DAY – 23 : Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2025 : SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Viatina-19, recently seen in the news, is related to: (a) A new variant of the COVID-19 virus (b) The world’s most expensive cow of Indian origin (c) A high-yielding rice variety developed in Brazil (d) A newly discovered asteroid named after a Brazilian researcher Correct Solution: B About Viatina-19: • Viatina-19 has set the Guinness World Record as the most expensive cow ever sold. • Belongs to the Nellore breed, originally known as Ongole, native to Prakasam district, Andhra Pradesh, India. • Key Characteristics: o Adapted to tropical climates, known for disease resistance and heat tolerance. o Possesses unique genetics, not focused on milk or meat yield, but rather for breeding value and aesthetic traits (e.g., white fur, prominent hump). o Weighs around 1,100 kg, nearly double that of average Nelore cows. • Status in India: o The Ongole breed is now dwindling in India, with a sharp population decline from 15 lakh (1944) to 6.34 lakh (2019 Livestock Census). Incorrect Solution: C Both the statements correct. The Science and Engineering Research Board (SERB) is a statutory body established through an Act of Parliament, 2008. The mandate is to supports basic research in emerging areas of Science & Engineering. Promoting basic research in Science and Engineering and to provide financial assistance to persons engaged in such research, academic institutions, research and development laboratories, industrial concerns and other agencies for such research and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto are the primary and distinctive mandate of the Board. SERB aims to build up best management systems which would match the best global practices in the area of promotion and funding of basic research.

#### 1. Question

Viatina-19, recently seen in the news, is related to:

• (a) A new variant of the COVID-19 virus

• (b) The world’s most expensive cow of Indian origin

• (c) A high-yielding rice variety developed in Brazil

• (d) A newly discovered asteroid named after a Brazilian researcher

Solution: B

About Viatina-19: • Viatina-19 has set the Guinness World Record as the most expensive cow ever sold. • Belongs to the Nellore breed, originally known as Ongole, native to Prakasam district, Andhra Pradesh, India. • Key Characteristics: o Adapted to tropical climates, known for disease resistance and heat tolerance. o Possesses unique genetics, not focused on milk or meat yield, but rather for breeding value and aesthetic traits (e.g., white fur, prominent hump). o Weighs around 1,100 kg, nearly double that of average Nelore cows. • Status in India: o The Ongole breed is now dwindling in India, with a sharp population decline from 15 lakh (1944) to 6.34 lakh (2019 Livestock Census).

Solution: C

Both the statements correct.

• The Science and Engineering Research Board (SERB) is a statutory body established through an Act of Parliament, 2008. The mandate is to supports basic research in emerging areas of Science & Engineering.

• Promoting basic research in Science and Engineering and to provide financial assistance to persons engaged in such research, academic institutions, research and development laboratories, industrial concerns and other agencies for such research and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto are the primary and distinctive mandate of the Board.

• SERB aims to build up best management systems which would match the best global practices in the area of promotion and funding of basic research.

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs: (Vitamins/Minerals) (Deficiency Diseases) 1. Cyanocobalamin Anaemia 2. Calciferol Beri-beri 3. Retinol Night blindness 4. Copper Bad teeth How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Types of Vitamins/ Minerals Deficiency Diseases A (Retinol) Night blindness B1 (Thiamine) Beri-beri B2 (Riboflavin) Retarded growth, bad skin Anaemia B12 (Cyanocobalamin) Scurvy, Pernicious Anaemia C (Ascorbic acid) Deficiency Diseases D (Calciferol) Rickets K (Phylloquinone) Excessive bleeding due to injury Calcium Brittle bones, excessive bleeding Phosphorus Bad teeth and bones Iron Anaemia Iodine Goitre, enlarged thyroid gland Copper Low appetite, retarded growth Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Solution: B Types of Vitamins/ Minerals Deficiency Diseases A (Retinol) Night blindness B1 (Thiamine) Beri-beri B2 (Riboflavin) Retarded growth, bad skin Anaemia B12 (Cyanocobalamin) Scurvy, Pernicious Anaemia C (Ascorbic acid) Deficiency Diseases D (Calciferol) Rickets K (Phylloquinone) Excessive bleeding due to injury Calcium Brittle bones, excessive bleeding Phosphorus Bad teeth and bones Iron Anaemia Iodine Goitre, enlarged thyroid gland Copper Low appetite, retarded growth Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following pairs: (Vitamins/Minerals) (Deficiency Diseases) 1. Cyanocobalamin Anaemia 2. Calciferol Beri-beri 3. Retinol Night blindness 4. Copper Bad teeth How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

Types of Vitamins/ Minerals Deficiency Diseases A (Retinol) Night blindness B1 (Thiamine) Beri-beri B2 (Riboflavin) Retarded growth, bad skin Anaemia B12 (Cyanocobalamin) Scurvy, Pernicious Anaemia C (Ascorbic acid) Deficiency Diseases D (Calciferol) Rickets K (Phylloquinone) Excessive bleeding due to injury Calcium Brittle bones, excessive bleeding Phosphorus Bad teeth and bones Iron Anaemia Iodine Goitre, enlarged thyroid gland Copper Low appetite, retarded growth Hence, option (b) is correct.

Solution: B

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Consider the followings: 1. In forensic wildlife 2. For criminal identification 3. To identify mutilated remains 4. To resolve disputes of maternity/paternity 5. In cases of exchange of babies in hospital ward How many of above are the uses of DNA Fingerprinting? (a) Only two (b) Only three (c) Only four (d) All five Correct Solution: D DNA fingerprinting is the process of determining an individual’s deoxyribonucleic acid characteristics. DNA fingerprinting is used in many ways, including:  Criminal identification: DNA fingerprinting is used to match DNA samples from a criminal suspect to a crime scene.  Paternity/ maternity testing: DNA fingerprinting can be used to establish paternity/ maternity in custody and child support litigation.  Genetic research: DNA fingerprinting can be used to identify patterns of DNA sequences that are unique to an individual  Identification of mutilated remains: Establishment of biological relationships for immigration, organ transplantation and property inheritance cases.  Forensic wildlife: DNA can assist in establishing whether an animal was captive-bred or wild-sourced or to differentiate between look-alike species.  Child swap DNA testing: This test uses the STR Profiling method. Due to this test, determining a newborn’s biological parents has become much easier now. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Solution: D DNA fingerprinting is the process of determining an individual’s deoxyribonucleic acid characteristics. DNA fingerprinting is used in many ways, including:  Criminal identification: DNA fingerprinting is used to match DNA samples from a criminal suspect to a crime scene.  Paternity/ maternity testing: DNA fingerprinting can be used to establish paternity/ maternity in custody and child support litigation.  Genetic research: DNA fingerprinting can be used to identify patterns of DNA sequences that are unique to an individual  Identification of mutilated remains: Establishment of biological relationships for immigration, organ transplantation and property inheritance cases.  Forensic wildlife: DNA can assist in establishing whether an animal was captive-bred or wild-sourced or to differentiate between look-alike species.  Child swap DNA testing: This test uses the STR Profiling method. Due to this test, determining a newborn’s biological parents has become much easier now. Hence, option (d) is correct.

#### 3. Question

Consider the followings: 1. In forensic wildlife 2. For criminal identification 3. To identify mutilated remains 4. To resolve disputes of maternity/paternity 5. In cases of exchange of babies in hospital ward How many of above are the uses of DNA Fingerprinting?

• (a) Only two

• (b) Only three

• (c) Only four

• (d) All five

Solution: D

DNA fingerprinting is the process of determining an individual’s deoxyribonucleic acid characteristics. DNA fingerprinting is used in many ways, including:  Criminal identification: DNA fingerprinting is used to match DNA samples from a criminal suspect to a crime scene.  Paternity/ maternity testing: DNA fingerprinting can be used to establish paternity/ maternity in custody and child support litigation.  Genetic research: DNA fingerprinting can be used to identify patterns of DNA sequences that are unique to an individual  Identification of mutilated remains: Establishment of biological relationships for immigration, organ transplantation and property inheritance cases.  Forensic wildlife: DNA can assist in establishing whether an animal was captive-bred or wild-sourced or to differentiate between look-alike species.  Child swap DNA testing: This test uses the STR Profiling method. Due to this test, determining a newborn’s biological parents has become much easier now. Hence, option (d) is correct.

Solution: D

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Which of the followings is the best suitable definition of Bose-Einstein condensate state of matter? (a) It's created when a neutral gas is heated and some of the electrons are freed from the atoms or molecules. (b) It occurs when particles are cooled to near absolute zero. (c) It is a semi rigid structure suspended in a liquid, which we call a “Colloid”. (d) None of these Correct Solution: B In condensed matter physics, a Bose–Einstein condensate is a state of matter that is typically formed when a gas of bosons at very low densities is cooled to temperatures very close to absolute zero. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Solution: B In condensed matter physics, a Bose–Einstein condensate is a state of matter that is typically formed when a gas of bosons at very low densities is cooled to temperatures very close to absolute zero. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 4. Question

Which of the followings is the best suitable definition of Bose-Einstein condensate state of matter?

• (a) It's created when a neutral gas is heated and some of the electrons are freed from the atoms or molecules.

• (b) It occurs when particles are cooled to near absolute zero.

• (c) It is a semi rigid structure suspended in a liquid, which we call a “Colloid”.

• (d) None of these

Solution: B

In condensed matter physics, a Bose–Einstein condensate is a state of matter that is typically formed when a gas of bosons at very low densities is cooled to temperatures very close to absolute zero. Hence, option (b) is correct.

Solution: B

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements with reference to Golden rice: 1. It is a genetically modified rice variety consumed to counter vitamin A deficiency. 2. Its production involves gene transfer from a bacterium. 3. The endosperm of Golden Rice is yellow due to the accumulation of beta-carotene and xanthophylls. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C Golden rice is a genetically modified rice that contains beta-carotene, a plant pigment that the body converts into vitamin A. (Hence, statement 1 is correct.) Golden rice is produced by transferring genes from a bacterium into rice. The beta-carotene is produced through genetic engineering in the edible parts of the rice. The endosperm of Golden Rice is yellow due to the accumulation of beta-carotene and xanthophylls. Hence, statement 2 and statement 3 both are correct. Incorrect Solution: C Golden rice is a genetically modified rice that contains beta-carotene, a plant pigment that the body converts into vitamin A. (Hence, statement 1 is correct.) Golden rice is produced by transferring genes from a bacterium into rice. The beta-carotene is produced through genetic engineering in the edible parts of the rice. The endosperm of Golden Rice is yellow due to the accumulation of beta-carotene and xanthophylls. Hence, statement 2 and statement 3 both are correct.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements with reference to Golden rice: 1. It is a genetically modified rice variety consumed to counter vitamin A deficiency. 2. Its production involves gene transfer from a bacterium. 3. The endosperm of Golden Rice is yellow due to the accumulation of beta-carotene and xanthophylls. How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

Golden rice is a genetically modified rice that contains beta-carotene, a plant pigment that the body converts into vitamin A. (Hence, statement 1 is correct.) Golden rice is produced by transferring genes from a bacterium into rice. The beta-carotene is produced through genetic engineering in the edible parts of the rice. The endosperm of Golden Rice is yellow due to the accumulation of beta-carotene and xanthophylls. Hence, statement 2 and statement 3 both are correct.

Solution: C

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points With reference to Nanomicelles, consider the following statements: 1. They have a hydrophilic outer shell and hydrophobic CORE. 2. They can help in cancer treatment through overcoming drug resistance. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C • Nanomicelles are typically spherical, but can sometimes take other shapes, such as cylinders and ellipsoids. The small-size and shape of nanomicelles is only possible due to the molecular geometry of the particle. • The shapes formed also depend on the ionic strength, surfactant concentration, and pH strength of the solutions they are placed in. • Nanomicelles are ultramicroscopic structures used in the treatment of disease. They have a hydrophilic outer shell and a hydrophobic core, making them capable of delivering poorly water-soluble drugs and protecting drug molecules. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) • Nanomicelles are also hypothesized to improve cancer treatment through overcoming drug resistance, improving anti-cancer drug efficacy, and reducing drug toxicity. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) Incorrect Solution: C • Nanomicelles are typically spherical, but can sometimes take other shapes, such as cylinders and ellipsoids. The small-size and shape of nanomicelles is only possible due to the molecular geometry of the particle. • The shapes formed also depend on the ionic strength, surfactant concentration, and pH strength of the solutions they are placed in. • Nanomicelles are ultramicroscopic structures used in the treatment of disease. They have a hydrophilic outer shell and a hydrophobic core, making them capable of delivering poorly water-soluble drugs and protecting drug molecules. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) • Nanomicelles are also hypothesized to improve cancer treatment through overcoming drug resistance, improving anti-cancer drug efficacy, and reducing drug toxicity. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

#### 6. Question

With reference to Nanomicelles, consider the following statements: 1. They have a hydrophilic outer shell and hydrophobic CORE. 2. They can help in cancer treatment through overcoming drug resistance. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

• Nanomicelles are typically spherical, but can sometimes take other shapes, such as cylinders and ellipsoids. The small-size and shape of nanomicelles is only possible due to the molecular geometry of the particle. • The shapes formed also depend on the ionic strength, surfactant concentration, and pH strength of the solutions they are placed in. • Nanomicelles are ultramicroscopic structures used in the treatment of disease. They have a hydrophilic outer shell and a hydrophobic core, making them capable of delivering poorly water-soluble drugs and protecting drug molecules. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) • Nanomicelles are also hypothesized to improve cancer treatment through overcoming drug resistance, improving anti-cancer drug efficacy, and reducing drug toxicity. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

Solution: C

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points With reference to Satellite Internet, consider the following statements: 1. It can offer speeds similar to cable internet. 2. It offers lower latency compared to cable and fibre internet. 3. Satellite transmission is not affected by weather conditions. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Satellite internet is wireless internet beamed down from satellites orbiting the Earth. It’s a lot different from land-based internet services like cable or DSL, which transmit data through wires running underground. Some satellite internet plans can even give you internet speeds similar to cable internet. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Satellite internet isn’t capable of offering lower latency compared to cable or fiber connections, as the signal travels a longer distance. This causes a slight delay between giving a command and getting the output. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Satellite Internet works by making use of radio waves. Like TV and radio broadcasts, the energy required to transmit data communications can be absorbed by water molecules in the air. As such, heavy rain or a thunderstorm could result in a weaker satellite Internet signal. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.) Incorrect Solution: A Satellite internet is wireless internet beamed down from satellites orbiting the Earth. It’s a lot different from land-based internet services like cable or DSL, which transmit data through wires running underground. Some satellite internet plans can even give you internet speeds similar to cable internet. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Satellite internet isn’t capable of offering lower latency compared to cable or fiber connections, as the signal travels a longer distance. This causes a slight delay between giving a command and getting the output. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Satellite Internet works by making use of radio waves. Like TV and radio broadcasts, the energy required to transmit data communications can be absorbed by water molecules in the air. As such, heavy rain or a thunderstorm could result in a weaker satellite Internet signal. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.)

#### 7. Question

With reference to Satellite Internet, consider the following statements: 1. It can offer speeds similar to cable internet. 2. It offers lower latency compared to cable and fibre internet. 3. Satellite transmission is not affected by weather conditions. How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

Satellite internet is wireless internet beamed down from satellites orbiting the Earth. It’s a lot different from land-based internet services like cable or DSL, which transmit data through wires running underground. Some satellite internet plans can even give you internet speeds similar to cable internet.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Satellite internet isn’t capable of offering lower latency compared to cable or fiber connections, as the signal travels a longer distance. This causes a slight delay between giving a command and getting the output.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Satellite Internet works by making use of radio waves. Like TV and radio broadcasts, the energy required to transmit data communications can be absorbed by water molecules in the air. As such, heavy rain or a thunderstorm could result in a weaker satellite Internet signal. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.)

Solution: A

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Molniya orbit is primarily used for: (a) Providing internet services in equatorial regions (b) Continuous coverage of high-latitude regions (c) Global navigation satellite systems like GPS (d) Observing the Sun’s activity Correct Solution: B Molniya orbits are highly elliptical orbits with a high inclination (around 63.4 degrees). • This specific inclination and high eccentricity allow a satellite in a Molniya orbit to spend a significant amount of its orbital period at its apogee (the highest point in its orbit), which is positioned over high-latitude regions. • This long dwell time at high latitudes provides near-continuous coverage of these areas, which would be difficult to achieve with geostationary satellites that are positioned over the equator. • Providing internet services in equatorial regions: Geostationary orbits are much better suited for continuous coverage of equatorial regions. • Global navigation satellite systems like GPS: GPS uses Medium Earth Orbit (MEO) constellations with multiple satellites to provide global coverage. • Observing the Sun’s activity: Satellites designed for solar observation are typically placed in orbits that allow for a continuous or near-continuous view of the Sun, such as orbits around the L1 Lagrange point. Incorrect Solution: B Molniya orbits are highly elliptical orbits with a high inclination (around 63.4 degrees). • This specific inclination and high eccentricity allow a satellite in a Molniya orbit to spend a significant amount of its orbital period at its apogee (the highest point in its orbit), which is positioned over high-latitude regions. • This long dwell time at high latitudes provides near-continuous coverage of these areas, which would be difficult to achieve with geostationary satellites that are positioned over the equator. • Providing internet services in equatorial regions: Geostationary orbits are much better suited for continuous coverage of equatorial regions. • Global navigation satellite systems like GPS: GPS uses Medium Earth Orbit (MEO) constellations with multiple satellites to provide global coverage. • Observing the Sun’s activity: Satellites designed for solar observation are typically placed in orbits that allow for a continuous or near-continuous view of the Sun, such as orbits around the L1 Lagrange point.

#### 8. Question

Molniya orbit is primarily used for:

• (a) Providing internet services in equatorial regions

• (b) Continuous coverage of high-latitude regions

• (c) Global navigation satellite systems like GPS

• (d) Observing the Sun’s activity

Solution: B

Molniya orbits are highly elliptical orbits with a high inclination (around 63.4 degrees). • This specific inclination and high eccentricity allow a satellite in a Molniya orbit to spend a significant amount of its orbital period at its apogee (the highest point in its orbit), which is positioned over high-latitude regions. • This long dwell time at high latitudes provides near-continuous coverage of these areas, which would be difficult to achieve with geostationary satellites that are positioned over the equator. • Providing internet services in equatorial regions: Geostationary orbits are much better suited for continuous coverage of equatorial regions. • Global navigation satellite systems like GPS: GPS uses Medium Earth Orbit (MEO) constellations with multiple satellites to provide global coverage. • Observing the Sun’s activity: Satellites designed for solar observation are typically placed in orbits that allow for a continuous or near-continuous view of the Sun, such as orbits around the L1 Lagrange point.

Solution: B

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Blockchains: 1. They are a new data structure that is secure, cryptography-based, and distributed across a network. 2. Blockchains allows the transfer of digital goods without the need for centralized authorization of transactions. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C  They are a new data structure that is secure, cryptography-based, and distributed across a network. The technology supports cryptocurrencies such as Bitcoin, and the transfer of any data or digital asset. (Hence, statement 1 is correct.)  Spearheaded by Bitcoin, blockchains achieve consensus among distributed nodes, allowing the transfer of digital goods without the need for centralized authorisation of transactions. (Hence, statement 2 is correct.) Incorrect Solution: C  They are a new data structure that is secure, cryptography-based, and distributed across a network. The technology supports cryptocurrencies such as Bitcoin, and the transfer of any data or digital asset. (Hence, statement 1 is correct.)  Spearheaded by Bitcoin, blockchains achieve consensus among distributed nodes, allowing the transfer of digital goods without the need for centralized authorisation of transactions. (Hence, statement 2 is correct.)

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Blockchains: 1. They are a new data structure that is secure, cryptography-based, and distributed across a network. 2. Blockchains allows the transfer of digital goods without the need for centralized authorization of transactions. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

 They are a new data structure that is secure, cryptography-based, and distributed across a network. The technology supports cryptocurrencies such as Bitcoin, and the transfer of any data or digital asset. (Hence, statement 1 is correct.)  Spearheaded by Bitcoin, blockchains achieve consensus among distributed nodes, allowing the transfer of digital goods without the need for centralized authorisation of transactions. (Hence, statement 2 is correct.)

Solution: C

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Consider the followings: 1. Image recognition 2. Medical research 3. Aerospace and Defense 4. Financial Services 5. Law Enforcement How many of the above are the applications of Machine Learning? (a) Only two (b) Only three (c) Only four (d) All five Correct Solution: D Some Applications of Machine Learning:  Image Recognition: It classifies images, clusters them by similarities, and performs object recognition within scenes. For example, ViSENZE has developed commercial applications that can empower image recognition and tagging using their deep learning networks.  Law Enforcement: Deep learning algorithms are important in analyzing transactional data to detect patterns indicative of fraudulent or criminal activity. For example, speech recognition like Siri or Alexa and computer vision technologies  Financial Services: Financial institutions leverage predictive analytics powered by deep learning to inform algorithmic trading, assess business risks for loan approvals, detect fraud, and manage credit and investment portfolios.  Healthcare: Deep learning has found extensive applications in healthcare, particularly in medical imaging detecting disease from X-ray images and classifying them into several disease types in radiology. It aids specialists in interpreting a large volume of images in less time, thereby improving diagnostic accuracy.  Medical Research: Cancer researchers are using deep learning to automatically detect cancer cells. Teams at UCLA built an advanced microscope that yields a high-dimensional data set used to train a deep learning application to accurately identify cancer cells.  Aerospace and Defense: Deep learning is used to identify objects from satellites that locate areas of interest, and identify safe or unsafe zones for troops. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Solution: D Some Applications of Machine Learning:  Image Recognition: It classifies images, clusters them by similarities, and performs object recognition within scenes. For example, ViSENZE has developed commercial applications that can empower image recognition and tagging using their deep learning networks.  Law Enforcement: Deep learning algorithms are important in analyzing transactional data to detect patterns indicative of fraudulent or criminal activity. For example, speech recognition like Siri or Alexa and computer vision technologies  Financial Services: Financial institutions leverage predictive analytics powered by deep learning to inform algorithmic trading, assess business risks for loan approvals, detect fraud, and manage credit and investment portfolios.  Healthcare: Deep learning has found extensive applications in healthcare, particularly in medical imaging detecting disease from X-ray images and classifying them into several disease types in radiology. It aids specialists in interpreting a large volume of images in less time, thereby improving diagnostic accuracy.  Medical Research: Cancer researchers are using deep learning to automatically detect cancer cells. Teams at UCLA built an advanced microscope that yields a high-dimensional data set used to train a deep learning application to accurately identify cancer cells.  Aerospace and Defense: Deep learning is used to identify objects from satellites that locate areas of interest, and identify safe or unsafe zones for troops. Hence, option (d) is correct.

#### 10. Question

Consider the followings: 1. Image recognition 2. Medical research 3. Aerospace and Defense 4. Financial Services 5. Law Enforcement How many of the above are the applications of Machine Learning?

• (a) Only two

• (b) Only three

• (c) Only four

• (d) All five

Solution: D

Some Applications of Machine Learning:  Image Recognition: It classifies images, clusters them by similarities, and performs object recognition within scenes. For example, ViSENZE has developed commercial applications that can empower image recognition and tagging using their deep learning networks.  Law Enforcement: Deep learning algorithms are important in analyzing transactional data to detect patterns indicative of fraudulent or criminal activity. For example, speech recognition like Siri or Alexa and computer vision technologies  Financial Services: Financial institutions leverage predictive analytics powered by deep learning to inform algorithmic trading, assess business risks for loan approvals, detect fraud, and manage credit and investment portfolios.  Healthcare: Deep learning has found extensive applications in healthcare, particularly in medical imaging detecting disease from X-ray images and classifying them into several disease types in radiology. It aids specialists in interpreting a large volume of images in less time, thereby improving diagnostic accuracy.  Medical Research: Cancer researchers are using deep learning to automatically detect cancer cells. Teams at UCLA built an advanced microscope that yields a high-dimensional data set used to train a deep learning application to accurately identify cancer cells.  Aerospace and Defense: Deep learning is used to identify objects from satellites that locate areas of interest, and identify safe or unsafe zones for troops.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

Solution: D

Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Artificial Solar Eclipse (ASE): 1. ASE can be created using two satellites, acting as occulter and coronograph respectively. 2. ASE helps to study coronal mass ejections and predict geomagnetic storms. 3. The Proba-3 Mission involves formation of ASE. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C • An artificial Solar eclipse mimics the natural phenomenon where the Moon blocks sunlight allowing detailed observation of the sun’s corona. • It can be created by using two satellites aligned to block the sun’s light, creating a controlled shadow for scientific study • This is helpful to study Sun’s corona, coronal mass injections as well as predict geomagnetic storms and disruptions to satellite and Earth based systems. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct • The Proba – 3 mission or the Project for Onboard Autonomy has been launched by European Space Agency and ISRO. • It is led by European Space Agency and has been launched by ISRO under its commercial arm New Space India Limited. • The mission includes two spacecrafts, which will fly in formation with one satellite acting as occulter and the other as coronograph, the creating an artificial solar eclipse. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: C • An artificial Solar eclipse mimics the natural phenomenon where the Moon blocks sunlight allowing detailed observation of the sun’s corona. • It can be created by using two satellites aligned to block the sun’s light, creating a controlled shadow for scientific study • This is helpful to study Sun’s corona, coronal mass injections as well as predict geomagnetic storms and disruptions to satellite and Earth based systems. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct • The Proba – 3 mission or the Project for Onboard Autonomy has been launched by European Space Agency and ISRO. • It is led by European Space Agency and has been launched by ISRO under its commercial arm New Space India Limited. • The mission includes two spacecrafts, which will fly in formation with one satellite acting as occulter and the other as coronograph, the creating an artificial solar eclipse. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 11. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Artificial Solar Eclipse (ASE): 1. ASE can be created using two satellites, acting as occulter and coronograph respectively. 2. ASE helps to study coronal mass ejections and predict geomagnetic storms. 3. The Proba-3 Mission involves formation of ASE. How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C • An artificial Solar eclipse mimics the natural phenomenon where the Moon blocks sunlight allowing detailed observation of the sun’s corona. • It can be created by using two satellites aligned to block the sun’s light, creating a controlled shadow for scientific study • This is helpful to study Sun’s corona, coronal mass injections as well as predict geomagnetic storms and disruptions to satellite and Earth based systems. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct • The Proba – 3 mission or the Project for Onboard Autonomy has been launched by European Space Agency and ISRO. • It is led by European Space Agency and has been launched by ISRO under its commercial arm New Space India Limited. • The mission includes two spacecrafts, which will fly in formation with one satellite acting as occulter and the other as coronograph, the creating an artificial solar eclipse. Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following: 1. Millimetre waves 2. Particle beams 3. Germ aerosol sprays How many of the above are categorised as Directed Energy Weapons? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Directed Energy Weapons use concentrated energy from electromagnetic or particle Technology rather than kinetic energy to degrade or destroy targets. Most common DEWs include: • High Energy lasers that have significant advantages over conventional munitions such as the ability to engage targets at the speed of light and with pinpoint accuracy. • High power microwave weapons have a shorter range than HELs and their beam degrades over long distances; but they are not affected by weather and can impact target over a wide area. • Millimetre wave directed energy has various non lethal military applications including crowd control and area denial • Particle beams are weapons that have strong penetration ability, high speed, high energy and can operate in all weather conditions. Hence options 1 and 2 are correct • Germ Aerosol spray is a form of biological weapon, also known as bioweapon. • Bioweapons include lethal agents like Anthrax, plague, smallpox, botulinum and other harmful viruses along with toxins or incapacitating agents that harm population at large. Hence option 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: B Directed Energy Weapons use concentrated energy from electromagnetic or particle Technology rather than kinetic energy to degrade or destroy targets. Most common DEWs include: • High Energy lasers that have significant advantages over conventional munitions such as the ability to engage targets at the speed of light and with pinpoint accuracy. • High power microwave weapons have a shorter range than HELs and their beam degrades over long distances; but they are not affected by weather and can impact target over a wide area. • Millimetre wave directed energy has various non lethal military applications including crowd control and area denial • Particle beams are weapons that have strong penetration ability, high speed, high energy and can operate in all weather conditions. Hence options 1 and 2 are correct • Germ Aerosol spray is a form of biological weapon, also known as bioweapon. • Bioweapons include lethal agents like Anthrax, plague, smallpox, botulinum and other harmful viruses along with toxins or incapacitating agents that harm population at large. Hence option 3 is incorrect

#### 12. Question

Consider the following: 1. Millimetre waves 2. Particle beams 3. Germ aerosol sprays How many of the above are categorised as Directed Energy Weapons?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Directed Energy Weapons use concentrated energy from electromagnetic or particle Technology rather than kinetic energy to degrade or destroy targets. Most common DEWs include: • High Energy lasers that have significant advantages over conventional munitions such as the ability to engage targets at the speed of light and with pinpoint accuracy. • High power microwave weapons have a shorter range than HELs and their beam degrades over long distances; but they are not affected by weather and can impact target over a wide area. • Millimetre wave directed energy has various non lethal military applications including crowd control and area denial • Particle beams are weapons that have strong penetration ability, high speed, high energy and can operate in all weather conditions. Hence options 1 and 2 are correct • Germ Aerosol spray is a form of biological weapon, also known as bioweapon. • Bioweapons include lethal agents like Anthrax, plague, smallpox, botulinum and other harmful viruses along with toxins or incapacitating agents that harm population at large. Hence option 3 is incorrect

Solution: B

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement – I: Microsatellite DNA is used for DNA fingerprinting. Statement – II: Microsatellite DNA is a highly repetitive DNA sequence whose length vary between individuals. Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct Correct Solution: A • Microsatellite DNA refers to a short segment of DNA usually one to Six or more base pairs in length that is repeated multiple times in succession at a particular genomic location • These DNA sequences are typically non coding; the number of repeated segments within a microsatellite sequence often varies among people which makes them useful as polymorphic markers for studying inheritance patterns in families or creating a DNA fingerprint from crime scene samples. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 correctly explains statement 1 Incorrect Solution: A • Microsatellite DNA refers to a short segment of DNA usually one to Six or more base pairs in length that is repeated multiple times in succession at a particular genomic location • These DNA sequences are typically non coding; the number of repeated segments within a microsatellite sequence often varies among people which makes them useful as polymorphic markers for studying inheritance patterns in families or creating a DNA fingerprint from crime scene samples. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 correctly explains statement 1

#### 13. Question

Consider the following statements: Statement – I: Microsatellite DNA is used for DNA fingerprinting. Statement – II: Microsatellite DNA is a highly repetitive DNA sequence whose length vary between individuals. Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I

• (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I

• (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect

• (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct

Solution: A

• Microsatellite DNA refers to a short segment of DNA usually one to Six or more base pairs in length that is repeated multiple times in succession at a particular genomic location • These DNA sequences are typically non coding; the number of repeated segments within a microsatellite sequence often varies among people which makes them useful as polymorphic markers for studying inheritance patterns in families or creating a DNA fingerprint from crime scene samples. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 correctly explains statement 1

Solution: A

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: 1. Sucralose is a natural sweetener obtained from leaves of Stevia plant. 2. Replacement of sucrose with Sucralose can increase glucose levels in blood. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: D • Sucralose is not a natural sweetener. • It is a substituted disaccharide; a non nutritive sweetner that is synthesized by selective chlorination of Sucrose at three of the primary hydroxyl groups involving inversion of configuration at carbon-4 from the gluco- to the galactoanalogue. Hence statement 1 is incorrect • A recent study in India examined the effects of replacing sucrose or table sugar with the artificial sweetner Sucralose in beverages; it showed no adverse impact on glucose or Hb1Ac levels, and infact, indicated a slight improvement in body weight, waist circumference and body mass index. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: D • Sucralose is not a natural sweetener. • It is a substituted disaccharide; a non nutritive sweetner that is synthesized by selective chlorination of Sucrose at three of the primary hydroxyl groups involving inversion of configuration at carbon-4 from the gluco- to the galactoanalogue. Hence statement 1 is incorrect • A recent study in India examined the effects of replacing sucrose or table sugar with the artificial sweetner Sucralose in beverages; it showed no adverse impact on glucose or Hb1Ac levels, and infact, indicated a slight improvement in body weight, waist circumference and body mass index. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

#### 14. Question

Consider the following statements: 1. Sucralose is a natural sweetener obtained from leaves of Stevia plant. 2. Replacement of sucrose with Sucralose can increase glucose levels in blood. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: D

• Sucralose is not a natural sweetener. • It is a substituted disaccharide; a non nutritive sweetner that is synthesized by selective chlorination of Sucrose at three of the primary hydroxyl groups involving inversion of configuration at carbon-4 from the gluco- to the galactoanalogue. Hence statement 1 is incorrect • A recent study in India examined the effects of replacing sucrose or table sugar with the artificial sweetner Sucralose in beverages; it showed no adverse impact on glucose or Hb1Ac levels, and infact, indicated a slight improvement in body weight, waist circumference and body mass index. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Solution: D

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Axiom-4 Mission is related to: (a) Detection of solar flares (b) Promotion of space tourism in Low Earth orbit (c) Exploration to the North Pole of the Moon (d) Survey of the universe in search of exoplanets Correct Solution: B • Axiom-4 Mission is a private space flight to the International Space station operated by Axiom Space (an US based space infrastructure development company) using the Space Crew Dragon spacecraft • The Space Crew dris a reusable spacecraft that carries astronauts to and from the ISS • It is the fourth flight in collaboration with NASA, earlier being Axiom Missions 1, 2 and 3 • The Axiom Missions focus on enabling commercial activities like space tourism in low Earth orbits. • It aims to demonstrate feasibility of commercial Space stations as platforms for business and research. Hence option B is correct Incorrect Solution: B • Axiom-4 Mission is a private space flight to the International Space station operated by Axiom Space (an US based space infrastructure development company) using the Space Crew Dragon spacecraft • The Space Crew dris a reusable spacecraft that carries astronauts to and from the ISS • It is the fourth flight in collaboration with NASA, earlier being Axiom Missions 1, 2 and 3 • The Axiom Missions focus on enabling commercial activities like space tourism in low Earth orbits. • It aims to demonstrate feasibility of commercial Space stations as platforms for business and research. Hence option B is correct

#### 15. Question

Axiom-4 Mission is related to:

• (a) Detection of solar flares

• (b) Promotion of space tourism in Low Earth orbit

• (c) Exploration to the North Pole of the Moon

• (d) Survey of the universe in search of exoplanets

Solution: B

• Axiom-4 Mission is a private space flight to the International Space station operated by Axiom Space (an US based space infrastructure development company) using the Space Crew Dragon spacecraft • The Space Crew dris a reusable spacecraft that carries astronauts to and from the ISS • It is the fourth flight in collaboration with NASA, earlier being Axiom Missions 1, 2 and 3 • The Axiom Missions focus on enabling commercial activities like space tourism in low Earth orbits. • It aims to demonstrate feasibility of commercial Space stations as platforms for business and research. Hence option B is correct

Solution: B

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: 1. Electric Propulsion Technology (EPR) uses solar powered ionized gases for steering satellites. 2. EPT leads to reduction in satellite mass. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C • To make its satellites lighter in future, ISRO has planned to launch its home-grown electric propulsion led spacecraft, Technology Demonstrator Satellite. • The Electric Propulsion Technology aims to reduce weight of satellites by substituting chemical fuel with electric propulsion allowing for a more efficient journey to the geostationary orbit • The satellites will not be fuelled by any chemical fuel but by solar powered ionized gases which will reduce reliance on chemical fuels • This technology will cut down satellite mass drastically by minimising fuel need -a four-tonne satellite can be reduced to around two tonnes. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct Incorrect Solution: C • To make its satellites lighter in future, ISRO has planned to launch its home-grown electric propulsion led spacecraft, Technology Demonstrator Satellite. • The Electric Propulsion Technology aims to reduce weight of satellites by substituting chemical fuel with electric propulsion allowing for a more efficient journey to the geostationary orbit • The satellites will not be fuelled by any chemical fuel but by solar powered ionized gases which will reduce reliance on chemical fuels • This technology will cut down satellite mass drastically by minimising fuel need -a four-tonne satellite can be reduced to around two tonnes. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

#### 16. Question

Consider the following statements: 1. Electric Propulsion Technology (EPR) uses solar powered ionized gases for steering satellites. 2. EPT leads to reduction in satellite mass. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

• To make its satellites lighter in future, ISRO has planned to launch its home-grown electric propulsion led spacecraft, Technology Demonstrator Satellite. • The Electric Propulsion Technology aims to reduce weight of satellites by substituting chemical fuel with electric propulsion allowing for a more efficient journey to the geostationary orbit • The satellites will not be fuelled by any chemical fuel but by solar powered ionized gases which will reduce reliance on chemical fuels • This technology will cut down satellite mass drastically by minimising fuel need -a four-tonne satellite can be reduced to around two tonnes. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

Solution: C

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes a particular Malware as ‘a software designed to secretly gather information about a user and transmit it to a third party without user consent, leading to privacy violations? (a) Ransomware (b) Trojan (c) Spyware (d) Cryptojacking Correct Solution: C • Ransomware is a type of malware that encryps a victim’s data or locks their device, demanding a ransom for decryption key or to regain access. • Trojans are types of Malwares that disguise themselves as legitimate softwares to trick users into installing them. • Spyware is a malicious software designed to secretly gather information about a user or organisation and send it to a third party without the former’s consent; it leads to violation of privacy and carries security risks. This type of software once installed, monitors a user’s activity, collects data and transmits it to a third party without awareness of the user. • Cryptojacking is a type of Cyber crime that involves the unauthorised use of people’s devices including computers, smartphones, tablets, etc., by cyber criminals to mine cryptocurrency. Hence option C is correct Incorrect Solution: C • Ransomware is a type of malware that encryps a victim’s data or locks their device, demanding a ransom for decryption key or to regain access. • Trojans are types of Malwares that disguise themselves as legitimate softwares to trick users into installing them. • Spyware is a malicious software designed to secretly gather information about a user or organisation and send it to a third party without the former’s consent; it leads to violation of privacy and carries security risks. This type of software once installed, monitors a user’s activity, collects data and transmits it to a third party without awareness of the user. • Cryptojacking is a type of Cyber crime that involves the unauthorised use of people’s devices including computers, smartphones, tablets, etc., by cyber criminals to mine cryptocurrency. Hence option C is correct

#### 17. Question

Which of the following best describes a particular Malware as ‘a software designed to secretly gather information about a user and transmit it to a third party without user consent, leading to privacy violations?

• (a) Ransomware

• (b) Trojan

• (c) Spyware

• (d) Cryptojacking

Solution: C

• Ransomware is a type of malware that encryps a victim’s data or locks their device, demanding a ransom for decryption key or to regain access. • Trojans are types of Malwares that disguise themselves as legitimate softwares to trick users into installing them. • Spyware is a malicious software designed to secretly gather information about a user or organisation and send it to a third party without the former’s consent; it leads to violation of privacy and carries security risks. This type of software once installed, monitors a user’s activity, collects data and transmits it to a third party without awareness of the user. • Cryptojacking is a type of Cyber crime that involves the unauthorised use of people’s devices including computers, smartphones, tablets, etc., by cyber criminals to mine cryptocurrency. Hence option C is correct

Solution: C

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Regarding Project NAMAN, which of the following statements is correct? (a) It is aimed to implement System for Pension Administration Raksha (SPARSH) digital pension system for army veterans (b) It is an initiative to support women Technologists for research in Basic and Applied sciences (c) A project to clean Ganga in its lower course to tackle diseases in adjoining States (d) It will facilitate home voting for senior citizens above 85 years of age and persons with disabilities Correct Solution: A • The Indian Army recently launched the first phase of project NAMAN which is designed to provide dedicated support and services to Defence pensioners, veterans and their families • The project is centred around the implementation of SPARSH (System for Pension Administration Raksha) digital pension system which streamlines pension related processes for defence pensioners addressing the critical need for accessible facilitation point for veterans and Next- of-Kin across the country. • The project ensures that the veterans and their families receive the care and support they deserve; it will extend these essential services to the entire resident population of military stations and surrounding locations. • The project involves the establishment of reception and facilitation centres enabled through a tripartite MoU between the Indian Army Directorate of Army Veterans, Common Service Centre e-governance India Limited and HDFC Bank Limited. • These common service centres are dedicated to Army veterans, pensioners, war widows. Hence option A is correct Incorrect Solution: A • The Indian Army recently launched the first phase of project NAMAN which is designed to provide dedicated support and services to Defence pensioners, veterans and their families • The project is centred around the implementation of SPARSH (System for Pension Administration Raksha) digital pension system which streamlines pension related processes for defence pensioners addressing the critical need for accessible facilitation point for veterans and Next- of-Kin across the country. • The project ensures that the veterans and their families receive the care and support they deserve; it will extend these essential services to the entire resident population of military stations and surrounding locations. • The project involves the establishment of reception and facilitation centres enabled through a tripartite MoU between the Indian Army Directorate of Army Veterans, Common Service Centre e-governance India Limited and HDFC Bank Limited. • These common service centres are dedicated to Army veterans, pensioners, war widows. Hence option A is correct

#### 18. Question

Regarding Project NAMAN, which of the following statements is correct?

• (a) It is aimed to implement System for Pension Administration Raksha (SPARSH) digital pension system for army veterans

• (b) It is an initiative to support women Technologists for research in Basic and Applied sciences

• (c) A project to clean Ganga in its lower course to tackle diseases in adjoining States

• (d) It will facilitate home voting for senior citizens above 85 years of age and persons with disabilities

Solution: A

• The Indian Army recently launched the first phase of project NAMAN which is designed to provide dedicated support and services to Defence pensioners, veterans and their families • The project is centred around the implementation of SPARSH (System for Pension Administration Raksha) digital pension system which streamlines pension related processes for defence pensioners addressing the critical need for accessible facilitation point for veterans and Next- of-Kin across the country. • The project ensures that the veterans and their families receive the care and support they deserve; it will extend these essential services to the entire resident population of military stations and surrounding locations. • The project involves the establishment of reception and facilitation centres enabled through a tripartite MoU between the Indian Army Directorate of Army Veterans, Common Service Centre e-governance India Limited and HDFC Bank Limited. • These common service centres are dedicated to Army veterans, pensioners, war widows. Hence option A is correct

Solution: A

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: 1. Biofilms are polysaccharide-rich matrices mainly formed by bacteria, where microbes embed in a self-produced extracellular polymeric substance (EPS). 2. Biofilms offer antibiotic resistivity to many microbial species. 3. Biofilms can be formed only on living tissues. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B • A biofilm is a syntrophic community of microorganisms in which cells stick to each other and often also to a surface. • Biofilms are communities of microorganisms (bacteria, archaea, fungi, algae, and protozoa) that attach to surfaces and are embedded in a matrix of extracellular polymeric substances (EPS). • The biofilm matrix is composed of extracellular polymeric substances which are secreted by the microorganisms and provides structural integrity and protection. • Microbial cells are attached to the surface but also to each other through the EPS Matrix which acts like a glue holding the biofilm together. • The EPS matrix is made up of polysaccharides, protein, nucleic acid and Lipids. • The Matrix provides structural stability and protection against environmental stresses. • The biofilms act as thick barrier limiting the entry of drugs and helping the microorganisms become resistant to antibiotics. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct • Biofilms are ubiquitous, they can form on various surfaces including living tissues as well as non-living surfaces like medical devices and industrial infrastructure. Hence statement 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: B • A biofilm is a syntrophic community of microorganisms in which cells stick to each other and often also to a surface. • Biofilms are communities of microorganisms (bacteria, archaea, fungi, algae, and protozoa) that attach to surfaces and are embedded in a matrix of extracellular polymeric substances (EPS). • The biofilm matrix is composed of extracellular polymeric substances which are secreted by the microorganisms and provides structural integrity and protection. • Microbial cells are attached to the surface but also to each other through the EPS Matrix which acts like a glue holding the biofilm together. • The EPS matrix is made up of polysaccharides, protein, nucleic acid and Lipids. • The Matrix provides structural stability and protection against environmental stresses. • The biofilms act as thick barrier limiting the entry of drugs and helping the microorganisms become resistant to antibiotics. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct • Biofilms are ubiquitous, they can form on various surfaces including living tissues as well as non-living surfaces like medical devices and industrial infrastructure. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

#### 19. Question

Consider the following statements: 1. Biofilms are polysaccharide-rich matrices mainly formed by bacteria, where microbes embed in a self-produced extracellular polymeric substance (EPS). 2. Biofilms offer antibiotic resistivity to many microbial species. 3. Biofilms can be formed only on living tissues. How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• A biofilm is a syntrophic community of microorganisms in which cells stick to each other and often also to a surface. • Biofilms are communities of microorganisms (bacteria, archaea, fungi, algae, and protozoa) that attach to surfaces and are embedded in a matrix of extracellular polymeric substances (EPS). • The biofilm matrix is composed of extracellular polymeric substances which are secreted by the microorganisms and provides structural integrity and protection. • Microbial cells are attached to the surface but also to each other through the EPS Matrix which acts like a glue holding the biofilm together. • The EPS matrix is made up of polysaccharides, protein, nucleic acid and Lipids. • The Matrix provides structural stability and protection against environmental stresses. • The biofilms act as thick barrier limiting the entry of drugs and helping the microorganisms become resistant to antibiotics. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct • Biofilms are ubiquitous, they can form on various surfaces including living tissues as well as non-living surfaces like medical devices and industrial infrastructure. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution: B

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes the term Thermobaric weapon? (a) A bomb that decreases temperature to cryogenic levels and increases pressure over a targeted area (b) A weapon that on bursting, releases carcinogenic Persistent Organic pollutants on a huge scale over a small area (c) A weapon that uses nuclear fission reaction to cause the damage (d) A weapon that uses atmospheric oxygen to fuel an explosion Correct Solution: D • Thermobaric Weapons are the ones that use oxygen from the atmosphere to fuel an explosion. • A thermobaric bomb or vacuum aerosol bomb consists of a fuel container with two separate explosive charges; • These can be launched as a rocket or dropped as a bomb from aircraft • When it hits its target, the first explosive charge opens the container and widely scatters fuel mixture as a cloud; this cloud can penetrate any buildings, openings or defences that are not totally sealed • A second charge then detonates the cloud resulting in a huge fire Ball, a massive blast wave and a vacuum which sucks up all the surrounding oxygen. • It can destroy buildings, equipments and kill or injure people. Hence option D is correct Incorrect Solution: D • Thermobaric Weapons are the ones that use oxygen from the atmosphere to fuel an explosion. • A thermobaric bomb or vacuum aerosol bomb consists of a fuel container with two separate explosive charges; • These can be launched as a rocket or dropped as a bomb from aircraft • When it hits its target, the first explosive charge opens the container and widely scatters fuel mixture as a cloud; this cloud can penetrate any buildings, openings or defences that are not totally sealed • A second charge then detonates the cloud resulting in a huge fire Ball, a massive blast wave and a vacuum which sucks up all the surrounding oxygen. • It can destroy buildings, equipments and kill or injure people. Hence option D is correct

#### 20. Question

Which of the following best describes the term Thermobaric weapon?

• (a) A bomb that decreases temperature to cryogenic levels and increases pressure over a targeted area

• (b) A weapon that on bursting, releases carcinogenic Persistent Organic pollutants on a huge scale over a small area

• (c) A weapon that uses nuclear fission reaction to cause the damage

• (d) A weapon that uses atmospheric oxygen to fuel an explosion

Solution: D

• Thermobaric Weapons are the ones that use oxygen from the atmosphere to fuel an explosion. • A thermobaric bomb or vacuum aerosol bomb consists of a fuel container with two separate explosive charges; • These can be launched as a rocket or dropped as a bomb from aircraft • When it hits its target, the first explosive charge opens the container and widely scatters fuel mixture as a cloud; this cloud can penetrate any buildings, openings or defences that are not totally sealed • A second charge then detonates the cloud resulting in a huge fire Ball, a massive blast wave and a vacuum which sucks up all the surrounding oxygen. • It can destroy buildings, equipments and kill or injure people. Hence option D is correct

Solution: D

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes “PresVu,” recently approved by the Drug Controller General of India (DCGI)? (a) A vaccine developed to prevent age-related macular degeneration in elderly patients (b) A dietary supplement formulated to improve night vision in patients with glaucoma (c) An eye drop containing pilocarpine to temporarily improve near vision in individuals with presbyopia (d) A surgical gel used in cataract operations to reduce postoperative inflammation Correct Solution: C PresVu – Eye Drop for Presbyopia • PresVu is an eye drop developed by Mumbai-based Entod Pharmaceuticals and approved by the Drug Controller General of India (DCGI) in 2024. It is designed to reduce dependency on reading glasses among individuals suffering from presbyopia, a condition associated with aging that affects the eye’s ability to focus on nearby objects. • The active ingredient in PresVu is pilocarpine, which works by contracting the iris muscles, thereby improving near vision temporarily. (Hence, option C is correct) • It uses advanced buffer technology to maintain long-term safety and consistent efficacy. • Effect duration: The effects of PresVu typically last for 4 to 6 hours, requiring daily use for continued benefit. • Side effects include eye itching, redness, and occasional eye spasms. • Although approved, marketing of PresVu was later suspended by the DCGI due to unauthorized and misleading claims, highlighting regulatory oversight in drug promotion. https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/eye-drops-for-presbyopia-pharma-firm-meets-drug-controller-general-of-india-issues-clarification/article68686202.ece Incorrect Solution: C PresVu – Eye Drop for Presbyopia • PresVu is an eye drop developed by Mumbai-based Entod Pharmaceuticals and approved by the Drug Controller General of India (DCGI) in 2024. It is designed to reduce dependency on reading glasses among individuals suffering from presbyopia, a condition associated with aging that affects the eye’s ability to focus on nearby objects. • The active ingredient in PresVu is pilocarpine, which works by contracting the iris muscles, thereby improving near vision temporarily. (Hence, option C is correct) • It uses advanced buffer technology to maintain long-term safety and consistent efficacy. • Effect duration: The effects of PresVu typically last for 4 to 6 hours, requiring daily use for continued benefit. • Side effects include eye itching, redness, and occasional eye spasms. • Although approved, marketing of PresVu was later suspended by the DCGI due to unauthorized and misleading claims, highlighting regulatory oversight in drug promotion. https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/eye-drops-for-presbyopia-pharma-firm-meets-drug-controller-general-of-india-issues-clarification/article68686202.ece

#### 21. Question

Which of the following best describes “PresVu,” recently approved by the Drug Controller General of India (DCGI)?

• (a) A vaccine developed to prevent age-related macular degeneration in elderly patients

• (b) A dietary supplement formulated to improve night vision in patients with glaucoma

• (c) An eye drop containing pilocarpine to temporarily improve near vision in individuals with presbyopia

• (d) A surgical gel used in cataract operations to reduce postoperative inflammation

Solution: C

PresVu – Eye Drop for Presbyopia • PresVu is an eye drop developed by Mumbai-based Entod Pharmaceuticals and approved by the Drug Controller General of India (DCGI) in 2024. It is designed to reduce dependency on reading glasses among individuals suffering from presbyopia, a condition associated with aging that affects the eye’s ability to focus on nearby objects. • The active ingredient in PresVu is pilocarpine, which works by contracting the iris muscles, thereby improving near vision temporarily. (Hence, option C is correct) • It uses advanced buffer technology to maintain long-term safety and consistent efficacy. • Effect duration: The effects of PresVu typically last for 4 to 6 hours, requiring daily use for continued benefit. • Side effects include eye itching, redness, and occasional eye spasms. • Although approved, marketing of PresVu was later suspended by the DCGI due to unauthorized and misleading claims, highlighting regulatory oversight in drug promotion.

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/eye-drops-for-presbyopia-pharma-firm-meets-drug-controller-general-of-india-issues-clarification/article68686202.ece

Solution: C

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/eye-drops-for-presbyopia-pharma-firm-meets-drug-controller-general-of-india-issues-clarification/article68686202.ece

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Commission for Scientific and Technical Terminology (CSTT): 1. It plays a key role in promoting technical education in Indian languages through the development of standardized scientific and technical terms. 2. It functions under the Ministry of Science and Technology and is responsible for implementing AI-based language translation tools across all central universities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A Commission for Scientific and Technical Terminology (CSTT): • The CSTT was established in 1961 and functions as a statutory body under the Ministry of Education, not the Ministry of Science and Technology. It is tasked with the standardization of scientific and technical terms in Indian languages. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect) • One of its core objectives is to promote technical education in Indian languages in alignment with the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020. It does so by developing glossaries and dictionaries to facilitate the use of Indian languages in fields like engineering, medicine, and agriculture. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) • CSTT publishes bilingual, trilingual, and multilingual glossaries and journals such as Vigyan Garima Sindhu and Gyan Garima Sindhu to support educational and scientific communities. • The “Shabd” portal, launched in March 2024, hosts over 2.18 million headwords across 322 glossaries in disciplines like Humanities, Medical Sciences, Engineering, and Agriculture. • Although CSTT is exploring the use of Artificial Intelligence (AI) to accelerate terminology work in the future, it is not currently tasked with implementing AI-based translation tools across central universities. • CSTT also collaborates with various institutions to promote linguistic inclusivity in scientific and academic fields and is instrumental in reducing linguistic barriers in higher education. https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/govt-launches-website-with-technical-terms-in-22-official-indian-languages/article68626197.ece Incorrect Solution: A Commission for Scientific and Technical Terminology (CSTT): • The CSTT was established in 1961 and functions as a statutory body under the Ministry of Education, not the Ministry of Science and Technology. It is tasked with the standardization of scientific and technical terms in Indian languages. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect) • One of its core objectives is to promote technical education in Indian languages in alignment with the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020. It does so by developing glossaries and dictionaries to facilitate the use of Indian languages in fields like engineering, medicine, and agriculture. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) • CSTT publishes bilingual, trilingual, and multilingual glossaries and journals such as Vigyan Garima Sindhu and Gyan Garima Sindhu to support educational and scientific communities. • The “Shabd” portal, launched in March 2024, hosts over 2.18 million headwords across 322 glossaries in disciplines like Humanities, Medical Sciences, Engineering, and Agriculture. • Although CSTT is exploring the use of Artificial Intelligence (AI) to accelerate terminology work in the future, it is not currently tasked with implementing AI-based translation tools across central universities. • CSTT also collaborates with various institutions to promote linguistic inclusivity in scientific and academic fields and is instrumental in reducing linguistic barriers in higher education. https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/govt-launches-website-with-technical-terms-in-22-official-indian-languages/article68626197.ece

#### 22. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Commission for Scientific and Technical Terminology (CSTT): 1. It plays a key role in promoting technical education in Indian languages through the development of standardized scientific and technical terms. 2. It functions under the Ministry of Science and Technology and is responsible for implementing AI-based language translation tools across all central universities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

Commission for Scientific and Technical Terminology (CSTT): • The CSTT was established in 1961 and functions as a statutory body under the Ministry of Education, not the Ministry of Science and Technology. It is tasked with the standardization of scientific and technical terms in Indian languages. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect) • One of its core objectives is to promote technical education in Indian languages in alignment with the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020. It does so by developing glossaries and dictionaries to facilitate the use of Indian languages in fields like engineering, medicine, and agriculture. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) • CSTT publishes bilingual, trilingual, and multilingual glossaries and journals such as Vigyan Garima Sindhu and Gyan Garima Sindhu to support educational and scientific communities. • The “Shabd” portal, launched in March 2024, hosts over 2.18 million headwords across 322 glossaries in disciplines like Humanities, Medical Sciences, Engineering, and Agriculture. • Although CSTT is exploring the use of Artificial Intelligence (AI) to accelerate terminology work in the future, it is not currently tasked with implementing AI-based translation tools across central universities. • CSTT also collaborates with various institutions to promote linguistic inclusivity in scientific and academic fields and is instrumental in reducing linguistic barriers in higher education.

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/govt-launches-website-with-technical-terms-in-22-official-indian-languages/article68626197.ece

Solution: A

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/govt-launches-website-with-technical-terms-in-22-official-indian-languages/article68626197.ece

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Integrated Ocean Energy Atlas: 1. It has been developed by the Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS) to assess marine renewable energy potential in India’s Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ). 2. The Atlas provides data on conventional energy sources like offshore oil and gas along with wave and tidal energy. 3. The WebGIS interface of the Atlas allows access to energy estimates on annual, monthly, and daily timescales. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF) GFCF refers to the net increase in physical assets within an economy during a specific period, typically measured as the total value of a country’s investments in fixed assets like infrastructure, machinery, tools, equipment, and buildings. It is a key component of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) under the expenditure method and is used to assess how much of the new value added in the economy is being invested rather than consumed. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) GFCF is considered a measure of economic growth and development, as it reflects additions to the productive capacity of the economy. However, it is not the only determinant of GDP growth. GDP can grow even if GFCF falls, especially if other components like private consumption, government spending, or exports increase. Thus, a decline in GFCF does not necessarily imply a reduction in the GDP growth rate. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect) For example, in some years, GDP growth has remained positive despite weak investment trends, supported by strong consumption demand or public spending. https://indianexpress.com/article/business/world-bank-projects-india-grow-7-per-cent-fy25-9547718/ Incorrect Solution: C Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF) GFCF refers to the net increase in physical assets within an economy during a specific period, typically measured as the total value of a country’s investments in fixed assets like infrastructure, machinery, tools, equipment, and buildings. It is a key component of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) under the expenditure method and is used to assess how much of the new value added in the economy is being invested rather than consumed. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) GFCF is considered a measure of economic growth and development, as it reflects additions to the productive capacity of the economy. However, it is not the only determinant of GDP growth. GDP can grow even if GFCF falls, especially if other components like private consumption, government spending, or exports increase. Thus, a decline in GFCF does not necessarily imply a reduction in the GDP growth rate. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect) For example, in some years, GDP growth has remained positive despite weak investment trends, supported by strong consumption demand or public spending. https://indianexpress.com/article/business/world-bank-projects-india-grow-7-per-cent-fy25-9547718/

#### 23. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Integrated Ocean Energy Atlas: 1. It has been developed by the Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS) to assess marine renewable energy potential in India’s Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ). 2. The Atlas provides data on conventional energy sources like offshore oil and gas along with wave and tidal energy. 3. The WebGIS interface of the Atlas allows access to energy estimates on annual, monthly, and daily timescales. How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF)

• GFCF refers to the net increase in physical assets within an economy during a specific period, typically measured as the total value of a country’s investments in fixed assets like infrastructure, machinery, tools, equipment, and buildings.

• It is a key component of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) under the expenditure method and is used to assess how much of the new value added in the economy is being invested rather than consumed. (Hence, statement 1 is correct)

• GFCF is considered a measure of economic growth and development, as it reflects additions to the productive capacity of the economy. However, it is not the only determinant of GDP growth.

• GDP can grow even if GFCF falls, especially if other components like private consumption, government spending, or exports increase. Thus, a decline in GFCF does not necessarily imply a reduction in the GDP growth rate. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect)

• For example, in some years, GDP growth has remained positive despite weak investment trends, supported by strong consumption demand or public spending.

https://indianexpress.com/article/business/world-bank-projects-india-grow-7-per-cent-fy25-9547718/

Solution: C

Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF)

• GFCF is considered a measure of economic growth and development, as it reflects additions to the productive capacity of the economy. However, it is not the only determinant of GDP growth.

• For example, in some years, GDP growth has remained positive despite weak investment trends, supported by strong consumption demand or public spending.

https://indianexpress.com/article/business/world-bank-projects-india-grow-7-per-cent-fy25-9547718/

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Nanozymes: 1. Nanozymes are artificially engineered nanomaterials that mimic the catalytic activity of natural enzymes. 2. Unlike biological enzymes, nanozymes are highly unstable under varying temperature and pH conditions. 3. Nanozymes have potential applications in the treatment of diseases linked to oxidative stress, including cancer and neurodegenerative disorders. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Nanozymes: • Nature and Composition: o Nanozymes are nanomaterial-based artificial enzymes designed to mimic the catalytic activity of natural enzymes. o These materials can be metallic (e.g., gold, silver), metal oxides (e.g., iron oxide), carbon-based (e.g., graphene), or other nanoscale materials. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) • Stability and Functioning: o Unlike natural enzymes, nanozymes are highly stable across a broad range of temperatures and pH levels. o They offer additional advantages such as low cost, ease of mass production, high durability, and better recovery and recyclability. o Statement 2 incorrectly claims instability, which is contrary to one of the core strengths of nanozymes. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect) • Biomedical and Therapeutic Applications: o Nanozymes have shown immense promise in biomedical applications, especially in the treatment of diseases related to Reactive Oxygen Species (ROS) and oxidative stress. o They are being explored as therapeutics for cancer, neurodegenerative disorders (like Alzheimer’s and Parkinson’s), inflammatory diseases, as well as bacterial, fungal, and viral infections. (Hence, statement 3 is correct) https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/business-tech/how-nanozymes-are-revamping-collagen-based-biomaterials/article68670047.ece#:~:text=A%20CSIR%2DCLRI%20study%20has,enhance%20resistance%20to%20enzymatic%20degradation&text=Recreating%20the%20complex%20and%20precise,the%20formidable%20challenges%20in%20science. Incorrect Solution: B Nanozymes: • Nature and Composition: o Nanozymes are nanomaterial-based artificial enzymes designed to mimic the catalytic activity of natural enzymes. o These materials can be metallic (e.g., gold, silver), metal oxides (e.g., iron oxide), carbon-based (e.g., graphene), or other nanoscale materials. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) • Stability and Functioning: o Unlike natural enzymes, nanozymes are highly stable across a broad range of temperatures and pH levels. o They offer additional advantages such as low cost, ease of mass production, high durability, and better recovery and recyclability. o Statement 2 incorrectly claims instability, which is contrary to one of the core strengths of nanozymes. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect) • Biomedical and Therapeutic Applications: o Nanozymes have shown immense promise in biomedical applications, especially in the treatment of diseases related to Reactive Oxygen Species (ROS) and oxidative stress. o They are being explored as therapeutics for cancer, neurodegenerative disorders (like Alzheimer’s and Parkinson’s), inflammatory diseases, as well as bacterial, fungal, and viral infections. (Hence, statement 3 is correct) https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/business-tech/how-nanozymes-are-revamping-collagen-based-biomaterials/article68670047.ece#:~:text=A%20CSIR%2DCLRI%20study%20has,enhance%20resistance%20to%20enzymatic%20degradation&text=Recreating%20the%20complex%20and%20precise,the%20formidable%20challenges%20in%20science.

#### 24. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Nanozymes: 1. Nanozymes are artificially engineered nanomaterials that mimic the catalytic activity of natural enzymes. 2. Unlike biological enzymes, nanozymes are highly unstable under varying temperature and pH conditions. 3. Nanozymes have potential applications in the treatment of diseases linked to oxidative stress, including cancer and neurodegenerative disorders. How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Nanozymes: • Nature and Composition: o Nanozymes are nanomaterial-based artificial enzymes designed to mimic the catalytic activity of natural enzymes. o These materials can be metallic (e.g., gold, silver), metal oxides (e.g., iron oxide), carbon-based (e.g., graphene), or other nanoscale materials. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) • Stability and Functioning: o Unlike natural enzymes, nanozymes are highly stable across a broad range of temperatures and pH levels. o They offer additional advantages such as low cost, ease of mass production, high durability, and better recovery and recyclability. o Statement 2 incorrectly claims instability, which is contrary to one of the core strengths of nanozymes. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect) • Biomedical and Therapeutic Applications: o Nanozymes have shown immense promise in biomedical applications, especially in the treatment of diseases related to Reactive Oxygen Species (ROS) and oxidative stress. o They are being explored as therapeutics for cancer, neurodegenerative disorders (like Alzheimer’s and Parkinson’s), inflammatory diseases, as well as bacterial, fungal, and viral infections. (Hence, statement 3 is correct)

https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/business-tech/how-nanozymes-are-revamping-collagen-based-biomaterials/article68670047.ece#:~:text=A%20CSIR%2DCLRI%20study%20has,enhance%20resistance%20to%20enzymatic%20degradation&text=Recreating%20the%20complex%20and%20precise,the%20formidable%20challenges%20in%20science.

Solution: B

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Nipah Virus (NiV): 1. Nipah virus is a zoonotic RNA virus belonging to the Paramyxoviridae family. 2. The virus is primarily harboured by fruit bats and can spill over to humans through direct contact or contaminated food. 3. A licensed vaccine is currently available for humans to prevent Nipah virus infection. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Nipah Virus (NiV): • Zoonotic Nature: Nipah virus is a zoonotic virus, meaning it spreads from animals to humans. It can also transmit through contaminated food or directly between humans. • Virology: It is an RNA virus from the family Paramyxoviridae, genus Henipavirus. It is closely related to the Hendra virus. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) • Natural Reservoir & Transmission: Fruit bats of the genus Pteropus are considered the natural reservoir of the virus. The virus spreads through bat urine, feces, saliva, and birthing fluids. Spillover can occur via contaminated fruit, palm sap, or direct contact with infected animals or humans. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) • Animal Hosts: Initially appeared in domestic animals including pigs, dogs, cats, goats, and horses. • Symptoms in Humans: Causes acute respiratory illness and fatal encephalitis. Symptoms include fever, headache, drowsiness, confusion, and coma. • Fatality: The case fatality rate ranges between 40% and 75%. • Diagnosis: Diagnosed using RT-PCR and ELISA tests. • Prevention: No licensed vaccine is available for either humans or animals. Management is limited to supportive care. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect) • Global Priority: The World Health Organization (WHO) has identified Nipah virus as a priority disease for research due to its epidemic potential. Incorrect Solution: B Nipah Virus (NiV): • Zoonotic Nature: Nipah virus is a zoonotic virus, meaning it spreads from animals to humans. It can also transmit through contaminated food or directly between humans. • Virology: It is an RNA virus from the family Paramyxoviridae, genus Henipavirus. It is closely related to the Hendra virus. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) • Natural Reservoir & Transmission: Fruit bats of the genus Pteropus are considered the natural reservoir of the virus. The virus spreads through bat urine, feces, saliva, and birthing fluids. Spillover can occur via contaminated fruit, palm sap, or direct contact with infected animals or humans. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) • Animal Hosts: Initially appeared in domestic animals including pigs, dogs, cats, goats, and horses. • Symptoms in Humans: Causes acute respiratory illness and fatal encephalitis. Symptoms include fever, headache, drowsiness, confusion, and coma. • Fatality: The case fatality rate ranges between 40% and 75%. • Diagnosis: Diagnosed using RT-PCR and ELISA tests. • Prevention: No licensed vaccine is available for either humans or animals. Management is limited to supportive care. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect) • Global Priority: The World Health Organization (WHO) has identified Nipah virus as a priority disease for research due to its epidemic potential.

#### 25. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Nipah Virus (NiV): 1. Nipah virus is a zoonotic RNA virus belonging to the Paramyxoviridae family. 2. The virus is primarily harboured by fruit bats and can spill over to humans through direct contact or contaminated food. 3. A licensed vaccine is currently available for humans to prevent Nipah virus infection. How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Nipah Virus (NiV): • Zoonotic Nature: Nipah virus is a zoonotic virus, meaning it spreads from animals to humans. It can also transmit through contaminated food or directly between humans. • Virology: It is an RNA virus from the family Paramyxoviridae, genus Henipavirus. It is closely related to the Hendra virus. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) • Natural Reservoir & Transmission: Fruit bats of the genus Pteropus are considered the natural reservoir of the virus. The virus spreads through bat urine, feces, saliva, and birthing fluids. Spillover can occur via contaminated fruit, palm sap, or direct contact with infected animals or humans. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) • Animal Hosts: Initially appeared in domestic animals including pigs, dogs, cats, goats, and horses. • Symptoms in Humans: Causes acute respiratory illness and fatal encephalitis. Symptoms include fever, headache, drowsiness, confusion, and coma. • Fatality: The case fatality rate ranges between 40% and 75%. • Diagnosis: Diagnosed using RT-PCR and ELISA tests. • Prevention: No licensed vaccine is available for either humans or animals. Management is limited to supportive care. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect) • Global Priority: The World Health Organization (WHO) has identified Nipah virus as a priority disease for research due to its epidemic potential.

Solution: B

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points 26. Some geneticists believe that if an average Greek from 1,000 BC were transported to modern times, he or she would be one of the brightest among us. They say that our intellectual prowess has probably been sliding south since the invention of farming and the rise of high-density living that it allowed. In the past, when our ancestors faced the harsh realities of a hunter-gatherer lifestyle, the punishment for stupidity was more often than not death. And so, enormous evolutionary pressure bore down on early humans, selecting out the dimwits, and raising the intellect of the survivors’ descendants. But this is not the case today. A hunter-gatherer who did not correctly conceive a solution to providing food or shelter probably died, along with his or her progeny, whereas a modern Wall Street executive who made a similar conceptual mistake would receive a substantial bonus and be a more attractive mate. ________. a. Clearly, human intelligence has stagnated b. Clearly, extreme selection is a thing of the past. c. Surprisingly, we are intellectually fragile. d. This evolutionary pressure must be necessary to maintain human intelligence. Correct Correct Option : B Justification : Basically, the question demands the students to recognize the logical conclusion, that can be supported by the paragraph. Option A is incorrect: Read the statement, “they say that our intellectual prowess has probably been sliding south since the invention of farming…” Option B is correct: The paragraph says that in the past selection played a major role in the survival of the human species. But today with changing lifestyles it is not the case. Option B sums up the argument by saying that extreme selection is a thing of the past Option C is a general statement that has little relevance here. Option D is extreme and doesn’t fit the concluding sentence. Question Level: Moderate Incorrect Correct Option : B Justification : Basically, the question demands the students to recognize the logical conclusion, that can be supported by the paragraph. Option A is incorrect: Read the statement, “they say that our intellectual prowess has probably been sliding south since the invention of farming…” Option B is correct: The paragraph says that in the past selection played a major role in the survival of the human species. But today with changing lifestyles it is not the case. Option B sums up the argument by saying that extreme selection is a thing of the past Option C is a general statement that has little relevance here. Option D is extreme and doesn’t fit the concluding sentence. Question Level: Moderate

#### 26. Question

1.Some geneticists believe that if an average Greek from 1,000 BC were transported to modern times, he or she would be one of the brightest among us. They say that our intellectual prowess has probably been sliding south since the invention of farming and the rise of high-density living that it allowed. In the past, when our ancestors faced the harsh realities of a hunter-gatherer lifestyle, the punishment for stupidity was more often than not death. And so, enormous evolutionary pressure bore down on early humans, selecting out the dimwits, and raising the intellect of the survivors’ descendants. But this is not the case today. A hunter-gatherer who did not correctly conceive a solution to providing food or shelter probably died, along with his or her progeny, whereas a modern Wall Street executive who made a similar conceptual mistake would receive a substantial bonus and be a more attractive mate. ________.

• a. Clearly, human intelligence has stagnated

• b. Clearly, extreme selection is a thing of the past.

• c. Surprisingly, we are intellectually fragile.

• d. This evolutionary pressure must be necessary to maintain human intelligence.

Correct Option : B

Justification : Basically, the question demands the students to recognize the logical conclusion, that can be supported by the paragraph. Option A is incorrect: Read the statement, “they say that our intellectual prowess has probably been sliding south since the invention of farming…” Option B is correct: The paragraph says that in the past selection played a major role in the survival of the human species. But today with changing lifestyles it is not the case. Option B sums up the argument by saying that extreme selection is a thing of the past Option C is a general statement that has little relevance here. Option D is extreme and doesn’t fit the concluding sentence. Question Level: Moderate

Correct Option : B

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points A man ‘s average expenditure for first 10 days of a month (of 30 days) is Rs. 800 per day. His average expenditure decreases by 30% for next 10 days and it then decreases by 15% of this reduced expenditure for the last 10 days. What is his average expenditure for the whole month? a. Rs. 559 b. Rs. 633 c. Rs. 612 d. Rs. 566 Correct Correct Option : C Justification : The average expenditure for first 10 days = Rs. 800. For next 10 days it decreases by 30%, so the average expenditure for next 10 days = 800 X 70/100 = Rs. 560 And for last 10 days it further decreases by another 15%, so the average expenditure for the last 10 days = 560 x 85/100 = Rs. 476 Here, the number of days whose average is taken is equal to 10 days in all the three cases. Thus, we can simply take the average of these three averages to find the final average for the whole month. So, average expenditure for the whole month = (800 + 560 + 476)/3 = 1836/3 = Rs. 612 Question Level: Moderate Incorrect Correct Option : C Justification : The average expenditure for first 10 days = Rs. 800. For next 10 days it decreases by 30%, so the average expenditure for next 10 days = 800 X 70/100 = Rs. 560 And for last 10 days it further decreases by another 15%, so the average expenditure for the last 10 days = 560 x 85/100 = Rs. 476 Here, the number of days whose average is taken is equal to 10 days in all the three cases. Thus, we can simply take the average of these three averages to find the final average for the whole month. So, average expenditure for the whole month = (800 + 560 + 476)/3 = 1836/3 = Rs. 612 Question Level: Moderate

#### 27. Question

A man ‘s average expenditure for first 10 days of a month (of 30 days) is Rs. 800 per day. His average expenditure decreases by 30% for next 10 days and it then decreases by 15% of this reduced expenditure for the last 10 days. What is his average expenditure for the whole month?

• a. Rs. 559

• b. Rs. 633

• c. Rs. 612

• d. Rs. 566

Correct Option : C

Justification : The average expenditure for first 10 days = Rs. 800. For next 10 days it decreases by 30%, so the average expenditure for next 10 days = 800 X 70/100 = Rs. 560 And for last 10 days it further decreases by another 15%, so the average expenditure for the last 10 days = 560 x 85/100 = Rs. 476 Here, the number of days whose average is taken is equal to 10 days in all the three cases. Thus, we can simply take the average of these three averages to find the final average for the whole month. So, average expenditure for the whole month = (800 + 560 + 476)/3 = 1836/3 = Rs. 612 Question Level: Moderate

Correct Option : C

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points Average age of employees working in Bank is 30 years. Next year, 10 workers will retire. What will be the average age next year? Statement I: There are 90 employees in bank. Statement II: Retirement age is 60 years. a. If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question. b. If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question. c. If the data given in both I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question. d. If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question. Correct Correct Option : D Justification : Total age now = 9030 =2700 ….. (Using I) Total age of outgoing people next year =6010=600 ……..(Using II) New total age of remaining 80 people next year = 2700 -600 +80 =2180 Average = 2180/80 So, both statements required to answer Question Level: Moderate Incorrect Correct Option : D Justification : Total age now = 9030 =2700 ….. (Using I) Total age of outgoing people next year =6010=600 ……..(Using II) New total age of remaining 80 people next year = 2700 -600 +80 =2180 Average = 2180/80 So, both statements required to answer Question Level: Moderate

#### 28. Question

Average age of employees working in Bank is 30 years. Next year, 10 workers will retire. What will be the average age next year? Statement I: There are 90 employees in bank. Statement II: Retirement age is 60 years.

• a. If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.

• b. If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

• c. If the data given in both I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

• d. If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Correct Option : D

Justification : Total age now = 9030 =2700 ….. (Using I) Total age of outgoing people next year =6010=600 ……..(Using II) New total age of remaining 80 people next year = 2700 -600 +80 =2180 Average = 2180/80 So, both statements required to answer Question Level: Moderate

Correct Option : D

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points The table shows the number of marks secured by each student in different subjects. The marks are out of total 150 marks in each subject. Some values are missing in the table. To answer each question, refer to data in table and respective question. Student/ Subject English Maths Physics Chemistry Biology Statistics (150)(150)(150)(150)(150)(150) Ravi ___ 140 ___ 120 ___ 140 Pavi ___ ___ 115 126 140 ___ Suresh 80 ___ 64 100 ___ 120 Ramesh ___ 150 120 ___ ___ 130 Geeta 88 ___ ___ 112 ___ 142 Sita 104 132 138 ___ 132 ___ Pavi’s marks in Statistics equals to 50% of the marks scored by herself in Biology while Sita’s Marks in Statistics is 10 less than the marks scored by herself in Physics. Then what is the average marks scored by students in Statistics? a. 112.3 b. 121.7 c. 184.5 d. 162.4 Correct Correct Option : B Justification : Pavi’s marks in Statistics = 50% of 140 = 70 Sita’s Marks in Statistics = 138 – 10 = 128 Average = (140 + 70 + 120 + 130 + 142 + 128)/6 Question Level: Moderate Incorrect Correct Option : B Justification : Pavi’s marks in Statistics = 50% of 140 = 70 Sita’s Marks in Statistics = 138 – 10 = 128 Average = (140 + 70 + 120 + 130 + 142 + 128)/6 Question Level: Moderate

#### 29. Question

Correct Option : B

Justification : Pavi’s marks in Statistics = 50% of 140 = 70 Sita’s Marks in Statistics = 138 – 10 = 128 Average = (140 + 70 + 120 + 130 + 142 + 128)/6 Question Level: Moderate

Correct Option : B

Justification : Pavi’s marks in Statistics = 50% of 140 = 70 Sita’s Marks in Statistics = 138 – 10 = 128 Average = (140 + 70 + 120 + 130 + 142 + 128)/6 Question Level: Moderate

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points In how many ways 2 different numbers can be chosen using the numbers between 0 and 180 (both inclusive) so that 60 is their average? a. 50 b. 60 c. 80 d. None of these Correct Correct Option : B Justification : Answer B) 60 Let x and y be 2 numbers such that x+y2=60⇒x+y=120 x and y both cant be equal to or greater than 60 (Since 60 cant be used twice) let 0≤x≤59 and 61≤y≤120 The total number of ways in which x can be chose n = 60 C1 =60 ways and the value of y depends on the value of x and there will be only one value of y corresponding to a value of x. Therefore, total number of ways in which the numbers can be formed = 60. Question Level: Moderate Incorrect Correct Option : B Justification : Answer B) 60 Let x and y be 2 numbers such that x+y2=60⇒x+y=120 x and y both cant be equal to or greater than 60 (Since 60 cant be used twice) let 0≤x≤59 and 61≤y≤120 The total number of ways in which x can be chose n = 60 C1 =60 ways and the value of y depends on the value of x and there will be only one value of y corresponding to a value of x. Therefore, total number of ways in which the numbers can be formed = 60. Question Level: Moderate

#### 30. Question

In how many ways 2 different numbers can be chosen using the numbers between 0 and 180 (both inclusive) so that 60 is their average?

• d. None of these

Correct Option : B

Justification : Answer B) 60 Let x and y be 2 numbers such that x+y2=60⇒x+y=120 x and y both cant be equal to or greater than 60 (Since 60 cant be used twice) let 0≤x≤59 and 61≤y≤120 The total number of ways in which x can be chose n = 60 C1 =60 ways and the value of y depends on the value of x and there will be only one value of y corresponding to a value of x. Therefore, total number of ways in which the numbers can be formed = 60. Question Level: Moderate