DAY – 24 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – POLITY, Subject-wise Test 22,23 Textbook-based Test 10, 12, 26 and Oct & Nov 2023 CA
Kartavya Desk Staff
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024
#### Quiz-summary
0 of 30 questions completed
Questions:
#### Information
Read about Insights IAS INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Prelims – 2024 [ HERE ] :
DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(GS) [HERE] :
DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(CSAT) [HERE] :
Download MITRA booklet (My Insta Tests Revision and Assessment) – It’s for to track your daily progress while following Insta 75 Days plan. [ CLICK HERE ] :
Wish you Good Luck! 🙂
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
0 of 30 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
Average score |
Your score |
#### Categories
• Not categorized 0%
Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result
Table is loading
No data available
| | | |
• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: An interim budget usually sidesteps major policy announcements or new schemes. Statement-II: The interim budget is a stopgap arrangement designed to ensure the smooth functioning of the government until a new administration assumes office. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Answer: a Explanation: The interim budget serves as a temporary financial plan presented by the incumbent government when its term is ending or during a transition of power. It is a stopgap arrangement designed to ensure the smooth functioning of the government until a new administration assumes office. Hence, statement 1 is correct. In contrast to the comprehensive nature of the full union budget, the interim budget usually sidesteps major policy announcements or new schemes. Its primary objective is to maintain continuity and stability rather than introduce significant changes in fiscal policy. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Both statement I and statement II are correct. Statement-II provides an explanation for why an interim budget usually sidesteps major policy announcements or new schemes – its primary objective is to maintain continuity and stability until a new government takes over. Hence, option (a) is correct. Basis of Difference Interim Budget Full Budget Timing Presented just before General elections Annually presented in the Parliament Vote on Account Passed without discussion in Lok Sabha Passed after complete discussions in Lok Sabha Financial Coverage Includes previous year’s income and expenses, plus a few months of expenses until the new government takes over Divided into two parts: Previous year’s income and expenses, and government’s plan for raising and utilizing funds Duration Covers approximately 3 to 4 months of the fiscal year Encompasses the entire fiscal year Content Provides a summary of previous year’s income and expenses Provides detailed information on previous year’s income and expenses Source of Income Details of income sources not provided Describes ways of raising funds through taxes and other measures Focus Primarily focused on transitional expenses Focuses on social welfare measures and overall development of the nation Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: The interim budget serves as a temporary financial plan presented by the incumbent government when its term is ending or during a transition of power. It is a stopgap arrangement designed to ensure the smooth functioning of the government until a new administration assumes office. Hence, statement 1 is correct. In contrast to the comprehensive nature of the full union budget, the interim budget usually sidesteps major policy announcements or new schemes. Its primary objective is to maintain continuity and stability rather than introduce significant changes in fiscal policy. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Both statement I and statement II are correct. Statement-II provides an explanation for why an interim budget usually sidesteps major policy announcements or new schemes – its primary objective is to maintain continuity and stability until a new government takes over. Hence, option (a) is correct. Basis of Difference Interim Budget Full Budget Timing Presented just before General elections Annually presented in the Parliament Vote on Account Passed without discussion in Lok Sabha Passed after complete discussions in Lok Sabha Financial Coverage Includes previous year’s income and expenses, plus a few months of expenses until the new government takes over Divided into two parts: Previous year’s income and expenses, and government’s plan for raising and utilizing funds Duration Covers approximately 3 to 4 months of the fiscal year Encompasses the entire fiscal year Content Provides a summary of previous year’s income and expenses Provides detailed information on previous year’s income and expenses Source of Income Details of income sources not provided Describes ways of raising funds through taxes and other measures Focus Primarily focused on transitional expenses Focuses on social welfare measures and overall development of the nation
#### 1. Question
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
An interim budget usually sidesteps major policy announcements or new schemes.
Statement-II:
The interim budget is a stopgap arrangement designed to ensure the smooth functioning of the government until a new administration assumes office.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Explanation:
• The interim budget serves as a temporary financial plan presented by the incumbent government when its term is ending or during a transition of power. It is a stopgap arrangement designed to ensure the smooth functioning of the government until a new administration assumes office. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• In contrast to the comprehensive nature of the full union budget, the interim budget usually sidesteps major policy announcements or new schemes. Its primary objective is to maintain continuity and stability rather than introduce significant changes in fiscal policy. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Both statement I and statement II are correct. Statement-II provides an explanation for why an interim budget usually sidesteps major policy announcements or new schemes – its primary objective is to maintain continuity and stability until a new government takes over.
• Hence, option (a) is correct.
Basis of Difference | Interim Budget | Full Budget
Timing | Presented just before General elections | Annually presented in the Parliament
Vote on Account | Passed without discussion in Lok Sabha | Passed after complete discussions in Lok Sabha
Financial Coverage | Includes previous year’s income and expenses, plus a few months of expenses until the new government takes over | Divided into two parts: Previous year’s income and expenses, and government’s plan for raising and utilizing funds
Duration | Covers approximately 3 to 4 months of the fiscal year | Encompasses the entire fiscal year
Content | Provides a summary of previous year’s income and expenses | Provides detailed information on previous year’s income and expenses
Source of Income | Details of income sources not provided | Describes ways of raising funds through taxes and other measures
Focus | Primarily focused on transitional expenses | Focuses on social welfare measures and overall development of the nation
Explanation:
• The interim budget serves as a temporary financial plan presented by the incumbent government when its term is ending or during a transition of power. It is a stopgap arrangement designed to ensure the smooth functioning of the government until a new administration assumes office. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• In contrast to the comprehensive nature of the full union budget, the interim budget usually sidesteps major policy announcements or new schemes. Its primary objective is to maintain continuity and stability rather than introduce significant changes in fiscal policy. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Both statement I and statement II are correct. Statement-II provides an explanation for why an interim budget usually sidesteps major policy announcements or new schemes – its primary objective is to maintain continuity and stability until a new government takes over.
• Hence, option (a) is correct.
Basis of Difference | Interim Budget | Full Budget
Timing | Presented just before General elections | Annually presented in the Parliament
Vote on Account | Passed without discussion in Lok Sabha | Passed after complete discussions in Lok Sabha
Financial Coverage | Includes previous year’s income and expenses, plus a few months of expenses until the new government takes over | Divided into two parts: Previous year’s income and expenses, and government’s plan for raising and utilizing funds
Duration | Covers approximately 3 to 4 months of the fiscal year | Encompasses the entire fiscal year
Content | Provides a summary of previous year’s income and expenses | Provides detailed information on previous year’s income and expenses
Source of Income | Details of income sources not provided | Describes ways of raising funds through taxes and other measures
Focus | Primarily focused on transitional expenses | Focuses on social welfare measures and overall development of the nation
• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points As per the Indian constitution, the parliament shall consist of: President Lok Sabha Rajya Sabha Vice President Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 2 and 3 only b) 1,2 and 3 only c) 2,3 and 4 only d) 1,2,3 and 4 Correct Answer: b Explanation: Part V of the Constitution containing articles 79 to 122 deals with the Parliament’s organization, composition, duration, officers, procedures, privileges, powers, and so on. Article 79 of the Constitution describes the structure of parliament. It states that the Parliament is made up of the President and two houses, the Lower House or House of People and the Upper House or Council of States President: The President of India is an integral part of the Parliament. The President’s role in Parliament includes summoning and proroguing sessions, addressing both Houses, and giving assent to bills passed by Parliament. Lok Sabha: The Lok Sabha, also known as the House of the People, is one of the two houses of Parliament. It consists of representatives elected by the people of India through general elections. Rajya Sabha: The Rajya Sabha, also known as the Council of States, is the other house of Parliament. Its members are not directly elected by the people but are elected by the elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies. Vice President: The Vice President of India is not a member of the Parliament. The Vice President serves as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha but is not considered a member of the Parliament. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Part V of the Constitution containing articles 79 to 122 deals with the Parliament’s organization, composition, duration, officers, procedures, privileges, powers, and so on. Article 79 of the Constitution describes the structure of parliament. It states that the Parliament is made up of the President and two houses, the Lower House or House of People and the Upper House or Council of States President: The President of India is an integral part of the Parliament. The President’s role in Parliament includes summoning and proroguing sessions, addressing both Houses, and giving assent to bills passed by Parliament. Lok Sabha: The Lok Sabha, also known as the House of the People, is one of the two houses of Parliament. It consists of representatives elected by the people of India through general elections. Rajya Sabha: The Rajya Sabha, also known as the Council of States, is the other house of Parliament. Its members are not directly elected by the people but are elected by the elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies. Vice President: The Vice President of India is not a member of the Parliament. The Vice President serves as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha but is not considered a member of the Parliament. Hence, option (b) is correct.
#### 2. Question
As per the Indian constitution, the parliament shall consist of:
• Rajya Sabha
• Vice President
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
• a) 2 and 3 only
• b) 1,2 and 3 only
• c) 2,3 and 4 only
• d) 1,2,3 and 4
Explanation:
• Part V of the Constitution containing articles 79 to 122 deals with the Parliament’s organization, composition, duration, officers, procedures, privileges, powers, and so on.
• Article 79 of the Constitution describes the structure of parliament. It states that the Parliament is made up of the President and two houses, the Lower House or House of People and the Upper House or Council of States
• President: The President of India is an integral part of the Parliament. The President’s role in Parliament includes summoning and proroguing sessions, addressing both Houses, and giving assent to bills passed by Parliament.
• Lok Sabha: The Lok Sabha, also known as the House of the People, is one of the two houses of Parliament. It consists of representatives elected by the people of India through general elections.
• Rajya Sabha: The Rajya Sabha, also known as the Council of States, is the other house of Parliament. Its members are not directly elected by the people but are elected by the elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies.
• Vice President: The Vice President of India is not a member of the Parliament. The Vice President serves as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha but is not considered a member of the Parliament.
• Hence, option (b) is correct.
Explanation:
• Part V of the Constitution containing articles 79 to 122 deals with the Parliament’s organization, composition, duration, officers, procedures, privileges, powers, and so on.
• Article 79 of the Constitution describes the structure of parliament. It states that the Parliament is made up of the President and two houses, the Lower House or House of People and the Upper House or Council of States
• President: The President of India is an integral part of the Parliament. The President’s role in Parliament includes summoning and proroguing sessions, addressing both Houses, and giving assent to bills passed by Parliament.
• Lok Sabha: The Lok Sabha, also known as the House of the People, is one of the two houses of Parliament. It consists of representatives elected by the people of India through general elections.
• Rajya Sabha: The Rajya Sabha, also known as the Council of States, is the other house of Parliament. Its members are not directly elected by the people but are elected by the elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies.
• Vice President: The Vice President of India is not a member of the Parliament. The Vice President serves as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha but is not considered a member of the Parliament.
• Hence, option (b) is correct.
• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Consider the following: Written nature of the constitution Basic structure doctrine Presidential vetoes Federalism How many of the above pertains to the fact that Indian Parliament is not sovereign? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: d Explanation: In India, there is constitutional sovereignty rather than parliamentary sovereignty. Written nature of the constitution: The Indian Constitution is a written document that outlines the powers and limitations of various branches of government, including the Parliament. This written nature implies that the Parliament’s authority is subject to the provisions and principles enshrined in the constitution, indicating that it is not sovereign. Basic structure doctrine: The basic structure doctrine, established by the Indian Supreme Court, asserts that certain fundamental features of the Constitution are beyond the amending power of the Parliament. This doctrine limits the Parliament’s authority to amend the Constitution in a manner that undermines these basic features, thus indicating that it is not sovereign. Presidential vetoes: In India, the President has the power to veto legislation passed by the Parliament. This means that the Parliament’s decisions can be overridden by the executive branch, which limits its sovereignty. Federalism: Federalism in India involves the division of powers between the central government (including the Parliament) and the state governments. The existence of federalism implies that the Parliament’s authority is not absolute, as it shares power with the state governments. This division of powers restricts the Parliament’s sovereignty. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: In India, there is constitutional sovereignty rather than parliamentary sovereignty. Written nature of the constitution: The Indian Constitution is a written document that outlines the powers and limitations of various branches of government, including the Parliament. This written nature implies that the Parliament’s authority is subject to the provisions and principles enshrined in the constitution, indicating that it is not sovereign. Basic structure doctrine: The basic structure doctrine, established by the Indian Supreme Court, asserts that certain fundamental features of the Constitution are beyond the amending power of the Parliament. This doctrine limits the Parliament’s authority to amend the Constitution in a manner that undermines these basic features, thus indicating that it is not sovereign. Presidential vetoes: In India, the President has the power to veto legislation passed by the Parliament. This means that the Parliament’s decisions can be overridden by the executive branch, which limits its sovereignty. Federalism: Federalism in India involves the division of powers between the central government (including the Parliament) and the state governments. The existence of federalism implies that the Parliament’s authority is not absolute, as it shares power with the state governments. This division of powers restricts the Parliament’s sovereignty. Hence, option (d) is correct.
#### 3. Question
Consider the following:
• Written nature of the constitution
• Basic structure doctrine
• Presidential vetoes
• Federalism
How many of the above pertains to the fact that Indian Parliament is not sovereign?
• a) Only one
• b) Only two
• c) Only three
• d) All four
Explanation:
• In India, there is constitutional sovereignty rather than parliamentary sovereignty.
• Written nature of the constitution: The Indian Constitution is a written document that outlines the powers and limitations of various branches of government, including the Parliament. This written nature implies that the Parliament’s authority is subject to the provisions and principles enshrined in the constitution, indicating that it is not sovereign.
• Basic structure doctrine: The basic structure doctrine, established by the Indian Supreme Court, asserts that certain fundamental features of the Constitution are beyond the amending power of the Parliament. This doctrine limits the Parliament’s authority to amend the Constitution in a manner that undermines these basic features, thus indicating that it is not sovereign.
• Presidential vetoes: In India, the President has the power to veto legislation passed by the Parliament. This means that the Parliament’s decisions can be overridden by the executive branch, which limits its sovereignty.
• Federalism: Federalism in India involves the division of powers between the central government (including the Parliament) and the state governments. The existence of federalism implies that the Parliament’s authority is not absolute, as it shares power with the state governments. This division of powers restricts the Parliament’s sovereignty.
• Hence, option (d) is correct.
Explanation:
• In India, there is constitutional sovereignty rather than parliamentary sovereignty.
• Written nature of the constitution: The Indian Constitution is a written document that outlines the powers and limitations of various branches of government, including the Parliament. This written nature implies that the Parliament’s authority is subject to the provisions and principles enshrined in the constitution, indicating that it is not sovereign.
• Basic structure doctrine: The basic structure doctrine, established by the Indian Supreme Court, asserts that certain fundamental features of the Constitution are beyond the amending power of the Parliament. This doctrine limits the Parliament’s authority to amend the Constitution in a manner that undermines these basic features, thus indicating that it is not sovereign.
• Presidential vetoes: In India, the President has the power to veto legislation passed by the Parliament. This means that the Parliament’s decisions can be overridden by the executive branch, which limits its sovereignty.
• Federalism: Federalism in India involves the division of powers between the central government (including the Parliament) and the state governments. The existence of federalism implies that the Parliament’s authority is not absolute, as it shares power with the state governments. This division of powers restricts the Parliament’s sovereignty.
• Hence, option (d) is correct.
• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The constitution of India has left to the discretion of the parliament to fix the total strength of the Lok Sabha. The reservation to the Anglo-Indian community has been removed by the 101st constitutional Amendment act. The constitution of India has provided that a person found guilty of certain election offenses or corrupt practices in the elections shall be disqualified from being a member of Lok Sabha. How many of the above given statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: d Explanation: Lok Sabha is the lower house of India’s bicameral Parliament, or popular chamber/ House of the People, with the Rajya Sabha functioning as the upper house. The Lok Sabha is made of representatives of people elected by direct election on the basis of Universal Adult Suffrage. Article 81 deals with the Composition of the Lok Sabha. This article provides that the maximum number should be as follows: Not more than 530 representatives of the States. Not more than 20 representatives from the Union Territories Not more than 2 members of the Anglo Indian Community as nominated by the President, only if he/she is of opinion that the Anglo Indian Community is not adequately represented in the parliament. This makes the total strength of the Lok Sabha i.e. 530+20+2= 552. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Representation of the Anglo-Indian Community is provided by the Constitution as per article 331. The 104th Amendment Act, 2020 extended the deadline for the cessation of seats for SCs and STs in the Lok Sabha and state assemblies from seventy years to eighty. It removed the reserved seats for the Anglo-Indian community in the Lok Sabha and state assemblies. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Article 84 of the Constitution lays down the qualifications for membership of Parliament. A person to be qualified for the membership of the Lok Sabha should possess the following qualifications: He must be a citizen of India and make and subscribe before some person authorized in that behalf by the Election Commission an oath or affirmation according to the form set out for the purpose in the Third Schedule to the Constitution; He must be not less than 25 years of age; He must possess such other qualifications as may be prescribed in that behalf by or under any law made by Parliament. The Parliament has laid down the following additional disqualifications in the Representation of People Act (1951): He must not have been found guilty of certain election offenses or corrupt practices in the elections. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. He must not have been convicted for any offense resulting in imprisonment for two or more years. But, the detention of a person under a preventive detention law is not a disqualification. He must not have failed to lodge an account of his election expenses within the time. He must not have any interest in government contracts, works, or services. He must not be a director or managing agent nor hold an office of profit in a corporation in which the government has at least 25 percent share. He must not have been dismissed from government service for corruption or disloyalty to the State. He must not have been convicted for promoting enmity between different groups or for the offense of bribery. Hence, option (d) is incorrect. Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: Lok Sabha is the lower house of India’s bicameral Parliament, or popular chamber/ House of the People, with the Rajya Sabha functioning as the upper house. The Lok Sabha is made of representatives of people elected by direct election on the basis of Universal Adult Suffrage. Article 81 deals with the Composition of the Lok Sabha. This article provides that the maximum number should be as follows: Not more than 530 representatives of the States. Not more than 20 representatives from the Union Territories Not more than 2 members of the Anglo Indian Community as nominated by the President, only if he/she is of opinion that the Anglo Indian Community is not adequately represented in the parliament. This makes the total strength of the Lok Sabha i.e. 530+20+2= 552. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Representation of the Anglo-Indian Community is provided by the Constitution as per article 331. The 104th Amendment Act, 2020 extended the deadline for the cessation of seats for SCs and STs in the Lok Sabha and state assemblies from seventy years to eighty. It removed the reserved seats for the Anglo-Indian community in the Lok Sabha and state assemblies. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Article 84 of the Constitution lays down the qualifications for membership of Parliament. A person to be qualified for the membership of the Lok Sabha should possess the following qualifications: He must be a citizen of India and make and subscribe before some person authorized in that behalf by the Election Commission an oath or affirmation according to the form set out for the purpose in the Third Schedule to the Constitution; He must be not less than 25 years of age; He must possess such other qualifications as may be prescribed in that behalf by or under any law made by Parliament. The Parliament has laid down the following additional disqualifications in the Representation of People Act (1951): He must not have been found guilty of certain election offenses or corrupt practices in the elections. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. He must not have been convicted for any offense resulting in imprisonment for two or more years. But, the detention of a person under a preventive detention law is not a disqualification. He must not have failed to lodge an account of his election expenses within the time. He must not have any interest in government contracts, works, or services. He must not be a director or managing agent nor hold an office of profit in a corporation in which the government has at least 25 percent share. He must not have been dismissed from government service for corruption or disloyalty to the State. He must not have been convicted for promoting enmity between different groups or for the offense of bribery. Hence, option (d) is incorrect.
#### 4. Question
Consider the following statements:
• The constitution of India has left to the discretion of the parliament to fix the total strength of the Lok Sabha.
• The reservation to the Anglo-Indian community has been removed by the 101st constitutional Amendment act.
• The constitution of India has provided that a person found guilty of certain election offenses or corrupt practices in the elections shall be disqualified from being a member of Lok Sabha.
How many of the above given statements are correct?
• a) Only one
• b) Only two
• c) All three
Explanation:
• Lok Sabha is the lower house of India’s bicameral Parliament, or popular chamber/ House of the People, with the Rajya Sabha functioning as the upper house. The Lok Sabha is made of representatives of people elected by direct election on the basis of Universal Adult Suffrage.
• Article 81 deals with the Composition of the Lok Sabha. This article provides that the maximum number should be as follows:
• Not more than 530 representatives of the States.
• Not more than 20 representatives from the Union Territories
• Not more than 2 members of the Anglo Indian Community as nominated by the President, only if he/she is of opinion that the Anglo Indian Community is not adequately represented in the parliament.
• This makes the total strength of the Lok Sabha i.e. 530+20+2= 552.
• Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Representation of the Anglo-Indian Community is provided by the Constitution as per article 331. The 104th Amendment Act, 2020 extended the deadline for the cessation of seats for SCs and STs in the Lok Sabha and state assemblies from seventy years to eighty. It removed the reserved seats for the Anglo-Indian community in the Lok Sabha and state assemblies. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Article 84 of the Constitution lays down the qualifications for membership of Parliament. A person to be qualified for the membership of the Lok Sabha should possess the following qualifications:
• He must be a citizen of India and make and subscribe before some person authorized in that behalf by the Election Commission an oath or affirmation according to the form set out for the purpose in the Third Schedule to the Constitution;
• He must be not less than 25 years of age;
• He must possess such other qualifications as may be prescribed in that behalf by or under any law made by Parliament.
• The Parliament has laid down the following additional disqualifications in the Representation of People Act (1951):
• He must not have been found guilty of certain election offenses or corrupt practices in the elections. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• He must not have been convicted for any offense resulting in imprisonment for two or more years. But, the detention of a person under a preventive detention law is not a disqualification.
• He must not have failed to lodge an account of his election expenses within the time.
• He must not have any interest in government contracts, works, or services.
• He must not be a director or managing agent nor hold an office of profit in a corporation in which the government has at least 25 percent share.
• He must not have been dismissed from government service for corruption or disloyalty to the State.
• He must not have been convicted for promoting enmity between different groups or for the offense of bribery.
Hence, option (d) is incorrect.
Explanation:
• Lok Sabha is the lower house of India’s bicameral Parliament, or popular chamber/ House of the People, with the Rajya Sabha functioning as the upper house. The Lok Sabha is made of representatives of people elected by direct election on the basis of Universal Adult Suffrage.
• Article 81 deals with the Composition of the Lok Sabha. This article provides that the maximum number should be as follows:
• Not more than 530 representatives of the States.
• Not more than 20 representatives from the Union Territories
• Not more than 2 members of the Anglo Indian Community as nominated by the President, only if he/she is of opinion that the Anglo Indian Community is not adequately represented in the parliament.
• This makes the total strength of the Lok Sabha i.e. 530+20+2= 552.
• Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Representation of the Anglo-Indian Community is provided by the Constitution as per article 331. The 104th Amendment Act, 2020 extended the deadline for the cessation of seats for SCs and STs in the Lok Sabha and state assemblies from seventy years to eighty. It removed the reserved seats for the Anglo-Indian community in the Lok Sabha and state assemblies. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Article 84 of the Constitution lays down the qualifications for membership of Parliament. A person to be qualified for the membership of the Lok Sabha should possess the following qualifications:
• He must be a citizen of India and make and subscribe before some person authorized in that behalf by the Election Commission an oath or affirmation according to the form set out for the purpose in the Third Schedule to the Constitution;
• He must be not less than 25 years of age;
• He must possess such other qualifications as may be prescribed in that behalf by or under any law made by Parliament.
• The Parliament has laid down the following additional disqualifications in the Representation of People Act (1951):
• He must not have been found guilty of certain election offenses or corrupt practices in the elections. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• He must not have been convicted for any offense resulting in imprisonment for two or more years. But, the detention of a person under a preventive detention law is not a disqualification.
• He must not have failed to lodge an account of his election expenses within the time.
• He must not have any interest in government contracts, works, or services.
• He must not be a director or managing agent nor hold an office of profit in a corporation in which the government has at least 25 percent share.
• He must not have been dismissed from government service for corruption or disloyalty to the State.
• He must not have been convicted for promoting enmity between different groups or for the offense of bribery.
Hence, option (d) is incorrect.
• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points The Indian Constitution has not adopted the system of proportional representation for the election of members of Lok Sabha and Legislative Assemblies because: Difficult for the voters to understand the complexity of the system. Multiple political parties in India will lead to instability in government. It decreases the significance of the party system. Select the correct answer using the code given below. a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Answer: b Explanation: Proportional representation (PR) is a voting system that aims to fairly represent political parties based on their share of the vote. Unlike the First Past the Post (FPTP) system, Proportional Representation ensures that every vote counts towards allocating seats. In Proportional representation (PR) the number of seats won by a political party or group should be proportionate to the number of votes received, i.e., seats are assigned per the number of votes received. In PR system, votes are cast for the party and not the candidate. Proportional representation is used to elect the President of India, Vice President, members of the Rajya Sabha, etc. The Indian Constitution has not adopted the system of proportional representation for the election of members of Lok Sabha and Legislative Assemblies because: Difficulty for voters to understand the system: The complexity of the proportional representation system may indeed pose challenges for voters, especially in a country with a large population and diverse levels of literacy. This could potentially hinder effective participation in the electoral process. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Unsuitability to parliamentary government: Proportional representation systems often result in the representation of multiple political parties, which can lead to coalition governments and potentially greater instability. In the context of India’s parliamentary system, where stable governments are desirable, the tendency of proportional representation to multiply political parties could be seen as a drawback. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Expense: Proportional representation systems can indeed be more costly to implement compared to other electoral systems due to factors such as larger constituencies and complex ballot counting procedures. Lack of scope for organizing by-elections: In proportional representation systems, by-elections are less common since seats are allocated to parties rather than individual candidates. Reduced intimacy between voters and representatives: Proportional representation may result in representatives being chosen from party lists rather than directly elected by constituents, potentially reducing the personal connection between voters and their representatives. Promotion of minority thinking and group interests: Proportional representation may give smaller parties and minority group’s greater representation, which could influence policymaking to prioritize minority interests over broader societal concerns. Increased significance of the party system: Proportional representation tends to strengthen political parties and their role in the political process, potentially diminishing the influence of individual voters. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Proportional representation (PR) is a voting system that aims to fairly represent political parties based on their share of the vote. Unlike the First Past the Post (FPTP) system, Proportional Representation ensures that every vote counts towards allocating seats. In Proportional representation (PR) the number of seats won by a political party or group should be proportionate to the number of votes received, i.e., seats are assigned per the number of votes received. In PR system, votes are cast for the party and not the candidate. Proportional representation is used to elect the President of India, Vice President, members of the Rajya Sabha, etc. The Indian Constitution has not adopted the system of proportional representation for the election of members of Lok Sabha and Legislative Assemblies because: Difficulty for voters to understand the system: The complexity of the proportional representation system may indeed pose challenges for voters, especially in a country with a large population and diverse levels of literacy. This could potentially hinder effective participation in the electoral process. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Unsuitability to parliamentary government: Proportional representation systems often result in the representation of multiple political parties, which can lead to coalition governments and potentially greater instability. In the context of India’s parliamentary system, where stable governments are desirable, the tendency of proportional representation to multiply political parties could be seen as a drawback. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Expense: Proportional representation systems can indeed be more costly to implement compared to other electoral systems due to factors such as larger constituencies and complex ballot counting procedures. Lack of scope for organizing by-elections: In proportional representation systems, by-elections are less common since seats are allocated to parties rather than individual candidates. Reduced intimacy between voters and representatives: Proportional representation may result in representatives being chosen from party lists rather than directly elected by constituents, potentially reducing the personal connection between voters and their representatives. Promotion of minority thinking and group interests: Proportional representation may give smaller parties and minority group’s greater representation, which could influence policymaking to prioritize minority interests over broader societal concerns. Increased significance of the party system: Proportional representation tends to strengthen political parties and their role in the political process, potentially diminishing the influence of individual voters. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option (b) is correct.
#### 5. Question
The Indian Constitution has not adopted the system of proportional representation for the election of members of Lok Sabha and Legislative Assemblies because:
• Difficult for the voters to understand the complexity of the system.
• Multiple political parties in India will lead to instability in government.
• It decreases the significance of the party system.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
• b) 1 and 2 only
• c) 1 and 3 only
• d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
• Proportional representation (PR) is a voting system that aims to fairly represent political parties based on their share of the vote. Unlike the First Past the Post (FPTP) system, Proportional Representation ensures that every vote counts towards allocating seats.
• In Proportional representation (PR) the number of seats won by a political party or group should be proportionate to the number of votes received, i.e., seats are assigned per the number of votes received. In PR system, votes are cast for the party and not the candidate.
• Proportional representation is used to elect the President of India, Vice President, members of the Rajya Sabha, etc.
• The Indian Constitution has not adopted the system of proportional representation for the election of members of Lok Sabha and Legislative Assemblies because:
• Difficulty for voters to understand the system: The complexity of the proportional representation system may indeed pose challenges for voters, especially in a country with a large population and diverse levels of literacy. This could potentially hinder effective participation in the electoral process. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Unsuitability to parliamentary government: Proportional representation systems often result in the representation of multiple political parties, which can lead to coalition governments and potentially greater instability. In the context of India’s parliamentary system, where stable governments are desirable, the tendency of proportional representation to multiply political parties could be seen as a drawback. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Expense: Proportional representation systems can indeed be more costly to implement compared to other electoral systems due to factors such as larger constituencies and complex ballot counting procedures.
• Lack of scope for organizing by-elections: In proportional representation systems, by-elections are less common since seats are allocated to parties rather than individual candidates.
• Reduced intimacy between voters and representatives: Proportional representation may result in representatives being chosen from party lists rather than directly elected by constituents, potentially reducing the personal connection between voters and their representatives.
• Promotion of minority thinking and group interests: Proportional representation may give smaller parties and minority group’s greater representation, which could influence policymaking to prioritize minority interests over broader societal concerns.
• Increased significance of the party system: Proportional representation tends to strengthen political parties and their role in the political process, potentially diminishing the influence of individual voters. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Hence, option (b) is correct.
Explanation:
• Proportional representation (PR) is a voting system that aims to fairly represent political parties based on their share of the vote. Unlike the First Past the Post (FPTP) system, Proportional Representation ensures that every vote counts towards allocating seats.
• In Proportional representation (PR) the number of seats won by a political party or group should be proportionate to the number of votes received, i.e., seats are assigned per the number of votes received. In PR system, votes are cast for the party and not the candidate.
• Proportional representation is used to elect the President of India, Vice President, members of the Rajya Sabha, etc.
• The Indian Constitution has not adopted the system of proportional representation for the election of members of Lok Sabha and Legislative Assemblies because:
• Difficulty for voters to understand the system: The complexity of the proportional representation system may indeed pose challenges for voters, especially in a country with a large population and diverse levels of literacy. This could potentially hinder effective participation in the electoral process. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Unsuitability to parliamentary government: Proportional representation systems often result in the representation of multiple political parties, which can lead to coalition governments and potentially greater instability. In the context of India’s parliamentary system, where stable governments are desirable, the tendency of proportional representation to multiply political parties could be seen as a drawback. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Expense: Proportional representation systems can indeed be more costly to implement compared to other electoral systems due to factors such as larger constituencies and complex ballot counting procedures.
• Lack of scope for organizing by-elections: In proportional representation systems, by-elections are less common since seats are allocated to parties rather than individual candidates.
• Reduced intimacy between voters and representatives: Proportional representation may result in representatives being chosen from party lists rather than directly elected by constituents, potentially reducing the personal connection between voters and their representatives.
• Promotion of minority thinking and group interests: Proportional representation may give smaller parties and minority group’s greater representation, which could influence policymaking to prioritize minority interests over broader societal concerns.
• Increased significance of the party system: Proportional representation tends to strengthen political parties and their role in the political process, potentially diminishing the influence of individual voters. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Hence, option (b) is correct.
• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the office of Speaker in the Lok Sabha: The date of the election of the Speaker is fixed by the Pro-tem Speaker. The Speaker being a member of the ruling party vacates his office as soon as the Lok Sabha is dissolved. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: d Explanation: The Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members. The date of election of the Speaker is fixed by the President. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Though the Speaker being a member of the ruling party, whenever the Lok Sabha is dissolved, the Speaker does not vacate his office and continues till the newly-elected Lok Sabha meets, in order to avoid interregnum. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: The Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members. The date of election of the Speaker is fixed by the President. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Though the Speaker being a member of the ruling party, whenever the Lok Sabha is dissolved, the Speaker does not vacate his office and continues till the newly-elected Lok Sabha meets, in order to avoid interregnum. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option (d) is correct.
#### 6. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the office of Speaker in the Lok Sabha:
• The date of the election of the Speaker is fixed by the Pro-tem Speaker.
• The Speaker being a member of the ruling party vacates his office as soon as the Lok Sabha is dissolved.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• c) Both 1 and 2
• d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
• The Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members. The date of election of the Speaker is fixed by the President. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Though the Speaker being a member of the ruling party, whenever the Lok Sabha is dissolved, the Speaker does not vacate his office and continues till the newly-elected Lok Sabha meets, in order to avoid interregnum. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
Explanation:
• The Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members. The date of election of the Speaker is fixed by the President. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Though the Speaker being a member of the ruling party, whenever the Lok Sabha is dissolved, the Speaker does not vacate his office and continues till the newly-elected Lok Sabha meets, in order to avoid interregnum. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points As per the provisions of Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961, new Ministries/Departments of the Government of India are created by: a) President b) Parliament c) Prime Minister d) Cabinet Secretary Correct Answer: a Explanation: As per Article 77(3) of the constitution of India, the President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business. Under the above provision, the President has made the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961. The Ministries/Departments of the Government of India are created by the President on the advice on the Prime Minister under the above rules. Hence, option (a) is the correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: As per Article 77(3) of the constitution of India, the President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business. Under the above provision, the President has made the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961. The Ministries/Departments of the Government of India are created by the President on the advice on the Prime Minister under the above rules. Hence, option (a) is the correct.
#### 7. Question
As per the provisions of Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961, new Ministries/Departments of the Government of India are created by:
• a) President
• b) Parliament
• c) Prime Minister
• d) Cabinet Secretary
Explanation:
• As per Article 77(3) of the constitution of India, the President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
• Under the above provision, the President has made the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961. The Ministries/Departments of the Government of India are created by the President on the advice on the Prime Minister under the above rules.
Hence, option (a) is the correct.
Explanation:
• As per Article 77(3) of the constitution of India, the President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
• Under the above provision, the President has made the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961. The Ministries/Departments of the Government of India are created by the President on the advice on the Prime Minister under the above rules.
Hence, option (a) is the correct.
• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points With respect to the representation of Union Territories (UTS) in the Lok Sabha, the Constitution of India: a) Provides for direct Election b) Provides for indirect Election c) Allows the Parliament to decide d) Provides for nomination by the President Correct Answer: c Explanation: The Constitution has empowered the Parliament to prescribe the manner of choosing the representatives of the union territories in the Lok Sabha. Accordingly, the Parliament has enacted the Union Territories (Direct Election to the House of the People) Act, 1965, by which the members of Lok Sabha from the union territories are chosen by direct election. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: The Constitution has empowered the Parliament to prescribe the manner of choosing the representatives of the union territories in the Lok Sabha. Accordingly, the Parliament has enacted the Union Territories (Direct Election to the House of the People) Act, 1965, by which the members of Lok Sabha from the union territories are chosen by direct election. Hence, option (c) is correct.
#### 8. Question
With respect to the representation of Union Territories (UTS) in the Lok Sabha, the Constitution of India:
• a) Provides for direct Election
• b) Provides for indirect Election
• c) Allows the Parliament to decide
• d) Provides for nomination by the President
Explanation:
• The Constitution has empowered the Parliament to prescribe the manner of choosing the representatives of the union territories in the Lok Sabha.
• Accordingly, the Parliament has enacted the Union Territories (Direct Election to the House of the People) Act, 1965, by which the members of Lok Sabha from the union territories are chosen by direct election.
Hence, option (c) is correct.
Explanation:
• The Constitution has empowered the Parliament to prescribe the manner of choosing the representatives of the union territories in the Lok Sabha.
• Accordingly, the Parliament has enacted the Union Territories (Direct Election to the House of the People) Act, 1965, by which the members of Lok Sabha from the union territories are chosen by direct election.
Hence, option (c) is correct.
• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Article 120 of the Indian Constitution deals with language to be used in the parliament. Any of the languages mentioned in the eighth schedule can be used for transacting business in the Parliament. A member can address the parliament in his/her mother-tongue. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: b Explanation: Article 120 of Indian constitution deals with language to be used in Parliament. Hence, statement 1 is correct. As per article 120, Parliament business shall be transacted in Hindi or English only. The use of English in parliamentary proceedings was to be phased out at the end of fifteen years unless Parliament chose to extend its use, which Parliament did through the Official Languages Act, 1963. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. The Chairman of the Council of States or Speaker of the House of the People, may permit any member who cannot adequately express himself/herself in Hindi or in English to address the House in his/her mother tongue. Hence, option 3 is correct. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Article 120 of Indian constitution deals with language to be used in Parliament. Hence, statement 1 is correct. As per article 120, Parliament business shall be transacted in Hindi or English only. The use of English in parliamentary proceedings was to be phased out at the end of fifteen years unless Parliament chose to extend its use, which Parliament did through the Official Languages Act, 1963. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. The Chairman of the Council of States or Speaker of the House of the People, may permit any member who cannot adequately express himself/herself in Hindi or in English to address the House in his/her mother tongue. Hence, option 3 is correct. Hence, option (b) is correct.
#### 9. Question
Consider the following statements:
• Article 120 of the Indian Constitution deals with language to be used in the parliament.
• Any of the languages mentioned in the eighth schedule can be used for transacting business in the Parliament.
• A member can address the parliament in his/her mother-tongue.
How many of the above statements are correct?
• a) Only one
• b) Only two
• c) All three
Explanation:
• Article 120 of Indian constitution deals with language to be used in Parliament. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• As per article 120, Parliament business shall be transacted in Hindi or English only. The use of English in parliamentary proceedings was to be phased out at the end of fifteen years unless Parliament chose to extend its use, which Parliament did through the Official Languages Act, 1963. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• The Chairman of the Council of States or Speaker of the House of the People, may permit any member who cannot adequately express himself/herself in Hindi or in English to address the House in his/her mother tongue. Hence, option 3 is correct.
• Hence, option (b) is correct.
Explanation:
• Article 120 of Indian constitution deals with language to be used in Parliament. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• As per article 120, Parliament business shall be transacted in Hindi or English only. The use of English in parliamentary proceedings was to be phased out at the end of fifteen years unless Parliament chose to extend its use, which Parliament did through the Official Languages Act, 1963. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• The Chairman of the Council of States or Speaker of the House of the People, may permit any member who cannot adequately express himself/herself in Hindi or in English to address the House in his/her mother tongue. Hence, option 3 is correct.
• Hence, option (b) is correct.
• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Representation of women has increased consistently since the first Lok Sabha. The outgoing seventeenth Lok Sabha has the highest number of women representation since the first Lok Sabha. The 106th Amendment Act reserves one-third seats for women in Lok Sabha, State legislative assemblies, and Panchayat Raj institutions all across the country. The women’s reservation Bill will be implemented from the upcoming Lok Sabha elections. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: a Explanation: In the first Lok Sabha formed in 1952, there were 24 women. The number did not change in the second Lok Sabha formed in 1957. The number increased when the third Lok Sabha (1962-67) was formed with 37 women, according to data available on the Lok Sabha website. There was a decrease in the numbers in the fourth, fifth and sixth Lok Sabha where 33, 28 and 21 women were elected respectively. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. The number again increased to 32 women in the seventh Lok Sabha (1980-84) and in the eighth (1984-89) with 45 women members being elected. When the Lok Sabha was elected in 1989 for the ninth time, the number of women dropped to 28. Since then, there has been a minor but constant increase in the number of females. The 10th Lok Sabha (1991-96) had 42 female members and the 11th was one less. The 12th had 44 female MPs, while the 13th and 14th saw equal numbers at 52 females of the total 543 members. The 15th Lok Sabha (2009-14) saw a major increase: it touched 64 females MP -about 12 per cent of the total House strength. The 16th Lok Sabha had 66 female MPs. The 17th Lok Sabha (2019-2023): 716 women candidates contested the General Election. Out of which, 82 women MPs have been elected to the 17th Lok Sabha. The 17th Lok Sabha has the highest number of women representation since the 1st Lok Sabha. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The representation of women MPs in Lok Sabha is slowly improving from 5% in the 1st Lok Sabha to 14-15% in the 17th Lok Sabha. Though the percentage of women MPs has increased over the years, it is still lower in comparison to some countries. These include Rwanda (61%), South Africa (43%), UK (32%), USA (24%), and Bangladesh (21%). The Constitution (106th Amendment) Act, 2023, reserves one-third (33%) of all seats for women in Lok Sabha, State legislative assemblies, and the Legislative Assembly of the National Capital Territory of Delhi ( not Panchayat Raj institutions). Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. The reservation will be effective after the publication of the census conducted following the Act’s commencement and endures for a 15-year period, with potential extension determined by parliamentary action. The women’s reservation Bill will be implemented only after 2029 after the census and delimitation is concluded. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: In the first Lok Sabha formed in 1952, there were 24 women. The number did not change in the second Lok Sabha formed in 1957. The number increased when the third Lok Sabha (1962-67) was formed with 37 women, according to data available on the Lok Sabha website. There was a decrease in the numbers in the fourth, fifth and sixth Lok Sabha where 33, 28 and 21 women were elected respectively. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. The number again increased to 32 women in the seventh Lok Sabha (1980-84) and in the eighth (1984-89) with 45 women members being elected. When the Lok Sabha was elected in 1989 for the ninth time, the number of women dropped to 28. Since then, there has been a minor but constant increase in the number of females. The 10th Lok Sabha (1991-96) had 42 female members and the 11th was one less. The 12th had 44 female MPs, while the 13th and 14th saw equal numbers at 52 females of the total 543 members. The 15th Lok Sabha (2009-14) saw a major increase: it touched 64 females MP -about 12 per cent of the total House strength. The 16th Lok Sabha had 66 female MPs. The 17th Lok Sabha (2019-2023): 716 women candidates contested the General Election. Out of which, 82 women MPs have been elected to the 17th Lok Sabha. The 17th Lok Sabha has the highest number of women representation since the 1st Lok Sabha. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The representation of women MPs in Lok Sabha is slowly improving from 5% in the 1st Lok Sabha to 14-15% in the 17th Lok Sabha. Though the percentage of women MPs has increased over the years, it is still lower in comparison to some countries. These include Rwanda (61%), South Africa (43%), UK (32%), USA (24%), and Bangladesh (21%). The Constitution (106th Amendment) Act, 2023, reserves one-third (33%) of all seats for women in Lok Sabha, State legislative assemblies, and the Legislative Assembly of the National Capital Territory of Delhi ( not Panchayat Raj institutions). Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. The reservation will be effective after the publication of the census conducted following the Act’s commencement and endures for a 15-year period, with potential extension determined by parliamentary action. The women’s reservation Bill will be implemented only after 2029 after the census and delimitation is concluded. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct.
#### 10. Question
Consider the following statements:
• Representation of women has increased consistently since the first Lok Sabha.
• The outgoing seventeenth Lok Sabha has the highest number of women representation since the first Lok Sabha.
• The 106th Amendment Act reserves one-third seats for women in Lok Sabha, State legislative assemblies, and Panchayat Raj institutions all across the country.
• The women’s reservation Bill will be implemented from the upcoming Lok Sabha elections.
How many of the above statements are correct?
• a) Only one
• b) Only two
• c) Only three
• d) All four
Explanation:
• In the first Lok Sabha formed in 1952, there were 24 women. The number did not change in the second Lok Sabha formed in 1957.
• The number increased when the third Lok Sabha (1962-67) was formed with 37 women, according to data available on the Lok Sabha website.
• There was a decrease in the numbers in the fourth, fifth and sixth Lok Sabha where 33, 28 and 21 women were elected respectively. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• The number again increased to 32 women in the seventh Lok Sabha (1980-84) and in the eighth (1984-89) with 45 women members being elected.
• When the Lok Sabha was elected in 1989 for the ninth time, the number of women dropped to 28. Since then, there has been a minor but constant increase in the number of females.
• The 10th Lok Sabha (1991-96) had 42 female members and the 11th was one less.
• The 12th had 44 female MPs, while the 13th and 14th saw equal numbers at 52 females of the total 543 members.
• The 15th Lok Sabha (2009-14) saw a major increase: it touched 64 females MP -about 12 per cent of the total House strength.
• The 16th Lok Sabha had 66 female MPs.
• The 17th Lok Sabha (2019-2023): 716 women candidates contested the General Election. Out of which, 82 women MPs have been elected to the 17th Lok Sabha. The 17th Lok Sabha has the highest number of women representation since the 1st Lok Sabha. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The representation of women MPs in Lok Sabha is slowly improving from 5% in the 1st Lok Sabha to 14-15% in the 17th Lok Sabha.
• Though the percentage of women MPs has increased over the years, it is still lower in comparison to some countries. These include Rwanda (61%), South Africa (43%), UK (32%), USA (24%), and Bangladesh (21%).
• The Constitution (106th Amendment) Act, 2023, reserves one-third (33%) of all seats for women in Lok Sabha, State legislative assemblies, and the Legislative Assembly of the National Capital Territory of Delhi ( not Panchayat Raj institutions). Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• The reservation will be effective after the publication of the census conducted following the Act’s commencement and endures for a 15-year period, with potential extension determined by parliamentary action.
• The women’s reservation Bill will be implemented only after 2029 after the census and delimitation is concluded. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
• Hence, option (a) is correct.
Explanation:
• In the first Lok Sabha formed in 1952, there were 24 women. The number did not change in the second Lok Sabha formed in 1957.
• The number increased when the third Lok Sabha (1962-67) was formed with 37 women, according to data available on the Lok Sabha website.
• There was a decrease in the numbers in the fourth, fifth and sixth Lok Sabha where 33, 28 and 21 women were elected respectively. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• The number again increased to 32 women in the seventh Lok Sabha (1980-84) and in the eighth (1984-89) with 45 women members being elected.
• When the Lok Sabha was elected in 1989 for the ninth time, the number of women dropped to 28. Since then, there has been a minor but constant increase in the number of females.
• The 10th Lok Sabha (1991-96) had 42 female members and the 11th was one less.
• The 12th had 44 female MPs, while the 13th and 14th saw equal numbers at 52 females of the total 543 members.
• The 15th Lok Sabha (2009-14) saw a major increase: it touched 64 females MP -about 12 per cent of the total House strength.
• The 16th Lok Sabha had 66 female MPs.
• The 17th Lok Sabha (2019-2023): 716 women candidates contested the General Election. Out of which, 82 women MPs have been elected to the 17th Lok Sabha. The 17th Lok Sabha has the highest number of women representation since the 1st Lok Sabha. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The representation of women MPs in Lok Sabha is slowly improving from 5% in the 1st Lok Sabha to 14-15% in the 17th Lok Sabha.
• Though the percentage of women MPs has increased over the years, it is still lower in comparison to some countries. These include Rwanda (61%), South Africa (43%), UK (32%), USA (24%), and Bangladesh (21%).
• The Constitution (106th Amendment) Act, 2023, reserves one-third (33%) of all seats for women in Lok Sabha, State legislative assemblies, and the Legislative Assembly of the National Capital Territory of Delhi ( not Panchayat Raj institutions). Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• The reservation will be effective after the publication of the census conducted following the Act’s commencement and endures for a 15-year period, with potential extension determined by parliamentary action.
• The women’s reservation Bill will be implemented only after 2029 after the census and delimitation is concluded. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
• Hence, option (a) is correct.
• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Vice President of India is ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and votes only in the case of a tie. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha does not have a vote in the first instance but exercises a casting vote in the case of an equality of votes. A Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha cannot be rejected but can be amended by the Rajya Sabha. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Article 89 of the Indian Constitution establishes that the Vice President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, and as per Article 100 (1), “Save as otherwise provided in this Constitution, all questions at any sitting of either House or joint sitting of the Houses shall be determined by a majority of votes of the members present and voting, other than the Speaker or person acting as Chairman or Speaker. The Chairman or Speaker, or person acting as such, shall not vote in the first instance, but shall have and exercise a casting vote in the case of an equality of votes”. Hence, statement 1 and statement 2 are correct. As per Article 109 of the Indian Constitution, a Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha can be sent to the Rajya Sabha for its recommendations, but the Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject a Money Bill. The Lok Sabha may either accept or reject all or any of the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution: B Article 89 of the Indian Constitution establishes that the Vice President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, and as per Article 100 (1), “Save as otherwise provided in this Constitution, all questions at any sitting of either House or joint sitting of the Houses shall be determined by a majority of votes of the members present and voting, other than the Speaker or person acting as Chairman or Speaker. The Chairman or Speaker, or person acting as such, shall not vote in the first instance, but shall have and exercise a casting vote in the case of an equality of votes”. Hence, statement 1 and statement 2 are correct. As per Article 109 of the Indian Constitution, a Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha can be sent to the Rajya Sabha for its recommendations, but the Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject a Money Bill. The Lok Sabha may either accept or reject all or any of the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
#### 11. Question
Consider the following statements:
• The Vice President of India is ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and votes only in the case of a tie.
• The Speaker of the Lok Sabha does not have a vote in the first instance but exercises a casting vote in the case of an equality of votes.
• A Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha cannot be rejected but can be amended by the Rajya Sabha.
How many of the above statements are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Solution: B
Article 89 of the Indian Constitution establishes that the Vice President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, and as per Article 100 (1), “Save as otherwise provided in this Constitution, all questions at any sitting of either House or joint sitting of the Houses shall be determined by a majority of votes of the members present and voting, other than the Speaker or person acting as Chairman or Speaker. The Chairman or Speaker, or person acting as such, shall not vote in the first instance, but shall have and exercise a casting vote in the case of an equality of votes”.
Hence, statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.
As per Article 109 of the Indian Constitution, a Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha can be sent to the Rajya Sabha for its recommendations, but the Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject a Money Bill. The Lok Sabha may either accept or reject all or any of the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Solution: B
Article 89 of the Indian Constitution establishes that the Vice President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, and as per Article 100 (1), “Save as otherwise provided in this Constitution, all questions at any sitting of either House or joint sitting of the Houses shall be determined by a majority of votes of the members present and voting, other than the Speaker or person acting as Chairman or Speaker. The Chairman or Speaker, or person acting as such, shall not vote in the first instance, but shall have and exercise a casting vote in the case of an equality of votes”.
Hence, statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.
As per Article 109 of the Indian Constitution, a Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha can be sent to the Rajya Sabha for its recommendations, but the Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject a Money Bill. The Lok Sabha may either accept or reject all or any of the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The President of India can promulgate ordinances during the recess of Parliament under Article 123 of the Indian Constitution. The Prime Minister of India must always be a current member of one of the Houses of Parliament at the time of their appointment. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha, the lower house of the Parliament of India. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B According to Article 123 of the Indian Constitution, the President has the power to promulgate ordinances when either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session, and therefore it is not possible to enact laws through the legislative process. The conditions required to issue an ordinance include circumstances that necessitate immediate action. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The Prime Minister is usually a current member of one of the Houses of Parliament, the Constitution does not explicitly mandate this requirement at the time of their appointment. According to Article 75(5), a person who is not a member of either house can be appointed as Prime Minister, but they must become a member of either House of Parliament within six months of their appointment. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Article 75(3) of the Indian Constitution stipulates that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People, which is the Lok Sabha. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution: B According to Article 123 of the Indian Constitution, the President has the power to promulgate ordinances when either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session, and therefore it is not possible to enact laws through the legislative process. The conditions required to issue an ordinance include circumstances that necessitate immediate action. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The Prime Minister is usually a current member of one of the Houses of Parliament, the Constitution does not explicitly mandate this requirement at the time of their appointment. According to Article 75(5), a person who is not a member of either house can be appointed as Prime Minister, but they must become a member of either House of Parliament within six months of their appointment. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Article 75(3) of the Indian Constitution stipulates that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People, which is the Lok Sabha. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
#### 12. Question
Consider the following statements:
• The President of India can promulgate ordinances during the recess of Parliament under Article 123 of the Indian Constitution.
• The Prime Minister of India must always be a current member of one of the Houses of Parliament at the time of their appointment.
• The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha, the lower house of the Parliament of India.
How many of the above statements are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Solution: B
According to Article 123 of the Indian Constitution, the President has the power to promulgate ordinances when either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session, and therefore it is not possible to enact laws through the legislative process. The conditions required to issue an ordinance include circumstances that necessitate immediate action.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The Prime Minister is usually a current member of one of the Houses of Parliament, the Constitution does not explicitly mandate this requirement at the time of their appointment. According to Article 75(5), a person who is not a member of either house can be appointed as Prime Minister, but they must become a member of either House of Parliament within six months of their appointment.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Article 75(3) of the Indian Constitution stipulates that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People, which is the Lok Sabha.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Solution: B
According to Article 123 of the Indian Constitution, the President has the power to promulgate ordinances when either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session, and therefore it is not possible to enact laws through the legislative process. The conditions required to issue an ordinance include circumstances that necessitate immediate action.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The Prime Minister is usually a current member of one of the Houses of Parliament, the Constitution does not explicitly mandate this requirement at the time of their appointment. According to Article 75(5), a person who is not a member of either house can be appointed as Prime Minister, but they must become a member of either House of Parliament within six months of their appointment.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Article 75(3) of the Indian Constitution stipulates that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People, which is the Lok Sabha.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Union Executive: The President of India can exercise his/her legislative powers without the aid and advice of the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers. The Attorney General of India has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both Houses of Parliament but does not have the right to vote. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B According to the Indian Constitution, the President shall exercise his/her in accordance with the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, which is headed by the Prime Minister. In legislative functions, the President acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers including ordinance. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. As per Article 88 of the Indian Constitution, the Attorney General has the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha but is not entitled to vote. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Incorrect Solution: B According to the Indian Constitution, the President shall exercise his/her in accordance with the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, which is headed by the Prime Minister. In legislative functions, the President acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers including ordinance. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. As per Article 88 of the Indian Constitution, the Attorney General has the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha but is not entitled to vote. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
#### 13. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Union Executive:
• The President of India can exercise his/her legislative powers without the aid and advice of the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers.
• The Attorney General of India has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both Houses of Parliament but does not have the right to vote.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• c) Both 1 and 2
• d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
According to the Indian Constitution, the President shall exercise his/her in accordance with the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, which is headed by the Prime Minister. In legislative functions, the President acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers including ordinance.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
As per Article 88 of the Indian Constitution, the Attorney General has the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha but is not entitled to vote.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Solution: B
According to the Indian Constitution, the President shall exercise his/her in accordance with the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, which is headed by the Prime Minister. In legislative functions, the President acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers including ordinance.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
As per Article 88 of the Indian Constitution, the Attorney General has the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha but is not entitled to vote.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points With reference to the powers of the Prime Minister of India, consider the following statements: The Prime Minister of India is the chairperson of the NITI Aayog. The Prime Minister has the exclusive authority to make decisions regarding the division of portfolios among the ministers in the Union Council of Ministers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Both statements above are correct. The Prime Minister is the ex-officio chairperson of the National Institution for Transforming India (NITI) Aayog, which is the policy think tank of the Government of India. It was established to achieve sustainable development goals and to enhance cooperative federalism by fostering the involvement of the State Governments of India in the economic policy-making process. The allocation of portfolios among the ministers is the prerogative of the Prime Minister. The Prime Minister leads the Council of Ministers and recommends to the President the appointment of other ministers. The Prime Minister has the authority to assign and reshuffle portfolios among ministers. Incorrect Solution: C Both statements above are correct. The Prime Minister is the ex-officio chairperson of the National Institution for Transforming India (NITI) Aayog, which is the policy think tank of the Government of India. It was established to achieve sustainable development goals and to enhance cooperative federalism by fostering the involvement of the State Governments of India in the economic policy-making process. The allocation of portfolios among the ministers is the prerogative of the Prime Minister. The Prime Minister leads the Council of Ministers and recommends to the President the appointment of other ministers. The Prime Minister has the authority to assign and reshuffle portfolios among ministers.
#### 14. Question
With reference to the powers of the Prime Minister of India, consider the following statements:
• The Prime Minister of India is the chairperson of the NITI Aayog.
• The Prime Minister has the exclusive authority to make decisions regarding the division of portfolios among the ministers in the Union Council of Ministers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
Both statements above are correct.
The Prime Minister is the ex-officio chairperson of the National Institution for Transforming India (NITI) Aayog, which is the policy think tank of the Government of India. It was established to achieve sustainable development goals and to enhance cooperative federalism by fostering the involvement of the State Governments of India in the economic policy-making process.
The allocation of portfolios among the ministers is the prerogative of the Prime Minister. The Prime Minister leads the Council of Ministers and recommends to the President the appointment of other ministers. The Prime Minister has the authority to assign and reshuffle portfolios among ministers.
Solution: C
Both statements above are correct.
The Prime Minister is the ex-officio chairperson of the National Institution for Transforming India (NITI) Aayog, which is the policy think tank of the Government of India. It was established to achieve sustainable development goals and to enhance cooperative federalism by fostering the involvement of the State Governments of India in the economic policy-making process.
The allocation of portfolios among the ministers is the prerogative of the Prime Minister. The Prime Minister leads the Council of Ministers and recommends to the President the appointment of other ministers. The Prime Minister has the authority to assign and reshuffle portfolios among ministers.
• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Which ministry is primarily responsible for the welfare of refugees and evacuees in India? (a) Ministry of Home Affairs (b) Ministry of External Affairs (c) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (d) Ministry of Defence Correct Solution: A The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) in India has the overarching responsibility for the internal security and domestic policy of the country. This includes the management of India’s internal security challenges, overseeing the country’s federal policing agencies, and handling issues related to citizenship, including the status and welfare of refugees within India’s borders. Refugees and evacuees are typically people who have been forced to leave their home country due to threats of persecution, conflict, generalized violence, or other disturbances that jeopardize their safety. The MHA deals with such individuals through various acts and policies, and it coordinates with international organizations like the United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR), as well as with state governments and other central government ministries. The ministry also oversees the registration of foreign nationals in India, which would include refugees seeking asylum. Moreover, the Foreigners Division of the MHA is directly responsible for matters relating to visa, immigration, citizenship, overseas citizenship of India, and the granting of asylum to refugees. The MHA’s role is crucial because the welfare of refugees encompasses not only their physical safety and legal protection but also their integration into society, which may include access to public services, support for livelihoods, and ensuring harmonious relationships with local communities. Other ministries may also be involved in a supportive role. For example, the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) deals with diplomatic interactions with other countries that may pertain to the reasons for the refugee movements, and the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare may be involved in providing healthcare services to refugee populations. However, the primary responsibility lies with the Ministry of Home Affairs. Incorrect Solution: A The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) in India has the overarching responsibility for the internal security and domestic policy of the country. This includes the management of India’s internal security challenges, overseeing the country’s federal policing agencies, and handling issues related to citizenship, including the status and welfare of refugees within India’s borders. Refugees and evacuees are typically people who have been forced to leave their home country due to threats of persecution, conflict, generalized violence, or other disturbances that jeopardize their safety. The MHA deals with such individuals through various acts and policies, and it coordinates with international organizations like the United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR), as well as with state governments and other central government ministries. The ministry also oversees the registration of foreign nationals in India, which would include refugees seeking asylum. Moreover, the Foreigners Division of the MHA is directly responsible for matters relating to visa, immigration, citizenship, overseas citizenship of India, and the granting of asylum to refugees. The MHA’s role is crucial because the welfare of refugees encompasses not only their physical safety and legal protection but also their integration into society, which may include access to public services, support for livelihoods, and ensuring harmonious relationships with local communities. Other ministries may also be involved in a supportive role. For example, the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) deals with diplomatic interactions with other countries that may pertain to the reasons for the refugee movements, and the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare may be involved in providing healthcare services to refugee populations. However, the primary responsibility lies with the Ministry of Home Affairs.
#### 15. Question
Which ministry is primarily responsible for the welfare of refugees and evacuees in India?
• (a) Ministry of Home Affairs
• (b) Ministry of External Affairs
• (c) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
• (d) Ministry of Defence
Solution: A
The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) in India has the overarching responsibility for the internal security and domestic policy of the country. This includes the management of India’s internal security challenges, overseeing the country’s federal policing agencies, and handling issues related to citizenship, including the status and welfare of refugees within India’s borders.
Refugees and evacuees are typically people who have been forced to leave their home country due to threats of persecution, conflict, generalized violence, or other disturbances that jeopardize their safety. The MHA deals with such individuals through various acts and policies, and it coordinates with international organizations like the United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR), as well as with state governments and other central government ministries. The ministry also oversees the registration of foreign nationals in India, which would include refugees seeking asylum.
Moreover, the Foreigners Division of the MHA is directly responsible for matters relating to visa, immigration, citizenship, overseas citizenship of India, and the granting of asylum to refugees.
The MHA’s role is crucial because the welfare of refugees encompasses not only their physical safety and legal protection but also their integration into society, which may include access to public services, support for livelihoods, and ensuring harmonious relationships with local communities.
Other ministries may also be involved in a supportive role. For example, the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) deals with diplomatic interactions with other countries that may pertain to the reasons for the refugee movements, and the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare may be involved in providing healthcare services to refugee populations. However, the primary responsibility lies with the Ministry of Home Affairs.
Solution: A
The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) in India has the overarching responsibility for the internal security and domestic policy of the country. This includes the management of India’s internal security challenges, overseeing the country’s federal policing agencies, and handling issues related to citizenship, including the status and welfare of refugees within India’s borders.
Refugees and evacuees are typically people who have been forced to leave their home country due to threats of persecution, conflict, generalized violence, or other disturbances that jeopardize their safety. The MHA deals with such individuals through various acts and policies, and it coordinates with international organizations like the United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR), as well as with state governments and other central government ministries. The ministry also oversees the registration of foreign nationals in India, which would include refugees seeking asylum.
Moreover, the Foreigners Division of the MHA is directly responsible for matters relating to visa, immigration, citizenship, overseas citizenship of India, and the granting of asylum to refugees.
The MHA’s role is crucial because the welfare of refugees encompasses not only their physical safety and legal protection but also their integration into society, which may include access to public services, support for livelihoods, and ensuring harmonious relationships with local communities.
Other ministries may also be involved in a supportive role. For example, the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) deals with diplomatic interactions with other countries that may pertain to the reasons for the refugee movements, and the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare may be involved in providing healthcare services to refugee populations. However, the primary responsibility lies with the Ministry of Home Affairs.
• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Rat-hole Mining Method: It is a method of extracting coal from horizontal seams prevalent in Meghalaya. It includes the box-cutting procedure where tunnels are dug on the hill slopes. It involves the manual extraction of coal using primitive tools. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Rat hole mining is a method of extracting coal from narrow, horizontal seams, prevalent in Meghalaya. The term “rat hole” refers to the narrow pits dug into the ground, typically just large enough for one person to descend and extract coal. Statement 2 is not correct: The Rat-hole mining is broadly of two types. “In the side-cutting procedure, narrow tunnels are dug on the hill slopes and workers go inside until they find the coal seam. In the other type of rat-hole mining, called box-cutting, a rectangular opening is made, varying from 10 to 100 sqm, and through that a vertical pit is dug, 100 to 400 feet deep. Rat hole mining poses significant safety and environmental hazards. The mines are typically unregulated, lacking safety measures such as proper ventilation, structural support, or safety gear for the workers. Statement 3 is correct: Once the pits are dug, miners descend using ropes or bamboo ladders to reach the coal seams. The coal is then manually extracted using primitive tools such as pickaxes, shovels, and baskets. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Rat hole mining is a method of extracting coal from narrow, horizontal seams, prevalent in Meghalaya. The term “rat hole” refers to the narrow pits dug into the ground, typically just large enough for one person to descend and extract coal. Statement 2 is not correct: The Rat-hole mining is broadly of two types. “In the side-cutting procedure, narrow tunnels are dug on the hill slopes and workers go inside until they find the coal seam. In the other type of rat-hole mining, called box-cutting, a rectangular opening is made, varying from 10 to 100 sqm, and through that a vertical pit is dug, 100 to 400 feet deep. Rat hole mining poses significant safety and environmental hazards. The mines are typically unregulated, lacking safety measures such as proper ventilation, structural support, or safety gear for the workers. Statement 3 is correct: Once the pits are dug, miners descend using ropes or bamboo ladders to reach the coal seams. The coal is then manually extracted using primitive tools such as pickaxes, shovels, and baskets.
#### 16. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Rat-hole Mining Method:
• It is a method of extracting coal from horizontal seams prevalent in Meghalaya.
• It includes the box-cutting procedure where tunnels are dug on the hill slopes.
• It involves the manual extraction of coal using primitive tools.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Rat hole mining is a method of extracting coal from narrow, horizontal seams, prevalent in Meghalaya.
The term “rat hole” refers to the narrow pits dug into the ground, typically just large enough for one person to descend and extract coal.
Statement 2 is not correct: The Rat-hole mining is broadly of two types. “In the side-cutting procedure, narrow tunnels are dug on the hill slopes and workers go inside until they find the coal seam.
In the other type of rat-hole mining, called box-cutting, a rectangular opening is made, varying from 10 to 100 sqm, and through that a vertical pit is dug, 100 to 400 feet deep.
Rat hole mining poses significant safety and environmental hazards. The mines are typically unregulated, lacking safety measures such as proper ventilation, structural support, or safety gear for the workers.
Statement 3 is correct: Once the pits are dug, miners descend using ropes or bamboo ladders to reach the coal seams. The coal is then manually extracted using primitive tools such as pickaxes, shovels, and baskets.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Rat hole mining is a method of extracting coal from narrow, horizontal seams, prevalent in Meghalaya.
The term “rat hole” refers to the narrow pits dug into the ground, typically just large enough for one person to descend and extract coal.
Statement 2 is not correct: The Rat-hole mining is broadly of two types. “In the side-cutting procedure, narrow tunnels are dug on the hill slopes and workers go inside until they find the coal seam.
In the other type of rat-hole mining, called box-cutting, a rectangular opening is made, varying from 10 to 100 sqm, and through that a vertical pit is dug, 100 to 400 feet deep.
Rat hole mining poses significant safety and environmental hazards. The mines are typically unregulated, lacking safety measures such as proper ventilation, structural support, or safety gear for the workers.
Statement 3 is correct: Once the pits are dug, miners descend using ropes or bamboo ladders to reach the coal seams. The coal is then manually extracted using primitive tools such as pickaxes, shovels, and baskets.
• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Lithuania: It is a Baltic country situated in North Eastern Europe. It is located on the eastern coast of the Baltic Sea. It is entirely located in the Northern hemisphere. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None of the above Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Lithuania is a Baltic country situated in North Eastern Europe. Statement 3 is correct: Lithuania is located on the eastern coast of the Baltic Sea and on the southeast of Denmark and Sweden. Statement 3 is not correct: It is geographically positioned both in the Northern and Eastern hemispheres of the Earth. Lithuania is bordered by 4 Nations: by Latvia in the North; Belarus in the east and south; Poland in the south; and Kaliningrad oblast of Russia in the southwest. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Lithuania is a Baltic country situated in North Eastern Europe. Statement 3 is correct: Lithuania is located on the eastern coast of the Baltic Sea and on the southeast of Denmark and Sweden. Statement 3 is not correct: It is geographically positioned both in the Northern and Eastern hemispheres of the Earth. Lithuania is bordered by 4 Nations: by Latvia in the North; Belarus in the east and south; Poland in the south; and Kaliningrad oblast of Russia in the southwest.
#### 17. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Lithuania:
• It is a Baltic country situated in North Eastern Europe.
• It is located on the eastern coast of the Baltic Sea.
• It is entirely located in the Northern hemisphere.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
• a) Only one
• b) Only two
• c) All three
• d) None of the above
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Lithuania is a Baltic country situated in North Eastern Europe.
Statement 3 is correct: Lithuania is located on the eastern coast of the Baltic Sea and on the southeast of Denmark and Sweden.
Statement 3 is not correct: It is geographically positioned both in the Northern and Eastern hemispheres of the Earth.
Lithuania is bordered by 4 Nations: by Latvia in the North; Belarus in the east and south; Poland in the south; and Kaliningrad oblast of Russia in the southwest.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Lithuania is a Baltic country situated in North Eastern Europe.
Statement 3 is correct: Lithuania is located on the eastern coast of the Baltic Sea and on the southeast of Denmark and Sweden.
Statement 3 is not correct: It is geographically positioned both in the Northern and Eastern hemispheres of the Earth.
Lithuania is bordered by 4 Nations: by Latvia in the North; Belarus in the east and south; Poland in the south; and Kaliningrad oblast of Russia in the southwest.
• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Which one of the following agencies has launched the CALIPSO (Cloud-Aerosol Lidar and Infrared Pathfinder Satellite Observation) Mission? (a) The European Space Agency (b) The German Aerospace Center (c) The National Aeronautics and Space Administration (d) The Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency Correct Answer: C Explanation: Option (c) is correct: The CALIPSO (Cloud-Aerosol Lidar and Infrared Pathfinder Satellite Observation) mission helped create thousands of scientific reports over its 17 years of operation. It was launched jointly by NASA and France’s CNES (Centre National d’Etudes Spatiales) along with the cloud-profiling radar system on the CloudSat satellite. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Option (c) is correct: The CALIPSO (Cloud-Aerosol Lidar and Infrared Pathfinder Satellite Observation) mission helped create thousands of scientific reports over its 17 years of operation. It was launched jointly by NASA and France’s CNES (Centre National d’Etudes Spatiales) along with the cloud-profiling radar system on the CloudSat satellite.
#### 18. Question
Which one of the following agencies has launched the CALIPSO (Cloud-Aerosol Lidar and Infrared Pathfinder Satellite Observation) Mission?
• (a) The European Space Agency
• (b) The German Aerospace Center
• (c) The National Aeronautics and Space Administration
• (d) The Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency
Answer: C
Explanation:
Option (c) is correct: The CALIPSO (Cloud-Aerosol Lidar and Infrared Pathfinder Satellite Observation) mission helped create thousands of scientific reports over its 17 years of operation.
It was launched jointly by NASA and France’s CNES (Centre National d’Etudes Spatiales) along with the cloud-profiling radar system on the CloudSat satellite.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Option (c) is correct: The CALIPSO (Cloud-Aerosol Lidar and Infrared Pathfinder Satellite Observation) mission helped create thousands of scientific reports over its 17 years of operation.
It was launched jointly by NASA and France’s CNES (Centre National d’Etudes Spatiales) along with the cloud-profiling radar system on the CloudSat satellite.
• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Bank for International Settlements and the Reserve Bank of India jointly have initiated the Project Mariana. The Mariana Project tests the cross-border trading and settlement of wholesale central bank digital currencies between financial institutions Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: The Bank for International Settlements (BIS) and the central banks of France, Singapore and Switzerland have successfully concluded Project Mariana. Statement 2 is correct: The project tested the cross-border trading and settlement of wholesale central bank digital currencies (wCBDCs) between financial institutions, using new decentralised finance (DeFi) technology concepts on a public blockchain. Project Mariana was developed jointly by three BIS Innovation Hub centres (the Swiss, Singapore and Eurosystem Hub Centres) together with Bank of France, Monetary Authority of Singapore and Swiss National Bank. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: The Bank for International Settlements (BIS) and the central banks of France, Singapore and Switzerland have successfully concluded Project Mariana. Statement 2 is correct: The project tested the cross-border trading and settlement of wholesale central bank digital currencies (wCBDCs) between financial institutions, using new decentralised finance (DeFi) technology concepts on a public blockchain. Project Mariana was developed jointly by three BIS Innovation Hub centres (the Swiss, Singapore and Eurosystem Hub Centres) together with Bank of France, Monetary Authority of Singapore and Swiss National Bank.
#### 19. Question
Consider the following statements:
• The Bank for International Settlements and the Reserve Bank of India jointly have initiated the Project Mariana.
• The Mariana Project tests the cross-border trading and settlement of wholesale central bank digital currencies between financial institutions
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is not correct: The Bank for International Settlements (BIS) and the central banks of France, Singapore and Switzerland have successfully concluded Project Mariana.
• Statement 2 is correct: The project tested the cross-border trading and settlement of wholesale central bank digital currencies (wCBDCs) between financial institutions, using new decentralised finance (DeFi) technology concepts on a public blockchain.
Project Mariana was developed jointly by three BIS Innovation Hub centres (the Swiss, Singapore and Eurosystem Hub Centres) together with Bank of France, Monetary Authority of Singapore and Swiss National Bank.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is not correct: The Bank for International Settlements (BIS) and the central banks of France, Singapore and Switzerland have successfully concluded Project Mariana.
• Statement 2 is correct: The project tested the cross-border trading and settlement of wholesale central bank digital currencies (wCBDCs) between financial institutions, using new decentralised finance (DeFi) technology concepts on a public blockchain.
Project Mariana was developed jointly by three BIS Innovation Hub centres (the Swiss, Singapore and Eurosystem Hub Centres) together with Bank of France, Monetary Authority of Singapore and Swiss National Bank.
• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Papum Reserve Forest falls under the buffer zone of Pakke Tiger Reserve. The Pakke Tiger Reserve is a part of the Orang National Park of Assam. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: A Explanation: Option (a) is correct: Situated in the East Kameng District, Pakke Tiger Reserve is a part of Pakhui or Pakke Wildlife Sanctuary. Papum reserve forest that falls under the buffer zone of Pakke Tiger Reserve. Orang National Park is a Tiger Reserve and a World Heritage Site in Assam, India. It is home to diverse wildlife, including rhinos, tigers, elephants and swamp deer. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Option (a) is correct: Situated in the East Kameng District, Pakke Tiger Reserve is a part of Pakhui or Pakke Wildlife Sanctuary. Papum reserve forest that falls under the buffer zone of Pakke Tiger Reserve. Orang National Park is a Tiger Reserve and a World Heritage Site in Assam, India. It is home to diverse wildlife, including rhinos, tigers, elephants and swamp deer.
#### 20. Question
Consider the following statements:
• The Papum Reserve Forest falls under the buffer zone of Pakke Tiger Reserve.
• The Pakke Tiger Reserve is a part of the Orang National Park of Assam.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Explanation:
Option (a) is correct: Situated in the East Kameng District, Pakke Tiger Reserve is a part of Pakhui or Pakke Wildlife Sanctuary.
• Papum reserve forest that falls under the buffer zone of Pakke Tiger Reserve.
Orang National Park is a Tiger Reserve and a World Heritage Site in Assam, India. It is home to diverse wildlife, including rhinos, tigers, elephants and swamp deer.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Option (a) is correct: Situated in the East Kameng District, Pakke Tiger Reserve is a part of Pakhui or Pakke Wildlife Sanctuary.
• Papum reserve forest that falls under the buffer zone of Pakke Tiger Reserve.
Orang National Park is a Tiger Reserve and a World Heritage Site in Assam, India. It is home to diverse wildlife, including rhinos, tigers, elephants and swamp deer.
• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. The International Tropical Timber Council (ITTC) is the governing body of the International Tropical Timber Organization (ITTO). Both the ITTC and ITTO are headquartered in Singapore. India has been the founding member of ITTO. Select the correct answer using the codes below. a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1, 2 and 3 d) 1 and 3 only Correct Solution: d) Justification: The International Tropical Timber Organization (formed 1986; HQ: Yokohama, Japan) is an intergovernmental organization that promotes the conservation of tropical forest resources and their sustainable management, use and trade. The International Tropical Timber Council (ITTC) is the governing body of the International Tropical Timber Organization (ITTO). India has been the founding member of ITTO. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Incorrect Solution: d) Justification: The International Tropical Timber Organization (formed 1986; HQ: Yokohama, Japan) is an intergovernmental organization that promotes the conservation of tropical forest resources and their sustainable management, use and trade. The International Tropical Timber Council (ITTC) is the governing body of the International Tropical Timber Organization (ITTO). India has been the founding member of ITTO. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf
#### 21. Question
Consider the following statements.
• The International Tropical Timber Council (ITTC) is the governing body of the International Tropical Timber Organization (ITTO).
• Both the ITTC and ITTO are headquartered in Singapore.
• India has been the founding member of ITTO.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
• b) 2 and 3 only
• c) 1, 2 and 3
• d) 1 and 3 only
Solution: d)
Justification: The International Tropical Timber Organization (formed 1986; HQ: Yokohama, Japan) is an intergovernmental organization that promotes the conservation of tropical forest resources and their sustainable management, use and trade.
The International Tropical Timber Council (ITTC) is the governing body of the International Tropical Timber Organization (ITTO). India has been the founding member of ITTO.
Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf
Solution: d)
Justification: The International Tropical Timber Organization (formed 1986; HQ: Yokohama, Japan) is an intergovernmental organization that promotes the conservation of tropical forest resources and their sustainable management, use and trade.
The International Tropical Timber Council (ITTC) is the governing body of the International Tropical Timber Organization (ITTO). India has been the founding member of ITTO.
Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf
• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Which of the following initiatives have been undertaken to promote the food processing industry in India? PM Kisan SAMPADA Yojana One District One Product scheme Eat right India movement Select the correct answer using the codes below. a) 2 and 3 only b) 1 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: d) Justification: India’s Food Processing Industry (FPI) has seen significant growth, attracting Rs 50,000 crore in FDI investments over the past nine years. Processed food now contributes 23 percent to agri exports, with a 150 percent overall increase. The processing capacity has expanded to over 200 lakh metric tonnes. Several initiatives have been undertaken to promote the food processing industry in India, including the PM Kisan SAMPADA Yojana, the One District One Product scheme, the Production Linked Incentive Scheme for Food Processing Industry (PLISFPI), and the Eat right India movement Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Incorrect Solution: d) Justification: India’s Food Processing Industry (FPI) has seen significant growth, attracting Rs 50,000 crore in FDI investments over the past nine years. Processed food now contributes 23 percent to agri exports, with a 150 percent overall increase. The processing capacity has expanded to over 200 lakh metric tonnes. Several initiatives have been undertaken to promote the food processing industry in India, including the PM Kisan SAMPADA Yojana, the One District One Product scheme, the Production Linked Incentive Scheme for Food Processing Industry (PLISFPI), and the Eat right India movement Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf
#### 22. Question
Which of the following initiatives have been undertaken to promote the food processing industry in India?
• PM Kisan SAMPADA Yojana
• One District One Product scheme
• Eat right India movement
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
• a) 2 and 3 only
• c) 1 and 3 only
• d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: d)
Justification: India’s Food Processing Industry (FPI) has seen significant growth, attracting Rs 50,000 crore in FDI investments over the past nine years.
Processed food now contributes 23 percent to agri exports, with a 150 percent overall increase. The processing capacity has expanded to over 200 lakh metric tonnes.
Several initiatives have been undertaken to promote the food processing industry in India, including the PM Kisan SAMPADA Yojana, the One District One Product scheme, the Production Linked Incentive Scheme for Food Processing Industry (PLISFPI), and the Eat right India movement
Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf
Solution: d)
Justification: India’s Food Processing Industry (FPI) has seen significant growth, attracting Rs 50,000 crore in FDI investments over the past nine years.
Processed food now contributes 23 percent to agri exports, with a 150 percent overall increase. The processing capacity has expanded to over 200 lakh metric tonnes.
Several initiatives have been undertaken to promote the food processing industry in India, including the PM Kisan SAMPADA Yojana, the One District One Product scheme, the Production Linked Incentive Scheme for Food Processing Industry (PLISFPI), and the Eat right India movement
Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf
• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. The Subsurface Water Ice Mapping (SWIM) project is a NASA-funded project that aims to detect where there is most likely water ice beneath Martian ground. SWIM project aims to help scientists find identify potential landing sites for the first astronauts on Mars. Select the correct answer using the codes below. a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: c) Justification: The Subsurface Water Ice Mapping Project (SWIM) has created a map of Mars, indicating regions where NASA missions have detected subsurface water ice. This map is a valuable resource for scientists to identify potential landing sites for the first astronauts on Mars. Water ice on Mars is crucial for drinking, rocket fuel, and other purposes, as the planet’s thin atmosphere cannot sustain liquid water. The Subsurface Water Ice Mapping (SWIM) project is a NASA-funded project that aims to detect where there’s most likely water ice beneath Martian ground. The project also aims to locate the best places to access water ice buried under the Martian. The SWIM project supports NASA’s Mars Exploration Program in identifying the location and nature of potential water resources on Mars. Scientists can use the map to decide where the first astronauts to set foot. The SWIM project uses the High-Resolution Imaging Science Experiment (HiRISE) to study fresh impact craters. The fourth comprehensive map of potential subsurface water ice locations on Mars was released. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: The Subsurface Water Ice Mapping Project (SWIM) has created a map of Mars, indicating regions where NASA missions have detected subsurface water ice. This map is a valuable resource for scientists to identify potential landing sites for the first astronauts on Mars. Water ice on Mars is crucial for drinking, rocket fuel, and other purposes, as the planet’s thin atmosphere cannot sustain liquid water. The Subsurface Water Ice Mapping (SWIM) project is a NASA-funded project that aims to detect where there’s most likely water ice beneath Martian ground. The project also aims to locate the best places to access water ice buried under the Martian. The SWIM project supports NASA’s Mars Exploration Program in identifying the location and nature of potential water resources on Mars. Scientists can use the map to decide where the first astronauts to set foot. The SWIM project uses the High-Resolution Imaging Science Experiment (HiRISE) to study fresh impact craters. The fourth comprehensive map of potential subsurface water ice locations on Mars was released. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf
#### 23. Question
Consider the following statements.
• The Subsurface Water Ice Mapping (SWIM) project is a NASA-funded project that aims to detect where there is most likely water ice beneath Martian ground.
• SWIM project aims to help scientists find identify potential landing sites for the first astronauts on Mars.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
• c) Both 1 and 2
• d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
Justification: The Subsurface Water Ice Mapping Project (SWIM) has created a map of Mars, indicating regions where NASA missions have detected subsurface water ice.
• This map is a valuable resource for scientists to identify potential landing sites for the first astronauts on Mars.
• Water ice on Mars is crucial for drinking, rocket fuel, and other purposes, as the planet’s thin atmosphere cannot sustain liquid water. The Subsurface Water Ice Mapping (SWIM) project is a NASA-funded project that aims to detect where there’s most likely water ice beneath Martian ground.
The project also aims to locate the best places to access water ice buried under the Martian. The SWIM project supports NASA’s Mars Exploration Program in identifying the location and nature of potential water resources on Mars. Scientists can use the map to decide where the first astronauts to set foot.
The SWIM project uses the High-Resolution Imaging Science Experiment (HiRISE) to study fresh impact craters. The fourth comprehensive map of potential subsurface water ice locations on Mars was released.
Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf
Solution: c)
Justification: The Subsurface Water Ice Mapping Project (SWIM) has created a map of Mars, indicating regions where NASA missions have detected subsurface water ice.
• This map is a valuable resource for scientists to identify potential landing sites for the first astronauts on Mars.
• Water ice on Mars is crucial for drinking, rocket fuel, and other purposes, as the planet’s thin atmosphere cannot sustain liquid water. The Subsurface Water Ice Mapping (SWIM) project is a NASA-funded project that aims to detect where there’s most likely water ice beneath Martian ground.
The project also aims to locate the best places to access water ice buried under the Martian. The SWIM project supports NASA’s Mars Exploration Program in identifying the location and nature of potential water resources on Mars. Scientists can use the map to decide where the first astronauts to set foot.
The SWIM project uses the High-Resolution Imaging Science Experiment (HiRISE) to study fresh impact craters. The fourth comprehensive map of potential subsurface water ice locations on Mars was released.
Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf
• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points White hydrogen is seen as a potentially abundant and untapped source of clean-burning energy: It is found naturally in the Earth’s crust. It can be created artificially. Unlike green or brown hydrogen, it is not found in molecular hydrogen form. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: a) Justification: White hydrogen is a clean-burning energy source found naturally in the Earth’s crust. It is Natural hydrogen and is found as naturally occurring molecular hydrogen on or on Earth. The name white hydrogen distinguishes it from green hydrogen (produced from renewable energy sources from the electrolysis of water), and from grey, brown or black hydrogen, (which is obtained from fossil sources) White hydrogen’s estimated cost is around $1 per kilogram, significantly lower than green hydrogen, which costs about $6 per kilogram, making it a more affordable clean energy source. White hydrogen deposits have been identified worldwide including in the US, eastern Europe, Russia, Australia, Oman, France, and Mali. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Incorrect Solution: a) Justification: White hydrogen is a clean-burning energy source found naturally in the Earth’s crust. It is Natural hydrogen and is found as naturally occurring molecular hydrogen on or on Earth. The name white hydrogen distinguishes it from green hydrogen (produced from renewable energy sources from the electrolysis of water), and from grey, brown or black hydrogen, (which is obtained from fossil sources) White hydrogen’s estimated cost is around $1 per kilogram, significantly lower than green hydrogen, which costs about $6 per kilogram, making it a more affordable clean energy source. White hydrogen deposits have been identified worldwide including in the US, eastern Europe, Russia, Australia, Oman, France, and Mali. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf
#### 24. Question
White hydrogen is seen as a potentially abundant and untapped source of clean-burning energy:
• It is found naturally in the Earth’s crust.
• It can be created artificially.
• Unlike green or brown hydrogen, it is not found in molecular hydrogen form.
How many of the above statements are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Solution: a)
Justification: White hydrogen is a clean-burning energy source found naturally in the Earth’s crust.
It is Natural hydrogen and is found as naturally occurring molecular hydrogen on or on Earth.
The name white hydrogen distinguishes it from green hydrogen (produced from renewable energy sources from the electrolysis of water), and from grey, brown or black hydrogen, (which is obtained from fossil sources)
White hydrogen’s estimated cost is around $1 per kilogram, significantly lower than green hydrogen, which costs about $6 per kilogram, making it a more affordable clean energy source.
White hydrogen deposits have been identified worldwide including in the US, eastern Europe, Russia, Australia, Oman, France, and Mali.
Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf
Solution: a)
Justification: White hydrogen is a clean-burning energy source found naturally in the Earth’s crust.
It is Natural hydrogen and is found as naturally occurring molecular hydrogen on or on Earth.
The name white hydrogen distinguishes it from green hydrogen (produced from renewable energy sources from the electrolysis of water), and from grey, brown or black hydrogen, (which is obtained from fossil sources)
White hydrogen’s estimated cost is around $1 per kilogram, significantly lower than green hydrogen, which costs about $6 per kilogram, making it a more affordable clean energy source.
White hydrogen deposits have been identified worldwide including in the US, eastern Europe, Russia, Australia, Oman, France, and Mali.
Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf
• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is responsible for the standards of goods in which of the following sectors? Water resources Transport engineering Textiles Food and agriculture How many of the above are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution: d) Justification: The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is India’s national standards body. It’s part of the Department of Consumer Affairs, which is under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution. The BIS was established by the Bureau of Indian Standards Act, 2016. The BIS is responsible for: Standardization, Marking, Quality certification of goods, Hallmarking, Laboratory services, and Training services. Formulation of Indian Standards is one of the core activities of BIS. The activity is done through 14 Division Councils representing diverse areas of economy and technology, as follows: Chemical, Medical Equipment And Hospital Planning, Civil Engineering, Metallurgical Engineering, Electro technical, Petroleum, Coal and Related Products, Electronics and Information Technology, Production and General Engineering, Food and Agriculture, Textile, Management and Systems, Transport Engineering, Mechanical Engineering, and Water Resources. See https://www.bis.gov.in/standards/standards-overview/ Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Incorrect Solution: d) Justification: The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is India’s national standards body. It’s part of the Department of Consumer Affairs, which is under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution. The BIS was established by the Bureau of Indian Standards Act, 2016. The BIS is responsible for: Standardization, Marking, Quality certification of goods, Hallmarking, Laboratory services, and Training services. Formulation of Indian Standards is one of the core activities of BIS. The activity is done through 14 Division Councils representing diverse areas of economy and technology, as follows: Chemical, Medical Equipment And Hospital Planning, Civil Engineering, Metallurgical Engineering, Electro technical, Petroleum, Coal and Related Products, Electronics and Information Technology, Production and General Engineering, Food and Agriculture, Textile, Management and Systems, Transport Engineering, Mechanical Engineering, and Water Resources. See https://www.bis.gov.in/standards/standards-overview/ Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf
#### 25. Question
The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is responsible for the standards of goods in which of the following sectors?
• Water resources
• Transport engineering
• Food and agriculture
How many of the above are correct?
• a) Only one
• b) Only two
• c) Only three
• d) All four
Solution: d)
Justification: The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is India’s national standards body. It’s part of the Department of Consumer Affairs, which is under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution. The BIS was established by the Bureau of Indian Standards Act, 2016. The BIS is responsible for: Standardization, Marking, Quality certification of goods, Hallmarking, Laboratory services, and Training services.
Formulation of Indian Standards is one of the core activities of BIS. The activity is done through 14 Division Councils representing diverse areas of economy and technology, as follows: Chemical, Medical Equipment And Hospital Planning, Civil Engineering, Metallurgical Engineering, Electro technical, Petroleum, Coal and Related Products, Electronics and Information Technology, Production and General Engineering, Food and Agriculture, Textile, Management and Systems, Transport Engineering, Mechanical Engineering, and Water Resources. See https://www.bis.gov.in/standards/standards-overview/
Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf
Solution: d)
Justification: The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is India’s national standards body. It’s part of the Department of Consumer Affairs, which is under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution. The BIS was established by the Bureau of Indian Standards Act, 2016. The BIS is responsible for: Standardization, Marking, Quality certification of goods, Hallmarking, Laboratory services, and Training services.
Formulation of Indian Standards is one of the core activities of BIS. The activity is done through 14 Division Councils representing diverse areas of economy and technology, as follows: Chemical, Medical Equipment And Hospital Planning, Civil Engineering, Metallurgical Engineering, Electro technical, Petroleum, Coal and Related Products, Electronics and Information Technology, Production and General Engineering, Food and Agriculture, Textile, Management and Systems, Transport Engineering, Mechanical Engineering, and Water Resources. See https://www.bis.gov.in/standards/standards-overview/
Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf
• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points Modern industrial civilization was for Gandhi embodied in and symbolized by ‘machinery’ He used the term ‘machinery’ as ‘a general term meaning technology and its ostensive constructs’. It is this matrix of modernity that compelled Gandhi to note that ‘machinery’ privileged the non-self (i.e., nature and the social world) over the self and, what is more, proceeded to violate the non-self. In the instance of non-self Gandhi hoped with Marx for the day when ‘nature becomes man for him’. But ‘machinery’ established an exploitative relationship between being and nature. It also distorted social relations. Gandhi viewed ‘machinery’ as the personification of capital that exploits wage labour. When capitalism incarnated into imperialism ‘machinery’ supplanted labour. Gandhi was therefore not against technologies such as the sewing machine as it did not replace or exploit human labour. His views are certainly true. The message of the author is best described by, A. Modern civilisation is satanic B. Technology allows the external gaze to have primacy over the inner self. C. Where there is machinery there are large cities D. Capitalism should be replaced by a more decentralized form of social ownership. Correct Answer: B A is conventional wisdom we don’t see such flavor in the passage. C is a corollary but can’t be a factually considerable message. D is absurd since no alternative is suggested. Thus B is correct as implicitly given in the passage. Incorrect Answer: B A is conventional wisdom we don’t see such flavor in the passage. C is a corollary but can’t be a factually considerable message. D is absurd since no alternative is suggested. Thus B is correct as implicitly given in the passage.
#### 26. Question
Modern industrial civilization was for Gandhi embodied in and symbolized by ‘machinery’ He used the term ‘machinery’ as ‘a general term meaning technology and its ostensive constructs’. It is this matrix of modernity that compelled Gandhi to note that ‘machinery’ privileged the non-self (i.e., nature and the social world) over the self and, what is more, proceeded to violate the non-self. In the instance of non-self Gandhi hoped with Marx for the day when ‘nature becomes man for him’. But ‘machinery’ established an exploitative relationship between being and nature. It also distorted social relations. Gandhi viewed ‘machinery’ as the personification of capital that exploits wage labour. When capitalism incarnated into imperialism ‘machinery’ supplanted labour. Gandhi was therefore not against technologies such as the sewing machine as it did not replace or exploit human labour. His views are certainly true.
The message of the author is best described by,
• A. Modern civilisation is satanic
• B. Technology allows the external gaze to have primacy over the inner self.
• C. Where there is machinery there are large cities
• D. Capitalism should be replaced by a more decentralized form of social ownership.
A is conventional wisdom we don’t see such flavor in the passage. C is a corollary but can’t be a factually considerable message. D is absurd since no alternative is suggested. Thus B is correct as implicitly given in the passage.
A is conventional wisdom we don’t see such flavor in the passage. C is a corollary but can’t be a factually considerable message. D is absurd since no alternative is suggested. Thus B is correct as implicitly given in the passage.
• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points Modern industrial civilization was for Gandhi embodied in and symbolized by ‘machinery’ He used the term ‘machinery’ as ‘a general term meaning technology and its ostensive constructs’. It is this matrix of modernity that compelled Gandhi to note that ‘machinery’ privileged the non-self (i.e., nature and the social world) over the self and, what is more, proceeded to violate the non-self. In the instance of non-self Gandhi hoped with Marx for the day when ‘nature becomes man for him’. But ‘machinery’ established an exploitative relationship between being and nature. It also distorted social relations. Gandhi viewed ‘machinery’ as the personification of capital that exploits wage labour. When capitalism incarnated into imperialism ‘machinery’ supplanted labour. Gandhi was therefore not against technologies such as the sewing machine as it did not replace or exploit human labour. His views are certainly true. On the basis of above passage following assumptions have been made: Modern industry misguides us that control of the external world corresponds to the expansion of human freedom Machinery places several hurdles in having a relationship with self Code: A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 & 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2. Correct Answer: C The passage tells self is underestimated for outer world. Thus 1 is correct It is again true that technology creates problem in our relation with self as said in beginning lines. Incorrect Answer: C The passage tells self is underestimated for outer world. Thus 1 is correct It is again true that technology creates problem in our relation with self as said in beginning lines.
#### 27. Question
Modern industrial civilization was for Gandhi embodied in and symbolized by ‘machinery’ He used the term ‘machinery’ as ‘a general term meaning technology and its ostensive constructs’. It is this matrix of modernity that compelled Gandhi to note that ‘machinery’ privileged the non-self (i.e., nature and the social world) over the self and, what is more, proceeded to violate the non-self. In the instance of non-self Gandhi hoped with Marx for the day when ‘nature becomes man for him’. But ‘machinery’ established an exploitative relationship between being and nature. It also distorted social relations. Gandhi viewed ‘machinery’ as the personification of capital that exploits wage labour. When capitalism incarnated into imperialism ‘machinery’ supplanted labour. Gandhi was therefore not against technologies such as the sewing machine as it did not replace or exploit human labour. His views are certainly true.
On the basis of above passage following assumptions have been made:
• Modern industry misguides us that control of the external world corresponds to the expansion of human freedom
• Machinery places several hurdles in having a relationship with self
• C. Both 1 & 2
• D. Neither 1 nor 2.
• The passage tells self is underestimated for outer world. Thus 1 is correct
• It is again true that technology creates problem in our relation with self as said in beginning lines.
• The passage tells self is underestimated for outer world. Thus 1 is correct
• It is again true that technology creates problem in our relation with self as said in beginning lines.
• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points With reference to the above passage following have been considered as practical implications: Dignity of labor dominated Gandhiji’s critique of capitalism Self-rule is focused by Gandhi in his critique of modern civilization Gandhi and Marx disagree on the effect of capitalism Code: A. 1 only B. 1 & 2 only C. 2 & 3 only D. 3 only Correct Answer: B Gandhi was criticizing capitalism for supplanting labour and also causing imperialism in the passage. So 1 is correct Gandhi is essentially worried about self being independent of outer world in modern times so 2 is correct Gandhi and Marx agreed on the effect of capitalism on the self so 3 is incorrect 1 and 2 alone are correct. Incorrect Answer: B Gandhi was criticizing capitalism for supplanting labour and also causing imperialism in the passage. So 1 is correct Gandhi is essentially worried about self being independent of outer world in modern times so 2 is correct Gandhi and Marx agreed on the effect of capitalism on the self so 3 is incorrect 1 and 2 alone are correct.
#### 28. Question
With reference to the above passage following have been considered as practical implications:
• Dignity of labor dominated Gandhiji’s critique of capitalism
• Self-rule is focused by Gandhi in his critique of modern civilization
• Gandhi and Marx disagree on the effect of capitalism
• B. 1 & 2 only
• C. 2 & 3 only
• Gandhi was criticizing capitalism for supplanting labour and also causing imperialism in the passage. So 1 is correct
• Gandhi is essentially worried about self being independent of outer world in modern times so 2 is correct
• Gandhi and Marx agreed on the effect of capitalism on the self so 3 is incorrect
1 and 2 alone are correct.
• Gandhi was criticizing capitalism for supplanting labour and also causing imperialism in the passage. So 1 is correct
• Gandhi is essentially worried about self being independent of outer world in modern times so 2 is correct
• Gandhi and Marx agreed on the effect of capitalism on the self so 3 is incorrect
1 and 2 alone are correct.
• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points Two years ago, the average age of Arun, Bala & Chitra was 30 years. The present average age of Arun & Bala is 25 years. 4 years hence, the average age of Chitra & Dinesh would be 43 years. What is the present age of Dinesh? (a) 32 years (b) 34 years (c) 35 years (d) 40 years Correct Correct Answer: A) 32 years Solution: 2 years ago, total age of Arun + Bala + Chitra =90 their present age =90+6=96 So age of Chitra = 96-50=46 4 years hence, the total age of Chitra & Dinesh would be =86 years So present age of Chitra & Dinesh =86-8=78 So present age of Dinesh = 78-46=32 Incorrect Correct Answer: A) 32 years Solution: 2 years ago, total age of Arun + Bala + Chitra =90 their present age =90+6=96 So age of Chitra = 96-50=46 4 years hence, the total age of Chitra & Dinesh would be =86 years So present age of Chitra & Dinesh =86-8=78 So present age of Dinesh = 78-46=32
#### 29. Question
Two years ago, the average age of Arun, Bala & Chitra was 30 years. The present average age of Arun & Bala is 25 years. 4 years hence, the average age of Chitra & Dinesh would be 43 years. What is the present age of Dinesh?
• (a) 32 years
• (b) 34 years
• (c) 35 years
• (d) 40 years
Correct Answer: A) 32 years
2 years ago, total age of Arun + Bala + Chitra =90 their present age =90+6=96 So age of Chitra = 96-50=46 4 years hence, the total age of Chitra & Dinesh would be =86 years So present age of Chitra & Dinesh =86-8=78 So present age of Dinesh = 78-46=32
Correct Answer: A) 32 years
2 years ago, total age of Arun + Bala + Chitra =90 their present age =90+6=96 So age of Chitra = 96-50=46 4 years hence, the total age of Chitra & Dinesh would be =86 years So present age of Chitra & Dinesh =86-8=78 So present age of Dinesh = 78-46=32
• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points In a group of four students A, B, C, and D, the average weight of them is 80 kg. if the weight of B were 33.33% less, the average weight would have been 12.5% less. If A’s weight were increased by 25% and D’s were increased by 40% then the average weight would have been increased by 13.75 kg but if the percentage of increase were swapped i.e. A’s weight were increased by 40% and D’s weight were increased by 25% then the average weight would have been increased by 12.25 kg. If the original weight of A was 40% less than that of D then what was the original weight of C (in kg)? A. 40 B. 42 C. 45 D. 60 Correct Answer A) 40 Let the weight of A, B, C, and D is a, b, c, and d kgs respectively According to the question, a + b + c + d = 80 × 4 = 320 kg …………… (i) If the weight of b were 33.33% less then his new weight = (100 – 33.33)% of b = 2b /3 New average = (100 – 12.5)% of 80 = 87.5% of 80 = 70 Therefore, a +2b /3 + c + d = 70 × 4 = 280 kg ……..(ii) Equation (i) – (ii) (B – 2b) /3 = b/3 = 40 kg B = 120 kg Now, When the weight of A was increased by 25% then his new weight = 125% of a = 5a / 4 = 1.25a And when the weight of D was increased by 40% then his new weight = 140% of d = 1.4d Then, the average weight = 80 + 13.75 = 93.75 kg 1.25a + 120 + c + 1.4d = 93.75 × 4 = 375 kg 1.25a + c + 1.4d = 375 – 120 = 255 kg ……………(iii) When the percentage increase in their weights were swiped The, 1.4a + 120 + c + 1.25d = (80 + 12.25) × 4 = 369 1.4a + c + 1.25d = 369 – 120 = 249 ………….(iv) Equation (iii) – (iv) – 0.15a + 0.15d = 6 d – a = 6/ 0.15= 40 kg Now, according to the question, a = 60% of d = 0.6d Therefore, d – 0.6d = 0.4d = 40 kg D =100 kg A = 0.6d = 60 kg B = 120 kg Now, 60 + 120 + c + 100 = 320 Therefore, c = 320 – 280 = 40 kg Hence, option A is correct. Incorrect Answer A) 40 Let the weight of A, B, C, and D is a, b, c, and d kgs respectively According to the question, a + b + c + d = 80 × 4 = 320 kg …………… (i) If the weight of b were 33.33% less then his new weight = (100 – 33.33)% of b = 2b /3 New average = (100 – 12.5)% of 80 = 87.5% of 80 = 70 Therefore, a +2b /3 + c + d = 70 × 4 = 280 kg ……..(ii) Equation (i) – (ii) (B – 2b) /3 = b/3 = 40 kg B = 120 kg Now, When the weight of A was increased by 25% then his new weight = 125% of a = 5a / 4 = 1.25a And when the weight of D was increased by 40% then his new weight = 140% of d = 1.4d Then, the average weight = 80 + 13.75 = 93.75 kg 1.25a + 120 + c + 1.4d = 93.75 × 4 = 375 kg 1.25a + c + 1.4d = 375 – 120 = 255 kg ……………(iii) When the percentage increase in their weights were swiped The, 1.4a + 120 + c + 1.25d = (80 + 12.25) × 4 = 369 1.4a + c + 1.25d = 369 – 120 = 249 ………….(iv) Equation (iii) – (iv) – 0.15a + 0.15d = 6 d – a = 6/ 0.15= 40 kg Now, according to the question, a = 60% of d = 0.6d Therefore, d – 0.6d = 0.4d = 40 kg D =100 kg A = 0.6d = 60 kg B = 120 kg Now, 60 + 120 + c + 100 = 320 Therefore, c = 320 – 280 = 40 kg Hence, option A is correct.
#### 30. Question
In a group of four students A, B, C, and D, the average weight of them is 80 kg. if the weight of B were 33.33% less, the average weight would have been 12.5% less. If A’s weight were increased by 25% and D’s were increased by 40% then the average weight would have been increased by 13.75 kg but if the percentage of increase were swapped i.e. A’s weight were increased by 40% and D’s weight were increased by 25% then the average weight would have been increased by 12.25 kg. If the original weight of A was 40% less than that of D then what was the original weight of C (in kg)?
Answer A) 40
Let the weight of A, B, C, and D is a, b, c, and d kgs respectively
According to the question, a + b + c + d = 80 × 4 = 320 kg …………… (i)
If the weight of b were 33.33% less then his new weight
= (100 – 33.33)% of b = 2b /3
New average = (100 – 12.5)% of 80 = 87.5% of 80 = 70
Therefore, a +2b /3 + c + d = 70 × 4 = 280 kg ……..(ii)
Equation (i) – (ii)
(B – 2b) /3 = b/3 = 40 kg
B = 120 kg Now, When the weight of A was increased by 25% then his new weight
= 125% of a = 5a / 4
And when the weight of D was increased by 40% then his new weight = 140% of d = 1.4d
Then, the average weight = 80 + 13.75 = 93.75 kg
1.25a + 120 + c + 1.4d = 93.75 × 4 = 375 kg
1.25a + c + 1.4d = 375 – 120 = 255 kg ……………(iii)
When the percentage increase in their weights were swiped
The, 1.4a + 120 + c + 1.25d = (80 + 12.25) × 4 = 369
1.4a + c + 1.25d = 369 – 120 = 249 ………….(iv)
Equation (iii) – (iv)
– 0.15a + 0.15d = 6
d – a = 6/ 0.15= 40 kg
Now, according to the question, a = 60% of d = 0.6d
Therefore, d – 0.6d = 0.4d = 40 kg D =100 kg A = 0.6d = 60 kg B = 120 kg
Now, 60 + 120 + c + 100 = 320
Therefore, c = 320 – 280 = 40 kg
Hence, option A is correct.
Answer A) 40
Let the weight of A, B, C, and D is a, b, c, and d kgs respectively
According to the question, a + b + c + d = 80 × 4 = 320 kg …………… (i)
If the weight of b were 33.33% less then his new weight
= (100 – 33.33)% of b = 2b /3
New average = (100 – 12.5)% of 80 = 87.5% of 80 = 70
Therefore, a +2b /3 + c + d = 70 × 4 = 280 kg ……..(ii)
Equation (i) – (ii)
(B – 2b) /3 = b/3 = 40 kg
B = 120 kg Now, When the weight of A was increased by 25% then his new weight
= 125% of a = 5a / 4
And when the weight of D was increased by 40% then his new weight = 140% of d = 1.4d
Then, the average weight = 80 + 13.75 = 93.75 kg
1.25a + 120 + c + 1.4d = 93.75 × 4 = 375 kg
1.25a + c + 1.4d = 375 – 120 = 255 kg ……………(iii)
When the percentage increase in their weights were swiped
The, 1.4a + 120 + c + 1.25d = (80 + 12.25) × 4 = 369
1.4a + c + 1.25d = 369 – 120 = 249 ………….(iv)
Equation (iii) – (iv)
– 0.15a + 0.15d = 6
d – a = 6/ 0.15= 40 kg
Now, according to the question, a = 60% of d = 0.6d
Therefore, d – 0.6d = 0.4d = 40 kg D =100 kg A = 0.6d = 60 kg B = 120 kg
Now, 60 + 120 + c + 100 = 320
Therefore, c = 320 – 280 = 40 kg
Hence, option A is correct.
Join our Official Telegram Channel HERE
Please subscribe to Our podcast channel HERE
Follow our Twitter Account HERE
Follow our Instagram ID HERE