilient. The Government of India has been actively promoting their cultivation and consumption.

• Statement 1 is correct: India played a leading role in proposing to the United Nations to declare 2023 as the International Year of Millets, which was subsequently adopted.

• Statement 2 is correct: Millets are generally known to be less water-intensive crops compared to major cereals like rice and wheat, making them suitable for regions with water scarcity.

• Statement 3 is correct: The government has been increasing the MSP for nutri-cereals, including millets, to encourage farmers to grow them and diversify cropping patterns. There has been a focus on ensuring a return of at least 50 percent over the cost of production for these crops.

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is correct: India played a leading role in proposing to the United Nations to declare 2023 as the International Year of Millets, which was subsequently adopted.

• Statement 2 is correct: Millets are generally known to be less water-intensive crops compared to major cereals like rice and wheat, making them suitable for regions with water scarcity.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF): It provides financial assistance in the form of interest subvention and credit guarantee for projects related to post-harvest management infrastructure and community farming assets. The scheme is implemented by the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) only. It aims to support both public and private sector entities, including Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs) and agricultural entrepreneurs. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 Only (b) 2 and 3 Only (c) 1 and 3 Only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Correct Solution: C The Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF) aims to provide medium-long term debt financing facility for investment in viable projects for post-harvest management infrastructure and community farming assets. Statement 1 is correct: The AIF provides financial assistance through interest subvention and credit guarantee on loans for projects related to post-harvest management infrastructure and community farming assets. Statement 2 is incorrect: While NABARD plays a role in the scheme, it is not the sole implementing agency. The scheme is implemented through various lending institutions, including commercial banks, cooperative banks, Regional Rural Banks (RRBs), and others. The Department of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare, Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare is the nodal agency for the scheme. Statement 3 is correct: The AIF supports a wide range of beneficiaries in both the public and private sectors, including individual farmers, FPOs, cooperatives, agri-entrepreneurs, startups, and more. Incorrect Solution: C The Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF) aims to provide medium-long term debt financing facility for investment in viable projects for post-harvest management infrastructure and community farming assets. Statement 1 is correct: The AIF provides financial assistance through interest subvention and credit guarantee on loans for projects related to post-harvest management infrastructure and community farming assets. Statement 2 is incorrect: While NABARD plays a role in the scheme, it is not the sole implementing agency. The scheme is implemented through various lending institutions, including commercial banks, cooperative banks, Regional Rural Banks (RRBs), and others. The Department of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare, Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare is the nodal agency for the scheme. Statement 3 is correct: The AIF supports a wide range of beneficiaries in both the public and private sectors, including individual farmers, FPOs, cooperatives, agri-entrepreneurs, startups, and more.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF):

• It provides financial assistance in the form of interest subvention and credit guarantee for projects related to post-harvest management infrastructure and community farming assets.

• The scheme is implemented by the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) only.

• It aims to support both public and private sector entities, including Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs) and agricultural entrepreneurs.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 Only

• (b) 2 and 3 Only

• (c) 1 and 3 Only

• (d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: C

The Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF) aims to provide medium-long term debt financing facility for investment in viable projects for post-harvest management infrastructure and community farming assets.

• Statement 1 is correct: The AIF provides financial assistance through interest subvention and credit guarantee on loans for projects related to post-harvest management infrastructure and community farming assets.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: While NABARD plays a role in the scheme, it is not the sole implementing agency. The scheme is implemented through various lending institutions, including commercial banks, cooperative banks, Regional Rural Banks (RRBs), and others. The Department of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare, Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare is the nodal agency for the scheme.

• Statement 3 is correct: The AIF supports a wide range of beneficiaries in both the public and private sectors, including individual farmers, FPOs, cooperatives, agri-entrepreneurs, startups, and more.

Solution: C

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Assertion (A): The excessive and indiscriminate use of nitrogenous fertilizers in agriculture can lead to environmental pollution. Reason (R): Nitrogenous fertilizers enhance the growth of only a specific type of beneficial soil microorganisms, disrupting the natural balance of the soil ecosystem. In the context of the above statements, which of the following is correct? (a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. Correct Solution: C Nitrogenous fertilizers are widely used in agriculture to enhance crop yields. However, their excessive and indiscriminate use can have significant environmental consequences. Assertion (A) is true: Excessive use of nitrogenous fertilizers can lead to various forms of environmental pollution, including water pollution (through leaching of nitrates into groundwater), air pollution (release of nitrogen oxides), and soil degradation. Reason (R) is false: While nitrogen is essential for soil microorganisms, excessive nitrogenous fertilizers do not selectively enhance the growth of only a specific type of beneficial microorganism to the extent of disrupting the overall balance. In fact, it can negatively impact the diversity and health of the soil microbiome. The primary reason for environmental pollution from nitrogenous fertilizers is the excess nitrogen that is not absorbed by plants, leading to its release into the environment in various harmful forms. Therefore, (A) is true, but (R) is false. Incorrect Solution: C Nitrogenous fertilizers are widely used in agriculture to enhance crop yields. However, their excessive and indiscriminate use can have significant environmental consequences. Assertion (A) is true: Excessive use of nitrogenous fertilizers can lead to various forms of environmental pollution, including water pollution (through leaching of nitrates into groundwater), air pollution (release of nitrogen oxides), and soil degradation. Reason (R) is false: While nitrogen is essential for soil microorganisms, excessive nitrogenous fertilizers do not selectively enhance the growth of only a specific type of beneficial microorganism to the extent of disrupting the overall balance. In fact, it can negatively impact the diversity and health of the soil microbiome. The primary reason for environmental pollution from nitrogenous fertilizers is the excess nitrogen that is not absorbed by plants, leading to its release into the environment in various harmful forms. Therefore, (A) is true, but (R) is false.

#### 6. Question

Assertion (A): The excessive and indiscriminate use of nitrogenous fertilizers in agriculture can lead to environmental pollution.

Reason (R): Nitrogenous fertilizers enhance the growth of only a specific type of beneficial soil microorganisms, disrupting the natural balance of the soil ecosystem.

In the context of the above statements, which of the following is correct?

• (a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

• (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

• (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

• (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Solution: C

Nitrogenous fertilizers are widely used in agriculture to enhance crop yields. However, their excessive and indiscriminate use can have significant environmental consequences.

• Assertion (A) is true: Excessive use of nitrogenous fertilizers can lead to various forms of environmental pollution, including water pollution (through leaching of nitrates into groundwater), air pollution (release of nitrogen oxides), and soil degradation.

• Reason (R) is false: While nitrogen is essential for soil microorganisms, excessive nitrogenous fertilizers do not selectively enhance the growth of only a specific type of beneficial microorganism to the extent of disrupting the overall balance. In fact, it can negatively impact the diversity and health of the soil microbiome. The primary reason for environmental pollution from nitrogenous fertilizers is the excess nitrogen that is not absorbed by plants, leading to its release into the environment in various harmful forms.

Therefore, (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Solution: C

Nitrogenous fertilizers are widely used in agriculture to enhance crop yields. However, their excessive and indiscriminate use can have significant environmental consequences.

Therefore, (A) is true, but (R) is false.

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points The ‘Clean Plant Programme’, recently approved by the Union Cabinet, primarily focuses on which segment of the agricultural sector? (a) Enhancing the efficiency of irrigation systems for all crops. (b) Improving the quality and productivity of horticulture crops through disease-free planting material. (c) Promoting the use of organic fertilizers and biopesticides in staple food crops. (d) Strengthening the post-harvest management infrastructure for major agricultural commodities. Correct Solution: B The Clean Plant Programme is a recent initiative by the Government of India aimed at improving the agricultural sector. The Clean Plant Programme (CPP) was approved by the Union Cabinet with the primary aim of enhancing the quality and productivity of horticulture crops by providing disease-free planting material. The program also intends to benefit the dissemination and adoption of climate-resilient varieties, leading to yield enhancement. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Solution: B The Clean Plant Programme is a recent initiative by the Government of India aimed at improving the agricultural sector. The Clean Plant Programme (CPP) was approved by the Union Cabinet with the primary aim of enhancing the quality and productivity of horticulture crops by providing disease-free planting material. The program also intends to benefit the dissemination and adoption of climate-resilient varieties, leading to yield enhancement. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 7. Question

The ‘Clean Plant Programme’, recently approved by the Union Cabinet, primarily focuses on which segment of the agricultural sector?

• (a) Enhancing the efficiency of irrigation systems for all crops.

• (b) Improving the quality and productivity of horticulture crops through disease-free planting material.

• (c) Promoting the use of organic fertilizers and biopesticides in staple food crops.

• (d) Strengthening the post-harvest management infrastructure for major agricultural commodities.

Solution: B

The Clean Plant Programme is a recent initiative by the Government of India aimed at improving the agricultural sector.

The Clean Plant Programme (CPP) was approved by the Union Cabinet with the primary aim of enhancing the quality and productivity of horticulture crops by providing disease-free planting material. The program also intends to benefit the dissemination and adoption of climate-resilient varieties, leading to yield enhancement.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Solution: B

The Clean Plant Programme is a recent initiative by the Government of India aimed at improving the agricultural sector.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Consider a scenario where a region predominantly cultivating water-intensive crops like paddy is experiencing increasing water scarcity due to climate change. Which of the following strategies would be most sustainable in the long run for ensuring the livelihoods of farmers in this region? (a) Deepening existing borewells and constructing new ones to access groundwater. (b) Shifting to drought-resistant and less water-intensive crops while providing necessary support and training to farmers. (c) Implementing stringent regulations on water usage for domestic and industrial purposes, prioritizing agriculture. (d) Relying on inter-basin water transfer projects to augment the region's water supply. Correct Solution: B With increasing concerns about climate change and its impact on water availability, it’s crucial to adopt sustainable agricultural practices, especially in regions dependent on water-intensive crops. The most sustainable long-term strategy in a region facing increasing water scarcity is to adapt the cropping patterns to the available water resources. Option (b) addresses this by suggesting a shift to drought-resistant and less water-intensive crops, coupled with the necessary support and training for farmers to make this transition. This approach ensures the livelihoods of farmers while also conserving precious water resources. Correct Answer: (b) Option (a) might provide temporary relief but is not sustainable in the long run as it can lead to depletion of groundwater resources and further exacerbate water scarcity. Option (c) is important for overall water management but might not be sufficient to address the core issue of water-intensive agriculture in a water-scarce region. It could also create conflicts with other sectors. Option (d) is a complex and often environmentally challenging solution. Inter-basin water transfer projects can have significant ecological and social impacts and are not always a sustainable or feasible option. Incorrect Solution: B With increasing concerns about climate change and its impact on water availability, it’s crucial to adopt sustainable agricultural practices, especially in regions dependent on water-intensive crops. The most sustainable long-term strategy in a region facing increasing water scarcity is to adapt the cropping patterns to the available water resources. Option (b) addresses this by suggesting a shift to drought-resistant and less water-intensive crops, coupled with the necessary support and training for farmers to make this transition. This approach ensures the livelihoods of farmers while also conserving precious water resources. Correct Answer: (b) Option (a) might provide temporary relief but is not sustainable in the long run as it can lead to depletion of groundwater resources and further exacerbate water scarcity. Option (c) is important for overall water management but might not be sufficient to address the core issue of water-intensive agriculture in a water-scarce region. It could also create conflicts with other sectors. Option (d) is a complex and often environmentally challenging solution. Inter-basin water transfer projects can have significant ecological and social impacts and are not always a sustainable or feasible option.

#### 8. Question

Consider a scenario where a region predominantly cultivating water-intensive crops like paddy is experiencing increasing water scarcity due to climate change. Which of the following strategies would be most sustainable in the long run for ensuring the livelihoods of farmers in this region?

• (a) Deepening existing borewells and constructing new ones to access groundwater.

• (b) Shifting to drought-resistant and less water-intensive crops while providing necessary support and training to farmers.

• (c) Implementing stringent regulations on water usage for domestic and industrial purposes, prioritizing agriculture.

• (d) Relying on inter-basin water transfer projects to augment the region's water supply.

Solution: B

With increasing concerns about climate change and its impact on water availability, it’s crucial to adopt sustainable agricultural practices, especially in regions dependent on water-intensive crops.

The most sustainable long-term strategy in a region facing increasing water scarcity is to adapt the cropping patterns to the available water resources. Option (b) addresses this by suggesting a shift to drought-resistant and less water-intensive crops, coupled with the necessary support and training for farmers to make this transition. This approach ensures the livelihoods of farmers while also conserving precious water resources.

Correct Answer: (b)

• Option (a) might provide temporary relief but is not sustainable in the long run as it can lead to depletion of groundwater resources and further exacerbate water scarcity.

• Option (c) is important for overall water management but might not be sufficient to address the core issue of water-intensive agriculture in a water-scarce region. It could also create conflicts with other sectors.

• Option (d) is a complex and often environmentally challenging solution. Inter-basin water transfer projects can have significant ecological and social impacts and are not always a sustainable or feasible option.

Solution: B

Correct Answer: (b)

• Option (a) might provide temporary relief but is not sustainable in the long run as it can lead to depletion of groundwater resources and further exacerbate water scarcity.

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the trends in the Indian agricultural sector: The share of allied sectors like livestock and fisheries in the total Gross Value Added (GVA) from agriculture has been increasing steadily. India’s agri-food exports have shown a consistent decline in the last five years due to increased domestic consumption. The proportion of small and marginal farmers accessing institutional credit has increased significantly in recent years. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 Only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Correct Solution: C The Indian agricultural sector is dynamic, with various sub-sectors and economic indicators showing different trends over time. Statement 1 is correct: The Economic Survey 2024-25 indicates that the share of allied sectors like livestock and fisheries in the total Gross Value Added (GVA) from agriculture has been increasing steadily, highlighting their role as key drivers of agricultural growth. Statement 2 is incorrect: India’s agri-food exports have actually shown an increasing trend. The value of agri-food exports reached USD 46.44 billion in FY24, constituting a significant portion of India’s total exports, and the share of processed food exports within this has also risen. Statement 3 is correct: Government initiatives and policies have focused on improving access to institutional credit for farmers, including small and marginal farmers. The proportion of small and marginal farmers accessing agriculture loans has indeed increased in recent years. Incorrect Solution: C The Indian agricultural sector is dynamic, with various sub-sectors and economic indicators showing different trends over time. Statement 1 is correct: The Economic Survey 2024-25 indicates that the share of allied sectors like livestock and fisheries in the total Gross Value Added (GVA) from agriculture has been increasing steadily, highlighting their role as key drivers of agricultural growth. Statement 2 is incorrect: India’s agri-food exports have actually shown an increasing trend. The value of agri-food exports reached USD 46.44 billion in FY24, constituting a significant portion of India’s total exports, and the share of processed food exports within this has also risen. Statement 3 is correct: Government initiatives and policies have focused on improving access to institutional credit for farmers, including small and marginal farmers. The proportion of small and marginal farmers accessing agriculture loans has indeed increased in recent years.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the trends in the Indian agricultural sector:

• The share of allied sectors like livestock and fisheries in the total Gross Value Added (GVA) from agriculture has been increasing steadily.

• India’s agri-food exports have shown a consistent decline in the last five years due to increased domestic consumption.

• The proportion of small and marginal farmers accessing institutional credit has increased significantly in recent years.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) 1 and 3 Only

• (d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: C

The Indian agricultural sector is dynamic, with various sub-sectors and economic indicators showing different trends over time.

• Statement 1 is correct: The Economic Survey 2024-25 indicates that the share of allied sectors like livestock and fisheries in the total Gross Value Added (GVA) from agriculture has been increasing steadily, highlighting their role as key drivers of agricultural growth.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: India’s agri-food exports have actually shown an increasing trend. The value of agri-food exports reached USD 46.44 billion in FY24, constituting a significant portion of India’s total exports, and the share of processed food exports within this has also risen.

• Statement 3 is correct: Government initiatives and policies have focused on improving access to institutional credit for farmers, including small and marginal farmers. The proportion of small and marginal farmers accessing agriculture loans has indeed increased in recent years.

Solution: C

The Indian agricultural sector is dynamic, with various sub-sectors and economic indicators showing different trends over time.

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points How many of the following pairs (Crop Variety – Special Characteristic) is/are correctly matched? PUSA Basmati 1509 – Shorter duration with resistance to bacterial leaf blight Swarna Sub-1 – Submergence-tolerant rice variety HD-3226 wheat – Biofortified with high zinc content PKV-Pink Bollgard-II cotton – drought resistant in arid regions Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution: C Developing and promoting crop varieties with specific desirable traits is crucial for enhancing agricultural productivity, resilience, and nutritional value. Solution: PUSA Basmati 1509 – Shorter duration with resistance to bacterial leaf blight: This statement is correct. PUSA Basmati 1509 is known for its shorter duration and some level of tolerance to bacterial leaf blight. Swarna Sub-1 – Submergence-tolerant rice variety: This statement is correct. Swarna Sub-1 is a well-known variety of rice that has been genetically modified to be tolerant to submergence (flooding). HD-3226 wheat – Biofortified with high zinc content: This statement is correct. HD-3226, also known as Shresth, is a biofortified variety of wheat developed with high zinc content to address micronutrient deficiencies. PKV-Pink Bollgard-II cotton -: Drought resistant in arid regions: This statement is incorrect. Bollgard-II cotton is genetically modified to be resistant to bollworms, a major pest in cotton. While drought tolerance might be a desirable trait for arid regions, PKV-Pink Bollgard-II’s primary characteristic is pest resistance, not necessarily specific adaptation to arid conditions. Incorrect Solution: C Developing and promoting crop varieties with specific desirable traits is crucial for enhancing agricultural productivity, resilience, and nutritional value. Solution: PUSA Basmati 1509 – Shorter duration with resistance to bacterial leaf blight: This statement is correct. PUSA Basmati 1509 is known for its shorter duration and some level of tolerance to bacterial leaf blight. Swarna Sub-1 – Submergence-tolerant rice variety: This statement is correct. Swarna Sub-1 is a well-known variety of rice that has been genetically modified to be tolerant to submergence (flooding). HD-3226 wheat – Biofortified with high zinc content: This statement is correct. HD-3226, also known as Shresth, is a biofortified variety of wheat developed with high zinc content to address micronutrient deficiencies. PKV-Pink Bollgard-II cotton -: Drought resistant in arid regions: This statement is incorrect. Bollgard-II cotton is genetically modified to be resistant to bollworms, a major pest in cotton. While drought tolerance might be a desirable trait for arid regions, PKV-Pink Bollgard-II’s primary characteristic is pest resistance, not necessarily specific adaptation to arid conditions.

#### 10. Question

How many of the following pairs (Crop Variety – Special Characteristic) is/are correctly matched?

• PUSA Basmati 1509 – Shorter duration with resistance to bacterial leaf blight

• Swarna Sub-1 – Submergence-tolerant rice variety

• HD-3226 wheat – Biofortified with high zinc content

• PKV-Pink Bollgard-II cotton – drought resistant in arid regions

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Solution: C

Developing and promoting crop varieties with specific desirable traits is crucial for enhancing agricultural productivity, resilience, and nutritional value.

Solution:

• PUSA Basmati 1509 – Shorter duration with resistance to bacterial leaf blight: This statement is correct. PUSA Basmati 1509 is known for its shorter duration and some level of tolerance to bacterial leaf blight.

• Swarna Sub-1 – Submergence-tolerant rice variety: This statement is correct. Swarna Sub-1 is a well-known variety of rice that has been genetically modified to be tolerant to submergence (flooding).

• HD-3226 wheat – Biofortified with high zinc content: This statement is correct. HD-3226, also known as Shresth, is a biofortified variety of wheat developed with high zinc content to address micronutrient deficiencies.

• PKV-Pink Bollgard-II cotton -: Drought resistant in arid regions: This statement is incorrect. Bollgard-II cotton is genetically modified to be resistant to bollworms, a major pest in cotton. While drought tolerance might be a desirable trait for arid regions, PKV-Pink Bollgard-II’s primary characteristic is pest resistance, not necessarily specific adaptation to arid conditions.

Solution: C

Developing and promoting crop varieties with specific desirable traits is crucial for enhancing agricultural productivity, resilience, and nutritional value.

Solution:

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Millets are naturally gluten free crops. Presence of lipase results in longer self-life for Jowar and Bajra products. In FY 2024, Rajasthan has the largest area under millet cultivation in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: A Millets are nutritional crops that are gluten free and have low glycemic index making them ideal for diabetic patients The micronutrient composition in millet is better than rice and wheat and can effectively be used to fight malnutrition. Hence statement 1 is correct Millet specially Pearl millets, have higher lipid content and contain lipase. the activity of lipase in millet specially after production of flour, results in reduced self life of millet products. Hence statement 2 is incorrect In FY 24, amount all the states Rajasthan has covered largest area under millet cultivation followed by Karnataka, Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Uttarakhand. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: A Millets are nutritional crops that are gluten free and have low glycemic index making them ideal for diabetic patients The micronutrient composition in millet is better than rice and wheat and can effectively be used to fight malnutrition. Hence statement 1 is correct Millet specially Pearl millets, have higher lipid content and contain lipase. the activity of lipase in millet specially after production of flour, results in reduced self life of millet products. Hence statement 2 is incorrect In FY 24, amount all the states Rajasthan has covered largest area under millet cultivation followed by Karnataka, Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Uttarakhand. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 11. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Millets are naturally gluten free crops.

• Presence of lipase results in longer self-life for Jowar and Bajra products.

• In FY 2024, Rajasthan has the largest area under millet cultivation in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) 1 and 2 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

• Millets are nutritional crops that are gluten free and have low glycemic index making them ideal for diabetic patients

• The micronutrient composition in millet is better than rice and wheat and can effectively be used to fight malnutrition.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Millet specially Pearl millets, have higher lipid content and contain lipase.

• the activity of lipase in millet specially after production of flour, results in reduced self life of millet products.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• In FY 24, amount all the states Rajasthan has covered largest area under millet cultivation followed by Karnataka, Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Uttarakhand.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: A

• Millets are nutritional crops that are gluten free and have low glycemic index making them ideal for diabetic patients

• The micronutrient composition in millet is better than rice and wheat and can effectively be used to fight malnutrition.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Millet specially Pearl millets, have higher lipid content and contain lipase.

• the activity of lipase in millet specially after production of flour, results in reduced self life of millet products.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The National Jute Board is a statutory organisation headed by the Secretary, Ministry of Textiles. The National Jute Board mandates to compulsorily pack 100% of food grains in jute bags. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A The National Jute Board is a statutory organisation governed by the National Jute Board Act 2008 It functions under the Ministry of Textiles and is headed by the secretary of the Ministry who serves as the chairperson of the Board. The board is dedicated to promotion development and expansion of jute industry in India. Hence statement 1 is correct The Jute Packaging Materials Act 1987 makes it compulsory to pack 100% of the food grains and 20% of the sugar in diversified jute (gunny) bags. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: A The National Jute Board is a statutory organisation governed by the National Jute Board Act 2008 It functions under the Ministry of Textiles and is headed by the secretary of the Ministry who serves as the chairperson of the Board. The board is dedicated to promotion development and expansion of jute industry in India. Hence statement 1 is correct The Jute Packaging Materials Act 1987 makes it compulsory to pack 100% of the food grains and 20% of the sugar in diversified jute (gunny) bags. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

#### 12. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The National Jute Board is a statutory organisation headed by the Secretary, Ministry of Textiles.

• The National Jute Board mandates to compulsorily pack 100% of food grains in jute bags.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

• The National Jute Board is a statutory organisation governed by the National Jute Board Act 2008

• It functions under the Ministry of Textiles and is headed by the secretary of the Ministry who serves as the chairperson of the Board.

• The board is dedicated to promotion development and expansion of jute industry in India.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The Jute Packaging Materials Act 1987 makes it compulsory to pack 100% of the food grains and 20% of the sugar in diversified jute (gunny) bags.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Solution: A

• The National Jute Board is a statutory organisation governed by the National Jute Board Act 2008

• It functions under the Ministry of Textiles and is headed by the secretary of the Ministry who serves as the chairperson of the Board.

• The board is dedicated to promotion development and expansion of jute industry in India.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The Jute Packaging Materials Act 1987 makes it compulsory to pack 100% of the food grains and 20% of the sugar in diversified jute (gunny) bags.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Unlike Eri silk, Tasar and Muga are cultivated silks. Eri silk is the only vegan silk in the world. Eri silk is an Okeo Tex certified product of India. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Eri is natural silk of Assam. Mulberry is a type of cultivated Silk produced from cocoons of domesticated silkworm Bombyx mori, which feeds exclusively on Mulberry leaves. Muga is a type of natural Silk specially a wild Silk produced in Assam by semicultivated silkworm Antheraea assamensis. India produces all five major types of commercially important Silk which are derived from different species of silkworms; these include Mulberry, Oak Tasar, tropical Tasar, Eri and Muga. Among these Mulberry is cultivated, while others are wild Silks known as Vanya silks. Hence statement 1 is incorrect Eri is the world’s only vegan silk Its production is free from harmful substances and produced under environmentally friendly conditions; for its production the silkworms are not killed; the Silk is harvested only after the moth have left the cocoons. Recently the North Eastern Handicrafts and Handloom Development Council has achieved Okeo Tex certification for Eri silk; it confirms that it is free from harmful substances, this will pave the way for expansion of the Silk into International markets. Hence statements 2 and 3 are correct Incorrect Solution: B Eri is natural silk of Assam. Mulberry is a type of cultivated Silk produced from cocoons of domesticated silkworm Bombyx mori, which feeds exclusively on Mulberry leaves. Muga is a type of natural Silk specially a wild Silk produced in Assam by semicultivated silkworm Antheraea assamensis. India produces all five major types of commercially important Silk which are derived from different species of silkworms; these include Mulberry, Oak Tasar, tropical Tasar, Eri and Muga. Among these Mulberry is cultivated, while others are wild Silks known as Vanya silks. Hence statement 1 is incorrect Eri is the world’s only vegan silk Its production is free from harmful substances and produced under environmentally friendly conditions; for its production the silkworms are not killed; the Silk is harvested only after the moth have left the cocoons. Recently the North Eastern Handicrafts and Handloom Development Council has achieved Okeo Tex certification for Eri silk; it confirms that it is free from harmful substances, this will pave the way for expansion of the Silk into International markets. Hence statements 2 and 3 are correct

#### 13. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Unlike Eri silk, Tasar and Muga are cultivated silks.

• Eri silk is the only vegan silk in the world.

• Eri silk is an Okeo Tex certified product of India.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Eri is natural silk of Assam.

• Mulberry is a type of cultivated Silk produced from cocoons of domesticated silkworm Bombyx mori, which feeds exclusively on Mulberry leaves.

• Muga is a type of natural Silk specially a wild Silk produced in Assam by semicultivated silkworm Antheraea assamensis.

• India produces all five major types of commercially important Silk which are derived from different species of silkworms; these include Mulberry, Oak Tasar, tropical Tasar, Eri and Muga.

• Among these Mulberry is cultivated, while others are wild Silks known as Vanya silks.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• Eri is the world’s only vegan silk

• Its production is free from harmful substances and produced under environmentally friendly conditions; for its production the silkworms are not killed; the Silk is harvested only after the moth have left the cocoons.

• Recently the North Eastern Handicrafts and Handloom Development Council has achieved Okeo Tex certification for Eri silk; it confirms that it is free from harmful substances, this will pave the way for expansion of the Silk into International markets.

Hence statements 2 and 3 are correct

Solution: B

• Eri is natural silk of Assam.

• Mulberry is a type of cultivated Silk produced from cocoons of domesticated silkworm Bombyx mori, which feeds exclusively on Mulberry leaves.

• Muga is a type of natural Silk specially a wild Silk produced in Assam by semicultivated silkworm Antheraea assamensis.

• India produces all five major types of commercially important Silk which are derived from different species of silkworms; these include Mulberry, Oak Tasar, tropical Tasar, Eri and Muga.

• Among these Mulberry is cultivated, while others are wild Silks known as Vanya silks.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• Eri is the world’s only vegan silk

Hence statements 2 and 3 are correct

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs with reference to GI tagged crops in India: Crop : Associated State Kaji Nemu : Assam Dalle Khursani: Kashmir Wakro Orange : Manipur How many of the pairs given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Kaji Nemu is a large lemon variety known for sharp tang, size and Aroma It is a GI tagged product of Assam. Hence pair 1 is correct Dalle Khursani is a variety of red chilli cultivated in Sikkim It is used in several foods including pickles, pastes and is known for its pungency as well as medicinal properties. Hence pair 2 is incorrect Wakro Orange is an orange variety of Arunachal Pradesh. It is famous for its high nutritional value and is cultivated using traditional farming methods. Hence pair 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: A Kaji Nemu is a large lemon variety known for sharp tang, size and Aroma It is a GI tagged product of Assam. Hence pair 1 is correct Dalle Khursani is a variety of red chilli cultivated in Sikkim It is used in several foods including pickles, pastes and is known for its pungency as well as medicinal properties. Hence pair 2 is incorrect Wakro Orange is an orange variety of Arunachal Pradesh. It is famous for its high nutritional value and is cultivated using traditional farming methods. Hence pair 3 is incorrect

#### 14. Question

Consider the following pairs with reference to GI tagged crops in India:

Crop : Associated State

• Kaji Nemu : Assam

• Dalle Khursani: Kashmir

• Wakro Orange : Manipur

How many of the pairs given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Kaji Nemu is a large lemon variety known for sharp tang, size and Aroma

• It is a GI tagged product of Assam.

Hence pair 1 is correct

• Dalle Khursani is a variety of red chilli cultivated in Sikkim

• It is used in several foods including pickles, pastes and is known for its pungency as well as medicinal properties.

Hence pair 2 is incorrect

• Wakro Orange is an orange variety of Arunachal Pradesh.

• It is famous for its high nutritional value and is cultivated using traditional farming methods.

Hence pair 3 is incorrect

Solution: A

• Kaji Nemu is a large lemon variety known for sharp tang, size and Aroma

• It is a GI tagged product of Assam.

Hence pair 1 is correct

• Dalle Khursani is a variety of red chilli cultivated in Sikkim

• It is used in several foods including pickles, pastes and is known for its pungency as well as medicinal properties.

Hence pair 2 is incorrect

• Wakro Orange is an orange variety of Arunachal Pradesh.

• It is famous for its high nutritional value and is cultivated using traditional farming methods.

Hence pair 3 is incorrect

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement – I: Import of pulses from Brazil and Australia witnessed an increase in 2024. Statement – II: The cropping seasons for many crops in Australia and Brazil align with crop demands in India. Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct Correct Solution: A Recently Brazil has emerged as a supplier of Urad in recent years and has the potential to become a major source of Urad and Tur inports of India. The Ministry of Consumer Affairs highlighted potential of Brazil as a major Urad and Tur supplier for India, benefiting from different cropping seasons that align with India’s crop demands. Trade in pulses with countries like Australia and Brazil has become uniquely advantages for India because the contrast in cropping seasons vis-a-vis India which allows these countries to plan their cropping pattern based on India’s crop prospect. For example in case of chana, when India notified duty free inport of chana in May 2024, following lower Rabi 2024 production, Australia responded with massive increase in sowing area as the period coincided with sowing season in that country. Chana production in Australia in 2024 is estimated at about 13.3 lakh tons as against 4.9 lakh tons in 2023; basically for export to India The arrival of fresh crop of Chana from Australia in October 2024 has increased domestic availablity and helped in dampening prices in the primary markets. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 correctly explains statement 1 Incorrect Solution: A Recently Brazil has emerged as a supplier of Urad in recent years and has the potential to become a major source of Urad and Tur inports of India. The Ministry of Consumer Affairs highlighted potential of Brazil as a major Urad and Tur supplier for India, benefiting from different cropping seasons that align with India’s crop demands. Trade in pulses with countries like Australia and Brazil has become uniquely advantages for India because the contrast in cropping seasons vis-a-vis India which allows these countries to plan their cropping pattern based on India’s crop prospect. For example in case of chana, when India notified duty free inport of chana in May 2024, following lower Rabi 2024 production, Australia responded with massive increase in sowing area as the period coincided with sowing season in that country. Chana production in Australia in 2024 is estimated at about 13.3 lakh tons as against 4.9 lakh tons in 2023; basically for export to India The arrival of fresh crop of Chana from Australia in October 2024 has increased domestic availablity and helped in dampening prices in the primary markets. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 correctly explains statement 1

#### 15. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement – I:

Import of pulses from Brazil and Australia witnessed an increase in 2024.

Statement – II:

The cropping seasons for many crops in Australia and Brazil align with crop demands in India.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I

• (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I

• (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect

• (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct

Solution: A

• Recently Brazil has emerged as a supplier of Urad in recent years and has the potential to become a major source of Urad and Tur inports of India.

• The Ministry of Consumer Affairs highlighted potential of Brazil as a major Urad and Tur supplier for India, benefiting from different cropping seasons that align with India’s crop demands.

• Trade in pulses with countries like Australia and Brazil has become uniquely advantages for India because the contrast in cropping seasons vis-a-vis India which allows these countries to plan their cropping pattern based on India’s crop prospect.

• For example in case of chana, when India notified duty free inport of chana in May 2024, following lower Rabi 2024 production, Australia responded with massive increase in sowing area as the period coincided with sowing season in that country.

• Chana production in Australia in 2024 is estimated at about 13.3 lakh tons as against 4.9 lakh tons in 2023; basically for export to India

• The arrival of fresh crop of Chana from Australia in October 2024 has increased domestic availablity and helped in dampening prices in the primary markets.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 correctly explains statement 1

Solution: A

• Recently Brazil has emerged as a supplier of Urad in recent years and has the potential to become a major source of Urad and Tur inports of India.

• The Ministry of Consumer Affairs highlighted potential of Brazil as a major Urad and Tur supplier for India, benefiting from different cropping seasons that align with India’s crop demands.

• Chana production in Australia in 2024 is estimated at about 13.3 lakh tons as against 4.9 lakh tons in 2023; basically for export to India

• The arrival of fresh crop of Chana from Australia in October 2024 has increased domestic availablity and helped in dampening prices in the primary markets.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 correctly explains statement 1

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following: Increase in Renewable energy production Enhanced food security Conservation of water How many of the above are advantages of Agrivoltaic farming in India? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C Agrivoltaic farming is the simultaneous use of land for agriculture and solar energy generation allowing crops to grow beneath solar panels. The major advantages of this type of farming includes: The panels offer shade reducing heat, stress and protecting crops from Harsh weather Shading lowers evaporation, conserving soil moisture and reducing water needs; thus, helps in conservation of water in the long run Panels on greenhouse roofs allow light and rain for crops while generating energy Utilizes land for both solar power and Agriculture, maximizing energy and food production Contributes to expansion of solar power supporting climate goals and energy needs Supports sustainable food production for a growing population without requirement of additional land Enables farmers to diversify income through both crop production and Solar energy revenue generation. Hence option C is correct Incorrect Solution: C Agrivoltaic farming is the simultaneous use of land for agriculture and solar energy generation allowing crops to grow beneath solar panels. The major advantages of this type of farming includes: The panels offer shade reducing heat, stress and protecting crops from Harsh weather Shading lowers evaporation, conserving soil moisture and reducing water needs; thus, helps in conservation of water in the long run Panels on greenhouse roofs allow light and rain for crops while generating energy Utilizes land for both solar power and Agriculture, maximizing energy and food production Contributes to expansion of solar power supporting climate goals and energy needs Supports sustainable food production for a growing population without requirement of additional land Enables farmers to diversify income through both crop production and Solar energy revenue generation. Hence option C is correct

#### 16. Question

Consider the following:

• Increase in Renewable energy production

• Enhanced food security

• Conservation of water

How many of the above are advantages of Agrivoltaic farming in India?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

Agrivoltaic farming is the simultaneous use of land for agriculture and solar energy generation allowing crops to grow beneath solar panels. The major advantages of this type of farming includes:

• The panels offer shade reducing heat, stress and protecting crops from Harsh weather

• Shading lowers evaporation, conserving soil moisture and reducing water needs; thus, helps in conservation of water in the long run

• Panels on greenhouse roofs allow light and rain for crops while generating energy

• Utilizes land for both solar power and Agriculture, maximizing energy and food production

• Contributes to expansion of solar power supporting climate goals and energy needs

• Supports sustainable food production for a growing population without requirement of additional land

• Enables farmers to diversify income through both crop production and Solar energy revenue generation.

Hence option C is correct

Solution: C

• The panels offer shade reducing heat, stress and protecting crops from Harsh weather

• Shading lowers evaporation, conserving soil moisture and reducing water needs; thus, helps in conservation of water in the long run

• Panels on greenhouse roofs allow light and rain for crops while generating energy

• Utilizes land for both solar power and Agriculture, maximizing energy and food production

• Contributes to expansion of solar power supporting climate goals and energy needs

• Supports sustainable food production for a growing population without requirement of additional land

• Enables farmers to diversify income through both crop production and Solar energy revenue generation.

Hence option C is correct

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes Biofloc Technology? (a) Use of Microbial Fuel Cells for renewable energy generation (b) Cultivation of specific microbial cultures for enhancing nutritional levels in soil for increased crop production (c) Conversion of human waste into fertilizers by using bacterial cultures (d) Use of bacteria to convert organic waste into microbial biomass for consumption of fishes Correct Solution: D Biofloc Technology is a closed tank aquaculture method that uses beneficial bacteria to convert organic waste into microbial biomass for consumption of fishes Under this technology beneficial heterotrophic bacteria convert waste into biomass. Aeration and microbial activity maintain water quality This process reduces reliance on antibiotics and chemicals The process has become advantageous for transformation of India’s aquaculture sector. Hence option D is correct Incorrect Solution: D Biofloc Technology is a closed tank aquaculture method that uses beneficial bacteria to convert organic waste into microbial biomass for consumption of fishes Under this technology beneficial heterotrophic bacteria convert waste into biomass. Aeration and microbial activity maintain water quality This process reduces reliance on antibiotics and chemicals The process has become advantageous for transformation of India’s aquaculture sector. Hence option D is correct

#### 17. Question

Which of the following best describes Biofloc Technology?

• (a) Use of Microbial Fuel Cells for renewable energy generation

• (b) Cultivation of specific microbial cultures for enhancing nutritional levels in soil for increased crop production

• (c) Conversion of human waste into fertilizers by using bacterial cultures

• (d) Use of bacteria to convert organic waste into microbial biomass for consumption of fishes

Solution: D

• Biofloc Technology is a closed tank aquaculture method that uses beneficial bacteria to convert organic waste into microbial biomass for consumption of fishes

• Under this technology beneficial heterotrophic bacteria convert waste into biomass.

• Aeration and microbial activity maintain water quality

• This process reduces reliance on antibiotics and chemicals

• The process has become advantageous for transformation of India’s aquaculture sector.

Hence option D is correct

Solution: D

• Biofloc Technology is a closed tank aquaculture method that uses beneficial bacteria to convert organic waste into microbial biomass for consumption of fishes

• Under this technology beneficial heterotrophic bacteria convert waste into biomass.

• Aeration and microbial activity maintain water quality

• This process reduces reliance on antibiotics and chemicals

• The process has become advantageous for transformation of India’s aquaculture sector.

Hence option D is correct

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Compared to traditional agriculture, Direct Seeding method requires more water for crop production. Compared to Direct Seeding method, traditional agriculture requires less weedicides. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B Direct Seeding Method also known as broadcasting seed technique is a method in which seeds are directly drilled into the fields. There is no requirement for nursery preparation or transplantation involved in this method. In this method farmers level the land, provide one pre sowing irrigation and then sow the seeds directly into the field instead of transplanting the seedlings. The direct seeding method reduces requirement of water for cultivation by about 15% while traditional agriculture relies heavily on flood irrigation leading to water wastage. Hence statement 1 is incorrect DSR often requires multiple spray of weedicides to control weed growth, thus increasing usage of such products; in comparison, flood irrigation in the traditional method acts as Natural weedicide. Hence statement 2 is correct Incorrect Solution: B Direct Seeding Method also known as broadcasting seed technique is a method in which seeds are directly drilled into the fields. There is no requirement for nursery preparation or transplantation involved in this method. In this method farmers level the land, provide one pre sowing irrigation and then sow the seeds directly into the field instead of transplanting the seedlings. The direct seeding method reduces requirement of water for cultivation by about 15% while traditional agriculture relies heavily on flood irrigation leading to water wastage. Hence statement 1 is incorrect DSR often requires multiple spray of weedicides to control weed growth, thus increasing usage of such products; in comparison, flood irrigation in the traditional method acts as Natural weedicide. Hence statement 2 is correct

#### 18. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Compared to traditional agriculture, Direct Seeding method requires more water for crop production.

• Compared to Direct Seeding method, traditional agriculture requires less weedicides.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

• Direct Seeding Method also known as broadcasting seed technique is a method in which seeds are directly drilled into the fields.

• There is no requirement for nursery preparation or transplantation involved in this method.

• In this method farmers level the land, provide one pre sowing irrigation and then sow the seeds directly into the field instead of transplanting the seedlings.

• The direct seeding method reduces requirement of water for cultivation by about 15% while traditional agriculture relies heavily on flood irrigation leading to water wastage.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• DSR often requires multiple spray of weedicides to control weed growth, thus increasing usage of such products; in comparison, flood irrigation in the traditional method acts as Natural weedicide.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Solution: B

• Direct Seeding Method also known as broadcasting seed technique is a method in which seeds are directly drilled into the fields.

• There is no requirement for nursery preparation or transplantation involved in this method.

• In this method farmers level the land, provide one pre sowing irrigation and then sow the seeds directly into the field instead of transplanting the seedlings.

• The direct seeding method reduces requirement of water for cultivation by about 15% while traditional agriculture relies heavily on flood irrigation leading to water wastage.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Maize is a C4 plant that is cultivated as both kharif and Rabi crop in India. Maize requires well drained field as it is sensitive to waterlogging conditions. Maize is an essential crop to meet the 20% ethanol blending target of India by 2025-26. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C Maize is a C4 plant, that is plants that use C4 cycle to fix carbon dioxide into four carbon compounds; this process is very efficient in hot dry climates. It is predominantly grown as a kharif crop but it is also cultivated as Rabi or winter crop as well as a spring crop. It is predominantly a rainfed crop that is sown between June and July and harvested from September to October accounting for majority (83%) of its cultivation in India As a Rabi crop it is sown from October to November and harvested between February and March; as Rabi crop, it is cultivated in Peninsula regions and Bihar. Maize is grown in climate ranging from temperate to tropic during the period when mean daily temperatures are above 15°C and Frost free The plant grows well on most soils, but less in very heavy dense clay and very Sandy soils; the soil should be well aerated and well drained as the crop is susceptable to water logging. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct Maize is a versatile crop; it is used for obtaining methanol. India targets 20% ethanol blending by 2025-26 requiring a proximately 1016 litres of ethanol annually from sugar, molasses, broken rice and maize. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: C Maize is a C4 plant, that is plants that use C4 cycle to fix carbon dioxide into four carbon compounds; this process is very efficient in hot dry climates. It is predominantly grown as a kharif crop but it is also cultivated as Rabi or winter crop as well as a spring crop. It is predominantly a rainfed crop that is sown between June and July and harvested from September to October accounting for majority (83%) of its cultivation in India As a Rabi crop it is sown from October to November and harvested between February and March; as Rabi crop, it is cultivated in Peninsula regions and Bihar. Maize is grown in climate ranging from temperate to tropic during the period when mean daily temperatures are above 15°C and Frost free The plant grows well on most soils, but less in very heavy dense clay and very Sandy soils; the soil should be well aerated and well drained as the crop is susceptable to water logging. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct Maize is a versatile crop; it is used for obtaining methanol. India targets 20% ethanol blending by 2025-26 requiring a proximately 1016 litres of ethanol annually from sugar, molasses, broken rice and maize. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 19. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Maize is a C4 plant that is cultivated as both kharif and Rabi crop in India.

• Maize requires well drained field as it is sensitive to waterlogging conditions.

• Maize is an essential crop to meet the 20% ethanol blending target of India by 2025-26.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

• Maize is a C4 plant, that is plants that use C4 cycle to fix carbon dioxide into four carbon compounds; this process is very efficient in hot dry climates.

• It is predominantly grown as a kharif crop but it is also cultivated as Rabi or winter crop as well as a spring crop.

• It is predominantly a rainfed crop that is sown between June and July and harvested from September to October accounting for majority (83%) of its cultivation in India

• As a Rabi crop it is sown from October to November and harvested between February and March; as Rabi crop, it is cultivated in Peninsula regions and Bihar.

• Maize is grown in climate ranging from temperate to tropic during the period when mean daily temperatures are above 15°C and Frost free

• The plant grows well on most soils, but less in very heavy dense clay and very Sandy soils; the soil should be well aerated and well drained as the crop is susceptable to water logging.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

• Maize is a versatile crop; it is used for obtaining methanol.

• India targets 20% ethanol blending by 2025-26 requiring a proximately 1016 litres of ethanol annually from sugar, molasses, broken rice and maize.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: C

• Maize is a C4 plant, that is plants that use C4 cycle to fix carbon dioxide into four carbon compounds; this process is very efficient in hot dry climates.

• It is predominantly grown as a kharif crop but it is also cultivated as Rabi or winter crop as well as a spring crop.

• It is predominantly a rainfed crop that is sown between June and July and harvested from September to October accounting for majority (83%) of its cultivation in India

• As a Rabi crop it is sown from October to November and harvested between February and March; as Rabi crop, it is cultivated in Peninsula regions and Bihar.

• Maize is grown in climate ranging from temperate to tropic during the period when mean daily temperatures are above 15°C and Frost free

• The plant grows well on most soils, but less in very heavy dense clay and very Sandy soils; the soil should be well aerated and well drained as the crop is susceptable to water logging.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

• Maize is a versatile crop; it is used for obtaining methanol.

• India targets 20% ethanol blending by 2025-26 requiring a proximately 1016 litres of ethanol annually from sugar, molasses, broken rice and maize.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Natural rubber is obtained in the form of latex from bark of trees. Production of natural rubber is restricted to arid regions in western India. Automotive tyre sector accounts for about 50% consumption of all kinds of rubbers in India. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Natural rubber is harvested in the form of latex from Rubber tree. Latex is a sticky milky and white colloidal drawn off making incisions in the bark of trees and collecting the fluid in vessels. This latex is refined into rubber and then it becomes ready for commercial processing. Hence statement 1 is correct The plantation sector with an estimated production of over 631 hundred thousand tons of natural rubber and a projected production of more than 1 million tons in near future contributes to the rapid growth of Indian rubber Industry Kerala produces over 90% of India’s natural rubber; it is followed by Tripura. Hence statement 2 is incorrect The Indian rubber Industry is divided into two sectors – tyre and non tyre The non tyre sector comprises the medium scale, small scale and tiny unit The Automotive tyre sector is the single largest sector accounting for about 50% consumption of all kinds of rubbers followed by bicycle tyres and tubes. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: B Natural rubber is harvested in the form of latex from Rubber tree. Latex is a sticky milky and white colloidal drawn off making incisions in the bark of trees and collecting the fluid in vessels. This latex is refined into rubber and then it becomes ready for commercial processing. Hence statement 1 is correct The plantation sector with an estimated production of over 631 hundred thousand tons of natural rubber and a projected production of more than 1 million tons in near future contributes to the rapid growth of Indian rubber Industry Kerala produces over 90% of India’s natural rubber; it is followed by Tripura. Hence statement 2 is incorrect The Indian rubber Industry is divided into two sectors – tyre and non tyre The non tyre sector comprises the medium scale, small scale and tiny unit The Automotive tyre sector is the single largest sector accounting for about 50% consumption of all kinds of rubbers followed by bicycle tyres and tubes. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 20. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Natural rubber is obtained in the form of latex from bark of trees.

• Production of natural rubber is restricted to arid regions in western India.

• Automotive tyre sector accounts for about 50% consumption of all kinds of rubbers in India.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Natural rubber is harvested in the form of latex from Rubber tree.

• Latex is a sticky milky and white colloidal drawn off making incisions in the bark of trees and collecting the fluid in vessels.

• This latex is refined into rubber and then it becomes ready for commercial processing.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The plantation sector with an estimated production of over 631 hundred thousand tons of natural rubber and a projected production of more than 1 million tons in near future contributes to the rapid growth of Indian rubber Industry

• Kerala produces over 90% of India’s natural rubber; it is followed by Tripura.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• The Indian rubber Industry is divided into two sectors – tyre and non tyre

• The non tyre sector comprises the medium scale, small scale and tiny unit

• The Automotive tyre sector is the single largest sector accounting for about 50% consumption of all kinds of rubbers followed by bicycle tyres and tubes.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: B

• Natural rubber is harvested in the form of latex from Rubber tree.

• Latex is a sticky milky and white colloidal drawn off making incisions in the bark of trees and collecting the fluid in vessels.

• This latex is refined into rubber and then it becomes ready for commercial processing.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Kerala produces over 90% of India’s natural rubber; it is followed by Tripura.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• The Indian rubber Industry is divided into two sectors – tyre and non tyre

• The non tyre sector comprises the medium scale, small scale and tiny unit

• The Automotive tyre sector is the single largest sector accounting for about 50% consumption of all kinds of rubbers followed by bicycle tyres and tubes.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points With reference to the Air Quality Management Exchange Platform, consider the following statements It is a platform that provides the latest air quality management guidance and tools proposed to meet WHO Air Quality Guidelines interim targets. The platform was created in response to a resolution adopted by the United Nations Environment Assembly (UNEA). It aims to facilitate regional and sub-regional exchange of knowledge and best practices on air quality management. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: D Air Quality Management Exchange Platform: The Air Quality Management Exchange Platform is an international initiative aimed at supporting countries in achieving the interim targets of the WHO’s Air Quality Guidelines. It provides scientifically validated guidance, decision-support tools, and technical resources to help formulate and implement air quality management strategies. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) The platform was launched in response to a resolution passed at the United Nations Environment Assembly (UNEA). The resolution emphasized the need for enhanced regional cooperation, technical knowledge sharing, and policy-level coordination to tackle air pollution and its health impacts globally. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) A key objective of the platform is to enable regional and sub-regional communities to exchange knowledge, strategies, and best practices in air quality management. It focuses on closing capacity gaps in areas such as air quality monitoring, emission inventory development, and health impact assessments, especially in low- and middle-income countries. (Hence, statement 3 is correct) The platform seeks to provide decision-makers with a more holistic understanding of air pollution’s impact on human health, thereby contributing to more informed and health-centered policymaking. Over time, the platform is expected to evolve into a collaborative global knowledge ecosystem, accessible to governments, researchers, technical experts, and civil society stakeholders engaged in clean air action. https://www.unep.org/news-and-stories/press-release/new-air-quality-management-platform-support-global-clean-air-action Incorrect Solution: D Air Quality Management Exchange Platform: The Air Quality Management Exchange Platform is an international initiative aimed at supporting countries in achieving the interim targets of the WHO’s Air Quality Guidelines. It provides scientifically validated guidance, decision-support tools, and technical resources to help formulate and implement air quality management strategies. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) The platform was launched in response to a resolution passed at the United Nations Environment Assembly (UNEA). The resolution emphasized the need for enhanced regional cooperation, technical knowledge sharing, and policy-level coordination to tackle air pollution and its health impacts globally. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) A key objective of the platform is to enable regional and sub-regional communities to exchange knowledge, strategies, and best practices in air quality management. It focuses on closing capacity gaps in areas such as air quality monitoring, emission inventory development, and health impact assessments, especially in low- and middle-income countries. (Hence, statement 3 is correct) The platform seeks to provide decision-makers with a more holistic understanding of air pollution’s impact on human health, thereby contributing to more informed and health-centered policymaking. Over time, the platform is expected to evolve into a collaborative global knowledge ecosystem, accessible to governments, researchers, technical experts, and civil society stakeholders engaged in clean air action. https://www.unep.org/news-and-stories/press-release/new-air-quality-management-platform-support-global-clean-air-action

#### 21. Question

With reference to the Air Quality Management Exchange Platform, consider the following statements

• It is a platform that provides the latest air quality management guidance and tools proposed to meet WHO Air Quality Guidelines interim targets.

• The platform was created in response to a resolution adopted by the United Nations Environment Assembly (UNEA).

• It aims to facilitate regional and sub-regional exchange of knowledge and best practices on air quality management.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

Air Quality Management Exchange Platform:

• The Air Quality Management Exchange Platform is an international initiative aimed at supporting countries in achieving the interim targets of the WHO’s Air Quality Guidelines. It provides scientifically validated guidance, decision-support tools, and technical resources to help formulate and implement air quality management strategies. (Hence, statement 1 is correct)

• The platform was launched in response to a resolution passed at the United Nations Environment Assembly (UNEA). The resolution emphasized the need for enhanced regional cooperation, technical knowledge sharing, and policy-level coordination to tackle air pollution and its health impacts globally. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

• A key objective of the platform is to enable regional and sub-regional communities to exchange knowledge, strategies, and best practices in air quality management. It focuses on closing capacity gaps in areas such as air quality monitoring, emission inventory development, and health impact assessments, especially in low- and middle-income countries. (Hence, statement 3 is correct)

• The platform seeks to provide decision-makers with a more holistic understanding of air pollution’s impact on human health, thereby contributing to more informed and health-centered policymaking.

• Over time, the platform is expected to evolve into a collaborative global knowledge ecosystem, accessible to governments, researchers, technical experts, and civil society stakeholders engaged in clean air action.

https://www.unep.org/news-and-stories/press-release/new-air-quality-management-platform-support-global-clean-air-action

Solution: D

Air Quality Management Exchange Platform:

https://www.unep.org/news-and-stories/press-release/new-air-quality-management-platform-support-global-clean-air-action

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points With reference to Mikania micrantha, consider the following statements It is an invasive climber native to Africa, introduced in India for controlling forest fires. It reproduces only by wind-dispersed seeds and cannot regenerate vegetatively. It has allelopathic effects that suppress the growth of nearby plant species. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All three Correct Solution: A Mikania micrantha Mikania micrantha is a perennial creeping climber known for its extremely fast and aggressive growth, making it a serious ecological threat. It is native to Central and South America, and was introduced into India during the 1940s, specifically as a ground cover in tea plantations, not for the purpose of forest fire control. Its ability to dominate habitats has made it one of India’s most problematic invasive species. (Hence, statement 1 is incorrect) The species reproduces both sexually and asexually: It produces thousands of lightweight seeds that are easily dispersed by wind. It also propagates vegetatively through its roots and stem fragments. This ability to regenerate from cut parts makes it highly invasive and difficult to eradicate once established. Therefore, it does not rely solely on wind-dispersed seeds for reproduction. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect) Mikania micrantha demonstrates allelopathic potential, meaning it releases chemical compounds into the surrounding soil that inhibit seed germination and seedling growth of neighboring plants. This allows it to suppress native species, disrupt regeneration cycles in forests, and dominate disturbed habitats. Allelopathy is a key reason for its ecological success as an invasive plant. (Hence, statement 3 is correct) https://www.deccanherald.com/india/karnataka/alarm-in-bhadra-tiger-reserve-as-weed-runs-rampant-3181949 Incorrect Solution: A Mikania micrantha Mikania micrantha is a perennial creeping climber known for its extremely fast and aggressive growth, making it a serious ecological threat. It is native to Central and South America, and was introduced into India during the 1940s, specifically as a ground cover in tea plantations, not for the purpose of forest fire control. Its ability to dominate habitats has made it one of India’s most problematic invasive species. (Hence, statement 1 is incorrect) The species reproduces both sexually and asexually: It produces thousands of lightweight seeds that are easily dispersed by wind. It also propagates vegetatively through its roots and stem fragments. This ability to regenerate from cut parts makes it highly invasive and difficult to eradicate once established. Therefore, it does not rely solely on wind-dispersed seeds for reproduction. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect) Mikania micrantha demonstrates allelopathic potential, meaning it releases chemical compounds into the surrounding soil that inhibit seed germination and seedling growth of neighboring plants. This allows it to suppress native species, disrupt regeneration cycles in forests, and dominate disturbed habitats. Allelopathy is a key reason for its ecological success as an invasive plant. (Hence, statement 3 is correct) https://www.deccanherald.com/india/karnataka/alarm-in-bhadra-tiger-reserve-as-weed-runs-rampant-3181949

#### 22. Question

With reference to Mikania micrantha, consider the following statements

• It is an invasive climber native to Africa, introduced in India for controlling forest fires.

• It reproduces only by wind-dispersed seeds and cannot regenerate vegetatively.

• It has allelopathic effects that suppress the growth of nearby plant species.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 3 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) All three

Solution: A

Mikania micrantha

• Mikania micrantha is a perennial creeping climber known for its extremely fast and aggressive growth, making it a serious ecological threat. It is native to Central and South America, and was introduced into India during the 1940s, specifically as a ground cover in tea plantations, not for the purpose of forest fire control. Its ability to dominate habitats has made it one of India’s most problematic invasive species. (Hence, statement 1 is incorrect)

• The species reproduces both sexually and asexually: It produces thousands of lightweight seeds that are easily dispersed by wind. It also propagates vegetatively through its roots and stem fragments. This ability to regenerate from cut parts makes it highly invasive and difficult to eradicate once established. Therefore, it does not rely solely on wind-dispersed seeds for reproduction. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect)

• It produces thousands of lightweight seeds that are easily dispersed by wind.

• It also propagates vegetatively through its roots and stem fragments. This ability to regenerate from cut parts makes it highly invasive and difficult to eradicate once established. Therefore, it does not rely solely on wind-dispersed seeds for reproduction. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect)

• Mikania micrantha demonstrates allelopathic potential, meaning it releases chemical compounds into the surrounding soil that inhibit seed germination and seedling growth of neighboring plants. This allows it to suppress native species, disrupt regeneration cycles in forests, and dominate disturbed habitats. Allelopathy is a key reason for its ecological success as an invasive plant. (Hence, statement 3 is correct)

https://www.deccanherald.com/india/karnataka/alarm-in-bhadra-tiger-reserve-as-weed-runs-rampant-3181949

Solution: A

Mikania micrantha

• It produces thousands of lightweight seeds that are easily dispersed by wind.

https://www.deccanherald.com/india/karnataka/alarm-in-bhadra-tiger-reserve-as-weed-runs-rampant-3181949

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points With reference to Seaweeds, consider the following statements: Unlike higher plants, seaweeds do not absorb nutrients through their holdfasts. Some species of seaweed are used in the production of commercial goods due to their emulsifying and gelling properties. Seaweeds grow only in marine ecosystems and are not found in freshwater bodies. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) All three Correct Solution: A Seaweeds: Seaweeds are marine plants and algae that grow in oceans, rivers, lakes, and other water bodies. They vary in colour (red, green, brown, black) and size (microscopic to large underwater forests). Seaweeds attach to surfaces using holdfasts, which serve only as anchors and do not absorb nutrients, unlike the roots of higher plants. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) Many species of seaweeds are used in commercial goods due to their polysaccharide content like agar and carrageenan, which act as emulsifiers, stabilizers, and gelling agents. They are used in toothpaste, fruit jelly, and organic cosmetic products. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) Although seaweeds are primarily marine, some species also grow in freshwater environments such as rivers and lakes. Hence, it is incorrect to say they grow only in marine ecosystems. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect) Seaweeds grow best in shallow waters up to 50 metres deep, where light penetration, humidity, and nutrient content are high. Some seaweed species are edible, while others are used in fertilizers or valued for their antioxidant, anti-inflammatory, and antimicrobial properties. Studies show seaweeds can support fat metabolism, help balance blood sugar levels, and promote cell protection due to the presence of antioxidants and bioactive compounds. https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Kochi/cmfri-unit-designated-seaweed-research-centre-of-excellence/article68648305.ece Incorrect Solution: A Seaweeds: Seaweeds are marine plants and algae that grow in oceans, rivers, lakes, and other water bodies. They vary in colour (red, green, brown, black) and size (microscopic to large underwater forests). Seaweeds attach to surfaces using holdfasts, which serve only as anchors and do not absorb nutrients, unlike the roots of higher plants. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) Many species of seaweeds are used in commercial goods due to their polysaccharide content like agar and carrageenan, which act as emulsifiers, stabilizers, and gelling agents. They are used in toothpaste, fruit jelly, and organic cosmetic products. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) Although seaweeds are primarily marine, some species also grow in freshwater environments such as rivers and lakes. Hence, it is incorrect to say they grow only in marine ecosystems. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect) Seaweeds grow best in shallow waters up to 50 metres deep, where light penetration, humidity, and nutrient content are high. Some seaweed species are edible, while others are used in fertilizers or valued for their antioxidant, anti-inflammatory, and antimicrobial properties. Studies show seaweeds can support fat metabolism, help balance blood sugar levels, and promote cell protection due to the presence of antioxidants and bioactive compounds. https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Kochi/cmfri-unit-designated-seaweed-research-centre-of-excellence/article68648305.ece

#### 23. Question

With reference to Seaweeds, consider the following statements:

• Unlike higher plants, seaweeds do not absorb nutrients through their holdfasts.

• Some species of seaweed are used in the production of commercial goods due to their emulsifying and gelling properties.

• Seaweeds grow only in marine ecosystems and are not found in freshwater bodies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) All three

Solution: A

Seaweeds:

• Seaweeds are marine plants and algae that grow in oceans, rivers, lakes, and other water bodies. They vary in colour (red, green, brown, black) and size (microscopic to large underwater forests).

• Seaweeds attach to surfaces using holdfasts, which serve only as anchors and do not absorb nutrients, unlike the roots of higher plants. (Hence, statement 1 is correct)

• Many species of seaweeds are used in commercial goods due to their polysaccharide content like agar and carrageenan, which act as emulsifiers, stabilizers, and gelling agents. They are used in toothpaste, fruit jelly, and organic cosmetic products. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

• Although seaweeds are primarily marine, some species also grow in freshwater environments such as rivers and lakes. Hence, it is incorrect to say they grow only in marine ecosystems. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect)

• Seaweeds grow best in shallow waters up to 50 metres deep, where light penetration, humidity, and nutrient content are high.

• Some seaweed species are edible, while others are used in fertilizers or valued for their antioxidant, anti-inflammatory, and antimicrobial properties.

• Studies show seaweeds can support fat metabolism, help balance blood sugar levels, and promote cell protection due to the presence of antioxidants and bioactive compounds.

https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Kochi/cmfri-unit-designated-seaweed-research-centre-of-excellence/article68648305.ece

Solution: A

Seaweeds:

• Seaweeds attach to surfaces using holdfasts, which serve only as anchors and do not absorb nutrients, unlike the roots of higher plants. (Hence, statement 1 is correct)

• Seaweeds grow best in shallow waters up to 50 metres deep, where light penetration, humidity, and nutrient content are high.

• Some seaweed species are edible, while others are used in fertilizers or valued for their antioxidant, anti-inflammatory, and antimicrobial properties.

• Studies show seaweeds can support fat metabolism, help balance blood sugar levels, and promote cell protection due to the presence of antioxidants and bioactive compounds.

https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Kochi/cmfri-unit-designated-seaweed-research-centre-of-excellence/article68648305.ece

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points With reference to the Integrated Development of Wildlife Habitat (IDWH) Scheme, consider the following statements: The scheme provides assistance not only to Protected Areas but also for wildlife conservation efforts outside designated sanctuaries and national parks. Project Cheetah and Project Dolphin are currently implemented under its subcomponents. The scheme is fully funded by the central government as a 100% centrally sponsored scheme. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) All three Correct Solution: A Integrated Development of Wildlife Habitat (IDWH) Scheme: The IDWH Scheme is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. It was made operational during the 11th Five Year Plan by expanding the scope of the earlier scheme “Assistance for the Development of National Parks and Sanctuaries”. It provides financial support for the development of wildlife habitats both inside and outside Protected Areas, including buffer zones and wildlife corridors. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) Project Cheetah and Project Dolphin are supported under subcomponents of the IDWH scheme. Specifically: Project Tiger is a subcomponent that also covers Project Cheetah. Development of Wildlife Habitat subcomponent supports Project Dolphin and Project Lion. These sub-missions aim at species recovery and habitat development. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) The scheme is not fully funded by the Central Government. Being a Centrally Sponsored Scheme, it follows a cost-sharing pattern between the Centre and States/UTs. Typically, the sharing ratio is: 60:40 for general States, 90:10 for North Eastern and Himalayan States, 100% for Union Territories. Therefore, it is not 100% centrally funded in all cases. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect) https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2057291#:~:text=The%20Cabinet%20in%20its%20meeting,2602.98%20crores Incorrect Solution: A Integrated Development of Wildlife Habitat (IDWH) Scheme: The IDWH Scheme is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. It was made operational during the 11th Five Year Plan by expanding the scope of the earlier scheme “Assistance for the Development of National Parks and Sanctuaries”. It provides financial support for the development of wildlife habitats both inside and outside Protected Areas, including buffer zones and wildlife corridors. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) Project Cheetah and Project Dolphin are supported under subcomponents of the IDWH scheme. Specifically: Project Tiger is a subcomponent that also covers Project Cheetah. Development of Wildlife Habitat subcomponent supports Project Dolphin and Project Lion. These sub-missions aim at species recovery and habitat development. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) The scheme is not fully funded by the Central Government. Being a Centrally Sponsored Scheme, it follows a cost-sharing pattern between the Centre and States/UTs. Typically, the sharing ratio is: 60:40 for general States, 90:10 for North Eastern and Himalayan States, 100% for Union Territories. Therefore, it is not 100% centrally funded in all cases. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect) https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2057291#:~:text=The%20Cabinet%20in%20its%20meeting,2602.98%20crores

#### 24. Question

With reference to the Integrated Development of Wildlife Habitat (IDWH) Scheme, consider the following statements:

• The scheme provides assistance not only to Protected Areas but also for wildlife conservation efforts outside designated sanctuaries and national parks.

• Project Cheetah and Project Dolphin are currently implemented under its subcomponents.

• The scheme is fully funded by the central government as a 100% centrally sponsored scheme.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) All three

Solution: A

Integrated Development of Wildlife Habitat (IDWH) Scheme:

• The IDWH Scheme is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. It was made operational during the 11th Five Year Plan by expanding the scope of the earlier scheme “Assistance for the Development of National Parks and Sanctuaries”. It provides financial support for the development of wildlife habitats both inside and outside Protected Areas, including buffer zones and wildlife corridors. (Hence, statement 1 is correct)

• Project Cheetah and Project Dolphin are supported under subcomponents of the IDWH scheme. Specifically: Project Tiger is a subcomponent that also covers Project Cheetah. Development of Wildlife Habitat subcomponent supports Project Dolphin and Project Lion. These sub-missions aim at species recovery and habitat development. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

• Project Tiger is a subcomponent that also covers Project Cheetah.

• Development of Wildlife Habitat subcomponent supports Project Dolphin and Project Lion. These sub-missions aim at species recovery and habitat development. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

• The scheme is not fully funded by the Central Government. Being a Centrally Sponsored Scheme, it follows a cost-sharing pattern between the Centre and States/UTs. Typically, the sharing ratio is: 60:40 for general States, 90:10 for North Eastern and Himalayan States, 100% for Union Territories. Therefore, it is not 100% centrally funded in all cases. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect)

• 60:40 for general States,

• 90:10 for North Eastern and Himalayan States,

• 100% for Union Territories. Therefore, it is not 100% centrally funded in all cases. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect)

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2057291#:~:text=The%20Cabinet%20in%20its%20meeting,2602.98%20crores

Solution: A

Integrated Development of Wildlife Habitat (IDWH) Scheme:

• Project Tiger is a subcomponent that also covers Project Cheetah.

• 60:40 for general States,

• 90:10 for North Eastern and Himalayan States,

• 100% for Union Territories. Therefore, it is not 100% centrally funded in all cases. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect)

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2057291#:~:text=The%20Cabinet%20in%20its%20meeting,2602.98%20crores

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Exercise Tiger Triumph, recently conducted in the Bay of Bengal, is: (a) A bilateral maritime security exercise between India and Australia (b) A joint counterterrorism exercise between India and the United Kingdom (c) A tri-service humanitarian assistance and disaster relief (HADR) exercise between India and the United States (d) A multinational air combat exercise hosted by India Correct Solution: C Exercise Tiger Triumph: Tiger Triumph is a bilateral tri-service exercise between India and the United States, focusing on Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) operations. The fourth edition of the exercise took place in the Bay of Bengal. It is the only India–U.S. military exercise that involves participation from all three services: Army, Navy, and Air Force. The exercise aims to: Enhance interoperability in HADR operations Develop Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) Establish a Combined Coordination Centre (CCC) for effective response Indian participants included: Naval ships: INS Jalashwa, Gharial, Mumbai, Shakti Aircraft: P-8I, C-130, MI-17 helicopters Army: 91 Infantry Brigade, 12 Mechanical Infantry Battalion Rapid Action Medical Team (RAMT) from IAF U.S. participants included: Naval ships: USS Comstock and USS Ralph Johnson Troops from the U.S. Marine Division Other components: Training visits, subject matter expert exchanges, sports events, and social interactions were also part of the exercise. (Hence, option C is correct) Incorrect Solution: C Exercise Tiger Triumph: Tiger Triumph is a bilateral tri-service exercise between India and the United States, focusing on Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) operations. The fourth edition of the exercise took place in the Bay of Bengal. It is the only India–U.S. military exercise that involves participation from all three services: Army, Navy, and Air Force. The exercise aims to: Enhance interoperability in HADR operations Develop Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) Establish a Combined Coordination Centre (CCC) for effective response Indian participants included: Naval ships: INS Jalashwa, Gharial, Mumbai, Shakti Aircraft: P-8I, C-130, MI-17 helicopters Army: 91 Infantry Brigade, 12 Mechanical Infantry Battalion Rapid Action Medical Team (RAMT) from IAF U.S. participants included: Naval ships: USS Comstock and USS Ralph Johnson Troops from the U.S. Marine Division Other components: Training visits, subject matter expert exchanges, sports events, and social interactions were also part of the exercise. (Hence, option C is correct)

#### 25. Question

Exercise Tiger Triumph, recently conducted in the Bay of Bengal, is:

• (a) A bilateral maritime security exercise between India and Australia

• (b) A joint counterterrorism exercise between India and the United Kingdom

• (c) A tri-service humanitarian assistance and disaster relief (HADR) exercise between India and the United States

• (d) A multinational air combat exercise hosted by India

Solution: C

Exercise Tiger Triumph:

• Tiger Triumph is a bilateral tri-service exercise between India and the United States, focusing on Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) operations.

• The fourth edition of the exercise took place in the Bay of Bengal.

• It is the only India–U.S. military exercise that involves participation from all three services: Army, Navy, and Air Force.

• The exercise aims to: Enhance interoperability in HADR operations Develop Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) Establish a Combined Coordination Centre (CCC) for effective response

• Enhance interoperability in HADR operations

• Develop Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs)

• Establish a Combined Coordination Centre (CCC) for effective response

• Indian participants included: Naval ships: INS Jalashwa, Gharial, Mumbai, Shakti Aircraft: P-8I, C-130, MI-17 helicopters Army: 91 Infantry Brigade, 12 Mechanical Infantry Battalion Rapid Action Medical Team (RAMT) from IAF

• Naval ships: INS Jalashwa, Gharial, Mumbai, Shakti

• Aircraft: P-8I, C-130, MI-17 helicopters

• Army: 91 Infantry Brigade, 12 Mechanical Infantry Battalion

• Rapid Action Medical Team (RAMT) from IAF

• U.S. participants included: Naval ships: USS Comstock and USS Ralph Johnson Troops from the U.S. Marine Division

• Naval ships: USS Comstock and USS Ralph Johnson

• Troops from the U.S. Marine Division

• Other components: Training visits, subject matter expert exchanges, sports events, and social interactions were also part of the exercise.

• Training visits, subject matter expert exchanges, sports events, and social interactions were also part of the exercise.

(Hence, option C is correct)

Solution: C

Exercise Tiger Triumph:

• Tiger Triumph is a bilateral tri-service exercise between India and the United States, focusing on Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) operations.

• The fourth edition of the exercise took place in the Bay of Bengal.

• It is the only India–U.S. military exercise that involves participation from all three services: Army, Navy, and Air Force.

• The exercise aims to: Enhance interoperability in HADR operations Develop Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) Establish a Combined Coordination Centre (CCC) for effective response

• Enhance interoperability in HADR operations

• Develop Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs)

• Establish a Combined Coordination Centre (CCC) for effective response

• Naval ships: INS Jalashwa, Gharial, Mumbai, Shakti

• Aircraft: P-8I, C-130, MI-17 helicopters

• Army: 91 Infantry Brigade, 12 Mechanical Infantry Battalion

• Rapid Action Medical Team (RAMT) from IAF

• U.S. participants included: Naval ships: USS Comstock and USS Ralph Johnson Troops from the U.S. Marine Division

• Naval ships: USS Comstock and USS Ralph Johnson

• Troops from the U.S. Marine Division

• Other components: Training visits, subject matter expert exchanges, sports events, and social interactions were also part of the exercise.

• Training visits, subject matter expert exchanges, sports events, and social interactions were also part of the exercise.

(Hence, option C is correct)

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points Henry Ford *An American innovator Henry Ford, born in 1863 in Greenfield, was fascinated by machines from a young age. He built his own steam-powered vehicles as a teen but found steam too dangerous for small cars. In 1879, he left farming to work as an apprentice in a car factory and later returned to Detroit as an engineer at an electric company. In his free time, Ford built his first vehicle, the Quadricycle, in 1896. Though his early companies failed, Ford persisted and used car racing to gain investor interest. In 1903, he launched the successful Ford Motor Company, with the Model T (1908) revolutionizing personal transport. His vision was to make cars affordable for ordinary Americans. Ford introduced assembly line production in 1910, drastically improving efficiency. Though the work was tedious, he doubled worker wages to retain staff. By the 1920s, Ford held 50% of the U.S. car market. The Model T sold 15 million units and remains iconic even today. Which of the following statements, if false, could be seen as supporting the passage? Ford achieved his success due to his tenacity in the face of challenges and failure. Ford’s major focus was on building racing cars for professionals. a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Correct Option: B Justification: Statement 1 is true: The passage emphasizes Ford’s tenacity and persistence despite multiple failures. His determination helped him build a successful automobile business. If this were false, it would contradict the passage, not support it. Statement 2 is false: The passage clearly shows that Ford’s main aim was to make affordable cars for the masses, not to focus on racing cars. He only used racing as a strategy to attract investors. Thus, falsifying this statement aligns with the actual content, hence supports the passage. Incorrect Correct Option: B Justification: Statement 1 is true: The passage emphasizes Ford’s tenacity and persistence despite multiple failures. His determination helped him build a successful automobile business. If this were false, it would contradict the passage, not support it. Statement 2 is false: The passage clearly shows that Ford’s main aim was to make affordable cars for the masses, not to focus on racing cars. He only used racing as a strategy to attract investors. Thus, falsifying this statement aligns with the actual content, hence supports* the passage.

#### 26. Question

Henry Ford

*An American innovator*

Henry Ford, born in 1863 in Greenfield, was fascinated by machines from a young age. He built his own steam-powered vehicles as a teen but found steam too dangerous for small cars. In 1879, he left farming to work as an apprentice in a car factory and later returned to Detroit as an engineer at an electric company. In his free time, Ford built his first vehicle, the Quadricycle, in 1896. Though his early companies failed, Ford persisted and used car racing to gain investor interest. In 1903, he launched the successful Ford Motor Company, with the Model T (1908) revolutionizing personal transport. His vision was to make cars affordable for ordinary Americans. Ford introduced assembly line production in 1910, drastically improving efficiency. Though the work was tedious, he doubled worker wages to retain staff. By the 1920s, Ford held 50% of the U.S. car market. The Model T sold 15 million units and remains iconic even today.

Which of the following statements, if false, could be seen as supporting the passage?

• Ford achieved his success due to his tenacity in the face of challenges and failure. Ford’s major focus was on building racing cars for professionals.

• Ford achieved his success due to his tenacity in the face of challenges and failure.

• Ford’s major focus was on building racing cars for professionals.

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Option: B

Justification:

• Statement 1 is true: The passage emphasizes Ford’s tenacity and persistence despite multiple failures. His determination helped him build a successful automobile business. If this were false, it would contradict the passage, not support it.

• Statement 2 is false: The passage clearly shows that Ford’s main aim was to make affordable cars for the masses, not to focus on racing cars. He only used racing as a strategy to attract investors. Thus, falsifying this statement aligns with the actual content, hence supports the passage.

Correct Option: B

Justification:

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points Ten years ago, the ages of the members of a joint family of eight people added up to 231 years. Three years later, one member died at the age of 60 years and a child was born during the same year. After another three years, one more member died, again at 60, and a child was born during the same year. The current average age of this eight-member joint family is nearest to a) 23 b) 22 c) 21 d) 24 Correct Correct Option: D Justification: Ten years ago, the total age of the family is 231 years. Seven years ago, (Just before the death of the first person), the total age of the family would have been 231+83 = 231+24 = 255. This is because, in 3 years, every person in the family would have aged by 3 years, Total change in age = 231+24 = 255 After the death of one member, the total age is 255-60 = 195 years. Since a child takes birth in the same year, the number of members remain the same i.e. (7+1) = 8 Four years ago, (i.e. 6 years after start date) one of the members of age 60 dies, therefore, total age of the family is 195+24-60 = 159 years. Since a child takes birth in the same year, the number of members remain the same i.e. (7+1) = 8 After 4 more years, the current total age of the family is = 8×4 + 159 = 191 years The average age is 191/8 = 23.875 years = 24 years (approx Incorrect Correct Option: D Justification: Ten years ago, the total age of the family is 231 years. Seven years ago, (Just before the death of the first person), the total age of the family would have been 231+83 = 231+24 = 255. This is because, in 3 years, every person in the family would have aged by 3 years, Total change in age = 231+24 = 255 After the death of one member, the total age is 255-60 = 195 years. Since a child takes birth in the same year, the number of members remain the same i.e. (7+1) = 8 Four years ago, (i.e. 6 years after start date) one of the members of age 60 dies, therefore, total age of the family is 195+24-60 = 159 years. Since a child takes birth in the same year, the number of members remain the same i.e. (7+1) = 8 After 4 more years, the current total age of the family is = 8×4 + 159 = 191 years The average age is 191/8 = 23.875 years = 24 years (approx

#### 27. Question

Ten years ago, the ages of the members of a joint family of eight people added up to 231 years. Three years later, one member died at the age of 60 years and a child was born during the same year. After another three years, one more member died, again at 60, and a child was born during the same year. The current average age of this eight-member joint family is nearest to

Correct Option: D

Justification:

Ten years ago, the total age of the family is 231 years.

Seven years ago, (Just before the death of the first person), the total age of the family would have been 231+8*3 = 231+24 = 255.

This is because, in 3 years, every person in the family would have aged by 3 years,

Total change in age = 231+24 = 255

After the death of one member, the total age is 255-60 = 195 years.

Since a child takes birth in the same year, the number of members remain the same i.e. (7+1) = 8

Four years ago, (i.e. 6 years after start date) one of the members of age 60 dies,

therefore, total age of the family is 195+24-60 = 159 years.

Since a child takes birth in the same year, the number of members remain the same i.e. (7+1) = 8

After 4 more years, the current total age of the family is = 8×4 + 159 = 191 years

The average age is 191/8 = 23.875 years = 24 years (approx

Correct Option: D

Justification:

Ten years ago, the total age of the family is 231 years.

Seven years ago, (Just before the death of the first person), the total age of the family would have been 231+8*3 = 231+24 = 255.

This is because, in 3 years, every person in the family would have aged by 3 years,

Total change in age = 231+24 = 255

After the death of one member, the total age is 255-60 = 195 years.

Since a child takes birth in the same year, the number of members remain the same i.e. (7+1) = 8

Four years ago, (i.e. 6 years after start date) one of the members of age 60 dies,

therefore, total age of the family is 195+24-60 = 159 years.

Since a child takes birth in the same year, the number of members remain the same i.e. (7+1) = 8

After 4 more years, the current total age of the family is = 8×4 + 159 = 191 years

The average age is 191/8 = 23.875 years = 24 years (approx

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points Train X departs from station A at 11 a.m. for station B, which is 180 km so far. Train Y departs from station B at 11 a.m. for station A. Train X travels at an average speed of 70 km/hr and does not stop anywhere until it arrives at station B. Train Y travels at an average speed of 50 km/hr, but has to stop for 15 min at station C, which is 60 km away from station B enroute to station A. Ignoring the lengths of the trains, what is the distance, to the nearest kilometre, from station A to the point where the trains cross each other? a) 112 km b) 118 km c) 120 km d) None of these Correct Correct Option: A Justification: Distance between A-B, A-C, C-B is 180, 120 and 60 km respectively. Let x be the distance from A where the 2 trains meet. According to given condition we have x/70= 60/50 + 1/4 + (120-x)/50 Solving the equation, we get x around 112 km Incorrect Correct Option: A Justification: Distance between A-B, A-C, C-B is 180, 120 and 60 km respectively. Let x be the distance from A where the 2 trains meet. According to given condition we have x/70= 60/50 + 1/4 + (120-x)/50 Solving the equation, we get x around 112 km

#### 28. Question

Train X departs from station A at 11 a.m. for station B, which is 180 km so far. Train Y departs from station B at 11 a.m. for station A. Train X travels at an average speed of 70 km/hr and does not stop anywhere until it arrives at station B. Train Y travels at an average speed of 50 km/hr, but has to stop for 15 min at station C, which is 60 km away from station B enroute to station A. Ignoring the lengths of the trains, what is the distance, to the nearest kilometre, from station A to the point where the trains cross each other?

• d) None of these

Correct Option: A

Justification:

Distance between A-B, A-C, C-B is 180, 120 and 60 km

respectively.

Let x be the distance from A where the 2 trains meet.

According to given condition we have

x/70= 60/50 + 1/4 + (120-x)/50

Solving the equation, we get x around 112 km

Correct Option: A

Justification:

Distance between A-B, A-C, C-B is 180, 120 and 60 km

respectively.

Let x be the distance from A where the 2 trains meet.

According to given condition we have

x/70= 60/50 + 1/4 + (120-x)/50

Solving the equation, we get x around 112 km

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points The age of Arjun is (x + 5) years. The ratio of the age of Arjun 2 years hence to the age of Kavya 1 year before is 6 : 5 respectively. If Arjun is 4 years older than Kavya, then find the age of Shubha whose age is 4 years less than the average age of Arjun and Kavya taken together. a) 30 years b) 36 years c) 34 years d) 32 years Correct Correct Option: C Justification: Age of Arjun = (x + 5) Since Arjun is 4 years older than Kavya , so Age of Kavya = (x + 1) According to question, [(x + 5) + 2] / [(x + 1) – 1] = 6/5 5x + 35 = 6x x = 35 So, age of Arjun and Kavya is (35 + 5) = 40 years and (35 + 1) = 36 years respectively Average age of Arjun and Kavya = (40 + 36)/2 = 38 years Therefore, age of Shubha = (38 – 4) = 34 years Hence, option C is correct Incorrect Correct Option: C Justification: Age of Arjun = (x + 5) Since Arjun is 4 years older than Kavya , so Age of Kavya = (x + 1) According to question, [(x + 5) + 2] / [(x + 1) – 1] = 6/5 5x + 35 = 6x x = 35 So, age of Arjun and Kavya is (35 + 5) = 40 years and (35 + 1) = 36 years respectively Average age of Arjun and Kavya = (40 + 36)/2 = 38 years Therefore, age of Shubha = (38 – 4) = 34 years Hence, option C is correct

#### 29. Question

The age of Arjun is (x + 5) years. The ratio of the age of Arjun 2 years hence to the age of Kavya 1 year before is 6 : 5 respectively. If Arjun is 4 years older than Kavya, then find the age of Shubha whose age is 4 years less than the average age of Arjun and Kavya taken together.

• a) 30 years

• b) 36 years

• c) 34 years

• d) 32 years

Correct Option: C

Justification:

Age of Arjun = (x + 5) Since Arjun is 4 years older than Kavya , so Age of Kavya = (x + 1) According to question,

[(x + 5) + 2] / [(x + 1) – 1] = 6/5

5x + 35 = 6x

So, age of Arjun and Kavya is (35 + 5) = 40 years and (35 + 1) = 36 years respectively Average age of Arjun and Kavya = (40 + 36)/2 = 38 years

Therefore, age of Shubha = (38 – 4) = 34 years

Hence, option C is correct

Correct Option: C

Justification:

Age of Arjun = (x + 5) Since Arjun is 4 years older than Kavya , so Age of Kavya = (x + 1) According to question,

[(x + 5) + 2] / [(x + 1) – 1] = 6/5

5x + 35 = 6x

So, age of Arjun and Kavya is (35 + 5) = 40 years and (35 + 1) = 36 years respectively Average age of Arjun and Kavya = (40 + 36)/2 = 38 years

Therefore, age of Shubha = (38 – 4) = 34 years

Hence, option C is correct

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points Recently a band was to perform in India. However, there was widespread criticism of the high cost of its tickets so the organizers decided to offer the following discounts: Ticket bought (in lots) 6 7 8 Discount 6% 7% 8% The tickets were originally priced at Rs 25,000/ticket. Any additional tickets (above the lot sizes) were billed at the original price. A college group wants to buy 13 tickets, what is the minimum average ticket price they would need to pay (approx.)? a) Rs.23,375 b) Rs.23,367 c) Rs.23,380 d) Rs.23,400 Correct Correct Option: B Justification: Which combination would minimize the ticket price? There could be 3 possible relevant scenarios: 1) 8 tickets @ 8% discount + 5 tickets (no discount) => Average discount = 8 8/13 = 64/13 = 4.9 2) 7 tickets @ 7% discount + 6 tickets (@ 6% discount) => Average discount = (77+66)/13 = 85/13 = 6.5 3) 12 tickets @ 6% discount + 1 tickets (no discount) => Average discount = Certainly less than 6% So, Scenario 2 is applicable. Therefore, Average ticket price ≈ 25000–25000 6.5/100 = 23,375. However, the discount is little greater than 6.5%, So, the answer is 23,367. Note – Be careful when the options are given as close as in this question. Don’t ignore the decimal points of percentages in such cases. The question is “what is the minimum average ticket price they would need to pay (approx.)?” The minimum average ticket price they would need to pay is Rs.23,367 Hence, the answer is 23,367. Choice B is the correct answer. Incorrect Correct Option: B Justification: Which combination would minimize the ticket price? There could be 3 possible relevant scenarios: 1) 8 tickets @ 8% discount + 5 tickets (no discount) => Average discount = 8 8/13 = 64/13 = 4.9 2) 7 tickets @ 7% discount + 6 tickets (@ 6% discount) => Average discount = (77+66)/13 = 85/13 = 6.5 3) 12 tickets @ 6% discount + 1 tickets (no discount) => Average discount = Certainly less than 6% So, Scenario 2 is applicable. Therefore, Average ticket price ≈ 25000–25000 6.5/100 = 23,375. However, the discount is little greater than 6.5%, So, the answer is 23,367. Note – Be careful when the options are given as close as in this question. Don’t ignore the decimal points of percentages in such cases. The question is “what is the minimum average ticket price they would need to pay (approx.)?” The minimum average ticket price they would need to pay is Rs.23,367 Hence, the answer is 23,367. Choice B is the correct answer.

#### 30. Question

Recently a band was to perform in India. However, there was widespread criticism of the high cost of its tickets so the organizers decided to offer the following discounts:

Ticket bought (in lots) | 6 | 7 | 8

Discount | 6% | 7% | 8%

The tickets were originally priced at Rs 25,000/ticket. Any additional tickets (above the lot sizes) were billed at the original price. A college group wants to buy 13 tickets, what is the minimum average ticket price they would need to pay (approx.)?

• a) Rs.23,375

• b) Rs.23,367

• c) Rs.23,380

• d) Rs.23,400

Correct Option: B

Justification:

Which combination would minimize the ticket price?

There could be 3 possible relevant scenarios:

1.8 tickets @ 8% discount + 5 tickets (no discount)

=> Average discount = 8 * 8/13 = 64/13 = 4.9

1.7 tickets @ 7% discount + 6 tickets (@ 6% discount)

=> Average discount = (77+66)/13 = 85/13 = 6.5

1.12 tickets @ 6% discount + 1 tickets (no discount)

=> Average discount = Certainly less than 6%

So, Scenario 2 is applicable.

Therefore, Average ticket price ≈ 25000–25000 * 6.5/100 = 23,375.

However, the discount is little greater than 6.5%, So, the answer is 23,367.

Note – Be careful when the options are given as close as in this question. Don’t ignore the decimal points of percentages in such cases.

The question is “what is the minimum average ticket price they would need to pay (approx.)?”

The minimum average ticket price they would need to pay is Rs.23,367

Hence, the answer is 23,367.

Choice B is the correct answer.

Correct Option: B

Justification:

Which combination would minimize the ticket price?

There could be 3 possible relevant scenarios:

1.8 tickets @ 8% discount + 5 tickets (no discount)

=> Average discount = 8 * 8/13 = 64/13 = 4.9

1.7 tickets @ 7% discount + 6 tickets (@ 6% discount)

=> Average discount = (77+66)/13 = 85/13 = 6.5

1.12 tickets @ 6% discount + 1 tickets (no discount)

=> Average discount = Certainly less than 6%

So, Scenario 2 is applicable.

Therefore, Average ticket price ≈ 25000–25000 * 6.5/100 = 23,375.

However, the discount is little greater than 6.5%, So, the answer is 23,367.

Note – Be careful when the options are given as close as in this question. Don’t ignore the decimal points of percentages in such cases.

The question is “what is the minimum average ticket price they would need to pay (approx.)?”